3rd Year 2nd Sem Questions

[4] 3. a) Design a column with rolled steel I-section to support a factored axial load of 1750 kN.
The column has an effective length of 9.0 m with respect to major axis of the crosssection (z-axis) and 7.5 m with respect to minor axis of the cross-section (y-axis). b) Design a suitable base plate for the above mentioned column. The base plate is to rest on a concrete pedestal having the safe bearing capacity of 9.0 MPa. Assume any reasonable data, if required. Draw a neat sketch to show the details of the column with base-plate. 25 PART I Time : Three hours
Ex/CE/T/325/71/2012(S)
B ACHELOR OF CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2012

( 3rd Year, 2nd Semester, Supplementary )
DESIGN OF METAL STRUCTURES - I

Full Marks : 100 ( 50 marks for each part ) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part.
Answer any two questions. IS-800, IS-875 and SP-6 are allowed in the examination hall. Assume any data not given. 1. Design member forces of a rafter member in roof truss are as follows : Compress force (Factored) = 250 kN (DL + LL) Tensile force (Factored) = 200 kN (DL + WL), Design the member using angle section. Nodal length of rafter member is 18 m. Assume weld connection. Use limit state method. Connection design is not required. 2. 25
a) Determine the maximum load P could be resisted by the bracket as shown in Fig. Q.2(a). Size of the fillet weld is 6 mm (shop). 20
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[2]
[3] PART II [ Use of IS-800 and SP-6(1) are allowed in the examination hall. ] ( Consider Fe410 steel i.e. yield stress of steel = 250 MPa )
Answer any two. 4. Fig. Q.2(a) b) Explain the advantages of star arrangement using two ISA member. 3. 5 A steel floor beam is simply supported over a span of 6.0 m. It is subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity 40 kN/m (D.L.+L.L.) acting over its entire length and a concentrated load of magnitude 120 kN acting at its mid-span. Design a rolled steel I-section for this beam if the compression flange of the beam is not laterally restrained/supported along its length. Show all checks. Assume any reasonable data, if required. 5. 25
A 15m 60m factory shed is to be constructed at Howrah. The steel roof trusses are to be used for roofing. The spacing of roof truss is 4 m and span of the truss is 15 m. Steel column height above GL is 70 m. Galvanised corrugated iron sheets will be used. Maximum spacing of purlins = 18 m. Propose a suitable type of roof truss and calculate the wind load only at the modal points. 25
Design a rolled steel channel section, under dead load and wind load (thrust) combination, for a purlin member in an industrial shed having the following data : Spacing of truss = 4. 5 m c/c Span of truss = 18. 0 m Spacing of purlins = 1. 4 m c/c Angle of truss = 22o Net intensity of wind pressure = 1. 75 KN/m Weight of galvanized sheet = 160 N/m2 Assume any reasonable data, if required. 25 [ Turn over
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Ex/CE/T/325/71/2011
BACHELOR OF CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2011

Spacing of purlins = 1.35 m c/c Angle of truss = 20o Net intensity of wind pressure = 1.5 KN/m Weight of galvanized sheet = 160 N/m2. ( 3rd Year, 2nd Semester )

Time : Three Hours Full Marks - 100
Use a separate Answer-Script for each Part (50 marks for each part) PART - I Answer any two questions I.S. - 800, I.S. - 875 and SP - 6 are allowed in the examination hall.
6.
Verify the adequecy of a column section made of ISHB 300 @ 58.8 kg/m and of effective length 2.8 m under the factored axial compressive load of 500 KN and a factored moment of 60 kNm about its major axis for local capacity and buckling resistance of member. 25
7.
Design a suitable welded gusset base for a column section IS.H.B. 350 @ 67.4 N/m supporting a factored axial load of 1450 KN. The flanges of the column are parallel to the gusset plate. The base plate is to rest on a concrete pedestal having the safe bearing pressure of 9.0 MPa. 25 1. a)
Assume any data not given Calculate the sine of the weld required for the joint cutting used as a bracket loaded as shown in Fig.Q.1.
Fig.Q.1
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b) c)
What are the advantages of HSFG bolts over black bolts? When are bending moments to be considered in the design of top chord of trusses? 20+3+2=25
PART - II Answer any two questions [ Use of I.S. 800 and SP - 6 (1)
2.
Design member forces (factored) of a rafter member in a roof truss are as follows : Compressive force = 100 KN (DL + LL) Tensile force = 150 KN (DL + LL) 4.
are allowed in the examination hall. ] ( Consider Fe 410 Steel i.e. 'yield stress' of steel = 250 MPa )
An ISLB 600 @ 99.5 kg/m has been used as a simply supported beam over 7.2 m span. The compression flange of the beam is not laterally supported but the ends of the beam are fully restrained against torsion and lateral bending. Determine the safe uniformly distributed load (including its self weight) that the beam can carry in flexure. Also check whether the beam section
Design the member using angle section or tubular section. Assume welded connection. Nodal length of rafter member is 1.5 m. Use limit state method of Design. 25
3.
A 12 m 40 m godown is to be constructed. The steel roof trusses will be used for roofing. Spacing of the truss is 4 m and span of the truss is 12m. Pitch of the roof truss =
m
is safe or not in shear, deflection and others if this maximum load is applied on it. 25
D.
Column height 5. a) Determine the plastic modulus of ISMC 125 @ 12.7 kg/m about the strong and weak axes. b) 8+17=25
above ground level is 6 . Galvanised corrugated iron sheets will be used. Maximum spacing of purlins = 1.5 m. Location of the godown = Durgapur. Propose a suitable type of roof truss and calculate the wind load only at panel points. 25
Check whether the above section is safe or not under 'dead load and wind load (thrust)' combination if it is used aqs a purlin member in an industrial shed having the following data : Spacing of truss = 4.5 m c/c Span of truss = 20.0 m
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[4] 6. a) Design a column with rolled steel I-section to support a factored load of 1500 kN. The column has an effective length of 8.0m with respect to major axis of the crosssection (z-axis) and 5.5m with respect to minor axis of the cross-section (y-axis). 25
Ex/CE/T/325/71/2012
B ACHELOR OF ENGINEERING IN CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2012

( 3rd Year, 2nd Semester )

Time : Three hours (50 marks for each part) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer any two questions. IS-800, IS-875 and SP-6 are allowed in the examination hall. Assume any data not given. 1. a) A 12 m 50 m godown is to be constructed at Ranchi. The steel roof trusses are to be used for roofing. The spacing of the roof truss is 5 m and span of the truss is 12 m. Column (steel) height above ground level is 7.0 m. Galvanised corrugated iron sheets will be used. Maximum spacing of purlins = 1.75 m. Propose a suitable type of roof truss and calculated the wind load only at panel points. Assume pitch of the roof truss is 4 m. 20 Full Marks : 100
b) Design a suitable base plate for the above mentioned column. The base plate is to rest on a concrete pedestal having the safe bearing capacity of 9.0MPa. Assume any reasonable data, if required. Draw a neat sketch to show the details of the column with base-plate. 25
b) When are bending moments to be considered in the design of top chord of trusses? How the spacing of the purlins fixed? 2. 5
a) Design member forces (factored) of a rafter member in a roof truss are as follows : Compressive force = 200 KN (DL + LL) Tensile force = 150 KN (DL + WL) [ Turn over
[2] Design the member using angle section. Assume welded connection. Nodal length of rafter member is 1.7 m. Use limit state method of design. 22
[3] PART II [Use of I.S. 800 and SP-6(1) are allowed in the examination hall.] (Consider Fe410 steel i.e. yield stress of steel = 250MPa) Answer any two questions. 4. A steel floor beam is simply supported over a span of 5.5m. It is subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity 32kN/m (D.L.+L.L.) acting over its entire length and two concentrated loads of magnitude 60kN (D.L.+L.L.) each acting at a distance 2m from either end of the beam. Design a rolled steel I-section for this beam if the compression flange of the beam is not literally restrained / supported along its length. Show all checks. Assume any reasonable data, if required. 5. 25
b) What is the major difference in behaviour between a joint with black bolts and a joint with HSFG bolts? 3. 3
a) Determine the maximum load that could be resisted by the bracket as shown in Fig. Q.3(a). Size of fillet weld is 6 mm (shop). 20
Design a rolled steel channel section, under dead load and wind load (suction) combination, for a purlin member in an industrial shed having the following data : Spacing of truss = 4.0 m c/c Span of truss = 17.0 m Spacing of purlins = 1.45 m c/c Angle of truss = 21o Net intensity of wind pressure = 1.6 kN/m 25
Fig Q.3(a) b) Draw neatly the end connection between a truss and column (weld or bolt). Assume column size ISMB 500. Size of relevant truss member is double angle 75758. Other data may be assumed. 5
Weight of galvanized sheet = 150 N/m2 . Also check whether the section is safe under dead load and wind load (thrust) combination. Assume any reasonable data, if required. 25
Ex/CE/T/325/61/2009
BACHELOR OF CIVIL ENGG. EXAMINATION, 2009

(3rd Year, 2nd Semester) DESIGN OF METAL STRUCTURESI Time : Three hours Full Marks : 100 (50 marks for each part)
Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer any two questions. 1. A simply supported beam of span 8m carries a load of 300 kN at the mid span. Design and detail the beam if the heaviest section available locally is ISMB 500. 25 Design and detail a compound column of effective length 8 m and carrying a load of 1800 kN. Design the lacing or batten system to properly brace the compound column. 25 Explain the following termsplastic neutral axis, shape factor, load factor Calculate the shape factor of a channel of overall depth 250 mm and flange width 80 mm. Take thickness of all elements as 8 mm. Calculate the ultimate load of the beam shown below. 3x4+6+7=25
2.
3.
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( 2)
( 3 )
compressive force = 90 kN (DL+ WL) Tensile force = 90 kN (DL + LL) Design the member using angle section also design the weld connection of the member at the node. Detail the connection assuming other members are ISA 80x80x6 at the node. 25 6. (a) Fig Q.6 (a) shows a bracket subjected to a load of 100kN. The bracket is welded to a flange of an ISMB. Find out the size of weld. 18
Fig - 1 PARTII Answer any two questions. I.S. 800, 875 and SP-6 are allowed in the examination hall. Draw neat sketches wherever necessary. Assume reasonable values of any data not given. 4. Roof trusses for a factory shed located at Kolkata. (Fig Q. 4) are spaced 4.5 m apart. Size of the shed is 18m x 45m. Height of the eaves level is 5m above ground level. Design the purlin using angle section. 25
Fig- Q. 6 (a) (b) Fig- Q. 4 (c) 5. The design member force of a member marked A is as follows (see fig Q.5): Why the longitudinal ties are provided in designing the bottom chord members of a typical roof truss? 3 Why tack welding / tacking rivets are provided in a compression member made up of 2 nos angle sections? 4
(4) 7. a) Design a column of length 5.2m to carry a compressive load of 650KN at an eccentricity of 125mm from the x-x axis. The ends of the column are hinged. Design a suitable slab base for a coulmn section I.S.H.B. 250@547N/m supporting an axial load of 480KN. The base plate is to rest on a concrete pedestal having the safe bearing pressure of 4.0MPa. Also design the dimension of concrete base if the safe bearing capacity of soil is 250KN/ m2. 15+10=25
EX/CE/T/325/74/2010
(3rd Year, 2nd Semester) DESIGN OF METAL STRUCTURES I
b)
Time : Three hours
Full Marks :100 (50 marks for each part)
Use a separate Answer Script for each part. PART I Answer any two questions. I.S. 800 1984 and 2007, SP 6 are allowed in examination Hall. Assume any data not given suitably. 1. Determine the tensile and compressive strength of a diagonal member of a typical roof truss (L 100 x 100 x 8) connected to a gusset plate of thickness 10mm as per limit state method of design (IS 800 2007). Assume 4mm weld size and the proportionate lengths of weld are 200 mm and 350 mm. Nodal length of the member is 3.0m (fy = 250 MPa). Aslo calculate the tensile and compressive strength of the same member of the roof truss as per IS 8001984. 25 2. a) A bracket plate is welded to the flange of a column as shown in Fig Q.2. Calculate the size of the weld. 16
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(2)
(3) PART II [Use of I.S.800 and SP6 (1) are allowed in the examination Hall. Consider yield stress of steel for all qauestions = 250MPa] Answer any two questions 4. a) b) What is the difference between web buckling and web crippling of steel beams? How they can be avoided? A steel floor beam in a building has an effective span of 4.2m. It is simply supported over supports and carries a uniformly distributed load of 32KN/m inclusive of self weight and a concentrated load of 40KN at the centre. Design the beam section and show all relevant checks. Assume that the compression flange is not restrained laterally but the ends of the beam are fully restrained against torsion and lateral bending. 5+20=25 A simply supported beam over an effective span of 8.5m is subjected to uniformly distributed superimposed load of 24KN/m acting along the entire span. The depth of beam is limited to 375mm from clear head-room requirements. Design a rolled steel ISMB section with suitable cover plates. Design of connections and curtailment of cover plates are not required. 25 Design a built-up column of effective length 6.5m with two channel sections laced together to support a concentric axial load of 1050KN. Also design the lacing members with riveted connection. 25
b) How the spacing of purlins are fixed? c)
Discuss the behaviour of rafter members of a typical truss when purlins are not provided at each node. 3
d) Why are CHS/SHS better in resisting compression forces? 3 3. a) Design member forces (unfactored) of a rafter member are as follows : Compressive force = 100 KN (DL + LL) Tensile force = 100 KN (DL + WL) 5.
Design the member using angle section using IS8001984 or IS8002007. Assume welded connection. b) Why is it better to choose plastic or compact sections for columns? 22+3
6.
( 4 ) 6. A column made of ISHB 450@ 92.5 kg/m is hinged at both the ends. Its effective length is 4.0m. It is subjected to factored axial compressive load of 1200 KN and a factored moment of 240 kN/m about its major axis at both the ends. Check whether the column section is safe or not. 25 7. Design a suitable riveted gusset base for a column section I.S.H.B.400@ 82.2 kg/m supporting a factored axial load of 1300KN. The flanges of the column are parallel to the gusset plate. The base plate is to rest on a concrete pedestal having the safe bearing pressure of 8.5 MPa. 25
Ex/CE/T/325/71/2011(S)
(3rd Year, 2nd Semester, Supplementary)
Design of Metal Structures- I
Time : Three hours
Full Marks : 100
Use a Separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I (50 marks) Answer any two questions. I.S:800, IS:875 and SP-6 are allowed in the examination hall. Assume any data not given.
1.
Design member force (factored) of a rafter member are as follow. Compressive force = 180 KN. (DL + LL) Tensile force = 220 KN (DL + WL) Design the member using angle section. Assume welded connection. Nodal length of the rafter is 1.7m. Use limit state Method of design. Connection design is to be shown. 25
2. a)
Why are CHS/ SHS better in resisting compression forces? 4 How the behaviour of rafter members change when purlins are not provided at each joint? 4 [ Turn Over ]
b)
( 2 ) c) What are the advantages of HSFG bolts over black bolts? 4 How are the spacing of purlins fixed? 4
( 3 ) PART II (50 marks) [Use of I.S.800 and SP-6 (1) are allowed in the examination hall.] (consider Fe410 steel i.e. yield stress of steel = 250 MPa) Answer any two questions.
d) e)
What are the advantages of providing longitudinal ties at the bottom chord? 4 Draw a typical end support connection of truss with column. Assume welded connection. For column and Angles truss member assume suitable sections. 5 What is taking rivet? 3 4.
f)
3. a) b)
A steel floor beam is simply supported over a span of 6.5m. It is subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity 40 kN/m (D.L + L.L.) acting over its entire length and a concentrated load of magnitude 160kN acting at its mid-span. Design an I-section for this beam if the compression flange of the beam is not laterally supported along its length. 25
A bracket plate is welded to the flange of a ISMB 250 as shown in fig 3(b). Calculate the weld size required to support a factored load of 100 KN. 22
5.
Design a channel section, under dead load and wind load (thrust) combination, for a purlin member in an industrial shed having the following data : Spacing of truss = 4.2 m c/c Span of truss = 18.0 m Spacing of purlins = 1.4 m c/c Angle of truss = 220 Net intensity of wind pressure = 1.75 KN/m Weight of galvanized sheet = 160 N/m2. [ Turn Over ] 25
[4] 7. a) Discuss the various modes of failure in finite slopes. 5
Ex/CE/T/323/70/2012(S)

b) A 15 m high earthen dam is to be constructed with a slope of 1.5H : 1V. The properties of dam soil are given by : = 20 t/m3 Cohesion = 70 t/m = 18o Determine the factor of safety of a typical slip circle passing through the toe of the dam. 10
2
SOIL MECHANICS - II
Time : Three hours ( 50 marks for each part ) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer any three questions. Two marks for neatness. 1. a) Discuss different approaches for determination of depth of a bore hole in soil exploration works. b) A 12-storied office building with a basement floor 32m below ground surface is to be built in an area of 60m30m. The D.L per floor is 540 kg/m2 and L.L. 450 kg/m2. The column grid is 5m5m. If the average soil unit wt. is 182 t/m3 and ground water table is 40m below EGL. Determine the maximum depth of bore hole and least number of bore hole. 2. 8+8=16 Full Marks : 100
a) Distinguish between consolidation and competition. b) The results of a laboratory proctor tests on a soil sample are as follows.
water content % 83 104 122 wt. of wet soil (gms) 1636 1821 1907 162 180 204 2016 2034 1992
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[2] i) Plot compaction curves and find OMC and maximum dry density. ii) Plot also zero air void and 15% air void curve. Assume G = 270. 3. 12+4=16 5.
[3] PART II Answer all questions. a) What are shear strength parameters? Discuss the factors affecting magnitude of shear strength parameters. 2+3=5
a) Determine the safe load that can be carried by a square footings of 25m25m size placed 15m below G.L. The foundation soil has the following properties.
b) Draw typical stress-strain diagram for N. C. and O. C. clay as obtained from UU triaxial test. 2
c) Discuss the types of failure in soft and shift clay in triaxial = 170 t/m3 ,
c = 11 t/m2 ,
= 20
tests.
Nc = 177, For = 20 N c = 118,
Nq = 74, N r = 50 Nq = 38, N r = 13
d) Two identical specimens of soils were tested in a shear box and following results were found :
Normal load (N) 500 900 Shear load (N) 2100 2670
10
Assume F.O.S = 25 b) Discuss the theory of Terzaghis theory and Mayerhoffs bearing capacity. 4. 10+6=16 6.
a) Draw the Mohr circle for Active earth pressure condition and also give the expressure for the active earth pressure for a c- soil. 5
a) What are local, general and punching shear failure of soil? Show Load settlement curve for each type. b) What are the factors that affect the soil disturbance? How are these effects minimised? c) Explain the term OMC. How does it lead to maximum dry density with a given compactive effort? 6+6+4=16
b) A rough vertical wall 6.0 m high supports a cohesionless backfill with horizontal surface. The properties of backfill soil are given below : = 19 t/m3 = 34o (angle of wall-soil interface) = 18o Determine the active earth pressure acting on the wall. 10 [ Turn over
Ex/CE/T/323/70/2011

SOIL MECHANICS - II
Use a separate Answer-Script for each Part (50 marks for each part) Part - I Answer Q. No.1 and any Two from the rest
1.
Attempt any six questions :
6x3=18
a)
A Retaining Wall retains a Sand Backfill with f = 1.8 t/m3 and = 30o. If a uniform surcharge of 12 t/m2 is applied on the top of backfill, find out the increase in Active Pressure.
b)
Prove that for cohesionless soil, the ratio of shear stress to normal stress at failure is maximum at the plane of maximum obliguity.
c)
Comment whether the shear strength of a soil is a unique function of total stress or not. comment. Give reasons for your
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d)
Show that the co-efficient of Earth pressure for -soil in Active State is less than that for at rest condition.
b)
The results of a laboratory proctor test are as follow : Water content % Wt. of Wet Soil (gm) Water content % 8.33 1636 16.20 2016 10.40 1821 17.92 2034 12.23 1907 20.39 1992
e)
In a Direct Shear test, Mohrs circle of stress cannot be drawn for any Intermediate stage of test. Comment.
f)
Explain why in c soil, the slope angle can be made steaper than the angle of shearing resistance of soil.
Wt. of Wet Soil (gm)
g)
What is consolidated undrained test in a Triaxial Shear test? In what situation this test is adopted?
i)
Plot the water contents vs dry density curve and determine O.M.C. and maximums dry density.
ii) h) What is the effect of cohesion on Active and Passive pressure of soil? 2. a) Compare the Ramkine's theory of Earth pressure with Coulomb's theory in respect of i) ii) iii) b) State of soil mass Rupture surface Geometry and characteristics of Backfill. b) 7. a)
Plot also zero air void and 10% air void curve. Assume G = 2.68. 4+12=16
Discuss the theory of Terzaghi's bearing capacity and Mayeshof's bearing capacity.
Determine the safe load that can be carried by a square footing of 2.2 m x 2.2 m size placed at a depth of 1.6 m below G.L. The foundation soil has the following properties = 1.65 t/m3, c = 1.1 t/m2, = 20o For = 20o (Nc = 17.7, Nq = 7.4, Nr = 5.0, N 1 , c = 11 .8
1 N1 Q = 3.8 , N R = 1. 3 )
A smooth vertical wall 7.0 m high supports a cohesive backfill with horizontal surface having the properties given below : i) Top 3.0 m depth : C
Sat
6+10=16 = 1.10 tm2 = 20o = 1.8 t/m3
Assume F.O.S. = 2.5
6+10=16
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e)
Two specimen of soils were tested in a Shear Box with the following results : Normal Load (kg) Shear Load (kg) 54 216 90 270
i)
Bottom 4.0 m depth :
C
Sat
= 2.0 t/m2 = 20o = 2.0 t/m3
The free water level stands behind the wall at a depth of 3.0 m from top. Draw the Active Pressure Diagram.
Find out the apparent cohsion and angle of shearing resistance of soil. Also find out the failure plane and direction of Principal planes. 4+4+8=16 3. Part - II Attempt All. Two marks for neatness 5. a) Discuss different approaches for determination of depth of a box hole in soil exploration works. b) A 12-storied office building with a basement floor 3.0 m below ground surface is to be built in an area of 60 m x 30 m. The D. L. per floor is 540 kg/m2 and L.L. 450 kg/m2. Thecolumn grid is 5 m x 5 m. If the average soil unit wt is 1.80 T/m3 and ground water table is 4.0 m below E.G.L. Determine the maximum depth of bore hole and minimum no. of bore hole. 8+8=16 b) 4. a) b) a)
What is the difference between failure surfaces in Finite and Infinite slops? Find out the critical depth for cohesive soils for an infinite slope where the slope will be stable. A Canal Bank is made of soil having Cu = 3.0 t/m2, u = 12o and = 2.0 t/m3. The height of the slope is 10 m with a slope of 1.5 (H) : 1.0 (V). Find out the factor of safety by using a trial slip surface passing through the toe of the slope. 6+10=16
For a cohessionless soil using Mohr-coulomb failure, prove that the plane of maximum obliguity is the criterion governing failure and not the maximum shear stress plane.
6.
a)
Discuss the Factors which control the soil compaction at the field.
State the discrepencies in Direct Shear Test.
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Ex/CE/T/323/73/2010
(3rd Year, 2nd Semester)
SOIL MECHANICS - II
Time : Three hours Full Marks : 100 (50 marks for each part)
Use a separate Answer - Script for each part. PART I Answer question no.1 and any two from the rest. 1. a) Answer any six of the followings : 3x6
Does the Mohr circle of stress is a function of Soil Type? How the failure of soil is adjudged under shearstress?
b)
Explain the conditions of at rest pressure and active pressure from Mohr Coulombs failure theory. Under what conditions toe failure and base failure occur in a slope of homogenous soil. What type of test you will advocate for finding out the effective shear strength parameters for a separated N.C clay and why ? Indicate the parameters using Mohrs circle of Stresses.
c)
d)
e)
The direction of Principal planes is different in Box shear test than that in Triaxial test Justify. In clay show that the inclination of a stable slope can be [ Turn Over ]
f)
( 2 ) made more than the angle of shearing resistance of soil. g) Why does a tension crack develope in a cut for cohesire soil ? What is the depth of tension crack ? In stability analysis by method of slices, for each and every slice, WS ind is the force trying to cause failure Justify the statement with reason whether it is true or false. 2. a) Find out the relation between the shear strength parameters and the principal stresses at failure. 6 The angle of shearing resistance in terms of total stresses for a saturated clay as obtained from UU test is Zero. Does this mean that the strength of clay cannot be attributed to friction ? 4 c) For a Cohesionless soil the principal stresses at failure are 600 KN / m2 and 200 KN / m2. Determine the planes of maximum shear and maximum obliquity and the stresses acting on them. 6 3. a) What is the difference between Rankines and Coulombs theory of earth pressure in respect of Backfill and condition of wall. How can you identify whether Rankine or Coulombs theory is to be adopted for earth pressure ? b) A cantilever sheet pile is used for excavation of cohesionless soil having = 1.8 t / m3, = 30. The sheet pile is driven upto a depth of 9.0 m and the depth of 9. a) b)
( 5 ) placed 1.2 m below E.G.L having the following Engineering Properties, = 1.90 T/ m3, C = 2.3 t / m2, = 20 (Nc = 14.8, Nq= 6.4, N = 3.5). Determine the r minimum size of footing to have a F.O.S of 2.5 against shear failure use any theory. Discuss how the depth boring is fixed ? Prove that energy recieved in Modified Procter is about 4.5 times that of ordinary Procter. Discuss the effect of water table on bearing Capacity Soil. 6+4+6=16 6+16=16
h)
c)
b)
( 3 ) excavation is 4.0 m. Draw the earth pressure diagram and find out the resultant earth pressure. 4. a) 8+8=16
Distance of Peg from Geophone (m ) Time taken by the first wave front to
( 4 ) where there is a change in the formation.
Explain Coulombs theory of earth pressure and indicate how you can find out active earth pressure. A Retaining wall 8 m high has its back sloping at an angle of 75 with the horizontal. The surface of the backfill slopes at an angle of 15 to the horizontal. Properties of backfill are as follows : = 1.85 t / m3, C = 0, = 35, = 25. Determine the Resultant Active thrust by Culmans method of construction. 6+10=16
10.5 15.0 20.0 30.0 400.0 500.0 600.0
b)
reach Geophone (ms) 16.5
25
33
50
225
250
275
b)
Discuss why split spoon sampler is not used for collection of U / S. 12+4=16
7. a)
Discuss the difference between compaction and consolidation. The following are the results of a standard Pooctor compaction test on a soil sample.
Water content op 13.9 16.3 18.8 19.4 22.8 23.4 26.6 Wt. of wet soil in(Kg) 1.663 1.720 1.779 1.851 1.893 1.898 1.885
b)
5.
An embankment made of uniform soil with C = 30 KN / m2, = 15 is 8 m high with a slope angle of 34 with the horizontal. Find out the factor of safety against failure along a trial slip circle passing through the toe of the slope. 16
Plot Pooctor compaction curve and hence find the value of OMC & dry density. Calculate the water content necessary to completely saturated the sample. Draw PART II Answer any three questions. Two marks for neatness. 8. a) 6. a) The following data were collected from a Seismic refraction test in an area. Determine the depth from the ground level b) Discuss the factors which affects the bearing capacity soil. What do you mean by the term bearing capacity & bearing pressure. A coloumn of building carrying a vertical load of 40.0 T has to be supported by a square footing. The footing is 100% & 90% saturation curve also. 4+12=16
( 4 ) 10. The following observations were noted during a proctor compaction test on a soil sample as per I.S.Codes
Water Content% 9.6 11.0 1.9 12.5 1.96 14.0 16.0 18.0 19.5 2.05 2.1 2.05 2.01
Ex/CE/T/323/70/2011(S)

Soil Mechanics II
Wet density gm/cc 1.8
Find out dry density and OMC of the sample. Draw 90% saturation curve. 10 11. a) b) Discuss the factors on which the depth of bore holes depends on. Find out the thickness of a open drive samples of Internal diameter (ID) 100mm to obtain a good quality of U.D.S in a soft N.C. clay. 6+4 = 10
Time : Three hours
Full Marks : 100
Use a Separate answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer Q.1 and any two from the rests.
1. a)
Mention different types of triaxial tests Discuss the circumtances when these tests are conducted for determination of shear strength parameters. Draw the Mohrs envelope for UV tests on a clayey soil above ground water table and below ground water table. 2+5+3 = 10
b)
Two specimen of same soil were tested in a shear box with the following results. Normal load (kg) Shear load (kg) 45 175 75 230
Find out the shear strength parameters of the soil. Also find out the failure plane and direction of principal planes. 8 2. a) What are probable types of failure of a slope? Under what conditions these types of failures occur. 6 [ Turn Over ]
( 2 ) b) An embankment 10m high is to be made with a c- soil having r = 1.85 t/m3, c = 4 t/m2, = 150. The slope of the embankment is 1.5 (M): 1 (V). Foundation soil is uniform and have r = 1.9 t/m3, c = 8t/m2, = 00 Determine the factor of safety for a typical slip circle passing through the toe of the embankment. 10 3. a) Derive the expressions for active and passive earth pressures. 8 Draw the active earth pressure diagram for a retaining wall of height 8.0m for a plane and horizontal backfill of layers as given below: Layer I : Thickness 3.0m, = 2t/m , C = 0, = 35 (Sand)
3 0
( 3 ) PART II (50 marks)
Attempt any five Questions.
Illustrate your answer with neat sketches.

5. Discuss standard penetration test. What are the various corrections? What is the importance of test in geotechnical engineering? 6. 5+3+2 = 10 How would you find out degree of compaction at field. On what factors degree of compaction is depends on. 7+3 = 10 7. a) b) 8. Discuss Terzaghis bearing capacity theory. How does it differ from Mayerhoffs theroy. Discuss the effect of water table on bearing capacity. 5+5 = 10 What is the effect of compaction on the engineering properties of the soil? How would you decide weather the soil should be compacted dry of optimum or wet of optimum. 9. 5+5 = 10 A column of a building carrying a vertical load of 40.00 tor has to be supported by a square footing. The footing is placed 1.2m below G.L in a homogenous bed of soil having the following properties : 10
b)
Layer II : Thickness 5.0m, = 1.9t/m3, C = 3.5t/m2 , (clay) 4. a)

= 180
How do you estimate depth of vertical cut in cohesive soil without any lateral support? Discuss the factors affecting shear strength parameters of a soil? Find out the critical depth for cohesive soils for an infinite slope.
b)
c)
d)
State the discripancies in Direct shear test.
4x4 = 16
3 0 2 = 1 . 8 0 T / m , 2 0 , C = 1.5t/m , Water table 1.5m
below G.L. Determine the size of footing with F.O.S of 2.5 use any theory. Given that
= 20
0
(Ne = 14.3, Nq = 6.5 Nr = 3.5)
10 [ Turn Over ]
Ex/CE/T/323/60/2009

SOIL MECHANICS II
Time : Three hours
Full Marks : 100 (50 marks for each part)
Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Attempt Q. No. 1 and any two from the rest 1. Answer any six of the followings : 3x6=18
a) Explain what do you mean by Shear failure of soil. Does the Mohr Circle of Stress is a function of Soil Type? b) c) Indicate the probable causes of failure of Slope. For cohrionless soil show that at the Plane of obliquity the ratio of Shear Stress and Normal stress is maximam. How do you estimate the coefficient of Earth pressure at Rest Condition? e) Estimate the depth of vertical cut in cohsire soil without any Lateral Support. In clay show that the niclimation of a Stable slope can be more than the angle of Shearing Resistance of soil. The direction of Principle Planes is different in Box Shear test than that of Triaxial shear test. Justify. h) For a sand backfill with =30, indicate the Passive Earth pressure magnitude in terms of Active Pressure magnitude. [ TURN OVER ]
d)
f)
g)
( 2 ) 2. a) Mention different types of Triaxial Shear tests. Under what circumstances one is preferred over the offer? Give the Mohrs envelope for a test on a partially Saturnted Cohesive soil. b) In a Triaxial Shear Test on a soil sample, the confiring pressure was 2.5kg/cm2 and failure occured at a deviator stress of 3.5kg/cm2. If the failure plane makes an angle of 52 with the horizontal find out the Shear strength parameters of the soil and Normal & Shear stress on failure plane. 8+8=16 3. a) State the Plastic Equilibrium of soil mass and find out Rankines Active and Passive pressure with plastic equilibrium Concept. b) Draw the active pressure distribution diagram and Calculate the Resultant Active Pressure for a Retaining wall of height 10.0m for a plane and horizontal Backfill of layers as given below : Layer I : Thicknass 3.0m, =2t/m3, C =0, =35 Layer II : Thicknass 4.0m, =1.8t/m3, C =2t/m2, =18 Layer III : Thicknass 3.0m, =1.85t/m3, C =3.5t/m2, =0 16 4. a) What are the probable types of failure of a slope and under what conditions these type of failures occur. b) An Embarkment 10m deep is to be made with a C - soil having C =4t/m2, =18 & =1.85t/m3. The slope of 11. b) 10. a)
( 5 ) Discuss the effect of compaction on the engineering properties of the soil? How would you decide wheather the soil should be compacted dry of optimum or wet of optimum. Prove that energy relieved in Modified Protor is about 4.5 times that of ordinary Proctor. 8+4=12 The following results were obtained from standard proctors compaction test on a soil sample.
Water Content in %
12
14
16
18
20
22
Weight of Wet Sample 1.68 1.85 1.91 1.871.87 1.85 in Kg
Plot the Compaction Curve and obtain the maximum dry density @ OMC. Draw also zero air void curve. Find also the degree of compaction at Proctors density. Assume data not supplied. 12
( 4 ) 7. A column of a building carrying a net Vertical Load of 125T has to be supported by a square footing. The footing is placed 1.5m below E.G.L. in a homogenous bed of soil having the following Engineering properties : =1.90T/m3, =30 [ =30, Nc=37.2, Nq =22.5, Nr =19.7] Determine the minimum size of booting to have a F.O.S of 2.5 against Shear failure, use any theory. 12 a) Discuss the design Features affecting the sample disturbance. Discuss why split spoon sampler is not used for collection of U/S. 8+4=12 9. a) During an exploration to locate the ground water table in a clayey soil, water in the bore hole was bailed to a depth of 8.0m below the ground surface on Four Successive days, the rise in water Level was recorded as 0.5, 0.8, 1.0 and 1.3m from the bailed out Level. Determine by Hvorsluvs method the position of water table. b) In a bore hole, a layer of fine sand was encountered at a depth of 18.0m from the ground surface. A dense sand Layer overlies the fine sand Layer. The N value recorded in the field was 32. Determine the correct N value for the layer at 18.0m depth. Assume the water table at 3.0m below E.G.L. and density of soil above fine sand Layer is 1.94T/m3. 6+6=12 6. a)
( 3 ) the embarkment is 1.5(Horizontal) : 1(Vertical). Determine the factor of safety for any failure plane passing through the toe of the embarkment. 4+12=16 5. a) What are the conditions of Applicability of Rankines theory of Earth pressure over Coulombs theory. A Retaining wall 12m high has its back sloping at an angle of 75 with the horizontal. The Surface of the backfill slops at an angle of 15 to the horizontal. Properties of Backfill are as follows : =1.85t/m 3, C =0, =35 , =25 . Determine the Resultent Active thrust by Culmans method of construction. 16
8.
b)
b)
PARTII
Answer anyfour Questions.

Two marks for neatness. Discuss General, Local and Punching shear failures of soil. Show Load settlement curves for each type. b) The allowable bearing capacity of purely cohesive soil (with a F.O.S. of 3.0) is approximately equal to its unconfined compressive strength. Justify this statement in the light of any theory. 6+6=12 [ TURN OVER ]
Ex/CE/T/324/71/2012
B ACHELOR OF ENGINEERING IN CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2012

THEORY OF STRUCTURES - III

Time : Three hours (50 marks for each part) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer any two questions. Assume suitable values of any data not given. 1. ABC is a beam which is continuous over support B and simply
th supported over ends A and C. Span AB = 4 span BC = 6th .
Full Marks : 100
Draw the influence line diagram for support reaction at C using Muller Breslaus principle. Adopt 2nd interval for obtaining values of ordinates. 2. 25
a) Derive the relationship between the deflection in the prototype and that in the model. How the reactions in the prototype and that in the models are related? 10
b) State the Muller Breslaus Principle and explain its use for obtaining the influence lines for statically indeterminate structures. 8
c) In a continuous beam to determine the maximum span moment, live loads are placed on the same span and then alternate spans explain with influence line diagram. 7
[ Turn over
[2] 3. A suspension cable 60 m span and 10 m maximum dip at the centre carries a dead load of 15 KN/m through out and a uniformly distributed live load (moving) of 10 m length of intensity 20 KN/m. The cable is stiffened by a three hinged girder (symmetrical). Calculate also the overturning force on the pier. The anchor makes an angle 40o with the pier and the cable runs over a pulley devices. Draw the BMD of the girder for the critical position of the live load. PART II Answer any two questions. 4. Analyse the continuous beam ABCD as shown in Fig.1 by Stiffness Method assuming that there is no settlement of supports. Calculate the support reactions. EI is same for all members. 25 6. 25
[3]
Fig. 2 Analyse the continuous beam ABC as shown in Fig.3 by Flexibility Method. Calculate the support reactions. EI is same for all the spans. 25
Fig. 3
Fig.1 5. Analyse the truss ABC as shown in Fig.2 by Stiffness Method assuming that there is no settlement of supports. The crosssectional areas of all members are same. Calculate the support reactions and forces developed in all members. 25
Ex/CE/T/324/71/2011


Use a separate Answer-Script for each Part (50 marks for each part) PART - I Answer any two questions
1.
Analyse the beam as loaded shown below and hence draw BMD. Apply stiffness approach" using "system concept". 25
2.
Find out vertical and horizontal component of displacement at B of the truss as loaded shown below. Apply "Member approach". AE=Constant. 25
[ Turn over
-2-
- 5 -
b)
Derive the relationship between the deflection in the prototype and that in the model.
c) 3. Analyse the beam as loaded shown below and hence draw BMD. Apply "Flexibility approach" using "system concept". 25 2.
What are advantages of model analysis of structures?
ABC is a two span continuous beam which is hinged at A and C and continuous over the support B. span of AB=5m and BC= 3m. Moment of inertia of AB =2I and of BC=I. Draw the influence line diagram for support reaction at C using Muller Breslau's m principle. Adopt 1 interval for obtaining values of ordinate. 25
3. PART - I Answer any two questions Assume suitable values of any data not given 1. a) Find out the influence live diagram for the vertical reaction at B of a propped cantilever beam (Ref Fig Q. 1a). What is the shape of the influence line.
A suspension cable of 36 m span and 6m maximum dip at the centre carries a dead load of 10 kN/m through out and a uniformly distributed live load of 18 m length of intensity 40 kN/m which covers left hand half span. The cable is stiffened by a three hinged girder with two hinges at the abutments and third at the centre. a) Draw the B.M.D. and S.F.D. for the girder giving values at salient points b) Calculate the maximum tension in the cable. 25
( 4 ) cable. Calculate also the overturning force on the pier. The anchor makes an angle of 450 with the pier and the cable run over a pulley device. 25
Ex/CE/T/324/74/2010 BACHELOR OF CIVIL ENGG. EXAMINATION, 2010 (3rd Year, 2nd Semester)

Time : Three hours Full Marks : 100
(50 marks for each part) Use a separate Answer - Script for each part. PART I Answer any two questions. 1. Analyse the continuous beam ABC as shown in Fig Q.1 by flexibility method. Also draw BM diagram. 25
2.
Analyse the truss shown in Fig.Q 2 by flexibility method. Calculate the support reactions and member forces. AE is same for all the members. 25
[ Turn Over ]
( 2 ) 3. Analyse the beam as shown in Fig.Q.3 by stiffness method. Draw BM diagram of the beam. Take EI = constant throughout. 25
( 3 ) PART II Answer any two questions. Assume suitable values of any data not given. 5. a) State the Muller Breslaus principle and explain its use for obtaining the influence lines for statically indeterminate structures. b) 10
Derive the relationship between the deflection in the prototype and that in the model. 8
4. a)
What is Kinematic indeterminacy ? What are the degree of Kinematic indeterminacy of a two storied single bag portal frame fixed at base. 7
c)
In a continuous beam, to determine the maximum support moment,live loads are placed on two adjacent span of the support and then alternate spans explain with influence line diagram. 7
b)
Analyse the truss as shown in Fig Q.4(b) by stiffness method. Calculate the displacements at D. Take AE is same for all members. 1 6.
ABC is a beam which is continuous over the support B and simply supported over ends A and C. Span AB = 6m and BC = 4m . Draw the influence line diagram for support reaction at A using Muller Breslaus principle. Adopt 2 m interval for obtaining values of ordinates. 25
7.
A suspension cable of 50 m span and 8 m maximum dip at centre carries a dead load of 15 KN / m through out and a uniformly distribuetd live load of 25 m length of an intensity 20 KN / m which covers right hand half span. The cable is stiffened by a three hinged girder (symmetrical). Calculate the maximum tension in the [ Turn Over ]
Ex/CE/T/324/71/2011(S)
Theory of Structures - III
Time : Three hours
Full Marks : 100
Use a Separate answer Script for each part. PART I (50 marks) Answer any two questions.
1.
Analyse the beam as loaded shown below and hence draw BMD. Apply Stiffness approach using System Concept EI = Constant.
2.
Analyse the beam as loaded shown below and hence draw BMD. Apply Flexibility approach using System concept. EI . constant.
[ Turn Over ]
( 2 ) 3. Find out the vertical and horizontal component of displacement at A of the truss as loaded shown below. Apply Member approach. AE = Constant. 5.
( 3 ) ABC is a continuous beam having span AB = 16m and BC = 12m. The beam is hinged at A, continuous over the
& ller support B and rests on roller at C. With the help of M u Breslau Principle obtain the influence line for vertical reaction at A indicating ordinates at 4m interval. 25
6. a)
Draw qualitative influence line diagrams of a single bay portal frame for horizontal reaction and bending moment at right support. Assume supports are fixed. 10
b)
Derive the relationship between the deflection in the prototype and that in the model. 15
PART II (50 marks) Answer any two Questions. Assume suitable values of any data not given.
4.
The cables of a suspension bridge have a span of 100m and a central dip of 10m. Each cable is stiffened by a girder hinged at the ends and at the middle. A dead load of 20KN/m acts on each girder and a live load of length 20m moves over the girder. Determine the maximum cable tension when the live load is situated on the left half of the stiffening girder such that the right end of the load is just over the central hinge. Also obtain the S.F. and B.M. diagrams of the girder. 25
Ex/CE/T/324/61/2009

( 3rd Year, 2nd Semester) THEORY OF STRUCTURES - III Time : Three hours Full Marks : 100 (50 marks for each part) Use separate Answer-Script for each part.
Part-I
Answer any two questions. 1. a) b) State and explain the Muller Breslaus principle. 6
A two hinged parabolic arch of span 50 m and rise 8 m. Draw the influence line diagram for Horizontal reaction, bending moment shear force at a distance 20 m from the left support. Using these influence lines determine the horizontal reaction bendingmoment and shear force at that section due to Concentrated load of 10 kN at the centre. Assume I = I Sec c
19
2.
A suspension bridge of 200 m span has a dip of 20 m. Each cable is stiffened by a three hinged girder. There is a uniformly distributed load (dead) and a of 20 kN/m on each girder and a live load of 15 kN/m of length 15m. Determine the maximum tension in the cable when the live load is placed on the left half of the stiffening girder [ TURN OVER ]
( 2 ) in such a way that right end of the live load is just over the central hinge. Calculate also the overturning force on the pier when the cable runs over pulley. The anchor makes an angle of 40 with the piers. 3. a)
o
( 3 ) 5. Analyse the truss as shown in Fig. 2 by Flexibility Method. Calculate the support reactions and the member forces. EA is same for all the members. 25
25
Draw the ILD for the vertical reaction at the central support of a two span continuous beam of span 8 m each. Show ordinates at 2 m interval. Assume EI = Constant. 17 6. Analyse the continuous beam ABCD as shown in Fig.3 by Stiffness Method assuming that all the supports are unyielding. Calculate the support reactions. EI is same for all spans.
20 KN
b)
Derive the relationship between the deflection in the prototype and that in the model. 5 3
c)
What are the limitations of model analysis.
25
Part-II
Answer any two questions. 7. 4. Analyse the continuous beam ABC as shown in Fig 1. by Flexibility Method. It is given that support A rotates in clockwise direction by 0.01rad. Calculate the support reactions. EI is 64000 KN-m2 for all the spans. 25 Analyse the truss as shown in Fig. 4 by Stiffness Method. Calculate the support reactions and all member forces. 25
Fig . 1
Ex/CE/T/321/70/2012
B ACHELOR
OF
ENGINEERING
IN
CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2012
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING - I
Time : Three hours (50 marks for each part) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Full Marks : 100
[Turn over
[ 2 ]
[ 3 ]
Ex/CE/T/321/70/2011(S)

Transportation Engineering I
Time : Three hours
Full Marks : 100
Use a Separate answer-Script for each part. PART I (50 marks) Answer all Questions Assume standard and relevant value for any data not given
1. a) b) c) d) 2.
Answer the following Questions.
18
Explain which type of vertical curve requires a transition part and why? Find the compensated grade for a curve of radius 250m situated in a gradient of 1 in 18. Draw a typical cross sectional figure of a non-urban highway with median strip and all types of boundaries. Draw a typical figure of a cloverleaf interchange. State the criterion of finding carriageway width of a rotary. A falling gradient of 1 in 40 is followed by a rising gradient of 1 in 80 on a 2-lane 2-way divided highway. The design speed of the highway is 60 KmpH. State with reason the type of the vertical curve that is to be fitted at this junction. Find the length of the curve considering [ Turn Over ]
( 2 ) that overtaking is allowed in the curve. Assume Cocfficient of braking friction = 0.34, braking efficiency = 80%, reaction time for braking = 2.5secs, reaction time for overtaking = 2.0secs, speed of overtaken vehicle = 40KmpH, acceleration during overtaking = 1KmpH/sec. 2+14 b)
( 5 ) How adzing of sleepers, tilting of rails and coning of wheels help to provide the thread of wheels in absolutely dead centre position on the head of the rails? Take the help of neat sketch if required. 6 For what reasons theoretical elastic model of tracks differs from the reality in general. 2
c)
3. b)
For a highway curve of radius 250m and length 200m situated in a non built-up urban area over a plain terrain with available setback of 4m find the maximum permissible speed considering all types of safety parameters if overtaking is not allowed in the curve. Also determine the corresponding length of the transition curve. Consider maximum value of lateral friction as 0.12 and maximum superelevation of 1 in 15 applied at a rate of 1in 100 about the centre. Assume coefficient of braking friction = 0.34, braking efficiency = 80% and reaction time for braking = 2.5 secs. 16
( 4 ) track if 15 trains, 12 trains, 7 trains and 3 trains run at speeds of 55 kmph, 60 kmph, 75 kmph and 80 kmph respectively? 4 b) If a B.G. track is laid with welded rails of 26 m length using a sleeper density of M+6, find out the number of sleepers required for constructing a railway track 780m long. 3 Discuss about the requirements of rails. 8
( 3 ) PART II (50 marks)
c) 6. a) b) c) d) 7. a)
To negotiate curves safely, which factors have to be considered? 3 Give the tree-structured presentation of categorization of types of wear of rails. 3 Suggest suitable measures to reduce the effect of wear on rails. 7 What are the governing factors to fix the sleeper density? 2 What will be the steepest gradient on a straight track when the following conditions exist, for a train having 16 wagons when Weight of each wagon = 18 tonnes. Speed of the train = 60 kmph., Rolling resistance of wagon = 2.5 kg/tonnes, weight of the locomotive = 120 tonnes, Tractive effort of locomotive = 12 tonnes, Given, resistance depending upon the speed = 0.00008 wv, atmospheric resistance = 0.0000006wv 2 where all notations stand for their conventional meanings. 7
Maintain neatness. Assume reasonable data if it is not supplied. Question no. 1 is mandatory Answer any other two questions alongwith question no.1 All drawings-must be drawn by pencil No code etc. will be needed to answer the questions of this part
4. a) b)
Upon which factors hauling capacity depends?
What will be the axle load for weight of rail of 60 kg/m? 2
c)
What ratio is adopted in side slope of ballast section in the permanent way (theoretically)? 1 Mention the relative merits and demerits of bull-headed rails (B.H. Rails). 5 Compare between timber, metal and concrete sleepers depending upon the common points to show their relative merits or demerits. 10
d)
e)
f)
The number of sleepers per rail varies in India from M+X to M+Y. What are the values of X and Y? 1 What is the equilibrium cant on a 3 degree MG curved [ Turn Over ]
5. a)
Ex/CE/T/326/61/2009
PART II
Answer any two questions. 6. Elaborate how the item Earth work in excavation is detailed in Bill of quantities (within 100 words) and in Detailed specification document (within 300 words). 25 7. What is a contract? Name the different types of contracts that are normally used in civil engineering project. Define and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Item rate contract. 25 8. Write short notes on - Labour contract, Source approval and frequency testing. Explain how Project planning is important from client and contractors point of view. (within 150 words). 10+15

(3rd Year, 2nd Semester) VALUATION, PRICING AND CONTRACT Time : Three hours Full Marks : 100 (50 marks for each part)
Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer any three questions. Two marks are reserved for neatness. 1. a) Pricing of a building is very much related to cost of construction, which in turn is evaluated from the quantity estimation and the current cost of individual item of work (analysis of rate) of the building. Explain this statement. 3 What essential cost components are necessary to analyze the rate of individual item of work? What additional cost factors are considered while doing the rate analysis? Site one example only to show how you would arrive at the material statement necessary for the above purpose? 1+1+3=5 c) Explain whether the site of work influences the rate of an item. d) 2
b)
Draw up a preliminary estimated cost of a 120 bedhospital building, in order to assess the amount of fund [ TURN OVER ]
( 2 ) to be allotted for the said purpose. Given the following : Carpet area required per bed = 4.5 square metre Area of corridor, verandah, lavatories etc. to the plinth area of the building is 40% and area of walls is 20%. Plinth area rate = Rs. 10,000/- per square meter. Cost of water supply = 5% of the building cost. Cost of sanitation = 6 34 % of the building cost. Cost of electrification = 12% of the building cost. Cost of approach road and boundary wall = 5% of the building cost. Contingency and work-charged establishment @ 5% and 2% of the total cost respectively. 2. a) Two similar buildings are constructed at two different places of a township at a stated time - one at the very heart of it and another at the outskirt. What is your comment regarding cost and value of the two properties? 3 b) A purchase of property may be made for investment. Is valuation of the property necessary to find the investment on the property? In what condition this purchase may be worthy if compared with other type of investments? 1+2=3 c) Would it be wise to consider annual sinking fund as one of the outgoings from the gross income of a property? 2
( 5 ) where as to the depth of 20m, the area is valued at Rs. 8,000/- per sqm.on 12m wide road. 8
Fig-1
[ TURN OVER ]
( 4 ) is no income from the property. Estimate the present value of the land assuming 6 7 8 % compound interest per annum. 4. a) b) c) What is salami? What do you mean by rack rent and profit rental? 6 e) 2 2 d)
( 3 ) How net income of a property is related with its capitalized value and years purchase? 2
A property is to produce a gross income of Rs.15,000/- per annum. The outgoings may be considered as 20% of the gross income. The landlord desires a return of 6 34 % on capital and 7 14 % on redemption of capital. Find the value of the property. 6
A person is negotiating for 51 years lease of premises worth net rent of Rs. 5000/- per month. He is willing to pay salami and a rent of Rs. 3000/- per month. He deserves 8% interest on capital and 7% interest on redemption of capital. What salami will he have to pay? If the lessee is asked to pay salami of Rs. 2,00,000/-, what monthly rent he will pay? 4+4=8 3. a)
Depreciation of a building after a period of time is equated to the sinking fund accumulated during that period. Explain this statement. 4 The cost of construction of a building is Rs. 10,00,000/-. The building is 15 years old and has future life of 50 years. Considering the sinking fund accumulated during 15 years as the depreciation of the building, find the depreciated value of the building. Assume 7% interest on capital and 8 5 8 % interest on sinking fund. 6
b)
d)
A man takes a lease of a plot of land and pays a ground rent of Rs. 2000/- per month. He erects a building on the site at the cost of Rs. 6,00,000/-. What is the virtual rent? Consider 9% interest on capital and 7% interest on sinking fund and the lease is for 99 years. 4 c)
A plot of land was purchased at Rs. 5,00,000/-, 7 years back. Immediately after the purchase a sum of Rs.50,000/- was spent for constructing a boundary wall. 5 years back he invested further amount of Rs.30,000/ - for construction of a small hutment for accommodating a man to guard the property. The annual cost of maintenance and management of the property has been Rs.5,000/- per annum after purchase. The land remained unproductive since the time of purchase and hence there [ TURN OVER ]
5.
a)
Discuss how the value of the land is influenced by the following factors (any four) : 4x2=8 i) Location ii) Size iii) Shape iv) Frontage and depth v) Vista vi) Return frontage vii) Width of the road in front of the plot.
b)
Find the value of the plot of land (Fig.1) by Belting Method, given that to the depth of 24m, the area is valued at Rs. 10,000/- per sqm. on 15m wide road,
Ex/CE/T/323/71/2012
B ACHELOR
OF
ENGINEERING
IN
CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2012
VALUATION P RICING AND CONTRACT

Time : Three hours (50 marks for each part) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Answer All questions serially. 1. Give your legal opinion on following issues. 55 Full Marks : 100
a) A team of workers in a construction site could not find work after lunch time. They were relieved from duty. The contractor paid them for half a days wage. What is the legal position. b) Two plumbers on duty in a building site engaged into a fight for their personal reasons. A glass door costing Rs. 20,000/- only was broken in the incident. What are the legal positions to the contractor. c) A contractor constructed M40 concrete columns. The cubes piled and later tests proved only M37 strength. The owner ordered to dismantle. The contractor waited for one month and conducted tests that proved M40.8 strength. The work continued but the owner did not pay the bill for columns. The matter was referred to arbitration. What are the legal positions to the arbitrator. d) A contract states, The choice of marble quality shall be decided by the Engineer-in-charge whose decision shall be final and binding. As per contractors opinion the work was delayed because the selected marble is difficult to procure and took additional time for completion of work. The work was delayed and referred to arbitration. What are the legal positions.
[ Turn over
2 ]
e) A contractor was bound to supply teak wood for doors in a building contract. Halfway through the work the government notified that teak wood should not be used for buildings. The owner insisted for teak wood as per contract terms. The contractor refused to supply. What is the legal positions.
2.
What short notes (in about 100 words) for the following : a) Sufficiency of Tender. b) Penalty clause that is liquidated damages for delay.
52
3.
Present a rate analysis of 1:2:4 concrete in boundary wall columns of 250 mm 400 mm size excluding reinforcement but including shuttering. 15
Ex/CE/T/326/71/2011

VALUATION, PRICING AND CONTRACT

Use a separate Answer-Script for each Part (50 marks for each part) PART - I Answer any Three questions Two marks are reserved for neatness
1.
a)
What do you mean by analysis of rate related to construction items?
b)
Prepare a material statement for the following item of work : 20 m3 reinforced cement concrete (1 : 1A : 3) with 1% steel.
c)
What lump sum amount is considered with respect to overhead cost and contractor's profit for finding rate of each individual item of work?
d)
What do you mean by contingencies and work-charged establishment? How these are included in rate analysis?
[ Turn over
-2-
- 5 -
e)
How do you differentiate between approximate cost estimate and final cost estimate? 2+5+1+4+1+3=16
PART - II Answer any Two questions
2.
a)
Establish the relation between year's purchase and capitalized value.
6.
Elaborate how the item "Earthwork in excavation" is detailed in "Bill of quantities (within 100 words) and in "detailed specification document" (within 300 words). 25
b)
When and how you would consider sinking fund for finding year's purchase of a property? 7.
What is a "contract"?
Name the different steps that are
c)
With increase in interest rate year's purchase decreases discuss the significance of this finding.
normally followed in civil engineering projects. Define and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of "item-rate" contract. 25
d)
A property is to produce a net income of Rs.15,000.00 per annum for the next 40 years. Assume that the landlord desires a return of 6% on his capital and for redemption of capital the interest rate may be taken as 5%. What is the value of the property? a) b) c) Technical bid PMC Work Order or Letter of Intent Global Tender, L1 Tenderer. 8. Write short notes on (each within 150 words) 25
e)
What is the amount of Re.1.00 p.a. for 12 years @ 6% interest? Derive the expression used. 3+2+2+5+4=16
d) e)
3.
a)
Name three methods used to find the depreciated value of a building.
f)
b)
Discuss the method of finding depreciation of a building where a percentage depreciation is considered.
- 4 -
- 3 -
covered area, find the average rent to be realized per m2
c)
Determine the present value of a building, which was constructed 35 years ago at Rs.1,50,000.00. The
3 of rentable area for investment to yield @ 8 % gross. 8

4+12=16 5. a) b) How a property is classified as leasehold and freehold? What do you mean by lesser's interest and lessee's interest? c) How would you evaluate both the interests with respect to a leasehold property? d) Particulars of a leasehold property are given below : i) ii) iii) Lease rent Net rack rent = = Rs.2,500.00 per month Rs.10,000.00 per month b) 4. a) d)
estimated life of the building is 80 years, at the end of which it will have 10% scrap value of its cost of construction. Use the method discussed in question 4 (b). Discuss i) ii) iii) sentimental value speculative value distress value 3+4+6+3=16
Mention effect of size, shape, orientation and road width while finding value of a plot of land by comparison method. A land owner proposes to develop a property on a southfacing plot of land on 25 m wide road having a frontage of 45 m and depth 65 m. The front belt is taken up to 25 m with the value fixed at Rs.2,000.00 per m2 for the front belt land. The land owner decides to construct a ten-storied building having an overall height of 32 m above the ground with 7 m space on the east, 3.5 m on the west and 15 m on the north. If the cost of construction is Rs.100.00 per m3 and a rentable area is 65% of the
Lease to run for 15 years.
Assume ground rent is secured at 6% per annum and for
2 reversionary value interest is @ 8 % per annum. 3 Estimate (i) lesser's interest and (ii) lessee's interest.
2+2+4+2x4=16
[ Turn over
( 4 ) PART II (50 marks) Answer any two questions.
Ex/CE/T/326/71/2011(S)
Valuation, Pricing and Contract
6.
Elaborate how the item RCC work is detailed in Bill of quantities (within 100 words) and in Detailed specification document (within 300 words). 25
Time : Three hours
Full Marks : 100
Use a separate Answer -Script for each part. PART I (50 marks) Answer any three questions. Two marks are reserved for neatness.
7.
What is a contract? Name the persons who are entitled to sign a contract. Define and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Fixed fee contract. 25 Write short notes on (each within 150 words) Legal search of a property, PMC, Work Order or Letter of Intent, Global Tender, Force Majure condition. 25 1. a) b)
8.
Discuss what do you mean by approximate estimate? 2 Discuss two methods of finding approximate cost of a building. 4 Analyse the rate for the following item of work : Cement concrete (1:2:4) with graded stonechips (20 mm down) for R.C. works excluding shuttering and reinforcement. Given : Material rate Stonechips Coarse sand Cement Labour rate Head mason 1/2 No. Rs. 500/- per head [ Turn Over ] Rs.2450/-per m3 Rs.875/- per m3 Rs. 300/- per bag
c)
( 2 ) Mason Mazdoor 3 Nos. 24 Nos. Rs.300/- per head Rs. 250/- per head 4. a)
( 3 ) Discuss rental method of valuation? What information is necessary to value a property by rental method? Can you find separately the value of the land and of the building once the value of the property comprising both land and building is evaluated by rental method? b) A building has been rented on an annual rent of Rs. 10,000/-. The life of the building in the present position is expected to be 20 years. If the major repairs to the building are done, its life shall be increased by another 15 years. The major repair will cost Rs. 40,000/-. Determine whether it will be advisable to do the major repair of the building or not. Assume the rate of interest as 10% for capital and 8% for sinking fund. 2+2+2+10 = 16 5. A plot of land is shown in Fig 1. It consists of a building having a total built-up area of 300 m2. Assume a prime cost of construction at current prices to be Rs.5000/- per m2 and a straight-line depreciation allowing 10% salvage value only for the building. What is the value of the property if the front belt land (depth of front belt being 25m) be estimated at Rs. 1000/- per m2? 16
Assume any other data necessary. Assume contingencies, tools and plants are half percent of the total cost of materials and labour; profit and overhead are ten percent of the total cost. 10 2. a) b) i) ii) c) What do you mean by sinking fund and sinking fund coefficient? What is deferred income? How the deferred value of a property is estimated when the interest rates for both capital and sinking fund are same when they are different? What is the present value of a net income of Rs.4000/per month for a total period of 25 years but will commence after the development period of 5 years? The owner expects 8% interest per annum on his capital and 6% per annum on investment of sinking fund? 3+1+2x2+8 = 16 What do you mean by depreciation of a building? How the depreciation is caused? 4 How would you find the depreciation of a building by sinking fund method? 4 The cost of construction of a new building according to present market rate is Rs. 1000,000/- having a life of 70 years. But if the building is 50 years old, determine the depreciated value of the building at 6% compound interest. 8
3. a) b) c)
[ Turn Over ]
(4)
Ex/CE/T/326/74/2010
BACHELOR OF CIVIL ENGG. EXAMINATION 2010
PART II Answer any two Questions. 5. Elaborate how the item Reinforced Cement Concrete Work is detailed in Bill of quantities (within 100 words) and in Detailed specification document ( within 300 words). 25 6. What is a contract? Name the different types of contracts that are normally used in cilvil engineering projects. Define and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Lump Sum contract. 25 7. Write short notes on (each within 150 words)Joint Venture Companies, Eligibity for signing a contract, Work Order or Letter of Intent, Global Tender, L1 Tenderer. 25

VALUATION, PRICING AND CONTRACTS
Time Three hours Full Marks 100 (50 marks for each part)
Use a separeate Answer-script for each part. PART I Question no. 1 is compulsory Answer any two from the rest. 1. a) What are the different operating organizations required for a large civil engineering construction project? State their role and significance. b) Discuss the importance of systematic approach of costing for selecting the different SO2 reduction system viz. source reduction, flue gas desulphurization and tail gas treatment in refinery operation. 8+6 = 14 2. a) Discuss the importance of approximate or preliminary estimate. Write short notes on the approach of Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) to estimate the cost of [ TURN OVER ]
(2)
(3)
a building. 3+4 4. b) In a locality plinth area rate of a two storied building having 1.2 m deep (below G.L.) foundation and 0.9 m high parapet wall is Rs. 9000 per m2. Estimate the cost of a similar building of 140 m2 plinth area in that locality. Cost of water supply, sanitation and electrification should be considered separately. What will be the volume rate of a similar building? c) 5 a)
rate of interest for redemption of capital is 7%.
Distinguish between unsecured ground rent and secured ground rent. 2
b)
A building stands on a free hold property of land, measures 600 m2, yields a gross rent of Rs. 1,000 per month. The price of land is Rs. 75/m2. The estimated future life of the building is 12 years, but it is expected to extend by another 16 years, if structural and other repairs costing Rs. 16,000 were immediately carried out. The total amount of outgoings is 25% of the gross rent. The owner requires 7% retrun on land and 11% return on building with 6% redemption of capital. Find out whether it will be advisable to spend the above cost of repairs from investment point of view. 7
Do the analysis of rate for first class brick work in cement mortar ( 1:4) in first floor superstructure. 6 What is the difference between physical depreciation and obsolescence? What are the years purchase in perpetural, for terminable income, single rate and dual rate? 3+4
3.
a)
c) d)
Describe return frontage and vistas.
b)
A person let out his premises at Rs. 24, 000 per annum on lease with 4 years to run. The current rental value is Rs. 40,000 per annum net. 10% return is expected from the property and the annual lease rent interest is 8%. Determine the value of the property to the owner. 6
Find out the value of the leasehold property on the basis of owners interest. A freehold premise let at Rs. 9000 per annum net on lease with 6 years to run. The current rental value is Rs. 12,000. Assume the property is invested @ 8% per annum and for reversionary value, interest @ 10% per annum. 5
c)
What is the value of a self occupied building 25 years old having a covered area of 90 m2 when the present cost of construction for similar building is Rs. 2000 per m2? The future life of the building is estimated to be 40 years. The
Ex/CE/5/T/306/54/2011(S)
(3rd Year, 2nd Semester, Supplementary, Evening)
Waste water Engineering
Time : Three hours
Use a separate Answer -Script for each part. PART I Answer Q. No .1 any two from the rest.
1. a) b) c)
What is the goal of waste water weatment? What is waste water? Give examples. What is sullage? Why is it less objecteonable from domestic waste water? What is separate in separate sewerage system? What are chemoheterotrophs? What are different types of effluent standards for municipal waste water? Define population equivalent. What is its utility? What are the differences between TKN and total nitrogen? Name the factors which affect self-cleansing velocity most. [ Turn Over ]
d) e) f)
g) h)
i)
( 2 ) j) 2. a) i) ii) iii) iv) v) b) Define desing rainfall frequency. In a 5 day-200C BOD test : Why the colour of BOD bottle should be black? What is dilution? Why is it necessary? What is seeding? Give example of a seed. Why is incubation period chosen as 5 day? Why is the incubation temperature chosen as 200C? A 10.0ml sample of sewage mixed with enough water to fill a 300ml bottle has an initial DO of 9.0 mg/l To assure an accurate test, it is desirable to have at least a 2.0 mg/ l drop in DO during the five day run and the final DO should be at least 2.0mg/l .For what range of BOD5 would this dilution produce the desired result. 5 3. a) i) Answer the following as very briefly. Compare COD value of BOD5 value of a municipal waste water sample. Why should COD test should be done before BOD test for unknown samples? iii) Why should COD test be done with BOD test simultaneously? b) 2x3 = 6 i) ii) iii) b) 8. a) 2x10 = 20 c)
( 5 ) Design a suitable primary clarifier having a rectangular cross-section and provision for mechanical cleaning. Given the maximum daily sewage generation = 9.0 million litres. Assume any relevant data. 7
Define the following terms in the context of an Activated sludge Process. Organic loading rate. Food to Micro-organism Ratio (F/M) Sludge Age. Design a highrate single stage trickling filter for treating a domestic sewage of 125 lpcd having a untreated BOD5 of 225 mg/L. Assume that the primary treatment removes 36% of BOD. Consider an organic loading of 11,000 kg/ he-m/day (excluding recirculated sewage), a recirculation ratio (r) of 1.0 and surface loading rate (including recirculated sewage) not excuding 175 mL/ha/day. Determine the efficiency of the filter and the BOD5 of the treated effluent. 8 2+3+3
ii)
Give example of a chemical substance or group of chemical substances which
( 4 ) c) What are the effects of these inconveniences in a sewage treatment plant? 2 Design a screen chamber on the basis of the following data. 9 Peak design wet weather flow = 1.325m3/sec Velocity through screen at peak design wet weather flow = 0.9 m/sec Population of the township = 2,25,000 Depth of flow in the incoming conduit at peak design flow, D = 1.18m. Describe with the help of a neat schematic diagram the functioning of a skimming tank. 6 What are the major sources of oily and greasy substances in a municipal waste water? c) 2 i) ii) iii) c) i) ii)
( 3 ) responses in BOD, COD & TOC test responses in COD & TOC test only. responses in COD test only. 1x3 = 3
d)
Calculate the thod of water sample containing 90 mg/l glucose only. What should be its BOD value and why? 4+2
4. a) b) c)
Write brief note on any five of the following : inlet time design sanitary waste water flow minimum velocity in sewers population equivalent crown corrosion inverted siphon graphical method to calculate intencity of rainfall. 3x5 = 15
iii) iv)
6. a)
d) e) f) g)
b)
Design a rectangular skimming tank on the basis of a peak design wet weather flow of 0.635 m /sec. Consider a minimum detention period of 5.0 min and a velocity of rise of air bubble of 0.25 m/min. 8
3
7. a)
State the basic principle behind the process of sedimentation. 3 5. a)
PART II Answer any three questions (Two marks reserved for neatness) Discuss in brief on the significance of a screen chamber. 2 What are the possible inconveniences caused by the debris if not removed at a screen chamber? 3 [ Turn Over ]
b)
Discuss in brief on the significance of the parameter overflow rate/ surface loading rate in the context of sedimentation. 6
b)
Ex/CE/T/322/73/10
(3rd year, 2nd Semester) WASTE WATER ENGINEERING
Time : Three hours
Use a separate Answer-Script for each part Part I Qusetion no. 1 is compusory. Answer any two from the rest (Assume any data if requied, reasonably) 1. Write short notes on the following (any five) : i. ii. Potential environmental impact catagories. Colour due to sulfide as an indicator of sewage condition. 5 x 3 = 15
iii. Significance of 104oC and 180oC C for determination of TSS and TDS. iv. Advantages of Linear alkyl sulfonated. (Las) over Alkylbenze sulfonates (ABS). v. Significance of Radon222 as a radioactive material on human.
vi. Growth factor requirement of bacteria

[ TURN OVER ]
(2) vii. Drop manhole. viii. Necessity of azife in BOD determination. 2. a) How the status of wastewater degradation is indicated by the different forms of nitrogen?
31 2
(5) i) ii) iii) b) components of MLSS Type of microorganisms and their function Purpose of aeration 6 Explain briefly the sludge volume index (SVI) and its importance and develop a relation among MLSS concentration, sludge recirculation ratio and SVI with a flow diagram of activated sludge process. A conventional activated sludge process for treating an average flow of 15 milion litres/day (MLD) of wastewater with influent BOD5 of 310 mg/L is to be designed. 35% of BOD5 is removal in the primary settling tank. The operating MLSS concentration in the aeration tank is proposed to be 2400 mg/L and the sludge. Volume after 30 minutes settling in a 1000 ml graduated cylinder is 204 ml. Required hydraulic retention time is 7.5 hours. Compute the followiing with comments : i) SVI ii) Sludge recirculation ratio and flow of return sludge. iii) Volume of aeration tank iv) F/M ratio v) Volumetric loading rate. 10 Write short notes with sketches on : i) Step aeration activated sludge process. ii) Extended aeration process using oxidation ditch. 8 Design a household septic tank including effluent disposal system with sub-surface soil disperssion trenches for 50 users with a probable peak discharge of 70 litres/minute. l The basis for design is to be elaborated. l No sketch is required. x 8
b) Determine the CBOD, NBOD and ThOD for 0.1M solution of CH2 (NH2 ) COOH c)
5 3
Describe Fujimoto method and its limitations.
d) Compute BODu and BOD rate constant k from the following BOD data of a wastewater sample at 200 C . 6 Time (d) BOD (mg/I) 0 0 1 65 2 109 3 138 4 158 5 172
3. a) What are the advantags and disadvantages of combined 21 sewere? 2 b) What is intensity duration frequency curve? What is its significance in Rational method of runoff estimation? 6 c) b) C2 = 0.70 A1 = 3 ha C1 = 0.6 C3 = 0.70 C4 = 0.8 8. a)
A2 = 5.0 ha M1 300m
A3 = 6 ha M2
300m M 3 300m M 4
A4 = 5 ha
(4) Part - II Answer any three questions. Two marks for neatness. Assume appropriate data not given. i) 5. a) Draw a flow diagram for the treatment of domestic wastewater including sludge disposeal system using, among other units, two-stage trickling filter, intermediate clarifier and sludge thickener. Also briefly explain the function of the sludge thickener. 5 b) The channel profile of a grit chamber should be parabolic, if a rectangular weir is placed at the exit and of the channel discuss and prove mathematically. Also give a sketch showing the weir at the exit end. 6 Why is it necessary to remove grist from wastewater? What is the diofference between a grit chamber and a detritus tank? 5 Why oil and grease are to be removed from wastewater? comment on the type of air bubbles to be provided in an aerated skimming tank. 4 What are the purposes of recirculation in trickling filter? Corelate recirculation ratio and recirculation factor and comment with some example. 6 A single unit high rate trickling filter is to be designed to treat 2500m3/day of primary settled wastewater having a BOD5 of 160mg/L. The BOD5 loading (excluding recirculation) is 0.7 kg/day/m3. BOD5 of the final effluent is 25mg/L. Design the trickling filter and check the adequacies. 7. a) 6 In the context of activated sludge process discuss briefly on the following : ii)
(3) In the above figure the sewer line M1 to M2 for storm water drainage is already designed and the velocity when full flow is 1 m/s. Design the diameter (mm) and the velocity (m/s) of the circular storm sewer M2 to M3 when flowing full. 9 Given data : Design storm frequency = 2 month
0.375 0.96 i= ; where i = intensity in cm/hr, , 200.1x F /t F = frequency in years t = Duration in Min
iii) Slope of the proposed sewer M2M3 = 0.001 iv) Mannings coefficient of roughness = 0.011 v) Inlet time = 15 min. Assume any other data as necessary. Also find out the velocity and discharge through the circular sewer M2M3 when flowing half-full. 4. a) What are Trihalomethanes (THMs) and their toxicity?
31 2
c)
6. a)
b) Discuss human toxicity of alpha, beta, and gamma radiation with respect to penetration power. 4 c) Discuss the effect of chlorinated pesticides on environment. 3 d) What is MPN test? 3
b)
c)
e) A diary, processing about 1,33,000 kg of milk daily, produces an average of 246 m3/d of wastewater with a BOD of 1400 mg/l. Compute the wastewater flow and BOD per 1000 kg of milk processed. Also find the equivalent population of the daily waste discharge. 4
[ TURN OVER ]
Ex/CE/T/322/70/2012
B ACHELOR
OF
ENGINEERING IN CIVIL ENGINEERING EXAMINATION, 2012

WASTE WATER ENGINEERING

Time : Three hours (50 marks for each part) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part. PART I Question no. 1 is compulsory. Answer any two from the rest. (Assume any data, if required, reasonably) 1. Write short notes on the following (any five) : 1. Crown corrosion in sewers. 2. Define LD50, LC50 and TLV 3. Define CBOD and NBOD 4. Drop manhole 5. Advantages of Linear alkyl sulfonates (LAS) over Alkylbenzene sulfonates (ABS). 6. Colour due to sulfide as an indicator of sewage condition. 7. Persistent Organic Pollutant (POP). 8. Different zones of a river stream with respect to its assimilative capacity. [ Turn over 53=15 Full Marks : 100
[2] 2. a) What are the different types of synthetic organic pesticides may present in wastewater?
41 2
[7] b) Describe with a flow diagram the features and advantages of contact stabilisation activated sludge process. 5
b) How the amount of protein is estimated in the sewage from the nitrogen determination? 3
c) Design a household septic tank including effluent disposal system with sub-surface soil dispersion trenches for 40 users with a probable peak discharge of 60 litre/minute.
c) Derive the BOD exerted equation and solve the following problem. The BOD5 of a sewage sample is measured as 110 mg/l at 30oC. Calculate its 6 day BOD at 15oC. Assume the BOD rate constant in base 10 at 20oC (kD20) is 0.1 d-1 . 3. 10 The basis for design is to be eleborated. No sketch is required. 7
a) Discuss the five steps procedure of rational method for estimation of storm run-off. b)
71 2
C 2 = 0.70 C1 = 0.6 A1 = 3ha A 2 = 5.0ha M1 400m
C 3 = 0.70 A3 = 6ha
C4 = 0.8 A4 = 5ha
M 2 500m M 3 600m M4
In the above figure design the sewer line M1 to M2 and M2 to M3 for storm water drainage considering 80% full. Determine the diameters (mm) and the velocities (m/s) of the circular storm sewers. Given data: i) Design storm frequency = 2 month
[4] waste sample was added directly into a 300 mL. BOD incubation bottle. The initial DO of the diluted sample was 8.8 mg/L and the final DO after 5 days was 1.9 mg/L. The corresponding initial and final DO of the seeded dilution water was 9.1 mg/L and 7.9 mg/L, respectively. What is the BOD5 of the wastewater sample? PART II Answer any three questions. Two marks for neatness. Assume appropriate data not given. 5. a) For design of screen chamber : i) What is the usual value of minimum approach velocity and what happens if it is less? 5 6 6.
[5] d) State the advantages of aeration in an aerated skimming tank and comment on the type of air bubbles to be provided. 4
a) Explain with a schematic diagram the mechanism of BOD removal and the phenomenon of sloughing in a trickling fitter. 7
b) For a single unit high rate trisaling fitter, the following data is given : Wastewater flow to be treated = 10 million litre / day (MLD) BOD5 of raw wastewater = 250 mg/L Removal of BOD5 in Primary charifier = 30% BOD5 of treated final affluent = 30 mg/L BOD5 loading (excluding recirculation) = 0.8 kg/day/m3 Depth of fitter media = 1.5 m Compute the recirculation ratio and design the trickling filter with comment. 6
ii) What is the usual value of maximum velocity through screen openings and what happens if it is more? iii) Give the equation for head loss when the screens are half-plugged and usual maximum value of this head loss. State its significance in operation of screen. 6
c) Using relevant data of question 2(b), compute the size of a loss rate trickling filter (without recirculation) to achieve same BOD5 removal efficiency as in question 2(b). Given depth of filter media = 2 m. 3. 3
b) What is the difference between a grit chamber and a detritus tank? 2
c) The channel profile of a grit chamber should be parabolic, if a rectangular weir is placed at the exit end of the channel discuss and prove mathematically. Also give a sketch showing the weir at the exit end. 5
a) Describe two types of mixing regime/process in aeration tank of astirated sludge process. 3
b) Briefly compare aerobic and anaerobic biological treatment processes (reactions not required). 3 [ Turn over
[6] c) Why further treatment is necessary for the effluent from a septic tanks? 3
[3]
200.1 F0.375 / t0.96 ; ii) i =
where i = intensity in cm/hr, F = frequency in years, d) A conventional astirated sludge process for treating an average flow of 15 MLD of wastewater with influent BOD5 of 310 mg/L is to be designed. 35% of BOD5 is removed in primary classifier. The operating MLSS concentration in the aeration tank is proposed to be 2.400 mg/L and the sludge volume after 30 minutes settling in a 1000 mL graduated cylinder is 2.04 mL. Required hydraulic retention time is 7.5 hours. Compute the following with comments : i) SVI v) Inlet time = 15 min. vi) Given at d/Df = 0.8, v/Vf = 1.14, q/Qr = 0.968 Assume any other data as necessary. Also find out the velocities and discharge through the circular sewers M1 to M2 and M2 to M3 when flowing halffull. 4. a) Classify the different types of bacteria with respect to their energy and carbon sources? 3 t = Duration in Min. iii) Slope of the proposed sewer = 0.001 iv) Mannings coefficient of roughness = 0.011
ii) Sludge recirculation ratio and flow of return sludge. iii) volume of aeration tank. iv) F/M ratio v) volumetric loading rate vi) Sludge density index. 8. 7
b) Describe the different phases of growth pattern in pure culture in terms of bacterial number. If initial and final populations of microorganisms are observed as 103 and 108 respectively after 5 hours, find out the generation time. 5 1 2 c) What is the most probable number (MPN) of organisms using multiple-tube fermentation test? 3
a) For design of secondary classifier after a high rate tricking filter and after an activated sludge aeration tank : i) 4
What and why is the difference in flow considered for obtaining design overflow rate?
ii) State the role of weir loading rate and their respective usual maximum values.
d) The following information is available for a seeded 5 day BOD test conducted on a wastewater sample. 15 mL of the [ Turn over
( 6 ) retention time is 7.5 hours and design sludge volume index is 85. Develop the expression for sludge recirculation ratio with a flow diagram and compute the following with comments: i) ii) iii) v) sludge recirculation ratio and flow rate of return sludge volume of aeration tank F/m ratio volumetric loading rate. 10 Time : Three hours
Ex/CE/T/322/70/2011(S)
Waste Water Engineering
Full Marks : 100
Use a separate Answer -Script for each part. PART I Question no. 1 is compulsory Answer any two from the rest
x 1. a) b) c) d) e) f) g) h) 2. a)
(Assume any data, if required, reasonably)
Write short notes on the following (any five) : 5x3 = 15 Crown corrosion in sewers. Colour due to sulfide as an indicator of sewage condition. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB). Define CBOD and NBOD. Units of Alpha and Beta radiation. Define heterotrophic bacteria and autotrophic bacteria. Nutritional requirements for microbial growth. Drop manhole. What is the short-term variation of wastewater flow? What is the relation between average daily flow, maximum daily flow and minimum daily flow?
4 12
[ Turn Over ]
( 2 ) b) Discuss the characteristics of Indian general standards for discharge of wastewater. 3 Define the equation for determination BOD of a wastewater sample, when blank and seeded dilution water is used. 4 The 5 day 30 0C BOD of a sewage sample is 110 mg/l. Calculate its 6 day 15 0C BOD. Assume the BOD rate constant in base 10 at 20 C (KD20) is 0.1d-1. 6 3. a) What are the Indian bacteriological standards of drinking water? Why coliform bacteria are used as a pathogen 51 indicator in drinking water? 2 How the intensity duration frequency (IDF) curve is prepared for the rational method of runoff estimation? 5 Design a sewer running 0.8 times full at maximum discharge for a town provided with a separate system, serving a population of 90,000 persons. The water supplied from the water works to the town is @200 Ipcd. The sewer is made up of brick work plastered smooth with cement mortar (n = 0.013) and the permissible slope is 1 in 600. The variations of n with depth may be neglected. Given at d/D f = 0.8, v/Vf = 1.14, q/Qf = 0.968 with usual notations. Assume any other data not given and needed. 7 define nitrogen fixation, nitrogen assimilation, 6 12 nitrification and denitrification.
0
( 5 ) b) For a single stage high rate trickling filter the following data is given. i) ii) iii) iv) v) Wastewater to be treated = 20 MLD BOD5 of raw wastewater = 180 mg/L Effluent BOD5 = 30 mg/L Removal of BOD5 in primary sedimentation = 30% Allowable BOD5 Loading excluding recirculation = 0.8 kg/ day/m3. vi) Depth of filter = 1.8m Find : i) ii) iii) iv) Recirculation ratio Diameter of filters using 2 nos in parallel. Hydraulic loading rate (including recirculation) Organic loading rate (including recirculation) Give comments on the results. 8. a) 10
c)
d)
b)
c)
Briefly describe the intermediate and tertiary treatment of wastewater. 6
b)
A conventional activated sludge process for treating an average flow of 15000 m3/day of wastewater with BOD5 of 310 mg/L of raw wastewater is to be designed. 35% of BOD5 is removed in primary clasifier. The operating MLSS is proposed to be 2450 mg/L. Required hydraulic [ Turn Over ]
4. a)
( 4 ) iii) iv) Flow through velocity in grit chamber = 0.16 m/sec Minimum dia of grit particles to be removed 100% = 0.20mm. v) vi) vii) Sp. gr. of particles = 2.7 Depth/width ratio in grit channels = 1:1.5 Volume of grit particles = 0.08m3/1000m3 /day of wastewater. c) b)
( 3 ) Discuss the growth pattern of mixed culture of microorganisms. If initial and final populations of microorganisms are observed as 103 and 108 respectively after 5 hours, find out the generation time. 3+3 What is COD? What are the interferences observed during COD determination and how they are eliminated? 5

b)
All checks are to be shown. Sketch longitudinal section and end view showing flow control device properly. 9
PART II Answer any three questions. Two marks for neatness. Assume appropriate data not given.
Design a single circular radial flow secondary sedimentation tank for an activated sludge treatment plant for an average flow of 15 MLD operating with MLSS concentration of 2450 mg/L. Given : Peak factor (for flow rate) = 2.25 Surface loading rate at average flow = 20 m3/day/m2. 7 b) c) 5. a) Draw a typical flowsheet for primary treatment of municipal wastewater including sludge disposal system. 5 Why is it necessary to remove grit from wastewater? 4 Estimate a suitable screening arrangement for a plant treating a peak flow of 20 million litres per day (MLD) of wastewater. Clearly state the assumed data with reasons. 7 Design grit channels with flat surfaces controlled by downstream proportional flow weirs for a wastewater treatment plant using the following data : Peak flow rate = 45 MLD Wastewater temperature = 150C [ Turn Over ]
7. a)
Develop Rankins equation for efficiency of a single stage high rate trickling filter with a flow diagram. Mention the limitation for its application. Also find the BOD removal efficiency corresponding to usual maximum recirculation ratio provided for domestic wastewater treatment. 6 i) ii) 6. a)
Ex/CE/T/322/70/2011


Use a separate Answer-Script for each Part (50 marks for each part) PART - I Answer Q. No.1 is compulsory and any Two from the rest Assume any data, if required reasonably 1. Write short notes on the following (any five) a) b) c) d) Odour producing substances in sewage Septic zone in a river stream Field measurement of turbidity with Secchi disk Function and types of traps being used in sanitary plumbing system e) Different types synthetic organic pesticide present in wastewater f) g) Catch basins Halogenated hydrocarbons 5x3=15
2.
a)
What is Cationic detergents?
[ Turn over
-2-
- 7 -
b)
How the amountof proteins is estimated in the sewage from the nitrogen determination? 3
1000 mL graduated cylinder is 234 mL. Required hydraulic retention time is 7 hours. Compute the following with comments: i) ii) iii) iv) v) vi) 5VI Return sludge concentration Sludge recirculation ratio and flow of return sludge Volume of aeration tank F/M ratio Volumetric loading rate 3+6
c)
What are the factors affecting BOD first-order reaction rate constant (k)? 5A
d)
Determine the theoretical BOD5 / COD, BOD5 / TOC and TOC / COD ratios forthe following compound C5H7NO2 . Assume the value of the BOD first-order reaction rate constant (k) is 0.23 d
1
(base e)
3.
a)
What is an inverted siphon? What are the different types materials used for sewer construction? 4A b) Design a household septic tank including effluent disposal system with sub-surface soil dispension trenches for 25 users
b)
How the intensity duration frequency (IDF) curve is prepared for the rational method of run-off estimation? 4
with a probable peak discharge of 40 litre/minute. The basis for design is to be elaborated. No sketch is required. 7
c)
Define inlet time, time of flow and time of concentration for designing of storm sewer? 3
d)
Design a trunk sewer running 0.8 times full at maximum discharge for a town provided with a separate system, serving a population of 1,00,000 persons. The water supplied from the water works to the town is @ 250 lpcd. The sewer is made up of cement concrete (n = 0.015) and the permissible slope is 1 in 700. Given at d / Df= 0.8, v / Vf = 1.14, q / Q f = 0.968. Assume any other necessary data reasonably. 6
- 6 -
- 3 -
7.
a)
How the aerobic condition is maintained in a triskling filter? 3
4.
a)
Discuss the significance of nitrification and denitrification in degradation of organic matter present in wastewater. 3A
b)
A single unit high rate triskling filter is to be designed to treat 3000 m3/day of primary settled wastewater having a BOD5 of 200 mg/L. The BOD5 loading (excluding recirculation) is 0.75 kg/day/m . BOD5 of the final effluent is 30 mg/L. Compute the recirculation ratio and design the triskling filter with comments. 6
3
b)
Discuss the role of Chemo-heterotrophic bacteria in biological treatment process of wastewater. 3
c)
Discuss the role of fungi for degradation of pollutants in wastewater. 3
d)
Describe the different phases of growth pattern in pure culture in terms of bacterial mass. 3
c)
Using relevant data of question 3(b), compute the size of a low rate triskling filter (without recirculation) to achieve same BOD5 removal efficiency as in question 3(b). 3
e)
What is the most probable number (MPN) of organisms using multiple-tube fermentation test? 5
The results of a coliform analysis using the multiple-tube fermentation test for an effluent are as given below. Determine MPN/100 ml using Thomas equation. Size of portion (ml) 1.0 0.1 0.01 0.001 Number positive 4 3 2 0 Number negative 1 2 3 5 4
d)
Highlight with sketches the advantages of tappered aevation process.
8.
a)
Give a labelled flow diagram of a conventional activated sludge process (related portion) and differentiate between hydraulic retention time and solids retention time with their espression. A conventional activated sludge process for treating an avarage flow of 22 MLD of wastewater with influent BOD5 of 270 mg/L is to be designed. 30% of BOD5is removed in the primary sedimentation tank. The operating MLSS concentration in the aeration tank is proposed to be 2600 mg/L and the sludge volume after 30 minute settling in a
[ Turn over
- 4 -
- 5 -
PART - II Answer any Three questions Two marks for neatness Assume appropriate data not given
Why horizontal flow through velocity is maintained constant in a grit chamber at all flow rates? The channel prifile of a grit chamber should be rectangular if a proportional flow weir is placed at the exit end of the channel discuss and prove mathematically.
5.
a)
Using the following data compute : i) ii) width of screen chamber
5x3=15
Also give labelled sketches for longitudinal section and end view of channel showing flow control device. 2+2+6
head losswhen screens are half-plugged. Check the value and state its significance in the operation of screen. Average flow Peak factor Clean spacing between bars width/thickness of flats/bars velocity through screen depth of liquid at upstream of screen = 0.55 m 6 = 0.85 m/sec = 13 mm = 25 million litres/day(MLD) = 2.2 = 35 mm
6.
a)
Discuss the significance of detention period in relation to removal of suspended solids and BOD in a primary clarifier. 4
b)
Design a single circular radial flow secondary sedimentation tank for an activated sludge treatment plant for a peak flow of 45 MLD operating with MLSS concentration of 2500 mg/L. Given : Peak factor (for flow rate) = 2.25 Surface Loading rate at average flow = 20m3/day/m2 6
c)
Give a sketch of an aerobic biological reactor showing inputs and outputs and mention three processes occuring within the reactor giving the reactions. In this connection compare anaerobic (giving reaction) and aerobic treatment processes. 6
b)
Why grit chamber is placed before primary sedimentation tank?
[ Turn over
[6] b) Purposes of recirculation in trickling filter and the range of recirculation ratio provided for domestic wastewater treatment. c) Rotating biological contactor. d) Tapered aeration activated sludge process.
Ex/CE/T/322/70/2012 (S)


Time : Three hours ( 50 marks for each part ) Use a separate Answer-Script for each part PART - I Question no. 1 is compulsory. Answer any two questions from the rest. (Assume any data, if required, reasonably) 1. Write short notes on the following (any five) : 54=20 Full Marks : 100
1. Significance of different types of sanitary plumbing system. 2. Crown corrosion in sewers. 3. Different zones of pollution in river streams. 4. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). 5. Define CBOD and NBOD. 6. Significance of chemo-heterotrophic bacteria in waste water treatment. 7. Bacterial growth pattern in pure culture batch reactor. 8. Drop manhole. 2. a) What are the factors affecting wastewater generation? 5
[ Turn over
[2] b) Discuss the characteristics of Indian general standards for discharge of wastewater. 5 7.
[5] a) A conventional activated sludge process for treating 12 MLD of wastewater with influent BOD5 of 300 mg/L is to be designed. 30% of BOD5 is removed in primary clarifier. The operating MLSS is proposed to be 2400 mg/L. Required hydraulic retention time is 8 hours and design sludge volume
c) Determine the CBOD, NBOD and ThOD for 0.1 M solution of [CH2(NH2)COOH]. 3. 5
a) How the intensity duration frequency (IDF) curve is prepared for the rational method of runoff estimation? 7
index is 90. Develop a relation among MLSS concentration, sludge recirculation ratio and SVI with a flow diagram and compute the following with comments : i) Sludge recirculation ratio and flow rate of return sludge
b) Design a sewer running 0.75 times full at maximum discharge for a town provided with a separate system, serving a population of 80,000 persons. The water supplied from the water works to the town is @ 190 lpcd. The sewer is made up of brick work plastered smooth with cement mortar (n = 0.013) and the permissible slope is 1 in 600. The variations of n with depth may be neglected. Given at
d/D f = 0.8 , v/Vf = 1.14, q/Qf = 0.968 and d/Df = 0.7,
ii) Volume of aeration tank iii) F/M ratio iv) Volumetric loading rate v) Sludge density index. 8. 10
v/Vf = 1.12, q/Q = 0.838 (with usual notations). Assume any other data not given and needed. 4. 8
b) Design a circular secondary clarifier for the activated sludge process of question 3(a) using relevant data therefrom. Given : Peak factor (for flow rate) = 2. 2 Surface loading rate at average flow = 20 m3 /day/m2 . 6 16
a) Why coliform bacteria are used as a pathogen indicator in drinking water? b) What is MPN test? 4 5
c) In determining the BOD5 of a sample, an analyst added 2 and 5 ml of sample to two different 300ml BOD bottles and filled them with seeded dilution water. The analyst also prepared two bank bottles with the same dilution water and incubated 9.
Write short notes on :
a) Necessity of and the principle for the removal of oil and grease from wastewater. [ Turn over
[4] iv) minimum dia of grit particles to be removed 100% = 0. 2 mm v) Sp. gr. of particles = 2. 70 vi) depth / width ratio = 1 : 1.5 vii) Volume of grit particles = 0. 08 m3/1000 m3/day
l l
[3] the set at 20o C for 5 days. D.O. measurements were made on the samples before and after. The following are the results.
All checks are to be shown. Sketch three (3) views of grit channels with dimension showing flow control device properly. 10
Sample size in bottle (ml) Initial D.O. (mg/l) Final D.O. (mg/l) 2 81 56 5 80 17 Blank average 82 80
What is BOD5 of the sample? PART - II Answer any three questions. Two marks for neatness. Assume appropriate data not given. 5. a) Draw a flow diagram for the treatment of domestic wastewater including sludge disposal system using, among other units, two-stage trickling filter, intermediate clarifier and sludge thickener. Also briefly explain the purpose of the sludge thickener. 6 b) Design grit channels with flat surfaces controlled by proportional flow weirs at exit end for a wastewater treatment plant using the following data : i) Peak flow rate = 4-5 million litres/day (MLD)
6.
a) Develop Rankins equation for efficiency of a single stage high rate trickling filter with a flow diagram. Mention the limitation for its application. 5
b) A single stage high rate trickling filter is to be designed to treat 3000 m3 /day of primary settled wastewater having a BOD5 of 200 mg/L. The BOD5 loading (excluding recirculation) is 0. 75 kg.day/m3 . BOD5 of the treated final effluent is 30 mg/L. Depth of the filter media is 1.5 m. Compute the recirculation ratio and design the trickling filter with comments. 7
c) Using relevant data of question 2(b), compute the size of a low rate trickling filter (without recirculation) to achieve same BOD5 removal efficiency as in question 2(b). Given depth of filter media = 2m. 4
ii) Wastewater temp = 15o C iii) flow through velocity in grit chamber = 0.16 m/sec [ Turn over

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