Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2. The fig shows a modern turbofan engine, the purpose at the vertex device is
a) to dissipate the heat from the fan cowl
b) to streamline the airflow over the wing surface
c) to reduce the turbulance of airflow over the wind during low speeds of flight
d) to reduce the turbulance of airflow over the wind during high speeds of flight
3. A modern turbotantengine fitted a/c flying from Delhi to Madras. The temperature at
Delhi is 15°C, while in Madrasis 28°C. to achieve the same power at Madras.
a) throttle should be adjusted fwd when approaching at Madras
b) throttle should be retarded when approaching madras
c) no adjustment is necessary throughout the flight
d) throttle can be adjusted either fwd or retarded to keep the Ni rpm constant
5. Fig.
a) pressure is high in tube A
b) pressure is high in tube B
c) pressure is same through
d) there will be rise in pressure in tube B due to turbulance
6. In flight CSD oil temp light comes ‘ON’ and the pilot disconnected the CSD. Then it
can be connected back
a) only on ground
b) only in flight
c) either on ground or in flight
d) automatically connected after oil temp is reduced
12. If the metal found in the chip detector gives white light while burning, it confirms the
presence of
a) steel
b) Mg
c) Cr
d) –
13. Exhaust nozzle area is changed due to heat after long operation, it will cause
a) the thrust to reduce for the amount of fuel flow
b) the thrust will increase with the increase in EGT
c) no appriciable change in thrust or EGT as the area is same for that temperature
d) the thrust will increase due to increase of fuel flow due to more airflow through
inlet
18. During water methanol injection at which place will increase the temperature
a) compressor inlet
b) diffuser
c) compressor and diffuser
d) –
19. Pressurising valve setting at low spring tension causes (or) adjustment of P&D valve
on FCU is lower than the normal then..
a) hot start
b) hung start
c) –
22. Fig. Impeller tip speed of centrifugal compressor limits the performance of the
compressor, this is because..
a) tip speed reaching mach no
b) excessive compression
c) –
24. Mark the correct statement regarding usage of the Helical gears used in Turbo Prop
gear box
a) helical gears are easy to manufacture and economical
b) helical gears takes more loads because they are straight
25. Dilution of air/fucl mix takes place in
a) ?
b) inner swril vanes
c) outer swril vanes
40. In turbo shaft engine above 400 knots of speed increases (25000 ft altitude??)
a) before sonic compression is low
b) compress ratio increases above sonic velocity
c) –
46. After the engine tight up, starter did not cuts off. The probable cause will be
a) starter cut off circuit is faulty
b) starter drive spring is weak
c) starter bleed valve did not close
d) either a or b is correct
50. LOP fight illuminated during flight. What are the other parameters in connection with
it, the pilot has to check inside the cockpit indicators.
a) EGT and RPM indicator for the engine malfunctions.
b) Ni rpm gauge and oil temperature gauge.
c) Filter clogging light and EGT
d) No indicator to check, but to cut off the engine
51. Igniter, plugs should not be touched with bare hand because
a) high radioactive material are used and it will cause radiation through the body
b) tips are made up of tungsten carbid and it will get damaged
c) –
d) –
1. Blade is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to the propeller shaft and line formed by the
(a) Relative wind
(b) Apparent wind
(c) Chord of the blade
(d) Blade face
2. Thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result of
(a) Propeller slippage
(b) An area of low pressure behind the propeller
(c) An area of decreased pressure immediately in front of the pressure blades
(d) The angle of relative wind and rotational velocity wind and rotational velocity of the propeller
5. Velocity index should be high. High freezing point – at a cold atm the water contents in the fuel in
having tendency to form in a ice crystal
7. In twin spool engine, with constant N2, compressor inlet temperature is decreasing then
(a) N2 changes
(b) Fuel flow increases
(c) N1 decreases
(d) The ratio N1 is maintained constant
N2
12. If jet velocity and mass flow is constant for a jet engine then thrust
(a) Is maximum when aircraft speed is minimum
(b) Is maximum when aircraft speed is maximum
(c) Is more when jet velocity and inlet velocity are equal
(d) Is always constant
13. Water injection systems are provides for the jet engine for the thrust augmentation the thrust
augmentation for water injection can be caused and by two methods.
(a) By adding or injecting water at the compressor inlet
(b) By adding or injecting water at the differ section
Fig shown that a water tank made up of aluminum or sheet metal allows the water flow a regulating
It then panes to the pressure regulating V/o of the diffuse and compressor inlet thought which water
injection in done by providing two manifolds at the diffuse and compressor manifold.
A water heater is provided for the water to not formed ice in cold atm or cold weather condition
A drain a/v provided to drain full water tank after are it is generally use of after getting sufficient thrust
by water injection
14. In a compressor space between surge line and working lines called
(a) Safety margin on surge margin
(b) Stable zone unstable zone
(c) Unstable zone
(d) Stagger zone
Thrust augmentation is achieved a the diffuser section by injecting water at the diffuser section
and which als the diffuser section and decreases the temperature of the diffuser section which gives high
deme man airflow high affect to maximum
The energy stored in a dual capacitor and storage charger at a fule charge level and then tenses the tube this
caused charger when fully developed it induces in the primary winding of the transformer (TRIGGER),
which is of up to app 2000 V
This induces a appx of 20,000V to the secondary of the tram former winding and which gives high
intensity current flow thr ignite plug which gives spark
A bleeder resistance are provided for troiger capacitor to give protection for excess voltage
Two igniter plug are used for capacitor discharge type cht for alternate operations
30. How many igniters are usually used on a turbine engine having nine burner cans?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Nine
31. The material used for jet engine is following main fine types
(a) Titanium
(b) Aluminum or Aluminum alloy
(c) Nickel bare alloy
(d) Nickel chrome alloy
(e) Steel or stainless steel
Titanium are high resistant to 1000 & corrosion and are used for fan blades and sometime for compressor
vanes
Aluminum or aluminum alloy are used for jet engine for its light weight characteristics it is high resistant to
corrosion heat
Nickel- chrome alloy’s re used fore turbine blades, which stands for high temperature
Steel or stainless steel alloy are used for rota vane or staten vane in an axial flow type jet
32. In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bled air is sometimes used to aid in the cooling of
(a) Oil
(b) IGV
(c) Fuel cooler
(d) Turbine
33. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering action?
(a) Micron
(b) Wire mesh
(c) Wafer screen
(d) Stacked charcoal
35. Mechanical integrity of the turbine as well as engine operating conditions of the engine can be checked
by
(a) Engine oil pressure
(b) Exhaust gas temperature
(c) Engine oil temperature
(d) Engine pressure ratio
7. Reduced cooling air requirements by 50 percent and decreased wt. By 20% is in which system
(a) Airflim cooling
(b) Transpiration cooling
(c) Impergement cooling
(d) Finwall
13. Speed droop is common to all mechanical governors to reduce these problems
(a) Use a weaker spring
(b) Make metering valve narrow radially
(c) Decrease pressure difference across metering valve
(d) All of the above
20. In performance monitor ring all parameter are in increasing order then it shows failure
(a) Turbine
(b) Compressor
(c) Combustion
(d) In let guidvave
29. TSFC is
(a) Directly proportional to compression ration
(b) Indirectly
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
3. a. In axial flow compressor why gas flow path is made convergent explain
b. What is the advantage of squalor blades?
c. What is bleed band how to check explain?
4. a. If mass flow rate is 60 lb/sec/engine and exhaust gas velocity is 1300 ft sec for a
turbojet engine ready for the take off find out gross thrust of each engine
b. Draw by graph effect air thrust for following variable
(i) Speed of a/c
(ii) RPM
(iii) Altitude
(iv) OAT
ANSWERS
1 C 11 A 21 A 31 A 41 D
2 C 12 B 22 A 32 A 42 D
3 D 13 A 23 A 33 A
4 A 14 D 24 A 34 A
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 A
6 D 16 D 26 A 36 D
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 A
8 A,D 18 D 28 C 38 B
9 D 19 A 29 B 39 A
10 D 20 B 30 A 40 C
JET ENGINE
2. When mechanical energy is converted into heat energy or vice versa an exact equivalent exists between
the two. This is stated in the
(a) First law of thermodynamics
(b) Second law of thermodynamics
(c) Third law of thermodynamics
(d) None of the above
8. (a) At high power settings the noise generated from the compressor blade is predominant
(b) Noise from the compressor is of lower frequency
(c) Low frequency sounds can be attenuated easily
(d) None of the above
13.In a flight from Delhi to Bangalore, excess oil was consumed than required most probable cause could
be
(a) Defective centrifugal breather carbon seal
(b) Main oil filter contamination
(c) Oil leak from contamination
(d) Both a and b
15. If a system is perfectly conducting to the surroundings and the temp remains constant the process is
(a) Isothermal
(b) Adiabetic
(c) P.V constant
(d) Both b and c
17. An airplane has an engine providing 4000 lb thrust at 300 m.p.h the thrust horsepower is
(a) 4000 b.h.p.
(b) 3200
(c) 12800
(d) 5000
19. When change in pressure and volume of a gas take s place without change in temperature the process
(a) Is very slow
(b) Obeys boyle’s law
(c) Adiabatic change is quick
(d) All of the above
ANSWERS
1 B 11 A 21 B
2 A 12 B 22 ?
3 D 13 D 23 ?
4 A 14 C 24 B
5 ? 15 B 25 ?
6 A 16 B 26 ?
7 B 17 B
8 A 18 B
9 C 9 B
10 A 20 B
1. If jet velocity is 1288ft sec & airflow is 125lb what will be thrust produced?
(a) 4000 lb
(b) 6000 lb
(c) 5000 lb
(d) 3500 lb
2. If atmospheric temperature change but EGT remains unchanged during ground run but every define high
power cruise flight then snag/fault is in
(a) CIT
(b) CDP
(c) FCU
(d) FCU altitude adjuster
3. In a turbo fan engine airflow is 60 lb in both fan and core engine exhaust and velocities are sec & --------
ft / sec what will be thrust produced?
(a) 1433 lb
(b) --------lb
(c) 5433 lb
(d) --------lb
5. FACDEC means
(a) Full authorized digital electronic control
(b) Full authorized digital electronic control
15. In which engine air speed kinetic energy at inlet is not changed in the static energy
(a) Turbofan
(b) Turbojet
(c) Turbo shaft
(d) Turbo prop
Answers: 14 – d, 15 – c, 16 – b, 17 – c, 18 – b, 19 – b, 20 – c, 21 – c, 22 – a, 23 – c,
24 – a.
31. During oil analysis mg is gived Hi then a practice gear of problem in gearbox
Answer: 25 - , 26 - , 27 – b, 28 – a, 29 – b, 30 – a, 31 - .
2. Wright the types of thrust reverser. Explain mechanical blockage type with sketch
4. What is primary principal of pressurization breather system explain pressurization breather system with
sketch how it works?
7. What are causes of oil temperature high give remedial action for each cause?
10. What are the forces acting on rotating propeller explain each?
12. Explain the procedure for finding ------------ of the oil engines?
16. Using Newton’s seonel 100 of notion derive formula for thrust calculation
17. What is the not streak explain give reason for streak
18. FFX, FPM & EGT northern what are causes remedial action?
Answers: 32 – b, 33 – b, 34 – a, 35 - , 36 – d, 37 – a, d.
Answers: 1- b, 2- d, 3 - a, 4 - d, 5 - a, 6 - c, 7 - b, 8 – d, 9 – d, 10 – b.
12. If EPR reads 2.4 then turbine discharge pressure is 2.4 times of
(a) Inlet static pressure
(b) Inlet ram pressure
(c) Ambient pressure
(d) Compressure inlet total pressure
Answers: 11 – d, 12 – d, 13 – d, 14 – d, 15 – d, 16 – c, 17 – a, 18 – b, 19 – c, 20 – b,
21 – b, 22 – c, 23 – c.
36. What component prevent stall during low speed ground operation
(a) Bleed valve
(b) P & D Valve
(c) Chock Valve
(d) As 1 & 2
Answers: 24 – c, 25 – d, 26 – a, 27 – d, 28 – c, 29 – d, 30 – b, 31 – d, 32 – d, 33 – b,
34 – a, 36 – a.
37. During starting starter & fuel flow are ok, but hung start cuase is
(a) CDP sensor loss
(b) CIT loss
(c) -----------
(d) -----------------------
Answers: 37 – b, 38 – c, 39 – b, 40 – d, 41 – d, 42 – d, 43 – c, 44 – b, 45 – b, 46 – d,
47 – a, 48 – d, 49 – b.
Answers: 50 - , 51 – b, 52 – a, 54, b, 55 – a, 56 - , 57 – a, 58 – a, 59 - , 60 – a.
62. MCS
(a) APU generator frequency is maintained by CSD and is constant speed rated
(b) APU does not have CSD in its operation and is constant speed rated
(c) APU generator requires axial flow compressor and is constant speed rated
(d) Both B and C are correct
63. MCS
(a) In turbo-jet TSFC increases as airspeed increases
(b) In turbo prop TSFC decreases as airspeed increases
(c) In turbo prop TSFC increases as airspeed increases up to 450 mph
(d) Both A and B are correct
64. MCS
(a) Temp drop through turbines is greater than that of temp rise through compressor
(b) Temp drop through turbine is same as the temp rise through same no of stages of compressor
(c) Temp drop through turbine is about the same as that of temp rise through compressor
(d) Temp drop through turbine is less that that of temp rise through compressor
65. TSFC is
(a) Directly proportional to the rpm
(b) Directly proportional to the efficiency
(c) Inversely proportional to the efficiency
(d) Directly proportional to the compressor ratio
68. Two shaft whose axes are at an angle to one another but in the same plane to gear used
(a) Bevel gear
(b) Spiral bevel gear
(c) Spur gear
(d) Helical gear
Answers: 61 – d, 62 – a, 63 – d, 64 – c, 65 – c, 66 – a, 67 – c, 68 – b, 69 – b.
70. Function of P & D valve is
(a) Flow divider
(b) Dumping fuel after engine shut down
(c) Fuel pressure control
(d) All of the above
72. AME’s knows OAT is significantly shifted but TGT is same at ground. In the high power run every
thing is normal then snag is
(a) CIT system
(b) CPP system
(c) FCU temperature compensator
(d) Throttle missrig
79. ----------------------------------------------------
(a) ------------------------------------------------
(b) -----------------------------------------------
(c) ------------------------------------------------
(d) ------------------------------------------------
Answers: 70 – d, 71 – a, 72 – a, 73 – a, 74 – a, 75 – a, 76 – d, 77 - , 78 - , 79 - , 80 - .
3. MCS
(a) Compressor and turbine discs are forged by powder metallurgy
(b) Compressor blades and vanes are generally cast
(c) Turbine blades and vanes are made by lost wax method
(d) All are correct
9. MCS
(a) Igniter plugs have problem of corrosion of case, and after prolonged use it get eroded
(b) The audible test for proper ignition check is not possible in synchronous ignition
(c) Iridium inserts are placed in the tip to prolong its lift
(d) All are correct
Answer: 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – d, 4 – d, 5 – b, 6 – c, 7 – a, 8 – b, 9 – d.
10. Engine inference
(a) Nozzle diaphragm area is measured at the exit of the vanes
(b) Total outlet area measured is the sum of all areas of the passages between the vanes
(c) Nozzle area effects the efficiency of the engine
(d) All are correct
18. If bypass valve is fitted across the metering valve, and P1 is inlet pressure and P2 is outlet pressure then
constant fuel pressure differential is depends on (Tr.273)
(a) P2 – P2
(b) Orifice area
(c) Metering valve
(d) Bypass valve
Answers: 10 – d, 11 - , d, 12 – a, 13 – a, 14 – a, 15 – a, 16 - , 17 – a, 18 – d.
19. Two internal sections of an engine are subjected to different air per seel to be used
(a) Thread seal
(b) Ring seal
(c) Multi grooved seal
(d) Carbon seal
21. In a hydro mechanical torque meter if the temperature of oil is increased causes
(a) High torque reading
(b) Low torque reading
(c) No change
(d) Any of the above
23. MCS
(a) Electrical heaters are mostly preferred than pneumatic heating for anti-icing system
(b) Isopropyl alcohol or phosphate compounds are used for deicing system
(c) Anti icing heating is commanded through cyclic timers
(d) None of the above
27. In test house first and last test carried out after overhaul is
(a) Vibration survey
(b) Hot air leak
(c) Engine power setting
Answers: 19 – c, 20 – a, 21 – b, 22 – b, 23 – d, 24 - , 25 – c, 26 – d, 27 - .
29. MCS
(a) Turbojet engines used annular combustion for shorter length
(b) Turbojet engines used reverse flow combustion for shorter length
(c) Turbofan engines give best performance
(d) B and C are correct
35. More than one weld is not carried out in deicing element because
(a) Increases circuit resistance of element
(b) Decreases circuit resistance of element
(c) It will damage the element
(d) All the above may happen
Answers: 28 – d, 29 – d, 30 – b, 31 – a, 32 – c, 33 – a, 34 – a, 35 - b 36 – c.
37. Most commonly used oil in gas turbine engine is
(a) Petroleum
(b) Akyl diestar
(c) Polyester
(d) Mineral
38. Mark INCORRECT statement
(a) Screen type filter is used in low pressure
(b) Cartridge type filter is used in low pressure
(c) Screen disk type filter is used in low pressure
(d) Cone shaped filter element is used in screen type filter
40. MCS
(a) For a given torque weight of starter generator is less than air turbine starter
(b) Starter generator windings are separate
(c) Duty cycle of starter generator is more critical than air turbine starter
(d) None of the above
45. MCS
(a) Oil bypass valve is installed at inlet
(b) Oil flow through passages depend on the operation
(c) If problem occurs fuel will flow into oil
(d) All are correct
Answers: 37 – c, 38 – c, 39 – b, 40 – b, 41 – d, 42 – b, 43 – d, 44 – b, 45 – c.
49. MCS
(a) The seal which rides on highly polished surface is carbon seal
(b) Carbon seals are used in vent pressurization system
(c) Both A and B are correct
(d) None of the above is correct
Answers: 55 – c, 56 – c, 57 – a, 58 – a, 59 – a, 60 – a, 61
OBJECTIVE
1. A large jet engine handles 100 lb. Sec of air the velocity of this air at the jet nozzle is 659 mph what is
the thrust of the engine
F MA F = (Wa / g) A = (100/32.2) (659*1.467) = 3002 LB **(initial speed = 0)
3. MCS
1. The rated net thrust of any engine is determined by how much the forward thrust forces exceed the
rearward forces
4. MCS
1. At higher altitude pressure continues to drop sharply W.R.T temperature resulting
Sharp drop in thrust
5. MCS
1. Brayton cycle called open cycle
8. British thermal unit is a standard measure of energy defined as the amount of energy reqd to raise the
temperature of 1 pound of water to 1-degree faranhit at
(a) Constant pressure
(b) Constant volume
(c) Constant mass
(d) None of the above
10. A unique cooling concept reduces cooling air requirements by 50% & decrease weight by 20% the
combustor is
(a) Annular
(b) Can annular
(c) Can type
(d) Fin wall
16. For the fuel pump containing two stages the possible connections are
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Series-parallel
(d) All above
20. Trend monitoring analysis (plot of EGT, N1, N2, VIB, F/F vs TIME)
(a) 1st stage NGV failure
(b) 13th stage bleed v/v cracked
(c) Turbine case separation
(d) All the above
21. SOAP TEST
(a) Pin point the impending failure
(b) Used for trend monitoring
(c) As in 1 & 2
JET ENGINE
GENERAL
2. Turbojet engines having axial-flow compressors have what type of rear bearing
(a) Ball
(b) Roller
(c) Taper-roller
(d) Needle-nose
3. Some high volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with tow spool or split compressors.
When these engines are operated at high altitude
(a) Throttle must be retarded to prevent over speeding of the two comp. Rotors due to low density air
(b) Throttle must be retarded to prevent over speed of H.P rotor due to low density air
(c) L.P rotor will decrease in speed as compressor load decreases in lower density air
(d) L.P rotor speed does not change with altitude
5. The most modern method of cooling turbine blade and nozzle vanes is
(a) Design of hollow blades and hollow nozzle vanes
(b) Film cooling of vanes and blades
(c) Reducing T.I.T
14. In an axial flow turbine engine what type of rear bearing is mostly used?
(a) Ball bearing
(b) Roller bearing
(c) Tapered roller bearing
18. What would be the possible cause of a gas turbine engine to have as high EGT high fuel flow and low
r.p.m. At all engine power settings?
(a) Insufficient electrical power to the instant bus
(b) Fuel control out of adjustment
(c) Loose or corroded thermocouple
(d) Turbine damage of loss of turbine efficiency
19. The speed of high pressure compressor is less than that HPT because ?
(a) Turbine has more no of blades
(b) Turbine and compressor have same no of blades
(c) Turbine operates at high temperatures
(d) Turbine area is more
21. Work done W by the compressor as shown when Sp is the specific heat, is expressed as
(a) W = Sp (T1 – T2) / m
(b) W = Sp. m. (T2 – T1)
(c) W = m. (T2 – T1) / Sp
(d) W = m. Sp (T1 – T2)
22. For a particular setting the compressor r.p.m. on a hot day compared to a standard day will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Nothing can be said firmly
24. The load distribution over a turbine blade as shown in the sketch is for
(a) Impulse type blade
(b) Reaction type blade
(c) Impulse – reaction type blade
(d) None of the above
26. A tachometer reads 100% when it is being driven at 4200 r.p.m. If the tachometer drives gear ratio is
0.428:1, what is actual speed of the compressor?
28. Match the following in pick up and O/p and O/p signals of the following instruments
(a) Thermocouple D.C voltage
(b) Accelerometer Charge thermocouple d.c. voltage
(c) Speed tachometerD.C signal speed tachometer – a.c. signal
(d) Electronic fuel flow A.C. signal vibration pick – up – a.c.
33. In the adjoining figure, why are the curves for real and ideal conditions different?
(a) Since air is not treated as a compressed gas
Surge
Buzz Supersonic
Positive incidence stall Rear stage stall at high speed
Negative incidence stall front stage stall at high speed
35. Mark the correct statement regarding the cleaning of various engine sections
(a) Hot section cleaning statement is done by
(b) Cold section cleaning is done by vapour degreasing and
(c) Trichloroethylene is not suitable for titanium
(d) All are correct
Square law Crack pressure Better pr. At low pr. Inverted flow chamber
Simplex Duplex Centrifugal Pre-vaporization
Duplex Duplex Centrifugal Prevapourisation
Simplex Simplex Prevapourisation Centrifugal
Duplex prevapourisation Centrifugal Pre-vaporization
45. F.C.U is running at idle. If OAT increases idle r.p.m. is constant, it is due to
(a) C.I.T adjustment
(b) Defective throttle
Idle r.p.m = fn. (C.I.T.)
(c) Speed sensor
(d) C.D.P adjustment C.I.T. = fn. (OAT)
46. If an engineer finds that the EGT reading is less than that of normal it may be dure
(a) Faulty electrical harness
(b) Wire length is shortened during maintenance
49. If an engine has been started using all components normal and hung start occurs, it may be due to
(a) Closure of surge bleed valves
(b) Opening of surge bleed valves
(c) Lack of lubrication in the bearing
50. If the CSU (constant speed unit) fails, the pilot will maintain
(a) At climb, the r.p.m. Is maintained at climb r.p.m.
(b) At cruise, coarse pitch is constant
(c) At climb, the pilot increase throttle to fly at level flight condition
54. Exhaust nozzle is changed due to heat after long operation. It will cause
(a) The thrust to reduce for the amount of fuel flow
(b) The thrust will increase with increase in EGT.
(c) No appreciable change in thrust or EGT as area is the same
(d) The thrust will increase due to increase of fuel flow due to more airflow through inlet
56. Bore scope inspection is does through the holes given. During inspection the HPT shaft is rotated
(a) By removing the starter and rotate through the starter engagement gears
(b) By a drive pad provided for this purpose in the AGB section of the engine
(c) After removing the c/c only, B.S.L can be done
(d) 7/8” socket and spanner attached in the hand cranking pad
57. If the adjustment of the P & D valve on the FCU is lower than normal then
(a) Hot start
(b) Hung start
58. After engine light up the state does not cut off. The probable cause is
(a) Starter cut-off circuit is faulty
(b) Starter drive spring is weak
(c) Starter bleed valve does not close
(d) Either (a) or (b) is correct
61. L.O.P light illuminates during flight, what are the other parameters (associated with the same) that the
pilot has to check on the cockpit indicators?
(a) EGT and r.p.m indicators for the engine malfunction
(b) N1 r.p.m. Gauge and oil temperature
(c) Filter clogging light and EGT
(d) No indicators to check but to cut-off the engine.
62. In the inlet of the hydraulic pump is blocked, what will happen? (Check Feb. 96)
63. In the pressurized chamber of the bearing sump area overboard drain is provided. This prevents
(a) Compressor air contamination
(b) Inward air flow to the chamber
(c) Oil tank overflow
(d) None of the above
64. What does the graph indicate?
(a) Compressor contamination
(b) Undesirable engine condition
(c) Normal condition
(d) Engine due for overhaul
65. In a turbo shaft engine, the electric starter has carbon brushes, which are worn out. This will
(a) Decrease the starting speed
(b) Not start the engine
(c) Make EGT high
(d) All are correct
66. A turbofan engine, with a hydro-mechanical FCU shows constantly poor r.p.m. Pick-up to maximum
power. To detect the snag, mark the correct statement
(a) C.D.P. sensor and N1 Cr
(b) C.I.T. sensor and N2 Cr
(c) R.p.m. sensor
(d) Governor problem
67. The power turbine turbo-shaft is running at higher r.p.m. There is a loss of oil pressure. The most
probable cause is
(a) The relief valve stuck in closed position
(b) The relief valve is jammed in open position
(c) Filter clogged
(d) Oil spray jet clogged
68. Which of the following condition, for long time storage of engine
(a) Lip
(b) Cup
(c) Carbon-rubbing
(d) All are correct
69. Engine operation inspection is O.K. except flame out during deceleration. The most likely cause is
(a) Acceleration and deceleration valve
(b) Minimum flow valve setting
(c) Maximum flow valve setting
(d) Governor setting (for maximum speed)
70. Match the following condition, for long time storage of engine
(a) Intake
(b) Fuel system
(c) Compressor
(d) Exhaust
4. MCS
(a) The gap at igniter plug is such wider than that of spark plug
(b) As in a tip of igniter plugs not permitted to clean
(c) The ignition of gas turbine eng., is not continuous as used in piston eng
(d) All are correct
12. MCS
(a) Pr pump is gear type scavenge pump is centrifugal type
(b) Pr. Pump is venk type sev pump is gear type
(c) Both of gear type
(d) Pr. Pump is vent type & sev is vene type
15. MCS
(a) Geometric pitch is the distance a propeller should mores fwd in one complete rev.,
(b) Effective pitch is the actual distance a prop move fwd in one complete rev.
(c) Slip is difference between geometric & effective pitch
(d) All are correct
20. The temp of air is higher in rear stages of comp. This is due to
(a) Diffusion action
(b) Mechanical work. Done by rotor with an
(c) Mechanical energy is converted into heat energy
(d) All are correct
24. In the compressor RPM engine speed remain constant and mass airflow increased
(a) Pressure ratio will increase and stall margin will decrease
(b) Pressure ratio will increase and stall margin will inc
(c) Pr. Ratio & stall margin will dec
(d) Ratio will dec & stall
26. MCS
(a) Temp drop takes places thru the turbine i.e. approx equivalent to the temp rise occurred in the
comp
(b) Temp drop takes place than the turbine is much greater than the temp rise of the comp
30. A BURNER design, which reduces cooling air req. by 50% & dec., burner wt., by 20% is
(a) Float wall
(b) In wall
(c) Annular
(d) Reverse flow
35. MCS
(a) In two wire thermal s/w type fire detection can withstand either an open or a short & still remain
in function
(b) In fenwal type also
(c) A & B are correct
36. MCS
(a) In nozzle diaphragm area is measured at the exit of the vanes
(b) Total area is sum of all areas between the vane
(c) Nozzle area effects the efficiency of the eng
(d) All are correct
37. MCS
(a) Pr. Of supersonic air as it flows that the convergent nozzle inc
(b) As in a pr. Of super sonic air is flows thru a convergent nozzle is inversely proportional to the
temp
(c) As in a the pr of supersonic air as it flows thru convergent nozzle is directly proportional to the
temp.
(d) The pt. of supersonic air is it flows thru convergent nozzle dec.
39. Eng. Trumbles during starting at low power cruise condition the reason is
(a) Pressuring & damp valve malfunction
(b) Cracked an duct
(c) Fuel control malfunction
(d) All are correct
40. Fuel is delivered at high-pressure thru the fact control unit thru
(a) Gear type pump
(b) Centrifugal boost type
(c) Gear type & centrifugal boost pump
(d) Filter, gear type pump & centrifugal pump
41. Trimming of eng. Is necessary
(a) After fen change
(b) As in a to set maximum thrust
(c) As in b to set idle rpm
(d) All are correct
47. When an eng is operation without its antince valve on epr inc., when other parameters readings are
normal the reason
(a) Ice formed the inlet cowling causing low piston PIC probe parts act as PS2
(b) Causing high pr. On PT2 probe
(c) Fuel malfunction
(d) Rise is engine pr ratio indication in cockpit
MUMBAI : 29
SEMESTER EXAMINATION
JET ENGINES – THEORY AND CONSTRUCTION
4. The advantages with split spool compressor over single spool compressor is
(a) Better compression ratio and surge margin
(b) More turbine wheels can be used
(c) The velocity of air entering the combustion chamber is increased
(d) Number of bearings required is reduced
5. To produces a thrust of 9600 lbs a jet engine consumes 900 gallons of fuel per hour. Given that one
gallons of fuel weighs 8 lbs. What is the thrust specific fuel consumption of the engine?
(a) 0.075 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(b) 0.750 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(c) 1.330 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(d) None of the above
6. Compressor blades are not rigidly fixed but a slight movement is allowed in order to
(a) Provide flexibility for blade replacement
(b) Provide tolerance for blade expansion
(c) Reduce vibration stresses produced by high velocity air stream
(d) All the above
7. Turbine blades creep with increase is temperature and operating time. This means
(a) The blades elongates
(b) Blade wears out
(c) The blade losses its toughness
(d) All the above
8. Which of the following engine casing is the hottest during engine run
(a) H.P turbine casing
(b) L.P turbine casing
(c) Jet pipe
(d) Combustion chamber casing
9. What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow unit?
(a) Easier maintenance
(b) High frontal area
(c) Less expensive
(d) Greater pressure ratio
11. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines.
(a) Variable can annular and cascade vanes
(b) Annular variable and cascade vane
(c) Can multiple can and variable
(d) Multiple can, can annular, and annular.
13. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
(a) To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly
(b) To straightened the airflow before it entered the exhaust area
(c) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine
(d) Decrease temperature there by increasing pressure
14. What is the purpose of directing bleed air to the bearing compartment?
(a) It increases oil pressure for better lubrication
(b) It provides a high volume of oil to the most critical bearings
(c) It heats the oil to the proper operating temperature
(d) It heats the oil to the bearing compartments.
15. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine?
(a) The turbine inlet temperature
(b) The altitude of the aircraft
(c) Compression ratio
(d) The turbine and compressor efficiency
16. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on
all but which of the following
(a) Turbine blades
(b) Compressor blades
(c) Casings
(d) Inlet guide vanes
18. In the twins spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives the
(a) N – 1 compressor
(b) N – 2 compressor
(c) N – 1 & compressor
(d) The fan.
25. In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor the low speed compressor
(a) Always turns at the same speed compressor, the low speed compressor
(b) Is connected to the high-pressure compressor through a reduction gear.
(c) Seeks its own best operating speed
(d) Is coupled to the high-speed turbine mechanically but through a reduction gear.
26. How many ignitions are normally used on a turbine engine having nine burner cans?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Nine
(d) Eighteen
27. Using standard atmospheric conditions the standard sea level temperature is
(a) 15 degrees C
(b) 0 degrees F
(c) 0 degrees C
(d) 273 degrees K
28. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?
(a) Compressor inlet air temperature
(b) Compressor outlet air temperature
(c) Burner can pressure
(d) Turbine inlet temperature
29. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbo jet engine experienced?
(a) At the outlet of the burner section
(b) At the entrance of the turbine section
(c) At the outlet of the tail pipe sections
30. What turbine engine sections provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air?
(a) Combustion section
(b) Turbine sections
(c) Diffuser sections
(d) Compressor sections
9. The area of the after turner jet pipe is forger than normal jet pipe in order to
(a) Reduce air velocity
(b) As in A for better combustion
(c) To prevent ckoking
(d) None of the above
13. What is the purpose of directing bleed air to the bearing compartment?
(a) It seals the oil in the bearing compartment
(b) It seats the oil to the proper operating temperature
(c) It provides a high volume of oil to the most critical bearings
(d) It increase the oil pr for better lubrication
14. It the water injection system operation the addition of methanol will
(a) Restore turbine inlet temperature
(b) Bringdown N2 rpm
(c) Lower freezing point of water
(d) Both a and c are correct
15. Mark the correct statement regarding thrust resources
(a) Mixed exhaust type engines need only one resources
(b) In high by pass turbo fans, recourse of secondary air is more effective than that of primary air
(c) Both primary and secondary how are reversed by using separate reverses
(d) All of the above statements are correct
20. The fire detection system that uses a single course surrounded by a temperature sensitive insulating
medium in a tube is
(a) Fenwal system
(b) Kiddie system
(c) Thermocouple system
(d) Squists system
22. Thrust reverse utilizing a pneumatic actuating system usually receive air from
(a) The engine bleed air system
(b) An on board reciprocating compressor
(c) One or more high pressure air battles
(d) Environmental control system.
23. The rearward thrust capacity of an engine with the thrust reverse system deployed is
(a) Less tharits forward capacity
(b) Equal to or less than its forward capacity depending on ambient conditions and system design
(c) Equal to its forward capacity
(d) More than its forward thrust capacity since engine bleeds are kept closed
28. The air and oil are separated in a jet engine oil system by returning the scavenge oil to
(a) The bottom of the reservoirs
(b) The deairator at the top of the reservor temp
(c) The pressurized tank
(d) To the centrifugal separator
29. The net reverse thrust available on a high by pass engine having only tan revouser is approxionately
(a) 40 %
(b) 80%
(c) 60%
(d) 100%
30. In a jet engine otherwise behaving normally there are reports of flameout during descent the problem is
(a) Metering orifice in FCU clogged
(b) Minimum flow valve malfunciton
(c) Fan exit guide vane icing
(d) Malfunction of acceleration and deceleration valve
31. On a jet engine the EGT reading is high as noticed by he AME during comparison check in transit. The
cause could be
(a) Party compressor blades
(b) One of the thermocouple probes is open circuit
(c) Turbine blade rub at periphery
(d) Both A & C are correct
32. In and engine with hydromechanical system F.C.U pilot reports engine acceleration without throttle
movement the possible cause is
(a) Loss of spad sense
(b) Loss of CDP sense
(c) C.I.T sensor failure
(d) Any one of the above
35. If the crack pressure adjustment of the pressuring valve is on the lower ride that required than
(a) Secondary fuel will flow carlier
(b) Start EGT will be higher
(c) Stall margin will be reduced
(d) All above is correct
36. What is the possible cause when a turbojet engine indicates no change in power setting parameters lent
oil temperature is high
(a) Gear box real leakage
(b) Engine main bearing distress
(c) High oil sump pressure
(d) Oil scavenge pump not effective
38. Why is the necessary to control acceleration and deceleration rates of turbine engines
(a) To prevent blow out due to rich
(b) To enable to heat and cool the engine at controlled rates
(c) To prevent friction between turbine wheels and the case due to expansion and contraction
(d) To operate engine at optimum fuel consumption
39. When the pilot selects water injection during take of which of the following observation is true?
(a) The engine r.p.m rises
(b) The engine r.p.m. Rises and J.P.T gas slightly above acceptable limit
(c) J.P.T increases
(d) Fuel consumption becomes less that normal due to water addition
40. Turbine blades air more susceptible to operation damage than compressor blades because of
(a) Higher centrifugal loading
(b) Exposure to high temperature
(c) High pressure and high velocity gas flow
(d) All the above
41. What is the first engine instrument indicating successful start of a turbine engine?
(a) L.P.S spool rotation
(b) Rise in exhaust gas temperature
(c) Rise in oil pressure
(d) Rise in engine fuel flow
42. Hot section inspection for many modern turbine engines are required
(a) Only at engine overhaul
(b) Only when an over temperature or speed is reported
(c) On a time or cycle basis
(d) During every C of A renewal
SEMESTER IV
1. A severs condition of chafing or fretting in which a transfer of meal from one part to another occurs. If
called
(a) Gouging
(b) Burning
(c) Erosion
(d) Galling
3. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicator of
(a) Foreign object damage
(b) Faulty igniter plugs
(c) Dirty compressor blades
(d) Malfunctioning fuel nozzles
5. What is the purpose of the pressurization and dump valve used on turbo jet engine?
(a) Controls the pressure of the compressor outlet by dumping air when pressure reaches an
established level.
(b) Allows fuel pressurization of the engine when starting and operating and dumps fuel pressure of
engine shutdown
(c) Controls compressor stall by dumping compressor air under certain condition
(d) Maintain fuel pressure to the fuel control valve and dumps excessive fuel bake to the fuel tanks
7. Why does a turbine engine require a cool off period before shutting it down?
(a) To allow the surfaces contacted by the lubricating oil to return to normal operating temp
(b) To burn off excess fuel ahead of the fuel control
(c) To allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around I
(d) To avoid seizure of the engine bearings
8. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in a/c turbine engines
(a) Variable, can-annular, and cascade vane
(b) Annular, variable and cascade vane
(c) Can multiple can, and variable
(d) Multiple can, annular, and can annular
9. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single craft?
(a) To facilities balancing of the turbine assembly
(b) To straighten the airflow before it enters the exhaust area
(c) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine
(d) To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb
14. What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system?
(a) Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temp
(b) Fuse material that melts at high temp
(c) A conventional thermocouple that produces current flow
(d) A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high temp.
15. Which of the following is the safest fire-extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and
corrosion hazards?
16. Which of the following is not used to detect fires in reciprocating engine necellers?
(a) Smode detectors
(b) Overheat detectors
(c) Rate of temp rise detectors
(d) Flame detectors
17.What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor?
(a) Fuse material which melts at high temp
(b) Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temp
(c) A conventional thermocouple which produces a current flow
(d) A bimetallic thermo switch which closes when heated to a high temp
18. Why does the fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate
circuits?
(a) A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction
(b) This installation is equal to two systems a prime system and a reserve system
(c) The duel terminal thermo switch is used so that one terminal is wired to a bell the other to a light
(d) A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
19. Which of the following fire detector system measures temp rise compared to a reference temp?
(a) Fenwal continuous loop
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermal switch
(d) Lindberg continuous element
22. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives the
(a) N1 and N2 compressors
(b) N4 compressor
(c) N2 compressor
(d) N1 compressor
23. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a turbine engine if they are marked during inspection
with
(a) A lead pencil
(b) Chalk
(c) Layout dye
(d) Any of the above
24. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine.
(a) Exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits
(b) Falls to reach idle RPM
(c) RPM exceeds specified operating speed
(d) Pressure ratio exceeds specified operating limits
25. What are the two main sections of a turbine engine for inspection purposes?
(a) Combustion and exhaust
(b) Hot and cold
(c) Compressor and turbine
(d) Combustion and turbine
27. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on a turbine engine?
(a) Retime engine
(b) Recalibrate the fuel nozzles
(c) Retrim the engine
(d) Recheck the flame pattern
28. What is the most satisfactory method of attaching turbine blades to turbine wheels?
(a) The fire-tree design
(b) The tongue and groove design
(c) High temp high strength design
(d) Press fit method
29. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a
(a) Single entry centrifugal compressor
(b) Double entry centrifugal compressor
(c) Double entry axial flow compressor
(d) Single entry axial flow compressor
30. What is the first engine instrument indication of successful start of a turbine engine?
(a) A decrease in the exhaust gas temperature
(b) A rise in the engine fuel flow
(c) A decrease in the engine pressure ratio
(d) A rise in the exhaust gas temperature
35. Anti static leak valve provided in some lubricating system in turbine engine
(a) To maintain pressure in oil system
(b) To maintain oil line full
(c) To help cold starting of engine
(d) To prevent flooding of gear box after engine shut down
37. Reciprocating engine fuel injection carburetor not developing full power may be due to
(a) Propeller balancing out
(b) Carburetor idle RPM adjustment not correct
(c) AMC defective
(d) Cylinder head cooling fin cracked
45. The active clearance control portion of an eec system aid turbine engine efficiency by
(a) Adjusting start vane position according to operating condition and power requirement
(b) Ensuring compressor and turbine blade to the engine laseing clearance are kept a minimum by
controlling case temperature
(c) Automatically adjusting engine spaced to maintained a desire EPR
49. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has greatest filtering action action
(a) Micron
(b) Wine mesh
(c) Wafer seneen
(d) Stack charcoal
50. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of turbine engine perfomance check of alternate
fuel is used?
(a) Fuel sp gravity adjustment
(b) Maximum RPM adjustment
(c) EPR KG gauge calibration
(d)
51. MIL F- 4624A. ATF – JP – 4 Fuel commonly used on gas turbine engine because
(a) High calorific value of fuel
(b) Specific gravity and vapour pressure low
(c) Good lubrication properties
(d) All above
53. What are the main input parameters in fuel controller unit monitors fuel flow
(a) Compressor inlet pressure compressor RPM and turbine inlet pressure
(b) Compressor inlet pressure compressor RPM compressor pressure ratio
(c) Compressor inlet temperature burner pressure, tail pipe temperature
(d) Compressor inlet pressure, burner pressure and compressor RPM
54. Which type of engine driven fuel pump are mostly used on turbine engine
(a) Vane tyupe
(b) Double gear element (Series)
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Double gear element (parallel)
56. What are the positions of pressurizing and dump valve when engine is shut down?
(a) Pressurization valve and dump valve open
(b) Pressurization valve closed and dump open
(c) Pressurization valve open and dump closed
(d) Pressurization valve closed and dump closed
60. Under which of following conditions will be trimming of turbine engine will be most accurate?
(a) Low moisture and tail wind
(b) Aircraft should be parked in cross wind and high humidity
(c) All fuel tank must be full and rear cargo ballasted
(d) Aircraft parked engine facing wind and after engine warmed go stabilize temperature
61. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of turbojet
engine?
(a) Stretch
(b) Elongation
(c) Distortion
(d) Creep
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan engine?
(a) Engine over speed
(b) Engine over temperature
(c) Large rapid throttle
(d) FOD
65. How many igniter are normally used on a turbine engine having burner cans?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Nine
66. Which of the following is used to minotor the mechanical integrity of the turbines as well as to check
engine operating conditions of a turbojet engine?
(a) Engine oil pressure
(b) Engine gas temperature
(c) Engine oil temperature
(d) Engine pressure ratio
67. Which of the following can inspect and approve an engine major repair for return to service?
(a) Certificated mechanic with airframe and power plant ratings
(b) Certificated mechanic with a power plant ratings
(c) Certificated mechanic with inspection authorization
(d) Designed mechanic examiner
68. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicators of
(a) Foreign object damage
(b) Faulty igniter plugs
(c) Dirty compressor blades
(d) Malfunctioning fuel nozzles
69. The fuel flow in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicators of
(a) Fuel mass-flow
(b) Fuel volume flow
(c) Engine burner pressure drop
(d) Fuel viscosity flow
70. Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any extent in turbine blades?
(a) Cracks
(b) Nicks
(c) Pits
(d) Dents
71. Which of the following I the ultimate limiting factor of turbojet engine operation?
(a) Compressor inlet air temperature
(b) Compressor outlet air temperature
(c) Turbine inlet temperature
(d) Burner can pressure
72. The oil used in reciprocating engine has a relatively high viscosity due to
(a) The reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate film strength at altitude (reduced atmosphere
pressure)
(b) The relatively high rotational speeds
(c) Its lower oxidation rate at elevated temperature
(d) Large clearances and high operating temperature
73. The type of lubricating oil that is used in a turbine aircraft engine is
(a) Synthetic
(b) Petroleum
(c) 50-50 blend of petroleum and synthetic
(d) 30-70 blend of petroleum and synthetic
75. In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature bulb senses oil temp
(a) And indicates the average oil temp
(b) At point after the oil has passed through the oil cooler
(c) While the oil is in the hottest area of the engine
(d) Immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler
76. What is the purpose of an augmenter used in some reciprocating engine exhaust systems?
(a) To reduce exhaust back pressure
(b) To aid cooling the engine
(c) To assist in displacing the exhaust gases
(d) To augment the surface area of the exhaust extension
77. How do cowl flaps aid in cooling a horizontally opposed aircraft engine?
(a) Furnishes ram air to the engine cylinders
(b) Directs air through the engine cylinders
(c) Stremlines the engine
(d) Controls the amount of air passing around the engine
78. Power recovery turbine used on some reciprocating engine are driven by the
(a) Exhaust gas pressure
(b) Crankshaft
(c) Velocity of the exhaust gases
(d) Fluid drive coupling
81. How do the turbines, which are driven by the exhaust gases of a turbine compound engine, contribute to
total engine power output?
(a) By driving the crankshaft through suitable couplings
(b) By causing the exhaust back pressure to remain below atmosphere pressure at all operating
altitudes
(c) By driving the supercharger thus relieving the engine of the super charging loud
(d) By converting the latent heat energy of the exhaust gases into thrust by collecting and
accelerating them
83. Metallic particles are found on the oil screen during an engine inspection
(a) It is an indication of normal engine wears unless the particles are nonferrous
(b) The cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight
(c) It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the deposit. Exceeds a specified amount
(d) It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the particles show ferritic content (respond to a
magnet)
84. Excessive valve clearance will cause the duration of valve opening to
(a) Increase for both intake and exhaust valves
(b) Decreases for both intake and exhaust valves
(c) Decreases for intake valves and increases for exhaust valves
(d) Increases for intake valves and decreases for exhaust valves
86. What is an advantages of using metallic fillex exhaust valves in aircraft reciprocating engine?
(a) Increased resistance to corrosive gases
(b) Increased strength and resistance to fatigue
(c) Reduced valve operating temperature
(d) Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve temperature
88. The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry-sump aircraft engine’s lubrication system?
(a) Is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump
(b) Is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump
(c) Is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply pump in order
(d) Varies according to the oil supply tank capacity and not according to the oil supply pump
capacitys
89. The economizer system of a float type carburetor performs which of the following functions?
(a) It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds below cruising
(b) It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds
(c) It supplies sand regulates the additional fuel required for all speed above cruising
(d) It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds and all altitude.
ALL INDIA AME VELFARE ASSOCIATION (REGD)
OBJECTIVE TYPE
3. Fig. Shown a simple torque meter which in the torque sensing component
(a) A
(b) A B & C
(c) B & C
(d) E
5. CSD input RPM is 5800 while output RPM in 6000 (generator) the CSD is working as
(a) Hyd. Motor
(b) Pump
(c) Direct straight drive to generator is working as
8. A helicopter on rescue mission is hovering. The EGT is 7000 C when the power is increased
(a) EGT will increased
(b) EGT will decreased
(c) EGT will first decreased upto certain power and train increases
18. Inlet for coolings air for the first stage turbine blades is from
(a) Gill holes
(b) Blades root
23. The figure shown in typical igniter plug for turboprop engine. Mark the correct statement regarding it
(a) The holes are provided for cooling
(b) The body provides positive current path
(c) All the above are correct
27. In the figure of nozzle diaphragm assembly the splinge are provided are provided for
(a) Locking spring
(b) Labry in the seal
30. Methyle browide fig extinguisher has been accidentally discharged to return the engine into service:
(a) Wash the engine into service
(b) Wait for atleast 3 hrs so that the extinguishing agent evaporation
(c) Operate the engine at idle low power
(d) Carry out electrolytic compressor wash
39. The hardware used in gas turbine engine, which bolt is cd. Plated.
(a) Both A and B
(b) A
(c) B only
(d) All A B and C
41. In the fuel control unit of hydro mechanical system if the engine all elevators without throttle
movement, it is due to
(a) Less of speed sense
(b) CIT sooner failure
(c) CIS dense
(d) All are correct
45. With the change in the altitude or forward speed of the a/c the our capsule assembly in the fuel control
unit in
(a) Capsule assembly expanded
(b) Capsule assembly compressed
(c) No changed in capsule assembly
(d) None of the above
47. During operation of the engine equipped with water injection system the watering of the coolent to the
system is
(a) Due to atmosphere pressure
(b) Due to altitude change
(c) Selected by the pilot
(d) None of the above
50. In a gas turbine engine, velocity type and accelerometer type vibration indicators are used, in which:
(a) Velocity type reads in VOLTs and accelerometer type in COULUMBS
(b) Velocity type is less reliable than accelerometer type
51. The lowest TSFC is of
(a) Turbofan engine
(b) Turbojet engine
(c) Turboprop engine
(d) Turboshaft engine
56. The pitch movement of the propeller blade is controlled by a hydraulic servo piston the increase of oil
pressure in the servo makes the propeller blade to
(a) Low pitch rotation
(b) High pitch rotation
(c) Run at low RPM
(d) High pitch with high RPM
59.The free turbine turboprop engine has different control levers is the cockpit the power lever directly
controls the
(a) Gas generator speed (Ng)
(b) Power turbine speed (Nf)
(c) Propeller governor
(d) All the above
60. The compleate control of a modern APU is performed by microprocessor based electronic control box.
(ECB) the input of the box is from
(a) APU analog input
(b) As in (a) and APU discrete input
(c) Aircraft discrate input
(d) Analog and discrete from APU along with the signal from aircraft.
61. In commercial turbofan power management control (PMC) provides an electronic override of the MEC
to correct fan speed which is a function of
(a) Power lever angle
(b) Fan inlet pressure
(c) Fan inlet temperature
(d) All the above
62. Modern jet engine uses a accelerometer to pick up engine vibration the indicator must have
(a) Charge amplifier
(b) Voltage to current converter
(c) Current limiter
(d) Voltage limiter
63. A free turbine turbo shaft is running at higher RPM there is loss of oil pressure the probable cause is
(a) The relief valve struck in closed position
(b) The relief valve struck in open position
(c) Filter clogged
(d) Oil spray jet clogged
64. When Pt2 is blocked due to ice formation then the EPR gauge will
(a) Over read
(b) Under read
(c) Read zero
66. When oil filter particle dissolves fully in Aquous solution of ammonium nitrate, the particle is
(a) Tin
(b) Cadmium
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver
67. The figure given below is or APU fitted in modern boeling aircraft the air inlet in the figure in
(a) C
(b) A and B
(c) D
(d) None of the above
68. During preflight inspection the crewmember find that the amber deck of the fire warning light appears
out this indicates
(a) The extinguishing agent in bottle is over pressurized
(b) The extinguishing agent in discharged due to over temp.
(c) The extinguishing agent in the bottle is at low pressure
(d) The extinguishing agent in discharged due to cook pit control
69. When the air starter over speeds due to failure of internal switch mechanism
(a) The engine RPM continues to rise until it reaches idle RPM
(b) The volume to starting air automatically decrease to overcome the situation
(c) The drive shaft breaks
(d) Any the stated above may happen
70. Engine operating instructions are OK except flam out during deceleration the most likely cause is
(a) Acceleration deceleration valve
(b) Maximum flow valve setting
(c) Minimum flow valve setting
(d) Governor setting.
71. At cruise condition the pilot observes fluctuation of EGT about 30 but the EPR and RPM are study. The
part of engine defective is
(a) Combustion chamber
(b) Pyrometer system
(c) Turbine
(d) None of the above
72. The graph indicates the specified fuel consumption at standard level pressure is of
(a) Turbo prop
(b) Turbo jet
(c) Turbo fan
(d) All of the above will have same graph
80. Mark the correct statement with respect of single speed engine shown being more comp. Stage than
turbine because.
(a) Compressor material is what before cannot take the load
(b) It’s different to get compression due to diffusion in less stage
(c) All the above are correct
ALL INDIA AME STUDENTS WELFARE ASSOCIATION (REGD)
3. When a turbojet engine operating at steady state max RPM any increase of airmass flow due to inlet
variable
(a) May increased the compression ratio
(b) May decrease the compression ratio.
(c) Not affect the compression ratio
(d) None of the above
4. The following fig shows a electrical tube anti icing system of an enging inlet.
(a) Outer surface is continuously heated
(b) Repairing element by welding decreases the element resistance
(c) Forward element is cyclicly heated
(d) There is no over heat protection when the A/C is on the ground
5. The principle involved in controlling the fuel flow according to the requirement of he engine?
(a) Keeping the delta pressure across the metering valve constant and changing the cross section of
the orific
(b) Keeping the constant section of the orific constant and varying the dolta pressure across the
metering valve
(c) Sessing the feed back from RPM and EGT thermocouple and controlling the fuel through the
electronic controller.
7. When CDP sensor fail during cruise condition or high power condition the engine will.
(a) Flame out
(b) Surge
(c) Decelerate to idle condition
(d) Accelerate to max power condition
8. On a twin spool turbofan engine with electronic TGT limitor (Amplifier) all engine paramotors are
fluctuating at max. RPM this is due to malfunction of
(a) Amplifier
(b) TGT thermocouples storm
(c) N1 senser system
(d) Any one of the above
11. In a typical turboshaft free power turbine engine, the FCU basically senses.
(a) The power lever governor free turbine
(b) The power turbine
(c) The power lever governor free turbine through power turbine
(d) Gas generator
ESSAY - TYPE
1. A modern aircraft fitted with two turbofan engines is O.K during engine ground run performance. The
aircraft was released for flight with instructions to the pilot. During take-off run, there was a jerk with rise
in EGT, severe EPR fluctuation and vibration. The pilot aborted the take-off.
(a) What is the cause and the events took place in a sequance?
(b) What are the critical areas to be checked for the cause and the remedial action.
2. (a) What will happen if the P & D valve is struck in open condition during starting?
(b) What are the functions of straightening vanes of exhaust cone?
(c) How the micro organism form in the fuel how they affect the fuel system and its components?
How they are detected?
(d) What are the areas to be checked for high oil consumption?
(e) What is the trim balancing?
a. How will you perform emergency shut down of APU during ground run
b. Where are the boroscopic inspection holes are provided in the engine and how and they helpful in
monitoring the health of engine?
c. What actions you will take during fire warning stall/surge and engine flame out?
7. After shut down of engine the boost pump should never be put off until the engine rotor stop this make
that the
(a) EDP do not loose prime
(b) F & D operate correctly
(c) Fuel pump life more
(d) Fuel filter operation is satisfactory
8. In hydro mechanical fuel control if CIT sense fail on hot day then engine
(a) Takes more time to accelerate
(b) Run at low RPM
(c) Surge and EGT may occur
(d) All the above are correct
10. The vibration indicator pick up is mounted in the turbine casing it indication
(a) Turbine vibration only
(b) Turbine and turbine casing vibration
(c) Turbine and compressor vibration
(d) All above
11. The blades of the compressor are twisted. This make blade
(a) More pressure on the blade tip than the root
(b) More pressure on the blade root than the tip
(c) More pressure at the middle portion of the blade
(d) None of the above
12. For the water particle inspection of the fuel the water indicator paste is applied at the bottom of the
sample bottle if the water is present in the fuel
(a) The past will come to from the bottom
(b) The bottom of the bottle will be discoloured
(c) The complete sample will be discoloured
(d) None of the above
13. A turbofan engine produce. A thrust of 9100 lbs, the fuel consumption is 700 Gallon/hr. The SPC will
be
(a) 0.07 lb/lb/hr
(b) 0.5 lb/lb/hr
(c) 0.6 lb/lb/hr.
(d) 0.7 lb/lb/hr.
14. The diagram is of a single hydraulic actuator for satic vanes the is will be
(a) 200 PSI
(b) 20 PSI
(c) 10 PSI
(d) 200 PSI
15. Compressor blades are not fitted rigidly on the nut there is a slight movement this is done to
(a) Provide case of replacement of blade
(b) To provide relief for the expansion of the blade due to heat
(c) To reduce vibrational stress on the blade
(d) All the above
14. The baffles plates are incorporated in the oil tank the of this plate is
(a) To avoid local turbulence and recirculation of used of
(b) To settle down the foreign particles in the bottom
(c) They give cooling capacity
(d) All the above are correct
16. For a given EPR if the OAT decreases the N2 RPM of turbofan engine will
(a) Increase
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain same
(d) Increases N2 with decrease of EGT
17. If engine fitted with hydro mechanical FCU when speed sense N2 fails during IDLE condition the
engine.
(a) Flame out
(b) Can not accelerate above IDLE RPM
(c) Accelerate to high power bottj
(d) None of the above
25. The transformation of kinetic energy in to pressure energy is NIL in which type of engine
(a) Turbo prop
(b) Turbo jet
(c) Turbo shaft
(d) By passed fan
28. In fig. The area of the compressor casing the gradually decreasing if it is constant
(a) Velocity decreased
(b) Velocity in even
32. In the APU of the A/C holes are provided near the exhaust the pu is to
(a) Exhaust duct air intake cooling oil breather
(b) For cooling
(c) Exhaust of QPU
36. In the filter system if both the filters are clogged the pressure at A will be
(a) 10 PSI
(b) 60 PSI
(c) 30 PSI
(d) 20 PSI