Edexcel International

London Examinations

GCE Ordinary Level

Mark Scheme with Examiners’ Report

London Examinations Ordinary Level GCE in

Physics (7540)
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April 2003

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© Edexcel
Mark Scheme and Chief Examiner's Report
January 2003

PHYSICS 7540

Mark Scheme
Page 2 of 15

Chief Examiner's Report

Page 11 of 15

Grade Boundaries
Page 15 of 15
PHYSICS 7540, MARK SCHEME

Abbreviations used in the mark scheme

UP unit penalty
TE transmits the error
OWTTE or words to that effect
R Resistance

PAPER 1

1. (a) weight 700 N (UP once in question) (1)

686 N (using 9.8)

(b) weight during 4200 N (TE) 4116 N (using 9.8) (1)

lift-off (TE) 6 x (a) or 7x i.e. 4900 N (4802 N)

(c) arrow (i) vertically upwards anywhere between limits of (1)

astronaut. A second arrow scores 0/2 in (c)(i)(ii)

(ii) labelled 4200 N or TE (b) dependent on first mark (1)

effect weight on chest / feels heavier/ blood towards back (1)

/ flattened on floor/ sinks into seat / chest
compressed ie. a new or greater effect
NOT feels dizzy or light-headed

(d) quantity vector (1)

reason has direction (1)

(e) ticks scalar: speed and mass (1)

vector: acceleration

(Total 8 marks)

2. (a) distance ½ ´ 30 ´ 3 (1)

travelled
30 x 3 (1)

135 m or correct addition of areas (UP) (1)

(180 m scores 1/3 if no other mark scored)

(b) one second dot closer to 0 than 2 seconds (1)

(uniform) acceleration/increasing velocity or speed (1)

or using area under graph

five seconds dot half-way between 4 and 6 seconds (1)

uniform speed or velocity / not accelerating or using (1)

area under graph
(Total 7 marks)

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3. (a) energy chemical to heat / thermal / internal (1)

(b) amount of 110 ´ 0.2 (=22) or 110 x 30 (=3300) (1)

energy
´ 30 x 0.2 (1)

660 J or Ws (UP) (1)

(c) convection air (near head) is warmed / heated

warm air / fluid expands

less dense

(warm air) rises

(maximum 3)
(Total 7 marks)

4. (a) moment 50 ´ 0.05 or 50 x 5 (1)

2.5 Nm or 250 Ncm (UP) (1)

(b) tension less than (1)

(c) problems reading too high / pointer off “bottom” end of scale / (1)
scale not big enough

spring goes beyond / reaches elastic limit / spring (1)

breaks
(Total 5 marks)

5. (a) two pairs eg, (2,200), (4,100), (12,30), (1.2, 300) (1)

matching products 400 and 400, 360 and 360, 360 (1)
and 400.

(b) 800 kPa 400 = 800 ´ V (1)

V = 0.5 m3 allow 0.45 m3 (UP) (1)

(c) BC heat (gas) / increase temperature (1)

(d) difference moving faster at C, slower at B or reference to a (1)

hotter position e.g. more kinetic energy
(Total 6 marks)

6. (a) sign of charge negative (1)

(b) origin of electrons transferred (no TE from (a)) (1)

charge
from cloth (to rod) (1)

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 (c) effect movement of electrons (in metal rod) (1)

move to the right / far side (TE from (a)) (1)

stated like charges repel / stated unlike charges (1)

attract
(mention of positive electrons or moving positive
charges loses first two marks in (c))

(d) charges at least 3 + at left-hand end and at least 3 – at right- (1)

hand end. All charges inside or just outside metal
rod (TE from (a))
(Total 7 marks)

7. (a) resistance 1.5/0.3 (1)

5 ohms (UP) (1)

(b) arrangement parallel (1)

brightness same brightness (1)

(c) arrangement series (1)

brightness C is dimmer/ A is brighter (1)

reason more resistance / less current / small or smaller (1)

current / voltage is shared/ divided equally or
unequally / each bulb gets half voltage / power is
shared
(Total 7 marks)

8. (a) magnetic field five or more straight lines parallel or slightly (1)
symmetrically curved - at least one straight line
possibly the middle line

arrows anywhere on each line from N to S (1)

must be 5 or more arrows

(b) (i) current arrow pointing up wire (1)

(ii) force arrow pointing into magnet originating from the part (1)
of the wire between the poles

(c) increase force larger current / voltage or less resistance (1)

OR
stronger magnet (allow poles closer together)
not bigger magnet
(Total 5 marks)

9. (a) particles protons and neutrons electrons(0) (1)

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 (b) how many of 17 protons and 19 neutrons (1)
each ignore electrons

(c) orbiting 17 electrons (1)

particles

(d) (i) nucleon no. 36 (1)

(ii) proton no. 18 (1)

(iii) no. in orbit must be same as (ii) (1)

(Total 6 marks)

10. (a) difference (much) faster or radio = 3 ´ 108 m/s, sound = 330 to (1)
340 m/s

(b) explanation took time for sound (to travel) (1)

took 4 seconds (1)

(c) dependent on first mark

speed 1350/4 (1)

337.5 (or 338)m/s (UP) (1)

340 m/s is dependent on first mark being scored

(d) difference transverse / longitudinal or EM / mechanical or (1)

vacuum / medium or medium and no medium
required or suitable diagram
i.e. must see a matching‘pair’ of responses
no marks for references to wavelength / frequency
(Total 6 marks)

11. (a) name refraction (1)

(b) cause speed or speed changes / slows down (1)

(c) difference different speed(s) (in glass) not in ‘air’ (1)

(d) nearest blue (1)

blue slower (1)

(allow large(r) refractive index or smaller
wavelength
not larger frequency
2nd mark dependent on 1st
No TE for red)

(e) green light between/in the middle (of the red and blue) (1)
(not nearer blue
can be marked on diagram)
(Total 6 marks)

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PAPER 2
1. (a) (i) time to come to 75 = (30 + 0)t/2 (1)
rest t = 75/15 (= 5 s) (1)
(Allow use of equations including calculated
value of a. Allow use of area under v-t graph. Do
not allow 75/30 = 2.5, 2.5 x 2 = 5)

(ii) deceleration = 30/5 (1)

= 6 ms-2 (UP ignore sign) (1)

(iii) change in kinetic ½ ´ 1,500 ´ 30 ´ 30 (1)

energy = 675,000 J (UP) (1)

(iv) opposing force 675,000 = F ´ 75 (must TE from (iii)) (1)

F = 9,000 N (UP only once for N) (1)
allow F= ma = 1500 x 6 (TE from (iii) allowed.
Ignore sign of F)
(v) forces shown correct force shown opposing motion (1)
on box labelled with value of F from (iv) (1)

vertical arrow(s) up or down (1)

15,000 N (UP) (1)

correct name e.g. weight / gravitational pull / W / (1)

mg or normal reaction / R

(13 marks)
(b) (i) instruments A – (millisecond / electronic / electric) timer /
timing device (1)
not stop watch / clock
(metre) rule / tape / measuring scale (1)

(ii) measurements time (for ball to fall) (1)

height / distance (from ball to contact plate) (1)
bottom / front of ball to contact plate (1)

(iii) calculate g 2 ´ distance/time2 (1)

where distance = s, x, h etc
allow formula with s as subject but only where
u = 0 and a = g
(iv) A too large (g) too small / small / smaller (1)

(7 marks)

(Total 20 marks)

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2. (a) why heavier (extra) mass / weight of rod and / or screws (1)
steel / titanium denser than bone / heavier

why titanium less dense than steel (1)

titanium rod is lighter than steel rod (1)
or converse
titanium rod is lighter than steel rod of same size
scores both marks
or converse
(3 marks)
(b) heating titanium choosing 520 J/(kgK) (1)
0.070 x 520 x 2 (1)
72.8 J (73) (UP once in (b)) (1)

heating screws (0.071 x 510 x 2 = ) 72.4 J (1)

OR OR
heating titanium (0.070 ´ 520 ´ 2 =) 72.8 J
(1)

heating screws choosing 510 J/(kgK) (1)

0.071 x 510 x 2 (1)
72.4 J (1)
accept mass of screws as 6 x 0.071 (434.5J)

(4 marks)

(c) (i) not reason similar specific heat capacity (1)

similar mass (1)
(expansion = 0 marks)

(ii) reason different expansion / contraction (values) (1)

change in titanium approximately zero (2 marks

maximum)

(3 marks)
(d) steel rod steel has higher density (1)
steel rod shorter / less steel (1)
steel has higher expansion value (1)
or converse (independent marks)
(3 marks)
(e) (i) graph scale and orientation (1)
2 cm = 20 units, or better, on both axes
axes labelled with units (1)
Plots: -1 per misplot to maximum of -2 (ignore 0,0) (2)
Line: - all points including (0,0) to be considered (1)
(ii) value value from candidate’s graph - ignore unit (1)
(iii) impossible temperature (rise) too high / won’t go above body (1)
temperature etc.
(7 marks)
(Total 20 marks)
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 3. (a) (i) number of turns 240/24 = 800/N2 (1)
N2 = 80 turns (1)

(2 marks)
(ii) energy transferred 1 current in primary
2 magnetises (iron) core
1 mark each to 3 (alternating) current changes
max 5 marks 4 produces changing field
5 changing field cuts / links / interacts
with / to / in secondary coil
6 induces an emf / current
7 in secondary (coil / circuit) (5 marks)

(iii) secondary current 60/24 (= 2.5 A) (1)

primary current 2.5/10 (1)

0.25 A (UP) (1)
OR
power in primary = 60W (1)
Current = 60/240 = 0.25A (1) (UP)
0.25 A scores 2 marks

(3 marks)
(iv) dangers water is a conductor/ can conduct (1)
(240 V) could kill people or fish / danger / (1)
possibility of electric shock/electrocution

(2 marks)
(b) (i) power supplied 60 ´ 100/86 (1)
69.76 W (no UP) (1)

(2 marks)
(ii) energy 10 ´ 5 ´ 60 (or 9.76 ´ 5 ´ 60) (1)
= 3000 J (or 2928 J) (UP) (1)

(2 marks)
(iii) constant value heat loss to surroundings (1)
equals heat transferred to transformer (1)
(1)
principal processes conduction
convection (1)
more than two, maximum of 1 out of 2
marks

(4 marks)
(Total 20 marks)

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4. (a) (i) deep water 1.3 to 1.4 (1)

shallow water 0.9 to 0.95 cm (1)

accept fractional answers
values reversed score 1

(2 marks)
(ii) deep water 20 ´ 1.3 (TE from (i)) (1)
26 cm/s (UP) (1)

shallow water 20 ´ 0.9 (TE from (i)) (1)

(mark awarded for frequency the same)
no fractions allowed
18 cm/s (UP once) (1)

consistent use of wrong frequency scores 1

maximum in (ii)
(4 marks)
(iii) speed speed unchanged (1)

wavelength wavelength smaller (independent, no TE) (1)

wavelength half of (a)(i) or calculation for (1)
both marks
(3 marks)
(b) (i) angle A 50º (no UP for degrees) (1)

explanation angle of incidence = angle of reflection (1)

obeys law of reflection OWTTE
(2 marks)
(ii) refractive index sin 50/sin 30 (1)
1.532 or 1.53 not 1.5 (1)
must use sine values 0.766/0.5
(2 marks)
(iii) critical angle sin-1 (1 / 1.53) (TE from (ii)) (1)
all values of angle below are in degrees (1)
1.532 40.746 40.74* 40.7
1.53 40.813 40.8 41
1.5 41.81 41.8
(an answer of 42 must include evidence
*accept incorrect rounding)
angle B 60º (1)
greater than c / or stated value (1)
total internal reflection (whole phrase (1)
needed, not TIR)
(5 marks)
(iv) C 30º (1)
D 50º / suitable calculation using their values (1)
(2 marks)
(Total 20 marks)

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5. (a) equipment voltmeter in parallel to thermistor (1)
(allow on cell if no other resistors in
circuit) (allow voltmeter under water)
ammeter in series with thermistor (1)
correct symbols for both meters (1)
thermometer in water labelled (1)

(4 marks)
(b) (i) apparatus 1 ice (1)
2 stirrer (1)
1 mark each 3 heat source (1)
to maximum 3 marks 4 lagging (if using an electric heater)
5 thermometer (only if not awarded in (a)
6 tripod / mat / gauze (even if electrical
heating)
(3 marks)

(ii) readings voltage / potential (1)

difference
current (1)
temperature (1)
(correct terms required)
(3 marks)

(iii) description 1 ice in beaker (1)

2 measure V and I and temperature (1)
3 heat (1)
1 mark each 4 to suitable quoted temperature (rise) (1)
to maximum 8 marks 5 remove heat (1)
6 wait (1)
7 stir
8 take 2nd set of readings (1)
9 repeat for other values of t (1)
10 up to 100º C (1)
independent marks but statement of a
series of readings at different temperatures
can score 8 and 9
(8 marks)

(iv) graph axes labelled resistance (ohms) and (1)

temperature (º C)
line or curve going from high R at low (10
temperature to low R at high temp
(2 marks)

(Total 20 marks)

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PHYSICS 7540, CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT

PAPER 1

General Comments

Some very good work was seen on this paper. Many candidates confidently performed the
calculations in questions 1(a), 2(a), 4(a), 5(b), 7(a) and 10(c), less so in 1(b) and 3(b). Of
more concern is the number of marks that good candidates are not scoring for descriptions
and explanations such as those in questions 1(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(d), 6(c), 7(c), 10(b) and 11(c),
(d).

Question 1

Most candidates were able to calculate the weight of the astronaut in (a) and give the correct
unit. Surprisingly few correct answers were seen in (b) where an answer of 4200 N was
expected. In (c) only the strongest candidates realised that the resultant force could be
represented by a vertical arrow pointing upward with the magnitude calculated in (b). Credit
was given for an answer of 4900 N in (c). In (c)(iii) an increased effect was required such as
‘feels heavier’ or a new effect such as ‘chest is compressed’. Responses such as ‘feels
dizzy’ were not acceptable. Part (d) was correctly answered by almost all candidates and so
was (e), even by some candidates who gave completely incorrect answers in (d).

Question 2

This question was extremely well answered with most candidates showing an excellent
understanding of the topic. Very few errors were seen in calculating the area under the
graph. In (b) care was required with the dots to show that one was closer to 0 than 2 and the
other was midway between 4 and 6. Explanations concerning acceleration and constant
velocity were almost always correct. Evidence of calculations from the graph leading to the
positions of the dots was acceptable in place of an explanation. The four marks in (b) were
independent, allowing candidates to score marks even if the position of a dot did not match
its explanation.

Question 3

In (a), chemical to heat or thermal or internal scored the first mark. This was rarely seen. The
calculation leading to 660 J in (b) was often incomplete with a mark given for answers of 22
or 3300. The description of convection in air in (c) was often disappointing but credit was
given if the convection of other fluids was described, such as blood or water.

Question 4

Practically all candidates correctly found the product 50 x 0.05 or 50 x 5 but many lost the
second mark for incorrect unit. N/cm was occasionally seen. Stronger candidates gave the
correct response in (b) that the tension would be less. In (c) a problem would arise with the
spring being permanently deformed or broken. This was recognised by many candidates but
the idea that the pointer might go off the scale or simply that the reading would be too high
did not appear on many scripts.

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Question 5

Most candidates were able to read two sets of points from the graph but few went on to find
the product. For much of the graph this product was 400 but values of 360 were given full
recognition. Statements such as ‘pressure is inversely proportional to volume’ did not score
the second mark in (a) unless backed up by a calculation. Correct answers of 0.5 m3 (or 0.45
m3) were often seen in (b) but a significant number of candidates started from the point
(4,100) and assumed direct proportionality to give an answer of 32 m3.

In (c) some candidates realised that an increase in temperature was involved; however
answers to (d) showed a weakness that needs to be addressed by centres. An answer of
‘increased speed’ is inadequate, especially where candidates went on to indicate that the
speed increased at C and B. Candidates should be encouraged to give unambiguous
answers such as ‘faster at C’. Answers such as ‘more motion’ or ‘more agitation’ were
unacceptable.

Question 6

Most candidates knew that the charge was negative and that electrons were transferred from
the cloth to the rod. However, many loose answers were seen in (c), often involving the
movement of positive charges or positive electrons. Either of the last two responses was
penalised by the deduction of two marks in (c). The mark scheme was:

Electrons move in the metal rod 1

They move to the right of the metal rod 1

Statement of repulsion between named like charges 1

or attraction between named unlike charges

Question 7

Strong candidates often scored six marks but others scored four by correctly calculating
resistance, giving the correct unit and recognising parallel and series connections. Incorrect
answers in (b)(ii) and (c)(i) often led to impossible situations described in (iii) such as ‘the
current splits up in Circuit C’. A great deal of misunderstanding was displayed in answers to
this question.

Question 8

This was well answered although few scored more than four because candidates were
unable to correctly show the direction of the electromagnetic force. Field lines were well
drawn in (a) and it was very pleasing to see the number of correct answers in (c), many
candidates providing a surplus answer by listing ‘bigger current’ and ‘stronger magnet’.
Centres should note that no credit was given for ‘bigger magnet’.

Question 9

Where candidates had covered this work, good answers were seen. In (d)(i) candidates
should be encouraged to answer with a number (36 in this case) rather than with ‘the same’
or ‘one more’ in (d)(ii). Some credit was given for these answers. However, many candidates
did not realise that for a neutral atom the answers to (d)(ii) and (d) (iii) were the same. The
mark scheme allowed candidates to score (d)(iii) if it was the same as (d)(ii) even if the
answer in (d)(ii) was incorrect.

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Question 10

Strong candidates gave correct, organised responses to this question but others answered
(a) in (d) and vice versa. Some sloppy work was seen in (b). ‘The sound took 4 seconds to
travel’ was expected for 2 marks but often inconclusive answers such as ‘the chimes have to
travel a long distance’ were seen. The calculation in (c) was well done by most candidates
although 1350 was divided by a variety of numbers, including 60 and 3600.

In (d), a pair of answers was expected such as ‘sound is longitudinal and light is transverse,’
not ‘sound is longitudinal and light can travel through a vacuum’. ‘Light can travel through a
vacuum but sound cannot’ was acceptable.

Question 11

This question was well answered. Almost all candidates knew, in (a), that the name given to
the bending is ‘refraction’. The only incorrect answer seen in any quantity was ‘dispersion’.
Candidates should be encouraged to view the change in direction as being due to a change
in wave speed. There is a good deal of confusion about the ideas of frequency, wavelength
and refractive index. Most candidates answered (e) correctly, the more thoughtful ones
adding a point on the diagram.

PAPER 2

General Comments

All parts of the paper were tackled by candidates. Most candidates were able to complete all
the questions in the time allowed and presented their ideas reasonably. There were still
some candidates who had obviously only completed part of the course and so scored poorly
on particular questions. Many of these would have benefited from tackling past papers in
advance of the examination to confirm that they had reached an appropriate level of
preparation. Compared with previous years, more candidates labelled diagrams and graphs
clearly to support their written answers. The choice of scale was better but centres should
warn candidates that a poor scale will continue to be penalised in future. Questions involving
calculations were often answered well although units were often missed off or written
incorrectly.

Question 1

(a) (i) Candidates who failed to recall that distance is average speed x time frequently
obtained an answer of 2.5 m/s and then baldly multiplied this by 2 to obtain the value given
in the question. This failed to score either of the marks which were only given where they
had demonstrated their knowledge of the equation. Where questions are presented in this
way, candidates must avoid using the given value to then calculate the same value. Parts
(ii), (iii) and (iv) were usually well done although the unit for acceleration was frequently
given as m/s and in calculating the kinetic energy a number of candidates forgot to square
the speed time. The diagram in part (v) was normally completed well but the label for weight
was often missed out or marked as gravity.

In question 1(b) many candidates failed to identify instrument A as an electronic timer and
some candidates wanted to use a ticker timer. A majority could state that the time and
distance of fall were required but only a few stated that the distance had to be measured
from the bottom of the sphere. This appeared to be because many had not seen this

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experiment carried out. Very few candidates could write the expression needed to calculate
g. The equation S = ut+ 1/2 at2 on its own did not score. Those candidates who did not
know the equation rarely scored the final mark and would state that the value of g obtained
would be too large.

Question 2

(a) Performance in this question was variable as candidates often failed to answer the
question as set. Most candidates scored a mark by explaining why the leg would feel
heavier than before but would then focus on the expansion value to explain why titanium
was used rather than steel, and so failed to score the next two marks. The calculation of
heat energy was usually completed well although a number of candidates chose the
incorrect combinations of mass and specific heat capacity or added 273 to the temperature
difference. Good candidates appreciated that the pain could not be due to the rates of
cooling as the masses and specific heat capacities were very similar. To score the mark for
the correct reason candidates had to refer to the difference of the expansion values to score.
Only a tiny proportion of candidates appreciated in part 2(d) that steel having a higher
density would be shorter and hence the two amounts of expansion would be the same.

Question 2(b) produced a better response. The graph was usually well drawn although some
candidates failed to use graph paper fully or to choose a sensible scale. Some lost marks as
they did not label the axes correctly and future candidates should be advised to copy the
wording used in the table exactly. Most could read the value at 126 µm. Many gained the
final mark by stating that the person’s leg would be unlikely to experience a temperature rise
of 70 0C.

Question 3

(a) Many candidates calculated the number of turns correctly. The operation of a transformer
is not well understood and too many candidates think that current passes in the iron core.
Candidates should be advised to look at the number of marks available when answering this
sort of question and to try to make one distinct point per mark; in this case five separate
points were required. In part (a)(iii) most gained a mark by showing that the current was
2.5 A although those that wrote 24/60 = 2.5 or who showed no working did not score.
Candidates who failed to appreciate that the power in the primary was equal to the power in
the secondary did not score the next two marks. In part (a)(iv) many failed to appreciate that
240 V is a high voltage or that water is a conductor and so would provide a risk of electric
shock. Some thought that the bulb would heat the water enough to kill the fish.

In 3(b) good candidates were able to show that the power would be 69.8 W and that 3000 J
of energy would be transferred to heat in the transformer. Good candidates realised that this
heat would be released in the transformer and not the filament lamp and that the two
principal processes were conduction and convection. Radiation was not acceptable as the
amount of radiation would be very small.

Question 4

(a) Candidates who had seen a ripple tank used scored well on this question although some
did not measure the gaps with sufficient accuracy. A number failed to appreciate that the gap
between adjacent lines was one wavelength. Many were able to use their measured values
to calculate the appropriate wavelengths but some lost marks through use of an incorrect
unit or when trying to convert cm/s to m/s. It was a bit worrying that many thought that
changing the frequency would also change the speed of the wave. Only the best candidates

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noted that the frequency had doubled, with most merely saying that the wavelength would
get smaller rather than halve and so only scored one of the two marks allocated.

Question 4(b) was often well answered. Marks were lost through vague responses such as
‘the incident ray is equal to the reflected ray’; here the word ‘angle’ was essential. In
calculating the refractive index and critical angle candidates had to show all steps in their
working and had to express their answers to 3 significant figures. Candidates writing 1.5 and
42° would only score full marks if they had shown that these answers were the results of
actual calculations rather than just written from memory. Many realised that total internal
reflection occurred at Q because angle B was greater than the critical angle. Some
encountered problems if they had calculated angle B to be less than 42°.

Question 5

In (a) many scored well although some failed to add the thermometer. It was pleasing to see
that most candidates knew the symbols for voltmeters and ammeters but too many still
placed the voltmeter in series with the thermistor. Some candidates added more
components such as a bulb or a rheostat and then lost the voltmeter mark by connecting it in
parallel with the supply rather than in parallel with the thermistor.

(a) In 5 (b) candidates who scored well were ones who answered each of the parts (i) to (iv)
separately and in the order given in the question. Poorer candidates did not do this and
produced confused accounts which rarely scored marks. Weaker candidates would also tend
to list the apparatus shown in the diagram rather than listing additional apparatus for b(i). In
b(ii) they were expected to give the correct names for the quantities (voltage, current and
temperature). When responding to questions such as b(iii) candidates should consider
writing the account of the experiment as a numbered list, identifying each step in the
procedure and making sure that their list has at least one statement per mark. In this case
eight correct statements were required. Candidates should not be afraid to list more points
(there were 10 possible points that could score marks in this question) as long as they are
not contradictory. A successful attempt at part (iv) required candidates to read the question
carefully and to produce a sketch graph with axes labelled with the words ‘Resistance’ and
‘Temperature’ and a downward sloping line or curve. Where candidates are told to ‘sketch a
graph in your answer book’ they should not use graph paper but should follow the instruction
and put the sketch=graph on the lined paper.

PHYSICS 7540, GRADE BOUNDARIES

Grade A B C D E

Lowest mark for

72 60 49 44 25
award of grade

Note: Grade boundaries may vary from year to year and from subject to subject, depending
on the demands of the question paper.

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