1

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1141 Basic Mechanics and Properties of Matter Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. Within the elastic limit, the ratio of the lateral strain to linear strain is called (a) Youngs modulus (d) Poissons ratio 2. The stress acting on a body has the dimensions same as that of (a) Force (b) Pressure (c) Strain (d) Area (b) Bulk modulus (c) Rigidity modulus

3. The elevation at the center of a uniformly bent beam is directly proportional to (a) Youngs modulus (b) breadth of the beam (c) thickness of the beam

(d) load at the ends of the beam 4. With increase in temperature, the surface tension of a liquid (a) increases (b) decreases (c)no change

(d) first increases and then decreases II 5. The S.I unit of coefficient of viscosity is (a) Ns/m2 (b) Ns2/m (c) Ns/m (d) Ns2/m2

6. Bernoullis theorem is not applied in (a) Venturimeter (b) Viscometer (c) Aerofoil (d) Spray atomizer

7. The kinetic energy, of a particle executing SHM, at its mean position is

2 (a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) None of these

8. Moment of inertia of a rigid body is independent of (a) Mass of the body (d) Angular velocity III 9. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about a diameter is _________ 10. The Magnus effect is based on the principle of ________ 11. The viscosity of a fluid is due to its _________ 12. Within the elastic limit, the ratio of the stress to the strain is called ________ IV State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. The viscosity of a liquid increases with increase of temperature. 14. For a particle executing SHM, the total energy is conserved. 15. The surface tension is always tangential to the liquid surface. 16. Pitot tube is a device based on Bernoullis Theorem. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Derive an expression for the moment of inertia of a disc about a tangent in its plane. 18. Mass of a fly wheel is concentrated at its rim. Why? 19. At what position of a harmonic oscillator is its (i) velocity and (ii) acceleration, a maximum. Give their values. 20. A needle can float in clean water but sinks in soap solution. Why? 21. Define Poissons ratio. Obtain its limiting values. 22. Name the factors on which the depression at the free end of a cantilever (b) Axis of rotation (c) Radius of gyration

3 depend. 23. Water spread on a clean glass plate but collects into drops on a greased plate. Why? 24. Distinguish between streamline and turbulent flow. 25. State and explain Work-Energy principle. 26. Write a note on I section girders. 27. Explain the variation of viscosity with temperature. 28. What is the P.E curve of a particle? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A coin rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping. What fraction of its total K.E is rotational? 30. A fly wheel of mass 25 kg has a radius of 0.2 m. It is making 240 rpm. What is the torque necessary to bring it to rest in 20 seconds. 31. Two wires made of the same material are subjected to a force in the ratio 1:2. Their lengths are in the ratio 8:1. Find the ratio of their extensions. 32. Find the period of oscillation and maximum acceleration of a S.H.M given by the equation x = 2Sin(pt + p/2). 33. The excess of pressure inside a soap bubble of radius 6 mm is balanced by 2 mm column of oil of density 800 kg/m3. Find the surface tension of soap solution.

4 34. Water is conveyed through a pipe of 0.08 m in diameter and 4 km in length at the rate of 120 litres/minute. Calculate the pressure required to maintain the flow. Coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.001Ns/m 2. Atmospheric pressure is 1.01105 N/m2. 35. A circular disc of mass 0.5 kg and diameter 12 cm is fixed horizontally to the end of a wire of length 40 cm and radius 0.5 mm. Find the rigidity modulus of the material of the wire if the period of oscillation is 1 second. 36. A uniform thin bar of mass 2 kg and length1.2 m is bent to make an equilateral triangle. Calculate the moment of inertia about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. State and prove parallel and perpendicular axes theorems. Derive an expression for the M.I of a solid sphere about a tangent. 38. With necessary theory explain how a compound bar

pendulum is used to find g at a place. 39. Derive the Poiseuilles formula for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. What are the limitations of Poiseuilles formula.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1221 Methodology in Physics and Informatics Time: 3 hours. Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct option
1. In science a theory is accepted or rejected based on a) authorities b) agreement with textbooks c) democratic principles d) experiments 2. Space research in India is led by a) BARC b) DST c) CSIR d) ISRO 3. Repeated measurements help in canceling out a) random errors b) systematic errors c) spurious measurements d) relative errors 4. A student finds the mass and volume of a solid body with an expected error of 1% and uses the data to calculate density. Expected error in density would be, a) nil b) 0.5% c) 1% d) 2%

II. Choose the correct option 5. An option that allows users to format pages, merge texts and pictures is a. mail merge b. word wrap c. outline d. page layout. 6. In html content of the page can be provided under which of the tag. a. Head b. Body c. Title. d. none of previous 7. Spell checking can be initiated by pressing the ------ function key a. F5 b. F6 c. F7 d. F8
8. Which measure of dispersion is easiest to calculate? a) median b) mean c) standard deviation d) range

III. Match the following 9. Testing of hypothesis 10. Literature survey 11. Method of data collection 12. Empirical research a) Observation and experiment b) sample survey c) expert opinion d) chi-square test

6 e) Academic journals IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Aim of science is to find the ultimate truth. 14. Replication is an important criterion in experimental design. 15. In research methodology subjectivity is more important that objectivity. 16. Scientific method relies on empirical evidence. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Enlist some characteristic features of scientific method? 18. How does the case study method differ from the survey method? 19. What do you mean by repeatability of an experiment? 20. A clock is used to measure the period of a pendulum. Enlist possible sources of error. 21. Define standard deviation. 22. What is meant by dominant error? 23. What do you mean by primary data and secondary data? Give examples. 24. What is the use of Boarders and Shading options (in word) ? 25. Explain window split and window freeze panes in Excel 26. What is meant by a search engine? Name three search engines. 27. Explain Goal seek and solver commands in Tool menu. 28. How can you add sounds in power point slide? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Write short note on criteria of good research. 30. Write a short note on motivation in research. 31. What do you mean by literature survey in the context of research? 32. Write a brief note on space research program in India. 33. Explain the necessity for standardized units for measurement. 34. Point out the important limitations of tests of hypotheses. 35. Explain how errors are represented graphically. 36. Explain the concepts of absolute and relative errors. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Briefly describe the different steps involved in a research process. 38. The procedure of testing hypothesis requires a researcher to adopt several steps. Describe in brief all such steps. 39. Discuss how experimental errors are estimated and reported.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1341 Thermodynamics and Statistical Physics Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I. 1. When a gas is expanded adiabatically, the temperature (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) No change (d) None of these

2. The working of a refrigerator is based on (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (c) Second law of thermodynamics 3. The T-S diagram of an adiabatic process is (a) A straight line parallel to the X axis (b) A straight line p arallel to the Y axis (c) A straight line inclined to the X axis (d) A curve (b) First law of thermodynamics (d) None of these

4. Which of the following remains unchanged during an adiabatic process (a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Entropy (d) Volume

II 5. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 300K and 150K is (a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 60%

6. A process in which the volume remains unchanged is called (a) Isothermal process (b) Isobaric process (d) Adiabatic process 7. The Joule-Kelvin coefficient for a perfect gas is (c) Isochoric process

8 (a) Zero (b) One (c) Less than zero (d) Greater than one

8. In an irreversible process the entropy of the system (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Unchanged (d) None of these

III. 9. The S.I unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity is ___________. 10. The indicator diagram of a process is a straight line parallel to the X axis. It is an ___________ process. 11. For an ideal heat engine, the temperature of the sink is ___________. 12. The sum of the internal energy of a system and the product of its pressure and volume is called __________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Throttling process is an isenthalpic process. 14. The entropy of a system increases in all irreversible processes. 15. The efficiency of a petrol engine is greater than that of a diesel engine. 16. Thermal conductivity of copper can be determined by Lees disc method. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 17. The first law of thermodynamics inculcates three related ideas. What are they? 18. State the essential difference between the first and second laws of thermodynamics. 19. Can you use Maxwells relations to derive first order phase transition equation.

9 20. State third law of thermodynamics. 21. Define solar constant. 22. What is phase space? 23. State Liovilles theorem. 24. What do you know about fermions? 25. State Wiedmann-Franz law. 26. Distinguish between adiabatic and isothermal processes. 27. Explain the principle of increase of entropy. 28. Distinguish between thermal conductivity and thermometric conductivity. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Air is compressed adiabatically to half its volume. Calculate the change in its temperature. ? = 1.4 30. A Carnots engine is operated between two reservoirs at temperatures 450K and 350K. If the engine receives 100 J of heat from the source in each cycle, calculate the heat rejected to the sink in each cycle, the efficiency of the engine and the work done per cycle. 31. Find the increase in the boiling point of water at 1000C when the pressure is increased by one atmosphere. Latent heat of vaporization of steam is 2.268106 J/kg and 1 gram of steam occupies 1.677103 cm3. 32. 10 grams of steam at 1000C is blown into 90 grams of water at 00C contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent 10 gram. The whole steam is condensed. Calculate the increase in the entropy of the system.

10 33. The Fermi energy in copper is 7.04 eV. Approximately what percentage of the free electrons in copper is in excited state at room temperature? 34. The Suns mass is 2.01030Kg, its radius is 7.0108m and its surface temperature is 5.8103K. How many years are needed for the Sun to lose 1% of its mass by radiation? 35. The opposite faces of a brass plate of 2 mm thick are at a temperature
2 difference of 1000C. The area of the plate is 0.02 m . Find the quantity of heat

that flows through the plate in 1 minute if the thermal conductivity of brass is 110 W/m/K. 36. 10 kg of water at 1000C is converted into steam at the same temperature. Calculate the change in entropy. The specific latent heat of steam is 2.26810 6 J/kg. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe the working of a Diesel engine and derive the equation for its efficiency. 38. Define thermal conductivity. Describe, with theory, an experiment to determine the thermal conductivity of a bad conductor using Lees disc method. 39. Distinguish between Maxwell-Boltzmann, Fermi-Dirac and Bose- Einstein Statistics with examples

11 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1441 Electrodynamics Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I. 1. The force between two electric charges is proportional to (a) 1/r (b) 1/r2 (c) r (d) r2

2. The electric potential inside a uniformly charged sphere is (a) uniform (b) non-uniform (c) zero (d) infinity

3. The three electric vectors D , E and P are connected by the relation (a) D= e0E+ P (b) D= e0E -P (c) E= e0D+P (d) P= e0E+D

4. The ratio of the polarization of a linear dielectric to the local electric field is (a) atomic polarisability molecular polarisability (b) electronic polarisability (d) oriental polarisability

II. 5. Which of the following equations is correct where the letters have the usual meaning (a) F= qvB (b) B= qvF (c) v= qBF (d) B= qFv

6. The cyclotron frequency is directly proportional to (a) B (b) B2 (c) 1/B (d) 1/B2

7. The line integral of the magnetic field around any closed path is equal to (a) zero (b) 0I
2 (c) 0I

(d) infinity

12 8. Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when the reactive components of the impedances of the source and the load are (a) zero (b) unequal (c) equal and opposite (d) equal and have same sign

III. 9. The electric intensity at a point close to a charged conductor of surface charge density s is ___________. 10. The surface integral of the magnetic flux over a closed surface is _________. 11. In a parallel resonant circuit, the expression for the resonance frequency is __________. 12. ____________ is used to reduce the strength of the current in an a.c circuit without loss of power. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. In a series LCR circuit the current is minimum at resonance. 14. Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when the resistive components of the impedances of the source and load are equal. 15. At resonance, a series LCR circuit behaves like a pure resistive circuit. 16. The force acting on a current carrying conductor placed perpendicular to a magnetic field is zero. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. State Gausss law in electrostatics. 18. State and explain Coulombs theorem. 19. Explain the term quality factor of a series LCR circuit.

13 20. Give the principle and use of choke in an electric circuit. 21. Explain magnetic potential and flux density. 22. Why do we prefer a.c to d.c in the household power supply? 23. State and explain maximum power transfer theorem. 24. Calculate the power in an a.c circuit with L and R. 25. What are polar and non-polar dielectrics? 26. State and explain Amperes circuital law. 27. Briefly explain a parallel resonant circuit. 28. Explain the physical significance of Maxwells equations. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. The dielectric constant of a medium is 4 and the electric field in the dielectric is 106 V/m. Calculate the electric displacement and polarization. 30.Find the drift velocity of the conduction electrons in a copper wire of cross sectional area 1.510-6 m2, carrying a current of 2 A. The density of copper is 8.95 gm/cc and atomic mass is 63.5 31. A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density 2.5 T with a velocity of 1.5107 m/s at an angle of 300 with the field. Calculate the force on the proton. 32. An electron accelerated by a potential difference of 5000V enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.02 Weber/m2 perpendicular to its direction of motion. Find the radius of the circular path of the electron.

14 33. The magnetic energy stored in an electromagnet is 480J when a current of 5A is passed through its coil. Find the average e.m.f induced if the current is reduced to zero in 0.5 second. 34. A coil of inductance 0.05H and resistance 200 O is connected to a 230V, 50Hz a.c supply. What is the peak value of the current in the coil? 35. A resistance of 20O and a coil of inductance 0.02H are connected in series with a capacitance and put across a 220V, 50Hz supply. Calculate the capacitance so that the circuit resonates. 36. Find the power consumed in a circuit having a resistance of 50O in series with an inductive reactance 75O, both being in series with an A.C. peak current of 1A and peak voltage of 220V. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. State and prove Gausss law in electrostatics. Derive an expression for the electric intensity due to uniformly charged sphere at a point outside, on the surface and inside the sphere. 38. Explain magnetic vector potential. Derive an expression for the magnetic vector potential of a current loop. 39. A parallel LCR circuit is connected across an a.c source. Deduce an expression for the total current in the circuit and explain how it depends on the applied frequency. Obtain an expression for the resonant frequency.

15

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1541 Classical Mechanics and theory of Relativity Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I.1. The number of degrees of freedom for a circular disc rolling on a horizontal plane is (a) One (b) Six (c) Four (d) Three

2. A particle is forced to move on a sphere centered at the origin of a Cartesian frame of reference. The constraint is (a) Holonomic (d) None of these 3. If Hamiltonian does not involve a particular coordinate qk, such coordinate is called (a) cyclic (b) fictious (c) both cyclic and fictious (d) None of these (b) Rheonomic (c) Non-holonomic

4. For a charged particle in an electromagnetic field the canonical momentum are (a) mv2/2-eA/c (b) mv-eA/c (c) mv2/2-eA/c (d) mv+eA/c

II 5. A central force always conserves (a) Energy (b) Linear momentum (c) Angular momentum

(d) None of these 6. For repulsive inverse square forces, the shape of the orbit is (a) Hyperbolic (b) Elliptical (c) Circular (d) All of these

16 7. The frame of reference attached to the earth is (a) Inertial (b) non-inertial (c) accelerated (d) fixed

8. The Coriolis force is zero at (a) Equator (b) north pole (c) south pole (d) none of these

III. 9. In the northern hemisphere the direction of the Coriolis force on a body moving eastward is ___________. 10. The number of degrees of freedom for a rigid body with fixed point is ___________. 11. The Lagrangian of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l is ___________. 12. A physical system is invariant under rotation about a fixed axis, then ____________ is conserved. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. The generalized coordinates of a system need not necessarily have the same dimension. 14. Tachyons have velocity greater than that of photons. 15. Conservation of energy is due to homogeneity of space. 16. Motion of a particle under the force kr obeys Keplers third law.

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What is Coriolis force? 18. What does homogeneity of time mean? What is its consequence?

17 19. What is inverse square law of force? Give two examples. 20. Distinguish between laboratory and center of mass systems. 21. What are generalized coordinates? What is its advantage? 22. Obtain the Lagrangian for a simple pendulum. 23. How is the negative result of Michelson-Moreley experiment explained? 24. Explain space like and time like intervals. 25. What are tachyons? 26. State DAlemberts principle. 27. Explain the concept of four-vectors. 28. Distinguish between conservative and non-conservative forces with examples. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. The kinetic energy of a system with generalized coordinate q is 1/2Mq2 and its potential energy is (q2/C), where M and C are constants. Set up the Lagrangian and hence Lagranges equation for the system. 30. The eccentricity of the earths orbit is 0.0167. Calculate the ratio of maximum to minimum speeds of the earth in its orbit. 31. The Hamiltonian of a system is H= 1/2m (P x2+P y2+P z2) +mgz. Use Hamiltons equation to show that x=1, y=0 and z=-g. 32. A rod has a length of 1 m. It is moving in a spaceship with a velocity of 0.4c relative to the earth. Calculate its length as measured by an observer (i) on space ship and (ii) on the earth.

18 33. A stationary body explodes into two fragments each of mass 1 kg that move apart at speeds of 0.6c relative to the original body. Find the mass of the original body. 34. A thin meter stick is projected into space with a velocity 0.3c such that its length is oriented at 300 with the direction of motion. Calculate the apparent length as measured by a stationary observer. 35. A particle describes a circular orbit under the influence of an attractive central force directed towards a point on the circle. Show that the force varies as the inverse fifth power of the distance. 36. Find the change in the value of energy when the problem of a two, one-body system interacting through gravitational force is reduced to an equivalent one body case. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. State and prove Keplers laws of planetary motion. 38. Obtain the kinetic energy in the lab and the center of mass systems and hence show that the kinetic energies of two colliding particles in center of mass system are inversely proportional to their masses. 39. Derive the Lorentz transformation equations.

19

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1542 Quantum Mechanics Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct answer 1. Photoelectric effect was discovered by (a) Newton (b) Einstein (c) Fermi (d) Max Planck 2. A perfect black body gives (a) continuous spectrum (b) line spectrum (c) band spectrum (d) none of the above 3. The concept of matter waves was first put forward by (a) Heisenberg (b) Schrdinger (c) de Broglie (d) none of the above 4. According to Bohr the non radiating orbits are called (a) elliptical orbits (b) circular orbits(c) stationary orbits (d) none of the above II. Name the following 5. Write down the Hamiltonian operator 6. Name the principle in quantum mechanics, which explains the non existence of electrons inside the nucleus 7. Write down the canonical commutation relation 8. Write down an example for barrier penetration problem III. Fill in the blanks 9. According to Einstein electromagnetic waves consists of tiny packets of energy called ____________

10. Photoelectric work function depends on the nature of __________

20 11. Zero point energy of particle in a box is a manifestation of ________ principle 12. Expectation value of velocity is equal to the time derivative of the expectation value of ___________ IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Confirmation of particle nature of radiation was provided by Compton effect. 14. Group velocity of the wave packet is same as that of the phase velocity. 15. Eigen functions belonging to distinct eigen values are orthogonal.. 16. Wave functions live in Hilberts space. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. State and explain Bohr s correspondence principle. 18. Briefly outline the mechanism by which photoelectrons are emitted 19. Outline the statistical interpretation of the wave function 20. Briefly explain expectation value 21. Write a short note on ladder operator. 22 Write a short note on wave packet 23. Briefly explain the delta function well 24 .What do you know about momentum space 25. What do you understand by reflection less potential 26. Briefly explain determinate states 27. What is a linear operator? 28. What is Ehrenfests theorem? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Suppose a particle starts out in a linear combination of just two stationary states: ? (x,0)= C 1 ? 1(x)+C 2? 2(x).Assume that the constants Cn(x) and states ? n(x) are real. What is the wave function ? (x, t) at subsequent times? Find the probability density and describe its motion? 30.. Find the expectation value of the potential energy in the nth state of the harmonic oscillator. 31. A particle of mass m is bound in the delta function well V(x) = -ad(x). What is the

21 probability that a measurement of its momentum would yield a value greater than p0 = ma/? 32 An electron has a speed of 500m/s. with an accuracy of 0.004%. Calculate the certainty with which we can locate the position of the electron. 33. If A and B are Hermitian operators, show that (AB + BA ) is Hermitian and (ABBA) is not Hermitian. 34. Determine the de Broglie wavelength of an electron that has been accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V. 35. A particle constrained to move along x axis in the domain 0=x=L has a wave function ? (x) = sin (npx/L)where n is an integer. Normalize the wave function and evaluate the expectation value of its momentum. 36. If the wave function for a system is an eigen function of the operator associated with the observable show that <A n >= <A>n. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37 Derive time independent Schrdinger equation. Explain stationary states. 38. Using operator method obtain eigen functions and eigen values of the linear harmonic oscillator. 39. Prove the generalized uncertainty principle and explain the result.

22 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1543 Electronics Total weightage: 30

Time 3 hours

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I. 1. High ripple factor means a) large amount of ac filtering b) small amount of ac filtering c) high voltage regulation d) small voltage regulation 2. Zener diode mainly act as a) rectifier b) voltage divider c) regulator d) filter 3. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is a) 1.21 b) 2.42 c) 0.48 d) 0.96 4. The forward amplification factor (dc) in CE configuration is a) IC / IE b) IC / IB c) IE / IB d) IB / IE II. 5. The dc load line of a transistor circuit a) has a negative slope b) is a curved line c) gives graphic relation between IC and IB d) does not contain the Q-point 6. The smallest of the four h-parameters of a transistor is a) hi b) hr c) ho d) hf 7. A common collector amplifier has the highest a) voltage gain b) current gain c) power gain d) output impedance 8. Maximum overall percentage efficiency of a transformer coupled class-A amplifier is a) 78.5 b) 25 c) 50 d) 85 III. 9. Negative fee back in a n amplifier a) lowers its lower 3dB frequency b) raises its upper 3dB frequency c) increases its bandwidth d) all of the above 10. A Colpitts oscillator uses a) tapped coil b) inductive feedback c) tapped capacitance d) no tuned LC circuit 11. In amplitude modulation 100% modulation is produced when carrier a) frequency equals signal frequency b) frequency exceeds signal frequency c) amplitude equals signal amplitude d) amplitude exceeds signal amplitude 12. The channel width of VHF band in an FM broadcast is a) 75 b) 25 c) 88 d) 200 IV. 13. FETs have similar properties to a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor c) thermionic valves d) unijunction transistors 14. In an E-only MOSFET, drain current starts only when VGS(th) is a) positive b) negative c) zero d) greater than V GS(th) 15. The semiconductor device acts like a diode and two resistors is

23 a) SCR b) triac c) diac d)UJT 16. After firing an SCR, the gating pulse is removed. The current in the SCR will a) remains the same b) immediately falls to zero c) rises up d) rises a little and then falls to zero SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.]

17. What is a diode? Draw the equivalent circuit of a crystal diode? 18. Draw the input and output characteristics of CB configuration? 19. Define . show that = a /(1- a) 20. What do you understand by transistor biasing? 21. Explain the following terms (i) frequency response (ii) decibel gain. 22. State the Barkhausen condition for sustained sinusoidal oscillation. 23. Explain the principle of tunnel diode? 24. What do you mean by the process of modulation? 25. Explain with diagram the pinch off phenomenon in an n-channel FET 26. Explain the condition of balance of a Wien bridge oscillator 27. Briefly describe a super heterodyne AM receiver. 28. Explain the working a LED. Give two applications. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A bridge rectifier uses 4 identical diodes having forward resistance of 5 O each. Transformer secondary resistance is 5 O and secondary voltage is 30 V (rms). Determine the dc output voltage for Idc = 200 mA and rms value of the output ripple voltage. 30. An npn transistor circuit has a = 0.985 and VBE = 0.3 V. If Vcc = 16 V calculate R1 and Rc to place Q point at Ic = 2 mA, VCE = 6 volts.

I1
R1

Rc

IB VBE 2 KO

I2
R2=20KO

31. The overall gain of a multistage amplifier is 140. When negative feedback is applied, the gain is reduced to 17.5. Find the fraction of the output that is feed back to the input. 32. For the optimallybiased transformer coupled class-A amplifier, maximum collector current change is 100mA. Find the power transferred to a directly coupled 4O speaker load. 33. The data sheet for a certain E-MOSFET gives ID = 4.5 mA at V GS = 12.V and VGS(th) = 6 V. Determine the value of ID for VGS = 10 V.

24 34. The summing amplifier as shown in fig. has R0 = 10 KO, R 1 = 10 KO, R 2 = 2.2 KO and R 3 = 3.3 KO. If V1 = 6 V, V2 = -3 V, V3 = 0.75 V find V0.
R1

V1
R2

V2
R3

R0
+

V3

V0

35. Draw the load line of the Si transistor in CE mode as shown in figure and assuming that dc = 80, calculate the Q point. Neglect ICO. Calculate the value of RB required to drive the transistor just in to saturation.
RC = 1 KO VCC = 20 V R B = 47 KO VBB

36. A 10 V regulated dc supply of 10 mA is required from a dc source of 12 15 V by using a pair of zener diodes. Assuming Iz (min.) = 0.2 mA, design the circuit. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Explain the working of a full wave rectifier with a neat diagram. Derive an expression for efficiency and ripple factor of a full wave rectifier. 38. Describe the working of a single stage CE amplifier. Deduce an expression for voltage gain of a CE amplifier. 39. Draw the block diagram of an OP AMP showing the four major steps. With a circuit diagram describe an expression for the voltage gain of an inverting OP AMP

25

Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1544 Ato mic and Molecular Physics Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I 1. The minimum energy required to ionize hydrogen atom from its ground state is about (a) 13.6eV (b) 1.36eV (c) 0.136eV (d) 136eV 2. The radius of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is (a)10-4cm (b) 10-6cm (c) 10-8 (d) 10-10cm 3. The doublets observed in alkali spectra are due to (a)screening of the K-electrons (b) spin-orbit interaction of the electron (c)pressure of isotopes (d) none of these 4.The selection rule for orbital quantum number for the electric dipole transition in a single electron atom is (a)? l=0,1 (b) ? l=0 (c) 1 (d) ?l=+1 II 5. Pure rotational spectrum of a diatomic molecule consists of (b) two equally spaced lines (b) three equally spaced lines many equally spaced lines (d) no regular pattern 6. Multiplicity of the state 2D 3/2 is given by (a)1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 7. The total energy of an electron in any stationary orbit is (a)negative (b) positive (c) zero (d) uncertain 8. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with neutrons in thermal

26 equilibrium with matter at 300K (a)1790A (b) 179A (c) 17.9 A (d) 1079A

III. 9. The Bohr magneton is of the order of (a) 10-23 erg/gauss (b) 10-20 erg/gauss (c) 10-25 erg/gauss (d) none 10. Paulis exclusion principle states that (a)Two electrons can have all the quantum numbers same (b). No two electrons can have all the quantum numbers same . Particles with integer and half integer spin cannot exist in the same state (d). None of the above 11. The J value of the state 6H5/2 is (a) (b) 3/2 (c) 5/2 (d) none

12.The velocity of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is (a) (1/137 )c (b) 137c (c) (1/1370)c (d) 1370c

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false 13. The aim of Stern and Gerlach experiment was to verify the validity of vector atom model 14. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations of longer wavelength. 15. Vibrational Raman spectra can be used to study the structure of a diatomic molecule 16. The spin quantum number of an electron can have only half integral values.

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. State and explain Paulis exclusion principle. 18. What is meant by spatial quantization?

27 19. What is Stark effect? 20. Distinguish between prolate and oblate symmetric top molecules. 21. Explain the effect of isotopic substitution on the rotational spectrum of molecules. 22. Why are anti-Stokes lines more intense than Stokes lines? 23. What is isomer shift? 24. What is Duane Hunt limit? 25. Write a short on spectral term and spectral notation. 26. What is the principle of Mossbauer Spectroscopy? 27. Briefly explain Frank-Condon Principle. 28. Distinguish between continuous and characteristic X-ray spectrum. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.]
2 29. The term symbol of the ground state of sodium is 3 S1/2 and that of its first excited

state is 32P1/2. List the possible quantum numbers n, l, j and m j of the outer electrons in each case. 30. The experimental value of Bohr magneton is 9.2110-24 J/T and Plancks constant is 6.62510-34 J s. Calculate the charge to mass ratio of the electron. 31. The average spacing between adjacent rotational lines of CO molecule is 386.26 m-1. Calculate the length of the CO bond. Isotopic mass of C12 = 0.012 Kg/mole, isotopic mass of O16 = 0.016 Kg/mole and Avogadro number is 6.0221023/mole. 32. In an experiment with Benzene, the wavelength of a pair of Stokes and anti-Stokes lines were measured to be 4554 A0 and 4178 A0 respectively. Calculate the wavelength of the corresponding infrared absorption line.

28
33. Calculate the critical voltage required to stimulate the emission of the characteristic lines of the K-series in tungsten if the K-absorption edge is 0.178 A0. 34. Calculate the wavelength separation between the two component lines which are observed in the normal Zeeman effect. The magnetic field used is 0.4 Weber.m-2. The specific charge is 1.761011 C/kg and ?= 600 nm.
0 0 0 35. Irradiation of CCl 4 by 4358 A radiation gives Raman lines at 4400 A, 4419 A , and

4447 A0. Calculate the Raman shift for each of these lines. 36. The microwave spectrum of HI molecule consists of a series of equidistant lines with a spac ing of 12.8 cm-1. Calculate the bond length.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Explain rotation-vibration transition and P and R branches of the spectrum of a diatomic molecule. 38. Describe, with necessary diagram, the Stern-Gerlach experiment. Explain its significance. 39. What is the principle of NMR? Explain NMR spectrometer. Discuss any three applications of NMR.

29

Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1641 Solid State Physics Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I 1. The volume of primitive unit cell of a fcc structure with lattice constant a is (a) a3 (b) a3/2 (c) a3/4 (d) a3/8

2. Which of the following has hydrogen bonding (a) CH4 (b) C (c) HF (d) CsCl 3. Which of the following has least packing fraction (a) simple cubic structure (d) diamond 4. The angle between any two of the lines joining a site of the diamond structure to its nearest neighbour is (a) 600 (b) 900 (c) cos-1(1/3) (d) 1200 (b) bcc structure (c) fcc structure

II 5. Laue diffraction pattern is obtained using (a) Characteristic X-ray (d) Filtered X-ray 6. 2D lattice with highest rotational symmetry is (a) Square lattice (b) Hexagonal (c) Honey comb (d) Triangular (b) White X-ray (c) Monochromatic X-ray

7. Which of the following solids always opaque to visible radiation

30 (a) Metallic (b) Covalent (c) Ionic (d) Vander Waals

8. Identify which one is simple cubic structure (a) Sodium (b) Cesium (c) Polonium (d) Copper

III 9. For a superconductor, the susceptibility is _________ 10. A crystallographic plane has the intercept 1 along a, 2 along b and 3 along c. A parallel plane to this plane will have Miller indices ________ 11. The co-ordination number for bcc structure is _________ 12. Thermal neutrons of kinetic energy 0.02 eV undergo diffraction from a (1 0 0) crystal plane. If the Bragg spacing is 2 A0 and the mass of neutron is 1.00898 amu, the angle of first order diffraction maximum is ________ IV State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Laue spots are generated when monochromatic X-ray fall randomly on a single crystal. 14. X-rays can be deflected by electric and magnetic field together. 15. The crystalline solid has long range positional and rotational order. 16. Simply connected superconductor is solid sphere. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.]

17. Define the following terms in relation to crystal structure. Crystalline, polycrystalline and amorphous states of matter. 18. Distinguish between co-ordination number and number of atoms per unit cell. Obtain them for sc, bcc and fcc structure. 19. What are the main sources of electrical resistance in metals? How does it vary with impurities and temperature?

31 20. Show that Hall coefficient is independent of applied magnetic field and is inversely proportional to current density and electronic charge. 21. Explain the phenomenon of magneto-resistance. 22. What is Ferro electricity? Give two examples. 23. What is photoconductivity? How does it arise? 24. Distinguish between ferromagnetism and anti-ferromagnetism. 25. Highlight the significance of critical current density in

superconductivity. 26. Give two differences between dislocations in sc and fcc lattices. 27. Explain Braggs law in X-ray diffraction. 28. What is Meissner effect? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.]
28. Calculate the lengths of intercepts made by crystal planes having Miller indices (2 1 3) and (0 1 0) in a crystal which primitive translation vectors 2.5 A0. What are their inter-planer spacing? 29. Calculate the compressibility of NaCl assuming a repulsive potential of the form B/R9 acting between the nearest neighbours. The nearest neighbour distance is R=2.81 A0 and corresponding A=1.7476. 30. Find the diameter of the largest atom that would fit into the void in nickel without distortion. 31. Show that for an ideal hcp structure where atomic spheres touch each other, the ratio c/a= (8/3)1/2. 32. An aluminium crystal is bent into a radius of curvature 5 cm. What is the minimum dislocation density in the material?

32
0 33. Calculate the glancing angle of (1 1 1) plane of a cube rock salt (a= 2.81 A )

corresponding to the second order diffraction maximum for X-rays of wavelength 0.71A 0. 34. The electrical and thermal conductivities of silver at 200C are 6.210 7 ohm 1

m-1 and 420 Wm -1k-1 respectively. Calculate the Lorentz number.

35. Calculate the critical current that can flow through a long thin superconducting wire of aluminium of diameter 10-3m.The critical field for aluminium is 7.910 3 A/m.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Outline classical Langevins theory of diamagnetism. 38. What is normaltunneling? Describe Josephson effect. 39. Based on Fermi-Dirac statistics, state the nature of the Fermi distribution function. How does it vary with temperature?

33

Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1642 Nuclear and Particle Physics Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. The sun release energy by (a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion (c) spontaneous combustion (d) hydrothermal process 2. The primary cosmic rays are composed of very energetic (a) electrons (b) mesons (c) protons (d) neutrons 3. The scintillation counter (a) is not used for counting alpha particles (b) counts only gamma rays (c) it counts only beta particles (d) uses a material which emits light when a charged particle strikes it 4. a-particles consist of (a) 1 proton and 1 neutron (b) 2 protons and 2 neutrons 2 protons and 1 neutron (d) 1 proton and 2 neutrons II 5. The reciprocal of the decay constant of a radioactive substance is called (a) Half life (b) Mean life (c) Total life (d) None of the above 6. Which of the following is the strongest? (a) Nuclear force (b) Electrostatic force (c) Gravitational force (d) Magnetic force 7. -particles are (a) Electromagnetic radiations (b) electrons (c) protons (d) helium nuclei 8. Which of the following is a fermion? (a) Electron (b) neutron (c) a -particle (d) none of these III 9. Electron and positron combine to form ___________. 10. The number of ion pairs produced per unit distance in an ionization chamber is known as ___________. 11. Nuclear fusion reactions are also called __________ reactions. 12. The working of an atom bomb is based on the principle of __________. IV State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Gamma radiations are electromagnetic radiations of high frequency. 14. The mass of an electron is entirely due to its charge. 15. Leptons have only integral spins. 16. The bubble chamber is sensitive only to particles of high ionizing ability. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Sketch a plot of binding energy per nucleon versus mass number and mention its features.

34 18. Nuclear forces saturate Comment. 19. What is transient radioactive equilibrium? 20. Explain nuclear quadrupole moment. 21. Explain the principle of GM counter. 22. Define Q value of a nuclear reaction. 23. What is a breeder reactor? 24. On the basis of a liquid drop model, account for the fission of a nucleus. 25. Distinguish between mesons and baryons. 26. What are quarks? 27. Write a short note on radio-carbon dating. 28. Explain the thermonuclear reactions taking place inside the sun. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Given the following isotopic masses. Calculate the binding energy of a neutron in the 3Li7 nucleus.
7 6 1 3Li = 7.016004 amu; 3Li =6.015125 amu; 0n

=1.008665 amu.

30. The half life period of C14 is 5570 years. How long does it take for 80% of radioactive C14 to decay? 31. Calculate the Q value of the reaction, 1H2 (d, n) 2He3. Given, mass of
1H 2

=2.0141 amu; mass of 2He3= 3.01603 amu; mass of 0n1=1.008665 amu.

32. A nuclear reactor using U235 as fuel is designed to deliver 100 MW. What is the mass of U 235 required per day assuming 100% efficiency? Given that a

35 single U235 atom releases 200 MeV energy. 33. Check whether the following reaction is allowed on the basis of conservation laws. p + p ? 2p + + 2p - + 2p 0 34. A cyclotron of maximum radius 0.25 m accelerates protons in a 2T magnetic field. Calculate the frequency needed for the applied ac voltage. Also evaluate the kinetic energy of the protons when they leave the cyclotron. 35. A high energy singly ionized particle leaves a track of 2 m radius in a cloud chamber placed in a magnetic field of flux density 2.5 Wb m-2. Calculate the energy of the particle. 36. A sample of energy of uranium 4.18 MeV and is placed near an ionization chamber. Assume that 10 particles enter the chamber per second and 35 eV is required to produce an ion pair. Calculate the current produced. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe the important features of ray spectrum emitted by radioactive nuclide. Outline the neutrino theory of decay. How does it explain the continuous energy spectrum in decay? 38. Give the principle of nuclear reactor. What are the roles of moderator and control rods in the reactor? List the main parts and explain the working of the reactor. 39. Distinguish between primary and secondary cosmic rays. Explain cosmic ray showers. Explain the latitude and altitude effects of cosmic rays.

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Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1643 Classical and Modern Optics Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I 1. The defect of a lens that arises due to the dependence of its focal length on its thickness and diameter is (a) Chromatic aberration (b) Coma (c) Astigmatism (d) Distortion

2. Two light waves of amplitude a and 2a superimpose each other. The intensity of a bright band is (a) a2 (b) 2a 2 (c) 3a 2 (d)9a2

3. The wavefront due to a distant object is (a) Spherical (b) Plane (c) Cylindrical (d) None of these

4. The resolving power of a diffraction plane grating having N lines/cm in the nth order is (a) n/N (b) N/n (c) Nn (d) N2n

II. 5. Fringes of equal inclination are also called ___________. 6. Polaroids work on the principle of ___________. 7. The three dimensional photograph of an object is called ___________.

37 5. In fiber-optic communication, _________ is used as the carrier wave. III. State whether the following statements are true or false. 9. Laser beam is highly directional. 10. Holography provides a high capacity system for image storage. 11. The pulse dispersion in a step index fiber is less than that in a graded index fiber. 12. A quarter wave plate can be used to produce circularly polarized light from plane polarized light. IV. Match the words in column A with a suitable word in column B A 13 14 15 16 Interference Dispersion Diffraction Refraction B Waves of the same wavefront Coherent sources Snells law Colour formation

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain how coherent sources are realized in practice. 18. What are Newtons rings? 19. Draw a well labeled diagram of Michelsons interferometer. 20. Explain the difference between Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction. 21. How will you obtain plane polarized light by reflection? 22. Distinguish between normal and anomalous dispersion.

38 23. What are single mode fibers? Why are they so called? 24. Give four applications of holography. 25. Explain the term line shape function. 26. What are coherent bundles? 27. Define resolving power of a grating. 28. Distinguish between a quarter wave plate and a half wave plate. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A plane transmission grating has an angle of diffraction 200 for light of wavelength 600 nm in the first order. Calculate the number of lines per cm of the grating. 30. Angle of polarization for water is 53.10. Calculate the refractive index of water and angle of refraction. 31. Numerical aperture of optical fiber is 0.295 and refractive index of core is 1.54. Calculate the refractive index of cladding. 32. Monochromatic light of wavelength 589.3 nm is incident normally on a thin wedge shaped film of transparent plastic of refractive index 1.42. Interference fringes are observed in reflected light. If the distance between adjacent bright fringes is 0.26 mm, find the angle of the wedge. 33. Calculate the Cauchys constants A and B for a glass prism o f refractive index 1.5228 for light of wavelength 546.1 nm and refractive index 1.5373 for a wavelength 404.7 nm.

39 34. Find the relative population of the two states in a ruby laser that produces a beam of wavelength 694.3 nm at 300 K. Boltzmanns constant is 1.3810-23 J/K. 35. What is the radius of the first zone in a zone plate of focal length 0.2 m for light of wavelength 500 nm? 36. Two polaroids are first crossed and then one of them is rotated to reduce the intensity half and one fourth. Calculate the angles rotated. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With the help of a neat diagram explain how Newtons rings are formed in the reflected system. Obtain the relation between D, R and ? where the symbols have usual meaning. 38. Describe the construction of Nicol prism. Explain how it is used as a polarizer and as an analyzer. 39. Explain the working of Helium-Neon laser highlighting population inversion mechanism.

40

Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1644 Computer Science Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.
1.The binary number system has a base of a. 10 b. 16 c. 2 d. 8

2.The result after converting number 3510 to hexadecimal a. 2316 b. 8D 16 c. AE 16 d. 5316

3. The output of an AND gate with inputs A, B and C is 1 when a. A=1,B=1,C=1 A=0,B=0,C=0 b. A=0,B=1,C=1 c. A=1,B= 0,C=1 d.

4. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from a. Primary memory memory b. Control section c. External memory d. Cache

II.
5. Semiconductor memories are fabricated using ____ technology a. SSI b. VSLI c. LSI d. MSI

6. The maximum memory location that a 16bit computer can address a. 64 b. 64k c. 32k d. 128

41
7. A GUI is a. hardware system b. language interpreter c. software interface d. an operating

8. Which of the following would cause quickest ac cess a. direct access from a magnetic tape b. direct access from a hard disk c. direct access from a floppy disk d. direct access from a cassette tape

III.
9. Multiprogramming refers to ____ a. having several programs in RAM c. writing program in multiple languages b. multitasking d. none of the previous

10. Assume x=5, what value will be stored in result in the statement : result = x%2; a. 10 b. 2.5 c. 2 d. 1

11. How many types of arithmetic operations does the ALU of all computers perform? a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4

12. Reading consists in the value which lies between two extreme points means a. Exploration b. Interpolation c. Extrapolation d. None of these

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.

13. The 1s complement of a binary number is derived by changing 1s to 0s and 0s to 1s. 14. Half adder is a logic circuit that adds two digits at a time. 15. The assignment statement : 72 = amount; is valid.

16. A semicolon may follow an if statement only if a compound statement is used.

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What is 2s complement? How to obtain 2s complement? 18. Define associative and distributive laws of Boolean algebra. 19. What is the purpose of ALU in CPU? 20. What is ASCII code? Write any four ASCII codes and corresponding characters.

42 21. What are the basic rules of binary addition and binary subtraction? 22. Define Flip-Flop. Describe briefly its function and application. 23. Define impact and non impact printers. 24. Describe the Linux operating system. 25. Write C statement for the following. [a] p = , [b] g = 26. What will be the output of the following program? Modify the program to obtain the same result by replacing with a while loop main() { int i; for(i=1; i<=10; i++) printf(%d, 5*i); } 27. Compute the value for the following expressions. a. x = 4+5*(10-2) b. k = (17-6)%2-1 c. n = 20 + 5%3-1 28. What do you mean by linear interpolation? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Using 2s complement method perform A-B with: a. A=1000100 and B=1010100 b. A=11011 and B=01101 30. Solve the following X10 = 101.11012 X16 = 1100101001010111 X2 = 17510 X2 = 3816 31. Design a NAND gate, using two inverters and one OR gate, whose output is given by Boolean expression Y = 32. Implement XOR function using 4 two input NAND gate. 33. Perform the following operations using signed Arithmetic operations. a. Add +5 decimal and -2 decimal b. Add -20 decimal and -18 decimal 34. Write a C program to determine whether a number is odd or even and print the message, NUMBER ENTERED IS ODD OR NUMBER ENTERED IS EVEN, a. without else option b. with else option. 35. Write a program to calculate the focal length of a lens of a given refractive index and radii of curvature using lens makers formula. 36. Using Eulers method find the approximation value of solution of the differential equation with the initial condition at points where x = 3.1, 3.2 and 3.3

43 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR ] 37. What is CPU? Draw block diagram to illustrate the basic organization of a computer system and explain the functions of various units in detail. 38. What is a Flip-Flop? Describe a]. S.R.Flip Flop and b]. J.K.Flip Flop. What are the advantages of J.K Flip Flop and S.R Flip Flop? 39. What are the remarkable features of C language? Discuss with suitable examples, the different control statements available in C.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.1 Bio Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. 2. 3. 4. Choose the most appropriate answer Continuity equation is (a) a1v1=a2v2 (b) a1p1=a2p2 (c) a1k1=a2k2 (d) a1r1=a2r2 Reynolds number is related to (a) Density (b) Viscosity (c) Plasma (d) Temperature For an optical fibre refractive index of core n1 and that of clad is n2 then, (a) n2<n1 (b) n2>n1 (c) n2=n1 (d) None of the above Birefringince is (a) Dichrosim (b) Double refraction (c) Refraction (d) Total internal reflection. Name the following What tends to contract muscles? What are the physical parameters which depends characteristics of bone? What is the principle behind optical fibre? State continuity equation Fill up the blanks Muscles are devices which apply necessary ________ The work done by a muscle per unit mass of the muscle is called ___ The physiological effect of impulse is sense of _______ Resistivity of the flow channels is ________

II 5. 6. 7. 8. III 9. 10. 11. 12.

44 IV 13. 14 15. 16. State whether the following statement is True or False Muscles are divided into two categories The product force X velocity is known as fundamental equation of Muscle contraction. Mechanical efficiency of berathing is the ratio of work done to total chemical energy Human ear is a transducer Section B (Answer any 8 questions Each questions has a weigtage of 1) 17. State stokes law? 18. Name the three types of locomotion on land 19. What is meant by pitch? 20. Name the four media through which light travels in human eye 21. What is chromatic aberration? 22. State the features of Vander waals force 23. Give the characteristics of cell membrane 24. State first law of thermo dynamics 25. What is bioinformatics? 26. What is bio statics? 27. State continuity equation 28. State Ficks law of diffusion SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. How muscles are classified? What is mass specific muscle power? Explain the strength of bones Explain the three type of motion for locomotion on land? Discuss the role of gravity in plant life Explain the physiology of respiration Discuss the behaviour of Doppler effect in human ear? Explain plasma skimming effect. Section D (Answer any 2 questions Each questions has a weightage of 4) 37. 38. 39. Explain the transport of O 2 and CO2 in blood What are proteins? Give the structure of protein. Explain the functions of amino acids? What is bio potentials? Explain the functions of dosimetry.

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Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.2 Astronomy and Astrophysics (Open Course) Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct answer 1. Olivine is a green mineral consisting of (a) iron magnesium silicate (b) iron magnesium carbonate (c) silver magnesium carbonate (d) iron carbon silicate 2. The first Pulsar was discovered by Jocelyn Bell in (a) 1967 (b) 1958 (c) 1942 (d) 1962 3. Meteors are also called (a) variable stars(b) binary stars (c) shooting stars (d) none of the above 4. The inclination of the axis of the earth from the normal to the orbital plane is (a) 23 26 28 (b) 23 32 28 (c)32 26 28 (d) 23 26 42 II. Name the following 5. What is the full form of GMT? 6. Name the two small satellites of Mars 7. Name the largest satellite of Saturn

46 8. What is the total pressure of Venus atmosphere? III. Fill in the blanks 9. The earth has ____________times the mass of Venus 10. Name origin of August is __________ 11. Schwarzschild radius depends on ________ of black holes. 12. ___________ was the first to determine distance to the moon from earth IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Sunspots are maintained by strong magnetic field. 14. Astronomers have classified the stars into spectral type identified by the letters OBAFGK&L 15. Neutrons at the surface of a neutron star decays into protons and electrons. 16. Cepheids are visible with naked eye. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Write a short note on scope of Astronomy 18. What do you know about Cepheids? 19. What are Zodiac nebulae? 20. Define Hubble distance 21. Write a short note on Photosphere of Sun 22.What are Constellations? 23. Define luminosity of a star. 24. What are black holes? 25. What are Asteroids? 26. What is sidereal period? 27. Briefly explain Chandrasekhar limit 28..What do you know about satellites of Uranus? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29 What is H-R diagram? Explain its main features? 30.. State and explain Keplers laws of planetary motion 31..Write short note on the latest discoveries about Pluto 32 Briefly discuss meteorites 33. What do you know about Supernova explosion?

47 34. Briefly discuss ring system of Saturn 35. Write short note on Comets. 36. Briefly discuss the features of the Planet Mars Section D (Answer any two questions, each has a weightage of 4 ) 37 Discuss modern Astronomy with necessary diagrams 38. Explain the structure, energy source and spectrum of Sun 39. What are Galaxies? Explain the different types of galaxies.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.3 Applied Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. The radio was invented by .. 2. Cellular phone started operation in India in . 3. The chemical coated on the top of an audio cassette is 4. In a digital camera the role of the film is substituted with II 5.SEM is used for ........ (a) Surface morphological studies. (b) Internal structure studies. (c) Chemical composition studies. (d) None of the above. 6. XRD is used for ............................ (a)Surface morphological studies (b) Internal structure studies (c)Chemical composition studies (d)None of the above

48 7. The working principle of TEM.. Quantum Mechanical Tunneling (b) Scattering (c) Diffraction (d) None of the above 8. In an electric fan . (a) Electrical energy is converted into Mechanical energy. (b) Mechanical energy is converted into Electrical energy. (c) No energy conversion. (d) None of the above III 9. In holography the light source used is 10. SIM stands for .. in a Mobile phone 11. In an optical communication net work the medium of communication is (a)

12. The first electron microscope was built in .......................... IV State whether the following statements are true or false. 13.4 Stroke engine is more efficient than 2 Stroke engine 14. The working principle of MRI scan & the ultrasound scan are the same 15. Optical communication network needs amplifiers. 16. Spectrometer is used to study the polarization of light. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.]

17. Explain the basic principle of scanning tunneling microscope (STM) 18. List out the different type of pumps 19. How a digital camera differs from an ordinary camera? 20. Distinguish between CT scan & MRI scan 21. With the help of a block diagram, explain the working of a Public Administration system (PAS).

49 22. Briefly explain the working of RADAR. 23. Distinguish between Tunneling Electron microscope (TEM) & Scanning Electron microscope (SEM) 24. What do you mean by a compact Disc (CD)? 25. List out 5 applications of x-rays. 26. Explain the basic principle of working of a refrigerator. 27. Which are different types of breaks used in automobiles? 28. What is a spectro photo meter? What is its use? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Explain the principle of LCD. 30. How ECG helps in the treatment of heart diseases. 31. Microscope resolving power problem. 32. Write a paragraph on the history of evolution of radio. 33. Write a short note on the revolution made by touch screen. 34. List of the technical specifications of the Atomic Force Microscope( AFM )available in Indian market. 35. Explain the working of refrigerator. 36. Briefly explain the working of ATM SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With the help of a schematic Diagram explain microscope (SEM) 38. (a) Explain the theory & working of an electric fan. (b) List out different type of fan available in the market. 39. With the help of block diagram make a comparative study of cable of cellular phone system.

50

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.4Environmental Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct option 1. Lowest layer in atmosphere a) troposphere b) stratosphere c) mesosphere d) ionosphere 2. Global warming is caused by a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) carbon monoxide d) carbon dioxide 3. This is a non-renewable form of energy a)hydro-lectric power b) solar energy c) petroleum d) solar energy 4. Noise in the context of sound pollution is measured in, a) ppm b) joule c) decibel d) watts II. Choose the correct option 5. United nations general assembly has declared 2010 as the International Year of ... a) climate change b) science c) astronomy d) biodiversity 6. Largest fraction of pure water on Earth is in the form of a) water vapour b) ice d) ground water c) water in lakes

51 7. Indian satellite used exclusively for remote sensing is a) INSAT b) ASTROSAT d) Chandrayaan c) IRS

8. 'Rem' is a unit related to a) water pollution b) noise pollution d) nuclear radiation c) air pollution

III. Match the following 9. Ozone 10.radioactivity 11. water quality 12. carbon dioxide a) solar power b) global warming c) ultra-violet d) nuclear power e) pH value IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Earth would have been freezingly cold if there was no green house effect. 14. Electricity generated from solar cells is cheaper than that produced by hydroelectric stations. 15. In India, installed capacity of windmills exceeds capacity of nuclear power stations. 16. Per capital pollution in India is much less than in U.S.A. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17.Write a short note on the composition of atmospheric air. 18. What is meant by hydrostatic equilibrium? 19. What are fuel cells? 20. Write a short note on monsoons. 21. What do you mean by bioenergy? 22. What is meant heat island effect? 23. What do you mean particulate matter? Give examples. 24. What do you mean by sustainable development? 25. Explain how land and sea breeze occur. 26. What do you mean by Kyoto protocol? 27. Comment on the statement waste is misplaced wealth 28. What is meant by "Green Revolution"? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Write short note on the thermodynamics of atmosphere. 30. Write a short note on the general circulation of the tropics. 31. What do you mean by air and water quality standards?

52 32. Write a brief note on radioactive pollution. 33. Explain why we should conserve petroleum resources. 34. Point out the important limitations of hydropower. 35. Explain how deforestation leads to degradation of soil. 36. Explain the concept of "evergreen revolution" in agriculture. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Briefly describe the causes and effects of global warming. 38. Write an essay on waste manage ment. 39. Discuss various renewable sources of energy.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.5 Energy Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Which one of the following is a source of non-conventional energy?
a) Coal b) Oil c) Gas d) Sun 2. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source? a) Wood b) Gobar gas c) Nuclear energy d) Coal 3. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from solar energy? a) Geothermal energy b) Wind energy c) Nuclear energy d) Bio-mass energy 4. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on a) Sunny day b) Cloudy day c) Hot day d) Windy day

II.
5. A solar cell converts solar energy into __________. 6. The source of energy in tidal power is the __________ between earth, moon and sun 7. In a fuel cell electricity is stored in __________ form. 8. A single solar cell can produce a voltage of _______ in full sunlight.

III. Match the following

53

9. Biomass energy 10. Geothermal energy 11. Solar energy 12. Tidal energy

a) Non-conventional b) Gobar gas c) Gravitation d) Earths internal heat

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Geothermal power is ultimately derived from solar power 14. The amount of energy from the sun and other renewable sources is very large compared with the amount of energy used by mankind. 15. Biomass fuels can provide a sustainable substitute for fossil fuels with no net carbon dioxide production. 16. Air transport is inherently energy intensive while rail and water are more energy efficient. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Describe the salient non-conventional resources of energy. 18. What are photovoltaic modules and arrays? 19. What is the principle of ocean thermal energy conversion? 20. What are the different types of coal? 21. Explain the principle of a solar cell. 22. What is the principle used in wind mill? 23. What is space cooling? 24. Explain how solar energy is used in solar ponds. 25. What are the important methods for energy storage? 26. Explain the advantages of biomass as energy source. 27. What are the photovoltaic systems commonly in use? 28. Explain green house effect. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO .] 29. Sketch the various stages of extraction of tidal energy. 30. What are the merits and limitations of waves as a source of energy? 31. Explain the effect of global warming. 32. Explain the working of solar furnaces. 33. Explain why the exciting radiation must incident very near the p-n junction in a solar cell and not far away from it. 34. Describe the advantages of alternate energy sources. 35. Describe the applications of a solar cell. 36. What are the important sources of renewable energy? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR.]

54 37. What is meant by power of wind? How the wind power is extracted using wind mill? 38. Describe the working of ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) plant. 39. Explain biomass conversion process. Describe the working of a gobar gas plant.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651.1 Electronic Instrumentation (Elective Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I. Choose the most appropriate answer 3. An ammeter used to measure the reverse current of a Si diode is (a) Milli (b) Micro (c) Nano (d) Pico 4. The percentage change in magnitude of a Carbon resistor with gold tolerance band is (a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20% 3. Frequency of 50Hz a. c. can be used to measure using CRO with a time-base of (a) 0.1ms (b) 10ms (c) 1ms (d) 0.1 s 4. A galvanometer can be used to (a) Measure current (b) Measure voltage (c) Detect and measure current (d) None of the above II Name the following 5. Name the circuit element used to design a delay line 6. What is an AVO meter? 7. Name the transducer element used in ordinary clinical thermometer 8. Give another name of function generator

55

III 9. 10. 11. 12. IV

Fill up the blanks A nano ammeter measure current of the order of _____ A Quality factor of a circuit element is a _________ CRO is used to obtain _______ ____________ of an electric signal Harmonics present in a square wave signal can be obtained by the _________ __________

State whether the following statement is True or False 14. A moving coil galvanometer can be used as ammeter or voltmeter 14 Instrumentation is basically measurement science or Metrology 15. CRO can be used to save a signal 16. LED is an opto electronic device

Section B (Answer any 8 questions Each questions has a Weightage of 1) 17. What is meant by precision and accuracy? 18. What is meant by Q value of a given parameter? 19. What is meant by resolution of a D/A converter? 20. Give the relevance of delay line 21. Give the use of storage oscilloscope 22. Define deflection sensitivity of a CRO 23. What is a thermister? 24. Give the uses of radiation detector 25. Give the principle of instrumentation amplifier 26. Give the uses of sweep generator 27. What is a wave meter 28. Give a typical application for spectrum analyzer Section C (Answer any 5 questions Each question has a weightage of 2) 29. Give the block diagram of DVM. Explain the function of each unit 30. Draw the block diagram of a CRO 31. How strain gauge can be used to measure temperature 32. Draw the circuit diagram of an astable multi vibrator, give its working. 33. Explain the function of a spectrum analyzer 34. Give the different types of standards of measurement 35. What are active and passive probes used for CRO give its merits 36. How Q value of a circuit element can be evaluated? Section D (Answer any 2 questions Each questions has a weightage of 4) 37. With necessary block diagram explai n the working of a CRO. Give the relevance of delay line circuit.

56 38. Using a thermister how it can be used to calibrate a given thermocouple for a given range of temperature 39. What is sample and hold circuit? How sweep circuit can be designed, give its uses.

Time 3 hours SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct answer 1. Name of our Galaxy is (a) Andromeda (b) Milky way (c) Pisces (d) Ursa Major 2. Mass of Sun is (a) 1.99 1030 Kg (b) 1.921020Kg (c) 2.51015 (d) 5.21030Kg 3. Visible surface of Sun is called (a) Chromosphere (b) Photosphere (c) Corona (d) Sunspot 4. The sound speed in the Interplanetary medium is about (a) 50 km/s (b) 100 km/s (c) 1000 km/s (d) 10000km/s II. Name the following 5. Name a X ray Astronomy satellite 6. Name the scientist who has observed CMEs at first

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651.2Space Science (Elective Course) Total weightage: 30

57 7. Write down the full form of QUASAR 8. In the equation H = kT /mg , what does H indicate? III. 9. The word red shift is used to indicate a shift to ____________end of visual spectrum 10. The Plasma sphere extends between __________ to ____________ km. 11. The energetic particles originating from sources outside solar system are called __________ cosmic rays . 12. Sun is said to be ___________ when very few sunspots are seen. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. The stratosphere is found above the tropopause. 14. E layer of the Ionosphere disappears at night. 15. Sun is a red giant. 16. The magnetic field of earth is not steady but shows variation with time. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What do you mean by Cosmology? 18. What are Pulsars? 19. What do you know about Harvard classification of Stars? 20. What are White dwarfs? 21. What do you know about Solar flares? 22. What are Van Allen belts? 23. Explain Scale height. 24. Explain how cosmic rays are originated. 25. What is Chandrasekhar limit? Explain. 26. Write short note on Photon diffusion time. 27. Write a brief note on our Galaxy 28..Give a brief account on different types of Galaxies
Section C (Answer any five questions, Each question has a weightage of 2 )

29.. How do you explain expansion of the Universe? 30. Write short note on Chromosphere of Sun.

58 31.. Give a brief account on disturbed Solar wind. 32. Explain Sunspots and Solar activity 33. Give a brief account on Dungeys open magnetosphere. 34. What is H-R diagram? Explain its main features? 35. Give a brief account on the magnetic field of Earth. 36. Explain different layers of Earths ionosphere. Section D (Answer any two questions. Each question has a weightage of 4 ) 37 What do you know about Solar Corona? Explain how Solar wind is originated? 38. Discuss Chapmans theory of layer formation in Earths ionosphere 39. Describe nomenclature of Earths atmosphere on the basis of temperature profile

Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651.3 Photonics (Elective Course) Total weightage : 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct option
1. When a photon stimulates the emission of another photon the two photons have a) same energy b) same direction c) same phase d) same wavelength 2. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p type material are a) Phosphorus b) boron c) antimony d) aluminium 3. In a semiconductor, a) there are free electrons at 0 K b) there are no free electrons at any temperature c) the number of free electrons increases with temperature d) the number of free electrons is less than that in a conductor. 4. The quantum efficiency of detector is a) less than zero b) greater than zero c) between one and zero d) complex quantity

II. Choose the correct option

5. Choose the correct statement a) Responsivity increases with the frequency of incident radiation b) Responsivity decreases with the frequency of incident radiation c) Responsivity is independent of the frequency of incident radiation d) Responsivity is equal to the frequency of incident radiation

59
6.Flicker noise is significant at frequencies a) < 1kHz b) > 10kHz c) >100 kHz d) >1000 kHz

7. A Photodiode detector is usually given a) forward bias b) reverse bias c) both d) no bias

8. The excitation energy required to excite an electron from donor level to conduction band is ______eV ( Given effective mass= 0.26 times the mass of electron and 1/ ? r =11.8 a) 2.5 b) 0.25 c) 0.025 d) 0.0025

III. Match the following

9. Bolometer 10. Photodiode 11. Light source-detector package 12. Light intensity variation occurs

a) Opto-isolators b) Modulators c) Quantum detectors d) Connectors e) Thermal detector

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Silicon is a direct band gap material. 14. Silicon can be used for making laser sources. 15. Silicon can act as amphoteric dopant in GaAs 16. Silicon photo detectors have low dark current when compared to Germanium photo detectors. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What are excitons? 18. What is Auger recombination? 19. What do you mean by indirect bandgap semiconductors? 20. What is Kerr effect? 21. What is. Pockels effect? 22. What is meant by optical non linearity? 23. What is optical computing?. 24. What is noise in photodetectors? 25. How are liquid crystals classified? 26. What are the advantages of PIN photodiode? 27. What is the bandgap energy of the semiconductor material emitting radiation at 600 nm? 28. What is optical pumping? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.]

60 29. Write short note on optical bistability. 30. Write a short note on spatial light modulators. 31. What do you mean by self focusing? 32. Write a brief note on Schotky barrier photodiodes . 33. Explain the principle of semiconductor lasers. 34. Write short note on quantum well structures. 35. Calculate the internal quantum efficiency and bulk recombination lifetime in the absence of reabsorption of photons and interface recombination (Given that the radiateiveand non radiative lifetimes of minority carriers in the active region of an LED are 2.5 and 90 nanoseconds respectively. 36. Calculate radiative recombination time in GaAs having equilibrium carrier concentration 1014 cm-3 under low level injections for Br= 7 x 10-10 cm3/s SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. A silicon PIN diode with R=0.65 A/W, I d= 1nA, RL= 1000 ohm is operating at 850 nm. If the incident optical power is 500 nW and bandwidth is 100MHz. Calculate 1) signal current 2) r.m.s short noise current due to signal 3) r.m.s thermal noise 4) signal to noise ratio. 38. Describe LED structure and efficiency 39. Write note on various optical switches.

Time 3 hours

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651.4 Concepts of nanoscien ce (Elective Course) Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

1.

Quantum dot is an example of _________ dimensional confinement. a. one 2. b. two c. three d. zero

What is grapheme?

a. a new material made from carbon nanotubes b. one atom thick sheet of carbon c. thin film made of fullerenes d. none of these 3. Nanostructured materials are characterized by a. large surface to volume ratio b. low surface to volume ratio band gap c. none of these

c. lower

61 4. Ball milling is a ______________ method to synthesize nanomaterials. a. top down b. bottom up c. natural d. novel 5. Which of the following can be estimated using X-ray diffraction technique? a. average grain size b. conductivity c. mobility of the ion d. none of these Which of the following techniques can be used for composition analysis? a. ICP b. XRD c. AFM d. TEM

6.

7. Phonon is a quantum of a. elastic wave b. electromagnetic wave c. polarization wave d. magnetization wave. 8. As a result of the grain size transforming to nano regime the band gap becomes a. wider b. narrower c. no change d. widens as the grain size decreases 9. Carbon nanotubes are characterized by a. high thermal conductivity b. diameter of the order of nanometers c. high mechanical strength d. all the above 10. A fuel cell does not run down like a standard battery because a. the reactants in a battery must be stored inside the battery whereas the reactants for a fuel cell flow in as needed. b. a fuel cell continually recycles the same electrons whereas a battery must continually generate new ones. c. a battery is completely dependent upon oxidation-reduction reactions whereas a fuel cell depends on acid-base reactions. d. a battery has many moving parts, whereas a fuel cell has none. 11. Broadening of Raman peaks found in nanomaterials is due to a. non-validity of law of conservation of momentum in the case of nanosized grains b. uncertainty principle c. Doppler effect d. None of the above 12. Carbon nanotubes can be synthesized using a. arc method b. sputtering c. ion implantation d. none of the above 13. Phonon confinement in nanomaterials results in a. shifting of Raman peak b. occurrence of surface modes c. broadening of Raman peak d. all the above. 14. UV-Visible absorption spectroscopy can be used to estimate the

62

a. band gap

b. conductivity

c. crystal structure

d. none of these

15. The interconnects of nanoelectromechanical systems are a. nanowires b carbon nanotubes c. Nanobelts d. Nanobots

16. Single electron transistors are characterized by a. low noise b low gain c. high resistance d. none of these

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. The emission energies of a luminescent semiconductor can be tailored in the nano regime. Justify the above statement. 18. PbS nanocrystals of size 20 nm show quantum confinement effect while CdS nanocrystals of the same size do not show it. Why? 19. The atomic force microscope (AFM) or scanning force microscope (SFM) is a very high-resolution type of scanning probe microscopy, with demonstrated resolution of fractions of a nanometer, more than 1000 times better than the optical diffraction limit. Give an account of the advantages of this instrument in the field of nanoscience and nanotechnology. 20. How ion implantation technique can be used to synthesize compound semiconductor nanoparticles. 21. Mention the differences between Raman spectra of nanostructured materials and their bulk counterparts 22. Nanomaterials show different properties compared to that of conventional bulk materials. Can you substantiate this with the help of density of states plot. 23. The (m,n) indices for a carbon nanotube is given by (4,3). Find diameter and chiral angle of the tube. Given rc-c = 1.421 . 24. Suggest a method to induce superconductivity in C60. 25. Coulomb blockade, named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb, is the increased resistance at small bias voltages of an electronic device comprising at least one low-capacitance tunnel junction. Explain how this can be observed. 26. What are the essential processes needed for the transition from micro MOS transistor to nano MOS transistor.

63 27. What will be the role of carbon nanotubes in nanoelectronics? 28. Explain the chief differences between an ordinary laser and quantum cascade laser. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Briefly explain a method to synthesize nanostructured materials by top down approach 30. List out the advantages and disadvantages of Transmission Electron

Microscope over X - ray diffraction technique in the characterisation of nanostructured materials? If HRTEM pattern of a nanoparticle is given, how will you interpret its phase and size? 31. Discuss how quantum confinement effect is manifested in the optical properties of semiconductor nanoparticles. 32. Differentiate between direct lattice and reciprocal lattice. Explain the significance of reciprocal lattice vector and represent Braggs diffraction law in terms of reciprocal lattice vector. 33. With a neat diagram, explain the arc discharge method to synthesize single wall carbon nanotubes. 34. Design a computer switching device using carbon nanotubes. 35. Write a note on challenges in fabricating NEMS. 36. What revolution will bring in as a result of the discovery of transistor? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Suppose you have synthesized a nanostructured sample in the form of a film. What are the techniques that can be adopted to characterize it. Also give a brief account of the uses of nanostructured films in science and technology. 38. Twenty first century is considered to be the nanotechnology era. Discuss this statement in the wake of your knowledge and possible a scientists imagination. single electron

39. Explain in detail the operating principle and possible applications of Resonant Tunneling diode and Quantum Cascade lasers

64

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651.5 Computer Hardware and Networking (Elective Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage : 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. The 8085 microprocessor use ------ V power supply. a. +5V b. 5V c. + 12V d. 12 V

39. Which of the following holds the CPU,RAM and expansion cards a. Hard disk previous b. Floppy disk c. Motherboard d. none of the

40. Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in a. ALU b. Control unit c. Keyboard d. Storage unit

41. Information retrieval is faster from a. Floppy disk b. Pen drive c. Hard disk d. CD-ROM

65 II. 5. Execution of two or more program by a single CPU is known as a. multiprocessing of the previous b. multiprogramming c. time sharing d. none

6. Cache memory enhances b. memory capacity b. memory access time

c. secondary storage capacity 7. CISC machines have a. fewer instruction than RISC machines machines c. medium clock speed

d. secondary storage access time.

b. more RAM than RISC d. variable size instructions

8. A Pentium processor comprises a. more than I million transistors c. only I million transistors transistors only III. 40. DRAM a. is used for cache memory c. is cheaper than SRAM b. is more expensive than SRAM d. is only used to boot up time b. more than 3 million transistors d. 500000

41. The communication line between the CPU , memory and peripherals is called a a. bus b. line c. media d. none of the previous

42. LAN speeds are measured in b. bps 43. Ethernet uses a. bus topology these b. ring topology c. mesh topology d. None of b. kbps c. mbps d. mips

66 IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 44. Data are loaded from secondary to primary storage in a nondestructive read process. 45. An SMPS is designed to deliver 4 discrete outputs and incorporate a switching regulator 46. LAN is a group of computers connected by a shared medium, usually a cable 47. OSI model is a four layer model designed by ISO.

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question ca rries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What is BIOS and what are its functional parts? 18. Compare the features of a Pentium 4 and an AMD Athlon processors. 19. Discuss about FAT and boot sector. 20. What is partitioning of disk drive? Discuss 21. What is a serial mouse and a bus mouse? 22. What are Trojan and worms ? 23. What is Bluetooth technology ? 24.. Differentiate between LAN and WAN 25. Define Topology. Specify the types of topologies 26. Define Protocol 27. Explain IP addressing method 28. Mention the duties of the transport layer

SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Draw the functional block diagram of a Hard disk controller. 30. Write the diagnosis procedure and troubleshooting for the following keyboard error a. complete non operation of the keyboard. b. non operation of some keys in the keyboard. c. keyboard interface problem. 31. Discuss the diagnosis and troubleshooting methods for the following problems in HDD a. system is not booting from the hard disk b. disk performance was slow c. system displays No fixed disk present error message on the monitor. 32. Draw the block diagrams of a. online UPS b. offline UPS 33. Write note on a. universal serial bus

67 b. IEEE Firewire 34. Change the following IP addresses from dotted-decimal notation to binary notation. a. 111 . 34 . 28 b. 129 . 14 . 6 . 8 c. 205 . 23. 67 . 9 35. Change the following IP addresses from binary to dotted-decimal notation a. 01111111 11110000 01100111 01111101 b. 10101111 11000000 11111000 00011101 c. 11011111 10110000 00011111 01011101 36. Find the class of the following IP address a. 128 . 11 . 3 . 31 b. 238 . 56 . 2 . 1 c. 114 . 13 . 4 . 0 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Explain the components of motherboard in detail. 38. Explain the various hard disk sub assemblies. Discuss about the configuration of hard disk drive. 39. With a neat sketch explain OSI reference model. Explain the duties of different layers.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.1 Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass M and radius R about its diameter is (a) MR2 (b) MR2/2 (c) MR2/3 (d) MR2/4

2. Shearing strain is related to

68 (a) Youngs modulus (b) Bulk modulus (c) Rigidity modulus 3. The limiting values of Poissons ratio are (a) -1 and 0 (b) -1 and 0.5 (c) 1 and -0.5 (d) 1 and 0 (d) None of these

4. The dimensions of surface tension are (a) ML 0T -2 (b) ML-1T-2 (c) ML-1T-1 (d) ML2T-2

II. 5. As temperature increases, the viscosity of a gas (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change

(d) First increases and then decreases 6. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is (a) Surface tension (b) Friction (c) Inertia (d) None of these

7. Which one of the following is not a SHM (a) Oscillations of a loaded spring (c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock (b) Vibrations of atoms (d) Vibrations of a tuning fork

8. Oscillatory motion occurs when the system is displaced from the position of (a) Stable equilibrium (c) Neutral equilibrium (b) Unstable equilibrium (d) None of these

III. 9. The rotation of the earth can be demonstrated using a ____________. 10. A swimmer jumping into water from a height makes loops in air making use of ___________ law. 11. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called __________. 12. Two pendulum of equal length l and mass m are coupled by a mass less spring

69 of spring constant k. The normal frequencies are ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Gyroscopes are used in ships to find directions. 14. An egg standing on one end is an example of unstable equilibrium. 15. The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse. 16. The viscosity of water increases with increase in temperature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain the physical significance of moment of inertia. 18. Explain why there are two propellers in a helicopter. 19. With the help of a stress-strain diagram, explain elastic limit and yield point. 20. Why are girders I-shaped? 21. Water spreads on a clean glass plate but collects into drops on a greased glass plate. Why? 22. Explain the variation of surface tension of a liquid with temperature. 23. Even though lava is highly viscous it flows rapidly. Why? 24. Define coefficient of viscosity. 25. What are beats? How are they produced? 26. Write down the differential equation of a damped SHM. 27. Explain the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with displacement of a particle executing SHM. 28. Explain velocity resonance.

70 SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A fly wheel of mass 250 kg and 0.6 m radius makes 300 rpm. Assuming its mass to be concentrated ay the rim, calculate the moment of inertia of the fly wheel. 30. A sphere of mass m and radius r rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping. What fraction of its total energy is rotational? 31. Calculate the load that must be suspended from a steel wire of diameter 1 mm to produce an elongation of 0.01% of its original length. Youngs modulus of steel = 200109 N/m 2. 32. Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of radius 1 mm formed just below the surface of water. Surface tension of water = 7210 -3 N/m. Atmospheric pressure = 1.013105 N/m 2.

33. Two soap bubbles of radii 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce in vacuum under isothermal conditions. Calculate the radius of the new bubble formed. 34. A metal plate of 0.05 m2 area rests on a layer of oil 2 mm thick. Calculate the horizontal force required to move the plate with a velocity of 0.2 m/s. Coefficient of viscosity of the oil= 1.56 Ns/m2. 35. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM is 1.5 m/s and period is 0.15 sec. Find the amplitude and maximum acceleration. 36. The intensity of a point source emitting sound at a distance 3 m from the source is 0.707 W/m2. What is the average power output of the source?

71 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe with necessary theory the method of determining the rigidity modulus of the material of a wire using torsion pendulum. 38. Derive an expression for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. Explain the corrections. 39. Arrive at the differential equation of a forced harmonic oscillator and give its solution.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231.1 Heat and Thermodynamics (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Compared to ordinary light waves, the wavelength of thermal radiations is (a) Larger (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) None of these

2. Ferys black body is (a) Spherical (b) Cylindrical (c) Cone shaped (d) None of these

72 3. The total energy radiated per second from unit area of a black body is proportional to (a) T (b) T2 (c) T3 (d) T4

4. Wiens distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves

II. 5. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T 2 (T1>T 2) is (a) 1-(T2/T1) (b) 1-(T1/T 2) (c) (T 1/T 2)-1 (d) (T 2/T1)-1

6. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these

7. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change

(c) First increases and then decreases

8. During an adiabatic process which of the following remains constant (a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Entropy

III. 9. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. 10. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 11. The process in which the pressure remains constant is called __________. 12. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas, the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.

73 13. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. 14. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. 15. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 16. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why heat conduction is a slow process. 18. State Wiens displacement law. 19. The metal strip used in Angstrom pyrheliometer is made of platinum or manganin. Why? 20. Write down any four properties of radiations from a uniform temperature enclosure. 21. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve. 22. Explain why a heavy fly wheel is used in heat engines. 23. Explain the effect of melting point of ice with pressure. 24. What are the advantages of diesel engine? 25. Draw the labeled indicator diagram for Otto cycle. 26. Explain why an adiabatic process is called an isentropic process. 27. How is entropy and disorder related? 28. Is it possible to get a negative temperature on Kelvins scale? Explain. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. The temperature of a perfectly black body is 600 K and area of its radiating

74 surface is 210-3 m2. Find the energy radiated by the surface in 10 minutes. s = 5.710-8 Wm-2K-4. 30. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a.c voltage fluctuations. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. 31. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. If it bursts suddenly, calculate the final temperature. ? = 1.4 32. Calculate the increase in temperature of water falling from a height of 300 m assuming that the whole kinetic energy due to fall is converted into heat. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg/K 33. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C. 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour, calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 35. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K, Latent heat of steam = 2.26106 J/kg. 36. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. Calculate the value of T. SECTION D

75 [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lees disc method. 38. Define solar constant. Describe an experiment to determine the solar constant using a pyrheliometer. 39. (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1331.1 Optics, Magnetism and Electricity (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. A device based on interference due to division of amplitude is (a) Biprism (b) Newtons rings (c) Double mirror (d) None of these

2. Formation of colours in thin films is due to (a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarization (d) Dispersion

76 3. Which of the following is not correct? (a) Interference maxima have equal thickness equal thickness (b) Diffraction maxima have

(c) Interference maxima have equal intensity

(d) Diffraction maxima have varying intensity 4. Which of the following is not applicable to laser? (a) Monochromatic (b) Divergent (c) Intense (d) Coherent

II. 5. Pulse dispersion is maximum in (a) Step index fibre (d) None of these 6. Which one of the following is a paramagnetic substance? (a) Antimony (b) Bismuth (c) Gold (d) Aluminium (b) Graded index fibre (c) Single mode fibre

7. In a pure inductive circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is (a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800

8. In a series LCR circuit if the current is wattless, the power factor will be (a) Zero (b) One (c) Infinity (d) None of these

III. 9. Two waves of same amplitude a each interfere each other. The intensity of maxima are ____________. 10. Fringes of equal inclination are also known as ___________. 11. The bending of light around corners of opaque objects is called __________. 12. The expression for the Q factor of a series LCR circuit is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.

77 13. The refractive index of a material is independent of the wavelength of incident light. 14. In Newtons rings arrangement, the central band is normally dark. 15. An atomic system with a metastable state is required to produce laser. 16. The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic substance is less than one. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why very thin films appear black in reflected light. 18. Explain why Newtons rings are circular while fringes of air wedge are straight and parallel. 19. Distinguish between prism spectra and grating spectra. 20. What are Haidingers fringes? 21. Explain absent spectra in double slit diffraction. 22. What is meant by permeability and susceptibility? How are they related? 23. Define time constant of an LR circuit. 24. Explain sharpness of resonance in series resonant circuit. 25. What is a choke coil? Mention its advantage over a resistor. 26. Distinguish between spontaneous emission and stimulated emission. 27. Write down any four applications of laser. 28. Explain why a series LCR circuit is called an acceptor circuit. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.]

78 29. In a biprism experiment 100 fringes were observed with 600 nm light. How many fringes will be observed if the wavelength is changed to 500 nm and the set up remains unchanged? 30. Light of wavelength 593 nm falls normally on a thin wedge shaped film of refractive index 1.4 forming fringes that are 1 mm apart. Find the angle of the wedge.
th 31. In a Newtons rings arrangement the diameter of the 4 and 12th dark rings are

4 mm and 7 mm respectively. Find the diameter of the 20th dark ring. 32. A lens of focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit of 0.2 mm width. Calculate the distance of the first dark band from the axis for light of wavelength 589 nm. 33. A plane transmission grating has 6000 lines/cm over a length10 cm. Find the resolving power of the grating and the smallest wavelength that can be resolved in the 600 nm wavelength region. 34. A capacitor of capacity 0.1 F is connected with an inductance of 1 mH. Calculate the natural frequency of the circuit. 35. Find the value of the inductance that should be connected in series with a capacitor of 5 F, a resistance 100 O and an ac source of frequency 50 Hz so that the power factor is unity. 36. A magnetic field of 0.5 T is applied to a paramagnetic gas whose atoms h ave an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment of 1.210-23J/T. At what temperature will the mean kinetic energy of translation of the gas atoms be equal to the energy required to reverse a dipole end for end in this magnetic field. SECTION D

79 [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe with necessary theory, an experiment to determine the wavelength monochromatic light using Newtons rings arrangement. 38. Describe the phenomenon of Fresnel diffraction at a straight edge. Give an example for the same. 39. Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating voltage is applied on it. Obtain the condition for resonance.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1431.1 Modern Physics and Electronics (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Which of the following is not a radioactive radiation? (a) a rays (b) rays (c) ? rays (d) X rays

2. Which of the following radioactive series has Pu239 as the parent atom? (a) Uranium series (c) Actinium series (b) Thorium series (d) Neptunium series

80 3. Nuclear density in S.I units is of the order of (a) 1017 (b) 1010 (c) 10-10 (d) 10-2

4. The energy per fission of U235 is about (a) 1 MeV (b) 50 MeV (c) 200 MeV (d) None of these

II 5. The transistor configuration which has current gain less than one is (a) Common base (d) None of these 6. Lightly doped region of the transistor is (a) Emitter (b) Base (c) Collector (d) Emitter and collector (b) Common emitter (c) Common collector

7. The relation between transistor a and transistor is (a) = a/(1-a ) (b) a= /(1-) (c) = a/(1+a) (d) a= 2/(1+)

8. The commonly used biasing circuit in amplifiers is (a) Fixed bias (b) Collector to base bias (c) Voltage divider bias

(d) None of these III. 9. The magnitude of the spin quantum number of an electron is ___________. 10. A radioactive radiation which is electromagnetic in nature is ____________. 11. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 16 is ___________. 12. The logic gate which has only one input is __________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. a rays are electromagnetic in nature. 14. The stability of a nucleus depends on the number of protons and neutrons in it. 15. The common collector configuration of a transistor can be used as impedance

81 matching circuit. 16. Negative feedback is used in transistor oscillators. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.]

17. What are the features of vector atom model? 18. Explain various coupling schemes. 19. Show that the energy levels of a particle in a box is quantized. 20. What are the limitations of Bohr atom model? 21. State and explain Paulis exclusion principle. 22. Define mass defect of a nucleus. 23. Explain the significance of the wave function. 24. State and explain DeMorgans theorems. 25. Explain the terms eigen value and eigen function. 26. Explain the phase reversal of a transistor amplifier 27. What is Berkhausen criterion for oscillations? 28. Which of the three transistor configurations is preferred? Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A radioactive substance has a half life of 30 days. Calculate the time taken to decay 25% of the given sample of the substance. 30. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C13.

82 31. The wavelength of a line in hydrogen spectrum is 500 nm. Find out the related energy change of the in electron volt. 32. Calculate the energy difference between the ground state and the first excited state for an electron in a one dimensional rigid box of length 1 A0. 33. What is the lowest energy that a neutron of mass 1.6710 -27 kg can have if it is confined to move along the edge of an impenetrable box of length 10-14 m. 34. In a canter tapped full wave rectifier maximum voltage across half of the secondary winding is 50 V. If the load resistance is 200O, calculate the dc output voltage and the peak inverse voltage. 35. A 10 Volt Zener diode along with a series resistor is connected across a 40 V supply. Calculate the minimum resistance required if the maximum Zener current is 50 mA. 36. In a transistor amplifier, when signal changes by 0.02 V, the base current changes by 10 A and the collector current changes by 18 mA. If the collector load R C = 5 kO and R L = 10 kO, find the current gain and voltage gain. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Derive the general equation of growth and decay of radioactive series. Explain secular and transient radioactive equilibrium. 38. Obtain Schrdinger wave equation for a particle in a one dimensional rigid box. Solve it to obtain eigen functions and show that eigen values are discrete. 39. Explain the rectifying action of a p-n junction diode. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of a full wave rectifier using two diodes.

83

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.2 Rotational Dynamics and Properties of matter (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is (a) 1/3MR 2 (b) MR2/2 (c) 2MR2/3 (d) 2MR2/5

2. Within the elastic limit, the ratio of the lateral strain to linear strain is called (a) Youngs modulus (d) Poissons ratio 3. The limiting values of Poissons ratio are (a) -1 and 0 (b) -1 and 0.5 (c) 1 and -0.5 (d) 1 and 0 (b) Bulk modulus (c) Rigidity modulus

84 4. The S.I unit of coefficient of viscosity is (a) Ns/m2 (b) Ns2/m (c) Ns/m (d) Ns2/m2

II. 5. As temperature increases, the viscosity of a gas (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change

(d) First increases and then decreases 6. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is (a) Surface tension (b) Friction (c) Inertia (d) None of these

7. Which one of the following is not a SHM? (a) Oscillations of a loaded spring (c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock 8. Moment of inertia of a rigid body is independent of (a) Mass of the body (d) Angular velocity III. 9. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is _________ 10. A swimmer jumping into water from a height makes loops in air making use of ___________ law. 11. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called __________. 12. Two pendulum of equal length l and mass m are coupled by a mass less spring of spring constant k. The normal frequencies are ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Gyroscopes are used in ships to find directions. (b) Axis of rotation (c) Radius of gyration (b) Vibrations of atoms (d) Vibrations of a tuning fork

85 14. An egg standing on one end is an example of unstable equilibrium. 15. The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse. 16. The viscosity of water increases with increase in temperature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. State the theorem of parallel axes. 18. Explain why the mass of fly wheel is concentrated at its rim. 19. Explain why steel is more elastic than rubber. 20. Why are girders I-shaped? 21. A needle can float in clean water but sinks in soap solution. Why? 22. How does the surface tension of a liquid vary with temperature? 23. What are the conditions under which Poiseuilles formula is valid? 24. Define coefficient of viscosity. 25. What are beats? How are they produced? 26. Write down the differential equation of a damped SHM. 27. Explain the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with displacement of a particle executing SHM. 28. What is Q-factor of a harmonic oscillator? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A circular disc of mass 0.5kg and radius 0.1 m is making 120 rpm about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. Calculate its kinetic energy.

86 30. Calculate the ratio of K.E of translation to the total K.E of a sphere rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. 31. Calculate the load that must be suspended from a steel wire of diameter 1 mm to produce an elongation of 0.01% of its original length. Youngs modulus of steel = 200109 N/m2. 32. Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of radius 1 mm formed just below the surface of water. Surface tension of water = 7210 -3 N/m. Atmospheric pressure = 1.013105 N/m 2. 33. Two soap bubbles of radii 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce in vacuum under isothermal conditions. Calculate the radius of the new bubble formed. 34. A metal plate of 0.05 m2 area rests on a layer of oil 2 mm thick. Calculate the horizontal force required to move the plate with a velocity of 0.2 m/s. Coefficient of viscosity of the oil= 1.56 Ns/m2. 35. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM is 1.5 m/s and period is 0.15 sec. Find the amplitude and maximum acceleration. 36. The intensity of a point source emitting sound at a distance 3 m from the source is 0.707 W/m2. What is the average power output of the source? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe with necessary theory the method of determining the rigidity modulus of the material of a wire using torsion pendulum.

87 38. Derive an expression for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. Explain the corrections. 39. Arrive at the differential equation of a forced harmonic oscillator and give its solution.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231.2 Heat and Thermodynamics (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Which of the following is not applicable to thermal radiations (a) Electromagnetic waves (b) Show interference and diffraction (d) Obey laws of refraction

(c) Do not obey inverse square law

2. The amount of energy radiated per second per unit area of a body is called its (a) Emissivity (b) Emissive power (c) Absorptive power (d) Reflecting power 3. Pyrheliometer is an instrument used for measuring

88 (a) Solar constant (d) Emissive power 4. Wiens distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves (b) Temperature of the Sun (c) Emissivity

II. 5. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate (a) Pressure (b) Entropy (c) Viscosity (d) Temperature

6. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these

7. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change

(c) First increases and then decreases

8. The area under the indicator diagram of a thermodynamic system represents (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Pressure (d) Entropy

III. 9. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. 10. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 11. The process in which the volume remains constant is called __________. 12. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas, the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. 14. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine.

89 15. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 16. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why heat conduction is a slow process. 18. State Wiens displacement law. 19. The metal strip used in Angstrom pyrheliometer is made of platinum or manganin. Why? 20. Write down any four properties of radiations from a uniform temperature enclosure. 21. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve. 22. Explain why a heavy fly wheel is used in heat engines. 23. Explain the effect of melting point of ice with pressure. 24. What are the advantages of diesel engine? 25. Draw the labeled indicator diagram for Otto cycle. 26. Explain why an adiabatic process is called an isentropic process. 27. How is entropy and disorder related? 28. Is it possible to get a negative temperature on Kelvins scale? Explain. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. The temperature of a perfectly black body is 600 K and area of its radiating surface is 210-3 m2. Find the energy radiated by the surface in 10 minutes. s = 5.710-8 Wm-2K-4.

90 30. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a.c voltage fluctuations. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. 31. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. If it bursts suddenly, calculate the final temperature. ? = 1.4 32. Calculate the increase in temperature of water falling from a height of 300 m assuming that the whole kinetic energy due to fall is converted into heat. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg/K 33. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C. 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour, calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 35. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K, Latent heat of steam = 2.26106 J/kg. 36. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. Calculate the value of T. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lees disc method.

91 38. Define solar constant. Describe an experiment to determine the solar constant using a pyrheliometer. 39. (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1331.2 Optics, Magnetism and Electricity (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]
1) 1. The interference phenomenon can take place

(a) in all waves (b) in transverse waves only (c) in longitudinal waves only (d) in standing waves only 2. Formation of colours in thin films is due to (a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarization (d) Dispersion

3. Which of the following is not correct? (a) Interference maxima have equal thickness (b) Diffraction maxima have

92 equal thickness (c) Interference maxima have equal intensity

(d) Diffraction maxima have varying intensity 4. Which of the following is not applicable to laser? (a) Monochromatic (b) Divergent (c) Intense (d) Coherent

II. 5. Pulse dispersion is maximum in (a) Step index fibre (d) None of these 6. Which one of the following is a paramagnetic substance? (a) Antimony (b) Bismuth (c) Gold (d) Aluminium (b) Graded index fibre (c) Single mode fibre

7. In a pure inductive circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is (a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800

8. In a series LCR circuit if the current is wattless, the power factor will be (a) Zero (b) One (c) Infinity (d) None of these

III. 9. Two waves of same amplitude a each interfere each other. The intensity of maxima are ____________. 10. Fringes of equal inclination are also known as ___________. 11. The bending of light around corners of opaque objects is called __________. 12. The expression for the Q factor of a series LCR circuit is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. The refractive index of a material is independent of the wavelength of incident light.

93 14. In Newtons rings arrangement, the central band is normally dark. 15. An atomic system with a metastable state is required to produce laser. 16. The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic substance is less than one. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why very thin films appear black in reflected light. 18. Explain why Newtons rings are circular while fringes of air wedge are straight and parallel. 19. Distinguish between prism spectra and grating spectra. 20. What are Haidingers fringes? 21. Explain absent spectra in double slit diffraction. 22. What is meant by permeability and susceptibility? How are they related? 23. Define time constant of an LR circuit. 24. Explain sharpness of resonance in series resonant circuit. 25. What is a choke coil? Mention its advantage over a resistor. 26. Distinguish between spontaneous emission and stimulated emission. 27. Write down any four applications of laser. 28. Explain why a series LCR circuit is called an acceptor circuit. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. In a biprism experiment 100 fringes were observed with 600 nm light. How many fringes will be observed if the wavelength is changed to 500 nm and the set up remains unchanged?

94 30. Light of wavelength 593 nm falls normally on a thin wedge shaped film of refractive index 1.4 forming fringes that are 1 mm apart. Find the angle of the wedge.
th 31. In a Newtons rings arrangement the diameter of the 4 and 12th dark rings are

4 mm and 7 mm respectively. Find the diameter of the 20th dark ring. 32. A lens of focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit of 0.2 mm width. Calculate the distance of the first dark band from the axis for light of wavelength 589 nm. 33. A plane transmission grating has 6000 lines/cm over a length10 cm. Find the resolving power of the grating and the smallest wavelength that can be resolved in the 600 nm wavelength region. 34. A capacitor of capacity 0.1 F is connected with an inductance of 1 mH. Calculate the natural frequency of the circuit. 35. Find the value of the inductance that should be connected in series with a capacitor of 5 F, a resistance 100 O and an ac source of frequency 50 Hz so that the power factor is unity. 36. A magnetic field of 0.5 T is applied to a paramagnetic gas whose atoms h ave an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment of 1.210-23J/T. At what temperature will the mean kinetic energy of translation of the gas atoms be equal to the energy required to reverse a dipole end for end in this magnetic field. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe with necessary theory, an experiment to determine the wavelength monochromatic light using Newtons rings arrangement.

95 38. Describe the phenomenon of Fresnel diffraction at a straight edge. Give an example for the same. 39. Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating voltage is applied on it. Obtain the condition for resonance.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1431.2 Modern Physics and Electronics (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Which of the following is not a radioactive radiation? (a) a rays (b) rays (c) ? rays (d) X rays

2. Which of the following radioactive series has Pu239 as the parent atom? (a) Uranium series (c) Actinium series (b) Thorium series (d) Neptunium series

3. Nuclear density in S.I units is of the order of (a) 1017 (b) 1010 (c) 10-10 (d) 10-2

96 4. The energy per fission of U235 is about (a) 1 MeV (b) 50 MeV (c) 200 MeV (d) None of these

II 5. The transistor configuration which has current gain less than one is (a) Common base (d) None of these 6. Lightly doped region of the transistor is (a) Emitter (b) Base (c) Collector (d) Emitter and collector (b) Common emitter (c) Common collector

7. The relation between transistor a and transistor is (a) = a/(1-a ) (b) a= /(1-) (c) = a/(1+a) (d) a= 2/(1+)

8. The commonly used biasing circuit in amplifiers is (a) Fixed bias (b) Collector to base bias (c) Voltage divider bias

(d) None of these III. 9. The magnitude of the spin quantum number of an electron is ___________. 10. A radioactive radiation which is electromagnetic in nature is ____________. 11. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 16 is ___________. 12. The logic gate which has only one input is __________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. a rays are electromagnetic in nature. 14. The stability of a nucleus depends on the number of protons and neutrons in it. 15. The common collector configuration of a transistor can be used as impedance matching circuit. 16. Negative feedback is used in transistor oscillators.

97 SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What are the features of vector atom model? 18. Explain various coupling schemes. 19. Show that the energy levels of a particle in a box is quantized. 20. What are the limitations of Bohr atom model? 21. State and explain Paulis exclusion principle. 22. Define mass defect of a nucleus. 23. Explain the significance of the wave function. 24. State and explain DeMorgans theorems. 25. Explain the terms eigen value and eigen function. 26. Explain the phase reversal of a transistor amplifier 27. What is Berkhausen criterion for oscillations? 28. Which of the three transistor configurations is preferred? Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A radioactive substance has a half life of 30 days. Calculate the time taken to decay 25% of the given sample of the substance.
12 13 30. The binding energy per nucleon for C is 7.68 MeV and that of C is

7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C13. 31. The wavelength of a line in hydrogen spectrum is 500 nm. Find out the related energy change of the in electron volt.

98 32. Calculate the energy difference between the ground state and the first excited state for an electron in a one dimensional rigid box of length 1 A0. 33. What is the lowest energy that a neutron of mass 1.6710-27 kg can have if it is confined to move along the edge of an impenetrable box of length 10-14 m. 34. In a canter tapped full wave rectifier maximum voltage across half of the secondary winding is 50 V. If the load resistance is 200O, calculate the dc output voltage and the peak inverse voltage. 35. A 10 Volt Zener diode along with a series resistor is connected across a 40 V supply. Calculate the minimum resistance required if the maximum Zener current is 50 mA. 36. In a transistor amplifier, when signal changes by 0.02 V, the base current changes by 10 A and the collector current changes by 18 mA. If the collector load R C = 5 kO and R L = 10 kO, find the current gain and voltage gain. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Derive the general equation of growth and decay of radioactive series. Explain secular and transient radioactive equilibrium. 38. Obtain Schrdinger wave equation for a particle in a one dimensional rigid box. Solve it to obtain eigen functions and show that eigen values are discrete.

99 39. Explain the rectifying action of a p-n junction diode. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of a full wave rectifier using two diodes.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.3 Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Statistics Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I (1) Moment of Inertia of a sphere of mass m and radius R about an axis through the diameter is A.2/5 MR2 B. 5/2 MR2 C. 7/5 MR2 D. 5/7 MR2 (2) If l is the distance between centre of suspension ad C.G of a compound pendulum, then the length of equivalent simple pendulum is A.v(k2+l2) B. (k2/l) +l C. l +(l2/k) D.v((k2+l2)/l2) (3) In a simple harmonic oscillator the P.E and K.E Becomes equal at the position. A. x=a B. x=a/2 C. x=a/v2 D. x==0 (4) The total K.E of a simple harmonic oscillator is proportional to A. amplitude B. square of amplitude C. Velocity D.

100 Square root of displacement. II(5) the depression in the middle of girder for a given load depends on A. Length and breadth. B. breadth and depth C. depth D. length breadth and depth (6) The excess of pressure inside a cylindrical drop of liquid with surface tension s and radius r is A.2s/r B. s/r C.4s/r D.s/2r (7) Hot syrup flows faster because A. surface tension decreases B. Viscosity decreases C. surface tension increases D. Viscosity increases (8) The dimensions of viscosity is A. M-1 L1 T0 B. M0 L-1 T-1. C.M2 L-1 T-2 D. M L2 T-1. III Fill in the blanks (9) The mass of the flywheel is concentrated at its ........................ (10)In gases the modulus of elasticity involved is............................. (11)External bending moment required to produce a unit radius of curvature is called................................. (12) The instrument used to compare the viscosity of a liquid at two different temperatures is.......................... IV.State whether the following statements are true or false. (13) When a ring and disc of same mass rotates about their diameter Ring has greater moment of inertia. (14) In a harmonic oscillator K.E. is maximum at its mean position (15) Compressibility is the reciprocal of Bulk modulus. (16) Sound waves travel faster in humid air. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE]

(17). Write two factors that affect the M.I of a body. (18) What is radius of gyration? What is its value for a solid cylinder about an axis passing through one end and perpendicular to its axis? (19).Obtain an expression for the K.E.of a rotating body. (20). Draw a graph showing the variation of K.E.of a body executing S.H.M. (21) .Define centre of oscillation and centre of suspension of a compound pendulum. (22). What do you understand by the energy density of a plane progressive wave. (23) Show that a hollow shaft of the same length, mass and material is comparatively stronger than a solid one.

101 (24). What is torsional rigidity of a wire? On what factors do the torsional rigidity depends. (26). Derive an expression for the bending moment. (27). A drop of mercury is formed on a glass plate. Show in a figure the angle of contact and surface tension. (28). What are the conditions under which Poiseuilles formula is derived. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO ]

(29).A solid sphere of mass o.5kg. and 1m diameter rolls without slipping with a constant velocity 5m/s along a smooth horizontal plane. Calculate the total energy (30).A thin uniform of length 2m and mass 4kg is bend in the form of a square oscillating about the centre of mass and about a vertical plane. Calculate its M.I. (31).A cantile ver of length 60cm is depressed by 20mm at loaded end. What is the depression at a distance 40cm from the fixed end. (32).Calculate the work done in twisting a steel wire of radius 103m and length 0.25m through an angle of 45 .The modulus of rigidity of the material is 8 Nm. (33).The mass of a wire of length 5m is 2 kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the speed of transverse wave on the wire is340m/s. (34).Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of diameter 0.2mm. situated just below the surface of water. (35).The velocity of sound in hydrogen 1320m/s.What will be the velocity of sound in a mixture of 2 parts by volume of hydrogen one part by volume of oxygen. (36).Water flows through a horizontal tube of length 0.2m and internal radius 8*10 m under constant pressure head of the liquid 0.2m high. In 12 minutes 8.64 of liquid is coming out of the tube. Calculate the coefficient of viscosity. Density of liquid is 1000kg/m3 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] (37).State and prove parallel axis theorem. Derive an expression for the M,I. of a uniform bar of rectangular cross section about an axis passing through its corner and perpendicular to its length (38). Derive an expression for the longitudinal waves along a solid rod. (39). Describe Jaegers experiment to determine surface tension of a liquid.

102

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231.3 Thermal Physics and Statistical Mechanics (For Statistics Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Which of the following is not applicable to thermal radiations (a) Electromagnetic waves (b) Show interference and diffraction (d) Obey laws of refraction

(c) Do not obey inverse square law

2. If a gas is allowed to expand adiabatically, the temperature of the gas will (a) Rise (b) Fall (c) Remain unchanged (d) Depends on the nature of gas 3. The change in entropy during a Carnots cycle is

103 (a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Exactly one (d) Zero

4. Wiens distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves

II. 5. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate (a) Pressure (b) Entropy (c) Viscosity (d) Temperature

6. To increase the efficiency of a Carnots engine most effectively, the temperature of the (a) Sink must be lowered (b) Sink must be increased increased (d) Source must be lowered (c) Source must be

7. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change

(c) First increases and then decreases

8. The area under the indicator diagram of a thermodynamic system represents (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Pressure (d) Entropy

III. 9. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. 10. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 11. The process in which the volume remains constant is called __________. 12. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas, the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy.

104 14. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. 15. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 16. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Lees disc method is not suitable for good conductors. Why? 18. State Wiedemann-Franz law. 19. What are the limitations of Weins explanation of black body spectrum? 20. Calculate the work done when a gas expands adiabatically. 21. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve. 22. What factors reduce the efficiency of a heat engine from its ideal value? 23. Explain the term ensemble. 24. What are Bosons and Fermions? 25. Show that there is always an increase in entropy in an irreversible cycle. 26. Explain why an adiabatic process is called an isentropic process. 27. How is entropy and disorder related? 28. Explain Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Calculate the quantity of heat conducted per minute through a glass window pane 0.5m2 and 5mm thick, if the inside temperature is 200C and the outside temperature is 400C. Thermal conductivity of glass = 10.05 W/m/K. 30. If the wavelength of maximum energy in the solar spectrum is 475nm,

105 calculate the effective temperature of the Sun. Weins constant = 2.89810-3mK 31. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. If it bursts suddenly, calculate the final temperature. ? = 1.4 32. The efficiency of a Carnot cycle is 20%. On reducing the temperature of the sink by 650C, the efficiency increases to 40%. Find the temperatures of the source and sink. 33. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C. 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour, calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 35. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K, Latent heat of steam = 2.26106 J/kg. 36. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. Calculate the value of T. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lees disc method. 38. Explain Carnots cycle. Derive an expression for the efficiency of a Carnots

106 engine. 39. (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1331 .3-Physical and Modern Optics and Electricity (For Statistics Main only) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I
2) Two waves having intensities in the ratio 9:1 produce interference .The ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity is 3) The interference phenomenon can take place

(a) 10:8 (b) 9:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 2:1

4) A slit of width e is illuminated by light of wavelength ?. The first minimum will be obtained at an angle of diffraction 60 0 provided 5) Laser light is (a) Highly monochromatic (b) Highly coherent (c) Highly directional (d) All the three

(a) in all waves (b) in transverse waves only (c) in longitudinal waves only (d) in standing waves only (a) e= ?/v3 (b) e = 2?/v3 (c) e = v3 ? (d) e = v3 ? /2

II 6) In a grating spectra which spectral line in the fourth order will overlap with the third order of 5461 ?

107 (a) 4039 ? (b) 4069 ? (c) 4096 ? (d) 4079 ?

7) The basic ingredient of optical glass fibres is (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Silica (c) Calcium sulphate Germanium

(d)

8) Susceptibility is positive for

(a) Paramagnetic substances (b) Ferro magnetic substances (c) Dia magnetic substances (d) non magnetic substances

9) The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and its frequency is 60 Hz. Its
r.m.s value is III
(a) 3.536 A (b) 4.256 A (c) 3.332 A (d) 3.86 A

10)

Soap bubbles viewed in white light show colours. The phenomenon responsible for it is__________. 11) The phase difference corresponding to a path difference of ? is___________. 12) The grating element of a diffraction grating have 5000 lines/cm is ________. 13) The opposition offered by an inductance to the flow of alternating current through it is ______________.

1V

13)The width and central maximum of the Fraunhofer diffraction will decrease when the

State whether the following statements are true or false

slit is made narrower. 14) Inside a magnet, the magnetic field lines move from the north pole to the south pole. 15) In transmitted light, if is the refractive index of the thin film and t its thickness, then the condition for bright fringes to occur is 2 t cos r = n?. 16) The unit is is second. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.]

17) 18) 19) 20) 21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28)

Explain the colour of thin films. What are the fringes of equal thickness? Give examples. Explain the difference between diffraction and interference. Define resolving power of a grating. Distinguish between Fresnel diffraction and Fraunhofer diffraction. Using a diagram explain the distribution of light in the diffraction pattern due to a straight edge. What is laser? Give an example of three level laser. Explain the term population inversion. Explain the electron theory of ferromagnetism. Define susceptibility and permeability. What is power factor? Give its significance. What is a choke coil? What is its advantage over a resistor?

108 SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29) A parallel beam of sodium light (?=5890 ? ) strikes a thin film of oil floating on water. When viewed at an angle of 300 from the normal, eighth dark band is seen. Determine the thickness of the film. (Refractive index of oil is 1.5) 30) In a Newtons ring experiment, the diameter of the fourth dark ring is 0.34 cm using a light of wavelength 589.3nm.Calculate the radius of curvature of the convex lens. 31) Calculate the missing orders in a double slit diffraction pattern, given slit separation is 0.4 mm and the slit width is 0.2 mm. 32) What is the longest wavelength of light for which a spectrum can be obtained using a grating of 6000 lines/cm, under normal incidence? 33) A laser beam has a wavelength 800 nm and aperture 5 x 10 -3 m. The laser beam is sent to the moon. The distance of the moon is 4 x 10 5 km from the earth. Calculate the angular spread of the beam and the areal spread when it reaches the moon. 34) What is the instantaneous voltage of an ac supply of 220 volt and 50 Hz? 35) Find the inductive reactance and impedance of a circuit having an inductance 1/p henry and a resistance 50 ohm in series ,when an alternating e.m.f. of frequency 50 Hz is applied. 36) A 15 F capacitor is connected to a 220 volt, 50 Hz source .Find the capacitive reactance and the current (r.m.s and peak) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled what will happen to the capacitive reactance and the current? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR]

37) Describe an experiment to determine the wavelength of light by Newtons rings method. 38) With a neat sketch explain the working of a ruby laser. 39) Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating current is impressed on it. Obtain the condition for resonance.

109

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1431 .3- Modern Physics and Electronics (For Statistics Main only) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I Choose the correct answer
1. The amount of original radioactive atom left behind after five half lives is 2. Radioactive substances do not emit 3. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due the breaking of the co valent bonds, the semi conductor is called

(a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20%

(a) electrons (b) protons (c) e.m radiations (d) Helium nucleus (a) donor (b) accepter (c) intrinsic (d) extrinsic

4. The order of magnitude of the barrier potential in a pn junction diode (b) 0.01 V (b) 0.05 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 1.0 V

II 5. The resistance of a forward biased pn junction is (a) zero (b) a few ohms (c) a few kilo ohms (d) infinite
6. In Boolean algebra which of the following is not equal to zero (b) (b) (c) (d) (d) 505

7. A binary number 11001101 means

(b) 205 (b) 305 (c) 405

110

8. In the case of wave function

(b) v/ r
2

, the probability current density is

(d) v

(b) v/r (c) v/ r

III

9. One curie = _______________________ decays / sec

10. The logic gate shown below is a ___________gate.

11. In the equation of the system 12. The spin angular momentum of an electron is always ______________. 1V
13. Gamma rays are high energy neutrons

State whether the following statements are true or false

14) The resistance of a pure semiconductor at zero Kelvin is infinite. 15) Emitter base junction of a transistor is reverse biased. 16) In quantum mechanics, wave function is a measure of probability.

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17) State the postulates of Bohr atom model. 18) Show that the binding energy varies with mass numbers of different nuclei. 19) Show the relation between decay constant and half life. 20) State Paulis exclusion principle. 21) Explain probability density. 22) State and explain Plancks hypothesis. 23 Draw the I-V characteristics of a diode in (a) forward bias (b) reverse bias. 24) What are the special features of zener diode? 25) Distinguish between dc and ac load lines. 26) Draw the circuit diagram of a single stage common emitter amplifier. 27) What is binary number system? How does it differ from decimal number system? 28 What is Boolean algebra? Discuss the fundamental laws of Boolean algebra. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29) The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C 13. 30) Calculate the radio active decay constant for an element whose half life is 20 years. 31) Find the least energy of an electron moving in one dimension in an infinitely high potential box of width 1 A 0. (m e = 9.11 x 10-31 kg, h = 6.63 x 10-34J.S) 32) A transistor is connected in the CE configuration. The collector supply voltage is 10 V and the voltage drop across the 500 O connected in the collector circuit is

111 0.6 V. If a = 0.96, find (a) collector emitter voltage (b) base current, and (c) the emitter current. The activity of a radioactive substance decreases to 1/64 of the original value in 21 years. Calculate the half life of the substance. In a transistor circuit, the collector load is 4kO and the zero signal collector current is 1 mA. Determine the Q point if (a) Vcc = 10 V (b) Rc = 5 kO A 9 V voltage regulated supply is required to run a car stereo system from 12 V battery. A zener diode with Vz = 9 V and P max = 0.25 W is used as a voltage regulator. Find the value of the series resistor. Convert 359.310 to octal.

33) 34) 35)

36)

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR]

37) State and explain the quantum numbers associated with the vector atom model. 38) Derive Schrdinger time independent equation. Give the physical interpretation of the wave function ? . 39) Explain the terms rectifier efficiency and ripple factor. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave bridge rectifier and explain its working

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.4 Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Geology Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Rotational motion can be produced by (a) a force (b) a couple (c) two forces acting along a line

(d) none of these 2. A sphere rolls on a smooth surface. It has a (a) Translational KE translational KE (b) Rotational KE (c) Both rotational and

(d) None of the above

112 3. Youngs modulus has the dimensions of (a) stress (b) strain (c) force (d) bending moment

4. For a system to be stable, the potential energy should be (a) maximum (b) minimum (c) infinity (d) none of these

II. 5. As temperature increases, the viscosity of a gas (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change

(d) First increases and then decreases 6. In a wide river the velocity of water at the middle (a) Decreases with depth (b) Increases with depth (d) Zero 7. Which one of the following is not a SHM? (a) Oscillations of a loaded spring (c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock 8. Moment of inertia of a rigid body is independent of (a) Mass of the body (d) Angular velocity III. 9. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is _________ 10. A swimmer jumping into water from a height makes loops in air making use of ___________ law. 11. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called __________. 12. Two pendulum of equal length l and mass m are coupled by a mass less spring (b) Axis of rotation (c) Radius of gyration (b) Vibrations of atoms (d) Vibrations of a tuning fork (c) same everywhere

113 of spring constant k. The normal frequencies are ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. In a harmonic oscillator K.E. is maximum at its mean position

14. An egg standing on one end is an example of unstable equilibrium. 15. The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse. 16. The viscosity of water increases with increase in temperature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Two spheres, one slides and the other rolls down an inclined plane. Which one will reach the bottom first? 18. Explai n why the mass of fly wheel is concentrated at its rim. 19. A metal wire is stretched between two wires and heated. What will happen to its tension? 20. Why are girders I-shaped? 21. Explain why small drops of liquid assume spherical shape. 22. It is easier to blow small bubbles instead of large ones from soap solution. Why? 23. What are the conditions under which Poiseuilles formula is valid? 24. What is the effect of temperature on viscosity of fluids? 25. What are beats? How are they produced? 26. Write down the differential equation of a damped SHM. 27. Explain the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with displacement of a particle executing SHM.

114 28. What is Q-factor of a harmonic oscillator? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A circular disc of mass 0.5kg and radius 0.1 m is making 10 rps about an axis. Find the work that must be done to increase the rate of revolution to 20 rps. 30. Calculate the ratio of K.E of translation to the total K.E of a sphere rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. 31. Calculate the load that must be suspended from a steel wire of diameter 1 mm to produce an elongation of 0.01% of its original length. Youngs modulus of steel = 200109 N/m2. 32. Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of radius 1 mm formed just below the surface of water. Surface tension of water = 7210 -3 N/m. Atmospheric pressure = 1.013105 N/m 2. 33. Two soap bubbles of radii 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce in vacuum under isothermal conditions. Calculate the radius of the new bubble formed. 34. A metal plate of 0.05 m2 area rests on a layer of oil 2 mm thick. Calculate the horizontal force required to move the plate with a velocity of 0.2 m/s. Coefficient of viscosity of the oil= 1.56 Ns/m2. 35. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM is 1.5 m/s and period is 0.15 sec. Find the amplitude and maximum acceleration. 36. The intensity of a point source emitting sound at a distance 3 m from the source is 0.707 W/m2. What is the average power output of the source?

115 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe with necessary theory the method of determining the rigidity modulus of the material of a wire using torsion pendulum. 38. Derive an expression for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. Explain the corrections. 39. Arrive at the differential equation of a forced harmonic oscillator and give its solution.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231.4 Thermal Physics and Physics of the Earth (For Geology Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. The vaporization of a liquid at its boiling point is an example of (a) Isothermal process (c) Isochoric process (b) Adiabatic process (d) Conduction

2. The amount of energy radiated per second per unit area of a body is called its (a) Emissivity (b) Emissive power (c) Absorptive power (d) Reflecting power 3. Pyrheliometer is an instrument used for measuring

116 (a) Solar constant (d) Emissive power 4. The sun heats the earth because of (a) Radiation (b) Conduction (c) Convection (d) Scattering (b) Temperature of the Sun (c) Emissivity

II. 5. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate (a) Pressure (b) Entropy (c) Viscosity (d) Temperature

6. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these

7. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change

(c) First increases and then decreases

8. The area under the indicator diagram of a thermodynamic system represents (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Pressure (d) Entropy

III. 9. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. 10. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 11. The process in which the volume remains constant is called __________. 12. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas, the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. 14. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine.

117 15. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 16. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why a body at 1000K is red hot while at 2000K is white hot. 18. State Wiens displacement law. 19. The metal strip used in Angstrom pyrheliometer is made of platinum or manganin. Why? 20. Freezer chest in a refrigerator is fitted at the top. Why? 21. Why does the temperature of a gas decrease, when it is expanded adiabatically? 22. Explain how a heat engine is different from a refrigerator. 23. Explain why the efficiency of a reversible engine is maximum. 24. Which are the different modes of heat transfer between sea and atmosphere? 25. Explain the mode of occurrence of ground water with respect to geological area. 26. Define seismology. 27. Which factors are affecting the gravity of earth? 28. What are the sources of earths heat? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. If the air temperature remains constant at -100C, find the time required for the thickness of ice on a pond to increase from 2cm to 5cm. Assume water to be at

118 00C. Density of ice = 0.92103 kg/m3. Thermal conductivity of ice = 2.2 W/m/K. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336103 J/kg. 30. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a.c voltage fluctuations. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. 31. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. If it bursts suddenly, calculate the final temperature. ? = 1.4 32. A Carnot engine is operated between two reservoirs at temperatures 500K and 400K. If the engine receives 5000J of heat from the source in each cycle, calculate the amount of heat rejected to the sink in each cycle and the efficiency of the engine. 33. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C. 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour, calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 35. A quantity of dry air at 270C is compressed suddenly to (1/3) of its volume. Calculate the change in temperature. ? = 1.4 36. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. Calculate the value of T. SECTION D

119 [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lees disc method. 38. Define gravitational field and potential. Derive expressions for the gravitational field and potential due to a solid sphere at a point outside the sphere and on the sphere. 39. Describe the construction and working of a diesel engine. What are the differences between a petrol engine and a diesel engine.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1331.4-Optics and Electrodynamics (For Geology Main Students) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I .1. Two waves having intensities in the ratio 9:1 produce interference .The ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity is (a) 10:8 (b) 9:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 2:1
2.The interference phenomenon can take place

(a) in all waves (b) in transverse waves only (c) in longitudinal waves only (d) in standing waves only
3. A slit of width e is illuminated by light of wavelength ?. The first minimum will be obtained at an angle of diffraction 60 0 provided

(a) e= ?/v3 II

(b)e= 2?/v3 (c) e=v3 ? (d)e=v3 ? /2

4.Which of the following phenomena cannot take place in sound waves? (c) Reflection (b) Interference (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization

5. In a grating spectra which spectral line in the fourth order will overlap with the third order of 5461 ? (a) 4039 ? (b) 4069 ? (c) 4096 ? (d) 4079 ?
6.In the propagation of light waves ,the angle between the direction of propagation and the plane of polarization is (c) 00 (b) 450 (c) 90 0 (d)180 0

120 7. The Brewsters law in polarization of light is

(c) n Sin ip=1 (b) n Cos ip=1 (c) n tan (c) 450 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 90 0

ip=1

(d) n Cot ip=1

8. The horizontal component of the earths magnetic field is at a place is v3 times the vertical component .The value of the dip angle is III 9. Soap bubbles viewed in white light show colours. The phenomenon responsible for it is __________. 10. The phase difference corresponding to a path difference of ? is___________. 11. The magnetic axis is inclined to the geographic axis at ________degrees. 12. The opposition offered by an inductance to the flow of alternating current through it is ______________. 1V State whether the following statements are true or false
13. The width and central maximum of the Fraunhofer diffraction will decrease when the

slit is made narrower. 14) Inside a magnet, the magnetic field lines move from the North Pole to the South Pole. 15) To distinguish between an elliptically polarized light and a partially polarized light we make use of a quarter wave plate. 16) The earths magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at the Equator. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17) Explain the colour of thin films. 18) What are the fringes of equal thickness? Give examples. 19) Explain the difference between diffraction and interference. 20) Define resolving power of a grating. 21) Distinguish between Fresnel diffraction and Fraunhofer diffraction. 22) State Brewsters Law. 23) What is a half wave plate? Why is it called so? 24) Distinguish between dextro and laevo rotatory substances. 25) Explain the electron theory of ferromagnetism. 26) What are the magnetic elements of the earth? Explain. 27) What is power factor? Give its significance. 28) What is a choke coil? What is its advantage over a resistor? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29) A parallel beam of sodium light (?=5890 ? ) strikes a thin film of oil floating on water. When viewed at an angle of 300 from the normal, eighth dark band is seen. Determine the thickness of the film. (Refractive index of oil is 1.5) 30) In a Newtons ring experiment, the diameter of the fourth dark ring is 0.34 cm using a light of wavelength 589.3nm.Calculate the radius of curvature of the convex lens. 31) Calculate the missing order in a double slit diffraction pattern, given slit separation is 0.4 mm and the slit width is 0.2 mm.

121 32) What is the longest wavelength of light for which a spectrum can be obtained using a grating of 6000 lines/cm, under normal incidence? 33) Find the thickness of (a) quarter wave plate (b) half wave plate when light of wavelength 589 nm is used.( O =1.55, E=1.54) 34) What is the instantaneous voltage of an ac supply of 220 volt and 50 Hz.? 35) Find the inductive reactance and impedance of a circuit having an inductance 1/p Henry and a resistance 50 ohm in series ,when an alternating e.m.f. of frequency 50 Hz is applied. 36) A 15 F capacitor is connected to a 220 volt, 50 Hz source .Find the capacitive reactance and the current(r.m.s and peak) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled what will happen to the capacitive reactance and the current? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) Describe an experiment to determine the wavelength of light by Newtons rings method. 38) What is double refraction? Explain the working of a Nicol Prism and how is it used as a polarizer and an analyser? 39) Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating current is impressed on it. Obtain the condition for resonance

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1431.4- Modern Physics, Electronics and Crystallography (For Geology Main only) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1.The amount of original radioactive atom left behind after five half lives is (a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20%
14. Radioactive substances do not emit

(a) electrons (b) protons (c) e.m radiations (d)Helium nucleus

15. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due the breaking of the co valent bonds, the semi conductor is called

(a) donor II

(b) accepter (c) intrinsic (d) extrinsic

16. The order of magnitude of the barrier potential in a pn junction diode (d) 0.01 V (b) 0.05 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 1.0 V

17. The resistance of a forward biased pn junction is (a) zero (b) a few ohms (c) a few kilo ohms (d) infinite
18. In Boolean algebra which of the following is not equal to zero (d) (b) (c) (d)

19. A binary number 11001101 means

(d) 205 (b) 305 (c) 405 (d) 505

20. The total number of crystallographic symmetry elements of a cubical crystal is

122
(d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 21

III

21. One curie = _______________________ decays / sec

22. The logic gate shown below is a ___________gate.

23. The inter planar distance for a cubical structure in (h k l) plane is 24. If the distance between the consecutive planes in a cubic crystal is 2A 0, then the la ttice parameter is______________. 1V State whether the following statements are true or false
25. Gamma rays are high energy neutrons

14) The resistance of a pure semiconductor at zero Kelvin is infinite. 15) A lattice is said to posses rotation symmetry if it is left unchanged after rotating through an angle ? about an axis. 16) There is five fold rotation axis in a lattice.

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17) State the postulates of Bohr atom model. 18) Show that the binding energy varies with mass numbers of different nuclei. 19) Show the relation between decay constant and half life. 20) State Paulis exclusion principle. 21) What do you meant point groups and space groups? 22) With suitable diagram describe the diamond structure. 23 Derive Braggs law. 24) What are the special features of zener diode? 25) Distinguish between dc and ac load lines. 26) Draw the circuit diagram of a single stage common emitter amplifier. 27) What is binary number system? How does it differ from decimal number system? 28 What is Boolean algebra? Discuss the fundamental laws of Boolean algebra. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29) The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C 13. 30) Calculate the radio active decay constant for an element whose half life is 20 years. 31) Calculate the interplanar spacing for a (321) plane in a simple cubic lattice whose lattice constant is 4.2 x 10-10 m

123 32) A transistor is connected in the CE configuration. The collector supply voltage is 10 V and the voltage drop across the 500 O connected in the collector circuit is 0.6 V. If a = 0.96, find (a) collector emitter voltage (b) base current, and (c) the emitter current. 33) The activity of a radioactive substance decreases to 1/64 of the original value in 21 years. Calculate the half life of the substance. 34) In a transistor circuit, the collector load is 4kO and the zero signal collector current is 1 mA. Determine the Q point if (a) Vcc = 10 V (b) Rc = 5 kO 35) A 9 V voltage regulated supply is required to run a car stereo system from 12 V battery. A zener diode with Vz = 9 V and P max = 0.25 W is used as a voltage regulator. Find the value of the series resistor. 36) Convert 359.310 to octal.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) State and explain the quantum numbers associated with the vector atom model. 38) Describe briefly the various methods for crystal structure determination by X-ray diffraction. 39) Explain the terms rectifier efficiency and ripple factor. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave bridge rectifier and explain its working.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.5 Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Home Science Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I1) Moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about an axis passing through its tangent is a) 5/7 MR2 b) 7/5 MR2 c) 2/5 MR2 d) 5/2 MR2 2) The angular velocity of a rotating body is doubled. What happens to its K.E.? c) becomes 4 times a) Doubled d) no change b) halved

3) Which one of the following is not a S.H.M? a) Oscillations of a loaded spring b) Vibrations of atoms c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock d) Vibrations of a tuning fork

124 4) The bending moment for a beam of circular cross section of radius r is a) (Ypr2)/R b) (Ypr4)/4R c) (Ypr2)/R2 d) (YpR4)/r II 5) The expression for energy density for a plane progressive wave of amplitude a and frequency n through a medium of density d is a) 2p 2a2n2d2 b) 2pa2n2d c) 2p 2a2n2d d)2p 2a2n2d2

6) The excess of pressure inside a cylindrical drop is a) 2s/r b) s/r c) 4s/r d) s/2r 7) In a simple harmonic oscillation P.E. and K.E. becomes equal at a) x=2a b) x =a/2 c) x = a/v2 d) x = 0 8) The angle of contact of mercury with glass is a) 90 b) obtuse c) acute

d) zero

III 9) When a body with circular symmetry roll on a plane surface the total kinetic energy of the body is the sum of . 10) The apparatus used to find the rigidity modulus of the material of a body in the form of a rod is . 11) The acceleration of a harmonic oscillator is maximum at its .. position. 12) The viscosity of a gas .. with temperature. IV (state whether the following statements are true or false) 13) The moment of inertia of a body is independent of its angular velocity. 14) The total energy of a harmonic oscillator varies with displacement when it executes simple harmonic motion 15) When a spherical body falls through a highly viscous liquid the terminal velocity of the body is inversely proportional to square of its radius. 16) The surface tension of a liquid increases with temperature. . SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] . 17) State and prove theorem of parallel axis. 18) A person can distinguish between a raw egg and a hard boiled egg by spinning each one the table. Explain how? 19) Give expressions for kinetic, potential and total energy of particle executing simple harmonic motion. Represent them graphically. 20) Draw a typical potential energy curve for a diatomic molecule. 21) Write down the expression for velocity of transverse waves in a stretched string. Explain the different modes of transverse vibrations in string. 22) What is an I section girder? Why are I section girders preferred? 23) Explain the terms neutral axis, plane of bending and bending moment? 24) Distinguish between flexural rigidity, and torsional rigidity. 25) Name the factors on which the period of oscillation of a torsion pendulum

125 depends? 26) What is a Neumanns triangle? Explain its significance. 27) Calculate the force required to separate two plates enclosing a thin layer of water. 28) If the length of the capillary tube in Poiseuilles experiment is doubled and radius halved, how will it affect the rate of flow of liquid? . SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] . 29) A circular disc of radius 0.1 m and mass 1 kg. is rotating at the rate of 10 rps about its axis. Find the work that must be done t increase the rate of revolution to 20 rps. 30) Show that the kinetic energy of a uniform ring of mass m rolling along a smooth horizontal surface so that its centre of mass has a velocity v is mv2. 31) A particle executing simple harmonic motion has a maximum velocity 0.3 m/s. and acceleration 0.4 m/s2. Find the amplitude and period of oscillation. 32) A plane progressive wave in a medium is represented by the equation y=0.2sin (5p t-(5/16)px) where x and y are in cm and t in seconds. 33) A bar 1 m long and 5 mm square in section supported horizontally at its ends and loaded at the middle is depressed 1.96 mm by a load of 100 grams. Calculate Youngs modulus for the material of the bar. 34) What couple must be applied to a wire 1 m long and 3 mm diameter to twist one of its ends through 45 degree while the other end is fixed? n = 5 x 1010 Nm-2 35) The pressure of air inside a soap bubble of radius 10-2 m is balanced by that due to a column of oil 2 x 10-3 m high. Find the surface tension of soap solution. Density of oil 0.8 x 103 kgm-3. 36) A liquid flows through two capillaries under the same pressure head. The lengths of the tubes are in the ratio 2: 3 and their diameters in the ratio 2 : 3. Compare the rates of flow of the liquid in the two tubes. . SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) Derive an expression for the moment of inertia of a solid sphere about a tangent. 38) Derive the differential equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion. Derive expressions for velocity and acceleration for a S.H.M. 39) What is a cantilever? Derive an expression at the free end of a cantilever clamped at one end and loaded at the other end.

126

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231.5 Thermal Physics (For Home Science Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Compared to ordinary light waves, the wavelength of thermal radiations is (a) Larger (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) None of these

2. An ideal material for making cooking vessels must have (a) Small conductivity and large heat capacity (b) Large heat capacity and large conductivity (c) Small heat capacity and large conductivity

127 (d) Small heat capacity and small conductivity 3. The total energy radiated per second from unit area of a black body is proportional to (a) T (b) T2 (c) T3 (d) T4

4. Wiens distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves

II. 5. Let dW be the work done by a gas and dV be its change in internal energy. If dW+dV=0, the process is (a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic (c) Isochoric (d) Cyclic

6. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these

7. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change

(c) First increases and then decreases

8. During an adiabatic process which of the following remains constant (a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Entropy

III. 9. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. 10. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 11. The process in which the pressure remains constant is called __________. 12. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas, the adiabatic elasticity is ___________.

128 IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. 14. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. 15. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 16. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why heat conduction is a slow process. 18. Derive the differential equation for diffusion. 19. State and explain Ficks law of diffusion. 20. Explain why Lees disc method is not suitable for conductors. 21. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve. 22. Explain why a heavy fly wheel is used in heat engines. 23. How will you estimate the temperature of the sun by knowing solar constant? 24. What are the advantages of diesel engine? 25. Draw the labeled indicator diagram for Otto cycle. 26. Show that there is always an increase of entropy in an irreversible cycle. 27. Entropy of the universe tends to a maximum. Explain 28. Is it possible to get a negative temperature on Kelvins scale? Explain. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A slab consists of parallel layers of iron and copper 5cm and 7cm thick and thermal conductivities 500 W/m/K and 385 W/m/K respectively. If the

129 opposite faces of the slab are at temperatures 373K and 273K, find the temperatures of the interface. 30. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a.c voltage fluctuations. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. 31. Two litres of hydrogen at a pressure of 105 Pa expands adiabatically to 1.5 times the initial volume. Find the work done. ? = 1.4 32. Calculate the increase in temperature of water falling from a height of 300 m assuming that the whole kinetic energy due to fall is converted into heat. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg/K 33. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 200K has an efficiency 40%. It is desired to increase the efficiency to 50%. By how much should the temperature of the source be increased? 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour, calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 35. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K, Latent heat of steam = 2.26106 J/kg. 36. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 grams of water at 150C is mixed with 160 grams of water at 400C.

130 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each q uestion carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lees disc method. 38. Define solar constant. Describe an experiment to determine the solar constant using a pyrheliometer. 39. (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1331.5 Optics and Electricity (For Home Science Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. A device based on interference due to division of amplitude is (a) Biprism (b) Newtons rings (c) Double mirror (d) None of these

2. Formation of colours in thin films is due to (a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarisation (d) Dispersion

3. Which of the following is not correct?

131 (a) Interference maxima have equal thickness equal thickness (b) Diffraction maxima have

(c) Interference maxima have equal intensity

(d) Diffraction maxima have varying intensity 4. Which of the following is not applicable to laser? (a) Monochromatic (b) Divergent (c) Intense (d) Coherent

II. 5. Pulse dispersion is maximum in (a) Step index fibre (d) None of these 6. In an electric fan . (a) Electrical energy is converted into Mechanical energy. (b) Mechanical energy is converted into Electrical energy. (c) No energy conversion. (d) None of the above 7. In a pure inductive circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is (a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800 (b) Graded index fibre (c) Single mode fibre

8. In a series LCR circuit if the current is wattless, the power factor will be (a) Zero (b) One (c) Infinity (d) None of these

III. 9. Two waves of same amplitude a each interfere each other. The intensity of maxima are ____________. 10. Fringes of equal inclination are also known as ___________. 11. The bending of light around corners of opaque objects is called __________. 12. The expression for the Q factor of a series LCR circuit is ___________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.

132 13. The refractive index of a material is independent of the wavelength of incident light. 14. In Newtons rings arrangement, the central band is normally dark. 15. An atomic system with a metastable state is required to produce laser. 16. The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic substance is less than one. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why very thin films appear black in reflected light. 18. Explain why Newtons rings are circular while fringes of air wedge are straight and parallel. 19. Distinguish between prism spectra and grating spectra. 20. What are Haidingers fringes? 21. Explain absent spectra in double slit diffraction. 22. Explain the principle of working of a microwave oven. 23. Define time constant of an LR circuit. 24. Explain sharpness of resonance in series resonant circuit. 25. What is a choke coil? Mention its advantage over a resistor. 26. Distinguish emission. 27. Write down any four applications of laser. 28. Explain why a series LCR circuit is called an acceptor circuit. between spontaneous emission and stimulated

133 SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. In a biprism experiment 100 fringes were observed with 600 nm light. How many fringes will be observed if the wavelength is changed to 500 nm and the set up remains unchanged? 30. Light of wavelength 593 nm falls normally on a thin wedge shaped film of refractive index 1.4 forming fringes that are 1 mm apart. Find the angle of the wedge.
th 31. In a Newtons rings arrangement the diameter of the 4 and 12th

dark rings are 4 mm and 7 mm respectively. Find the diameter of the 20th dark ring. 32. A lens of focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit of 0.2 mm width. Calculate the distance of the first dark band from the axis for light of wavelength 589 nm. 33. A plane transmission grating has 6000 lines/cm over a length10 cm. Find the resolving power of the grating and the smallest wavelength that can be resolved in the 600 nm wavelength region. 34. A capacitor of capacity 0.1 F is connected with an inductance of 1 mH. Calculate the natural frequency of the circuit. 35. Find the value of the inductance that should be connected in series with a capacitor of 5 F, a resistance 100 O and an ac source of frequency 50 Hz so that the power factor is unity. 36. A magnetic field of 0.5 T is applied to a paramagnetic gas whose atoms have an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment of 1.210-23J/T. At what temperature will the mean kinetic energy of translation of the gas atoms be equal to the energy required to reverse a dipole end for end in this magnetic field. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR]

134 37. Describe with necessary theory, an experiment to determine the wavelength arrangement. 38. Describe the phenomenon of Fresnel diffraction at a straight edge. Give an example for the same. 39. Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating voltage is applied on it. Obtain the condition for resonance. monochromatic light using Newtons rings

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1431 .5 Atomic Physics and Electronics (For Home Science Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. The presence of sharp lines in the spectrum of a gas indicates (a) Discrete energies associated with stationary orbits in discrete packets (d) Electrons collide each other 2. Which of the following radioactive series has Pu239 as the parent atom? (a) Uranium series (c) Actinium series (b) Thorium series (d) Neptunium series (c) Light consists of photons (b) Electron emits energy

3. Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is emitted when electrons jump from higher orbits to

135 (a) First orbit (b) second orbit (c) third orbit (d) fourth orbit

4. Spin quantum numbers of an electron can have (a) Only half integral values (c) Only one constant value (b) only integral values (d) integral and half integral values

II 5. The transistor configuration which has current gain less than one is (a) Common base (d) None of these 6. Lightly doped region of the transistor is (a) Emitter (b) Base (a) = a/(1-a ) (c) Collector (d) Emitter and collector (d) a= 2/(1+) (b) Common emitter (c) Common collector

7. The relation between transistor a and transistor is (b) a= /(1-) (c) = a/(1+a)

8. The commonly used biasing circuit in amplifiers is (a) Fixed bias (b) Collector to base bias (c) Voltage divider bias (d) None of these III. 9. One of the features of vector atom model is ___________ quantization. 10. A radioactive radiation which is electromagnetic in nature is ____________. 11. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 16 is ___________. 12. The logic gate which has only one input is __________. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. ? radiations are electromagnetic radiations of high frequency. 14. The stability of a nucleus depends on the number of protons and neutrons in it. 15. The mass of an electron is entirely due to its charge. 16. Negative feedback is used in transistor oscillators. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. What is Bohrs correspondence principle? 18. Explain various coupling schemes. 19. What is critical magnetic field?

136 20. What are the limitations of Bohr atom model? 21. State and explain Paulis exclusion principle. 22. Define mass defect of a nucleus. 23. Explain Meissner effect. 24. State and explain DeMorgans theorems. 25. Distinguish between type I and type II super conductors. 26. Explain the phase reversal of a transistor amplifier 27. What is Berkhausen criterion for oscillations? 28. Which of the three transistor configurations is preferred? Why?

SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A radioactive substance has a half life of 30 days. Calculate the time taken to decay 25% of the given sample of the substance. 30. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C 13. 31. The wavelength of a line in hydrogen spectrum is 500 nm. Find out the related energy change of the in electron volt. 32. Calculate the energy difference between the ground state and the first excited state for an electron in a one dimensional rigid box of length 1 A 0. 33. What is the lowest energy that a neutron of mass 1.6710-27 kg can have if it is confined to move along the edge of an impenetrable box of length 10-14 m.

137 34. In a canter tapped full wave rectifier maximum voltage across half of the secondary winding is 50 V. If the load resistance is 200O, calculate the dc output voltage and the peak inverse voltage. 35. A 10 Volt Zener diode along with a series resistor is connected across a 40 V supply. Calculate the minimum resistance required if the maximum Zener current is 50 mA. 36. In a transistor amplifier, when signal changes by 0.02 V, the base current changes by 10 A and the collector current changes by 18 mA. If the collector load RC = 5 kO and RL = 10 kO, find the current gain and voltage gain. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Derive the general equation of growth and decay of radioactive series. Explain secular and transient radioactive equilibrium. 38. Obtain Schrdinger wave equation for a particle in a one dimensional rigid box. Solve it to obtain eigen functions and show that eigen values are discrete. 39. Explain the rectifying action of a p-n junction diode. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of a full wave rectifier using two diodes.

138

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Question Paper EL1131- Electronics I (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the most appropriate one. 1. A 100 ? resistor is to be used in a circuit carrying a current of 0.5 A. Its power rating should be (a) 50 W (b) 25 W (c) 200 W (d) 500 W

2. Ferrite cores commonly used at high frequencies (a) increase core losses (c) decrease inductance (b) decrease core losses (d) increase resistance

3. The main purpose of laminating a transformer core is to decrease its (a) electrical resistance (d) hysteresis loss 4. The leakage current of semiconductor diode is caused by (b) reluctance (c) eddy current loss

139 (a) chemical energy impurity II. Choose the most appropriate one. 5. The superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of (a) duality (b) linearity (c) reciprocity (d) non-linearity (b) barrier voltage (c) heat energy (d) doping

6. Rating of a battery is usually expressed in (a) watt-hour (b) joule (c) ampere-hour (d) ampere

7. The power in an ac circuit is given by (a) VI Cos f (b) VI Sin f (c) I 2R (d) I 2Z

8. The turn-on voltage of Germanium junction diode is nearly (a) 0.7 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 1 V

III. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. 9. The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always --------------- than the lowest resistance connected in any of its branches. 10. A ----------------- cell is one that cannot be recharged. 11. The time period of a sine wave of 1 kHz is ------------- millisecond. 12. An ideal diode conducts in forward direction with ------------ resistance. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. If voltage across a resistor is doubled, its power dissipation is quadrupled. 14. When connected in series, all capacitors have the same charge but different voltages. 15. The time constant of a series R-L circuit can be doubled by doubling the value of R. 16. Holes are as mobile as electrons. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. What is a non-linear resistor? Give one example. 18. State Kirchhoffs current law and voltage law. 13.

140 19. What is meant by capacitance of a capacitor? What are the factors controlling capacitance? 20. State maximum power transfer theorem. 21. What is magnetic shielding? 22. What is reluctance in a magnetic circuit? from Ohms law. 23. Explain the terms peak value and peak to peak value in relation to a sinusoidal current. 24. Explain skin effect. 25. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. 26. Explain the formation of depletion layer in a PN junction. 27. Distinguish between zener breakdown and avalanche breakdown. 28. Draw the circuit of a +ve clipper and explain the working. Write the expression for reluctance

SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. In the series voltage divider circuit given, the rated load current is 2 mA and maximum current the battery can supply is 10 mA. Calculate the values of resistances R 1 and R 2 and their power ratings.

30. Using Kirchhoffs laws find the magnitude and direction of current flow through the 10 ?

141 resistor in the figure.

31. A capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery. If its capacitance is 900 pF, calculate the energy stored in it. Also calculate the loss of energy when this capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another identical capacitor. 32. A magnetic circuit consists of an iron ring of mean circumference 80 cm with crosssectional area 12 cm2 throughout. A current of 2 A in the magnetizing coil of 200 turns produces a total flux of 1.2 mWb in the iron. Calculate (i) flux density in iron (ii) absolute and relative permeability of iron and (iii) reluctance of the circuit. 33. A low-voltage soldering rod taking 40 A at 12 V is to be operated from the secondary of a 240 V transformer. current. Calculate (i) turn ratio of the transformer and (ii) primary

34. In tone control circuit of a receiver, a 1 k ? resistor is joined in series with a 0.1 F capacitor. Calculate the impedance of the combination at 2 kHz and 10 kHz. 35. Explain the three major types of atomic bonds involving valance electrons. 36. At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 10 28 per m3. Find the drift velocity of free electrons at room temperature in a copper conductor having cross-sectional area 10-6 m2 and carrying a current of 5.4 A.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR]

142

37. State and explain Thevenins theorem. would Thevenize a circuit.

Explain with an example how you Describe the different types of

38. What is a transformer? Explain its working. transformers used in electronic circuits.

39. Define frequency, amplitude and phase of an ac signal. Derive an expression for the RMS value of an ac signal.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Q uestion Paper EL1231- Electronics II (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the most appropriate one. 1. The process of selecting the desired frequency from a composite wave is called (a) tuning (b) filtering (c) rectification (d) modulation

2. The value of zener current is (a) is limited by external circuit resistance (c) totally independent of temperature (b) determined by zener voltage (d) always in A range

3. When the E/B junction of a transistor is reverse biased, collector current (a) is reversed (b) increases (c) decreases (d) stops

4. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is (a) 0.482 (b) 0.406 (c) 0.812 (d) 1.21

143 II. Choose the most appropriate one. 5. The capacitance of a varactor diode can be changed by (a) increasing its doping level changing the barrier potential (d) changing the reverse voltage (b) changing its forward bias (c)

6. The colour of light emitted by a LED depends on (a) its forward bias current (d) the type of semiconductor material used 7. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads to (a) excessive heat production at collector terminal signal (c) faulty location of load line (d) heavy loading of emitter terminal (b) distortion in output (b) its reverse bias (c) the amount of forward

8. In a single stage CB amplifier, a smaller load resistance R L will produce (a) high current gain response (d) higher power gain III. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. 9. .... diode is often referred to as hot carrier diode. 10. A photodiode is essentially a --------- biased P-N junction which is illuminated with radiation. 11. The leakage currents in a transistor are due to ---------------- carriers. 12. Voltage gain of an emitter follower is nearly ---------------. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. A sine wave can be converted into a square wave with the help of zener diodes. 14. The voltage regulation of a p filter is inferior to that of an L-C filter. 15. If Q-point is located near the cut-off point, the negative signal swing gets clipped first. 16. Of all the h parameters, h o has the smallest magnitude. (b) low voltage gain (c) better frequency

144 SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ]

17. What is a low-pass filter? Draw the simple circuit of a low-pass filter. 18. What is a tunnel diode? Draw its I-V characteristic. 19. What are thermistors? Mention their applications. 20.Show that the maximum rectification efficiency of a half wave rectifier is 40.6 % 21. Obtain the relationship between a and of a transistor. 22. Define stability factor. Which biasing circuit has maximum stability factor? 23. What do you understand by thermal runaway in a power transistor? 24. State the rule of a transistor circuit. 25. What is a load line? Distinguish between DC load line and AC load line. 26. Write down the procedures for drawing AC equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier. 27. Explain the effect of source resistance on voltage gain. 28. What are h parameters? Why are they called so? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. An RLC circuit consists of R = 80 ? , L = 40H and C = 0.0783 pF. Find its (i) resonant frequency (ii) Q-factor and (iii) band width. 30. Draw the circuit of a transistor shunt voltage regulator and explain its working. 31. A single phase half wave diode rectifier supplies power to a 2 k? resistive load. The input ac supply voltage has a peak value of 300 V. diode, calculate Neglecting forward drop of the

(a) V dc (b) Idc (c) power delivered to the load (d) ripple voltage (rms value). 32. The following measurements are made in a transistor: IC = 5.202 mA, IB = 50 A, ICO = 2A. Compute the values of a, and IE.

145 33. In a controlled half wave rectifier, peak supply voltage is 200 V and the value of the load resistance is 1 k ? . Calculate the power delivered to the load for firing angles of (a) 0 ,
?

(b) 45?, (c) 90? and (d) 135?. 34. In a CE amplifier circuit with voltage divider bias arrangement, the various parameters are RL = 1 k? , RE = 2 k? , R1 = 10 k ? , R2 = 5 k? , V CC = 12 V and VBE = 0.7 V. Find the operating point. 35. For the circuit shown in figure, calculate (i) IC(sat), (ii) actual IC, VCE and draw the DC load line.

36. A junction transistor has re = 50 ? , rb = 1 K, rc = 1 M and a = 0.98. It is used in common base circuit with a load resistance of 10 K. power gains and the input resistance. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] Calculate the current, voltage and

37. Explain a full wave bridge rectifier. efficiency.

Derive equations for ripple factor and

146 38. Explain the input and output characteristics of a transistor in common emitter configuration and the determination of , Rin and Rout of the transistor from these. 39. Define h -parameters for a linear circuit. Explain how they are calculated for an ideal common emitter amplifier.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Question Paper EL1331 - Electronics III (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I. Choose the most appropriate one. 1. CE amplifier is characterized by (a) low voltage gain (b) moderate power gain (c) signal phase reversal

(d) very high output impedance 2. The common mode-rejection ratio of an ideal differential amplifier is (a) zero (b) infinity (c) less than unity (d) greater than unity

3. Which semiconductor device acts like a diode and two resistors? (a) SCR (b) triac (c) diac (d) UJT

4. One of the serious disadvantages of FM is its

147 (a) limited line-of-sight distance (b) expensive equipment

(c) adjacent channel interference

(d) high static noise

II. Choose the most appropriate one. 5. The outstanding characteristic of a direct coupled amplifier is its (a) temperature stability components (c) utmost economy signals 6. A JFET has the disadvantage of (a) being noisy (b) having small gain-bandwidth product (d) having low input (d) ability to amplify direct current and low frequency (b) avoidance of temperature-sensitive

(c) possessing positive temperature coefficient impedance 7. A relaxation oscillator is one which (a) produces non-sinusoidal output

(b) relaxes indefinitely

(c) has two stable states

(d) oscillates continuously

8. For sustaining oscillations in an oscillator (a) feedback factor should be unity (c) both (a) and (b) (b) phase shift should be 0 or np

(d) feedback should be negative

III. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. 9. A Darlington pair provides a very high value of ------------ not provided by any single transistor. 10. In a JFET, drain current is --------------- when VGS = 0. 11. Positive feedback is often used in ------------- circuits. 12. The Schmitt trigger is often called a ---------------- circuit IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. A class B amplifier has highest output impedance and lowest input impedance.

148 14. Coupling and bypass capacitors of an amplifier determine its lower cut-off frequency. 15. A crystal oscillator needs no tuned circuit. 16. In AM transmission, bandwidth is determined by carrier frequency. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ]

17. What is cross-over distortion in class B push-pull operation? 18. Explain noise and noise factor. 19. Write any two advantages of transformer coupling. 20. What are the characteristics of the decibel system? 21. Explain Miller effect. 22. Define gain bandwidth product. 23. Sketch the circuit diagram of a current series feedback amplifier. 24. Define transconductance and AC drain resistance of a JFET. 25. Draw the characteristics of a UJT and explain the negative resistance region. 26. What is piezo-electric effect? 27. What are the advantages of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation? 28. Diode detectors are extensively used in AM broadcast receivers. Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A class A power amplifier has a transformer load. If the transformer has a primary to secondary turns ratio of 10 and a secondary load of 16 ? , calculate the maximum a. c. output power. Given that ICQ = 100 mA. 30. What is RC coupling? Draw the circuit of a two stage RC-coupled amplifier. Mention the advantages of RC coupling?

149 31. A certain radio receiver delivers an output power of 3.6 W. (i) What would be the decibel gain if power output is increased to 7.2 W? (ii) What power output would be required to produce a power gain of 10 dB? 32. An amplifier has a gain of 1000 without feedback. required to reduce the gain to 400. 33. For an N -channel JFET, IDSS = 8.7 mA, V P = 3 V, V GS = 1 V. Evaluate ID, g mo and g m. 34. A silicon UJT has an interbase resistance of 10 K. It has RB1 = 6 K with IE = 0. Find UJT current if V BB = 20 V and VE is less than VP. Find also ?, the intrinsic stand-off ratio. 35. In a Colpitts oscillator, the following component values are given; C1 = 0.01 F, L = 15 H. The oscillating frequency is 7500 Hz. Find the value of capacitor C 2. 36. An audio signal of 3 kHz is used to modulate a carrier wave. frequency of the Calculate the Find the feedback factor

carrier wave, upper side band frequency and bandwidth, if the lower side band frequency is 497 kHz. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR]

37. What is a Darlington pair? Obtain expressions for current gain, voltage gain input impedance. Also enlist its advantages.

38. What are multivibrators? Explain the working of an astable multivibrator with a neat diagram. Deduce the expression for frequency. 39. What is the need of modulation? Explain the principle of amplitude modulation. Derive an equation for amplitude modulated wave.

150

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Question Paper EL1431 - Electronics IV (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I. Choose the most appropriate one. 1. The binary addition 1 + 1 +1 gives (a) 111 (b) 10 (c) 110 (d) 11

2. Which of the following is not an octal number? (a) 19 (b) 77 (c) 15 (d) 101

3. Noise margin is expressed in (a) decibel (b) watt (c) volt (d) phon

151 4. Amongst different types of fibres, single-mode step-index fibre has (a) highest data rate (c) highest thickness (b) lowest attenuation (d) both (a) and (b)

II. Choose the most appropriate one. 5. When an input electrical signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate, its output signal is (a) 01011 (b) 10101 (c) 10100 (d) 00101

6. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are (a) high (b) low (c) different (d) same

7. The operation of a Q-meter is based on (a) Self-induction (c) Mutual induction (b) series resonance (d) eddy currents

8. The main energy losses in an optical fibre consist of (a) material loss the above III. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. 9. The open-loop gain of an ideal Op-amp is ---------------. 10. The decimal fraction of 0.75 corresponds to the binary fraction of ------------. 11. The ---------------- gate is also called any-or-all gate. 12. A microphone is an example of --------------- transducer. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. In binary numbers, shifting the binary point by one place multiplies or divides it by 2. 14. A bubbled OR gate is equivalent to a NAND gate. 15. As in ordinary algebra Boolean variables can also take on any value including zero. 16. Current sensitivity of a meter depends on the current passing through it. (b) loss due to light scattering (c) bend loss (d) all of

152 SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. What are the merits and demerits of integrated circuits? 18. What is common mode rejection ratio of an Op-amp? 19. Find the 1s and 2s complement of binary number 11101100. 20. Convert 105.1510 to binary using the double-dabble method. 21. Draw the circuit of a half adder and give its truth table. 22. State and explain De Morgans theorems. 23. Explain fan-in and fan-out of a of a logic family. 24. What is a strain gauge? What is its working principle? 25. What are the advantages of VTVM over multimeter? 26. What is a linear variable differential transformer (LVDT)? 27. What is meant by dispersion in optical fibres? 28. What are the applications of optic fibres? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Find the output voltage of the inverting Op -amp adder with the values indicated as input.

30. Convert the hexadecimal number AF9.BOD into octal form. 31. What is a NOR gate? Give its symbol and truth table. Explain why it is often referred to as a universal gate. 32. Prove the following identities (i) AB + A = A (ii) A + =A+B

153 33. A metallic strain gauge with a gauge factor K = 2 is bonded to a steel member which is subjected to a stress of 10.5 109 N/m 2. If the modulus of elasticity for steel is 21 1012 N/m2, calculate the fractional change in the resistance of the gauge due to the applied stress. 34. A meter has 20 ? internal resistance and gives full scale deflection for 5 mA. The meter is to be converted into a 5 A ammeter. Calculate the multiplying factor of the shunt and the value of the shunt. 35. If the refractive index of the core of an optical fibre is 1.56 and that of cladding is 1.48, calculate the numerical aperture, critical angle and angle of acceptance. 36. An optical communication system uses a fibre having a loss of 5.6 dB/km. The system uses a 100 km length fibre. Calculate output power, if the input power is 750 W.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Draw the circuit diagrams of a differentiator and integrator using Op -amp and explain their working. Also mention their uses. 38. Draw the block diagram of a CRO and explain the major subsystems. Write down the expression for deflection sensitivity of CRT, in terms of tube parameters. 39. Discuss light propagation through an optical fibre. Also distinguish between step-index and graded-index fibres.