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MODEL QUESTION BANK ON ESTABLISHMENT MATTERS INDEX

BILLS........................................................................................................................................3 Model Questions (Multiple choice type: correct answers underlined)...................................3 Q79 Amongst the following, who are eligible to get Night Duty Allowance .....................13 D&A Rules...............................................................................................................................17 MAN POWER PLANNING....................................................................................................22 SUITABILITY TEST..............................................................................................................27 SELECTION...........................................................................................................................30 PAY FIXATION......................................................................................................................33 ADVANCES............................................................................................................................38 APPOINTMENT ON COMPASSIONATE GROUND.........................................................40 Qn.10.......................................................................................................................................41 Qn.11.......................................................................................................................................41 Qn.12.......................................................................................................................................41 Qn.13.......................................................................................................................................41 Qn.14.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.15.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.16.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.17.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.18.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.19.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.20.......................................................................................................................................42 Qn.21.......................................................................................................................................43 Qn.22.......................................................................................................................................43 Qn.23.......................................................................................................................................43 Qn.24.......................................................................................................................................43 Qn.25.......................................................................................................................................43 Qn.26.......................................................................................................................................43 Qn.27.......................................................................................................................................44 Qn.28.......................................................................................................................................44 Qn.29.......................................................................................................................................44 Qn.30.......................................................................................................................................44 Qn.31.......................................................................................................................................44 Qn.32.......................................................................................................................................44 Qn.33.......................................................................................................................................45

Qn.34.......................................................................................................................................45 Qn.35.......................................................................................................................................45 Qn.36.......................................................................................................................................45 Qn.37.......................................................................................................................................45 Qn.38.......................................................................................................................................45 Qn.39.......................................................................................................................................45 Qn.40.......................................................................................................................................46 Qn.41.......................................................................................................................................46 Qn.42.......................................................................................................................................46 Qn.43.......................................................................................................................................46 Indents/Recruitment................................................................................................................47 (a)Chief Personnel Officer.....................................................................................................47 Answer: 1(c)S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.95/2001)..........................................................................47 Answer: 7(b) (RBE No.29/2004 & S.E.Rlys .48/2004)........................................................48 Answer: 10(a) (RBE No.254/98 & S.E.Rlys Estt. Srl.No.281/98)........................................48 PASS RULES..........................................................................................................................53 NEW PENSION SCHEME....................................................................................................57 SAFETY RELATED RETIREMENT SCHEME..................................................................59 COMPULSORY RETIREMENT...........................................................................................61 SC/ST/OBC RESERVATION POLICY.................................................................................65 TRAINING..............................................................................................................................78 D&A RULES...........................................................................................................................86 LEAVE RULES.....................................................................................................................108 PASS RULES........................................................................................................................117 Answer: 3 sets per year.........................................................................................................117 Answer: (a) Rule 9................................................................................................................118 Answer: (a) Schedule VII, Rule XVIII................................................................................122 STAFF WELFARE & EDUCATIONAL FACILITIES.....................................................123

BILLS Model Questions (Multiple choice type: correct answers underlined) Q1 The period of one month for which monthly salary is drawn is called a) b) c) d) Q2 Monthly salary Wage period Assumed Attendance Monthly period

Allowance granted to compensate high cost of living based on the rise of price index is called a) b) c) d) Interim Relief Dearness Pay Dearness Allowance (R 1303) Special Compensatory Allowance

Q3

Which is currently the base year for granting dearness allowance a) b) c) d) 1982 1960 1996 1986

Q4

To draw monthly salary, which attendance is taken into account a) b) c) d) Actual attendance Assumed attendance Both the above None of the above

Q5

During suspension, dearness allowance is drawn on the basis of a) b) c) d) Subsistence allowance Substantive pay No dearness allowance is drawn Half of the original DA rate

Q6

Dearness Pay has been introduced in 5th CPC scale w.e.f. a) b) c) d) 1.1.2004 1.4.2004 1.3.2004 1.6.2004

Q7

What percentage of existing DA rated is converted to Dearness Pay a) b) c) d) 55% 52% 49% 50%

Q8

What is the allowance called which is granted to Railway employees to enable them to meet the high cost of living in certain especially costly cities in India

a) b) c) d) Q9

HRA (House Rent Allowance) CCA (City Compensatory Allowance) SCA (Special Compensatory Allowance) Transport Allowance

What is the maximum rate of CCA in an A1 Class City a) b) c) d) Rs.100/Rs.200/Rs.300/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.400/-

Q10

What is the maximum and minimum rate of CCA in A Class Cities a) b) c) d) 240 200 150 250 and and and and 65 90 50 80 respectively (RBE 140/97) respectively respectively respectively

Q11

What is the amount of CCA for an employee having basic pay below Rs.3000/- in an A1 Class City a) b) c) d) Rs.90/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.75/Rs.100/Rs.80/-

Q12

What is the amount of CCA for an employee whose basic pay and D.Pay is from Rs.3000/- p.m. to Rs.4499/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.120/Rs.150/Rs.125/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.130/-

Q13

What percentage of Dearness Pay is included for drawal of other allowances a) b) c) d) 50% 100% 75% 40%

Q14

What is the amount of CCA for the range of basic pay and D.Pay from Rs.4500/p.m. to Rs.5999/- p.m. in an A1 Class City a) b) c) d) Rs.250/Rs.230/Rs.175/Rs.200/- (RBE 140/97)

Q15

What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a A Class City where basic pay & D.Pay does not cross Rs.3000/a) b) c) d) Rs.60/Rs.70/Rs.65/Rs.55/-

Q16

What is the rate of CCA in an A class city where pay and D.Pay is from 3000-4499 p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.95/Rs.100/Rs.90/Rs.110/-

Q17

What is the rate of CCA in an A class city where pay and D.Pay is from 4500-5999 p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.140/Rs.160/Rs.150/Rs.175/-

Q18

What is the rate of CCA in an A class city where pay and D.Pay is above Rs.6000/p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.250/Rs.240/Rs.230/Rs.220/-

Q19

What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a B Class City where basic pay & D.Pay is less than Rs.3000/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.50/Rs.45/Rs.40/Rs.60/-

Q20

What is the rate of CCA in a B1 class city where pay and D.Pay is between Rs.3000/- and Rs.4499/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.65/Rs.60/Rs.70/Rs.75/-

Q21

What is the rate of CCA in a B1 class city where pay and D.Pay is in between Rs.4500/- and Rs.5999/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.105/Rs.110/Rs.100/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.95/-

Q22

What is the rate of CCA in a B1 class city where pay and D.Pay is above Rs.6000/p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.180/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.200/Rs.175/Rs.190/-

Q23

What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a B2 Class City where basic pay & D.Pay is less than Rs.3000/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.30/Rs.25/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.35/Rs.20/-

Q24

What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a B2 Class City where basic pay and D.Pay is between Rs.3000/- and Rs.4500/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.40/Rs.45/Rs.30/Rs.35/- (RBE 140/97)

Q25

What is the rate of CCA in a B2 class city where pay and D.Pay is in between Rs.4500/- and Rs.5999/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.60/Rs.65/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.70/Rs.75/-

Q26

What is the rate of CCA in a B2 class city where pay and D.Pay is more than Rs.6000/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Rs.120/- (RBE 140/97) Rs.100/Rs.125/Rs.115/-

Q27

What is the name of allowances given to a railway employee to meet the higher rent they have to pay for private accommodation for non-availability of railway accommodation a) b) c) d) Special Allowance House Rent Allowance Special Compensatory Allowance Marginalized Rent Allowance

Q28

What is the condition for drawing HRA in favour of employees who are living in their own house a) They are not eligible to get HRA b) They should furnish a certificate that they are paying income tax c) They should furnish a certificate that they are paying/contributing towards house/property tax (R II 1706) d) They are living in a house which is at least 25 km away from his working place

Q29

What is the rate of CCA to an employee in an unclassified city a) b) c) d) 5% of Pay and D.Pay 5% of pay only No CCA is given (RBE 140/97) 2% of Pay and D.Pay

Q30

What is the rate of HRA in an A-1 class city a) b) c) d) 25% 20% 35% 30% of of of of Pay Pay Pay Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97)

Q31

What is the rate of HRA in an A class city a) b) c) d) 20% of Pay and D.Pay 15% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) 25% of Pay and D.Pay 22.5% of Pay and D.Pay

Q32

What is the rate of HRA in B-1 and B-2 class cities a) 15% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) b) 12.5% of Pay and D.Pay c) 10% of Pay and D.Pay d) 7.5% of Pay and D.Pay What is the rate of HRA in a C class city a) b) c) d) 10% of Pay and D.Pay 7.5% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) 12.5% of Pay and D.Pay 8% of Pay and D.Pay

Q33

Q34

What is the rate of HRA to an employee in an unclassified city a) b) c) d) 7% of Pay and D.Pay No HRA is drawn 5% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) 6% of Pay and D.Pay

Q35

During leave without pay, how many days HRA and CCA can be drawn in favour of an employee a) b) c) d) 120 150 160 180 days days days days (RBs lr.No.E(P&A)II 89/HRA/48 dt.07.08.92)

Q36

When a railway employee is on extraordinary leave, for how many days HRA and CCA can be drawn in favour of him a) b) c) d) 180 135 160 120 days days days days

Q37

In which of the following circumstances, HRA can be drawn in favour of an employee a) He/she lives in his/her daughters accommodation allotted by Govt but he incurs payment for rent b) He/she lives in his/her own house but does not incur any expenditure on house or property tax

c) He/she lives in his/her brothers accommodation provided by Govt. and incurs expenditure for rent (RBs lr.No.E(P&A)II/89/HRA/1 dt.02.02.90) d) He/she lives in his/her sons accommodation provided by Govt. Q38 Which element does not constitute leave salary on retirement a) b) c) d) Q39 D.Pay HRA & CCA D.A. Pay

At what rate can HRA and CCA be drawn when an employee is on suspension a) b) c) d) At the rate of subsistence allowance At the rate the employee was drawing before being placed on suspension No HRA and CCA is admissible 75% of the rate the employee was drawing before being placed on suspension

Q40

For how many days an employee is entitled to draw HRA & CCA during study leave a) 180 days b) 150 days c) 135 days d) 120 days (RBs lr.No.E(P&A)II/90/CCA-1 dt. 01.03.90) What is the rate of Transport Allowance in a A-1/A Class City in scale Rs.800013500/- and above a) b) c) d) Rs.1000/Rs.800/Rs.600/Rs.400/-

Q41

Q42

What is the rate of Transport Allowance in other than A-1/A Class City in scale Rs.8000-13500/- and above a) b) c) d) Rs.400/Rs.600/Rs.500/Rs.300/-

Q43

What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in scale Rs.6500-10500/- or above but below Rs.8000-13500/- in A-1/A class city a) b) c) d) Rs.600/Rs.500/Rs.400/Rs.300/-

Q44

What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in scale Rs.6500-10500/- or above but below Rs.8000-13500/- in other places a) b) c) d) Rs.200/Rs.250/Rs.300/Rs.150/-

Q45

What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay below scale Rs.6500-10500/- in A-1/A class city -

a) b) c) d) Q46

Rs.150/Rs.175/Rs.100/Rs.125/-

What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay below scale Rs.6500-10500/- in other cities than A-1/A class city a) b) c) d) Rs.100/Rs.90/Rs.60/Rs.75/-

Q47

What is the rate of Transport Allowance to the handicapped railway employees who does not use railway vehicles a) b) c) d) Rs.10% of pay Double the normal rate of Transport allowance No changes Rs.1000/- to all

Q48

To be eligible for drawal of Travelling Allowance, what is the minimum distance a railway employee has to travel beyond his place of work ? a) 12 kms b) 10 kms c) 8 kms d) 9 kms To get minimum rate of TA, i.e. 100%, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ a) b) c) d) 14 hrs 12 hrs 10 hrs 7 hrs

Q49

Q50

To get 70% of TA, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ a) b) c) d) 7 5 6 4 hrs hrs hrs hrs

Q51

The daily allowance/TA for continuous halt at a place may be drawn at full rate upto how many days a) b) c) d) 120 days 150 days 135 days 180 days

Q52

The total amount of conveyance charge for a particular day shall not exceed what a) b) c) One days TA rate Rs.500 Rs.100

d) Q53

One months Transport allowance rate

What is the maximum no. of months for which HRA can be drawn in favour of a Govt. servant on transfer to another station who has been permitted to retain Govt. accommodation in the old station a) b) c) d) 4 months 8 months 6 months 12 months

Q54

In case where no specific rate has been prescribed either by the Director of Transport or the concerned State, what is the rate of taxi hire charges per km a) b) c) d) Rs.8 per km Rs.7 per km Rs.7.50 per km Rs.6 per km

Q55

In case where no specific rate has been prescribed either by the Director of Transport or the concerned State, what is the rate of auto rickshaw hire charges per km a) b) c) d) Rs.6 Rs.5 Rs.4 Rs.3 per per per per km km km km

Q56

What is the maximum days for which TA/DA can be drawn on a temporary transfer a) b) c) d) 150 180 200 170 days days days days

Q57

What is the percentage of TA/DA eligible to a staff deputed to attend a training course where the course fee includes the cost of boarding and lodging or the boarding and lodging is borne by the railway administration a) b) c) d) 100% of normal TA/DA rate 50% of normal TA/DA rate 20% of normal TA/DA rate 40% of normal TA/DA rate

Q58

What is the name of allowance drawn in favour of a railway employee on transfer to meet the expenses for shifting of luggage and family members a) b) c) d) Transfer and Packing Allowance Transfer Advance Composite Transfer Grant (CTG) Transportation charges

Q59

What is the maximum amount of composite transfer grant that can be sanctioned in case of transfer from one station to another where the distance is beyond 20 kms a) Rs.10000/-

b) c) d) Q60

One months gross salary One months pay One months pay and D.Pay

What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services after 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal belongings including a car on transfer a) b) c) d) 75% 60% 50% 80% of of of of pay and D.Pay pay and D.Pay pay and D.Pay pay and D.Pay

Q61

What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services after 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal belongings but no car is carried a) b) c) d) 75% 60% 50% 90% of of of of pay pay pay pay and D.Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay

Q62

What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services prior to 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal effects on transfer ? a) b) c) d) 85% 90% 80% 75% of of of of pay pay pay pay and D.Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay and D.Pay

Q63

What is the rate of CTG admissible for transfer within the same city/short distance transfer within the distance of 20 kms a) b) c) d) of Pay and D.Pay th of pay and D.Pay 75% of Pay and D.Pay 1/3rd of Pay and D.Pay

Q64

Amongst the following categories, who are not eligible for Night Duty Allowance a) b) c) d) Excluded Intensive Continuous Essentially Intermittent

Q65

What is the rate of weightage for every hour of night duty a) b) c) d) 20 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes

Q66

Working between which hours shall qualify for payment of Night Duty Allownace a) b) c) 22 to 06 hrs 24 to 06 hrs 23 to 06 hrs

d) Q67

01 to 06 hrs

Nursing staff of railway hospitals are not eligible to get which of the following allowances a) b) c) d) Nursing allowance Washing allowance Night Duty allowance Uniform allowance

Q68

What is the rate of Nursing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff a) b) c) d) Rs.1500/- p.m. Rs.1000/- p.m. Rs.1700/- p.m. Rs.1600/- p.m.

Q69

What is the rate of the uniform allowance admissible to a nursing staff a) b) c) d) Rs.2500/- p.m. Rs.3000/- p.m. Rs.2000/- p.m. Rs.2300/- p.m.

Q70

What is the rate of Washing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff a) b) c) d) Rs.175/- p.m. Rs.200/- p.m. Rs.150/- p.m. Rs.125/- p.m.

Q71

What is the allowance given to a railway officer holding a permanent post taking charge of another post in addition to his own post a) b) c) d) Charge allowance Dual Charge allowance Additional allowance Extra Duty allowance

Q72

What is the rate of dual charge allowance a) b) c) d) 20% 30% 10% 25% of of of of existing pay, DP, DA pay only pay, DP, DA pay and DA

Q73

What is the minimum days for which a dual charge allowance can be granted a) b) c) d) 60 45 50 30 days days days days

Q74

What is the allowance given to Telegraph Signaller when they clear 100 messages and for Teleprinter Operators 200 messages a) b) Telegraph allowance Outturn allowance

c) d) Q75

Teleprinter allowance Extra Duty allowance

What is the allowance drawn in favour of Railway Doctors to compensate for not practicing privately a) b) c) d) Doctor Allowance Special Medical Allowance Non-practicing Allowance Extra Facility Allowance

Q76

What is the quantum of non-practicing allowance drawn in favour of Doctors a) 25% of Basic Pay and other allowances depending on pay (RBs lr.No.F(E) Spl-89Adv dt.05.10.89) b) 25% if Pay & DA only c) Rs.2000/- p.m. d) 25% of Pay, D.Pay and DA only

Q77

Non-gazetted rly.servant who do not enjoy public holidays are granted a) b) c) d) Special Holiday Allowance Compensatory Holiday Allowance National Holiday Allowance No allowance is given

Q78

What is the maximum basic pay upto which National Holiday Allowance can be drawn a) b) c) d) Rs.10000/- p.m. Rs.9750/- p.m. Rs.10300/- p.m. Rs.10500/- p.m. (RBE 151/98)

Q79 Amongst the following, who are eligible to get Night Duty Allowance a) b) c) d) Q80 Group C Workshop staff Group D Workshop staff Supervisory workshop staff working on regular shift duty All the above

Amongst the following, who are eligible to get washing allowance a) b) c) d) All Group D staff Group D staff who are provided with uniform Group C staff provided with uniform None of the above

Q81

Project allowance is given for fulfilling which of the following conditions a) b) c) d) The project should be a large scale project The construction is spread over a number of years The staff who are employed in the project must reside within the project area or nearby locality All of the above

Q82

Which allowance is sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is posted in a development block in Tribal plan area of some specific state

a) b) c) d) Q83

Special Area Allowance Tribal Area Allowance Development Area Allowance Extra Duty Allowance

What is the name of the allowance sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is posted in remote areas in different states and Union Territories listed as per a, b, c & d a) b) c) d) Special Compensatory (Remote Locality) Allowance Far Area Allowance Extraordinary Allowance Extra Compensatory Allowance

Q84

What are the elements taken into account for drawal of overtime allowance for the railway employees who are governed by the Factories Act a) b) c) d) Pay Pay Pay Pay + + + + D.Pay + DA + HRA + CCA D.Pay + DA + CCA DA + HRA + CCA D.Pay + DA + HRA

Q85

Which of the following elements is not taken into account for drawal of overtime allowance for a railway employee governed by HOER ? a) b) c) d) D.Pay DA HRA CCA

Q86

When a rly.servant works on a temporary basis in other Govt. Department, Company, Corporation, provided the transfer is outside the normal field of deployment, he is entitled to get a) b) c) d) Extra Duty Allowance Charge Allowance Dual Charge Allowance Deputation Allowance

Q87

The rate of deputation allowance as admissible when the transfer is within the same station is a) b) c) d) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.500/5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.500/7.5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-

Q88

The rate of deputation allowance when the transfer is outside the same station is a) b) c) d) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1500/12.5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1250/-

Q89

Which scheme is intended to provide substantial motivation towards achievement of higher productivity

a) b) c) d) Q90

Awards PLB Honorarium Special benefits

How many days a casual labour or an employee having temporary status or substitute has to work to qualify for PLB a) b) c) d) 180 days 150 days 120 days 90 days

Q91

What is the maximum wage taken into account for drawal of PLB a) b) c) d) Rs.1600/- p.m. Rs.2000/- p.m. Rs.2500/- p.m. Rs.2800/- p.m.

Q92

Under what circumstances, HRA can be drawn in favour of a transferred railway servant who is still in occupation of railway accommodation in his earlier station of posting a) b) c) d) If he has permission to retain the said quarter He is eligible to get HRA irrespective of any permission He is paying the rent for quarter in market rate He is not eligible to get any HRA

Q93

What is the rate of HRA admissible to a transferred railway servant who is in occupation of a railway quarter in his old station but no permission has been taken for retention of the said quarters a) b) c) d) 50% of HRA admissible in the new station No HRA is admissible in this case Rs.500/- p.m. None of the above

Q94

What is the name of the document issued by the salary bill compiling officer in favour of the staff transferred from the jurisdiction of one account to another and for those who retire from railway service showing details of the salary drawn and amount recovered in the last month of service a) b) c) d) Pay Certificate Salary particulars Last Pay Certificate (LPC) CO7

Q95

What is the new computerised package introduced in South Eastern Railway for drawal of salary a) b) c) d) AFRES COBOL PRIME LINUX

Q96

What is the full form of PRIME

a) b) c) d) Q97

Pay Related Independent Module Pay Rate Insertion Module Practical Relationship of Individual Module None of the above

What is the allowance drawn in favour of a Gazetted Officer when he is posted to look after duties of his Senior Scale a) b) c) d) Gazetted Officer Allowance Extra Duty Allowance Special Duty Allowance Charge Allowance

Q98

What is the amount of Charge Allowance a) b) c) d) Rs.1000/- p.m. The amount he should get if he is posted in the higher scale in regular post subject to Rs.700/- as maximum 20% of pay 15% of pay

Q99

What are the other allowances admissible on Charge Allowance a) b) c) d) All the other allowances DA and D.Pay only No other allowance HRA and CCA only

D&A Rules RS(D&A) RULES 1) Which of the following Rules of D& A R1968 does specify the Penalties? a) Rule 9 b) Rule 11 c) Rule 6 d) Rule 5 2) Rule 9 of the R.S.(D &A) Rules 68 deals with the procedure for. a) Suspension b) Imposing of minor penalties c) Imposing of Major penalties d) Appeal 3) Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of Deemed Suspension? a) S.F-1 b) S.F.-3 c) S.F-2 d) S.F-5 4) Which of the following is not a penalty under S (D & A) Rules 68? a) Censure b) Withholding of promotion c) Compulsory retirement d) Suspension 5) Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance? a) House rent b) Court attachment c) Income Tax d) Station debits 6) Whether withholding of passes and PTOs should be for a specific period or for a number of set? a) For a specific period b) For number of sets c) Both d) None of these (Bds No. E (D&A) 61 RG-6-34 Dt. 27-7-61 & E (D&A) 67 RG-6-57 Dt. 14-12-66. 7) Minimum period of withholding of increment a) 2 months b) 3 months c) 4 months d) 6 months (CPO/GRCs E.S.No.282/89) 8) A serving Rly. Servant can act as defense council in ..

a) 5 cases b) 3 cases c) 2 cases d) 4 cases 9) A retired railway servant is allowed to act as defense counsel in D&A proceedings for not more than a) 3 cases b) 5 cases c) 7 cases d) None (ES No. 80/03) 10) What is the relevant rule in RS(D&A) ules 1968 for common proceedings ? a) Rule 9 b) Rule 11 c) Rule 13 d) Rule 14 11) Who is the appointing authority when the records are not available in respect of actual appointing authority ? a) Rly. Board b) GM c) PHOD d) DRM/CWM (ES No.188/82) 12) Who will impose Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissal from service ? a) Controlling officer b) Disciplinary authority c) Appointing authority d) None (ES: 34/86) 13) Reduction to a lower stage in a time-scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years without cumulative effect and not adversely effecting his pension comes under a) Major penalty b) Minor penalty c) Neither Major not Minor penalty d) None (ES: 03/91) 14) Delinquent employee should be informed if charge sheet is dropped within a period of a) 45 days b) 01 year c) 02 months d) 03 months (ES: 213/66) 15) Disciplinary authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably pass

a) Order for penalty b) Speaking order c) Order of the Enquiring Officer impose a penalty d) None (ES: 90/92) 16) Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS(D&A) Rules 1968 ? a) President of India b) Ministry of Railways c) Director Establishment d) Secretary Railway Board 17) The Railway Servants D&A rules 1968 came into force w.e.from a) 01.10.1968 b) 01.01.1968 c) 01.11.1968 d) 01.04.1968 (Rule 1 of DAR 1968) 18) Under the provisions of which article of the commission of India RS(D&A) rules have been amended from time to time ? a) Article 310 b) Article 311 c) Article 309 d) Article 421 19) Casual labour can be governed under D&A Rules a) After 4 months from engagement date b) After 6 months from engagement date c) After attaining temporary status d) After regular absorption (RBs No.E/NG/60/CL/13 dated 13.5.1965) 20) Who is competent to sign the notice of final penalty? a) Controlling Officer b) Enquiry Officer c) Disciplinary authority d) Appointing authority (ES: 11/68) 21) What is the time limit for submission of appeal under D&A Rules 1968? a) 45 days b) 35 days c) 25 days d) 55 days (Rule 20 of RS(D&A) Rules 1968) 22) Consideration of appeal is governed by ____ of RS(D&A) Rules 1968. a) Rule 25 b) Rule 10

c) Rule 22 d) Rule 24 23) Which are the following authorities is empowered to order for cut in pension to a retired railway servant as a measure of penalty followed by DAR proceedings? a) President b) GM c) Prime Minister d) DRM/CWM (ES No. 38/2003) 24) How many numbers of Annexures are there in a major penalty charge memorandum ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 25) While DAR is normally applicable to every railway servant, certain class of persons working on railways is expressly exempted which one of the following is not exempted? a) A member of RPF as defined in RPF Act, 1957 b) A member of all India service c) A person in casual employment d) A casual labour with temporary status working on railways. 26) Forwarding of inquiry officers report is a must where an enquiry has been held before imposing penalty. a) No b) Reasonable opportunity has already been given c) Yes d) None (E S: No. 289/89) 27) Suspension is not a punishment. However, suspension visits employee with various disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension? a) All the privilege passes cannot be availed b) During the period, he cannot leave head quarter without permission of the DA c) He need not sign the attendance register d) No increment is drawn during the suspension period (ES: No. 119/83) 28) What for S F-7 is issued? a) To issue major charge sheet b) For placing an employee under suspension c) For revocation of suspension d) For Appointment of inquiry officer. 29) In a disciplinary case while under suspension, the railway servant after a disciplinary inquiry is awarded a minor penalty only, the period of suspension is to be treated as

a) Suspension only b) Leave at his credit c) Duty d) none (ES: 90/86) 30) How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against a railway employee under DAR68? a) One b) Five c) eleven d) Twelve

MAN POWER PLANNING 1. Q. (a) (b) (c) Q. (a) (b) (c) What is vacancy Bank? Where vacancies are kept. International Bank of United Nations. Money value of surrendered post. Ans:(c) Authority: E(MPP)96/1/15 dated 26.06.96. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted Divisional Control posts. PHOD HOD DRM Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No.248/98 Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted HQ Control & Workshops (a) (b) (c) NO. 172/98 4. Q. (a) (b) (c) What is the surrender value for creation of Division controlled posts? 50% more 25% more 100% more Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE PHOD CWM GM Ans: (c) Authority:

2.

3. posts.

E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No.248/98, RBE

NO. 172/98

5. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Boards vacancy Bank for creation of HQ controlled and Workshops posts? (a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 25% Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE NO. 172/98 6. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Boards vacancy Bank for creation of Divl. controlled posts? (a) 25% (b) 75% (c) 50% Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98, Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE NO. 172/98 7. What is the method of calculation for surrender and creation of posts? Pay Pay + DA Mean Pay+DP+DA Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)96/1/15/Pt. dated 30.09.2004, Estt. No. 225/04, RBE No. 214/2004 8. Q. Who is empowered to create operational posts, posts required to meet statutory requirement as also required for Security and Vigilance Department? (a) GM (b) DRM (c) Rly. Board, subject to the approval of GM. Q. (a) (b) (c)

126/91.

Ans: (c) Authority:

E(NG)II/91/PO/Genl/ 2 dated 24.06.91, Estt. No.

9. Q. When the cost of staff is released from private parties, who will provide the matching surrender for the said creation? (a) From HQ Staff Bank (b) Railway revenue (c) Private party. Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)90EC2-7 Dated 06.04.92, Estt. Srl. No. 82/92. 10. Q. When the cost of staff is released from private parties, the surrender value can be utilised for creation of posts by the Railways? (a) Yes (b) Crediting in the Staff Bank. (c) No Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)90EC2-7 Dated 06.04.92, Estt. Srl. No. 82/92. 11. Q. (a) (b) (c) What is the intake ratio of manpower? of the retirement 1/4th of the retirement 1/3rd of the retirement Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/2003

12. Q. Which intake of manpower cannot be counted as a part of normal attrition for calculation of 1/3rd of retirement? (a) Appointment through RRB. (b) Appointment on Sports Quota. (c) Compassionate appointment. Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/2003 13. Q. (a) (b) (c) Whether the intake of manpower can be taken for Gr.-C & D? Only Gr.-C Only Gr.-D Together for Gr.-C & D Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/2003

14. Q. Whether resignation and transfer will be considered while calculating 1/3 rd of retirement for intake? (a) Only resignation will be counted. (b) Only transfer will be counted. (c) Both transfer & resignation will be counted. Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 15.03.2005, Estt. No.51/05. 15. Q. (a) (b) (c) Which categories are exempted from the purview of rightsizing? Ministerial Categories. Group-D categories. RPF categories Ans: (c) Authority:E(MPP)2002/1/83 Pt. dated 02.09.03, Estt. Srl. No.144/03 Except RPF Category, which categories are exempted from the purview of Group-D categories. Ministerial Categories. Safety categories Ans: (c) Authority:E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 10.09.03, Estt. Srl. No. 149/03. How surplus Staff are identified? The senior most of the employees

16. Q. rightsizing? (a) (b) (c) 17. Q. (a)

(b) (c) 18. Q. (a) (b) (c) Q. (a) (b) (c)

The employee who retired shortly. The junior most of the employees Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91 What is the procedure for dealing with vacant surplus posts having DR quota? Kept frozen Transfer to other Units. Surrendered Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No. 221/00 What is the procedure for dealing with manned surplus posts? Transfer to other Units. Surrender Staff profile and redeployment plan should be drawn Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 What procedure is to be adopted for redeployment of surplus staff retiring

19.

20. Q. shortly? (a) (b) (c)

At the other station in any deptt. At the other station. At the same station in any deptt. Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 21. Q. Staff who retiring shortly and can not be redeployed at same station what procedure will be followed? (a) Posts should be frozen. (b) Posts should be transferred to other Units. (c) Staff should be placed against Special Supernumerary posts. Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 22. Q. What procedure is to be adopted for redeployment of surplus staff in grade Rs.2550-3200/(a) Within any grade of group-D in accepting department. (b) In the next higher grade of the accepting department. (c) In the same grade of the accepting department. Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 23. Q. What is the procedure for training of surplus staff other than in grade Rs.2550-3200/-? (a) Not to be retrained before redeployment (b) Retrained after redeployment (c) Retrained before redeployment Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 24. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff against posts having element of DRQ other than the grade Rs.2550-3200/-? (a) Posted in any grade (b) Posted in the net higher grade (c) Posted in the same grade Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 25. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff where direct recruitment vacancies in the same grade are not available? (a) After creation of the special supernumerary post (b) Redeployed against DPQ. (c) Accepting deptt. along with the post Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 26. Q. What is the time limit prescribed for completing the process of redeployment of surplus staff in the case of grades having element of DRQ. (a) Two months (b) Six months (c) Four months Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00

27. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff working in intermediate grades. (a) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post before training (b) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post without training (c) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post after training Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 28. Q. What is the time limit prescribed for completing the process of redeployment in the case of surplus staff in intermediate grades? (a) Four months (b) Two months (c) Six months Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 29. Q. What is the procedure to be followed for dealing with surplus staff found unfit for re-deployment after training? (a) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training (b) Re-deployed in the accepting dept. along with the post. (c) Placed against special supernumerary posts Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 30. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment in case of small number of staff? (a) Merged with bottom seniority (b) Seniority will be fixed as per date of appointment (c) Merged with full seniority Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 31. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment to new Units in case of large number of staff? (a) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training (b) Merged with bottom seniority (c) Full seniority irrespective of educational qualification Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 32. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment to existing Units in case of large number of staff? (a) Full seniority irrespective of educational qualification (b) Seniority will be fixed as per date of appointment (c) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00 33. Q. Whether pay and allowances will be admissible to surplus staff undergoing re-deployment training (a) NO (b) Only pay (c) Yes Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91 34. Q. vacant posts (a) (b) (c) 35. Q. higher grade (a) (b) (c) What is the procedure to accommodate the staff rendered surplus where are not available? Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training Re-deployed in the accepting dept. along with the post. To create special supernumerary posts Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91 Fixation of pay of RRB recruited staff rendered Surplus appointed from a to lower grade or equivalent alternative posts. Pay will be fixed as per normal rule. Personal pay equal to the appropriate number of increment. Increments equal to the number of years Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91

36. Q. Fixation of pay of the RRB recruited staff appointed to an alternative post carrying an identical time scale (a) Increments equal to the number of years (b) Completed years of service in the higher posts. (c) Pay should be fixed under the normal rules. Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91

SUITABILITY TEST Q 1. Who is the competent authority to decide the classification of posts as Nonselection in each Department? a) b) c) d) Ans: Q2. GM HOD Rly. Board DRM

c) (para 210-212 of IREM 1989) A suitability test should held at the interval which should not be less then:a) b) c) d) 4 months 6 months 12 months 15 months.

Ans: Q3.

b) (Estt.Srl.No. 16/64) The period of 6 months for holding a fresh suitability test is reckoned from :a) b) c) d) The date of assessment of vacancy The date of announcement of the previous result After completion of promotion order None of these

Ans: Q4.

b) (Para 5 of IREM 89) How many Officers are required for holding a departmental suitability test? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4 a) In case of suitability test, the vacancies are to calculated on the basis of :a) Existing vacancy b) Anticipated vacancy c) Resultant vacancy d) All of the above

Ans: Q5.

Ans: Q6.

d) (Estt.Srl.No. 51/98) In case of suitability test, anticipated vacancies will be taken into account for the:a) b) c) d) Next Next Next Next 4 months 6 months 12 months 15 months

Ans: Q7.

b) (Estt.Srl.No. 51/92) In case of Trade test, anticipated vacancy will be taken into account for the :-

a) b) c) d) Ans: Q8.

Next Next Next Next

4 months 6 months 12 months 15 months

a) (Estt.Srl.No. 144/96) What is the number of staff to be called for appearing in Suitability/Trade test for Promotion to non-selection post in Gr.C category? a) b) c) d) 3 times the number of vacancies 5 times the number of vacancies Equal to the number of vacancies None of the above

Ans: Q9.

c) (Estt. Srl.No. 51/98) Non selection posts are filled by promotion of staff on the basis of:a) b) c) d) Seniority Suitability Seniority-cum-Suitability None of these

Ans: Q10.

c) Continuity suitability test will be done within:a) 4 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d)15 months

Ans:

b) (Estt.Srl.No. 160/80)

Q11. What period of service in the lower grade is required for promotion in Gr.C post (Non-safety Category) ? a) b) c) d) Ans: Q12. 1 2 3 4 year years years years

b) (Estt.Srl.No. 183/87) The condition of 2 years service should stand fulfilled a)At the time of actual promotion b)At the stage of consideration c)At the stage of appearing the suitability test d)None of these a) (Estt.Srl.No. 200/98) Modified suitability will be held on the basis of a) Written test b) Viva-voce c)Written test and Viva-voce d)Service record and confidential reports/working report

Ans: Q13.

Ans:

d) (Estt.Srl.No. 4/04)

Q14. How many marks are to be obtained in a suitability test against an unreserved vacancy ? a) b) c) d) Ans: Q15. 40 % 50% 60% 80%

b) (Estt.Srl.No. 83/63) How many marks are to be obtained in a suitability test against a reserved vacancy? a) b) c) d) 40 % 50% 60% 80%

Ans:

a) (Estt.Srl.No. 41/70)

SELECTION Q1. Who is the authority to declare a post as selection or non-selection? a)GM b)PHOD c)Rly.Board d)DRM Ans: c) para 212 of IREM89

Q2. How many members will be there in a Selection Board for forming a panel in selection posts? a)5 b)3 c)4 d)1 Ans: Q3. b) Para 218(a) of IREM In case of selection post, the vacancy will be calculated on the basis of a) Existing vacancy b) Anticipated vacancy c) Resultant vacancy d) All of the above Ans: Q4. d) Para 215 (f) of IREM89 In case of selection, anticipated vacancy will be taken into account for the:a) b) c) d) Ans: Q5. Next Next Next Next 4 months 6 months 12 months 15 months

d) (Estt.Srl.No.160/97) What number of staff are to be called in a selection of Gr C post? a) b) c) d) Equal to the number of vacancy 3 times the number of vacancy 5 times the number of vacancy None of the above

Ans: Q6.

b) (Estt.Srl.No.290/76) Modified selection will be held on the basis of:a) Written test b) Viva-voce c) Written test and Viva-voce d) Service record and confidential report

Ans: -2-

d) (Estt.Srl.No. 4/04)

Q7. An employee belonging to general community must secure how many marks for becoming eligible to be empanelled? a) 30 marks out of 50 for professional ability b) Over all 50 marks out of 100 c) Over all 40 marks out of 100 d) 60% in overall aggregate including 60% in professional ability and viva-voce Ans: Q8. d) Second supplementary selection may be held with the personal approval of :a) CPO b) DRM c) GM d) Rly.Board Ans: Q9. a) (Estt.Srl.No.181/86) A panel once approved may be cancelled after obtaining the approval of:a) Selection Board b) Authority who approved the panel c) Authority next higher than one who approved the panel d) GM Ans: Q10. c) (Estt.Srl.No.32/69) What percentages of marks are to be obtained in the selection for being declared outstanding? a) 50% b) 60% c) 80% d) 70% Ans: Q11. c) An employee belonging to reserved community must secure how many marks for becoming eligible to be empanelled against reserved vacancy? a) 25 marks out of 50 for professional ability b) Over all 60 marks out of 100 c) Over all 40 marks out of 100 d) 50% in overall aggregate Ans: d)

Q12. The life of a selection panel is:a) b) c) d) Ans: 6 months 1 year 2 years None of these

c) para 220 of IREM89

Q13. In selection posts if the required number of staff of reserved community against reserved posts is not available even by applying relaxed standards of examination, the best among the failed candidates, who secure only ____ % of the marks under each of items of judging the suitability of the candidates, will be promoted on adhoc basis with in-service training. a) b) c) d) Ans : 10% 15% 20% 25%

c) (Estt.Srl.No.230/85)

PAY FIXATION Q1. How many pay commission have been getting to Central Govt. employee. a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5 d)

Ans:

Q2. When a staff is appointed in as clerk in scale Rs.3050-4590 which rate of pay will be given as general case? a) Rs.3050/b) Rs.3200/c) Rs.3350/d) Rs.3875/Ans: a) Q3. A Rly. Employee is working in scale Rs.3050-4590 and drawing pay @ Rs.4430/subsequently he promoted in scale Rs.4500-7000/- what pay will be fixed in normal procedure. a) Rs.4625/b) Rs.4500/c) Rs.5000/d) Rs.4825/Ans: a)

Q4. For fixation of pay on promotion how many days are required for completion of service? a) 30 days b) 20 days c) 22 days d)15 days Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 267/69)

Q5. What % of pay will be added to the basic pay of a running staff parentally posted in a Non- running post? a) 30% b) 40% c) 20% d) None of these Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No. 133/87 & 45/64)

Q.6 How many Rs.(minimum) to be added to pay in the lower grade before fixing the pay in the higher post on promotion : a) Rs.75/b) Rs.100/c) Rs.80/d) None of these Ans. b) (Estt.Srl.No. 264/99)

Q7. A Rly. Employee submitted an option for fixation of pay on promotion from the date of increment in the lower grade. This will be applicable w.e.f. a) 1.2.81 b) 1.5.81

c) 1.1.82 d) None of these Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No. 231/81)

Q8. Senior employee will get stepping up of pay vis-a-vis junior so promoted if the junior: a) Promoted on regular post on regular measure b) Promoted on ad-hoc basis c) Promoted in an ex-cadre post d) None of these Ans: a)

Q9. If a junior employee promoted to higher post and submitted an option for fixation of pay w.e.f the date of increment, senior employee will be given a) Stepping up of pay b) Antedate c) Neither stepping up nor antedate Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 118/82)

Q10. Stagnation increment should be taken into account for purpose of fixation of pay on promotion w.e.f. a) 30.9.92 b) 30.9.93 c) 30.9.94 d) 30.9.95 Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No. 143/93,206/93 & 2/94)

Q11. A employee is working in a cadre post; subsequently he is transferred on promotion against Ex-cadre post. Thereafter he has been promoted further in higher grade against ex-cadre Post his pay will be fixed on the basis of : a) From ex-cadre to ex-cadre b) From cadre to ex-cadre c) None of these Ans; b) (Estt.Srl.No. 14/86)

Q.12. Senior was promoted without Spl. pay of Rs.70/- but junior was promoted with Spl. pay of Rs.70/- senior will given a) Stepping of pay b) Same pay at per with junior c) None of these Ans: Q13. c) (Estt.Srl.No. 274/88,158/90) The stagnation increment for an employee will count for a) DA,HRA & CCA b) Pensionery benefits c) Fixation of pay on promotion d) All of the above d) (Estt.Srl.No. 26/91)

Ans:

Q14. No Rly. Servant will become eligible for the 1 st stagnation increment in the revised scale (RSRPR97) of pay before:

a) 1.1.96 b) 1.1.97 c) 1.1.98 d) 1.1.99 Ans: c)

Q15. A person is appointed in sports quota in scale Rs.2550-55-3200/-in maximum pay. His pay will be fixed in: a) Rs.3200/b) Rs.3145/c) Rs.3090/d) Rs.2960/Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No.128/2000)

Q16. A person is appointed against sports quota in scale Rs.3050-75-3890-80-4590/-in maximum pay. His pay will be fixed in: a) Rs.4590/b) Rs.4430/c) Rs.4270/d) Rs.3875/Ans: Q17. d) Estt.Srl.No.128/2000) Benefits of 2nd pay commission of Central Govt Employee were implemented from: a)1.1.58 b)1.7.59 c)1.7.58 d)1.1.59 Ans: Q18. b) Initial yearly increment in the grade of Rs.2550-3200/- is: a) Rs.45/b) Rs.50/c) Rs.55/d) Rs.60/c) (RSRPR97) What is the initial yearly increment in the grade Rs.2610-3540/- ? a) Rs.50/b) Rs.60/c) Rs.65/d) Rs.70/Ans. b) (RSRPR97)

Ans: -4Q19.

Q20. Which of the following amount is the initial yearly increment in the grade 26504000? a) Rs.65/b) Rs.70/c) Rs.75/-

d) Rs.80/Ans: Q21. a) (RSRPR97) In the grade of Rs.2750-4400/- initial yearly increment is: a) Rs.65/b) Rs.70/c) Rs.80/d) Rs.75/Ans: Q22. b) (RSRPR97) RSRPR97 took effect from: a) 1.1.97 b) 1.7.97 c) 1.1.96 d) 1.7.96 Ans Q23. c) Which is the highest basic pay emphasized in RSRPR97? a) Rs.30,000/b) Rs.28,800/c) Rs.28,000/d) Rs.26,000/Ans: Q24. d) (RSRPR97) What is the initial increment in scale Rs.3050-4590/- ? a) Rs.55/b) Rs.65/c) Rs.75/d) Rs.80/Ans: c) (RSRPR97)

Q25. A person appointed in Sports Quota having gold medal winning performance in Senior National Level in scale Rs.3050-4590/-. His pay will be fixed in: a) Rs.4590/b) Rs.5000/c) Rs.3875/d) Rs.4350/Ans: c) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q.26. What will be the fixation of pay of a person having medal winning performance in Olympic games and appointed in scale Rs.6500-10500/-? a) Rs.6500/b) Rs.8100/c) Rs.9500/d) Rs.10500/-

Ans:

b) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000) for outstanding

Q27. In Scale Rs.4500-7000/- in Talent Scouting recruitment performance, fixation of pay permitted upto maximum of: a) Rs.4625/b) Rs.4750/c) Rs.4875/d) Rs.5000/Ans: c) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q28. How many increment(s) will be given to an employee for gold medal winning performance during the National Championship? a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2 Ans: d) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q29. Who is the advising authority for granting increment for Excellence at National Level? a) GM b) Finance Commissioner c) Railway Board d) None of the above Ans: c) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q30. What will be the fixation of pay at initial recruitment in scale Rs.5500-9000/- of a person having consistent gold medal winning performance in Senior International meets on more than two occasions and also consistent gold medal winning performance at Senior National Level? a) Rs.9000/b) Rs.8125/c) Rs.7075/d) Rs.6375/Ans: d) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

ADVANCES 1. Who is the authority to grant the advance for purchase of convenience? a) HOD b) JAG Office c) Sr. Scale Officer Answer: a) HOD (ES No.57/2000) d) Jr. Scale/Gr. B

2. Which Ministry does control the House Building Advance? a) Railways b) Urban affairs and employment c) Pensioners and Public welfare d) Rural development Answer: (b) Urban affairs and employment

(ES No.57/2000)

3. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of bicycle? a) 4.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 7.5% Answer: b) 5.5% (ES No.186/2004) 4. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of motor car? a) 11.5% b) 8.5% c) 9.5% d) 7.5% Answer: a) 11.5% (ES No.186/2004) 5. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of House Building Advance for amount upto Rs.1, 50,000/- ? a) 4.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 7.5% Answer: c) 6.5% (ES No.85/2003) 6. Final withdrawal of PF Advance is granted to an employee whose basic pay is _______ a) Rs.8300/b) Rs.10000/c) Rs.10500/d) Rs.12000/Answer: c) Rs.10500/- (ES No.90/98) 7. For drawal of composite transfer grant 50% of dearness pay has been merged with basic pay w.e.from _____ a) 01.01.1996 b) 01.01.2004 c) 01.04.2004 d) 01.12.2004 Answer: c) 01.04.2004 8. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of motor cycle / scooter / moped? a) 7.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 8% Answer: d) 8% (ES No.186/2004)

9. What is the pay limit and the amount of advance for purchase of a motor car? a) Rs.10500 & Rs.180000 b) Rs.11500 & Rs.160000 c) Rs.12000/- & Rs.170000 d) Rs.12500 & Rs.190000 Answer: a) Rs.10500 & Rs.180000 (ES No. ________) 10. Store advance is required to be debited to _____ a) Miscellaneous head b) Advance head c) Salary head d) None Answer: c) Salary head (Chapter XI of IRPM) 11. Rate of interest for SRPF for the year 2004-05 is _____ a) 7.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 8% Answer: d) 8% (ES No.202/2004) 12. What amount of advance will be granted to a Gr.B Officer in the event of natural calamity? a) Rs.5000 b) b) Rs.6000 c) c) Rs.10000 d) d) None Answer: d) None (ES No.84/98) 13. How much quantum of natural calamity advance is admissible to a non-gazetted railway employee? a) Rs.5000 b) Rs.4500 c) Rs.5500 d) Rs.6000 Answer: a) Rs. 5000 (ES No.________) 14. Non-gazetted who are in receipt of basic pay not exceeding Rs.is eligible for festival advance. 15. What is the pay limit and the amount of advance for purchase of a cycle? a) Rs.1400 & Rs.4500 b) Rs.1600 & Rs.5500 c) Rs.1800/d) Rs.1500 & Rs.5000 Answer: c) Rs.10500/- (ES No.90/98)

APPOINTMENT ON COMPASSIONATE GROUND Qn.1. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.2. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.3. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.4. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.5. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.6. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.7. a) The rule governing employment assistance on compassionate ground has framed w.e.f. 30.4.1993 30.4.1948 30.4.1979 30.4.1980 1.(c) [Authority: Boards letter No.E(NG)III/78/RC-1/1 dated:30.4.1979,(SEREsstt.Srl.No.163/79)] First consolidated instruction regarding appointment on compassionate ground was issued under Estt.Srl.No. 163/79 120/83 12/85 202/80 2. ( b ) [Authority: Boards letter No.E(NG)II/78/RC-1/1 dated:7.4.1983] The existing orders/circulates were consolidated into one Master Circular on the subject of appointment on compassionate ground was issued under:Master Circular No.13 Master Circular No.14 Master Circular No.15 Master Circular No.16 3. (d) Master Circular No.16 [Authority: Boards letter No.E(NG)II/90/RC1/117 dated:12.12.1990] For over looking the priority list, who is empower for appointment in Gr.D post. ADRM DRM CPO GM 4. ( c ), [Authority: Boards letter No. ENGIII/78/RC-III dated: 7.4.1983 (SER-Esstt.Srl. No. 120/83)] In case of appointment to Gr.C post sanction of which authority must be obtain to depart from the priority list. DRM CPO Departmental PHOD GM 5. (d ), [Authority: Boards letter No. ENGIII/78/RC-III dated: 7.4.1983 (SER-Estt.Srl. No.120/83)] Initially 5 yrs. time limit were to be relaxed up to 10 yrs. in death cases, with the approval of --DRM CPO Departmental PHOD GM 6. (d), (SER- Estt.Srl. No.106/85)] Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment of 1 st son/1st daughter, where request has been made after a period of 5 yrs. from the date of medical invalidation, (in respect of cases up to 20 yrs. old)? DRM

b) c) d) Ans. Qn.8. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.9. a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.10 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.11 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.12 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.13 a) b) c) d) Ans.

CPO AGM GM 7. (d) [Authority: Boards letter dated:28.7.2000 (SER- Estt.Srl. No.144/2000)]

No.

E(NG)II/98/RC-1/64

Who is empowered for compassionate appointment of other than 1 st son/1st daughter, where request has been made after a period of 5 yrs. from the date of death, (in respect of cases up to 20 yrs. old)? GM DRM AGM CPO 8. (a) [Authority: Boards letter No. dated: (SEREstt.Srl. No.146/2000)] Consideration of application submitted more than 2 yrs. after the candidate becoming major is done by ---Railway Board GM CPO DRM 9. (b) [Authority: Boards letter No. dated: (SER-Estt. Srl. No. 146/2000)] For recruitment to Gr.D post in the Railways, minimum educational qualification prescribed as Class-VIII pass has been effective from --4.10.98 4.11.98. 4.12.98 4.12.99 10.(c) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/98/RR-1/107 dated: 4.12.98.(RBE No. 277/98) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 18/99)] Which of the persons have been exempted from processing the educational qualification as Class-VIII pass for compassionate appointment in Gr.D post? Son of the ex-employee Daughter of the ex-employee Brother of the ex-employee Widow of the ex-employee 11. (b) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-1/139 dated:4.3.99. (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 68/99)] What is the upper age limit for recruitment in a Gr.C post? 25 yrs. 26 yrs. 28 yrs. 30 yrs. 12. (d)] Estt. Srl. No. 221/2004 The maximum age limit for appointment of Gr.D employees belonging to general community -28 yrs. 30 yrs. 33 yrs. 35 yrs. 13. (c) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated: 9.9.2004, ( RBE No.199/2004), (SER-Estt.Srl. No. 221/2004)]

Qn.14 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.15 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.16 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.17 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.18 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.19 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.20 a)

What is the Lower age limit for recruitment of a general candidate in Gr.C/D Category? 18 yrs. 20 yrs. 25 yrs. 30 yrs. 14. (a) IREM provision. Relaxation of lower age limits upto 1 yr. (i.e. 17 yrs.)for appointment in compassionate ground can be considered by ---GM CPO Railway Board DRM 15. (a) [Authority: Boards letter No. dated: (SEREstt.Srl. No. 120/83)] Relaxation of lower age limit beyond 1 yr. for appointment in compassionate ground will require the approval of --DRM GM Ministry of Railways CPO 16. (c) [Authority: Boards letter No. dated: ( SER.Estt.Srl. No. 120/83)] In making appointment on compassionate ground, who may relax age limit in case of appointment to Gr.D post? ADRM DRM CPO GM 17. (b) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/90/RC-1/117 dated: 12.12.1990, ( MG- 16 )] The candidate shall acquire the requisite qualification within a prescribed time limit of 2 yrs to get compassionate appointment, with the permission of CPO Deptt.HOD GM Railway Board 18. (d) (SER. Estt.Srl. No. 57/89)] While the employee, who is medically incapacitated or decategorised and retired from service, and has no son or daughter or son/daughter is minor, wife can get compassionate appointment with the approval of -DRM CPO Deptt.HOD GM 19. (b) (SER. Estt.Srl. No.228/84)] Married daughter can be given compassionate appointment as a matter of discretion and satisfaction that she would be act as a bread winner of the family by -DRM

b) c) d) Ans. Qn.21 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.22 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.23 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.24 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.25 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.26 a) b) c) d)

CPO GM Railway board 20. (c) [Authority: Boards letter dated:16.4.1987(SER-Estt.Srl. No.115/87)]

No.

E(NG)II/85/RC-1/10

Compassionate appointment to a dependant brother / sister of a railway employee dying as a bachelor/spinster can be offered by -Railway Board GM CPO DRM 21.(b) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/88/RC-1/Policy dated:4.9.96. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.5/97)] Wards / widows of the missing railway employees can get compassionate appointment with the permission of -GM Deptt. HOD CPO DRM 22.(a) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/97/RC-1/210 dated:26.7.98 (SER-Estt.Srl. No.289/98)] Adopted son / daughter can be considered for compassionate appointment with the approval of --Railway Board GM DRM CPO 23.( b ) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/96/RC-1/1/Policy, dated: 21.5.85 (SER- Estt.Srl. No.141/88)] Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment to Dependent divorced/widowed daughter, (similar to the case of married daughter) -CPO GM DRM Railway Board 24.(b) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/2001/RC-1/ER/5, dated:21.11.01 ( RBE No.224/2001), (SER- Estt.Srl. No.157/01)] Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment to the wards of missing railway employees up to 20 yrs. old case DRM GM CPO Railway board 25.(b) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/99/RC-1/SC/12 dated: 7.3.01. (SER-Estt.Srl. No.51/2001)] How many chances are given by GM to the widow to appear in the suitability test in case of compassionate appointment1st 2nd 3rd 4th

Ans. Qn.27 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.28 a) b) c) d) Ans.

26. (c) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/2001/RC-1/Genl/II, dated:21.9.01.(RBE No.192/01), (SER Estt.Srl. No.128/2001)] Compassionate appointment in favour of wife/eligible wards of the exemployee who are medically decategorised between 29.4.99 and 18.1.2000 but were retired after 18.1.2000 can be granted by -GM CPO DRM Railway Board 27. (a) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/2000/RC-1/Gen/17 dated:26.5.04. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.125/04) Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment in the clerical category? CPO Ministry of Railways GM DRM 28. (c) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/91/RR-1/20 dated: 10.3.92. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.60/92)] Compassionate appointment to the wards of CPC as Casual Staff as Casual Labour (fresh face) or as Substitute can be granted by Railway Board CPO DRM GM 29. (d) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/97/RC-1/22 dated: 01.4.97.(SER- Estt.Srl. No.91/97)] Which one of the following would not come within the categories of person eligible for compassionate appointment Brother-in-law Daughter Son Wife 30. (a) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/87/RC-1/152 dated: 19.10.87. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.73/91)] Compassionate appointment case will be considered to the wards of the missing employee before how many years of scheduled date of retirement from which he has been missing -Less than 1 year to retire Less than 2 year to retire Less than 3 year to retire Less than 4 year to retire 31. ( b ) Who is competent authority to exercise powers in regard to appointment of dependents of Gazetted Officers on compassionate grounds in Gr.C and D in the initial grade? CPO Railway Board DRM GM 32. (d ) (SER-Estt.Srl. No.120/83)]

Qn.29 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.30 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.31 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.32 a) b) c) d) Ans.

Qn.33 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.34 a) b) c) d) Ans.

In case of Gr.D post the power to make compassionate appointment is vested to DRM GM CPO Railway Board 33. (a ) (SER-Estt.Srl. No.163/79) Wards/Widow of a Casual Labour with temporary status can be considered for compassionate appointment at the discretion of -CPO Railway Board DRM GM 34. ( d ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No.94/87)

Qn.35 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.36 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.37 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.38 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.39 a) b) c) d)

Minimum educational qualification for compassionate appointment to the NTPC Category is -Graduate Degree Matriculation with 50% marks Passed in Matriculation Passed Class-VIII 35. ( c ) (CPOs letter dtd:23.10.92) Who is the competent authority to grant higher fixation of pay to a compassionate appointee? DRM GM CPO Railway Board 36. (d) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.266/83) The candidates applying for appointment on compassionate ground in a Gr.C post, suitability test should be adjudged by Sr. Scale Officers consists of-1 members 2 members 3 members 4 members 37.( c ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 274/89) The minimum qualification to the post of Skilled Artisan for the compassionate appointee is prescribed as -Class X pass with 3 yrs. training Class VIII pass with 3 yrs. training Dip. Holder with 3 yrs. training Class XII pass with 3 yrs. training 38.( a) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.127/2000) The 2nd wife and her child is considered for compassionate appointment on the following stipulation -2nd marriage has been done by own decision 2nd marriage done with the consent of 1st wife Administration have given permission for 2nd marriage 2nd marriage done without intimation of the Admn.

Ans. Qn.40 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.41 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.42 a) b) c) d) Ans. Qn.43 a) b) c) d) Ans.

39. ( c ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 20/92) Find the odd man out from the following in connection with the compassionate appointment: A declaration is necessary to maintain the family member A declaration is not necessary to maintain the family member Dependent family member kept on record Service will be terminated if the family members are neglected 40. ( b ) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.200/2000) Who is the competent authority to terminate the service of a compassionate appointee after giving Show Cause Notice for non-compliance of any condition of properly maintaining the dependent family member? Sr. DPOs Any JAG Officer GM/CPO Any Sr. Scale Officer 41.(c) (Esstt.Srl.No.47/2002, 20/2000) Who is the competent authority to monitor to set right the difficulties/delays in providing appointment on compassionate grounds at Divisional level DRMs ADRMs Sr.DPOs APOs 42. (c) [Authority: Boards letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-I/64/17 dt:30.7.02) ( P/Comp/Poly/Pt.VI, dtd: 26.12.2002) By whom, the difficulties/delays in providing appointment on compassionate grounds will be monitored at Hd.Qrts. level to set right? AGM DGM CPO CPO(A) 43.(d)

Indents/Recruitment 1. Indents against Direct Recruitment Quota for Group-C categories are Placed on :(a)Chief Personnel Officer (b)General Manager (c)Railway Recruitment Board (d) Divisional Railway Manager Answer: 1(c)S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.95/2001) 2. How many times indents for various Group-C posts are placed with Railway Recruitment Board in a year:(a)Two (b)three (c)four (d)five Answer: 2(a) RBE No.136/2001&S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.95/2001) 3. Currency of relaxation of 3 years upper age limit extended upto: (a) 03.8.2005 (b) 03.8.2004 (c) 03.8.2003 (d) 03.8.2002 Answer: 3(a) (RBE No.199/2004&S,.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No 221/2004) 4. Reservation Quota for candidates belonging to OBC :(a)15% (b)10% (c)7.5% (d)27% Answer: 4(d) (RBE No.234/2002 & S.E.Rlys Estt Srl.No.44/2003). 5. Educational Qualification for recruitment of Prob. Assistant Station Master against Direct Recruitment Quota is:(a) (b) (c) (d) Graduate Diploma Degree Higher Secondary

Answer: 5(a) Estt.Srl.No.41/2001) 6. What is the percentage for Direct Recruitment Quota of ASM:(a)25% (b)40% (c)60% (d)20% Answer: 5(a) S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.41/2001 7. Designation of Diesel/Electric Assistant in scale Rs.3050-4590 has been re-designated as:

(a)Assistant Driver(Diesel/Elect) (b)Asstt.Loco Pilot(Diesel/Elect) (c)Technician, Gr.III (d)Motorman Answer: 7(b) (RBE No.29/2004 & S.E.Rlys .48/2004) 8. Currency of Group-C panels supplied by RRBs is:(a)One year (b)Two year (c)Six month (d)Three month Answer: 8(a) (RBE No.35/2002 & S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.79/2002). 9. Education Qualification for recruitment of Group-D posts is:(a)Class X (b)Class IX (c)Class V (d)Class VIII Answer: 9(d) (RBE NO.237/99 & SE.Rlys Estt.Srl.No. 274/99) 10. Training period of Diesel/Electric Assistant is:(a) 39 weeks (b) 45 days (c) 6 months (d) 12 months Answer: 10(a) (RBE No.254/98 & S.E.Rlys Estt. Srl.No.281/98) 11. Switchman is now re-designated as : (a) Trackman (b) Gangman (c) Cabin Master (d) Messenger Answer: 11(c)(RBE No.nil & S.E.Rly.Estt. Srl No.288/99) 12. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans: 13. Indent for CKP & RNC Division are placed with:RRB/KOL RRB/RNC RRB/BBS RRB/SC 12 (b) Authority: RRCB No. 12/2004 Indent for HQ, KGP & ADA Divisions are placed with:-

(a)RRB/KOL (b)RRB/RNC (c)RRB/BBS (d)RRB/SC

Ans.: 13(a)Authority : RRCB No. 12/2004. 14. Physically Efficiency Test(PET) is made for recruitment of :(a)Group-C post (b)Group-D post (c)Group-A post (d)Group-B post Ans: 14(d) & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.112/2002) 15. Currency of Group-D panels formed by RRB is:(a)One year (b)Two year (c)Six month (d)three month Ans: 15(b) S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.251/2004)

16. Quota Reserved for Ex.Serviceman for Group-C posts:(a)20% (b)3% (c)10% (d)15% Ans: 16(c) S.E.Rly Estt.Srl No.14/81) 17. Quota Reserved for Ex. Serviceman for Group-D posts is:(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 15% (d) 27% Ans: 17(b)(S.E.Rly Estt.Srl No.14/81) 18. D.R.Quota for O.S.Gr.II after restructuring:-

(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 50% (d) 13.1/3% Ans: 18(b)(RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003) 19. What is the percentage for Personnel Inspector, Gr.I against D.R. Quota after restructuring:Ans: 19(b) 20. (RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003)

Direct Recruitment Quota for Depot Material Supdt In scale Rs.6500-10500 after restructuring:(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 50% Ans: 20(b) (RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003)

21.

What is the compulsory test for the candidates who qualify in the written examination for the posts of Switchman, ASM, Diesel/Elect Asstt., Goods Driver & Motorman:(a) Physical Test (b) Psychological Test (c) Interview Test (d) Merit Test Ans: 21(b) (RBENo.144/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.151/2003)

22.

What is the D.R.Quota for the categories of TNC, TC, CC,Shroff, & Office Clerk:(a)25% (b)30% (c)50% (d)20% Ans: 22(c)(RBE No.165/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.145/2003)

23.

Direct Recruitment Quota for filling up vacancies of ESM-III/MSM-III, TCM-III & WTMIII of S&T Deptt. is:(a)50% (b)30% (c)25% (d)20% Ans: 23(a) (RBE No.10/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.41/2003)

24.

Calculation of vacancies in safety categories is made on the basis of:(a) Existing vacancies only (b) Anticipated vacancies upto two years only (c) Existing vacancies plus anticipated vacancies including Training period upto two years (d) Vacancies against non-materialisation only Ans: 24(c)(RBE No Nil & S.E.Rly. Estt.Srl.No.171/2003)

25.

What is the D.R.Quota for the posts of Field Worker(Male/Female),Extension Educator & Health Visitor (Multipurpose):(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 25% (d) 50% Ans: 25(d)(RBE No. 202/2001 & S.E.Rly. Estt.Srl.No.141/2001)

26.

Qualification for Field Worker(Male/Female) in scale Rs.3050-4590 against D.R.Quota is:(a)Matriculation or equivalent (b)Matriculation with 50% marks in aggregate (c)Graduate (d)Post Graduate Ans: 26(a) (RBE No. 202/2001 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.141/2001)

27.

What is the percentage for D.R.Quota for selection of Group-C In GDCE:(a) 25%

(b) 30% (c) 50% (d) 20% Ans: 27(a)(RBE No.165/2001 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.103/2001) 28. Skilled Artisan,Gr.III(Trade) is now re-designated as :(a) Artisan,Gr.III (b) Technician,Gr.III(Trade) (c) Technician (d) None above Ans: 28(b)RBE No.97/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.174/2003) 29. Which of the post belongs to Safety Category:(a) Clerk (b) Staff Nurse (c) Asstt.Station Master (d) Stenographer Ans: 29(c)(RBE No.25/2002& S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.33/2002) 30. Which of the candidates are required Examination Fees while submitting application to Railway Recruitment Board:(a) UR (b) SC (c) ST (d) Ex.SM Ans: 30(a)(RBE No.Nil & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.87/2003) 31. Who is the competent authority to extend the life of RRB Group-C Panels (a) CPO (b) GM (c) DRM (d) DPO Ans: 31(b)(RBE No.35/2002 & S.E.Rlys Estt.Srl.No.79/2002). 32. Medical classification for the posts of ASM, Goods Guard, Traffic Apprentice & Cabin Master is:(a) A-1 (b) A-2 (c) A-3 (d) B-1 Ans: 32(b) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V 33. Medical Classification for the posts of Commercial Clerk, Enqy- cum- Resv. Clerk & Commercial Apprentice :(a) A-1 (b) B-1 (c) C-1 (d) C-2 Ans: (C)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V 34 Medical Classification for the post of Assistant Driver(Elect/Diesel):-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A-1 B-1 C-1 A-2

Ans: (a) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V 34. Medical Classification for the post of Trains Clerk is:(a) C-2 (b) B-2 (c) C-1 (d) A-3 Ans: (d) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V Educational Qualification for the post of Trains Clerk is:(a) Matriculation or its equivalent with not less that 50% marks in aggregate. (b) Matriculation or its equivalent (c) Class X pass (d) Class VIII pass Ans: (a). Authority: IREM 36. Educational Qualification for Section Engineer(P.Way):(a) Degree in Civil Engineering (b) Degree in Mechanical Engineering (c) Degree in Electrical Engineering (d) Degree in Automobile Engineering Ans: (a)Authority: IREM 37. Medical Classification for the post of Ticket Collector is:(a) C-2 (b) B-2 (c) A-2 (d) B-1 Ans; (b)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V 38. Educational Qualification for the post of Cabin Master(earlier Switchman) is:(a) Matriculation or its equivalent (b) A pass in 10+2 System (c) Class VIII pass (d) Class IX pass Ans: (a) (RBE No.136/99& S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.151/99) 39. Educational Qualification for the post of J.E-II(C&W)/TXR:(a) Degree in Mechanical/Electrical/Engineering (b) Diploma in Mechanical/Electrical/Engineering (c) Bachelors Degree in Science with Physics and Chemistry with a minimum of 45% marks (d) Diploma in Civil or Mechanical Engineering Ans: (b)(RBE No152/2001& S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.99/2001)

35.

PASS RULES 1. Gazetted staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annum d) none Answer:- b) 2 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96) 2. Gazetted staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annum d) none Answer:- c) 3 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96) 3. Group C staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annum d) none Answer:- a) 1 set per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96) 4. Group C staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annum d) none Answer:- b) 2 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96) 5. Group D staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annum d) nil Answer:- d) nil (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

6. Group D staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annum

d) none Answer:- a) 1 set per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96) 7. The widowed mother of the retired employee shall be included in the post retirement complimentary passes as any other family member of the retired railway employees. a) No b) Yes c) I dont know d) none Answer:- b) Yes (Estt. Srl. No. /96)

8. Widow complementary passes may be issued to a widow whose husband was a railway employee and a) Expired b) Missing c) Either expired or missing d) Retired Answer:- c) either expired or missing (Estt. Srl. No. 118/98) 9. Revised pay limit for issue of I st class pass for non gazetted Group B & C appointed prior to 1.8.69 is a) Drawing pay of Rs. 5000/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 7000/b) Drawing pay of Rs. 5375/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 7000/c) Drawing pay of Rs. 4900/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 6000/d) none of the above Answer:- (c ) Drawing pay of Rs. 4900/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 6000/- (Estt.Srl. No. 35/99) 10. Employees appointed after 1.2.99 serving in pay scale of Rs. 5000-8000/- & Rs. 5500-9000/- and drawing pay of Rs. 7250/- or above but less than Rs. 7600/- shall be entitled to a) II nd class A b) I class c) II nd class d) none of the above Answer:- (a ) II nd class A (Estt.Srl. No. 35/99) 11. a) b) c) d) J A Grade officer can travel in ACC 1 st class when They are put in J A Grade They are in receipt of pay of Rs. 14,300 and above Restriction to availability of berth None of the above.

Answer:- (b ) When they are in receipt of pay of Rs. 14,300 and above (Estt.Srl. No. 167/99) 12. In residential card passes a person can be accompanied as:

a) Attendant b) Companion c) Both d) None is allowed Answer : d) No Attendant is allowed. (Estt. Srl No: ) 13. Licensed potters are allowed :

a) One set complimentary cheque pass for self only b) One set of Privilege order per year for self and spouse c) Both A & B d) None. Answer: (c) Both A & B (CPOs Letter dated 07.07.1997 & ES. No: 88/99) (RB. No: 55/99) 14. Facility of a companion will be provided on the post retirement complimentary pass holders of: a) b) c) d) First and 1A Pass First, 1A & 2A Passes All classes passes First Class Only.

Answer (a) First & 1A Pass (Rule No: 31/99 & 18/2000) 15. Attendant as defined in pass rules means

(a) Any relative of the employee (b) A person employed in house hold works of an employee (c) A person exclusively employed on salary in the personal service of a Railway Servant (d) None of the Above Answer: (c) A person exclusively employed on salary in the personal service of a Railway Servant (RB. No: E(W)93 PS 5 of 17.05.1993 16. One post retirement complimentary pass should be stopped for each month or part thereof above ten days of unauthorized occupation of Railway Quarter. (a) False (b) True (c) Cant Say (d) Answer: (b) True (ES No: 295/99) 17. One Widow complimentary pass should be stopped for each month or part thereof above ten days of unauthorized occupation of Railway Quarter (a) False (b) True (c) Cant Say (d)

Answer: (a) False (ES No: 295/99) 18. is: Inclusion of divorced and widow daughter in post retirement complimentary passes

(a) Allowed (b) Disallowed (c) Under consideration (d) both B & C Answer: (a) Allowed (ES. No: 109/2003-RB No: 63/2003) 19. What will be the colour of II Class A Pass?

(a) Pink (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Red Answer: (c) Yellow (ES No: 37/99 & 111/2003, RB No: 17/99 & 88/2003) 20. A Guardian can be included in the school pass for (a) A boy under 18 yrs. (b) A Girl of any age (c) A Physically Handicapped boy above 18 Years. (d) All the Three Answer: (d) All the three. (ES No: 88/2004) 21. Widow complimentary pass can be issued to the widows of Railway Employees:

(a) Who were in service on or after 12.03.87 (b) Who were in service prior to 12.03.87 (c) Who make one time payment of Rs. 250/(d) All the above Answer: (d) All the above (ES. No: 26/2001, RBE No: 174/87 & 52/2001)

NEW PENSION SCHEME Q1. New pension scheme is effective from a) 01.01.2004 b) 01.07.2004 c) 01.04.2004 d) None of these. a) (Authority: Boards letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 RBE No.225/03, SER No.2/04) New entrants in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme a) b) c) d) Ans: Q3. Automatically By option On Administrative option None of these. RBE

Ans: Q2.

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 No.225/03, SER No.2/04) New Pension Scheme is a) b) c) d) Contributory Non contributory None All are correct.

Ans:

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 No.225/03, SER No.2/04) New Pension Scheme is a) b) c) d) Single tire system Two tire system Three tire system None of these

RBE

Q4.

Ans: Q5.

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04) The contribution payable by the employee a) b) c) d) Monthly basis Quarterly basis Half yearly basis Yearly basis

Ans: a) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04) Q6. Permanent Pension Account Number will consist of a) b) c) d) 12 14 16 20 digits digits digits digits

Ans: c) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 No.66/04) Q7. The Nodal Officer for each Railway is a) b) c) d) GM CPO Dy. GM FA&CAO

RBA No.05/04, SER

Ans: d) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 No.66/04) Q8. The Officer-in-charge at HQ Office is a) b) c) d) Ans: Q9. FA&CAO FA&CAO(HQ) Dy.CAO(G) SAO(Pension)

RBA No.05/04, SER

c) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04) The contribution towards New Pension Scheme is a) b) c) d) @ @ @ @ 8% of pay 9% of pay 10% of pay 12% of pay

Ans: Q10.

c) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04) Dearness Allowance is to be taken with pay for contribution. a) Yes b) No c) Partly true d) Partly wrong. a) (Authority: Boards letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04)

Ans:

SAFETY RELATED RETIREMENT SCHEME Q11. This Scheme covers 2 safety categories, viz. a) b) c) d) Ans: Q12. Drivers & Gangmen Drivers & Guards Drivers & Signallers Guards & Gangmen RBE

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) The age limit for this scheme is a) b) c) d) 50-55 55-60 50-57 52-60 years years years years

Ans: Q13.

c) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) Minimum years of service for this scheme is a) b) c) d) 25 30 33 28 years years years years

RBE

Ans: c) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 SER No.03/04) Q14. Under this scheme Employment Assistance will be provided to a) b) c) d) Ans: Q15. One ward No ward Son only None is true

RBE No.04/04,

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) The ward will be considered for appointment a) b) c) d) As per his choice Respective category Administrative choice None is true

RBE

Ans: Q16.

b) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) Eligibility condition of wards for appointment is a) At per with DR Quota b) Matriculation in each case. c) No instructions

RBE

d) Nothing is true Ans: Q17. a) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) Retiring employee will get weight age towards qualifying service under this scheme. a) b) c) d) Ans: Q18. Partly true True False Partly false RBE RBE

c) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) Residential accommodation to the wards will be treated a) b) c) d) At per with DR Father and son rule No Railway accommodation will be provided Either (a) or (b) is correct

Ans: Q19.

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) This scheme is effective from a) b) c) d) 01.01.2004 02.01.2004 31.01.2004 01.04.2004

RBE

Ans: Q20.

b) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 No.04/04, SER No.03/04) Recruitment of ward will be made through a) b) c) d) RRB GM HOD Committee Railway Board.

RBE

Ans:

c) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/RT-2/(KW) dt.15.04.05 No.064/05, SER No.81/05)

RBE

COMPULSORY RETIREMENT Q21. Every Railway servant shall retire from service a) b) c) d) Ans: Q22. a) On the last date of the month On the day he attains 60 years 1st day of the month As desired by administration (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)

The retirement age becomes 60 years w.e.f. a) b) c) d) 01.01.96 01.07.96 01.07.97 13.05.98

Ans: Q23.

d) (Authority: Boards letter No. E(P&A)I-98/RT-6 dt.14.05.98 RBE No.103/98, SER No.108/98) Premature retirement can be made by the a) b) c) d) GM Railway Board HOD concerned Appointing authority (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)

Ans: Q24.

d)

A railway employee in group A/B service or posts may be retired on attaining the age of a) b) c) d) 50 55 58 60 years years years years (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)

Ans: Q25.

a)

A group-C railway employee may be retired on attaining the age of a) b) c) d) 50 55 58 60 years years years years (Authority: Rule 1803 R-II)

Ans: Q26.

b)

Review of service in case of a Railway employee is to be done when hea) b) c) d) Complete 30 years of service Attain 55 years of age Which ever is earlier All are correct SER

Ans:

c) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q27.

Provisions exists in the relevant rules which provide reciprocal right on railway employee to seek vol. retirement after a) b) c) d) 30 years of service 30 years of qualifying service On attaining of 50/55 years of age Both (a) & (c) are correct SER Conf.

Ans: Q28.

d)(Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) Review Committees in Divisional Level to consider cases will consists of a) b) c) d) 1 2 3 1 Member Members Members Chairman & 2 Members

Ans: Q29.

d)(Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) A railway employee must retire a) b) c) d) If the integrity is doubtful If the appointing authority so desires If he request so None of the above

SER Conf.

Ans: Q30.

A)(Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) Review Committees are to be set up a) b) c) d) Department-wise Division-wise Both (a) & (b) None of the above

SER Conf.

Ans: Q31.

c)(Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

SER Conf.

No railway employee should ordinarily be retired, if he would be retiring on superannuation a) b) c) d) Within 6 months Within 10 months Within 1 year None of the above SER Conf.

Ans: Q32.

c) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) The group-C railway employee may be retired under a) Rule 1803 R-II b) Rule 1803 R-II read with para 620(ii) MRPR c) Only 620(ii) MRPR

d) All are correct Ans: Q33. a) (Authority: Boards D.O. letter No. dt. SER Estt. No. 95/92)

Premature retirement Rules a) b) c) d) May be used as Disciplinary proceedings May not be used as Disciplinary proceedings Neither (a) nor (b) Both are correct SER

Ans: Q34.

a) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) These rules may be used a) b) c) d) For reduction of surplus staff As a major of effecting general economy Both are correct Both are wrong

Ans: Q35.

d) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) Review should be based on a) b) c) d) An assessment of the entire service record Only CRs None is correct As desired by appointing authority

SER

Ans: Q36.

a) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) A retired employee may submit a representation a) b) c) d) Within 7 days Within 10 days Within 3 weeks None of the above

SER

Ans: Q37.

c) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) The representation to be submitted to a) b) c) d) HODs concerned Dy. GM DRMs Representation committee

SER

Ans: Q38.

d) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) The representation committee will consider each case a) Within 1 week b) Within 2 weeks

SER

c) Within 3 weeks d) None of the above Ans: Q39. d) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) Next stage of the representation committee is a) b) c) d) Ans: Q40. AGM GM DRM Sr. DGM SER SER

a) (Authority: Boards Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.17.10.89 Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80) If any retired railway employee, subsequently re-instated the non duty Period may be adjusted a) b) c) d) Against leave due Dies non Duty Any of the above

Ans:

a) (Authority: Boards letter No. F(E)III/77PW-1/4 dt.06.05.81 No. 114/81)

SER Estt. Srl.

SC/ST/OBC RESERVATION POLICY 1) Article 16 of Indian Constitution placed under the heading of Right to Equality a part of which indicates the provision of reservation in favour of any backward class of citizen. Ans : D Article 16(4) Authority: Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-1. 2) When SC/ST Reservation provided first in Direct Recruitment ? A) B) C) D) 13.09.49 13.09.50 13.09.51 13.09.52 A) B) C) D) Article Article Article Article 16(1) 16(2) 16(3) 16(4)

Ans: B- 13.09.50 Authority: Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-4 3) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by selection in Gr.C & D posts provided? A) B) C) D) 1957 1963 1972 1976

Ans : B 1963 Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-5 4) When Reservation percentage increased from 12% to 15% for SC and 5% to 7-1/2% for ST ? A) B) C) D) 13.09.50 13.09.51 13.09.63 25.03.70

Ans : D- 25.03.70 Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, page 4 5) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by seniority-cumsuitability in Gr. C & D posts provided? A) B) C) D) 1957. 1963 1972 1976

Ans: C- 1972 Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-5 6) When 27% reservation provided for OBC candidates in Civil posts and services under the Govt. of India? A) B) C) D) 13.08.90 25.09.91 10.10.91 08.09.93

Ans : D- 08.09.93. Authority: Railway Boards letter No. 90E(SCT)I/71/1 dated 14/15.10.93, Estt.Srl. No.262/93. 7) Who is the Appellate Authority to issue SC/ST Caste Certificate in the State of West Bengal? A) Tashilder B) Gazetted Officer C) Local MP/MLA D) SDO, DM etc.

Ans : D- SDPO, DM etc. Authority: Railway Boards letter No. 94-E(SCT)I/31/2 dated

29.11.94, Estt.Srl. No.45/95. 8) Delay Submission of SC/ST Caste certificate may be accepted from the date of :Ans : A Submission Estt.Srl. No.250/83 9) If a candidate belonging to SC/ST/OBC Community is unable to produce his caste certificate in time, he may be considered for offer of :A) Appointment B) Temporary Apptt. C) Provisional Apptt. D) None of these. A) Submission B) Issue C) None of these.

Ans : C- Provisional Appointment Estt.Srl. No.185/95. 10) On verification through the District Magistrate, if the caste certificate produced by SC/ST/OBC candidate is revealed false, such candidate would be :A) Terminated. B) Suspended C) Punished under D&A rules D) None of these.

Ans : A- Terminated Authority : Estt.Srl. No.185/95. 11) Home town posting facility may be considered to the candidates who are belonging to :A) PHP Community B) UR Community C) OBC Community D) SC/ST Community

Ans : D-SC/ST Community Authority : Estt.Srl. No.22/86 12) 10% Quota for SC/ST is applicable for allotment of Quarter where total numbers of Quarter are 50 or more. A) Type-I only B) Type-II only C) Both Type I & II D) None of these.

Ans : C- Both Type I & II Authority : RBE No.148/99, Estt. Srl. No. 191/99. 13) 15% for SC, 7-1/2 % for ST and 27% for OBC are to be maintained to the Post based Roster System in Gr. C & D posts for :A) Local Recruitment B) All India Basis recruitment C) Other than open market recruitment.

D) All kinds of recruitment. Ans : D- All kinds of recruitment RBE No.113/97, Estt.Srl. No.181/97. 14) When Post Based Roster is applicable in recruitment ? A) B) C) D) 10.02.95. 21.08.97 27.08.97. 15.12.97.

Ans : B- 21.08.97 RBE No.113/97, Estt.Srl. No.181/97. 15) When Post-based Roster is applicable in promotion? A) B) C) D) 10.02.95 09.04.97 21.08.97 27.08.97

Ans : A- 10.02.95 Authority : RBE No.114/97, Estt.Srl. No.135/97. 16) L Shape Roster is applicable in both Recruitment and promotional categories separately where the total cadre is less than: Ans C- Less than 15. Authority : As referred at item No.14 & 15. 17. What points of Roster are applicable both in Recruitment and promotional categories where the total no. of posts in a cadre is more than 15 : A) 100 point B) 200 point (separately) C) 14 Point (L Shape) D) None of this A) B) C) D) 13. 14. 15 16

Ans : B- 200 point Roster (Separately) Authority : As referred at item No.14 & 15. 18. L Shape Roster is operated: A) Based on post. B) Based on vacancy C) Based on percentage D) Based on Rotation.

Ans : D Based on rotation. Authority: As referred at item No.14 & 15. 19) Total reservation of SC/ST/OBC should in no case exceed: A) 50% of total cadre B) 50 % of total vacancy C) 50% of total Reserved vacancy

D) None of these. Ans : A- 50% of total cadre Authority: As referred at item No.14 & 15. 20) In a small cadre i.e. up to 14 posts, if a SC/ST incumbent promoted to higher grade post this vacancy will be treated as :A) Reserved vacancy B) Consumed C) UR Vacancy D) None of these.

Ans B- Consumed by SC/ST Authority : As referred at item No.14 & 15. 21) Reservation is applicable to fill up: A) B) C) D) Ex cadre post Sports Quota Cultural Quota Compassionate apptt.

Ans : A- Ex Cadre post. Authority : Estt. Srl. No.63/97. 22) Reservation is applicable to fill up vacancy: A) Raised on transfer B) Raised on deputation C) Raised on PH Quota E) None of these.

23)

Ans : C- Raised on PH Quota. Authority :Rly. Bds Lr. No. 90-E(SCT)I/71/1 dated 02.12.94, Circular No.P/R&R/Physical Handicapped /Poly /II/1158 dated 19.04.95. Pre-selection coaching should be imparted to SC/ST candidates in selection for a period of :Ans : D- 3-4 weeks. Authority: Rly. Bds letter No. 08/11/04.91, Estt. Srl. No.81/91.

A) B) C) D)

2- weeks. 15- days 2-3 weeks 3-4 weeks

88-E(SCT)I/42/II

dated A) All selections B) All nonselections C) Selection to safety category only. D) None of these.

24)

Pre-selection coaching need not require where no SC/ST vacancy is available in: -

Ans : A- All selections. Authority: Railway Boards letter No. 83-E(SCT)42/1 dated 14.4.83. Brochure (3rd Edition)85 page 482. 25) Best among the failed candidates may be given ad-hoc promotion, if he secured in written test minimum: A) 10% marks B) 20% marks

C) 30% marks D) 35% marks Ans : B- 20% marks Authority: Railway Boards letter No. 88-E(SCT)I/23/1 dated 22.11.94. Estt. Srl. No.2/95. 26. Best among the failed SC/ST candidates may be included in the final select list on completion of his service training for the period of :Ans : C- 6 months Authority: Railway Boards letter No. 2002-E(SCT)I/25/11 dated 24.10.2002, RBE No. 192/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2002. 27. At the end of 6 months period, the case of best among the failed SC/ST candidates is forwarded to the competent authority and the competent authority decides for not including him in the final select list, then the case may also be reviewed by the:A) SPO(RP) B) CPO(A) C) CPO D) HOD, if the appointing authority is lower than the HOD, otherwise GM. A) B) C) D) 3 4 6 1 months. months months year

Ans : D- HOD, Authority : Railway Boards letter No.2002-E(SCT) I/25/11 dated 24.10.2002, RBE No. 192/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2002. 28) Examination charges incurred for open market recruitment through RRB is required to be paid by all applicants except: A) SC/ST B) OBC C) P.H.P., Ex S/M. D) SC/ST, PHP, Ex. S/M.

Ans : D- SC/ST, PHP, Ex. SM. Authority: Railway Boards Letterr.No.98-E/RRB/25/52 dated 07.04.99,RBE No.67/99.Estt.Srl No. 176/2002. 29) The marks relaxation / lesser standard of evaluation of SC/St candidates in the case of promotion was withdrawn and subsequently restored back and applicable w.e.f. :A) B) C) D) 27.03.99. 27.03.2000 03.10.2000 None of these.

Ans : C- 03.10.2000. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.97-E(SCT)I/49/14 dated 12.12.2000, RBE No. 215/2000, Estt. Srl. No. 225/2000. 30) Age relaxation of SC/ST for recruitment in govt. services: A) 3 years B) 5 years C) None of these.

Ans : B- 5 years. Authority : Railway Boards letter No .E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dt.9.9.04,RBENo.199/04, Estt.Srl.No 221/04. 31 Age relaxation of OBC for recruitment in Govt. Services: Ans: A- 3 years. Authority: Railway Boards 02.2/3.95, Estt. Srl. No. 77/95 32. A) 3 years B) 5 years C) None of these.

letter

No

90-E(SCT)I/71/1dt

The period of upper age limit of SC/ST/OBC for recruitment in Gr. C & D categories has been extended up to Ans : A 03.08.2005. Authority: Railway Boards letter No. E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.04, RBE No.199/2004, Estt. Srl No.221/2004 At present upper age limit of SC/ST in Group C category is :-

A) B) C) D)

03.08.2005 03.09.2005 03.10.2005 31.12.2005.

33)

A) B) C) D)

30 33 34 35

years years years years

Ans : D 35 years. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.2004 RBE No.199/2004, Estt. Srl. No 221/2004. 34) At present upper age limit of OBC in Group C category is :A) B) C) D) 30 years 33 years 34 years None of these.

Ans : B- 33 years Authority: Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.2004 RBE No.199/2004, Estt. Srl. No 221/2004. 35) Marks relaxation for SC/St candidates in Direct Recruitment Quota is :A) B) C) D) 10% 20% 30% 40%

Ans : A- 10% Authority: Railway Boards letter No.97-E(SCT)I/25/25 dated 13.03.2000, RBE No. 43/2000, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2000. 36) SC/ST candidates are eligible to be called for interview in Direct Recruitment, if he secured minimum :A) B) C) D) 10% marks 20% marks 30 marks 40% marks

Ans : B- 20% marks. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)II/90/RRB/53 dated 15.04.91.Estt. Srl.No.90/91. 37) Minimum qualifying marks is prescribed for SC/ST candidates in selection posts :A) 30% B) 40%

C) 50% D) 60% Ans : C- 50% Authority: Railway Boards letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No. 41/70 & Rly. Boards letter No. E(NG)I98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99 38) Minimum Qualifying marks for SC/ST candidates in non-selection post is :A) B) C) D) 30% 40% 50% 60%

Ans : B- 40% Authority: Railway Boards letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No. 41/70 & Rly. Boards letter No. E(NG)I98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99. 39) At present upper age limit of SC/ST is Gr. D category is :A) B) C) D) 33 36 38 40 years. years years years.

Ans : C- 38 years. Authority :Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-I/29 dated 9.9.2004, RBE No. 199/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 221/2004. 40) At present upper age limit of OBC in GrD category is :A) B) C) D) 33 years 36 years 38 years None of these.

Ans : B- 36 years. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No. 41/70 & Rly. Boards letter No. E(NG)I98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99. 41) If a point in a Roster is earmarked for SC/ST in single cadre post, it may be filled up :A) On regular basis. B) On ad-hoc basis C) On tenure basis D) None of these.

Ans : B- On Ad-hoc basis Authority :Railway Boards letter No.97-E(SCT)I/25/4 dated 11.02.2001 RBE No. 6/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 11/2002. 42) In promotion to the posts of Gr.B and lowest rank of Gr. A, the carry forward in case of single vacancy is permissible for :A) 1 selection year.

B) 2 selection years C) 3 selection years D) None of these. Ans : A- One selection/recruitment year. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.99-E (SCT)I/25/26 dated 16.03.2001, RBE No. 58/2001, Estt. Srl. No. 08/2002 43) SC vacancy cannot be exchanged by ST candidate or vis--vis in the case of :A) B) C) D) Gr. D post only Gr. C post only Gr. B Post only Gr. D, C & B posts

Ans : D- Gr. D, C & B posts. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004 44 SC/ST/OBC carry-forward vacancies can be filled up in subsequent selection/recruitment year for :A) More than 50% B) Not more than 50% C) No restriction D) None of these.

Ans : C- No restriction/bar to fill up all vacancies at a time. Authority :Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04, RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004 45) 50% limitation for filling up of SC/ST vacancies in a selection/recruitment year is applicable: A) On total backlog vacancy B) On current vacancy C) Both backlog & current vacancies. D) None of these.

Ans : B- On current vacancy Authority: Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04 , RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004 46) After 3 recruitment/selection years, the carried forward SC/ST vacancies in the limited cadre will be treated as :A) De-reserved B) Lapsed C) Carry forward to 4th years D) None of these

Ans : B- Lapsed

Authority: Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04 ,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004 47) Ad-hoc promotion may be made by following :A) Without Reservation B) SC/ST Reservation C) General Seniority D) None of these.

Ans : B- SC/ST Reservation. Authority: IREM(Vol-.I) 1989, Estt. Srl. No. 130/98. 48) Who is the Chief Liaison Officer to look after the welfare of SC/ST Ans : C CPO. Brochure (3rd Edition) 85 Page 545 49) Who is the Liaison Officer to look after the welfare of SC/ST A) B) C) D) SPO(RP) CPO(A) CPO GM

A) B) C) D) A) B) C) D)

SPO(RP) Dy.CPO(HQ) CPO(A) CPO 1 year. 2 years 3 years None of these.

Ans :A SPO(RP). Brochure (3rd Edition) 85 Page 546 50) For promotion to the Higher Grade post, the qualifying service of SC/ST/UR in the immediate lower grade is minimum : Ans : B- 2 years. Authority :Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)I/2002/PM-1/21 dated 21.4.2003, RBE No. 64/2003, Estt. Srl. No. 91/2003 51) For higher grade promotion of SC/ST in Gr. C, 2 years service criteria may be relaxed to 1 year with the approval of :A) B) C) D) GM CPO CPO(A) SPO(RP)

52)

Ans : A GM Authority :Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.3.2003, RBE No.51/2003,Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003, Can SC/ST post be filled up by UR without de-reservation? Ans : B No Authority : Railway Boards letter No.90-E(SCT)I/71/1-Pt.1 dated 10.10.96,Estt. Srl. No. 142/96.

A) Yes B) No C)

53)

Is SC/ST reservation applicable in restructuring of cadre? Ans : A- Yes Authority: Railway Boards letter No.PC-III/03/CRC/6 dated 9/10/2003 ,RBE No. 90/2002, Estt. Srl. 152/2003.

A) Yes B) No

54)

In the case of engagement of Casual Labour/Substitutes, the reservation is also applicable for determining: Ans : C SC/ST/OBC Authority :Railway Boards letter No.90-E(SCT)I/71/1/Pt.I dated 12.01.95, Estt. Srl. No. 63/95.

A) B) C) D)

SC ST SC/ST/OBC None of these

55)

In a selection where the SC/ST vacancies are available, the selection Committee is constituted with the officers, one of the officers should be :-

A) SC Community only B) ST Community only C) OBC Community only D) SC/ST Community

Ans : D- SC/ST Community Authority :Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)I-98/PM-1/17 dated 20.10.99 , RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99 56) In a selection where the SC/ST vacancy is not available but SC/ST candidates are coming within the zone of consideration against the UR vacancies, in such cases, is the SC/ST officer required to be included in the Selection Committee? Ans : A Yes Authority :Railway Boards letter No.E(NG)I-98/PM-1/17 dated 20.10.99 , RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99. 57) Due to non-availability of SC/ST candidates, the promotional post which is not involved in Direct Recruitment Category, can temporarily be diverted into D.R Quota to make good the same by respective community of reserved candidates from open market? Ans : A- Correct Authority: Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.03.2003 , RBE No. 51/2003, Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003 58) Due to want of SC/ST candidates in a category where D.R is not permissible, the shortfall vacancies may be down graded to make good the same by SC/.ST candidates from next lower grade Ans: A Yes Authority: Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.03.2003 , RBE No. 51/2003,Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003 59) SC/ST candidates promoted on their own merit will be adjusted against un-reserved post, this principle is applicable in the case of :Ans : A- Selection Post A) Selection post B) Non-selection post C) None of these A) Yes B) No A) Correct B) Incorrect C) Partially correct A) Yes B) No

Authority : Railway Boards letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/13/dated 6.5.2005,Estt.Srl. No. 95/2005 60) Any serving SC/ST Railway Employees can be a member of SC/ST Railway Employees Association including the person: A) Retired from Rly. service. B) Under suspension C) Remove from service D) All of these.

Ans : D All A,B & C Authority: Railway Boards letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/3/da. 24/26.02.03, Circular No.P/RP/SCT/NG/Poly/625 dt.17.03.2003. 61) Co-option of Office bearers from other than SC/ST to be member of SC/ST Rly. Employees Association is not accepted:A) Correct B) Incorrect C) Partially correct D) None of these

62)

Ans : A- Correct Authority : Railway Boards letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/3/da. 24/26.02.03, Circular No.P/RP/SCt/NG/Poly/625 dated 17.03.2003. The list of Office bearers of SC/ST Railway Employees Association at Zonal Level is circulated with the approval of :-

A) B) C) D)

Railway Board GM CPO CEC with the Joint Signature of President/Wor king President and Secretary

Ans : D- CEC with the Joint Signature of President/Working President and Secretary Authority: Railway Boards letter No.93 E(SCT)I/22/1/dated 16.6.94 ,Circular no. P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.IV/2514 dated 5.7.1994. 63) In case of malpractice, dishonesty and incapability found to run any executive committee at Zonal /Divisional level, it may be suspended/dismissed by the: Ans : C- CEC Authority: As per Bye-laws of SC/ST Association. 64) Who may act as Election Officer for conducting Election of SC/ST Railway Employees Association in absence of outgoing President? A) Outgoing President B) Outgoing General Secy. C) Outgoing Vice-President D) None of A) B) C) D) GM CPO CEC None of these

these. Ans : C- Outgoing Vice President. Authority: As per Bye-Laws of SC/ST Association. 65) There is a provision for holding informal meeting between Railway Administration and SC/ST Railway Employees Association at least: A) Once in a year B) Twice in a year C) Thrice in a year D) No bar

Ans : B- Twice in a year. Authority: Railway Boards letter No.88-E(SCT)I/80/2 dated 12.7.97 , Circular No. P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.V/3283 dated 30.7.96. 66) SC/ST Railway Employees may be spared as on duty as and when they are summoned by the National Commission for hearing in connection with their representations on service matter/court cases are entitled to get benefit of: Ans : D- All benefits of A, B & C Authority: Railway Boards letter No.2000-E(SCT)I/25/17 dated 29.6.2001, Estt. Srl. No. 97/2001 67) How many office bearers of SC/ST Association allowed for attending informal meeting at Divisional Level :A) B) C) D) 30 Members 15 Members 20 members None of these A) Duty B) Pass C) Accommodatio n D) All of these

Ans : C- 20 members Authority : Railway Boards letter No.97- E(SCT)I/22/12/ dated 18.08.98 ,Estt. Srl. No. 236/98 68) Railway Board is the competent authority for circulation of the list of office bearer of CEC. Ans : A- Correct Authority : Railway Boards letter No.93 E(SCT)I/22/1/dated 16.6.94 Circular No. P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.IV-2514 dated 5.7.1994. 69) STD/Inter-Divisional Telephone is provided to the President, Working President & Secretary both the SC/ST Association and OBC Federation at: Ans :C- Zonal Level Authority : Railway Boards letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/27/Pt.VII dated 14.7.2004, Estt. Srl. No. 176/2004. 70) All facilities are given to the All India OBC Railway Employees Federation as given to the :A) AIRF. B) NFIR. C) SC/ST A) B) C) D) Branch Level Unit Level Zonal Level None of these A) Correct B) Incorrect

Association. D) None of these. Ans : C- SC/ST Association Authority : Railway Boards letter No. 2000-E(SCT)I/71/16 dated 26.6.2003, Circular No.P/RP/SCT/NG/Poly/1517 dated 10.07.2003.

TRAINING Q.1. a) c) Ans. Q.2. a) c) Ans. Q.3. a) c) Ans. Q.4. a) c) Ans. Q.5. a) c) Ans. Q.6. a) c) The Probationers recruited to the 9 organized Railway services shall undergo sandwich type of training (except Medical Service) for a period of . One year Three years b) d) Two years Four years

Two years (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I) The probationers recruited to Medical Service shall undergo sandwich type of training for pa period of . Three weeks Three months b) d) Three days Three years

Three months (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I) The Probationers of all the services other than Indian Railway Medical Service shall undergo Foundational Course for a period of .. 6 weeks 8 weeks b) d) 7 weeks 9 weeks

8 weeks (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I) Probationers of all services excepting Indian Railway Medical Service shall undergo Induction Course at Railway Staff College, Vadodara for period of ... 6 weeks 8 weeks b) d) 7weeks 9 weeks

6 weeks (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I) Probationers of IRTS, IRSS, IRAS and IRPS services shall undergo Induction Course during. Three years probationary b) training Two years probationary training d) During two years probationary training (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I) The probationers of IRSME, IRSSE, IRSEE shall undergo Induction Course from Working post in the 1st year of b) their probation Working post in the 3rd year of d) their probation Working post in 2nd year of their probation Working post in the 4th probation year of their One year probationary training Four years probationary training

Ans. Q.7. a) c) Ans. Q.8. a) c) Ans. Q.9. a) c) Ans. Q.10.

Working post in the 3rd year of their probation (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I) Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Engineers (IRSE) situated at Pune Nasik Pune (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I) Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineering (IRSEE) situated at. Pune Nasik Nasik (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I) Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Signal Engineers (IRSSE) situated at Pune Nasik b) d) Vadodara Secunderabad b) d) Vadodara Secunderabad b) d) Vadodara Secunderabad

Secunderabad (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I) Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Mechanical Engineer (IRSME) (both Engineering Graduates recruited as probationers and Special Class Railway Apprentices) situated at.. Jamalpur & Kharagpur Jamalpur & Kolkata b) d) Jamalpur & Katni Jamalpur & Kurla

a) c) Ans. Q.11.

Jamalpur & Kharagpur (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I) Probationers of all services excepting Indian Railway Medical Services (IRMS) shall undergo two years Probationary training as per schedules of training laid down by the.. UPSC Staff College,Vadodara b) d) Training Centre Ministry of Railways

a) c) Ans. Q.12. a) c)

Ministry of Railways (Para-103 of IREM, Volume-I) During the two years period of probationary training probationers shall maintain a Diary to indicate their. Opinion on the Training Opinion on the Professors b) d) Day-to-day activity Day-to-day Tours

Ans. Q.13. a) c) Ans. Q.14. a) c) Ans. Q.15.

Day-to-day activity (Para-104 of IREM, Vol.-I) Diary maintained by the probationers during the probationary training shall be checked periodically by the. Principal Training Director b) d) Chairman, Rly. Board UPSC

Training Director (Para-104 of IREM, Vol.-I) Probationer shall be confirmed in junior scale only after their passing the examination prescribed after completion of . Institutional training & all departmental examinations. UPSC & Training Director b) d) UPSC & Training Centres UPSC & Principal of Training Centre

Institutional training & all departmental examinations. (Para-105 of IREM, Volume-I) The inter-se-seniority of Group 'A' probationers of particular examination batch and of a particular service on their confirmation to junior scale, will be decided on the basis of marks obtained by them during.. UPSC Probation & UPSC b) d) Probation Training & Probation

a) c) Ans. Q.16. a) c) Ans. Q.17. a) c) Ans. Q.18. a) c) Ans.

Probation & UPSC (Para-106 of IREM, Volume-I) Departmental Examinations I, II & III of the Group A probationer for I.R.S.M.E. cadre conducted by.. Railway Board Training Centre b) d) UPSC South Eastern Railway

South Eastern Railway (Para-107 of IREM, Volume-I) The Departmental Examinations for probationers will consist of.. Written test and Viva voce Viva-voce b) d) Written test None

Written test and Viva voce (Para-107 of IREM, Vol.-I) The Training period for the post of Asstt.Station Master will be .. 12 months 9 months b) d) 8 months 1 Year 6 months

9 months (Para-122(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.19. a) c) Ans. Q.20. a) c) Ans. Q.21. a) c) Ans. Q.22. a) c) Ans. Q.23. a) c) Ans. Q.24. a) c) Ans. Q.25. a) c)

The Training period for the post of Traffic Inspectors will be.. One year 9 months b) d) Two years Three years

Two years (Para-125(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I) The Training period for the post of Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerks (ECRC) will be.. Three months Five months b) d) Four months Six months

Three months (Para-129(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I) The Training period for the post of Commercial Apprentice will be.. One year 9 months b) d) Two years Three years

Two years (Para-130(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I) The initial Training period for Trainee Draftsman in Mechanical, Electrical & Signal Telecommunication departments will be.. 6 months 18 months b) d) 12 months 24 months

18 months (RBE No.61/2004 SER No.12/05) The Training period in respect of Diploma Holders being appointed as Skilled Artisans on compassionate ground may be 3 years 1 year b) d) 2 years 6 months

2 years (RBE No.266/2004 SER No.17/2005) Pass marks in the examination conducted by Training Centres at the end of the course for non-safety category should be. 40% 60% b) d) 50% 70%

50% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004) The total marks as objective type question in the question papers for initial and promotional courses should contain. 40% 60% b) d) 50% 70%

Ans. Q.26. a) c) Ans. Q.27. a) c) Ans. Q.28. a) c) Ans. Q.29. a) c) Ans. Q.30. a) c) Ans. Q.31. a) c) Ans. Q.32. a)

40% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004) The total marks as objective type questions in the question paper for refresher courses should have 40% 60% b) d) 50% 70%

70% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004) Pass marks for SC/ST candidate in the examination conducted by training centers at the end of the course for safety categories including running staff should be 40% 60% b) d) 50% 70%

60% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004) The nomenclature of Zonal Training Centres renamed as Zonal Railway Training Centre Zonal Railway Training School b) d) Zonal Railway Training Institute Zonal Railway Training College

Zonal Railway Training Institute (RBE No.198/2003 SER No.13/2004) Signal Supervisors promotional course is mandatory while promoting JE-II to JE-I JE-I to SE b) d) JE-III to JE-II SE to SSE

JE-II to JE-I (RBE No.193/2003 SER No.24/2004) The maximum limit of honorarium payable to an Instructor per annum for conducting Yoga Training is.. Rs.10000/b) Rs.5000/Rs.15000/d) Rs.20000/-

Rs.5000/- (RBE No.95/2004 SER No.102/2004) The Railway Staff College, Vadodara is headed by the Director General in the rank of GM PHOD b) d) AGM HOD

GM (RBE No.219/2001 SER No.01/2002) The performance of the trainers and availability of infrastructure and training aids of all the training centers/institutions on the railway will personally monitor by. Principal b) GM

c) Ans. Q.33. a) c) Ans. Q.34. a) c) Ans. Q.35. a) c) Ans. Q.36. a) c) Ans.

AGM

d)

Railway Board

AGM (Boards No.E(MPP)2001/19/3-Recomm-36 dated 29.06.2001 RBE No.126/01) Probationary Training of Group A officers of Railway Protection Force is centrally coordinated and monitored by.. Jagjivan Ram RPF Training b) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Sasaram Centre, Lucknow Jagjivan Ram RPF Training d) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Muri Centre, Patna Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Lucknow (Para-5.2.1 of Manual on Management of Training) Probationary Training of GroupA officers of Medical department is controlled and monitored by the .. Railway Board CMD of Zonal Railway b) d) GM of Zonal Railway MD of Zonal Railway

CMD of Zonal Railway (Para-5.2.1 of Manual on Management of Training) The nominated departmental Training Managers for Personnel Branch at Zonal level is . AGM CPO(A) b) d) CPO Dy.CPO

CPO(A) (Para-8.2.3 of Manual on Management of Training) Induction Training to Group D staff of Personnel Department as per modules for 5 days 3 days b) d) 4 days 2 days approved

3 days (Course No.PERS-1 Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Induction Training to Clerks/Sr. Clerks of Personnel Department as per approved modules for 15 days 10 days b) d) 12 days 9 days

Q.37. a) c) Ans. Q.38.

12 days (Course No.PERS-2 Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Refresher Training for Clerks/Sr. Clerks/head Clerks of Personnel Department as per approved modules for.

a) c) Ans. Q.39. a) c) Ans.

10 days 7 days

b) d)

9 days 5 days

7 days (Course No.PERS-3 Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Training for promotion to Sr. Clerk of Personnel Department as per approved modules for.. 6 days 8 days b) d) 7 days 9 days

6 days (Course No.PERS-4 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Training for promotion to OS-II of Personnel Department as per approved modules for.. 6 days 8 days b) d) 7 days 9 days

Q.40. a) c) Ans. Q.41. a) c) Ans. Q.42. a) c) Ans. Q.43. a) c) Ans.

6 days (Course No.PERS-5 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Refresher Training for OS-II/OS-I with 2 years service in the grade of Personnel Department as per approved modules for 10 days 8 days b) d) 9 days 7 days

8 days (Course No.PERS-6 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Induction Training for PI/WI of Personnel Department as per approved modules for. 12 days 8 days b) d) 10 days 6 days

10 days (Course No.PERS-7 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Refresher Training for CPI/CWI of Personnel Department as per approved modules for. 7 days 5 days b) d) 6 days 4 days

7 days (Course No.PERS-8 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department)

Q.44. a) c) Ans. Q.45. a) c) Ans. Q.46. a) c) Ans. Q.47. a) c) Ans. Q.48. a) c) Ans. Q.49. a) c) Ans. Q.50. a) c) Ans.

Induction Training for Law Assistant of Personnel Department as per approved modules for. 8 days 6 days b) d) 7 days 5 days

8 days (Course No.PERS-9 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department) Basic Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at. Adra Tatanagar b) d) Kharagpur Ranchi

Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005) Diesel Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at Rourkela b) Bokaro Bondamunda d) Ranchi

Rourkela (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005) Engineering Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at Adra & Chakradharpur Chakradharpur & Bokaro Adra & Chakradharpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005) C&W Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at Adra ,Chakradharpur & b) Kharagpur Chakradharpur, Bokaro & Ranchi d) Adra ,Chakradharpur & Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005) Supervisors Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at . Adra Chakradharpur b) d) Kharagpur Ranchi Chakradharpur, Kharagpur, Muri Khargpur, Adra, Bokaro b) d) Chakradharpur & Kharagpur Khargpur & Adra

Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005) Electrical Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at Rourkela Bokaro b) d) Tatanagar Muri

Tatanagar (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

D&A RULES Qn.1. Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule in Railways? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.2. (C) What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 came into force ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.3 (c) Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on disciplinary proceedings? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.4 (C) Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.5 (c) Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.6 (b) Not Not Not Not more than 5 members less than 2 members less than 3 members more than 4 members Rule-9 Rule-11 Rule-6 None of these SF-11 SF-5 SF-5 None of these On the first day of January, 1968 On the 22nd day of August, 1968 On the first day of October, 1968 None of these The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968 The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966 The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968 None of these

Rly.Bds Ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-24 dt. 20.2.01.

Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated as appointing authority? (a) (b) Controlling Officer DRM

(c) (d) Ans. Qn.7 (C)

GM CPO Reference: Rly. Boards No.E(D&A)63 RG6-23 dt.21.02.64.

Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably pass? (a) (b) (c) Orders for penalty Speaking order None

Ans.

(b) Rly.Bds No. E(D&A)91/RG 122 dt. 21.2.92.

Qn. 8 Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.9 (a) When casual labours can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. After After After After 4 months from engagement date 6 months from engagement date attaining temporary status regular absorption President of India Ministry of Railways Member(Staff) Secretary Rly.Bd.

(C) Rly.Boards No. E(NG)60-CL-13 dt. 13.5.65.

Qn.10. Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence counsel in DAR cases in (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) 2 Nos. of cases 3 Nos. of cases 5 Nos. of cases Any number of cases Rly.Bds No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-148 dt. 9.1.92. Which is relevant rules in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common proceedings? Rule 9 Rules 11 Rule 13 Rule 20

Qn.11. (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c)

Qn.12. If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case, this case should dealt with by the

(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C)

Disciplinary Authority Revising Authority The next higher authority None Ref: Rly. Boards No. E(D&A)90 RG6-123 dt. 09.11.90.

Qn.13. Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and RS(D&A) Rules, subsequently he is expired his case should be (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.14 (d) Continue and finalised Sent to Rly.Board Sent to GM Closed Rly.Bds No. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-26 dt. 19.6.2000.

What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet requires modification/addition (a) (b) (c) (d) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued Continue the proceedings None of these

Ans.(a)

Rly.Bds No. E(D&A) 2001-RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.15 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed suspension? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) Qn.16 How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) 2 3 5 4 SF-1 SF-3 SF-2 SF-4

Qn.17 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is going promotion to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to the (a) (b) (c) Ans. (a) Promotion of the grade for same period But not result in greater monetary loss Retrospective effect Rly.Bds ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-13 dt. 8.10.01.

Qn.18 A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can be reduced by way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never held before? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Yes No Can be reduce but his pay to be protected None Ref. E(D&A)89 RG6-17 dt. 7.3.89.

Qn.19. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defence counsel? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) 2 3 4 5 No. No. No. No. of of of of cases cases cases cases

Qn. 20.How many cases are dealing a retd. Railway employee as a defense assistant at a time? (a) (b) (c) 5 7 3

Ans. (b)Ref. RBs No. E(D&A)2002 RG-6-13 dt. 14.5.03 (RBE 83/13) Qn.21 Which (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.22 deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made? House Rent P.F.subscription Income Tax None

(b)Ref. RBs No. F(P)62 PF1/14 dt. 12.7.73. Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance? (a) (b) (c) (d) House Rent Income Tax Court attachment Station debits

Ans.

(C)

Qn.23 Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits employee with various disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. During the period he can not leave Hq. Without permission He need not sign attendance register Privilege passes cannot be availed No increment is drawn during suspension

(b)Ref.Rly. Bds No. E(D&A) 83 RG-6-17 dt. 13.5.83.

Qn.24 When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor penalty is imposed, the treatment of the suspension period is as (a) Dies non (b) Non duty (c) Duty (d) None Ans. (C)

Qn.25 If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, under who is competent to sign the charge sheet? a) b) c) d) Ans. (C) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly.Bd. Charge sheet shall be signed by the GM Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the date of retirement President of India Ref. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.26 Stiff major penalty namely. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Compulsory retirement Stoppage of increment Reduction to the lower stage None

Qn.27 A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Leave his head qrs. Have passes for attending PNM/JCM Act as defence counsel None

Qn. 28 An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written examination required for selection to the promotion? a) May be called to appear during suspension b May be called after suspension is over c)To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority. d)None of these Ans. (a) Qn.29 Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Rule 20 of pension rules,1993 Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993 Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993 None

Qn. 30 An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for grant of sick leave? a) b) c) d) Ans. (d) Grant of sick leave Grant of extraordinary leave Grant of Half pay leave Not grant of sick leave

Qn. 31 How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against any Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Qn.32 One Five Eleven Seven

(C) Ref. Rule No. 5 of DAR 1968. A Rly. Servant punishment with stoppage of increment for a specified period and becomes due for promotion he should be promoted (a) (b) (c) Immediate effect After expiry of the penalty With the approval of GM

Ans.

(a)

Qn.33 A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if he has been put in police custody for a period? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) exceeding 24 hours exceeding 48 hours immediate effect none Ref. RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.

Qn.34 50% of subsistence allowance granted under? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Rule 1342 R-II Rule 1343 R-II Rule 1345 R-II None

Qn.35 Review of suspension cases is done (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) After 4 months After 3 months After 2 months None

Qn.36 What amount shall be taken into account for calculating subsistence allowance in case of running staff? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) 40% 30% 50% 60% of of of of basic basic basic basic pay pay pay pay

Qn.37 When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Full pay and allowance are granted Half pay and allowance for granted 75% pay and allowance are granted No payment Ref.1343 IREC R-II

Qn. 38 Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) PF subscription LIC premia House rent Court attachment

Qn.39 Gr C and Gr.D employees under suspension may be given (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) 3 sets of pass per calender year 2 sets of pass one set of pass None of these

Qn. 40 Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defence helper? (a)A Railway servant act as a defence helper (b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority (c) Decided by GM (e) None of these Ans. (a) Ref.E(D&A) 74 RG6-31 dt. 11.11.74

Qn.41 The limitation period of revocation of suspension of non-gazetted employee caught red handed while accepting bribe in trap cases? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. 18 months 6 months 3 months none

(b) Ref.88/V-1/CBI/5/3 dt. 30.9.99.

Qn.42 Inquiry is not mandatory under Rule (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Rule 5 Rule 14(ii) Rule (13) None

(b) Rly.Bds No. E(D&A) 85 RG-6-72 dt. 16.5.86.

Qn.43 D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Permanent employee Apprentice Casual lab our with temporary status None

Qn.44 Whether Sr.Section Engineer are empowered to suspend a Jr.clerk in scale RS.30504050 (RSRP) working under his control? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Sr.Section Engineer is Competent Authority Depends upon offence Office Supdt. is competent authority None of these

(a) Ref. As per DOP in schedule II.

Qn.45 Inquiry officers report is to be supplied to (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Presenting officer Controlling officer Charged officer None

(C) Ref. E(D&A) RG 6-151 dt. 10.11.89

Qn.46 On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at the new place of posting who will be the competent authority for taking disciplinary action? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (2) GM D&A Authority at new place D&A authority at old place None Ref. E(D&A) 69 RG 6-8 dt. 29.9.69.

Qn.47 The notice of final penalty should be signed by (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Enquiry officer Controlling officer Disciplinary authority None Rly.Bds No. E(D&A)67 RG 6-35 dt. 20.12.67.

Qn.48 What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff working under the administrative control of DOM and misconduct pertains to violations of Commercial rule or safety rules? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) DCM/Sr.DCM DSO/Sr.DSO DOM/Sr.DOM DPO/Sr.DPO E(D&A) 2001 RG-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.49 All DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled fixed by the Rly.Board. (a) (b) (c) Ans. (c) 202 days 300 days 150 days 150 days

Qn.50 Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate authority can act as revising authority? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Rule-25 Rule - 25 A Rule-22 Rule-21

Qn.51 A charged employee has a choice for choosing an Assistant Railway employee (DC). However certain classes of employees are based as DCs which one of the following classes are barred? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) Vigilance inspector Law Assistant Railway servants under suspension None the above Ref.Bds No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-175 dt. 18/12/92.

Qn.52 Reappointment of Railway employee in cases of removal from service may be considered by the (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) Revising authority Disciplinary authority Higher than the Revising authority None of the these

Qn.53 Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years without calculation effect and not adversely affecting his pension is (a) (b) (c) Major penalty Minor penalty None

(d) Ans. (b)

Both of these Ref. Bds No. E(D&A) 90 RG 6-12 dt. 16.11.90.

Qn. 54 Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service should be imposed only by (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) controlling officer disciplinary authority appointing authority none Ref.RBs No. E(D&A) 80/RG-25 dt. 20.1.86.

Qn.55 The following are not in penalty under D&A Rules? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Censure Warning Stoppage of pass The recovery from pay of any pensionary loss

Qn.56 Whether ad-hoc promotee officers are competent to initiate disciplinary proceedings? Ans. No.

Qn.57 Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans. (C) Stoppage of increment Stoppage of passes Warning Censure None

Qn. 58. While forwarding appeals under Rule 21(3) of the R.S.(D&A) Rules to the appellate authority should confirm its comments to (a) the points raised in the appeal only (b) comment on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged official has had no opportunity to explain his position (c) discuss past cases (d) comments on his personality Ans. (a) Rly.Bds ref. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-40 dt. 13.1.2000.

Qn.59 Whether Divisional safety officer can act as disciplinary authority in the case of misconduct of Dy.S.S.Working under D.O.M? (a) Division Safety Officer is competent (b) Divisional Safety Officer is not competent (c) Divisional Personnel Officer is competent (d) None of these Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 74 RG 6-69 dt. 4.8.97. Qn.60 Whether issuance of inquiry or counseling or Govt. Displeasure can constitute a penalty under D&A Rule?

(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans.

is a penalty under D&A Rules is not a penalty under D&A Rules All are penalty under D&A Rule None of these

(b) Ref. E(D&A) 77 RG 6-20 dt. 10.5.77.

Qn.61 Can a disciplinary authority order for stoppage of increment under Rule 6 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 effecting from the date of issuance of order or from date of next increment due. (a) (b) (c) (d) effect from the date of issue of order effect from date of next increment date from the retrospective effect none of these

Ans. (b) Qn.62 What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition to the revising Authority? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) 60 days 45 days 90 days none

Qn.63 Which Rules comes under when revision petition is not prefer within the time limit? (a) Rule 25 (b) Rule 27 (c) None (d) Rule 22 Ans. (b) Qn.64 Under which circumstances ex-parte inquiry can be held? (a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two occasion. (b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO (c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO (d )None of these. Ans. (a) Qn.65 Can any of the penalties specified in Rule 6 of the Railway servants (D&A)Rules be imposed with retrospective effect? (a) With retrospective effect (b) Both are prospective and immediate effect as admissibleS (c) Always be prospective effect (d) None of these Ans. (b) Qn.66 During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether promotion of a Railway staff will be affected. (a) promotion will be affected (b) promotion will not be affected (c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment (d) none of these (b)

Ans.

Qn.67 When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Rule 6 Rule 14(ii) Rule 13 None

Qn.68 What is the correct Rule under R.S.Rules (D&A)for common proceeding? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Rule 14 Rule 18 Rule 13 None

(C) Ref. R.S.D&A Rules, 1968.

Qn.69 Under which Rule before disposing the revision petition by the GM the case should be refer to RRT for advice. (a) (b) (c) Ans. Rule 14(i) Rule 31 Rule 24

(C) Ref. R.S.(D&A) Rule, 1968.

Qn.70 Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior in rank to the charged official? (a) Always IO should be senior (b) IO may be junior (c) IO may be equal in rank with CO (d) None of these Ans. (a) Rly.Bds ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG-6-24 dt. 20.2.01. Qn.71 Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of Rule 25 (i) (iv)? (a) (b) (c) Ans. The officer not below the rank of DRM The officer not below the rank of JA officer The officer not below the rank of PHOD

(a) E(D&A)2003/RG 6-37 dt. 13.2.04.

Qn.72 Whether it is obligatory of the inquiry officer to inform defence counsel engaged by the charged official in each hearing? (a) IO should inform DC (b) IO should not inform DC (c) DA should inform DC (d) None of these Ans. (a)

Qn.73 What is the current Rule for granting compassionate allowance to Railway employees who are removed or dismissal from service?

(a) (b) (c) Ans. (b)

Rule 64 of R.S.(Pension) Rules Rule 65 of R.S.(Pension) Rules Rule 60 of R.S.(Pension) Rules

Qn.74 Fresh Rule (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b)

appointment/Re-appointment under D&A Rule can be consider in terms of 502 IREC Vol-I 402 IREC Vol-1 302 IREC Vol-1 None

Qn.75 How many total number of Rules, the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, do contain and how many parts are they divided. (a) (b) (c) Ans. (C) 31 Rule in IV parts 25 Rule in VI parts 31 Rule in VII parts

Qn.76 Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with the procedure for (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) Suspension Major penalty proceedings Appeal cases Minor penalty proceeding

Qn. 77 Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Censure Withdrawing of promotion Suspension None

Qn.78 Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as defence counsel? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) A A A A serving Rly. Employee retired Rly. Employee legal petitioner trade union official

Qn.79 Removal from service of Mr.X. Hd.Clerk, CPOs office, who had absented himself by overstaying his leave without giving him an opportunity of showing cause why he should not be removed. (a) (b) (c) No show cause is necessary No opportunity against article 311 of the constitution of India Approval of PHOD

(d) Ans. (b)

None of these.

Qn.80 While forwarding appeals under Rules 21(3) of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules to the Appellate Authority should ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Confine its comments to the points raised in the appeal only Can comments on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged employee had had no opportunity to explain his position Confine its comments with the approval of Revising Authority None of these

(a) Ref.RBs No. E(D&A)99 RG6-40 dt. 13.1.2000 (RBE 7/2000)

Qn.81 Who is the competent to review under Rule 25 A the Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) General Manager PHOD Railway Board The President of India

Qn.82 Who is the competent authority to consider the appeal without restriction of time limit? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) PHOD GM DRM HOD

Qn.83 When it is no practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Rule 9 Rule 13 Rule 14(ii) None of these

Qn.84 Who would be competent to issue Govts displeasure to a retd. Railway employee whose case has been dropped after retirement but initiated before retirement? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Railway Board HOD/PHOD AGM/GM None of these.

(C) Ref.Bds No.E(D&A)2001 RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02

Qn.85 Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of Rule 25(i) (iv)?

Ans.

(a) DCM (b) SrDPO (c) DRM (d) None of these. (C) Ref. In RBs No. E(D&A)2003/RG-6/37 dt. 13.2.04.

Qn.86 Which authority to cut in pensionary benefit (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. GM Rly.Board President of India None

(C) Ref. Rule 9 of RS(Pension) Rules 1993.

Qn.87 Whether Revision/Review of cases already finalsied before retirement of the Railway employees can be initiated after his retirement with a view to impose a cut in his pensionary benefits? (a) Can be initiated. (b) Cannot be initiated. (c) Can be initiated with the approval of GM. (d) None of these. Ans. (b) Rly.Boards ref. E(D&A)93 RG 6-61 dt. 11.1.2000. Qn.88 Whether pension is payable in the cases of removal or dismissal of a railway servant? (a) Pension is payble. (b) Pension is not payable. (c) Compassionate allowance can be considered. (d) None of these. Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A)2003-RG6-2 dt. 13.1.04.

Qn.89 Under which Rule is permissible for consideration of appeal (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Rule 20 Rule 22 Rule 25 None

Qn.90 Which of the following is the order against which no appeal lies? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans (C) An order of suspension An order for enhancement of penalty Any order passed by an inquiry authority in the course of an enquiry None of these.

Qn.91 Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable to constable of the Railway protection force? (a) are applicable. (b) are not applicable.

(c) (d) Ans. (b)

are applicable in certain cases. None of these.

Qn.92 Who is the competent to initiate & finalise the D&A proceedings against a Comml. Superintendent. a) b) c) d) Ans Sr. DPO DEE SCM None of these.

(C) Qn. 93 Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay cannot affect promotion during penalty. a) b) c) d) Not affect promotion Affect promotion Affect promotion after expiry of punishment None of these.

Ans

(A)

Qn. 94 What is Rule 14(II) of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968. a) b) c) d) Ans. (B) Removal / Dismissal after an SF 5 is issued. Removal / Dismissal without any inquiry when it is not practicable to hold inquiry in a normal manner. Compulsory retirement without any inquiry. Removal / Dismissal in case of conviction.

Qn. 95 A Railway servants cannot be promoted during the punishment period either minor or major? Which one of the following is an exception to the above provisions? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Recovery of pecuniary loss caused to the Govt. Reduction to the lower stage in the time scale of pay Withholding of increment Reduction to the lower time scale of pay/grade/post

Qn.96 Which one of the penalties cannot be imposed on a retired Railway service? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans (d) Cut Cut Cut Cut in in in in pension DCRG pension/DCRG retirement complementary passes

Qn.97 A suspended Rly Employee issued a major penalty C/sheet but finally imposed a minor penalty. The treatment of suspension period. (a) (b) Non duty Duty

(c) (d) Ans. (b)

Dies non None of these. Rly.Bd.Ref.E(D&A) 86 RG 6-19 dt. 21.3.86.

Q.98. Before forwarding the mercy appeal to Rly.Board the mercy appeal may be examined by the (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Controlling officer Disciplinary authority Prescribed authority Revising authority Rly.Bds ref. E(D&A)99 RG 6-25 dt. 11.10.99.

Q.99. Which is not applicable to treatment of the suspension period? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) Q.100 After retirement a charge sheet can be issued only by the (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) GM Controlling officer President of India Chief Personnel Officer Justice of Supreme Court Duty Suspension Leave due Dis-non

Ref. Rule 9 of R.S.(Pension) Rules 1993

Qn.101 Rely to the charge memorandum by the C.O (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Qn.102 When inquiry is not necessary? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. Charges admitted by CO Charges not admitted by CO Charges prepared by DA. None of these. 15 days 10 days 20 days None

(a) Ref. E(D&A)57 RG 6-6 dt. 26.4.57.

Qn. 103 Arising out of investigation by the CBI, the charge sheet may be dropped by the Disciplinary Authority, the matter should be consulted with (a) (b) (c) (d) GM Railway Board CBI Supreme Court

Ans. (c)

E(D&A) 81 RG 6-28 dt. 27.6.81. of presenting officer is mandatory In all cases CBI vigilance investigation Canteen None

Qn.104 Appointment (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b)

Ref. E(D&A) 78 RG 6-3 DT. 20/22/1/79. against inquiry officer as bias, the case should be put up for suitable Disciplinary authority Appellate authority Revising authority None Ref. E(D&A) 70 RG-6-14 (i) dt. 19.6.74. order sheet maintain by Disciplinary authority Inquiry officer Charged officer None

Qn. 105. Allegation orders to. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c)

Qn.106 Daily (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b)

Qn.107. Which penalty does not effect for promotion? (a) Stoppage of pass/PTOs (b) Reduction in post (c) Dismissed from service (d) None Ans. Qn.108. (a) Exparte inquiry may be held when (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Qn. 109. authority? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) CO does not appear I.O does not appear Defence counsel does not appear None When did De-novo proceedings may be ordered by the competent Irregularity or proceedings Correctly proceedings CO does not appear None

Qn.110 In case of Noc-CVC vigilance case, before imposition of penalty the matter should be consult with (a) (b) GM Vo (T)

(c) (d) Ans. (b)

CPO CAT Ref.E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-30 dt. 16.5.01. Inquiry is not necessary when an employee Intoxication of Alcohol Conviction of criminal charge Misuse of Rly.property Misbehavior with supervisor Ref.Rule 14(i) of RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.

Qn.111 (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b)

Qn.112. Under which Rule that Disciplinary authority does not issue a formal charge sheet for imposition of penalty. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (c) Rule Rule Rule Rule 13 25 14(ii) 22

Qn.113. For retd. GrA officer of SA grade is to be communicated Govts displeasure by (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) President of India Rly.Board Supreme Court None

Qn.114 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment for 2years in scale rs.4500-125-7000 on pay Rsd.4625/- p.m. with cumulative effect. Date of increment 1.8.05. After expiry of punishment his pay will be fixed. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Rs.4875 Rs.4750 Rs.4775 None of these.

Qn.115. Reduction of pay by two stages to the lower stages of Rs.5850/- in the scale 5500-175-9000 for period 2 year without cumulative effect. Date of effect penalty 1.3.2000 and date of increment 1.6.2000. After expiry of punishment his pay will fixed on 1.6.2002. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) 6550 6725 6900 None of these.

Qn. 116 Minimum period of with holding of increment

(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d)

3 months One year Six months 2 months 282/89

Qn.117 . A retd. Employee may be granted pension before finalisation of the D&A case. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (C) Full pension Half pension Provisional pension None

Qn.118. A Gr C staff in pay scales of up to and including Rs.(5000-8000) placed under suspension? Who is the actual competent authority in his grade. (a) Assistant officer (b) JA Grade officer (c) Assistant officer(Jr.Scale and charge) and Sr.Scale officer (d) None Ans. (b)

and Group B holding independent

Ref. DOP, Rly.Boards letter No. E(D&A) 2002-RG 6-1 dt. 10.3.03.

Qn.119.. Who is the competent authority to issue a Govt. displeasure notice for retd. Employee upto and including selection Grade of JA grade in respect of D&A proceedings had already been initiated before retirement but such proceedings are to be dropped? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) JA Grade officer Rly.Board President of India GM Ref. Rl;y.Board No. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02. who will be acting as

Qn. 120. In any case, ADRM is the disciplinary authority Appellate authority? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) DRM PHOD GM Rly.Board Ref. Schedule II of DOP.

Qn.121. In any case PHOD as Revising authority enhanced the penalty then CO (a) (b) (c) (d) May prefer further appeal May not prefer further appeal May prefer an appeal to Rly.Board. None of these.

Ans.

(a)

Ref. Rly.Bd. No. E(D&A)94/RG 6-11 dt. 31.8.94.

Qn.122 Re-appointment under Rule 402-RI. A railway employee may be given full benefit of past service. (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Imposition of enhanced punishment by the competent authority 12 months 6 months 4 months 3 months Full benefit of past service Forfeiture of past service Half benefit of the past service. None of these.

Qn.123 within (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b)

Qn.124. Reduce penalty or upheld the penalty imposed by the a competent authority within (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 year 2years 6 months None

Ans. (a) Qn.125.Show cause notice is necessary when the (a) (b) (c) (d) Upheld the punishment Reduce the punishment Propose to enhance punishment None

Ans. (C) Qn. 126. In any case an employee preferred a revision petition, in the meantime he has died, his petition may be considered by the (a) (b) (c) (d) GM Rly.Board President of India Revising authority Ref. E(D&A)85 RG 6-46 dt. 11.11.85.

Ans. (d)

127. In very special circumstances, which authority can revert an officiating employee in relaxation of the time of 18months. (a) (b) (c) PHOD DRM GM

(d)

Rly.Board

Ans. GM Ref. E(D&A) 85 RG 6-9 dt. 20.4.85. 128. Which one of the following penalties are recognised? (a) (b) (c) (d) Warning Censure Counseling Govt. displeasure.

Ans. (b)

LEAVE RULES LEVEL-I 1. How many days of LAP in a calendar year, a permanent/ Temporary Railway servant shall be entitled to get? a) 20 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 45 days Ans:- (c) 30 days in a calendar year; (Para-523 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition) 2. How many days of LAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?.

a) 30 days b) 10 days c) 20 days d) 12 days Ans:- (c ) 20 days in a year; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol.-I,1995 edition) 3. A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for

a) 135 days b) 120 days c) 90 days d) 130 days Ans:- (a) 135 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & Para-551 of IREC-Vol.I,1995 edition) 4. For miscarriage, including abortion, what period granted?. a) 6 weeks b) 45 days c) 7 weeks d) 43 days. Ans:- (b) 45 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 72/97 ) 5. Paternity leave is admissible with less than two surviving children for a period of of Maternity leave may be

a) 10 days b) 20 days c) 15 days d) 25 days Ans:- (c ) 15 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & 154/97) 6. Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is

a) 120 b) 180 c) 190 d) 300 days Ans:- (d) 300 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 172/97 )

7.

LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of

a) 2 days per month b) 3 days per month c) 2 days per month d) 1 days per month Ans:- (a) 2 days per month; (Para-524 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition) 8. How many days of LAP per year can be credited to a school staff ?

a) 10 days b) 5 days c) 7days d) 8 days Ans:- (a) 10 days; (Para-525 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition) 9. How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employeet in his service life?

a) 300 days b) 450 days c) 600 days d) Un limited Ans:- (d) Unlimited; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition) 10. A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children

a) Less than two b) One c) Four d) Three Ans:- (a) Less than two surviving children; (Para-551(A) R-I) 11. Up to what limit, maternity leave may be combined with any kind of leave?

a) One year b) Two years c) Unlimited d) Six months Ans:- (a) One year; (Para-551, R-I) 12. A Trade Apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding----------- days per year. a) 15 days b) 13 days c) 10 days d) 12 days Ans:- (d) 12 days; (Para-534, R-I)

13. Apprentice Mechanics in Railways Workshops may be granted leave on full stipend for period not exceeding... a) 16 days b) 20 days c) 25 days d) 30 days Ans:- (a) 16 days; (Para-533, R-I) 14. Gazetted officers may be granted LAP for the period exceeding 180 days but not exceeding , if leave granted out side India. a) 200 days b) 240 days c) 230 days d) 250 days Ans:- (b) 240 days; (RBE No. 42/92) 15. Study leave shall count for :-

a) Reckoning seniority b) Reckoning increment c) Earning LAP d) Earning LHAP. Ans:- (c ) Earning LAP (R-I, 556) LEVEL-II 16. Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?

a) Group A b) Group B c) Group C d) Group D Ans:- (d) Group D only. (Para-554 of IREC, Vol.-I) 17. When no leave is admissible under any other rule, the leave granted is known as

a) LAP b) LHAP c) SPL Leave d) Extra ordinary leave. Ans:- (d ) Extra ordinary leave (Para 530, R-I) 18. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is.

a) 200 days b) 180 days c) 360 days d) 300 days Ans:- (d) 300 days; (E. S. No. 172/97)

19.

Who is the authority to sanction Special Disability Leave?.

a) Senior Scale Officer b) J A Grade Officer c) DRM d) ADRM Answer:- (d) ADRM (Rule 552, 553, R-I). 20. Leave of any kind can be combined with vacation in the case of

a) Officers b) Office Staff c) Running Staff d) Rly. School Teacher Answer:- (d) Rly. School Teacher (Para 525, R-I). 21. What is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway servant may be granted? a) 120 days b) 160 days c) 180 days d) 300 days Ans:- (c) 180 days; (Para 523, R-I) 22. What is the maximum limit of Leave not due that may be granted to a permanent Rly. Servant during his entire service period? a) 360 days b) 380 days c) Unlimited d) 300 days Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E. S. No. 31/89 & Para 528,R-I, 1995 edition) 23. Within which period, Paternity Leave can be granted?

a) Six months b) Three months c) Four months d) 15days Ans:- (a) 6 months; (E. S. No. 05/2000) 24. Special Disability Leave on average pay granted for accident on duty shall not exceed a) 120 days b) 125 days c) 360 days d) 280 days Ans:- (d) 280 days; (Para 553 (iii), R-I) 25. Paternity leave is also admissible to

a) Casual Labour b) Casual labour with temporary status c) After completion of 180 days of service d) After regular absorption Ans:- (b) Casual labour with temporary status; (E. S. No. 143/99) 26. Staff of which Railway are entitled to avail extra Casual leave?

a) SER b) ECOR c) NFR d) ECR Ans:- (c) NFR; 27. Whom does the Compensatory Casual leave is admissible?

a) Supervisory staff b) Group D staff c) Group C & Group D staff but not supervisor d) Stenographer & Confidential Assistant Ans:- (c) Group C & Group D staff but not supervisor; (E. S. No. 27/61) 28. Quarantine Leave

a) Withdrawn b) Admissible in critical diseases c) For Eye disease d) Wifes Sickness Ans:- (a) Withdrawn; (Para, 555, R-I) LEVEL-III 29. Commuted leave is admissible on

a) Medical Certificate b) Request of an employee c) Discretion of competent authority d) None Ans:- (a) On Medical Certificate; (Para, 527, R-I) 30. If a Railway employee applies for a kind of leave say competent authority may.. a) Sanction as CL b) sanction as LWP c) refuse to sanction it d) convert it as commuted leave Ans:- (c) Refuse to sanction it; (Para, 503, R-I) 31. A Railway shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not exceeding a) 3 Years LAP, in advance, the

b) 4 years c) 5 years d) 6 years Ans:- (c) 5 years; (Para, 510, R-I) 32. Which of the following leave can be combined with vaction in case of a school teacher? a) Only LAP b) Only LHAP c) Any kind of leave d) Special disability leave Ans:- (c) Any kind of leave; (Para, 525 (d) , R-I) 33. How many occasions does a workshop staff be granted half a days LAP?

a) 6 occasions b) 10 occasions c) 6 occasions d) 12 occasions Answer :- (a ) 6 occasions ( Para539/2, R-I) 34. Hospital leave granted to a non-Gazetted Rly. Servant should not exceed a total of ..when combined with other leave a) 24 months b) 26 months c) 28 months d) 18 months Answer :- (c ) 28 months (554/4, R-I 35. What is the maximum limitation of Leave Not Due granted on medical certificate during the entire period of service? a) 360 days b) 365 days c) 370 days d) 390 days Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E.S.No.30/89) 36. Maximum of study leave that can be granted to an employee during his entire service period is .. a) 36 months b) 28 months c) 24 months d) 30 months Answer :- (a ) 36 months (170/98 ) 37. In case of Cut in pension, for compulsory retirement as a measure of punishment, leave encashment is admissible for a) 360 days b) 150 days

c) un utilized days d) not eligilble Ans:- (d) not eligilble; (E.S.No.334/87) 38. Which of the following leave may be granted to a Rly. Servant, Volunteered to donate blood in Govt./Rly. Hospitals for railway employees. a) Special Casual leave b) casual leave c) LAP d) LHAP Ans:- Special Casual leave. 39. If a railway servant resigns from service during study leave, and it is converted into regular leave as LAP/LHAP leaving balance, such a balance shall be treated as. A) unauthorized absence b) Extra ordinary leave c) Study leave d) Leave not due Answer:- (b) Extra ordinary leave (R-I, Appv./ul/2/w) 40. Who is the Authority to grant study leave abroad? A) Rly. Board b) GM c) DRM d) CPO Answer:- (a) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02) 41. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave within India? A) Rly. Board b) GM c) DRM/CWM d) CPO Answer:- (b) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02) 42. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave for Group C & D categories within India? a) Rly. Board b) GM c) DRM/CWM d) CPO Answer:- (c ) DRM/CWM (E.S.No.77/02) 43. What is the Maximum joining time admissible to a Railway Servant? a) 10 days b) 12 days c) 15 days d) 16 days Answer:- 15 days in case of air travel is involved (Para- 1108, R-I, 1995)

44. Which of the following employee does Special Casual leave is admissible under family welfare scheme? a) Male employee b) Female employee c) Both male & female employee d) None Answer:- (c ) Both male & female employee (E.S.No.100/ 84) 45. Under small family norms a railway employee is entitled to get Special Casual leave up to. a) 14 days b) 16 days c) 20 days d) 25 days Answer:- 14 days (E.S.No.100/ 84) 46. Special Casual Leave is admissible foe employees who reside at a place where the date of polling is different from that of place. a) 1 day b) 2 days c) 3 days d) 4 days Answer:- 1 day (E.S.No.122/ 87) 47. Who is the authority to grant Special Casual Leave for Bundh,Curfew or other disturbances? a) PHOD b) HOD c) DRM d) ADRM Answer:- (b) HOD (DRM/CWM) (E.S.No.4/ 85) 48. What is the maximum Casual leave admissible in a calendar year for scouting/ Sports activities? a) 30 days b) 45 days c) 15 days d) 25 days Answer:- 120 days (E.S.No.33/ 05) 49. Special Casual Leave is granted to cover the period of absence of Rly. Servants attending JCM a) Not more than 5 days in a year b) Not more than 10 days in a year c) 6 days in a year d) 10 days in a year Answer:- (a) Not more than 5 days in a year 14 days (E(L0 66 NM-1/21 dt 25-1-67)

50. If the transfer involves change of station, and the distance between the old and new station is less than 1000 k.ms, how many days of joining time is admissible? a) Not more than 5 days b) 10 days c) 12 days d) 15 days Answer:- (b) 10 days (Rly. Bds No. E(G)79/JT1/1 dt. 21.02.1980)

PASS RULES Q 1. (a) (b) (c) (d) What is Pass? Pass is a Privilege. To travel in Railway An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person authorizing him to travel in a train gratuitously. None of these. Answer: (c) Q 2. (a) Family means. Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent. Bonafide student of any recognized University. Unmarred daughter of any age whether earning or not, dependent widow daughter. Railway Doctors certified invalid son daughter of any age. Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age. Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age. Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive. Answer: (a) Q 3. (a) (b) (c) (d) How many sets of P.T.O. issued to the Railway employees? 6 sets both for Gazetted and appointment. 4 sets both for Gazetted and appointment. 3 sets both for Gazetted and appointment. 6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted every year from the date of Non-Gazetted every year from the date of Non-Gazetted every year from the date of Non-Gazetted.

(b) (c) (d)

Answer: (a) (Rule-6) Railway Boards Manual. Q 4. (a) (b) (c) (d) Q 5. (a) (b) (c) (d) How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee? 6 sets per year. 4 sets per year. 3 sets per year. 5 sets per year. Answer: 3 sets per year Maximum validity for a Privilege Pass? 3 4 2 5 months months months months (Half-set) (Full-set) (Half-set) (Full-set)

(Answer : (a) & (b) Q 6. (a) (b) (c) (d) Attendants of Pass Holder is:Part time servant. Servant Full time paid servant. Any person.

Answer : (c) Q 7. (a) (b) (c) (d) Pass to widows/widower of Railway employee was implemented w.e.f. 12.03.1987 12.03.1990 12.03.1989 12.03.1988 Answer: (a) Rule 9 Q 8. (a) (b) (c) (d) Maximum birth given for Reservation to Railway Officer on duty? 6 4 3 2 births births births births

Answer: (b) Q 9. Eligibility for 1st Class Pass for Non-Gazetted staff. Who are appointed before 01.08.1969 (a) (b) (c) (d) Basic Basic Basic Basic Pay Pay Pay Pay 5375 4900 5100 4900 in in in in scale scale scale scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5 th Rs. 4000-6000/- (5 th Rs. 4000-6000/- (5 th Rs. 4000-6000/- (5 th PC) PC) PC) PC)

Answer: (b)

Q 10. (a) (b) (c) (d)

When Higher Class Pass issued On medical ground. On Scouts & Guide None of these Cultural functions Answer: (a)

Q 11. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Penalties for not filling the date of commencement of journey (Privilege/Duty) 2nd Class Pass holder Rs. 5/Rs. 10/Rs. 15/ Rs. 20/Answer: (b)

(a)

1st Class Pass holder Rs. 15/-

(b) (c) (d)

Rs. 25/Rs. 35/Rs. 50/Answer: (b)

Q 12.

Loss of a Retired Complimentary Pass? 2nd Class Pass holder

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs.

10/20/30/ 40/-

Answer: (a) Q 13. Penalties for loss of a School Card Pass/Residential Card Pass. 2nd Class Pass holder (a) (b) (c) (d) Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. 10.50/12.50/13.50/14.50/-

Answer: (b) 1st & 1st A Pass holder (a) (b) (c) (d) Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. 35/40/45/50/-

Answer: (a) Q 14. (a) (b) (c) (d) Penalties for loss of a Gold Pass. Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. 3009/3309/3109/3209/-

Answer: (b) Q 15. (a) (b) (c) (d) Penalties for loss of a Silver Pass. Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. 1890/1790/1799/1690/-

Answer: (b) Q 16. (a) Penalties for loss of a Bronze Pass. Rs. 1729/-

(b) (c) (d)

Rs. 1829/Rs. 1629/Rs. 1529/Answer: (a)

Q 17. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Privilege issued Pass/P.T.Os. are admissible when a staff is on Any kind of leave. Only extra ordinary leave. Only study leave. Only special disability leave. Answer: (a)

Q 18. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Weekend are issued to: Any railway employee. Married railway employee. If father is not alive of a railway employee. Un married railway employee. Answer: (b)

Q 19. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Passes are not admissible over Nilgiri Railway during the month (except Gazetted staff) January, February, March April, May, June July, August, September October, November, December. Answer: (b) Rule 6-3 (XVIII)

Q 20. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Full form of P.T.O. Personnel Ticket Order Permanent Ticket Order Privilege Ticket Order Pass & Ticket Order. Answer: (c) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (g)

Q 21. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Set means Set Set Set Set means means means means 3 sets of pass per year. 6 sets of pass per year. 3 sets of pass & 6 sets of P.T.O. per year. One set of pass or P.T.O. for Outward and Return journey.

Answer: (d) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (k) Q 22. (a) (b) (c) (d) Break journey is not permissible in case of Transfer Pass. School Pass. Settlement Pass. Post Retd. Complimentary Pass.

Answer: (c) Q 23. (a) (b) (c) (d) On what grounds a 1st class School Pass is issued to a 2nd class pass holders. Studying Studying Studying Studying in Sindia School/Gwalior in South Point School/Kolkata in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur in Oak Grove School/Jharipani/Dehradun.

Answer: (d) Rly.Bd.s No.E(G) LIPS 5-1/5 dt. 29.3.61. Q 24. (a) (b) (c) (d) How many sets of Pass will be deducted for un-authorized occupying Railway quarter? One One One One set set set set will will will will be be be be deducted deducted deducted deducted for for for for two months. one month. one year. three months.

Answer: (b) Q 25. (a) (b) (c) (d) How much Service (minimum) is required for Post Retired Complimentary Pass 20 25 15 33 years years years years

Answer: (a) Q 26. (a) (b) (c) (d) What basic Pay is required for traveling in 1st AC on duty for self-only? All Group B Officers. JAG & above grade Officers. Rs. 14300/Officers above Rs. 14300/SS grade officers. Rs. 14300/Answer: (b) Q 27. (a) (b) (c) (d) How many break journeys are admissible in Privilege Pass? 6 nos. 7 nos. Any number (En-route) 5 nos. Answer: (c) Q 28. (a) (b) (c) (d) On what routes Pass can be issued? Any route. Shortest route & longest route but quicker. Longest route. Shortest route with 30% of the longest route. Answer: (b)

Q 29. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Irregularity for use of Passes may be condon by CPO GM CME COM Answer: (b)

Q 30. (a) (b) (c) (d)

How many School Certificates are required for School Card Pass in a year. One in a year Four in a year Two in a year One in whole service life Answer: (c)

Q 31. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Who is the competent authority for delayed issue of settlement pass beyond one year of retirement of Group C & D employees. Any officer Dy.CPO/Pass GM/AGM or CPO/DRM Dy. Secretary (Pass) Answer: (c) Pass Manual Schedule-VII Rule XVI.

Q 32. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Can Post Retired Complimentary Pass be issued to Quasi Railway Institutions? No Yes May be issued with the approval of GM. PHODs approval. Answer: (a) Schedule VII, Rule XVIII

Q 33. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Split Passes are issued to which Railway Servant? Only Group A service All Officers All Railway Servants (A, B, C & D) Only GM/AGM. Answer: (c)

STAFF WELFARE & EDUCATIONAL FACILITIES Q.1. Who is primarily responsible to provide educational facilities to the wards/children of Railway employees. a) b) c) d) Ans. Q.2 a) State Government/Ministry of HRD Railway Ministry Other Agencies All (Boards letter No. E/W 83/SC/2/27 dt. 13.9.88)

Educational facilities provided by the Railways are generally confined to a) b) c) d) School level College level Technical level Professional level (Bds letter No.E(W)83/SC 2/27 dt. 13.9.88)

Ans. Q.3.

a)

Railway Schools functioning in various Railways colonies get recognition by the a) b) c) d) Ministry of Railways, Education Board/Deptt. Of Respective State Govt. CBSE CISE

Ans.

b)

Q.4. To meet the educational needs of Wards/children of Railway employees, Railway colonies have following schools other than Railway own a) b) c) d) Ans. Q.5. d) The admission in Railway School is restricted to a) b) c) d) Ans. Q.6. d) Minimum amount is levied on student of Rly. Schools in the form of a) b) c) d) Ans. c) Tuition fees Exams. Fees S.D.F Science Fee Child wards of Railway employees only As per merit test open to all Outsider to a limited extent on availability of seat. Only a) & c) K.Vs, State Govt. Schools Private Schools, All

Q.7.

Is there any concession in the matter of Admission for SC/ST students. a) b) c) d) Reservation of 15% seats for SC, 5% for ST Reservation in (I) is inter-changeable No refusal in Primary classes All

Ans. Q.8. join

d) Railway Schools do not constitute `industry; Is there any scope for the teachers to a) b) c) d) Existing Trade Union of Railways Forming association of their own Both None

Ans. Q.9.

b) Railway Teachers in their individual capacity can discuss their grievances with the a) b) c) d) Personal Deptt. Officers, Education Board/Department, of Concerned State Govt. Affiliated Board/Council None

Ans.

a)

Q.10. Where there is inadequate educational facilities available or totally absent in a Railway colony, Railway have established KVs in Railway Colonies only at a) b) c) d) Ans. a) Civil Sector Project Sector, Both, None

Q.11. Railways provide physical facilities to the KVs on nominal license fees on a) b) c) d) Ans. b) short term lease long term lease permanent facilities None

Q.12. Privately managed schools in Railway Colonies may get non-recurring and recurring assistance in the form of a) b) c) d) Ans. d) subsidy for expansion of school building furniture and equipment recurring adhoc grant all

Q.13. The authority empowered to sanction recurring adhoc grant to privately managed schools on Railways land on fulfillment of certain conditions. a) b) c) d) Ans. b) Railway Board GM CPO DRM

Q.14. Railway Administration may sanction suitable grant in aid to private managed schools who are unable to balance their budget on fulfillment of certain conditions a) b) c) d) Ans. c) Quartyerly Half-yearly On annual basis As and when required

Q.15. Which of the Rly Schools get a fixed amount for planning and augmenting school Library a) b) c) d) Ans. d) High/Higher Secondary Schools Middle Schools Primary Schools All types of Schools.

Q.16. Library of a Higher Secondary School maintained by a suitable teacher in absence of a librarian may get special pay a) b) c) d) Ans. b) Rs.250/Rs.200/Rs.150/Rs.100/-

Q.17. The in-service training programme of teachers conducted by the a) b) c) d) Ans. a) Zonal Railway Rly. Board NCERT CBSE

Q.18. Childrens educational allowance is admissible to a Railway employee from Class-I to XII per month per child a) b) c) d) Ans. b) Rs.50/Rs.100/Rs.200/Rs.250/-

Q.19. Re-imbursement of tuition fee, educational allowance and Hotel subsidy is admissible to the wards of Rly. employees from classes A) B) C) D) Ans. c) Nursery to X IX I to XII I to Degree Course

Q.20. The re-imbursement of school tuition fee for class I to XII in respect of handicapped children per month is a) b) c) d) Ans. a) Rs.100/Rs.75/Rs.50/Rs.25/-

Q.21. Childrens educational allowance is admissible to a Rly employee when a) b) c) d) Ans. d) child is compelled to study away Absence of a school of requisite stand Railway servant is posted at NE region Any one of a) b) and c)

Q.22. A Rly. servant shall not be eligible to draw children educational allowance, reimbursement of tuition fee for a child in a class for more than a) 1 academic year b) 2 academic years c) 3 academic years d) till completion Ans. b) Q.23. Can a Railway servant eligible to get educational allowance and re-imbursement of tuition fee for the number of children born after 1.4.1987 a) b) c) d) Ans. b) 1 child 2 children 3 children All

Q.24. There is provision for supply of free uniforms at the cost of Rly.revenue to the children of Rly. Employees upto the the pay limit of Rs.5000/- p.m. a) b) c) d) Ans. a) Primary level Middle School level High School level Higher Secondary level

Q.25. Recruitment of teachers in the Railway Schools is made by the Railway Administration concerned The authority lies on a) b) c) d) Ans c) Railway Board GM CPO None of these

Q.26. Whether ACP scheme is applicable for Railway school teacher a) b) c) d) Ans. c) applicable not applicable Governed by the separate scheme none of the above.

Q.27. Which of the statement is not true in regard to the recruitment of TGTs/PGTs a) no fixed DR quota b) serving teachers from feeder category promoted c) shortfall if any made good by DR d) both b) & c) Ans. d)

Q. 28. Primary teachers, TGTs & PGTs in basic grade aqre placed in senior grade subject to found suitable by the DPC on completion of a) 8 years in basic grade b) 10 years in basic grade c) 12 years in basic grade d) non Ans : c) Q. 29. What percentage of teachers enjoying senior grade with higher qualification is eligible for award of selection grade a) b) c) d) Ans. d) 8% 10% 12% 20%

Q.30. Group-B, Headmaster/Headmistress of Secondary School eligible to get the following grant a) b) c) d) Ans. a) Senior grade Selection grade Both None

Q.31. For purpose of grant of selection grade, a TGT should have a) PG Degree in relevant subject

b) c) d) Ans. a)

PG Degree in any subject Only Bachelor Degree None

Q.32. Computer education is provided to the students of Railway Schools at the cost of a) b) c) d) Ans. b) Railway revenue Self sustenance SDF None

Q.33. Upper age limit for recruitment of Railway teacher generally applicable a) b) c) d) Ans. c) Below Below Below Below 28 30 40 45

Q.34. To manage the functioning of the school GM can engage a) Part-time teacher b) Substitute teacher c) A & B both d) None Ans. b) Q.35.School administration of a Higher Secondary School is looked after in absence of a Headmaster by a) b) c) d) Ans.c) Q.36. A teacher of a Rly. School, if avails of full vacation in a year, is entitled to, in respect of duty performed in that year a) b) c) d) Ans. LAP Proportionate LAP No LAP None c) Asst. Headmaster Vice Principal Senior most PGT Senior most TGT

Q.37. A teacher of Railway School can combine with vacation a) b) c) d) Only LAP Only LHAP Only CL Any kind of leave

Ans.

d)

Q.38. With a view to improve quality of education and achieving excellence a scheme of annual award for best teacher, student etc, has been introduced from the academic year 1999-2000 at the a) b) c) d) Ans. d) Railway Boards level Zonal Level Divisional level Both a & B

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