CBSE Class 9 - Social Science - CH3 - Drainage

Drainage

Rivers of India
credits:wikipedia

Questions asked in CBSE papers

Q1(CBSE 2011): Describe the following drainage patterns of streams:
(ii) Dendritic
(iii) Trellis
(31 = 3 marks)

(i) Radial

Q2(CBSE 2011): Two features (A) and (B) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify
these features with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in
the map.
(A) A mountain range
(B) A river
(4 marks)

Q3(CBSE 2010): Which three rivers system forms the Himalayan river system?
Answer:
1. The Indus River system
2. The Ganga River System
3. The Brahmaputra River System
Q4(CBSE 2010): Describe the three main features of river Brahmaputra.
Answers:
1. Chemayungdung glacier (5150m) on the Kailas range about 100 km from the Manasarowar
lake in Tibet is the source of the river Brahmaputra.
2. Having a length of 2900 km, the Brahmaputra is one of the longest rivers of the world.
3. Flows through Tibet, India and Bangladesh.
4. Makes the world's largest delta jointly with Ganga.
5. Tista, Manas, Luhit and Subansiri are the important tributaries.
6. In Indian part, gets voluminous supply of water due to heavy rains and draining of tributaries.
So it carries heavy load of silt during its course.
7. Every year during the rainy season, the river overflows its banks and cause devastating floods
in Assam and Bangladesh.
Q5(CBSE 2010/2011): Describe the three main features of Narmada Basin.
Q6(CBSE 2010): Give any three differences between peninsular and Himalayan rivers.
Q7(CBSE 2010): Explain the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) in brief.
Q8(CBSE 2010): Give any three differences between peninsular and Himalayan rivers.
Answer:

Himalayan Rivers

Peninsular Rivers
1. Supply of water largely depends on
1. Glaciers are the source of most of the Himalayan
monsoon rain. These are seasonal and
rivers. Perennial in nature and exhibit smaller
exhibit large variation in volume
variation in volume throughout year.
throughout year.
2. Wide and Shallow valleys occupied by
2. Gorges carved by them indicate these rivers are
these rivers tell that these have reached
young.
their age.
3. Have large basins and catchment areas.
3. Small basins and catchment areas
4. Do intense erosional activities
4. Do little erosional activities.
5. Generally, these rivers have straight
5. In lower courses develop meanders.
courses.
6. Longer courses passing through mountains, plains 6. Smaller courses flow through plateau
and delta regions.
and coastal plains.
7. Frequent intense floods
7. Less frequent as well as less intense.
8. Great potential for hydro power. Brings benefits 8. Limited use of irrigation and power
for irrigation and navigation.
generation. Low feasibility for power

Himalayan Rivers

Peninsular Rivers
plants.

Q9(CBSE 2010): Where does river Brahmaputra rise? Where does it enter into India? Name two of its
tributaries.
Q10(CBSE 2010): What is the difference between tributary and the distributary? Write any three points.
Q11(CBSE 2011): How are the West flowing rivers different from the East flowing rivers of Peninsular
Plateau? Give any three points of distinction.
Answer:

East Flowing Peninsular Rivers

1. Major Rivers: Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari
and Kaveri
2. Rivers drain into Bay of Bengal
3. Flow through wide shallow valleys and form
deltas at their mouth.
4. Have large basins

West Flowing Peninsular Rivers

1. Narmada, Tapi and Mahi
2. These rivers fall into the Arabian Sea.
3. Flows through narrow rift valleys and enter
sea through estuaries.
4. Have smaller basins

Q12(CBSE 2011): Two features (A) and (B) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify
these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn
on the map :
(A) Northern part of the Western coastal strip.
(B) A river of South India.
Locate and label the following on the same political outline map of India :
(1) Anai Mudi
(2) Southern most point of the main land of India.

Q13(CBSE 2011): Define Drainage basin and describe two patterns of drainage in India. (1+2 = 3 marks)
Q14: (a) Explain the formation of fresh water lakes in the Himalayan region. Give two examples of fresh
water lakes of this region.
(b) How is Sambhar lake useful ?
(1+2 = 3 marks)
Q15: Which of the factors mainly controls the drainage system of the Indian subcontinent? Into which
major groups are the Indian rivers divided? Write three points of difference between the two.
Q16(CBSE 2011): Where does the river Indus rise from ? What is its length ? Write any two tributaries of
river Indus.
Q17(CBSE 2010): How does a river affect the economy of a country?

(3 marks)

Answer: (Explain the following Hints)

1. Basic natural resource - essential for various human activities.
2. Civilizations started at river banks. Settlements turned into big cities.
3. Livelihood of the majority of its population - irrigation for agriculture, fisheries
4. Other Major uses like navigation, hydro-power generation
Q18(CBSE 2010): Name any two major river systems of the Himalayan region. Describe any one in
detail.
(4marks)
Q19(CBSE 2011): Explain any three causes of river water pollution ?
Q(CBSE 2011): What are the three main causes of river pollution ? Suggest some way to overcome each of
them ?

Q20(CBSE 2011): Two features (A) and (B) are marked on the political outline map of India. Identify these
features with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines mark in the map :
(A) A Himalayan Range
(B) A River
And
Locate and label the following on the same political outline map of India. (1) Nanda Devi (2) Southern
most point of mainland of India. (2+2=4 marks)

Q21(CBSE 2011): Write any three characteristic features of the Peninsular rivers?
Q22: Where does river Narmada originate? Name any two picturesque locations formed by it.
Answer: The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh. It flows towards the west
in a rift valley formed due to faulting.
The Marble rocks, near Jabalpur where the Narmada flows through a deep gorge, and the Dhuadhar
falls where the river plunges over steep rocks, are some of picturesque locations.
Q23: Name the long rivers which flow west and form esturies.
Answer: The Narmada and the Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow west and make esturies.
Q24: What is special about Sivasamudram?
Answer: The river Kaveri makes the second biggest waterfall in India. It is known as Sivasamudram. The
fall supplies hydroelectric power to Mysore, Bangalore and the Kolar Gold Field.

THURSDAY, MAY 17, 2012

Class 9 - Economics - CH1 - The Story of Village Palampur

MCQs, NCERT Solution and Questions with answers asked in
Examination papers
Concept Map

MCQs
Q1: Which one of the following inputs is not a working capital?
(a) Machines
(b) Raw-materials
(c) Money
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Machines
Q2: Which one of the following states was among the first to try out modern farming methods in India?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Haryana
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa

Answer: (b) Haryana

Q3: Which of the following is a fixed capital?
(a) Clay
(b) Yarn
(c) Tools
(d) Seeds
Answer: (c) Tools
Q4: Which of the following is an example of working capital?
(a) Tools
(b) Machines
(c) Raw Materials
(d) Buildings
Answer: (c) Raw Materials
Q5: Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?
(a) Land
(b) Capital
(c) Labour
(d) Tools
Answer: (c) Labour
Q6: Multiple Cropping refers to:
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) Cultivation of two crops in alternative rows.
(c) Cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year.
(d) Cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm.
Answer: (c) Cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year.

Q7: High yielding variety seeds (HYV) were introduced to Indian farmers as a result of
(a) White Revolution
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Orange Revolution
(d) Red Revolution
Answer: (b) Green Revolution
Q8: Jowar and Bajra are:
(a) Kharif crops
(b) Rabi crops
(c) Zaid crops
(d) All of these
Answer: (a) Kharif crops
Q9: Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping? Choose the correct answer.
(a) Because the water consumption is less in this method
(b) Because this method consumes less chemical fertilisers

(c) Because this method doesn't require fertile soils

(d) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production
Answer: (d) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production
Q10: Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Crop rotation
(c) Dairy farming
(d) Modern farming
Answer: (c) Dairy farming
Q11(NCERT): Every village in India is surveyed once is ten years during the Census and some of details
are presented in the following format. Fill up the following based on information on Palampur.
Answer:
a. LOCATION: near to Raiganj Village and Shapur town.
b. TOTAL AREA OF THE VILLAGE: 226 hectares
c. LAND USE (in hectares): 226 hectares

Cultivated Land
Irrigated
Unirrigated
200 Hectares
0 Hectares

Land not available for cultivation

(Area covering dwellings, roads, ponds, grazing ground)
26 Hectares

d. FACILITIES:

Educational

One High School and Two Primary Schools

Medical

One Government run Primary Health Center

One Private Dispensary

Market

A small market

Electricity Supply

Most of the houses have electric connections.

Communication

Post, Television, Telephone and Transport facilities

Nearest Town

Shapur

Q12: What is the main production activity in villages across India?

Answer: Farming
Q13: Name any two non-farming activities in Palampur village.
Answer: Small-scale manufacturing, dairy, transport etc.
Q14: Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?

Answer: No doubt, modern farming requires more inputs than traditional farming. These are:
chemical fertilizers,

pesticides,

pump sets,

farm machinery,

electricity,

diesel,

HYV seeds,

water supply
Most of these inputs like fertilizers, tools and implements are manufactured in industry. HYV seeds are
developed in agriculture research laboratories. Machine industry provide various kinds of implements,
irrigation pumps and farming machinery to improve the productivity and minimize farming efforts.
Chemical and soil engineering based industry provide fertilizers and pesticides to boost agriculture. Water
supply is done by canals and tanks. Electricity is supplied by power houses.
Q15: What is the aim of production?
Answer: The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.

Q16: Name the four factors that are needed for producing goods and services. (1 mark)
Answer:
Land

Labour

Capital

Knowledge and Enterprise

Q17: Who owns the majority of land in Palampur village?
Answer: 80 upper caste families own the majority of land in Palampur village.
Q18: What health facilities are available in Palampur village?
Answer: Palampur has a primary health centre run by the government. It also has one private dispensary.
Q19: What is the main aim of production?
Answer: The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.
Q20: Which if the following is the standard unit of measuring land?
(a) bigha
(b) guintha
(c) hectare
(d) quila
Answer: (c) hectare
Q21: How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur?
Answer: The spread of electricity has helped the farmers of Palampur village in the following manner:
1.
Electricity came early to Palampur. Its major impact was to transform the system of
irrigation.Larger area can be irrigated with the help of tube wells.
2.
Most of the houses have electrical connections.
3.
Electricity is also in small business units.
Q22: Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?

Answer: Yes it is very important to increase the are under irrigation in order to meet the demand of
growing population of our country.
Of the total cultivated area in the country a little less than 40 per cent is irrigated even today.
In the remaining areas, farming is largely dependent on rainfall.

Modern farming methods though effective have their own limitations and require adequate water
supply.
Thus in order to be self sufficient in food, it is necessary to increase the area of irrigation.
Q23: What are the essential four requirements for production? (3-5 marks)
OR
Q(CBSE): Explain the four requirements of the production of goods & services.
Answer: Four essential requirements for production of goods and services are:
1.
Land and other natural resources i.e. water, forests, minerals etc.
2.
Labour,: People who do the work. A worker provides the labour necessary for production.
3.
Physical Capital: variety of inputs required at different stages of production.
4.
Knowledge and Enterprise: Knowledge and enterprise to be able to put together land, labour
and physical capital and produce an output.
Q24: Who are small farmers?
Answer: Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are regarded as small farmers.
Q25: Who are medium farmers?
Answer: Farmers who own more than 2 hectares but less than 10 hectares of land.
Q26: Who are large farmers?
Answer: Farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land.
Q27: What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from the surplus farm produce?
Answer: Medium and large farmers sell the surplus produce to market and have good earnings. A part of
the earnings from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. They use
their earning to buy tractor or set up shops. A part of the earning is used in lending to small farmers who
need loan.
Q28: What do you mean by multiple cropping?
Answer: Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping. It
is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land. All farmers in
Palampur grow at least two main crops, Jowar & Bajra and Wheat. Many others have grown potato as the
third crop for the past twenty years.
Q29: Name the states who benefited the most from Green Revolution.
Answer: Haryana, Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh.
Q30: List the non-farming activities in Palampur.

Answer:
Dairy

Small scale manufacturing

Shop-keeping

Transport

Q31: Who are small farmers?

Answer: Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are categorized as small farmers.
Q32: Who are medium farmers?
Answer: Farmers owning more than 2 hectares but less than 10 hectares.
Q33: Who are large farmers?
Answer: Farmers owning more than 10 hectares of land.
Q34: Why do the farm labourers earn less than the minimum wages in Palampur?
Answer: The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is Rs 60 per day. But the farm
labourers earn less than this amount because there is heavy competition for work among the
farm labourers in Palampur. So, people agree to work for lower wages.

FRIDAY, JUNE 1, 2012

CBSE - Class 9 - Political Science- CH1- Democracy in

Contemporary World

Poll Box

(source:openclipart.org)

MCQs, NCERT Chapter Solutions and other Q & A

Q1: Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by the people
(b) Invasion by foreign countries
(c) End of colonialism
(d) Peoples desire for freedom
Answer: (b) Invasion by foreign countries

Q2: Which of the following statement is true about todays world?

(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished
(b) The relationship between different countries has become more democratic than ever before.
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.
Answer: (c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.
Q3: Use one of the following statements to complete the sentence:
Democracy in the international organisations requires that
(a) The rich countries should have a greater say.
(b) Countries should have a say according to their military power.
(c) Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population.
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.
Answer: (d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.
Q4: Based on the information given in this chapter, match the following countries and the path
democracy has taken in that country.

COUNTRY
a Chile
b Nepal
c Poland
d Ghana

PATH TO DEMOCRACY
i Freedom from British colonial rule
ii End of military dictatorship
iii End of one party rule
iv King agreed to give up his powers

Answer: a-ii , b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Q5(CBSE 2010):Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) America became independent from British rule in 1776
(b) They adopted a democratic constitution in 1787
(c) Many countries in Europe gave right to vote to only propertied people
(d) In United States of America all the citizens including Blacks were given right to vote from the
beginning.
Answer: (d) In United States of America all the citizens including Blacks were given right to
vote from the beginning.

Q6: How many member states are there in the International Monetary Fund?
(a) 173
(b) 192
(c) 200
(d) 190
Answer: (a) 173
Q7(CBSE 2010): Which country among the following was the only country by 1900, where every citizen had
voting right?
OR
Q: Which one of the following countries was the first to grant "Universal Suffrage"?
(a) Australia
(b) New Zealand
(c) Poland
(d) USA
Answer: (b) New Zealand
Q8: Which country supported and controlled the autocratic government in Poland?
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) UK
Answer: (c) Russia
Q9(CBSE 2010): Who was the leader of Solidarity Movement in Poland?
(a) Michelle Bachelete
(b) Salvador Allende
(c) Lech Walesa
(d) Pinochet
Answer: (c) Lech Walesa
Q10: Why was International Monetary Fund established?
(a) To maintain peace and security among the countries
(b) Lends money to governments of member nations when in need
(c) To implement and formulate trade agreements
(d) To take decision regarding misery and poverty of western countries
Answer: (b) Lends money to governments of member nations when in need
Q11: Which one of the following countries is not a permanent member of UN Security Council?
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) Russia
Answer: (c) Japan
Q12: Which freedoms are ususally taken away when a democracy is overthrown by the military?
Answer:

1.
Political Freedom is lost. When a democracy is overthrown by the military, the
freedom to choose their leader is snatched away. E.g. In Chile and in Mynmar people could
not elect their leaders due to military rule.
2.
Civil Freedom is curtailed. There is no real freedom to express ones opinions,
form political associations and organise protests and political action.
3.
Democratic and Constitutional (freedom)rights are lost. Anyone can be put in
prison for trivial reasons.
Q 13: What are the difficulties people face in a non-democratic country? Give answers drawing
from the examples given in this chapter.
Answer:
1.
The people cannot not choose or change their rulers. E.g. In Chile, Mynmar people
could not elect their leaders due to military rule.
2.
There was is real freedom to express ones opinions. There is fear that they can be
arrested for any trivial matter. E.g. in Poland in 1980, it was prohibited to form another
political party or association.
3.

They cannot form political associations and organize protests and political action.

4.
In general, non-democratic rulers, directly or indirectly, are controlled by the
business elite who have vested interests. Economic development growth is arrested and
socio-economic conditions of the poor people deteriorate.
Q 14: Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give
reasons for your answer in each case.
a My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with
more respect and exercise more power.
b My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be heard with equal respect, because these
decisions will affect my country.
c Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests
suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
d Big countries like India must have a greater say in international organisations.
Answer:
(a) NO, it does not promote democracy. Democracy ensures equality irrespective the person
or the country is rich or poor.
(b) Yes, the statement supports democracy. The basic objective of democracy is to provide
equality and it should work the betterment for all sections of the society.
(c) No, it does not contribute to the spirit of democracy. Democracy ensures equal
opportunities for both poor and rich. Otherwise, international policies will be governed by
the rich countries.
(d) No, it does not support democracy fully. India being developing nation and the most
populous state, represent the voice of the masses. Her opinions must be valued and heard
at international arena, but any country should not be privileged based on geographical or
population size.
Q15: Which East European countries were ruled by the communist parties in 1980s?

Answer: East European countries ruled by the communist parties in 1980s were:
1.
Poland
2.

Russia

3.

Ukraine

4.

Romania

5.
Bulgaria
Q16: Here are three opinions heard in a television debate on the struggle for democracy in Nepal.
Which of these do you agree with and why?
Guest 1: India is a democracy. Therefore, the Indian government must support the people of Nepal
who are struggling against monarchy and for democracy.
Guest 2: That is a dangerous argument. We would be in the same position as the US was in Iraq.
Remember, no outside force can promote democracy.
Guest 3: But why should we bother about the internal affairs of another country? We should be
worried about our business interests there, not about democracy.
Answer: I agree with Statement made by Guest 1. India became a democratic republic after
a long struggle for Independence. It values democratic principles and has been a promoter
of peace and non-violence. By following democratic and non-violent approaches at
international forum (e.g. public opinion, debates etc.) it can support people of Nepal restore
democracy.
Q17(CBSE): Which one of the following is the best way to establish democracy in a country?
(a) Foreign aggression by a democratic country
(b) Peoples struggle within their own country.
(c) Resolution by the U.N. General Assembly.
(d) Voluntary support by the majority of the people.
Answer: (d) Voluntary support by the majority of the people.
Q18: What reforms were carried out by Allende in Chile? How was it taken by opposition parties?
Answer: Allende as the president of Chile introduced a number of social reforms.
1.
He took several policy decisions to help the poor and the workers.
2.

He introduced reforms to the educational system.

3.

He provided free milk for children and redistribution of land to the landless farmers.

4.
He opposed to foreign companies taking away natural resources like copper from the
country.
The rich, capitalists, the Church and the opposition parties were against his policies specially
distribution of land to landless farmers and his opposition towards foreign companies.
Q19: Why did USA support the military coup in Chile in 1973?
Answer: USA being a capitalist country was against the policies of socialist president
Allende. They supported the military and the capitalists of Chile who were opposing
Allende's social reforms.
Q20(CBSE 2010): A direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a
particular proposal.
(a) Plebiscite

(b) Referendum
(c) Recall
(d) Veto
Answer: (b) Referendum
(Note: Plebiscite also mean referendum, From NCERT book definition, answer should should
be 'referendum')
Q21: What did Allende hope for in his last address?
Answer: During the coup, when democratic government was toppled, Allende addressed to
his nation. He hoped that Democracy would be restored and felony, cowardice and treason
would be finally punished.
Q22: Why were women given voting rights much later than men in the most countries? Why did this
not happen in India?
Answer: Although political struggle for democracy started since nineteenth century and
many European countries became democratic by the beginning of the twentieth century. At
that time women were not given voting rights, because they were not being considered
equal. Their political representation was given enough importance. The were granted rights
much later than men. In India this was not the case. The Constitution of India granted
universal suffrage to all its citizens irrespective they belong to different gender or
community or caste.
Q23: What was the 'voting rights' situation in USA after she adopted constitution? When was
universal adult franchise granted there?
Answer: USA adopted constitution in 1787, but here too the right to vote was limited to
very few men. In 1965, after a long struggle, universal adult franchise was granted to all
citizens, including women and Afro-americans.
Q24: The disintegration of the Soviet Union accelerated the process of expansion of democracy.
Give reasons.
Answer: After 1980, the disintegration of the Soviet Union accelerated the process of
democracy.
1.
Soviet Union controlled several European countries and all of them were communist
governments.
2.
Poland and several other countries became free from the control of the Soviet Union
during 1989-90. They chose to become democracies.
3.
The Soviet Union comprised of 15 republics emerged as independent
democratic countries after the USSR broke down.
Q25: Who was Lech Walesa? How did he become famous in Poland?

Answer: Lech Walesa was a former electrician of Lenin Shipyard in the city of
Gdansk. He joined and led the strikers who
demanded for higher wages,

right to form independent trade unions,

the release of political prisoners and

an end to censorship on press.

Finally the Polish government gave in and signed 21-point agreement with Lech Walesa and
his workers. A new trade union called Solidarity was formed under his leadership. General
Jaruzeleski imposed martial law which led to another wave of strikes by Solidarity. Later in
1988, the union won elections with absolute majority and Walesa was elected as the
president of Poland.
Q26(CBSE): How democratic is the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
Answer:
1.
IMF a special agency affiliated with United Nations has been one of the biggest
moneylender for any country in the world.
2.
Its working is not fairly democratic because its 185 members do not have equal
voting rights.
3.
IMF.

The vote of each country is weighed by how much money it has contributed to the

4.
Since the top 10 developed countries have large contributions, they have a major
say in IMF. These 10 countries have More than 54%of the voting power in the IMF.
5.
While the remaining 175 countries have negligible participation in IMF policy making.
This is undemocratic.
Q27: What happened to democracy in Ghana?
Answer:
1.
Ghana (earlier called Gold Coast), used to be a British Colony, got independent in
1957.
2.
Kwame Nkrumah, son of a goldsmith and himself a teacher played an active role in
independence struggle.
3.

After independence, he became first prime minister and then the president of Ghana.

4.

Later he declared himself as elected president for life and established dictatorship.

5.
In 1966, he was overthrown by the military and Ghana couldnt remain a democratic
nation for long.
Q28: Which among the following was NOT the demand raised by striking workers in Poland?
(a) Right to form trade unions
(b) Release of Political Prisoners
(c) Stepping down of Communists
(d) End of censorship on press.
Answer: (c) Stepping down of Communists
Q29: Who among the following had replaced Salvador Allende?
(a) General Augusto Pinochet
(b) General Jeruzelski
(c) Lech Walesa
(d) Michelle Bachelet
Answer: (a) General Augusto Pinochet

MONDAY, AUGUST 20, 2012

CBSE Class 9 - Social Science - Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Charlie Chaplin as Hilter in 'The Great Dictator'

The two contemporaries... Chaplin who won heart of millions
and other killed millions!
image credits:wikipedia

MCQs
Q1: When the First World War was fought?
(a) 1911-1914
(b) 1914-1918
(c) 1916-1920

(d) 1941-1945
Q2: During First World War against whom Germany did not fight?
(a) Austria
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Belgium

Q3(CBSE 2010): Reichstag refers to

(a) Imperial German
(b) German Parliament
(c) French Parliament
(d) Imperial England
Q4: Who from the following were not 'November Criminals'?
(a) Socialists
(b) Spartacists
(c) Catholics
(d) Democrats
Q5: Why Weimar Republic was called 'November Criminals'?
(a) because they signed armistice agreement and conceded Germany to Allies
(b) because they crushed Spartacists with the help of Free Corps
(c) because they misused Article 48
(d) they secured loans from USA.
Q6(CBSE 2010): Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler?
(a) Hjalmar Schacht
(b) Hindenburg
(c) Goebbels
(d) Helmuth
Q7: What was Dawes Plan?
(a) A plan secure loans from US bankers.
(b) A plan to ease reparation terms on Germany
(c) A plan to overtake Rhineland mines
(d) An extension of Versailles treaty.
Q8(CBSE 2010): What was the name given to gas chambers by Nazis ?
(a) Killing Machine
(b) Solution Areas
(c) Revolutionary Ground
(d) Disinfection Areas
Q9(CBSE 2010): Hitler took over the German Workers Party and renamed it as:
(a) Secular German Workers
(b) Socialist Workers of Germany
(c) National Socialist Party
(d) National Workers of Germany
Q10(CBSE 2010): The Great Depression was a period of:
(a) Political crisis
(b) Social crisis
(c) Global crisis

(d) Economic crisis

Q11: US entered into World War II due to
(a) annexation of Poland by Germany
(b) aerial bombing on London
(c) Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour
(d) non payment of reparation dues by Germans
Q12(CBSE 2010): Who among the following was assigned the responsibility of economic recovery
by Hitler?
(a) Goebbels
(b) Hindenburg
(c) Hjalmar Schacht
(d) Adam Smith
Q13(CBSE 2010): The Nazi party became the largest party by
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1933
Q14: When did Hitler join German Workers Party?
(a) 1918
(b) 1919
(c) 1920
(d) 1921
Q15: When did Hitler try to seize control of Bavaria and capture Berlin?
(a) 1919
(b) 1923
(c) 1929
(d) 1933
Q16(CBSE 2010): Who amongst these offered Chancellorship to Hitler?
(a) Churchil
(b) Goebbels
(c) Helmuth
(d) Hindenburg
Q17: When did Hitler become Chancellor of Germany?
(a) January 30, 1923
(b) January 30, 1929
(c) January 30, 1933
(d) March 3, 1933

Answer:
1. (b) 1914-1918
2. (a) Austria
3. (b) German Parliament
4. (b) Spartacists
5. (a) because they signed armistice agreement and conceded Germany to Allies
6. (c) Goebbels
7. (b) A plan to ease reparation terms on Germany
8. (d) Disinfection Areas

9. (c) National Socialist Party

10. (d) Economic crisis
11. (c) Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour
12. (c) Hjalmar Schacht
13. (c) 1932 (acquired 37 percent votes)
14. (b) 1919
15. (b) 1923
16. (d) Hindenburg
17. (c) January 30, 1933
Q18(NCERT): Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.
or
What factors were responsible for Hitler's rise in Power?
Answer:

Q19: What were the terms of Versailles Treaty? What was the main objective of this treaty?
Answer:

Q20: What do you mean by Nazism? (1 mark)

Answer: Nazism was a political system introduced by Hitler in Germany. Its ideology was based on
dictatorship and fascism which propagate extreme hatred against other communities specially Jews.
Q21: Who were called the November criminals? Why?

(2 marks)

Answer: They were the politicians and people who supported the Weimar Republic. Mainly they were
Socialists, Catholics and Democrats. They became easy targets of attack in the conservative nationalist
circles because they were responsible for unjustice done on Germany by signing Versailles treaty. They
were mockingly called the November criminals.
Q22(NCERT): Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.
Answer:

Q23(CBSE 2010): Examine any three inherent defects in the Weimar Constitution.
Answer: The Weimar constitution had some inherent defects, which made it unstable and vulnerable to
dictatorship. These were:
1. Proportional Representation: This made achieving a majority by any one party a near
impossible task, leading to a rule by coalitions.
2. Article 48 which gave the President the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and
rule by decree.
3. Within its short life, the Weimar Republic saw twenty different cabinets lasting on an average
239 days, and a liberal use of Article 48.
4. People lost confidence in the democratic parliamentary system, which seemed to offer no
solutions.
Q24(CBSE 2010): What were the promises made by Hitler to people of Germany?
Answer: To gain power, Hitler made following promises to people of Germany:
1. He promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the
dignity of the German people.
2. He promised employment for those looking for work, and a secure future for the youth.
3. He promised to weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign conspiracies against
Germany.
Q25(CBSE SQP): Explain any three effects of Nazism on the school system?
or
Q(CBSE 2010):What do you know about Nazi Schooling?
Answer: Effects of Nazism on the school system were:
1. All schools were cleansed and purified i.e. teachers who were Jews or seen as politically
unreliable were dismissed.

2. Children were first segregated. German and Jews could not sit together or play together.
3. Subsequently, undesirable children Jews, the physically handicapped, Gypsies were
thrown out of schools.
4. Good German children were subjected to prolonged period of Nazi Schooling.
5. School textbooks were rewritten. Racial science was introduced to justify Nazi ideas of race.
6. Ten-year-olds had to enter Jungvolk. At 14, all boys had to join the Nazi youth organisation
Hitler Youth.
Q26: What did the German children learn after Nazi schooling? (2 mark)
Answer: They learnt to worship war, glorify aggression and violence, condemn democracy, and hate
Jews, communists, Gypsies and all those categorised as undesirable. Children were taught to be loyal
and submissive, hate Jews, and worship Hitler.

Nazi Poster
credits:WWII Posters

Q27: Explain any five features of political policy adopted by Hitler after coming to power in 1933.
Answer: Policies adopted by Hitler once he came to power in 1933.
1. Suspended civil Rights.
2. Introduced Enabling Act which gave him all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree.
3. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates.
4. Established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.
5. Special surveillance and security forces (Gestapo, SA and SS) were created to control and
order society in ways that the Nazis wanted.
6. Sent communists and other opponents to concentration camps.

Q28(CBSE 2010): How was the Weimar Republic born in Germany? Explain.
Answer:
1. The defeat of Imperial Germany and the abdication of the emperor gave an opportunity to
parliamentary parties to recast German polity.
2. A National Assembly met at Weimar and established a democratic constitution with a federal
structure.
3. Deputies were now elected to the German Parliament or Reichstag, on the basis of equal and
universal votes cast by all adults including women.
Q29: What was the role of the International Military Tribune set up after the World War II ?
Answer: An International Military Tribunal at Nuremberg was set up to prosecute Nazi war
criminals :

for crimes against peace,

for war crimes and

crimes against humanity.
Q30: Enumerate the events which led to the Great Economic Depression.
Answer: Following events led to Great Economic Depression which made huge economic crisis in USA,
Europe (including Germany):
1. Wall Street Exchange crashed in 1929. Fearing a fall in prices, people made frantic efforts to
sell their shares. On one single day, 24 October, 13 million shares were sold. This was the start
of the Great Economic Depression.
2. Over the next three years, between 1929 and 1932, the national income of the USA fell by half.
Factories shut down, exports fell, farmers were badly hit and speculators withdrew their money
from the market.
3. The German economy was the worst hit by the economic crisis. By 1932, industrial production
was reduced to 40 per cent of the 1929 level. Workers lost their jobs or were paid reduced
wages. The number of unemployed touched an unprecedented 6 million.
Q31: Who were the Free Corps?
Answer: Free Corps were the war veterans organization in Germany that helped Socialists and Weimar
Republic to suppress the revolutionary uprising of the Spartacist League.
Q32: What do you mean by LEBENSRAUM?
Answer: Lebensraum means Living Space. This geopolitical concept was given by Hitler to annex
neigbouring territories. He believed that new territories had to be acquired for settlement which would
enhance the area of mother country and enable the settlers on new lands to retain an intimate link with
the place of origin. It would also enhance the material resources and power of the German nation. Poland
was acquired based on this idea.
Q33: Explain what role did women have in Nazi Society.
Answer:

Q34: What was the outcome of Nuremberg Tribunal? In what way its outcome was different?
Answer: After the defeat of Germany and end of WWII, an International Military Tribunal at Nuremberg
was set up to prosecute Nazi war criminals for crimes against peace, for war crimes and
crimes against humanity.
The Nuremberg Tribunal only eleven leading Nazis sentenced to death. Others were imprisoned for life.
The retribution did come, yet the punishment of the Nazis was far short of the brutality and the extent of
their crimes.
The allies did not want to be as harsh on defeated Germany as they had been after the First World War.
Q35: How did the common people of Germany react to Nazism?
Answer: Common people of Germany can be put into three categories based on their views about
Nazism.
1. Those who believed in Nazism Idea and supported it. They marked the houses of Jews and
spread anger and hatred against other communities including Jews.
2. Those who opposed it actively. They had to face the wrath of Nazi government and even death
sentences.
3. Those who were passive onlookers and apathetic witnesses. They were to scared to act or to
protest. Pastor Niemoeller, a resistance fighter, wrote about this attitude of apathy among
Germans to let atrocities to occur in their neigbourhood.
Q36: What is third reich?
Answer: It refers to Nazi regime from 1933-45.
Q37: Who wrote the book Third Reich of Dreams? What did it tell us about?
Answer: Charlotte Beradt secretly recorded peoples dreams in her diary and later published them in a
highly disconcerting book called the Third Reich of Dreams.
She describes how mental and physical torture done on Jews hauted them. They themselves began
believing in the Nazi stereotypes about them. They dreamt of their hooked noses, black hair and eyes,
Jewish looks and body movements. The stereotypical images publicised in the Nazi press haunted the
Jews. They troubled them even in their dreams. Jews died many deaths even before they reached the
gas chamber.

Q38: What was Spartacist League?

Answer: The Spartacist League was another political party in Germany that opposed the Weimer
Republic. They supported Soviet-style governance. They were opposed by the Socialists, Democrats,
Catholics and were crushed by the Free Corps.
Later the anguished Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany. It led to political radicalization
between Communists and Socialists. Henceforth they became irreconcilable enemies and could not make
common cause against Hitler.
Q39: What is a holocaust?
Answer: It refers to the systematic, state-sponsored mass torture and murder of approximately six millions
Jews under Nazi regime.