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It requires a full-duplex, point-to-point connection between switches to achieve the highest recalculation speed.
2 Which two statements correctly describe RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
Both broadcast their entire routing table from all participating interfaces to 255.255.255.255.
Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of assigning the IP address 192.168.30.1 to an access layer switch?
to assign a default gateway to the hosts that are connected to the switch
4 A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Pri
the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales
representative?
VPN
Frame Relay
Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured R1, R2, and R3 to use RIPv2, and the network is fully converged. The
hosts on the internal network are able to access R2, but they are unable to access the Internet.
Configure a default route on R3 and propagate it via the use of RIPv2 to all routers.
Configure a default route on R2 and propagate it via RIPv2 to routers R1 and R3.
Configure a default route on the ISP, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.
Configure a default route on R1, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.
7 What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
8
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is using the default OSPF operation. Which IP address will be used as the router ID of R1?
192.168.201.1
172.16.1.1
10.10.10.1
10.1.1.1
9 In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain
members?
client
server
pruning
transparent
10
Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?
It will create, change, and delete VLANs.
It will retain its original database when it receives updates from the server.
enterprise campus
enterprise edge
edge device
It is a reliable protocol.
13
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which two ports will be STP root ports if all links are oper
at the same bandwidth? (Choose two.)
Fa0/1 interface of switch A
14
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between
them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the c
of this connectivity problem?
no set loopback
incompatible bandwidth
incorrect IP address on R1
incompatible encapsulation
15
Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed?
16
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of letters would appear at the beginning of the displayed routing table entries?
17
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator applies ACL 101 outbound on the Fa0/1 interface of R1 as displayed. How will this ACL affect
traffic at R1?
All traffic that exits the Fa0/1 interface will be denied.
All traffic except FTP will be allowed to exit the Fa0/1 interface.
All traffic except FTP will be allowed from the 192.168.1.0 network.
18
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the routers using the displayed commands. What is the reason the EIGRP
network fails to converge?
Both routers have been configured with the same autonomous number.
19 Which two STP states allow a switch to learn MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
blocking
listening
learning
disabled
forwarding
20 While using the Class A addressing scheme, a network administrator decides to use the 255.255.254.0 subnet mask in the network
configuration. How many host addresses can be created for each subnetwork in this addressing scheme?
510
512
1022
1024
21
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses
(Choose two.)
192.168.1.1
192.168.1.2
198.133.219.1
198.133.219.102
198.133.219.103
22
Refer to the exhibit. Using the command ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2 150, the network administrator configures a n
route. Which statement describes how the router will use the new route?
The new route will be ignored and will never be added to the routing table.
The new route will be added to the routing table and will be the primary route to the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
The previously existing dynamic route will be replaced with the new static route.
The new route will be displayed in the routing table if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost.
23 Which route will be excluded from the updates that are sent to the neighbor routers?
24
Refer to the exhibit. How many routers have established OSPF adjacencies with R1?
5
7
25 Which Frame Relay component provides connection status information about PVCs in the network?
CIR
LMI
DLCI
FECN
26
Refer to the exhibit. R3 is announcing all displayed internal networks as a summary address to R4. Which summary address will be
most specific?
172.16.0.0/21
172.16.4.0/21
172.16.0.0/22
172.16.4.0/22
27
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of configuring the newly installed R1 with the exhibited command?
It configures the router to forward traffic that is destined for the 192.168.1.128/26 network through the interface with IP address
10.1.1.2.
It configures a static route for all packets with the source network address 192.168.1.128/26.
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF
29 Which EIGRP packet type is sent when DUAL places a route in the active state?
acknowledgment
hello
query
reply
update
30 What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table?
Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete.
31 Which function does the access layer provide in a hierarchical internetworking model?
It provides hierarchical design between the core layer and the distribution layer.
It provides data security and traffic management for the core layer.
32
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are connected to each other via a trunk link that has been tested and is working properly.
is VTP unable to propagate VLANs from one switch to the other?
It designates the called device to control the frequency and timing of the authentication.
34
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the exhibited command?
The command specifies how traffic will be routed to the 10.1.1.2 host.
If a dynamic routing protocol with default parameters is configured on this router, this route will not be installed in the routing ta
36 What are two reasons for assigning switch ports to different VLANs? (Choose two.)
37
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 net
Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
38
Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible procedures that would ensure that R1 would always be the DR for OSPF area 0? (Choos
two.)
39
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network is fully converged. Which two routers will be designated as the DR and BDR,
the routers are booted at the same time? (Choose two.)
40
Refer to the exhibit. A router has learned the six routes that are shown in the exhibit. Which two routes will be installed in the routing
table? (Choose two.)
1
2
41 Which three statements relate to PPP encapsulation and CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
42
Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a n
router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
43 Which two wildcard masks are required in an extended access list statement that blocks the traffic from host 172.16.1.2 to network
192.168.1.0/25? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.255
0.0.0.255
0.0.0.128
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.0
They identify traffic for multiple uses such as QoS and NAT.
45
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be used at the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access the Internet?
192.168.1.65/27
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.63/27
192.168.1.61/27
46 Which two statements are true about untagged frames on a switch? (Choose two.)
Untagged frames minimize the delays that are associated with inspection of the VLAN ID tag.
Untagged frames that are received on an 802.1Q trunk port are members of the native VLAN.
47
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer at the BRANCH1 office wishes to use network summarization to announce the fewest netwo
possible to the MAIN office. If the summaries include only the networks that are shown and no others, how many networks will be
announced?
PPP
ISDN
Frame Relay
analog dialup
50
Refer to the exhibit. None of the hosts in network A are able to access the Internet. How can this problem be resolved?
A PVC provides a permanent logical connection to forward data between two points.
A PVC prevents small messages from being held up behind larger messages.
A PVC requires call set-up information to be sent before transmitting any data.
52 What are three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network? (Choose three.)
172.16.0.255
172.16.16.16
172.16.127.127
172.16.128.1
172.17.1.1
172.18.1.1
53
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct description of the highlighted address?
54
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is
correct summary address?
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/25
55
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for inter-VLAN communication as displayed. PC1 is able to ping PC2 but unable to ping PC3. W
is the cause of this problem?
PC3 and the FastEthernet0/0 interface of R1 are not on the same subnet.
56
Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands?
57
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to each other through their serial0/0/0 interfaces, but are unable to establish OSPF
adjacency. What are two reasons for this? (Choose two.)
58 What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.)
They enable routers to share information about the reachability and status of remote networks.
59
Refer to the exhibit. What are two consequences of issuing the displayed commands? (Choose two.)
OSPF routes will get priority over EIGRP routes going into the routing table.