1. Sugar moves in phloem vessels as ______.

  (a) cellulose
(b) glucose
(c) starch
(d) sucrose
Ans: (d) Glucose is called principle carbohydrate, sucrose is called translocable
carbohydrate, starch is called storage carbohydrate and cellulose is called structural
carbohydrate
2. ______ ions help in photolysis of water.
  (a) Mn++
(b) Mg++
(c) Cl-
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans: (d) Magnoprotein is associated with photolysis of water, which contains Mn++ and
Cl- as cofactor.
3. RUBISCO enzyme is also called as ______.
  (a) carboxytetra mutase
(b) carboxydimutase
(c) carboxytrimutase
(d) carboxyunimutase
Ans: (b) RUBISCO is called marker enzyme of chloroplast since it can perform
carboxylation as well as oxidation, therefore also called carboxydimutase.
4. ______ is precursor for abscissic acid (ABA)
  (a) Zeatin
(b) Lutein
(c) Violaxanthin
(d) Mevalonic acid
Ans: (c)  Precursor for the biosynthesis of abscissic acid is violaxanthin, a type of
xanthophyll found in leaves.
5. In young leaves ratio of carotene to Xanthophyll is ____.
  (a) 2 : 1
(b) 3: 1
(c) 1: 3
(d) 1: 2
Ans: (d) In young leaves cuticle is thin hence require more production therefore
concentration of Xanthophyll is more than carotene which is more protective
6. Which of the following pigments contains open pyrolle ring?
  (a) Phycobilins
(b) Xanthophylls
(c) Chlorophylls
(d) β-carotene
Ans: (a) Chlorophylls are made of closed pyrolle, whereas Phycobilins are made of open
pyrolle, Carotenoids are carbon hydrogen derivatives.
7. In which of the following light, rate of photosynthesis is maximum?
  (a) white
(b) discontinuous white
(c) red
(d) blue
Ans: (b) Discontinuous white light or intermittent light don’t increase the temperature,
hence the rate of photosynthesis is maximum.
8. Quantum yield of photosynthesis is ______.
  (a) 13.5 %
(b) 8 %
(c) 13%
 (d) 12.5%
Ans: (d) Quantum requirement of photosynthesis is 8 quanta, whereas quantum yield is
1/8 x 100 i.e., 12.5%
9. During light phase of photosynthesis ______ is oxidized and ______ is reduced.
  (a) CO2 and Water
(b) Water and CO2
(c) Water and NADP
(d) NADPH2 and CO2
Ans: (c) During light phase water is oxidized and the released hydrogen is accepted by
NADP, hence is reduced to NADPH2.
10. During dark phase of photosynthesis ______ is oxidized and ______ is reduced
  (a) CO2 and Water
(b) Water and CO2
(c) Water and NADP
(d) NADPH2 and CO2
Ans: (d) During dark phase the reduced NADPH2 transfer its hydrogen to CO2 which is
reduced to carbohydrate.
11. The visible product of photosynthesis is ______.
  (a) glucose
(b) cellulose
(c) starch
(d) fructose
Ans: (c) Starch is visible product since it can be stained with iodine.
12. To produce 3 glucose molecules ______ ATP and ______ NADPH2 molecules are
  required.
(a) 54, 36
(b) 54, 30
(c) 36, 60
(d) 18, 12
Ans: (a) 1 glucose molecule requires 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
13. Glycolytic reversal is a part of ______.
  (a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) light phase of photosynthesis
(d) dark phase of photosynthesis
Ans: (d) First phase of calvin cycle is called glycolytic reversal, which is a part of dark
phase of photosynthesis.
14. RuBp carboxylase acts as RuBp carboxygenase at ______ CO2 conc. And ______ O2
  conc.
(a) low, low
(b) low, high
(c) high, high
(d) high, low
Ans: (b) During photorespiration RUBP carboxylase acts RUBP oxygenase under low
CO2 High O2 concentrations.
15. The source of CO2 during calvin cycle in C4 plant is
  (a) Malic acid
(b) OAA
(c) PEP
(d) RuDP
Ans: (a) During C4 pathway malic acid undergo decarboxylaton to release CO2.
16. Dicot which follow C4 pathway is____.
  (a) wheat
(b) Amranthus
 (c) Maize
(d) Mango
Ans: (b) Most of the C4 plant is monocot however exceptional dicot is Amaranthus.
17. Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll is maximum in _____ light.
  (a) red
(b) blue
(c) yellow
(d) blue-violet
Ans: (b) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll is maximum in blue light whereas action
spectrum is maximum in red light.
18. The oxygen molecule in glucose formed during photosynthesis comes from
  (a) Water
(b) Organic acids
(c) CO2 
(d) atmosphere
Ans: (c) Since glucose is formed form CO2 and hydrogen released from water hence
oxygen comes from CO2.
19. Dimorphic chloroplast are present in ______.
  (a) zeamays
(b) sacchrum officinale
(c) sorghum bicolor
(d) all of these
Ans: (d) Dimorphic chloroplast or Kranz anatomy is the character feature of monocot, All
the given options are monocot.
20. Red pigment in tomato is
  (a) -carotene
(b) Anthocyanin
(c) Lycopene
(d) Lutein
Ans: (c) the biological name of the tomato is lycopersicon esculentum it is due the ther
lycopene. 
21. Solarisation refers to ______.
  (a) formation of sugar with help of water or energy
(b) destruction of chlorophyll
(c) synthesis of chl.
(d) both b and c
Ans: (b) Destruction of chlorophyll is due harmful light and oxygen called solarization.
22. Dark reaction requires light reaction for
  (a) carboxylation of RUBP
(b) regeneration of RUBP
(c) reduction of PGA
(d) formation of hexose sugar
Ans: (c) Product of dark reaction is NADPH2 required for reduction of PGA to PGAL
23. Emerson effect proves
  (a) concept of two photosystem in plant
(b) photophosphorylation
(c) photorespiration
(d) there are light and dark reaction in photosynthesis
Ans: (a) The concept of two photosystem in plant was proposed by emerson bases on
red drop effect and enhancement effect.
24. Name a plant which do not perform photosynthesis is
  (a) Algae
(b) Bryophyllum
(c) cuscutta
 (d)Pitcher plant
Ans: (d) Cuscutta is a parasite.
25. Light reaction of photosynthesis results in formation of ______.
  (a) O2
(b) NADPH + H+
(c) ATP
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) During light phase ATP and NADPH is product where as oxygen is byproduct
produced during light phase.
 

1. C55H70O6N4 Mg is
(A) An accessory pigment in photosynthesis
(B) Present in PS-II
(C) Present in all green plants
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
2.  The ionized chl.a+
(A) Receives low energy electron
(B) Receives high energy electron
(C) Expels low energy electron
(D) Expels high energy electron
Answer: (A)
3.  In Calvin cycle,
(A) fructose 1,6 diphophate undergoes dephosphorylation. 
(B) ATP is formed during dephosphoylation of fructose
(C) 1,3 di PGA undergo phosphorylation
(D) none of these
Answer: (A)
4.  What will happen to the rate of photosynthesis if sodium bicarbonate is added in the water
having hydrilla plant in a beaker
(A) It will remain normal
(B) It will be decreased
(C) It will be stopped
(D) It will be accelerated
Answer: (D)
5.  Which of the following gas would disappear from the atmosphere if all the photosynthetic
activities were to stop?
(A)  Nitrogen 
(B) Carbondioxide
(C)  Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Answer: (D)
6.  Photo-oxidation of chlorophyll and cell contents as a result of high light intensity is known as
(A) Solarization
(B) Photolysis
(C) Photperiodism
(D) Photorespiration
Answer: (A)
7.  Temperature is very high but a plant is showing photosynthesis with normal rate, probably it
would be
(A) C3 plant 
(B) Mango plant
(C) Pea plant
(D) Sugarcane plant 
Answer: (D)
8.  For the process of photosynthesis all except one of the following items are essential. Point out
the exception
(A) CO2, optimum temperature
(B) Glucose and oxygen
(C) Water and minerals
(D) Light and chlorophyll
Answer: (B)
9.  The prerequisities of Calvins cycle are
(A) H2O, CO2, ATP
(B) ATP, H2O, NADPH2
(C) CO2, ATP, NADPH2
(D) NADPH2, H2O, CO2
Answer: (C)
10. In the calvin cycle, the assimilatory power is used during
(A) Formation of PGA
(B) Conversion of  PGA to  PGAL
(C) Formation of fructose 1-6 diphsophate from PGAL
(D) Formation of glucose from fructose – di- phosphate
Answer: (B)
11.  Unidirectional flow of e in non-cyclic photophosphorylation is
(A) PS II -- e- ---> PS I -- e- ---> NADP -- e- ---> water
(B) Water -- e- ---> PSII -- e- ---> PS I -- e- ---> NADP
(C) PS I -- e- ---> NADP -- e- ---> water -- e- ---> PS II
(D) Water -- e- ---> PS I -- e- ---> PS II -- e- ---> NADP
Answer: (B)
12. Which is sensitive to longer wavelength of light
(A) Photolysis
(B)  PSI 
(C) PS II
(D) Photophosphorylation
Answer: (B)
13. Phytol tail is present at
(A) 3rd carbon of IInd ring
(B) 2nd carbon of IIIrd ring
(C) 7th carbon of IVth ring
(D) 3rd carbon of IVth ring
Answer: (C)
14.  Reduction of co-enzyme NADP depends on
(A) Reduction of CO2
(B) Evolution of O2
(C) Photolysis of water
(D) Formation of ATP
Answer: (C)
15. Loculus is the internal space of
(A) Grana 
(B) Stroma
(C) Thylakoid
(D) Quantasome
Answer: (C)
16. Calvins cycle involves
(A) Oxidative phosphorylation
(B) Oxidative carboxylation
(C) Reductive carboxylation
(D) Reductive phophorylation
Answer: (C)
 17. In C4 plants, carboxylation is twice, it can be represented as
(A) Pyruvic acid + CO2 malic acid + CO2
(B) RUDP + CO2 and pyruvic acid + CO2
(C) PEPA + CO2 and RUDP + CO2
(D) PEPA + CO2 and malic acid + CO2
Answer: (C)
18. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, all the participants acts as electron donor and acceptor
except
(A) Chl-a of PS I 
(B) Chl-a of PS II
(C)  NADP 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (C)
19. Ribbon shaped chloroplast is present in
(A) Zygnema 
(B) Spirogyra
(C) Chlorobium 
(D) Chromatinum
Answer: (B)
20. Which of the following protist is a photoautotroph
(A) Thiobacillus 
(B) Ferrobacillus
(C)  Diatoms
(D) Chlorobium
  Answer: (C)
 

1. What happens during light reaction

 (A) CO2 reacts with H2
 (B) Synthesis of PGAL
 (C) Lysis of water molecule
 (D) CO2 combines with H2O
 Answer: (C) 
2. Photosynthesis takes place
 (A) Only in green light
 (B) Only in sunlight
 (C) In visible light obtained from any source
 (D) Only in high intensity of light
 Answer: (C) 
3. Chlorophyll-a differes from chlorophyll-b in having---
 (A) Methly group instead of aldehyde group
 (B) Aldehyde group instead of methyl group
 (C) Methyl group instead of ethyl group
 (D) Only phytol tail instead of head
 Answer: (A) 
4. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation
 (A) ATP is generated
 (B) Both PSI and PSII are involved
 (C) Electron flow is unidirectional
 (D) All the above
 Answer: (D) 
5. During photosynthesis the reaction when PGA is converted into PGAL, is called
 (A) Isomerization (B) Reduction
 (C) Oxidation (D) Phosphorylation
 Answer: (B) 
6. In C3 pathway, the first stable compound is
 (A) PGAL (B) OAA
 (C) PGA (D) RUDP
 Answer: (C)
7. In con-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electron emitted by P680 is replaced by electron from
 (A) NADP (B) Water
 (C) Ferridoxin (D) Chlorophyll-a
  Answer: (B) 
8. 85-90% (9/10) of all photosynthesis in the world is carried out by
 (A) Shrubs
 (B) Algae of the oceans
 (C) Herbs
 (D) Scientists in the laboratory
 Answer: (B) 
9. The source of  oxygen evolved during photosynthesis is
 (A) H2O (B) CO2
 (C) chl-a (D) glucose
 Answer: (A)
10. In C4 plants, synthesis of glucose occurs in
 (A) Spongy cells
 (B) Bundle sheath cells
 (C) Mesophyll cells
 (D) Palisade cells
 Answer: (B) 
11. In cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the first acceptor of electron are
 (A) Plastoquinone and ferridoxin
 (B) Cyt b6 and cyt. f
 (C) Ferridoxin in both
 (D) Ferridoxin and plastoquinone respt.
 Answer: (D) 
12. Primary and secondary processes of Photosynthesis takes place in ----- and ------- respectively
 (A) Stroma and grana
 (B) Stroma and lamellae
 (C) Thylakoid and quantasome
 (D) Grana and stroma
 Answer: (D) 
13. Which one occurs during both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation
 (A) Formation of ATP
 (B) Release of O2
 (C) Formation of NADPH2
 (D) Involvement of both PSI and PSII
 Answer: (A)
14. The prerequisities of Calvins cycle are
 (A) H2O, CO2, ATP
 (B) ATP, H2O, NADPH2
 (C) CO2, ATP, NADPH2
 (D) NADPH2, H2O, CO2
 Answer: (C) 
15. The photochemical process in photosynthesis which needs both PSI and PSII also involves
 (A) Photolysis of water
 (B) Z-scheme of electron transfer
 (C) Synthesis of assimilatory power
 (D) All of these
 Answer: (D) 
16. For synthesis of one molecule of glucose, the requirement of ATP and NADPH2 is respectively
 (A) 15 and 10 (B) 12 and 8
 (C) 30 and 15 (D) 18 and 12
 Answer: (D) 
17. Which of the following element is needed for chlorophyll biosynthesis?
 (A) Copper (B) Magnesium
 (C) Calcium (D) Chlorine
 Answer: (B)
18. In the calvin cycle, the assimilatory power is used during
 (A) Formation of 3-PGA
 (B) Conversion of 3-PGA to 3-PGAL
 (C) Formation of fructose 1-6 diphsophate from PGAL
 (D) Formation of glucose from fructose 1-6 diphosphate
 Answer: (B) 
19. The two enzymes responsible for primary carboxylation in C3 and C4 pathway, respectively are
 (A) RUBP carboxylase and RUBP oxygenase
 (B) PEP carboxylase and RUBP carboxylase
 (C) RUBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
 (D) PEP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
 Answer: (C) 
20. ----- are placed one above the other to form stack of coins
 (A) oxysomes (B) F1 particles
 (C) cristae (D) thylakoids
 Answer: (D) 
21. During Photosynthesis
 (A) Both CO2 and water get oxidised
 (B) Both CO2 and water get reduced 
 (C) Water is oxidised and CO2 is reduced
 (D) Water reduced and CO2 is oxidized
 Answer: (C)
22. Unidirectional flow of e in non-cyclic photophosphorylation is

 (A) PS II  PS I  NADP  water

 (B) Water  PSII  PS I  NADP

 (C) PS I  NADP  water  PS II

 (D) Water  PS I  PS II  NADP

 Answer: (B) 
23. ATP synthesis during light reaction is
 (A) Photophosphorylation
 (B) Photolysis
 (C) Oxidative phosphorylation
 (D) Phosphorylation
 Answer: (A) 
24. In photosynthesis, the first step is
 (A) Phtolysis of water
 (B) Production of NADPH2
 (C) Photoexcitation of chlorophyll
 (D) Synthesis of ATP
 Answer: (C) 
25. Calvin was given Nobel prize in 1961 for his discovery of
 (A) Mode of carbon fixation
 (B) Photosynthesis
 (C) Photolysis of water
 (D) Light reaction
 Answer: (A)
 

1. The head and tail of chlorophyll are made up of

(A) Pyrrole and tetrapyrrole
(B) Porphyrine and phytin
(C) Pophyrine and phytol
(D) Tetrapyrrole and magnesium
Answer: (C) 
2. The numbner of photons needed for the evolution of one molecule of oxygen is
(A) 8 
(B) 2
(C) 12
(D) 18
Answer: (A) 
3. Action spectrum is
(A) A graph showing amount of light absorbed
(B) A graph showing rate of photosynthesis
(C) A graph showing absorption of light
(D) A graph showing amount of CO2 released
Answer: (B) 
4. C40H56O2 is molecular formula of
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Carotenes
(C) Chlorophylls 
(D) Phycobillins
Answer: (A) 
5. Quantasome contains
(A) 150-200 chlorophyll molecules
(B) 200 chlorophyll molecules
(C) 230-250 chlorophyll molecules
(D) 300-350 chlorophyll molecules
Answer: (C) 
6. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in
(A) Blue light 
(B) Red light
(C) Green light 
(D) Violet light
Answer: (B) 
7. Agranal chloroplast is seen in
(A) Bundle sheath cells
(B) Mesophyll cells
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Epidermal cell
Answer: (A) 
8. The malic acid in bundle sheath chloroplast of C4 plants is decarboxylated to form
(A) OAA 
(B) Pyruvic acid
(C) PEPA 
(D) Aspartic acid
Answer: (B) 
9. How many Calvin’s cycle form one glucose molecule
(A) 2 
(B) 6
(C) 4 
(D) 8
Answer: (B) 
10. CO2 fixing enzymes are present in
(A) Stroma lamella
(B) Grana lamella
(C) Quantasome 
(D) Stroma
Answer: (D) 
11. PGA is the first stable compound formed in
(A) C3 pathway 
(B) Mesophyll
(C) C4 pathway 
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (A) 
12. The organisms that photosynthesizes but do not evolve any molecular oxygen during the process
(A) Blue green algae
(B) Mango plant
(C) Sulphur bacteria
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: (C)
13. C4 plants show very high rate of photosynthesis as compare to C3 plants, because of
(A) Dicarboxylation
(B) Bundle sheath cells
(C) Absence of photorespiration
(D) All the above
Answer: (C) 
14. During photsynthesis, the oxygen in glucose comes from
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Water
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Oxygen
Answer: (A)
15. Dark reaction require light reaction for
(A) Carboxylation of RUDP
(B) Reduction of PGA
(C) Formation of hexose phosphate
(D) Regeneration of RUBP
Answer: (B) 
16. Erythrose monophosphate (4C) is formed during
(A) CAM pathway
(B) C4 pathway
(C) Conversion of fructose to glucose
(D) Regeneration of RUDP
Answer: (D) 
17. Donor and acceptor of electrons is the same chlorophyll molecule in
(A) Cyclic phtophosphorylation
(B) Photorespiration
(C) Substrate level phosphorylation
(D) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Answer: (A) 
18. If a photosynthsing plant releases O18, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with
(A) Water containing O18
(B) Oxygen in the form of ozone
(C) Sugar containing O18
(D) Carbon dioxide containing O18
Answer: (A) 
19. Which of the following connet the primary and secondary processes of photosynthesis?
(A) NADPH2
(B) ATP and NADPH2
(C) ATP
(D) Ferridoxins
Answer: (B) 
20. C4 plants can perform photosynthesis
(A) Even in low light intensity
(B) Even in low CO2 concentration
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only in high intensity of light and high CO2
Answer: (B)
21. Chemical which absorbs light energy and changes it to chemical energy is
(A) Chlorophyll a 
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Xanthophyll 
(D) Carotene
Answer: (A) 
22. In Hill’s experiment, Hill used ------- as oxygen acceptor,
(A) Hydrogen (B) FAD
(C) NADP (D) Haemoglobin
Answer: (D)
23. Fret channel is a another name for
(A) Stroma lamellae
(B) Intergranal lamellae
(C) Grana lamellae
(D) Space present in stroma lamellae
Answer: (D) 
24. Bundle sheath chloroplast of C4 plants are
(A) Large and agranal
(B) Large and granal
(C) Small and granal
(D) Small and agranal
Answer: (A) 
25. In C3 pathway, out of 12 molecules of 3-PGAL, how many are used for regeneration of RUDP?
(A) 12 
(B) 8
(C) 10 
(D) 6
Answer: (C) 
 

1. A photosynthesizing plant is releasing 18O more than the normal. The plant must have been supplied with Answer: (b)
(a) O3
(b) H2O with 18O
(c) CO2 with 18O
(d) C6H12O6 with 18O

2. A plant is kept in 300 ppm CO2 concentration. What will happen to it (Rajasthan PMT 1985) Answer: (c)
(a) Plant will die soon 
(b) Plant will grow but will not die
(c) Plant will show normal photosynthesis 
(d) Respiration will be greatly decreased
3. Activation radiation for photosynthesis are represented by wavelength of (CBSE 1996) Answer: (c)
(a) 640-650 nm
(b) 600-950 nm
(c) 400-700 nm
(d) 340-450 nm

4. Aganal chloroplasts occur in Answer : (c)

(a) C3 plants
(b) Hydrophytes
(c) C4 Plants
(d) Succulents

5. All plastids have essentially same structure because Answer: (d)

(CBSE 1992)
(a) They have to perform same function 
(b) They are localized in aerial parts of plants
(c) All plastids store starch, lipid and proteins 
(d) One type of platid can be differentiated into another type of plastid depending on cell requirements

6. Assimilatory power produced in hill reaction and used in Blackman’s reaction refers to Answer : (a)
(a) Generation of ATP and NADPH2
(b) Reduction of CO2
(c) Splitting of water
(d) Disintegration of plastids

7. Which wavelength of light carries out photosynthesis in bacteria (Rajasthan PMT 1985) Answer: (d)
(a) Ultraviolet light  
(b) Blue
(c) Red 
(d) Far red

8. ATP is a source of energy for Answer : (c)

(a) Light reaction in C4 plants
(b) Photophosphorylation
(c) Biochemical reactions
(d) Photolysis of water

9. Bacterial photosynthesis contains Answer : (a)

(a) PSI
(b) PSII
(c) Both PSI and PSII
(d) None of them

10. Bacteriochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll ‘a’ in having (CPMT 1989) Answer: (b)
(a) One pyrrol with one hydrogen 
(b) One pyrrol with two hydrogen
(c) One pyrrol with three hydrogen
(d) One pyrrol with four hydrogen

11. Besides water and light, which is more essential as a raw material for food formation (BHU 1979) Answer: (b)
(a) O2 
(b) CO2
(c) Mineral salts
(d) NAD

12. Both respiration and photosynthesis require Answer : (c)

(a) Sunlight
(b) Green cells
(c) cytochromes
(d) Organic substrate

13. C4 cycle was discovered by Answer : (c)

(a) Hill
(b) Calvin
(c) Hatch and slack
(d) Blackman

14. C4 plants are adapted to (AIIMS 1984) Answer: (a)

(a) Hot ad dry climate 
 (b) Temperate climate
(c) Cold and dry climate 
(d) Hot and humid climate

15. C4 plants belong to Answer : (d)

(a) Gramineae
(b) Monocots
(c) Dicots
(d) Both monocots and Dicots

16. Calvin cycle occurs in (MP PMT 1996) Answer: (a)

(a) Chloroplast
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Glyoxysomes

17. Calvin cycle occurs in (BHU 1983) Answer : (a)

(a) Chloroplasts
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Glyoxysomes

18. Calvin’s cycle is found in (Raj. PMT 1997) Answer: (d)

(a) Only C3 plants 
(b) Only photosynthetic plants
(c) All C4 plants 
(d) All photosynthetic plants

19. CAM photosynthesis occurs in plants with Answer: (c)

(MP PMT 1993)
(a) Thin green leaves with reticulate venation 
(b) Thin green leaves with parallel venation
(c) Fleshy green leaves 
(d) Thin coloured leaves

20. Carbon dioxide is fixed in (MP PMT 1999) Answer: (b)

(a) Light reaction
(b) Dark reaction
(c) Aerobic respiration
(d) Anaerobic respiration
 

1. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway in Answer: (d)

(a) PSI
(b) PSII
(c) light reaction
(d) Dark reaction

2. Chlorophyll a occurs in Answer: (a)

(a) All photosynthetic autotrophs
(b) In all higher plants
(c) All oxygen liberating autotrophs
(d) All plants except fungi

3. Chlorophyll b is Answer: (b)

(a) C54H70O6N4Mg
(b) C55H70O6N4Mg
(c) C55H70O5N4Mg
(d) C45H72O5N4Mg

4. Chlorophyll is (MP PMT 1996) Answer: (a)

(a) Soluble in organic solvents 
(b) Soluble in water
(c) Soluble in both organic solvents and water
(d) None of the above

5. Chlorophyll is present (CPMT 1987) Answer: (c)

(a) On the surface of chloroplast 
 (b) In the stroma of chloroplast
(c) In the grana of chloroplast   
(d) Dispersed throughout the chloroplast

6. Chlorophylls absorb visible light of wavelenghts Answer: (d)

(a) 400- 500 nm only
(b) 300- 400 nm only
(c) 600- 800 nm only
(d) 400- 500 nm only and 600- 700 nm only

7. Chloroplast contains maximum quantity of Answer: (a)

(a) RuDP -carboxylase
(b) Hexokinase
(c) Pyruvic carboxylase
(d) None

8. Chloroplast contians maximum quantity of (BHU 1981) Answer: (c)

(a) Pyruvic carboxylase(b) Hexokinase
(c) RuDP carboxylate
(d) None of the above

9. Chloroplast fixes  (Delhi PMT 1987) Answer: (c)

(a) O2
(b) H2
(c) CO2 
(d) N2

10. CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is (CBSE 1995, 96) Answer: (c)

(a) Xylulose-5-phosphate 
(b) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(c) Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate 
(d) Phoshoenol pyruvic acid

11. Constituents of pigment system I are located on Answer: (c)

(a) Granal thylakoids
(b) Stromal thylakoids
(c) Outer surface of granal and stromal thylakoids
(d) Stroma

12. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces Answer: (d)

(a) NADPH
(b) ATP and  NADPH
(c) ATP ,  NADPH and O2
(d) ATP only

13. Dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in Answer: (c)

(a) Granal thylakoid membranes
(b) Stromal lamella membranes
(c) stroma outside photosynthetic lamellae
(d) Periplastidial space

14. During ATP synthesis, electrons pass through Answer: (d)

(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) H2O
(d) Cytochromes

15. During dark reaction the three carbon atoms of 3-PGA are derived from Answer: (c)
(a) RuBP only
(b) CO2 only
(c) RuBP + CO2
(d) RuBP + CO2  + PEP

16. During daylight hours, the rate of photosynthesis is higher than that of respiration, and the ratio of oxygen produced to that Answer: (b)
of consumed is (CPMT 1984)
(a) 1: 1 
(b) 10: 1
(c) 50: 1 
(d) 5: 1
 17. During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phosphogycleraldehyde, which of the following reactions occurs? (BHU Answer: (b)
1980)
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Electrolysis
(d) Hydrolysis

18. Enzymes PEP carboxylase and RuBP caboxylase are located in chloroplasts of Answer: (d)
(a) C3 plants
(b) CAM plants
(c) C4 plants
(d) both (b) and (c)

19. Ferredoxin is a constituent of Answer: (a)

(a) PSI
(b) PSII
(c) Hill reaction
(d) P680

20. First stable product of C4 photosynthesis is Answer: (b)

(a) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(b) Malic acid
(c) PGA
(d) RuBP
 

1. For photosynthesis (i.e. for the suynthesis of organic matter), the green plants need only (AFMC 1987) Answer: (d)
(a) Light 
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) CO2 
(d) All of these

2. For synthesis of a molecule of glucose, the requirement of ATP and NADPH is respectively Answer: (d)
(a) 15 and 10
(b) 33 and 22
(c) 12 and 8
(d) 18 and 12

3. Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and respiration is an oxidation process which utilizes the energy from Answer: (c)
(a) Cytochromes
(b) Ferredoxin
(c) Electrons
(d) Carbon dioxide

4. Grana refer to (BHU 1984) Answer: (a)

(a) Stacks of thylakoids in plastids of higher plants
(b) A constant in quantum equation
(c) Glycolysis of glucose
(d) By-product of photosynthesis

5. Greatest producers of organic matter are Answer: (d)

(a) Crop plants
(b) Forests
(c) Plants of the land area
(d) Phytoplankton of oceans

6. Hill’s reaction takes place in  (CPMT 1986) Answer: (b)

(a) Dark 
(b) Light
(c) Dark and light both
(d) At any time

7. How many Calvin cycles form one hexose molecule (CBSE 1996) Answer: (b)
(a) 2 
(b) 6
(c) 4 
(d) 8
8. In a electron transport chain in terminal oxidation the cytochrome which donates electrons to O2 is (CPMT 1990) Answer: (c)
(a) Cytochrome b
(b) Cytochrome c
(c) Cytochrome a3
(d) Cytochrome a

9. In bacterial photosynthesis, the hydrogen donor is Answer: (d)

(a) H2O
(b) H2SO4
(c) NH3
(d) H2S

10. In blue-green algae photosystem-II contain an important pigment concerned with photolysis of water it is called (BHU Answer: (d)
1989, 90)
(a) B earotene  
(b) Chlorophyll’ b’
(c) Cytochrome ‘c’
(d) Phycocyanin

11. In C3 plants first stable product of photosynthesis during dark reactions is Answer: (a)
(a) PGA
(b) PGAL
(c) RuBP
(d) Oxalo acetic acid

12. In C4 pathway or C4 photosynthesis carbobn dioxide fication occures in chloroplast of Answer: (b)
(Delhi PMT 1985; CBSE 1995; MP PMT 1997)
(a) Palisade tissue
(b) Spongy mesophyll
(c) Bundle sheath
(d) Guard cells

13. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in Answer: (a)

(a) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts
(b) Grana of Bundle sheath chloroplasts
(c) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
(d) Stroma od mesophyll chloraplasts

14. In C4 plants, initial carbondioxide fixation occurs on chloroplasts of Answer: (b)

(a) Palisade tissue
(b) Spongy parnchyma
(c) Guard cells
(d) Hypodermis and chlorenchyma

15. In C4 plants, synthesis of sugars/ final CO2 fixation occurs in Answer: (d)
(a) Palisade cells
(b) Spongy cells
(c) Undifferentiated mesophyll cells
(d) Bundle sheath cells

16. In case of C4 pathway Answer: (b)

(a) CO2  combines with PGA
(b) CO2 combines with PEP
(c) CO2 first combines with RuBP
(d) CO2 combines with RMP

17. In chlorophyll ‘a’, third carbon of second pyroll ring is attached with (CBSE 1996) Answer: (c)
(a) Carboxyl group
(b) Magnesium
(c) Methyl group
(d) Aldehyde group

18. In normal chloroplast, the percentage of chlorophyll is  Answer: (c)

(a) 50% 
(b) 75%
(c) 5-10% 
(d) 95%

19. In photosynthesis, oxygen is liberated due to Answer: (c)

 (Delhi PMT 1983; MP PAT 1995; MP PMT 1999)
(a) Reduction of carbon dioxide 
(b) Hydrolysis os carbohydrate
(c) Photolysis of water 
(d) Breakdown of chlorophyll

20. In pigment system II, active chlorophyll is Answer: (a)

(a) P680
(b) P700
(c) P673
(d) P720
 

1. In which of the following the rate of photosynthesis is decreased and is known as red drop (MP PMT 1992) Answer: (c)
(a) Blue light 
(b) Green light
(c) Red light more than 680 nm 
(d) Red light less than 680 nm

2. Intact chloroplast from green leaves cab be isolated by (AIIMS 1990) Answer: (a)
(a) Acetone 
(b) Ethanol
(c) Alcohol 
(d) Sugar solution

3. Isotopes employed to study photosynthesis are Answer: (d)

(a) 11C and 32P
(b) 15C and 32P
(c) 16C and 15O
(d) 14C and 18O

4. Isotopes popularly known to have been used in the study of photosynthesis are (BHU 1985) Answer: (a)
(a) C14 and O18
(b) C11 and C32
(c) C16 and N15
(d) P32 and C15

5. Kranz anatomy is typical of Answer: (a)

(a) C4 plants
(b) C3 plants
(c) C2 plants
(d) CAM plants

6. Light energy is conveted into chemical energy in the presence of (MP PMT 1994) Answer: (b)
(a) Pyrenoids 
(b) Chloroplasts
(c) Ribosomes 
(d) Mesosomes

7. Light is necessary during photosynthesis for Answer: (b)

(NCERT 1978)
(a) Evolution of hydrogen 
(b) Photolysis of water
(c) Heating   
(d) Breakdown of chlorophyll

8. Maize, sugarcane and some other tropical plants have high efficiency of CO2 fixation because they operate Answer: (b)
(a) Calvin cycle
(b) Hatch – Slack cycle
(c) TCA cycle
(d) PP pathway

9. Make suitable pair Answer: (d)

(A) Emerson effect - (a) C4 cycle
(B) Hill reaction - (b) Photolysis
(C)   Calvin’s cycle - (c)     C3 cycle
(D)   Hatch and Slack cycle - (d)     Photosystem-I & II
(Rajasthan PMT 1997) 
 (a) Aa, Bb, Cc, Dd
(b) Aa, Bc, Cd Da
(c) Ac, Bd, Ca, Db
(d) Ad, Bb, Cc, Da

10. Most effective wavelength of light for photosynthesis is Answer: (c)

(a) green
(b) Violet
(c) Red
(d) Yellow

11. NADP is reduced to NADPH in Answer: (d)

(a) PSI
(b) PSII
(c) Calvin cycle
(d) Noncyclic photophosphorylation

12. Nine-tenth of all photosynthesis of world (85-90%) is carried out by Answer: (b)
(a) Large trees with millions of branches and levess
(b) Algae of the ocean
(c) Chlorophyll containing ferns of the forest
(d) Scientist in the laboratories

13. Nobel prize was awarded to the scientist for discovering the pathway of carbon assimilation Answer: (c)
(a) Watson
(b) Krebs
(c) Calvin
(d) Parnas

14. Number of calvin cycles required to generate a molecule of hexose is Answer: (c)
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

15. One sixth part of the total PGAL produced is used for synthesis of Answer: (a)
(a) Glucose
(b) RuBP
(c) RuMP
(d) DHAP

16. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs during the process of (MP PMT 1994, 98) Answer: (b)
(a) Protein synthesis
(b) N2 fixation
(c) Respiration
(d) Transpiration

17. Oxygen containing carotenoids are Answer: (b)

(a) Carotenes
(b) Xanthophylls
(c) Phycobilins
(d) Anthocyanins

18. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from Answer: (c)

(a) CO2
(b) Glucose
(c) H2O
(d) Fructose

19. P700 is a special from of which pigment (Rajasthan PMT 1997) Answer: (c)
(a) Chlorophyll-b
(b) Carotenes
(c) Chlorophyll-a
(d) Phycobilins

20. Path of dark reaction of photosynthesis was traced through the use of Answer: (b)
(a) 32P
(b) 14CO2
(c) 18O2
 (d) X-rays
 

1. PEPA, the first CO2 acceptor in C4 cycle is Answer : (c)

(a) 5 – C compound
(b) 4 – C compound
(c) 3 – C compound
(d) 2 – C compound

2. Photo-oxidation or photolysis of water (in photosynthesis ) occurs in association of Answer : (c)

(a) Cytochrome B6
(b) Plastocyanin
(c) PSII
(d) PSI

3. Photorespiration occurs in Answer : (c)

(a) Mitochondria
(b) All living cells
(c) Green photosynthesis parts
(d)  Root

4. Photosynthesis consists of essentially two biological reaction systems, one followed by the other, the second of these Answer: (a)
system does which of the following (CPMT 1988)
(a) Fixes CO2 
(b) Traps light energy
(c) Synthesizes starch
(d) Work only in the presence of light

5. Photosynthesis is (JIPMER 1986; CPMT 1988, 90) Answer: (b)

(a) Oxidative, exergonic, catabolic 
(b) Reductive, endergonic, anabolic
(c) Reductive, exergonic, anabolic 
(d) Reductive, endergonic, catabolic

6. Photosynthesis is a  process in which Answer : (d)

(a) ATP is generated
(b) NADH is reduced to NAD
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs
(d) CO2 is reduced

7. Photosynthesis is fastest in Answer : (b)

(a) Blue light
(b) Sunlight
(c) Red light
(d) Green light

8. Photosynthesis is the fastest in Answer: (b)

Blue light
Sun light
Red light
Green light

9. Photosynthetic bacteria and blue-green algae have molecular component of their light-receptor systems Answer: (b)
(Delhi PMT 1991)
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Chromatophores
(c) Lamellae 
(d) Grana

10. Photosynthetic phosphorylation is Answer: (b)

(a) Oxidative process
(b) Photo process
(c) Both (a) and
(d) None of the above

11. Photosynthetic pigments found in the chloroplasts occur in Answer : (a)

(a) Thylakoid membranes
(b) Plastoglobules
 (c) Matrix
(d) Chloroplasts envelope

12. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of (CBSE 1991) Answer: (a)
(a) Thylakoids 
(b) Photoglobin
(c) Matrix   
(d) Envelopeof chloroplast

13. Photosystem II occurs in Answer : (c)

(a) Stroma
(b) Cytochrome
(c) Grana
(d) Mitochondrial surface

14. Photosystem-I contains (BHU 1983; Rajasthan PMT 1987, 92) Answer: (c)
(a) Chl a, Chl b, carotenoid and P680 
(b) Chl a, Chl b and P690
(c) Chl a, Chl b and P700 
(d) Chl a, xanthophyll and P700

15. Pigment acting as a reaction centre during photosynthesis is Answer : (c)

(a) Carotene
(b) Phytochrome
(c) P700
(d) Cytochrome

16. Pigment system I performs independently Answer : (b)

(a) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(b) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation
(d) Photolysis

17. Pigment system-I receives radiant energy and releases electron (MP PMT 1992) Answer: (d)
(a) Chlorophyll-683
(b) Chlorophyll-673
(c) Chlorophyll-695
(d) P-700

18. Plants are known as purifiers of air due to process of Answer: (b)
(MP PMT 1996)
(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Transpiration
(d) Desiccation

19. PS II performs Answer : (b)

(a) Reduction of CO2
(b) Photolysis of water
(c) Liberation of energy
(d) Formation of water

20. PS-I gets de-energised electrons from Answer : (c)

(a) water
(b) Plastoquinone
(c) Plastocyanin
(d) Cytochrome f.
 
1.
Quantasomes contain (CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1984)
(a) 200 chlorophyll molecules 
(b) 230 chlorophyll molecules
(c) 250 chlorophyll molecules 
(d) 300 chlorophyll molecules
Answer: (b)
2.
Quantasomes occur on the surface of
(a) Cristae
(b) Plasmalemma
(c) Thylakoid membranes
(d) Peristromium
Answer : (c)
3.
Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase enzyme catalyses the reaction between
(a) Oxaloacetic acid and acetyl CoA
(b) CO2 and ribulose 1, 5, biphosphate
(c) Ribulose biphosphate and phosphoglyceraldehyde
(d) PGA and dihydroxy acetone phosphate
Answer : (b)
4.
Rubisco content of chloroplast is
(a) 5%
(b) 20%
(c) 11%
(d) 16%
Answer : (d)
5.
Scientist awarded Nobel prize in 1961 for tracing the path of carbon in photosynthesis was
(a) Calvin
(b) Ruben
(c) Blackman
(d) Hatch
Answer : (a)
6.
Sugarcane shows high efficiency of CO2 fixation because it performs
(a) Calvin cycle
(b) EMP pathway
(c) Hatch and Slack pathway
(d) TCA cycle
Answer : (c)
7.
Synthesis of ADP + Pi  -----> ATP in grana is
(a) Phosphorylation
(b) Photophosphorylation
(c) Oxidative Phosphorylation
(d) Photolysis
Answer : (b)
8.
The brown colour of some algae is due to the presence of pigments (Delhi PMT 1991)
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Phycocyanin
(c) Carotene 
(d) Fucoxanthin
Answer: (d)
9.
The carbon dioxide acceptor in calvin cycle / C3 plants is
(a) Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP)
(b) Ribulose1, 5 – Diphosphate (RuBP)
(c)  Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
(d) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP)
Answer : (b)
10.
The empirical formula for chlorophyll a is
(a) C35H72O5N4Mg
(b) C65H70O6N4Mg
(c) C55H72O5N4Mg
(d) C45H70O6N4Mg
Answer : (c)
11.
The enzyme that catalyses carbon dioxide fixation in C4 plants is
(a) RuBP carboxylase
(b) PEP carboxylase
(c) Carbonic anhydrase
(d) Carbxydismutase
Answer : (b)
12.
The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 – plants is
(a) Phosphoenol – pyruvic acids
(b) Ribulose1, 5 - Diphosphate
(c) Oxalo- acetic acid
(d) Phosphoglyceric acid
Answer : (a)
13.
The first experiment on photosynthesis in flashing light were carried out by (MP PMT 1990)
(a) F.F. Blackman 
(b) Robert Emerson and Arnold
(c) Melvin Calvin 
(d) Robert Hill
Answer: (b)
14.
The first food substance plants make in photosynthesis is
(a) Sugar
(b) Starch
(c) Proteins
(d) Fats
Answer : (a)
15.
The first product of CO2 fixation in C4 plants is
(a) OAA
(b) PGA
(c) Malic acid
(d) PEPA
Answer : (a)
16.
The first product of CO2 fixation in Hatch and Stack plants is (CPMT 1983)
(a) Formation of oxalocetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP in) bundle sheath cells 
(b) Formation of phoshoglyceric acid in mesophyll cells
(c) Formation of bundle sheath cells 
(d) Formation of oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) in the mesophyll cells
Answer: (d)
17.
The first step in photosynthesis is the
(a) Joining of 3-carbon atom to form Glucose
(b) Formation of ATP
(c) Ionization of water
(d) Excitement of an electron of chlorophyll by photon of light
Answer : (d)
18.
The full expansion of NADP is (Raj. PMT 1997)
(a) Nicotinamide adenine diphosphate 
(b) Nicotinamide adenosine diphosphate
(c) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate 
(d) Nicotinamide adenosine dinucleotide phosphate
Answer: (c)
19.
The internal sorce of CO2 in C4 pathway is
(a) Oxaloacetic acid
(b) Malic acid
(c) RuBP
(d) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
Answer : (b)
20.
The isotope of carbon used extensively for studies in photosynthesis is
(a) 13C
(b) 14C
(c) 15C
(d) 16C
Answer : (b)
 

1. In respiration enregy not converted in ATP is

(A) Liberated along with CO2
(B) Converted into heat
(C) Transferred to organic compounds
(D) Transferred to water
Answer: (B)

2. One gram mole of glucose on complete oxidation to CO2 and H2O produces about
(A) 686,000 cal
(B) 6,860 cal
(C) 6,860,000 cal
(D) 68,600 cal
Answer: (A)

3. In respiration, pyruvic acid is

(A) Formed only when the cell is with mitochondria
(B) Formed only when oxygen is available
(C) Formed only when cell is performing aerobic respiration
(D) Commonly formed as intermediate product of aerobic and anaerobic respiration
Answer: (D)

4. What ultimately occurs during respiration is

(A) Synthesis of ATP
(B) Electron transport
(C) break down of ATP
(D) capture of solar energy
Answer: (A)

5. Number of steps involved in release of CO2 during Kreb’s cycle are

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 12
Answer: (B)

6. RQ is
(A) C/N
(B) CO2/O2
(C) O2/CO2
(D) N/C
Answer: (B)

7. Mitochondria do not occur in

(A) Ferns
(B) Bacteria
(C) Green algae
(D) Brown algae
Answer: (B)

8. Mitochondrial component connected with ATP synthesis

(A) Inner membrane
(B) Outer membrane
(C) Matrix
(D) F0 – F1 particles
Answer: (D)

9. Inner membrane involutions of a mitochondria are called

(A) Lamellae
(B) Cristae mitochondriales
(C) Thylakoid
(D) Tubules
Answer: (B)

10. Mitochondrial criste are sites of

(A) Kreb’s cycle
(B) Oxidation reduction reaction
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) Lipid synthesis
Answer: (B)

11. Mitochondria are self replication organelles as they have

(A) Thylakoids
(B) Oxysomes
(C) Ribosomes
(D) DNA
Answer: (D)

12. How many ATP are produced from NADH2 during aerobic respiration
(A) 30
(B) 8
(C) 34
(D) 2
Answer: (B)

13. The intermediate product of glycolysis which undergoes lysis or splitting is

(A) Fructose 1-6 diphosphate
(B) Dihydroxyacetone 3 phosphate
(C) Glucose – 6 – phosphate
(D) Glyceraldehyde – 3  phosphate
Answer: (A)

14. Number of carbon atoms present in citric acid, oxaloacetic acid pyruvic acid are respectively
(A) 6, 3 and 3
(B) 6, 4 and 3
(C) 5, 4 and 3
(D) 6, 4 and 2
Answer: (B)

15. Removal of hydrogen and CO2 from substrate is called

(A) Oxidation
(B) Decarboxylation
(C) Reductive carboxylation
(D) Oxidative decarboxylation
Answer: (D)

16. Aerobic respiration of one glucose produces

(A) 12 NADH + 2FADH2 + 38 ATP
(B) 12 NADH + 30 ATP + H2O
(C) 8 NADH + 2FADH2 + 2ATP
(D) 10 NADH2 + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP + 2 GTP
Answer: (D)

17. ETC and TCA enzyme soccurs in

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Cytoplasm
Answer: (C)

18. End products of aerobic respiration are

(A) Sugar and oxygen
(B) Water and energy
(C) Carbon dioxide and energy
(D) Carbon dioxide, water and energy
Answer: (D)

19. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as
(A) HMS-pathway
(B) TCA pathway
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Kreb’s cycle
Answer: (C)

20. Kreb’s cycle begins with the reaction

(A) Citric acid + Acetyl CoA
(B) OAA + Acetyl Co-A
(C) OAA + Citric acid
(D) OAA + Pyruvic acid
Answer: (B)

21. Formation of lactic acid from pyruvic acid requires

(A) Reduction
(B) Oxidation
(C) Decarboxylation
(D) Hydration
Answer: (A)
22. When a pair of electron from NADPH2 is transported through respiration ETS, it results in the
formation of
(A) 5 molecules of ATP
(B) 4 molecules of ATP
(C) 3 molecules of ATP
(D) 2 molecules of ATP
Answer: (C)

23. Oxidation step of glycolysis is

(A) 1,3 di PGA  3 PGA
(B) 3 PGAL  1, 3 diPGA
(C) PGA  PEP
(D) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate  PGAl + DHAP
Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following process is used in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
(A) Oxidative decarboxylation
(B) Oxidative dehydrogenation
(C) Oxidation phosphorylation
(D) Oxidation dehydration
Answer: (A)

25. Enzymes taking part in glycolysis are present in

(A) Vacuole
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (C)

1. Total number of water molecules produced per molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is
(A) 10
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 8
Answer: (B)

2. Number of oxygen molecules required for glycolytic breakdown of one glucose molecule is
(A) Three
(B) Zero
(C) Thirty eight
(D) Six
Answer: (B)

3. In aerobic respiration, first CO2 is liberated during

(A) Oxidation of pyruvic acid
(B) Decarboxylation of oxalosuccinic acid
(C) Decarboxylation of a ketoglutaric acid
(D) Alcoholic fermentation
Answer: (A)

4. Protoplasmic repiration is respiration

(A) Occuring in protoplasm
(B) Occuring in cytoplasm
(C) when protein is respiration substrate
(D) Occuring outside mitochondria
Answer: (C)

5. Oxidation of a molecule of acetyl Co-A produces

(A) 12 ATP
(B) 15 ATP
(C) 6 ATP
(D) 24 ATP
Answer: (C)

6. Incomplete breakdown of sugars in anaerobic respiration forms

(A) Glusoce and CO2
(B) Alcohol and CO2
(C) Water and CO2
(D) Sucrose and water
Answer: (B)

7. The number of molecules of pyruvic acid formed from one molecule of glucose at the end of glycolysis
is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (B)

8. Oxysome is made up of
(A) Stalk, head piece and tail piece
(B) Stalk, head piece and base piece
(C) Head as basal piece
(D) Stalk and head piece
Answer: (B)

9. FADH2 is formed in conversion of

(A) Succinyl CO-A succinic acid
(B) Succinic acid-fumaric acid
(C) Fumaric acid-malic acid
(D) Isocitric acid-oxalosuccinic acid
Answer: (B)

10. Muscle cell starved of oxygen and supplied with pyruvic acid will produce
(A) CO2 only
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Ethonal
(D) CO2 and H2O
Answer: (B)

11. The organic acid formed last in aerobic respiration is

(A) Citric acid
(B) Pyruvic acid
(C) Oxaloacetic acid
(D) Phosphoglyceric acid
Answer: (C)

12. As compared to anaerobic respiration the energy gained during aerobic respiration is ------ more
(A) 6 times
(B) 12 times
(C) 18 times
(D) 19 times
Answer: (D)

13. Which is key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to Kreb’s cycle?

(A) Malic acid
(B) Acetyl Co-A
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) Citric acid
Answer: (B)

14. In TCA cycle, GTP is formed during conversion of

(A) Succinyl Co-A into succinic acid
(B) a-ketoglularic acid to succinyl CO-A
(C) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (A)

15. Process of respiration in green plants takes place

(A) only when photosynthesis is in open
(B) Only when stomata are open
(C) Only when photosynthesis cease
(D) All the times
Answer: (D)

16. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as
(A) TCA pathway
(B) HMS pathway
(C) HSK pathway
(D) EMP pathway
Answer: (D)
17. Connectin link between EMP pathway and TCA cycle is
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Citric acid
(C) Acetyl CO-A
(D) Oxalosuccinic acid
Answer: (C)

18. If 5 molecules of glucose respired aerobically and another 5 molecules anaerobically, how many ATP
and CO2 are expected to form?
(A) 200 ATP and 60 CO2
(B) 140 ATP and 40 CO2
(C) 200 ATP and 40 CO2
(D) 190 ATP and 36 CO2
Answer: (C)

19. An organic acid which undergoes both dehydrogenation and decarboxylation in Kreb’s cycle
(A) Sucinic acid
(B) a-ketoglytatric acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) malic acid
Answer: (B)

20. Terminal oxidation means

(A) Electron transport
(B) Synthesis of ATP
(C) Formation of water
(D) Dehydrogenation of reaction
Answer: (C)

21. Which of the folowing is mirochondrial stain

(A) Gimsa green
(B) Jenus Green B
(C) Crystel Voilet
(D) Jenus Green A
Answer: (B)

22. The reaction converting pyruvate to acetyl CO-A is

(A) Decarboxylation
(B) Dehydrogenation
(C) Oxidative decarboxylation
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (C)

23. In mitochondria F1 particles are placed at a distance

(A) 40° A (B) 50°A
(C) 80° A (D) 100° A
Answer: (D)
24. The reaction which brings about formation of 3 PGA in the glycolysis involves
(A) Dephosphorylation
(B) Cleavage
(C) Oxidative phosphorylation
(D) Oxidative decarboxylation
Answer: (A)

25. Removal of hydrogen and formation of ATP are commonly called as

(A) Phosphorylation
(B) Dephosphorylation
(C) Dehydrogenation
(D) Oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: (D)

1. The number of different 3-C compounds formed during glycolysis is

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: (D)

2. During aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose, net water molecule are removed from the
substrate during Kreb’s cycle is?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 6
(D) 3
Answer: (D)

3. Out of the total available energy, the percentage of energy conserved as ATP in the anaerobic
respiration of glucose comes to
(A) 40%
(B) 14.6%
C) 60%
(D) 2%
Answer: (D)

4. During terminal oxidation, the final electron acceptor of the ETS. is

(A) free molecular oxygen.
(B) Co-Q.
(C) Cyt.a3
(D) the protons 2H+.
Answer: (A)

5. Enzymes required for Kreb’s cycle are located in

(A) Outer chamber of mitochondria
(B) Inner chamber of mitochondria
(C) Mitochondria and cytoplasm
(D) Cytoplasm only
Answer: (B)

6. Usable energy avaliable from respiration is

(A) 10%
(B) 40%
(C) 60% 
(D) 30%
Answer: (B)

7. Metabolic water is the one

(A) Used during photosynthesis
(B) Produced during phtosynthesis
(C) Produced during aerobic utilization of glucose
(D) Produced during anaerobic utilization of glucose
Ans (C)

8. Out of 38 molecules of ATP produced by respiration of one glucose, the molecules produced from from
NADH2 are
(A) 22 ATP
(B) 36 ATP
(C) 30 ATP
(D) 34 ATP
Answer: (C)

9. Hydration reaction of Kreb’s cycle involves conversion of

(A) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(B) Isocitric to oxalosuccinic acid
(C) Fumaric acid to malic acid
(D) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
Answer: (C)

10. The second ATP molecule in electron transport system in generated between
(A) Cyt C1 to b
(B) Cyt C1 to c
(C) Cyt b and C1
(D) Cyt C to a
Ans (C)

11. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accept and releases electron is
(A) C
(B) Fe
(C) Zn (D) Mg
Ans (B)

12. Which of the following process will cause loss of net dry weight of organisms
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Respiration
(C) Growth
(D) Assimilation
Ans (B)

13. It is not advisable to sleep under trees as  

(A) They release O2 at night
(B) They release CO2 at night
(C) They release both  O2 and CO2 at night
(D) They produce none of  above
Ans (B)

14. Inner membrane of mitochondria shows inward foldings for

(A) Formation of cristae
(B) Reducing mitochondrial matrix
(C) Proving more space to produce maximum possible oxysomes
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

15. In complete aerobic respiration of glucose the only 5-C intermediate compound formed is
(A) a-ketogluataric acid
(B) Ribulose diphosphate
(C) Ribulose monophosphate
(D) Cis-aconitic acid
Answer: (A)

16. Respiration is a
(A) Anabolic process that uses O2 and CO2 to form ATP
(B) Catabolic process that uses CO2, produces O2 and converts released eenrgy into ATP
(C) Anabolic process that uses O2, produces CO2 and converts released energy into ATP
(D) Catabolic process that uses O2, produces CO2 and converts released energy into ATP
Answer: (D)

17. Most preferred substrate for respiration in plant is

(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen
(C) Glucose
(D) Cellulose
Answer: (C)

18. In ETS cytochromes are arranged inseries of

(A) cyt - c – a – a3
(B) cyt – a3 – a – c1
(C) cyt b – c1 – c – a – a3
(D) cyt b – a3– a – c1 – c
Answer: (C)

19. Which one yield highest energy per gram

(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Protein
(C) Amino acid
(D) Fat
Answer: (D)

20. In which of the following step, can ATP be produced?

(A) Glucose to glucose phosphate
(B) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid
(C) Cisaconitic acid to isocitric acid
(D) Fumaric acid to malic acid
Answer: (B)

21. The total mechanism of aerobic respiration completes in the

(A) Cytoplasm and Iysosomes
(B) Cytoplasm and chloroplast
(C) Cytoplasm, chloroplast, mitochondria
(D) Cytoplasm and mitochondria
Answer: (D)

22. _____ Kcal energy is conserved as 38 ATP molecules in cellular respiration of one glucose molecule
(A) 277 Kcal
(B) 654 Kcal
(C) 456 Kcal
(D) 686 Kcal
Answer: (A)

23. The second ATP molecule in electron transport system in generated between
(A) Cyt C1 to b
(B) Cyt C1 to c
(C) Cyt b and C1
(D) Cyt C to a
Answer: (C)

24. When prteins are respiratory substrate it is called as ____________ .

(A) Floating respiration
(B) Chlimeteric
(C) Protoplasmic
(D) Dark
Answer: (C)

25. In oxidative phosphorylation, one molecule of reduced FAD produces, how many ATP?
(A) Zero
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: (D)
1.
A 5-carbon compound of Krebs cycle is a key compound in nitrogen metabolism. It is
(a) Citric acid
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid
(c) a - Ketoglutaric acid
(d) Fumaric acid
Ans: (c)
2.
Aerobic respiration which yields maximum ATP molecules is completed on (AMU 1990)
(a) Mitochondria
(b) General cytoplam
(c) General cytoplasm and mitochondria
(d) Somewhere else
Answer: (a)
3.
Anaerobe products of fermentation are (CBSE 1996)
(a) Alcohol and lipoprotein
(b) Ether and nucleic acid
(c) Protein and nucleic acid
(d) Alcohol, lactic acid and similar compounds
Answer: (d)
4.
Anaerobic process after glycolysis is called
(AFMC 1997)
(a) TCA
(b) Calvin cycle
(c) Krebs cycle
(d) Fermentation
Answer: (d)
5.
Anaerobic respiration is also called
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Fermentation
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Krebs cycle
Ans: (b)
6.
Anaerobic respiration is also known as (CPMT 1987)
(a) Intramolecular respiration
(b) Intermolecular respiration
(c) Extramolecular respiration
(d) Molecular respiration
Answer: (a)
7.
Anaerobic respiration was first of all reported by
(NCERT 1978; AFMC 1988)
(a) Maguenne
(b) Kostychev
(c) Klein
(d) Pfeffer
Answer: (b)
8.
As compared to anaerobic respiration, the energy gained during aerobic respiration is
(a) 8 times
(b) 12 times
(c) 19 times
(d) 36 times
Ans: (c)
9.
ATP – synthesis occurs on the
(a) Outer membrane of mitochondrion
(b) Inner membrane of mitochondrion
(c) Matrix
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
10.
ATP is injected in cyanide poisoning because it is
(a) Necessary for cellular functions
(b) Necessary for Na+ - K+ pump
(c) Na+ - K+ pump operates at the cell membranes
(d) ATP breaks down cyanide
Ans: (a)
11.
Both ATP and Mg2+ are involved in the activity of
(a) Pyruvic Kinase
(b) Hexokinase
(c) Phosphogluco isomerase
(d) PGA dehydrogenase
Ans: (b)
12.
Carbon dioxide acceptor in C3 plants in (CBSE 1999)
(a) PEP (b) RuDP
(c) PGA (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
13.
Carbon dioxide liberates during (CPMT 1996)
(a) Ascent of sap
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Respiration
Answer: (d)
14.
Common immediate source of energy in cellular activity is
(a) DNA
(b) ATP
(c) RNA
(d) NAD
Ans: (b)
15.
Component of ETC of mitochondria is
(a) Carotenoids
(b) Plastocyanin
(c) Phytochrome
(d) Cytochrome oxidase
Ans: (d)
16.
Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is /before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is changed to
(a) Oxaloacetate
(b) PEP
(c) Pyruvate
(d) Acetyl CoA
Ans: (d)
17.
Correct sequence in electron acceptors in ATP synthesis is / Decreasing energy level in ETS is
(a) Cyt, a , a3, b, c
(b) Cyt, b, c, a , a3
(c) Cyt, c, b, a, a3
(d) Cyt, b, c, a3, a
Ans: (b)
18.
Cut surfaces of fruit and vegetables often become dark because (DPMT 1983; CPMT 1983)
(a) Dirty knife makes it dark
(b) Oxidation of tannic acid in the presence of trace of iron from the knife makes it dark
(c) Dust of the air makes it dark
(d) None o the above
Answer: (b)
19.
Cytochrome helps in (AFMC 1994; MP PMT 1996)
(a) Oxidation of glucose
(b) Release of energy
(c) Electron transport
(d) Growth
Answer: (c)
20.
Cytochromes are
(a) Electron acceptors
(b) Protein acceptors
(c) Oxygen acceptors
(d) Passage – way for carbohydrates
Ans: (a)
 
1.
Discovery of photorespiration is based on
(a) Warburg effect
(b) Pasteur effect
(c) Richmond-Lang effect
(d) Cholodny-Went effect
Answer: (a)
2.
During 24 hours there is a time when plants neither give O2 nor CO2. this is the time of (BHU 1984, 91)
(a) Night
(b) Daylight
(c) Twilight
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
3.
During anaerobic respiration, decarboxylation reaction occurs in
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondrial matrix
(c) Cristae
(d) F1 particles
Ans: (a)
4.
During anaerobic respiration, one molecule of pyruvic acid
(Rajasthan PMT 1985; BHU 1985; CPMT 1988)
(a) Losses 3 molecules of ATP
(b) Losses 6 molecules of ATP
(c) Gains 2 molecules of ATP
(d) Gains 4 molecules of ATP
Answer: (a)
5.
During respiration, pyruvic acid is formed by
(CPMT 1986; BHU 1995)
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) HMP pathway
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
6.
Electron carries if oxidative phosphorylation are present on
(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) Inner membrane of Mitochondria
(c) Thylakoid membrane of chloroplast
(d) Matrix of mitochondria
Ans: (b)
7.
EMP can produce a total of
(a) 6 ATP
(b) 8 ATP
(c) 24 ATP
(d) 38 ATP
Ans: (b)
8.
End product of citric acid / Krebs cycle is
(a) citric acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) CO2 + H2 O
Ans: (d)
9.
End product of glycolysis is
(a) Acetyl CoA
(b) Pyruvic Acid
(c) Glucose 1 - phosphate
(d) Fructose 1 - Phosphate
Ans: (b)
10.
End products of aerobic respiration are
(a) Sugar and Oxygen
(b) water and Energy
(c) Carbon dioxide, water and energy
(d) Carbon dioxide and energy
Ans: (c)
11.
Energy currency (reservoir) of the cells is
(a) AMP
(b) ATP
(c) RNA
(d) DNA
Ans: (b)
12.
Energy is released during
(a) Citric acid  Isocitric acid
(b) Isocitric acid  cis – Aconitic acid
(c) Glucose 1- P  cis - Glucose 6-P
(a) Pyruvate  Acetyl CoA
Ans: (d)
13.
Enzymes of oxydative phosphorylation found in
(Rajasthan PMT 1995)
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Golgi complex
Answer: (c)
14.
Enzymes taking part in glycolysis are present in
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Both Mitochondria and cytoplasm
(d) Vacuole
Ans: (b)
15.
ETC and TCA enzymes occur in
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Cytoplasm and nucleus
Ans: (c)
16.
Evolution of CO2 is more than intake of oxygen when
(MP PMT 1987; Delhi PMT 1990)
(a) Socrose is respired
(b) Glucose is respired
(c) Organic acids are respired
(d) Fats are respired
Answer: (c)
17.
FAD is electron acceptor during oxidation of
(a)  - Ketoglutarate  Succinyl acid
(b) Succinic acid  Fumaric acid
(c) Succinyl CoA  Succinic acid
(d) Fumaric acid  Malic acid
Ans: (b)
18.
Fermentation produces
(a) Protein and acetic acid
(b) Alcohol and lipoprotein
(c) Alcohol, lactic acid, etc.
(d) Ethers and acetones
Ans: (c)
19.
Fermentation products of yeast are
(a) H2 O + CO2
(b) Methyl alcohol + CO2
(c) Methyl alcohol + water
(d) Ethyl alcohol +CO2
Ans: (d)
20.
Final electron acceptor in respiration is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Cytochromes
(d) Dehydrogenases
Ans: (b)
 

1.
For their functioning, cytochromes possess
(a) Mg
(b) Fe
(c) Mn
(d) Na
Ans: (b)

2.
Fructose 6 – phosphate is changed to fructose 1, 6-diphosphate by
(a) Phosphoglycerate
(b) Phosphatase
(c) Phosphofructo - kinase
(d) Enolase
Ans: (c)

3.
General formula for aerobic respiration is
(a) 6CO2 + 6H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2
(b) C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + 6H2O + 686 kcal
(c) C6H12O6  2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 2ATP
(d) C6H12O6  2C3H6O3 + 2ATP
Ans: (b)

4.
Glycolysis is
(a) C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + 6H2O
(b) C6H12O6 + 6O2  2C2H5OH + 2H2O
(c) C6H12O6  2C3H4O3 + 4H
(d) C3H4O3 +NADH  C2H5OH + CO2 + NAD+
Ans: (c)

5.
Glycolysis is part of
(a) Only anaerobic respiration
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) Only aerobic respiration
(d) Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration
Ans: (d)
6.
Heat energy of plants is measured in (MP PMT 1996)
(a) Grams
(b) Pounds
(c) Decibels
(d) Calories
Answer: (d)

7.
How may ATP will be produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1
molecule of pyruvic acid (MP PMT 1996)
(a) 3 ATP
(b) 5 ATP
(c) 8 ATP
(d) 38 ATP
Answer: (a)

8.
If carbon dioxide contents of the atmosphere is as high as 300 ppm (PM PMT 1989)
(a) All plants will be killed
(b) The plants would not grow properly
(c) Plants would grow for some times and then die
(d) The plant would thrive well
Answer: (d)

9.
If the nacked pea seeds ae kept in four respiratory flasks, they would germinate best in the flask
which contains (BHU 1982)
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Nitrogen
Answer: (b)

10.
In aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid is
(a) Broken down to form a two- carbon fragment and CO2
(b) A product of Krebs cycle
(c) Formed when oxygen is available
(d) Formed during protein breakdown
Ans: (a)

11.
In animal cells, the first stage of glucose breakdown is
(a) Krebs cycle
(b) Glycolysis
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation
(d) E.T.C.
Ans: (b)

12.
In fermenation, yeast secrets one of the following enzyme (PM PMT 1989)
(a) Invertase
(b) Zymase
(c) Dehydrogenase
(d) Anolase
Answer: (b)

13.
In glycolysis ultimately (or end product of glycolysis is)
(a) Protein is converted into glucose
(b) Glucose is converted into glycogen
(c) Starch is converted into glucose
(d) Glucose is converted into pyruvic acid
Ans: (d)

14.
In glycolysis, dehydration occurs during the formation of
(a) 3-PGA
(b) 2-PGA
(c) PEPA
(d) DHAP
Ans: (c)

15.
In glycolysis, glucose splits onto compounds which are
(a) 5-C
(b) 4-C
(c) 2-C
(d) 3-C
Ans: (d)

16.
In hexose monophosphate shunt, the number of CO2 molecules evolved is (AIIMS 1990)
(a) Same as in glycolysis
(b) Less than glycolysis
(c) More than glycolysis
(d) Much lesser than glycolysis
Answer: (c)
17.
In how many steps, CO2 is released in aerobic respiration of pyruvic acid (MP PMT 1989)
(a) One
(b) Six
(c) Three
(d) Twelve
Answer: (c)

18.
In Krebs cycle, dehydration of substrate occurs
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Four times
Ans: (a)

19.
In mitochondria, ATP formation occurs
(a) Over cristae
(b) Over outer membrane
(c) Inside matrix
(d) In intracristal space
Ans: (a)

20.
In Opuntia, in night the R.Q. will be (CPMT 1986)
(a) One
(b) Less than one
(c) More than one
(d) Zero
Answer: (d)
1.
In oxidative phosphorylation, oxidation and phosphorylation take place simultaneously and form (CBSE 1996)
(a) NADP
(b) DPN
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) ATP
Answer: (d)

2.
In presence of cyanide, azide and carbon monoxide, the rate of respiration (MP PMT 1988)
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains the same
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

3.
In the process of respiration in plants 180g of glucose plus 192 g of oxygen produce
(a) 132 of CO2, 54 g of water and 343 Cal of energy
(b) 264 of CO2, 108 g of water and 686 Cal of energy
(c) 132 of CO2, 54 g of water and 343 Cal of energy
(d) Large amount of CO2, no water and no energy
Ans: (b)

4.
Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as
(a) TCA - pathway
(b) Glycolysis
(c) HMS-pathway
(d) Krebs cycle
Ans: (b)

5.
Instantaneous source of energy is
(a) Glucose
(b) Fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Amino acids
Ans: (a)

6.
Kerbs cycle is also known as
(NCERT 1975; EAMCET 1981; BHU 1978)
(a) Glyoxylate cycle
(b) EMP pathway
(c) Citric acid cycle
(d) Glycolate cycle
Answer: (c)

7.
Krebs cycle begins with (CBSE 1991)
(a) Pyruvic acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) Lysine
Answer: (a)

8.
Krebs cycle forms an important product
(a) Acetyl CoA
(b) ADP
(c) ATP
(d) Water
Ans: (c)

9.
Krebs cycle is
(a) Aerobic
(b) Anaerobic
(c) Anabolic
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

10.
Krebs cycle is component of
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Aerobic respiration
(c) Anaerobic respiration
(d) Photorespiration.
Ans: (b)

11.
Krebs cycle is found in (AFMC 1996)
(a) Anaerobic respiration
(b) Photorespiration
(c) Aerobic respiration
(d) Photosynthesis
Answer: (d)

12.
Lactic acid fermentation does not produce
(a) ATP
(b) CO2 and NADH
(c) CO2
(d) NADH
Ans: (b)

13.
Lactic acid respiration /fermentation does not produce
(a) CO2
(b) NADH2
(c) Both A and B
(d) ATP
Ans: (c)

14.
Largest amount of phosphate bond energy is produced in the process of respiration during
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) Anerobic respiration
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

15.
Leaves of annual plants obtain O2 through
(CPMT 1985; Delhi PMT 1977, 84)
(a) Cell walls
(b) Cuticle and leaf scars
(c) Stomata
(d) Lenticels
Answer: (c)

16.
Make suitable pairing (Rajasthan PMT 1997)
(A) Glycolysis (a) Mitochondria
(B) Krebs cycle (b) Cytoplamic matrix
(C)  Electron transport chain
(a) Aa, Bb, Cb
(b) Ab, Ba, Ca
(c) Aa, Bb, Cb
(d) Ab, Bb, Ca
Answer: (b)

17.
Metabolic water is the one that is
(a) Used during photosynthesis
(b) Produced during polymerisation
(c) Produced during transamination
(d) Formed during aerobic utilization of glucose
Ans: (d)

18.
Mitochondria are absent in
(a) Green algea
(b) Brown algea
(c) Red algea
(d) Blue green algea
Ans: (d)

19.
Mitochondria are store houses of
(a) Glucose
(b) ATP
(c) Glycogen
(d) Fats
Ans: (b)

20.
Most of the energy in the cells is liberated by oxidation of carbohydrates when
(a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
(b) Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl CoA
(c) Sugar is converted into pyruvic aicd
(d) Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Ans: (a)

1. NAD of Krebs cycle functions as

(a) Acceptor of hydrogen ion and electrons
(b) Oxygen acceptor
(c) Oxygen donor
(d) Donor of phosphate Ions
Ans: (a)

2. NADH is produced in
(a) Photosystem II
(b) Photosystem I
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (c)

3. Net gain of ATP molecules, during aerobic respiration is

(CBSE 1999)
(a) 36 molecules
(b) 38 molecules
(c) 40 molecules
(d) 48 molecules
Answer: (a)

4. No carbon dioxide is given out by green plants during the day because they (AMU 1991)
(a) Consume it in photosynthesis
(b) Do not respire
(c) Respire very slowly
(d) Store the carbon dioxide
Answer: (a)

5. Number of ATP Molecules which can be built on complete oxidation of pyruvic acid is
(a) 6
 (b) 2
(c) 15
(d) 30
Ans: (c)

6. Number of carbon atoms available in acetyl CoA is

(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: (d)

7. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

(a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during respiratory chain
(b) 2 are produced outside Mitochondria and 34 inside Mitochondria
(c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs cycle
(d) All are formed inside mirochondria
Ans: (b)

8. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 34 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2 in
(a) Respiratory chain
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) Oxidative decarboxylation
(d) EMP
Ans: (a)

9. Oxidation of pyruvate to CO2 and H2O occurs through

(a) citric acid cycle
(b) Tricarboxylic cycle
(c) Krebs cycle
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)

10. Oxidative phosphorylation is production of

(a) ATP in photosynthesis
(b) NADH in photosynthesis
(c) ATP in respiration
(d) NADH in respiration
Ans: (c)

11. Oxidative phosphorylation is the formation of

(CBSE 1992; BHU 1994)
(a) NADPH2 in respiration
(b) ATP in respiration
(c) NADPH2 in photosynthesis
(d) ATP in photosynthesis
Answer: (b)

12. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in

(Delhi PMT 1985; CPMT 1983; CET Pune 1998)
(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) Inner membrane of mitochondira
(c) Stroma of chloroplast
(d) Grana of chloroplast
Answer: (b)

13. Photorespiration is favoured by (CBSE 1991)

(a) Low light and high O2
(b) Low O2 nad high CO2
(c) Low temperature and high O2
(d) High O2 and low CO2
Answer: (d)

14. Photorespiration takes place only in (MP PMT 1997)

(a) Green parts of the plant
(b) All the living cells of the plant
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Roof
Answer: (a)
 15. Plants whose requirement for respiration is similar to animals are
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Lichens
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer: (b)

16. Product of glycolysis is

(a) Citric acid
(b) dihydroxy
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) Phosphoenol pyruvate
Ans: (c)

17. Pyruvate (pyruvic acid) dehydrogenase is used in conveting (BHU 1986)

(a) Pyruvate to glucose
(b) Glucose to pyruvate
(c) Pyuvic acid to lactic acid
(d) Pyruvate (pyruvic acid) to acetyl CoA.
Answer: (d)

18. Pyruvic acid is formed at the end of

(a) Calvin cycle
(b) Glycolysis
(c) Krebs cycle
(d) Pentose phosphate pathway
Ans: (b)

19. Pyruvic dehydrogenase is used in converitng

(a) Pyruvic acid to acetyl co-enzyme A
(b) Pyruvate to glucose
(c) glucose to Pyruvate
(d) Pyruvic acid to lactic acid
Ans: (a)

20. R.Q. of maleic acid is (Rajasthan PMT 1995)

(a) 0.7
(b) 1
(c) 1.33
(d) 4
Answer: (c)
 

1. The energy yield as a result of total oxidation of one molecule of glucose during cellular respiration is
sufficient to convert (Karnataka CET 1998)
(a) 30 molecules of ADP to 30 molecules of ATP
(b) 32 molecules of ADP to 32 molecules of ATP
(c) 36 molecules of ADP to 36 molecules of ATP
(d) 38 molecules of ADP to 38 molecules of ATP
Answer: (c)

2. The enzyme which converts glucose to glucose 6-phosphate is

(a) Phosphorylase
(b) Glucose- 6- phosphatase
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Glucose synthetase
Ans: (c)

3. The enzymes which take part in glycolysis are found in

(PM PMT 1996)
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria and cytoplasm
(d) Vacuoles
Answer: (b)

4. The formation of acetyl coenzyme-A from pyruvic acid is the result of its (CPMT 1990)
(a) Reduction
 (b) Dehydration
(c) Dephosphorylation
(d) Oxidative decarboxylation
Answer: (d)

5. The glycolate metabolism occurs in (MP PMT 1995)

(a) Lysosomes
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Glyoxysomes
(d) Peroxisomes
Answer: (d)

6. The importance Krebs cycle is in the production of

(MP PMT 1996)
(a) Acetyl CoA
(b) Water
(c) ATP
(d) ADP
Answer: (c)

7. The last of terminal cytochrome in respiratory chain is

(CBSE 1992; Rajasthan PMT 1997)
(a) Cyt b
(b) Cyt a3
(c) Cyt a1
(d) Cyt c
Answer: (b)

8. The maximum potential difference between the electron carries required for ATP synthesis is
(a) 0.05 ev
(b) 0.15 ev
(c) 0.27 ev
(d) 0.45 ev
Ans: (c)

9. The membrane bound enzyme involved in Krebs cycle is

(AIIMS 1994)
(a) Malate dehydrogenase
(b) Fumarase
(c) Cis acotinase
(d) Succinic dehydgenase
Answer: (d)

10. The net gain of energy from one gram mole of glucose during aerobic respiration is
(a) 2 ATP
(b) 4 ATP
(c) 38 ATP
(d) 40 ATP
Ans: (c)

11. The number of molecules of pyruvic acid formed from one molecule of glucose at the end of glycolysis is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (b)

12. The plants similar to animals in their requirement of oxygen for cellular respiration belong to
(a) Red algae
(b) Blue-green algae
(c) Fungi
(d) Lichens
Answer: (c)

13. The pyruvic acid formed in Glycolysis is oxidised to CO2 and H2O in a cycle called (MP PMT 1999)
(a) Calvin cycle
(b) Hill reaction
(c) Krebs
(d) Nitrogen cycle
 Answer: (c)

14. The R.Q. (Respiratory quotient) of C39 H72 O6 is

(CPMT 1992)
(a) 2.71
(b) 1.32
(c) 0.72
(d) 3.250
Answer: (c)

15. The rate of respiration of young maturing seeds is quite high but as water content decreases during further
maturation, respiration (Delhi PMT 1986)
(a) Remains high
(b) Stops completely
(c) Increases steadily
(d) Decreases steadily
Answer: (d)

16. The reactions of Krebs cycle take place

(a) In the cytoplasm
(b) In ER
(c) In matrix of mitochondria
(d) On the surface of mitochondria
Ans: (d)

17. The tissue of highest respiratory activity is

(a) Meristems
(b) Ground tissue
(c) Phloem
(d) Mechanical tissue
Answer: (a)

18. What is produced when succinyl CoA is changed to succinate?

(a) ATP
(b) GTP
(c) CTP
(d) ATP in plants and GTP in animals
Ans: (d)

19. What is the other name of glycolysis.

(PM PMT 1986; CET Pune 1998; CPMT 1998)
(a) EMP pathway
(b) TCA pathway
(c) HMS pathway
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

20. When a molecule of pyruvic acid is subjected to anaerobic oxidation and forms lactic acid, there is
(a) Loss of 3 ATP , molecules
(b) Loss of 6 ATP , molecules
(c) Gain of 2 ATP , molecules
(d) Gain of 4 ATP , molecules
Ans: (a)
 

1..
Raw material of respiration id
(a) Glucose and CO2
(b) Glucose and O2
(c) Glucose and fructose
(d) Glucose and surose
Ans: (b)
2.
Respiration differs from the process of combustion in the fact that
(a) All the energy stored in glucose in released at once due to combustion
(b) All energy stored in glucose is gradually released due to combustion
(c) Comparatively large quantity of nergy is produced due to combustion
(d) The carbohydrates act as the combustion substance
Answer: (b)
3.
Respiration is
(a) Anabolic process
(b) Physical process
(c) Catabolic process
(d) Biophysical process
Ans: (c)
4.
Respiration is
(a) Catabolic process that uses carbon dioxide, produces oxygen and converts released energy
to ATP
(b) Anabolic process that uses oxygen and carbon dioxide to from ATP
(c) Anabolic process that uses oxygen, produces carbon dioxide and converts released energy
into ATP
(d) Catabolic process that uses oxygen, produces carbon dioxide and converts released energy
into ATP
Ans: (d)
5.
Respiration is a process in which (CPMT 1983)
(a) Energy is used up
(b) Energy is tored in the form of ATP
(c) Energy is released and stored in the form of ATP
(d) Energy is not released at all
Answer: (c)
6.
Respiration is an (CPMT 1986)
(a) Endothermic process
(b) Exothermic process
(c) Anabolic process
(d) Endegonic process
Answer: (b)
7.
Respiratory enzymes are located in (Delhi PMT 1986)
(a) Mitochondrial matrix (mitochondria)
(b) Perimitochondiral space
(c) Cristae
(d) Outer membrane
Answer: (a)
8.
Sequence in Krebs cycle is
(a) - Ketoglutaric acid  Isocitric acid  Oxalosuccinic acid
(b) Isocitric acid  Oxalosuccinic acid  - Ketoglutaric acid
(c) Isocitric acid  - Ketoglutaric acid  Oxalosuccinic acid
(d) Oxalosuccinic acid  Isocitric acid  - Ketoglutaric acid
Ans: (b)
9.
Site of glycolysis or EMP is
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasma
(c) E.R.
(d) Ribosomes
Ans: (b)
10.
Slow respiring plants or plant tissues are
(a) Promeristems
(b) Cambium
(c) Leaf primordia and young plant
(d) Adult plants and matured tissues
Answer: (d)
11.
Substrate phosphorylation occurs during
(a) Fumaric acid  Malic acid
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid  - ketoglu- taric acid
(c) Succinic acid  Fumaric acid
(d) - ketoglu- taric acid  Succinic acid
Ans: (d)
12.
Terminal ccytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is
(a) Cyt. b
(b) Cyt. c
(c) Cyt. a1
(d) Cyt. a3
Ans: (d)
13.
The amount of energy given by one mole of ATP is
(a) 7.3 kcal
(b) 721 kcal
(c) 7600 kcal
(d) 1000 kcal
Ans: (a)
14.
The amount of energy released in complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose is (Rajasthan
PMT 1997)
(a) 628 kcal
(b) 668 kcal
(c) 686 kcal
(d) 697 kcal
Answer: (c)
15.
The ATP molecules produced by glycolysis and acetylation in aerobic respiration including ETS
are respectively
(a) 8 and 6
(b) 6 and 8
(c) 2 and 8
(d) 8 and 2
Ans: (a)
16.
The cell organelle associated with photorespiration is
(MP PMT 1996)
(a) Glyoxysome
(b) Lysosome
(c) Mesosome
(d) Ribosome
Answer: (c)
17.
The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is (CBSE 1997)
(a) Cyt a,a,b,c
(b) Cyt b,c,a,a3
(c) Cyt b,a3,a
(d) Cyt c,b,a,a3
Answer: (b)
18.
The cycle in which pyruvic acid is broken down in presence of oxygen is known as (MP PMT
1988)
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) Anaerobic respiration
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
19.
The end product of fermentation are (CBSE 1997)
(a) CO2 and O2
(b) CO2 and C2H5 OH
(c) O2 and C2H5 OH
(d) CO2 and acetaldehyde
Answer: (b)
20.
The end products of respiration in plant are
(AFMC 1976; CPMT 1972)
(a) CO2, H2O and energy
(b) Starch and O2
(c) Sugar and O2
(d) H2O and energy
Answer: (a)
 

1. Tapetum is present between

(A) Epidermis and endothecium
(B) Endothecium and middle layers
(C) Epidermis and middle layers
(D) Middle layers and sporoangenous tissue
Answer: (D)

2. Monocot pollengrains are generally

(A) Monocoplate
(B) Bicolpate
(C) Tricolpate
(D) Multicolpate
Answer: (A)

3. Exine of pollen-grain is made up of

(A) Sporopollenin
(B) Cellulo-pectin
(C) Callose
(D) Cellulose
Answer: (A)

4. Ovule is
(A) Megasporangium
(B) Microsporangium
(C) Integumented megasporangium
(D) Megaspore
Answer: (C)

5. The tenuinucellate ovule has

(A) Small amount of nucellus
(B) Large amount of nucellus
(C) Chalazal nucellus
(D) MIcropyle nucllus
Answer: (A)

6. The point at which funicle is attached to body of ovule

(A) Raphe
(B) Hilum
(C) Endothelium
(D) Chalaza
Answer: (B)

7. A typical angiospermic embryo sac is susally

(A) One celled
(B) Two celled
(C) Three celled
(D) Seven celled
Answer: (D)

8. Continued self poll ination results in

(A) Better progeny
(B) Weak progeny
(C) New varieties
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: (B)

9. Cleistogamous flowers are always

(A) Insect pollinated
(B) Wind pollinated
(C) Cross pollinated
(D)    Self pollinated
Answer: (D)

10. In angiosperms pollination is always

(A) Direct
(B) Indirect
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
11. Entomopjilous flowers are with
(A) Dry and smooth pollen
(B) Sticky and rough pollen
(C) Less numbers of pollens
(D) Brightly coloured pollens
Answer: (B)

12. Flowers are small and unattractive in

(A) Entomophily
(B) Ornithophily
(C) Anemophily
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)

13. When birds are agents, the pollination is

(A) Anemophily
(B) Entomophily
(C) Ornithophily
(D) Hydrophily
Answer: (C)

14. Syngamy refers to

(A) Fusion of one of the sperm with synergid
(B) Fusion of one male gamete with female gamete
(C) Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus
(D) Fusion of one male gamete with egg and other male gamete with secondary nucleus
Answer: (B)

15. Endosperm is generally

(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) Polyploid
Answer: (C)

16. Free nuclear divisions occurs in

(A) Cellular endosperm
(B) Nuclear endosperm
(C) Helobial endosperm
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (D)

17. Suspensor formed during development of dicot embryo is

(A) 2-3 celled
(B) 3-4 celled
(C) 5-6 celled
(D) 6-10 celled
Answer: (D)

18. The first cell of suspensor towards micropyle which absorbs food material is
(A) Hypophysis
(B) Haustoria
(C) Radicle
(D) Transverse cell
Answer: (B)

19. Helobial type of endosperm is seen in

(A) Asphodelus
(B) Common in order Helobiales
(C) Petunia
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)

20. In monocot seeds, radicle is covered by a protective covering called

(A) Coleoptile
(B) Coleorrhiza
(C) Scutellum
(D) Aleurone layer
Answer: (B)

21. Embryo axis is also called as

(A) Tegman
(B) Tiller
(C) Tigellum
(D) Scutellum
Answer: (C)
22. The first node indicates point of attachment of  ----- to embryo axis
(A) Plumule
(B) Radicle
(C) Cotyledons
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)

23. ______ during embryo development push he embryo deeper into the endosperm
(A) Octan
(B) Suspensor
(C) Tegellum
(D) Scutellum
Answer: (B)

24. Suspensor is a component of

(A) Germinating seed
(B) Developing embryo
(C) Mature embryo
(D) Endosperm
Answer: (B)

25. The type of seed in which endosperm is completely utilized by developing embryo
(A) Endospermic seed
(B) Non endospermic sees
(C) Albuminous seed
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

1. Agamospermy produces new plant through the formation of

(A) gamete
(B) Bulbil
(C) Bud
(D) Asexual embryo
Answer: (D)
2. Agamospermy includes
(A) Non recurrent apomixis
(B) Recurrent apomixis
(C) Adventive polyembryony
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

3. Asexual reproduction includes

(A) Amphimixis
(B) Vegetative reproduction
(C) Agamospermy
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (D)

4. Plants identical to mother plant can be obtained through

(A) Stem cutting
(B) Seed
(C) Leaf cutting
(D) Both A and C
Answer: (D)

5. Population of genetically similar plants obtained from same invidual by vegatative method
(A) Propagule
(B) Bud
(C) Clone
(D) Callus
Answer: (C)

6. Ramet is
(A) Population of genetically similar plant
(B) Individual of clone
(C) Callus
(D) Clone
Answer: (B)

7. Which root will form a new plant?

(A) Azadiracita
(B) Dahila
(C) Ipomea
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (D)

8. The sub-aerial modification of stem for vegetative reproduction is

(A) Tuber
(B) Rhizome
(C) Bulb
(D) Runner
Answer: (D)

9. Buds develops in Bryophyllum daigremonthianum

(A) From marginal notches when leaf falls on ground
(B) From marginal notches while attached to plant
(C) From marginal notches of leaves
(D) From the place of injury
Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following is root promoting harmone?

(A) Ethylene
(B) Auxins
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

11. Stem cuttings are treated wih IAA or NAA to promote

(A) Development of buds
(B) Formation of root
(C) Formation of shoot
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (B)

12. The technique of joining together parts of two plants to form one composite plant is
(A) Budding
(B) Cutting
(C) Crafting
(D) Sowing
Answer: (C)
13. Grafting can be used only in plants having
(A) Soft system
(B) Hard tissue
(C) Buds
(D) Cambium
Answer: (D)

14. In grafting scion forms

(A) Root system
(B) Shoot system
(C) Hybrid plant
(D) New plant
Answer: (B)

15. Scion is
(A) Graft of shoot
(B) Graft of root
(C) A bud
(D) Clone
Answer: (A)

16. In which of following, diameter of stock is larger than scion

(A) Side grafting
(B) Tongue grafting
(C) Wedge grafting
(D) Crown grafting
Answer: (D)

17. More than one scion are grafted on single stock, the grafting is
(A) Crown grafting
(B) Wedge grafting
(C) Layering
(D) Bud grafting
Answer: (A)

18. Special type of grafting, in which scion unite with the stock while still attached to parent plant
(A) Approach grafting
(B) Wedge grafting
(C) Side grafting
(D) Tongue grafting
Answer: (A)

19. Grafting technique is successful between two plants having

(A) Viable seed
(B) Parenchymatous tissue
(C) Active buds
(D) Active vascular cambium
Answer: (D)

20. Sweet potato and potato are similar to each other in having
(A) Nature of stem
(B) Storage food
(C) Origin of root
(D) Modified part
Answer: (B)

21. Microsporangial initial of an anther is

(A) Archesporium
(B) Endosporium
(C) Tapetal cell
(D) Epifermis
Answer: (A)

22. Microsporogenesis occurs

(A) In ovary
(B) In ovule
(C) In anther
(D) In pollen grain
Answer: (C)

23. Pollen grain representes

(A) Male gametophyte
(B) Partly developed male gametophyte
(C) Female gametophyte
(D) Male gamete
Answer: (B)
24. Innermost layer of anther is tapetum, whose function
(A) Protection
(B) Nutrition
(C) Mechanical support
(D) Help in dehiscence
Answer: (B)

25. Typical anther is

(A) Monosporangiate
(B) Bisporangiate
(C) Trisporangiate
(D) Tetrasporangiate
Answer: (D)

1. The fully formed male gametophyte of angiosperms contains

(A) one generative cell, one tube cell and one body cell.
(B) one generative cell, one tube cell and one stalk cell.
(C) one tube nucleus, one vegetative cell and one generative cell.
(D) one vegetative nucleus, and two male gametes.
Ans: (d)

2. Which of the following involves comparatively greater wastage of pollen?

(A) Chiropterophily.
(B) Anemophily.
(C) Entomophily.
(D) Ornithophily.
Ans: (B)

3. If the endosperm cells of an angiosperm seed sre pentaploid, then such a seed may have been formed
by which of the following parents?
(A) Triploid female and diploid male.
(B) Diploid male and tetraploid female.
(C) Both parents tetraploid.
(D) Triploid male and diploid female.
Ans: (b)
4. The nucellus in the ovule is often called
(A) megagametophyte.
(B) megasporangium.
(C) megasporophyte.
(D) female sporogenous tissue.
Ans: (B)

5. Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction as

(A) it does not involve genetic recombination
(B) it does not involve meiosis and gametic unio
(C) it produces clone
(D) all of these
Ans: (D)

6. The continued existence of any race can be basically attributed to the

(A) reprodution  
(B) domestication
(C) conservation
(D) None of these
Ans: (a)

7. Which of the following is not concerning pollination?

(A) Syngamy
(B) Autogamy
(C) Allogamy
(D) Geitonogamy
Ans (a)

8. In angiosperms, meiosis occurs at the time of

(A) formation of gametes
(B) Change over generation from sporophyte to gametophyte
(C) formation of ovules
(D) formation of anthers
Ans: (b)

9. The point of attachment of the cotyledons on the tigellum is

(A) above the hypocotyl
(B) below the epicotyl
(C) called first node
(D) as stated in each of these
Ans: (d)

10. After fertilization synergids and antipodal cells form____.

(A) Oospore
(B) Endosperm
(C) Embryo
(D) Degenerates
Ans (d)

11. The process of fusion of male gamete with the polar nuclei is known as _____.
(A) Fertilization
(B) Triple fusion
(C) Syngamy
(D) None
Ans: (b)

12. Palynology deals with study of

(A) DNA
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Pollen grains
(D) Flowers
Ans: (c)

13. How many pollen mother cells should undergo meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains?
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans (c)

14. In a fully developed male gametophyte the number of nuclei is

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans (c)
15. The mature anther wall comprises an epidermis followed by a layer of radially elongated cells with
fibrous bands of callose called endothelium whose function is
(A) Nutrition
(B) Protection
(C) Mechanical
(D) Dehiscence
Ans (d)

16. If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in

each cell of the root will be
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 24
Ans (c)

17. Which of the following is necessary for seed formation in angiosperm?

(A) Ovule
(B) Pollination
(C) Double fertilization
(D) All the above
Ans (d)

18. Anthesis is
(A) Elongation of pollen tube is style
(B) Emergence of anthers from corolla tube
(C) Dehiscence of anthers
(D) The first opening of a flower
Ans (c)

19. Commonly in a mature fertilized ovule n, 2n and 3n conditions are respectively met in
(A) Egg, antipodals and nucellus
(B) Antipodals, synergids and integuments
(C) Egg, nucellus and endosperm
(D) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
Ans: (c)
20. Karyogamy is
(A) Fusion of zoospores
(B) Fusion of cytoplasm
(C) Fusion of spores
(D) Fusion of gametic nuclei
Ans: (d)

1.
Which one of the following diseases is a communicable?
(a) rickets
(b) amoebiasis
(c) diabetes
(d) cancer
Answer: (b)
2.
AIDS virus spreads in the body through (MHT-CET)
(a) Suppressor T-cells
(b) Carrier T-cells
(c) Helper T-cells
(d) Killer T-cells
Answer: (c)
3.
The cells which act as parasites in the body (MHT-CET)
(a) Schwann cells
(b) Hepatocytes
(c) Kupffer’s cells
(d) Cancer cells
Answer: (d)
4.
TAB vaccine is useful against (MHT-CET)
(a) Polio
(b) Diptheria
(c) Pertussis
(d) Typhoid
Answer: (d)
5.
Which of the following specimen is tested the most for the detection of carrier of typhoid?
(a) Urine
(b) Blood
(c) Faeces
(d) Sputum
Answer: (c)
6.
The pathogen of the typhoid is directly transmitted through
(a) urine
(b) water
(c) blood
(d) cerebrospinal fluid
Answer: (b)
7.
Scurvy disease is caused by the deficiency of vitamin (MP-PMT, BHU, AFMC, BIHAR-PMT)
(a) B complex
(b) C
(c) D
(d) K
Answer: (b)
8.
Select the vital disease
(a) Diabetes
(b) Tetanus
(c) Leprosy
(d) Poliomyelitis
Answer: (d)
9.
A sexually transmitted bacterial disease is
(a) AIDS
(b) Syphilis
(c) Herpes
(d) Hepatitis
Answer: (b)
10.
AIIDS is due to (BHU)
(a) reduction in number of helper T-cells
(b) Reduction in number of killer T-cells
(c) Autoimmunity
(d) Non-production of interferons
Answer: (a)
11.
Sarcoma is cancer of (MANIPAL)
(a) Bones
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Connective tissue and muscular tissue
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
12.
Most of the tumours (MHT-CET)
(a) Malignant
(b) Benign
(c) Related to carcinoma
(d) Sample boils
Answer: (b)
13.
Inactive cancer gene is called (MHT-CET)
(a) Transposon
(b) Proto-oncogene
(c) Tumour promoter gene
(d) Tumour suppressor gene
Answer: (b)
14.
ELISA - a test is helpful for the detection of which of the followings?
(a) Leprosy
(b) Cancer
(c) AIIDS
(d) Malaria
Answer: (c)
15.
The symptom of typhoid called intestinal hemorrhage occurs in ___ week of infection.
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Answer: (c)
16.
Swine Flu is caused by
(a) HIV
(b) HINI
(c) Herpes zostr
(d) Mumps virus
Answer: (b)
17.
Infection of Ascaris occurs due to (BHU, MP-PMT)
(a) Contaminated food and water
(b) Mosquito bite
(c) Tse-tse fly
(d) Sand fly
Answer: (a)
18.
Excessive bleeding from an injury is due to deficiency of (CBSE)
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin E
Answer: (c)
19.
Typhoid is caused by a species of (DPMT)
(a) Streptococcus
(b) Salmonella
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Mycobacterium
Answer: (b)
20.
Immune deficiency syndrome could develop due to (AIIMS)
(a) Defective liver
(b) Defective thymus
(c) AIDS virus
(d) Weak immune system
Answer: (c)
Solution:
1) Amoebiasis, also spelt amebiasis, is one of those common diseases, caused by a microscopic parasite called Entamoeba, which
infects the bowel casing a type of gastroenteritis infection. The most common way this happens is by person-to-person spread. The
patient's contaminated hands can spread the parasites to the surface and other objects.
 
 

1. Tumour enclosed in a capsule is (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)

(a) Malignant
(b) Benign
(c) Metastasis
(d) Basophils

2. AIDS causing HIV principally infects (CBSE & MHT-CET) Answer: (c)
(a) All lymphocytes
(b) Activator B-cells
(c) T4 lymphocytes
(d) Cytotoxic T-cells

3. After entering a T-cell, HIV first forms (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)

(a) mRNA
(b) ssDNA
(c) dsDNA
(d) dsRNA

4. Which of the followings is a structural changes in cancer cells? Answer: (a)

(a) Apoplasia
(b) Metastasis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neithr (a) nor (b)

5. Iodine deficiency causes ______ disease. Answer: (a)

(a) Goiter
(b) Kwashiorkar
(c) Scurvy
(d) Anaemia

6. The branch which deals with the study of defense mechanism against diseases is called Answer: (c)
(a) parasitology
(b) epidemiology
(c) immunology
(d) physiology

7. Disease existing at or before birth is (JKCMEE) Answer: (a)

(a) Congenital
(b) Communicable
(c) Noncommunicable
(d) none of these

8. Osteomalacia is due to deficiency of Answer: (a)

(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin E

9. A bacterial disease is (MHT-CET) Answer: (a)

 (a) Leprosy
(b) Polio
(c) Chicken pox
(d) Influenza

10. AIDS is caused by (B.H.U.) Answer: (b)

(a) Fungus
(b) Virus
(c) Bacterium
(d) Helminth

11. Carcinoma is cancer of (MHT-CET) Answer: (a)

(a) Epithelial cells
(b) Connective tissue cells
(c) Bone cells
(d) Blood cells

12. Benign tumour is the one which (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)

(a) Shows metastasis
(b) Differentiated and capsulated
(c) Undifferentiated and non-capsulated
(d) Differentiated and non-capsulated

13. Most common type of Salmonella found in India is (MHT-CET) Answer: (c)
(a) S. arizonae
(b) S. enteritidis
(c) S. typhi
(d) S. typhimurium

14. Western blot test is used for confirmation of (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)
(a) Typhoid
(b) HIV
(c) Cancer
(d) Malaria

15. Leprosy is ______ type of disease. Answer: (b)

(a) Non-contagious
(b) contagious
(c) Allergic
(d) Hormonal

16. Frost bite is caused by Answer: (d)

(a) chemical agent
(b) biological agent
(c) nutrient agent
(d) physical agent

17. A disease transferred from mother to child through placenta is (MP-PMT) Answer: (d)
(a) German measles
(b) Syphilis
(c) AIDS
(d) all of the above

18. Kwashiorkor, a disorder of children is due to (MANIPAL) Answer: (a)

(a) Protein/essential amino acid deficiency
(b) Carbohydrate deficiency
(c) Genetic problem
(d) Vitamin deficiency

19. Down’s syndrome is caused by (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)

(a) Monosomy of 21 chromosome
(b) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(c) Deletion in chromosome
(d) Duplication of chromosome

20. Smoking may cause cancer of Answer: (a)

(a) Lung
(b) Liver
(c) Skin
 (d) Cervix
 

1. AIIDs spreads through (AMU) Answer: (d)

(a) Blood transfusion
(b) Placental transmission
(c) Sexual contact
(d) all of the above

2. AIDS is characterized by sharp reduction in number of (AFMC) Answer: (a)

(a) Helper T-cells
(b) Killer T-cells
(c) Suppressor T-cells
(d) B-lymphocytes

3. What is correct? (CBSE) Answer: (a)

(a) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(b) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
(c) Benign tumours show metastasis
(d) Heroin accelerates body functions

4. Widal test is based on (MHT-CET) Answer: (a)

(a) Serological interaction
(b) Sonography
(c) Endoscopy
(d) Angiography

5. Malaria is caused by _____. Answer: (b)

(a) Ascaris
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Entamoeba
(d) Trypanosoma

6. Scurvy is developed due to the deficiency of Answer: (d)

(a) iodine
(b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin A
(d) vitamin C

7. Small pox and rabies are caused by (BHU) Answer: (b)

(a) Bacterium
(b) Virus
(c) Protozoan
(d) Nematode

8. Deficiency of iodine causes (MP-PMT) Answer: (d)

(a) Tetany
(b) Cretinism
(c) Myxodema
(d) Goitre

9. Pair of viral diseases is (CBSE) Answer: (d)

(a) Ringwork, AIDS
(b) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(c) Dysentery, common cold
(d) Common Cold, AIDS

10. Which of the following is known as slim disease? Answer: (d)

(a) Leprosy
(b) Cancer
(c) Typhoid
(d) AIDS

11. Some protection is provided against carcinogens by (AFMC) Answer: (d)

(a) Penicillic acid
(b) Affatoxin
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Tocopherol/Vit. E
 12. In AIDs the system which fails is (MHT-CET) Answer: (c)
(a) Digestive
(b) Repsiratory
(c) Defence
(d) Sensory

13. Enzyme responsible for replication of HIV is (CHD-CET) Answer: (d)

(a) RNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Reverse transcriptase

14. Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by (MHT-CET) Answer: (c)

(a) HIV
(b) Reovirus
(c) E-B virus
(d) None of the above

15. Heamophilia disease can transfer through ______. Answer: (a)

(a) Heredity
(b) Metal
(c) Pollutant
(d) Vector

16. Which of the following diseases is non contagious but infectious? Answer: (b)
(a) leprosy
(b) AIIDS
(c) measles
(d) mumps

17. A vector borne disease is Answer: (c)

(a) Scurvy
(b) Influenza
(c) Kala-azar
(d) Tuberculosis

18. Anaemia is mainly due to deficiency of (MP-PMT, AFMC) Answer: (b)

(a) Ca
(b) Fe
(c) Na
(d) Mg

19. Filariasis is caused by Answer: (a)

(a) Wuchereria
(b) Ascaris
(c) Taenia
(d) Fasciola

20. Thypoid fever is caused by Answer: (a)

(a) Salmonella typhi
(b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Treponema pallidium
(d) Trichophyton tonsurans
 

1. Which type of cancer occurs in lymph nodes and spleen? (AIIMS) Answer: (b)
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma

2. Metastasis is connected with (CBSE) Answer: (b)

(a) Benign tumour
(b) Malignant tumour
(c) Both A and B
(d) Crown gall tumour

3. HIV is retrovirus as its genetic information is contained in (DPMT) Answer: (c)

 (a) DNA
(b) DNA instead of RNA
(c) RNA instead of DNA
(d) Protein

4. Which one is vehicle borne? (MHT-CET) Answer: (a)

(a) Typhoid
(b) Cancer
(c) Rabies
(d) Mumps

5. Itai-Itai disease is caused by _____. Answer: (c)

(a) Mercury
(b) Lead
(c) Cadmium
(d) Iron

6. Which of the following is not congenital disease? Answer: (d)

(a) sickle cell anaemia
(b) albinism
(c) haemophilia
(d) hepatitis

7. A slate of complete physical mental and social well being is called Answer: (b)
(a) Disease
(b) Health
(c) Hygiene
(d) Infirmity

8. Dengue is caused by (AFMC, CPMT) Answer: (a)

(a) Female Aedes
(b) male Aedes
(c) Male Aneopheles
(d) Female Anopheles

9. A droplet infection is (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)

(a) Tetanus
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Syphilis
(d) Typhoid

10. Human papilloma virus may cause cancer of Answer: (b)

(a) Stomach
(b) Uterine cervix
(c) Liver
(d) Urinary bladder

11. Blood cancer is (CBSE) Answer: (a)

(a) Leukemia
(b) Thrombosis
(c) Haemophilia
(d) Hemolysis

12. Cancerous cells are killed by radiations because they are (CBSE) Answer: (a)
(a) Dividing rapidly
(b) Deprived of oxigen
(c) Starved
(d) Mutating fast

13. Anaplasia is (MHT-CET) Answer: (c)

(a) Transfer of cancer cells
(b) Formation of tumour
(c) Loss of cells adherence and cell differentiation
(d) Action of lysosomes over cells

14. Which is correct about AIDS? (CBSE) Answer: (c)

(a) Drug addicts are least susceptible
(b) Care and nutrition cure AIDS patients
(c) Virus enters helper T-cells and reduces their number
 (d) It can spread through eating food together with infected person.

15. Typhus fever is caused by ______. Answer: (d)

(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Rickettsia

16. Study of mode of transmission of diseases is called Answer: (b)

(a) Parasitology
(b) epidemiology
(c) nosology
(d) immunology

17. Which one of the following is a degenerative disease? Answer: (a)

(a) Cataract
(b) Kwashiorkar
(c) Cretinism
(d) Marasmus

18. Which is mismatched? (CBSE) Answer: (a)

(a) Vitamin K – Beri beri
(b) Vitamin C - Scurvy
(c) Vitamin A - Xerophthalmia
(d) Vitamin D - Rickets

19. Haemophilia is (MHT-CET) Answer: (a)

(a) Genetic disease
(b) Infectious disease
(c) Occupational disease
(d) Metabolic disorder

20. Widal test is used for diagnosis of Answer: (a)

(a) Typhoid
(b) Cancer
(c) AIDS
(d) Malaria
 

1. Sarcoma is cancer of (CBSE) Answer: (b)

(a) Epithelial tissue
(b) Mesodermal tissue
(c) Blood
(d) Endodermal tissues

2. One of the following is used for treatment of thyroid cancer (CBSE) Answer: (d)
(a) U238
(b) Ra-224
(c) C-14
(d) I-131

3. A person preparing food (e.g., Mary Milton) can be a major source of spread of disease (MHT-CET) Answer: (c)
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Syphilis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Cancer

4. Treatment of cancer is carried out by (HP-PMT) Answer: (d)

(a) Radiation therapy
(b) Surgery
(c) Immunotherapy
(d) All of the above

5. Breast cancer is the example of ______ disease. Answer: (d)

(a) Deficiency
(b) Hormonal
(c) Allergic
(d) Malignant
6. Which of the following is fourth dimension of health? Answer: (c)
(a) physical
(b) mental
(c) spiritual
(d) social

7. Congenital diseases caused by environmental factors are Answer: (d)

(a) PKU and sickle cell anaemia
(b) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome
(c) Haemophilia and colour blindness
(d) Cleft palate and harelip

8. Deficiency of vitamin C/Ascorbic acid causes (CBSE, DPMT, JIPMER, MP-PMT) Answer: (c)
(a) Rickets
(b) Beri-beri
(c) Scurvy
(d) Night blindness

9. Pneumonia that infects lung alveoli is caused by Answer: (a)

(a) Streptococcus species
(b) Plasmodium species
(c) Salmonella
(d) Haemophilus

10. Which one is not helminth (MHT-CET) Answer: (b)

(a) Taenia
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Fasciola
(d) Ascaris

11. Sarcoma is cancer of Answer: (d)

(a) Epithelial tissue
(b) Endodermal tissue
(c) Ectodermal tissue
(d) Mesodermal tissue

12. AZT is used in treatment of (BHU) Answer: (b)

(a) Malaria
(b) AIDS
(c) T.B.
(d) Kala-azar

13. Cancer of blood is (WARDHA) Answer: (d)

(a) Lymphoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Osteoma
(d) Leukemia

14. Cancer of cervix is caused by (MHT-CET) Answer: (a)

(a) Human Papilloma virus
(b) Pep pills
(c) Epstein Barr Virus
(d) Fetty diet

15. HIV infects (MP-PMT) Answer: (b)

(a) Cytotoxic T-cells
(b) Helper T-cells
(c) Cells of nervous system
(d) B-lymphocytes

16. Beri-Beri is caused by the deficiency of ______. Answer: (A)

(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin E

17. Who separated medicines from religion, superstition and philosophy? Answer: (b)
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hippocrates
 (c) Edward
(d) Darwin

18. Which one of the followings is a water borne disease? Answer: (c)
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Malaria
(c) Cholera
(d) Chicken pox

19. Deficiency of vitamin A causes (MP-PMT) Answer: (d)

(a) Cataract
(b) Myopia
(c) Hyperopia
(d) Night blindness

20. Insulin deficiency causes (BIHAR-PMT) Answer: (c)

(a) Diabetes insipidus
(b) Goitre
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) All of the above
 

1. Ringworm in humans is caused by (CBSE) Answer: (a)

(a) Fungi
(b) Nematodes
(c) Viruses
(d) Bacteria

2. AIDS was first reported in Answer: (b)

(a) England
(b) U.S.A.
(c) France
(d) India

3. Western blot test is used for detection of (MHT-CET) Answer: (c)

(a) Cancer
(b) Leprosy
(c) AIIDS
(d) Tuberculosis

4. A person was found to HIV positive by ELISA. The test that affirms it is (MANIPAL) Answer: (c)
(a) Southern blot
(b) Northern blot
(c) Western blot
(d) All the above

5. AIDS virus HIV first starts destroying (CBSE) Answer: (a)

(a) Leucocytes
(b) Thromoboycytes
(c) B-lymphocytes
(d) T-lymphocytes

6. Which is spread by house fly Answer: (d)

(a) Dengue fever
(b) Encephalitis
(c) Filariasis
(d) Typhoid

7. ______ diseases are also called inborn diseases Answer: (d)

(a) Infected
(b) Contagious
(c) Acquired
(d) Congenital

8. Vector host of malaria is Answer: (a)

(a) Female Anopheles mosquito
(b) Male Anopheles mosquito
(c) Aedes mosquito
 (d) Culex mosquito

9. Chicken pox is caused by (CBSE) Answer: (a)

(a) Varicella-Zoster Herpes virus
(b) Adeno virus
(c) Bacteriophage T2
(d) SV 40 virus

10. Kwashiorkor and beri-beri are (AFMC) Answer: (c)

(a) Communicable diseases
(b) Infectious diseases
(c) Deficiency diseases
(d) none of the above

11. Elephantiasis is caused by (HARIYANA PMT) Answer: (c)

(a) Dracunculus medinensis
(b) Entrobius vermicularis
(c) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) None of the above

12. Confirmatory test commonly employed for diagnosis of AIDS is Answer: (c)
(a) Pap test
(b) Widal test
(c) Western blot test
(d) Benedict’s test

13. HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material which is (CBSE) Answer: (c)
(a) ss DNA
(b) ds DNA
(c) ss RNA
(d) ds RNA

14. HIV reduces natural immunity of body by destroying (K-CET) Answer: (b)
(a) B-lymphocytes
(b) T-lymphocytes
(c) Antibodies
(d) Erythrocytes

15. Widal test is used for diagnosis of (CHD-CET) Answer: (c)

(a) Malaria
(b) Cholera
(c) Typhoid
(d) Yellow fever

16. Bronchogenic carcinoma is cancer of Answer: (c)

(a) Breast
(b) Intestine
(c) Lungs
(d) Liver

17. The study of classification of diseases is called _____ Answer: (a)

(a) Nosology
(b) Etiology
(c) Epidemiology
(d) Serology

18. Congenital diseases Answer: (a)

(a) are present at birth
(b) are deficiency diseases
(c) spread from one individual to another
(d) occur during life

19. Which one of the following is transplacental disease Answer: (b)

(a) Kala-azar
(b) German measles
(c) Rabies
(d) Scabies

20. Xerophthalmia in children and night blindness in adults is caused by the deficiency of Answer: (a)
 (a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
 

1. Goitre disorder is caused by deficiency of (MHT-CET) Answer: (d)

(a) Iron
(b) Protein
(c) Retinol
(d) Iodine

2. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria (MP-PMT) Answer: (d)
(a) Rabies
(b) Small pox
(c) Measles
(d) Tuberculosis

3. Bone cancer belongs to the category of Answer: (c)

(a) Leukemia
(b) Lymphoma
(c) Sarcoma
(d) Carcenoma

4. AIIDS day (AIIMS, MHT-CET, AFMC) Answer: (d)

(a) May 1
(b) December 20
(c) June 1
(d) December 1

5. One of the following is mainly infected by HIV (AIIMS) Answer: (a)

(a) Helper T-lymphocytes
(b) Killer T-lymphocytes
(c) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
(d) Memory T-lymphocytes

6. Which one is carcinoma? (GUJARAT-CET) Answer: (d)

(a) Cancer of lymph glands
(b) Cancer of muscle
(c) Cancer of blood
(d) Melanoma cancer of skin

7. HIV is a member of a group of viruses called (DPMT) Answer: (c)

(a) Bacteriophages
(b) Lysogenic viruses
(c) Retroviruses
(d) Gemini viruses

8. Incubation period of typhoid is Answer: (a)

(a) 7 – 17 days
(b) 5 – 10 days
(c) 1 – 5 days
(d) 3 – 4 days

9. Diseases of the heart, joints and nervous system are called Answer: (b)
(a) communicable diseases.
(b) degenerative diseases
(c) deficiency diseases
(d) allergies

10. Insulin deficiency causes Answer: (d)

(a) Huntington’s chorea
(b) Cretinism
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Diabetes mellitus

11. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency of vitamin (CPMT, RAJASTHAN-PMT) Answer: (b)
(a) B1/Thiamine
 (b) B12/Cobalamine
(c) C/Ascorbic acid
(d) D/Calaciferol

12. Kala-azar is caused by (MP-PMT) Answer: (c)

(a) Taenia solium
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) Leishmania donovani
(d) Wuchereria bancrofti

13. Disease caused by Trypanosoma gambiense is Answer: (a)

(a) Sleeping sickness
(b) Kala-azar
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Dysentery
 


1. The term cistorn, muton and recon were introduced by Answer: (B)
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) S. Benzer
(C) Meselson
(D) Morgan

2. Extranuclear genetic material is found in Answer: (B)

(A) Plastid and nucleus
(B) Mitochondria and plastids
(C) Nucleus and cytoplasm
(D) Mitochondria and nucleus

3. The molecular formulae of deoxyribose sugar and ribose sugar respectively are Answer: (B)
(A) C5 H10 O4 and C5H10O6
(B) C5 H10 O4 and C5H10O5
(C) C5 H10 O5 and C5H10O4
(D) C5 H10 O5 and C6H10O4
 

4. The nitrogen bases which pair with two hydrogen bonds are Answer: (A)
(A) Adenine and thymine
(B) Adenine and Cytosine
(C) Cytosine and guanine
(D) Cytosine and adenine

5. DNA differs from RNA in Answer: (D)

(A) Presence of deoxyribose sugar
(B) Presence of thymine base
(C) Property of replication
(D) All the above

6. DNA molecules makes a complete turn after every Answer: (D)

(A) 20 Å
(B) 34 Å
(B) 3.4 Å
(D) 10 base pairs

7. The distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is Answer: (D)
(A) 34 Å
(B) 36 Å
(C) 20 Å
(D) 3.4 Å

8. In nucleoside, nitrogen base is attached to pentose sugar at Answer: (A)

(A) Carbon – 1 of pentose sugar
(B) Carbon – 2  of pentose sugar
(C) Carbon – 4 of pentose sugar
(D) Carbon – 5 of pentose sugar

9. If the strand of DNA has 35 nucleotide how many phosphodiester bonds would exist Answer: (A)
(A) 34
(B) 35
(C) 24
(D) 70

10. In eukaryotic DNA replication, lagging strand is formed by Answer: (B)

(A) RNA fragments
(B) Okazaki fragments
(C) DNA fragments  
(D) Nucleotide fragments

11. The enzyme DNA polymerase can work only in Answer: (B)
(A) 3  5 direction
(B) 5  3 direction
(C) Both the direction
(D) 5  5 direction
12. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during DNA replication is Answer: (C)
(A) DNA primase
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA polymerase I
(D) DNA polymerase III

13. During DNA replication, the reunion or recoiling of separated DNA strand is prevented by Answer: (D)
(A) Helix destabilizing protein
(B) Single strnad binding protein
(C) Rep protein
(D) Both (A) and (B)

14. The enzyme that cuts the bonds of DNA molecule at the origin of replication is Answer: (A)
(A) Endonuclease
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) DNA gyrase
(D) DNA ligase

15. Which of the following enzyme is required to release the tension imposed by uncoiling of strands? Answer: (C)
(A) Endonuclease
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA gyrase
(D) DNA helicase

16. The cellular composition of m-RNA is Answer: (B)

(A) 5-10%
(B) 3-5%
(C) 10-20 %
(D) 70-80%

17. Formation of mRNA from DNA is called Answer: (D)

(A) Transformation
(B) Transduction
(C) Traslation
(D) Transcription

18. The ratio of purines and pyrimidines in mRNA is not 1:1 because the nitrogenous bases are Answer: (A)
(A) Unpaired
(B) Paired
(C) Paired only in loops
(D) Paired in stems

19. The codons which may present at 3¢ end of mRNA Answer: (D)
(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UGA
(D) Any one of these
20. Which of the following is not tool of genetic engineering? Answer: (D)
(A) Vectors
(B) Enzymes
(C) Foreign DNA
(D) GMO

21. In recombinant DNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by Answer: (C)

(A) Modified DNA ligase
(B) A heated alkaline solution
(C) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA
(D) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA

22. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is Answer: (B)
(A) PBR 328
(B) PBR 322
(C) PBR 325
(D) PBR 330

23. ‘Nif gene’ for nitrogen fixation is cereal crops like wheat, jowar etc. is introduced by cloning Answer: (A)
(A) Rhizobium meliloti
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizopus
(D) Rhizophora

24. Eco RI is an Answer: (C)

(A) Ligase
(B) Polymerase
(C) Restriction enzyme
(D) Gyrase

25. The transgenic plant flavr savr tomato carries an artificial gene for Answer: (D)
(A) Delay ripening process
(B) Longer shell life
(C) Added flavours
(D) All of these

1. Hirudin is obtained from the transgenic plant Answer: (A)

(A) Brassica napus
(B) Hibiscus rosasinesis
(C) Raphanus sativus
(D) Vinca rosea

2. Bt Cotton is Answer: (B)

(A) Cloned plant
(B) Transgenic plant
(C) Hybrid plant
(D) Mutated plant

3. Dolly sheep was genetically similar to Answer: (B)

(A) The mother from which nucleated fertilized egg was taken
(B) The mother from which nuclear DNA of udder cell was taken
(C) The surrogate mother
(D) Both surrogate mother and nuclear donor mother

4. Genome is Answer: (D)

(A) Genes on nuclear DNA
(B) Nuclear DNA + mitochondrial DNA
(C) Nuclear DNA + chloroplast DNA
(D) Nuclear DNA + Mitochondrial DNA + Chloroplast DNA

5. A technique of using very small metal particles coated with desired gene in the gene transfer is called Answer: (D)
(A) Electroporation
(B) Microinjection
(C) Liposome
(D) Biolistics

6. The complete set of chromosomal and extrachromosomal genes of an organisms is called Answer: (A)
(A) Genome
(B) Gene pool
(C) Gene bank
(D) Gene library

7. The study of all the proteins coded by the genome is called Answer: (B)
(A) Proteome
(B) Proteomics
(C) Genome
(D) Protein formation

8. Sequencing of genomic DNA is included under Answer: (A)

(A) Structural genomics
(B) Functional genomics
(C) Proteomics
(D) Transgenesis

9. Gene expression, regulation and phenotype production are studied in second phase of genome Answer: (B)
analysis called
(A) Structural genomics
(B) Functional genomics
(C) Proteomics
(D) Transmeiosis

10. A flowering plant lily have ______ more DNA than humans Answer: (C)
(A) 10 times
(B) 15 times
(C) 18 times
(D) 13 times

11. In forensic science which of the following is used? Answer: (C)

(A) Bacterial cloning
(B) DNA foot printing
(C) DNA fingerprinting
(D) DNA cloning

12. DNA fingerprinting is based on Answer: (A)

(A) Occurance of VNTR’s
(B) Knowledge of human karyotype
(C) Cloned DNA
(D) Recombinant DNA

13. VNTRs represnets- Answer: (D)

(A) New terminal regions in DNA
(B) Functional genes in the DNA
(C) Split genes in the sample DNA
(D) Specific non-coding sequences with unique tandem repeats

14. Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures? Answer: (D)
(A) Anther wall
(B) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(C) Connective tissue
(D) Young pollengrains

15. Variations observed during tissue culture of some plants are known as Answer: (C)
(A) Clonal variations
(B) Somatic variations
(C) Somaclonal variations
(D) Tissue culture variations

16. Virus free plants can be obtained through Answer: (D)

(A) Anitibiotic treatment
(B) Bordeaux micture
(C) Root tip culture
(D) Shoot tip culture

17. To raising of plants from a small tissue in culture is known as Answer: (B)
(A) Macroproduction
(B) Micropropagation
(C) Tissue culture
(D) Mass production
18. Callus is Answer: (C)
(A) Tissue that forms embryo
(B)  an insoluble carbohydrate
(C) Unorganised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture
(D) Tissue that growth to form embryoid

19. Biopatents are ______. Answer: (B)

(A) Right to use invention
(B) Right to use biological entities
(C) Right to use products
(D) Right to use process

20. African plant Pentadiplandra is used as______. Answer: (D)

(A) Low calories sweetner
(B) 2000 times sweeter agent
(C) Sweetner for diabetic patients
(D) All of these

21. Which organism was used as bioweapon derived from______. Answer: (C)
(A) Clostridium
(B) Yerstsinia pestis
(C) Fusarium species
(D) Green algae

22. A set standards used to regulate own or community activity in relation to biological world is Answer: (D)
(A) Biopotency
(B) Biopiracy
(C) Biowar
(D) Bioethics

23. Biopiracy means Answer: (D)

(A) Use of biopatents
(B) Thefts of plants and animals
(C) Stealing of bioresources
(D) Exploitation of bioresources without authentic permission

24. Bioethcs is related to Answer: (B)

(A) Preventing biopiracy
(B) Regulation of unethical activities likegene cloning in animals
(C) Preventing theft of living materials
(D) Moral guidance to the problems in biology

25. Three dimensional shape of tRNA is Answer: (B)

(A) L-shaped
(B) Clover leaf-like
(C) X-shaped
(D) Y-shaped

1. A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA sequence of other chain would be Answer: (a)
(a) TCGAAGCT
(b) GCTAAGCT
(c) TAGCATAT
(d) GATCCTAG

2. A nucleoside is formed of Answer: (d)

(a) Pentose sugar, phosphate and nitrogen base
(b) phosphate and nitrogen base
(c) Pentose sugar and phosphate
(d) Pentose sugar and nitrogen base

3. A nucleotide is formed of Answer: (c)

(a) Purine, Pyrimidine and phosphate
(b) Purine, Sugar and phosphate
(c) Nitrogen base, Sugar and phosphate
(d) Pyrimidine, Sugar and phosphate

4. A riboside is Answer: (d)

(a) Base + phosphate
(b) Ribose + phosphate
 (c) Ribose + phosphate + base
(d) Ribose + base

5. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment Answer: (d)
is
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 60
(d) 480

6. A Strand of DNA has base sequence CATGACTAG. The base sequence on the other strand would be Answer: (b)
(a) CAT TAG GAC
(b) GTA CTG ATC
(c) GAT GTC ATC
(d) TAC ACT GCT

7. A totipotent cell means Answer: (a)

(a) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a system or entire plant
(b) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into an organ
(c) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into complete embryo
(d) Cell which lacks the  capability differentiate into an organ or system

8. Adenine is Answer: (a)

(a) Purine
(b) Pyrimidine
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Nucleotide

9. Amino acid binding site of tRNA is Answer: (d)

(a) 5’end
(b) Anticodon loop
(c) DHU loop
(d) -CCA 3’end

10. Anticodon occurs in Answer: (a)

(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) mtRNA
(d) rRNA

11. Bacterial plasmid contains Answer: (c)

(a) RNA
(b) RNA + protein
(c) DNA
(d) Photosynthetic structures

12. Base pairs present in one turn of DNA are Answer: (c)
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 9

13. Best method to determine paternity is Answer: (d)

(a) Protein analysis
(b) Chromosome counting
(c) Gene counting
(d) DNA finger printing

14. Callus is Answer: (d)

(a) Tissue that forms embryo
(b) An insoluble carbohdrate
(c) Tissue that grows to form embryoid
(d) Unorganised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture

15. Chemical Knives/ molecular scissors of DNA are Answer: (a)

(a) Restriction endonucleases
(b) Polymerases
(c) Ligases
(d)Transcriptases
16. Chemofusion and electrofusion are employed in Answer: (b)
(a) Eugenics
(b) Protoplast fusion
(c) Cloning
(d) Mutations

17. Choose the correct statement Answer: (c)

(a) DNA is hereditary material
(b) RNA is hereditary material
(c) DNA is hereditary material but where it is absent RNA can function as hereditary material
(d) Both DNA and RNA are hereditary materials

18. Development of shoot and root in tissue culture is determined by Answer: (a)
(a) Cytokinin and auxin ratio
(b) Enzymes
(c) Temperature
(d) Plant nutrients

19. Distance between two base pairs of DNA is Answer: (d)

(a) 34 nm
(b) 3.4 nm
(c) 0.68 nm
(d) 0.34 nm

20. Distance between two strands of DNA is Answer: (b)

(a) 34 Å
(b) 20 Å
(c) 3.4 Å
(d) 340 Å

1. Distance between two successive nitrogenous bases or base pairs of DNA is Answer: (b)
(a) 34 Å
(b) 3.4 Å
(c) 10 Å
(d) 5 Å

2. DNA and RNA are similar in having Answer: (c)

(a) Similar nucleotides
(b) Similar pyrimidines
(c) Similar purines
(d) Similar sugars

3. DNA and RNA show similarity in having Answer: (a)

(a) Polymers of nucleotides
(b) Similar pyrimidines
(c) Double strands
(d) Similar sugars

4. DNA does not occur in Answer: (b)

(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Plastids

5. DNA duplex shows Answer: (b)

(a) Right handed coiling and parallel
(b) Right handed coiling and antiparallel
(c) Left handed coiling and antiparallel
(d) Left handed coiling and parallel

6. DNA is composed of repeating units of Answer: (d)

(a) Ribonucleosides
(b) Deoxyribonucleosides
(c) Ribonucleotides
(d) Deoxyribonucleotides

7. DNA replication in eucaryotes commences Answer: (b)

(a) From both ends of a chromosome simultaneously
(b) Several sites along DNA of a chromosome simultaneously
 (c) From centromere to either end
(d) From one end of chromosome to the other

8. DNA replication is Answer: (c)

(a) Conservative and discontinuous
(b) Semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
(c) Semiconservative and discontinuous
(d) Conservative

9. DNA resembles RNA as both have Answer: (a)

(a) Polymers of nucleotides
(b) Similar sugars
(c) Similar pyrimidine bases
(d) Ability to replicate

10. DNA sequence is ATG. What would be the sequence of bases in anticodon of tRNA Answer: (b)
(a) ATG
(b) AUG
(c) UAC
(d) TAC

11. DNA sequence is TAG. What shall be the sequence in anticodon of tRNA Answer: (a)
(a) UAG
(b) ATC
(c) ATG
(d) UAC

12. DNA sequence of ATTCGATG is transcribed as Answer: (b)

(a) AUUCGAUG
(b) UAAGCUAC
(c) CAUCGAAU
(d) GUAGCUUA

13. DNA strand with nitrogen base sequence ATTGCC will have sequence in mRNA Answer: (a)
(a) UAACGC
(b) ATCGCC
(c) ATTGCA
(d) AGGACC

14. Double chained DNA strand is made radioactive in both its chains. It is allowed to replicate twice in non-radioactive Answer: (b)
medium. The result would be
(a) All strands have radioactivity
(b) Half the strands have radioactivity
(c) Three strands have radioactivity
(d) Radioactivity is absent in all strands

15. Double helical structure of DNA was proposed by Answer: (c)

(a) Kornberg
(b) Nirenberg
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Wilkins and Franklin

16. Functional unit of gene that specifies synthesis of one polypeptide is Answer: (b)
(a) Codon
(b) Cistron
(c) Recon
(d) Muton

17. Gene is segment of Answer: (b)

(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) RNA or DNA
(d) Both DNA and RNA

18. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of Answer: (c)
(a) Melatonin
(b) Testoteron
(c) Human insuline
(d) Thyroxine
 19. Haploid plant cultures are got from Answer: (c)
(a) Leaves
(b) Root tip
(c) Pollen grain
(d) Buds

20. Hydrogen bonds present between cytosine and guanosine are Answer: (b)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4


1. In a DNA molecule cytosine is 18%. Percentage of adenine would be Answ

(a) 32%
(b) 64%
(c) 36%
(d) 18%

2. In AGCT of DNA hydrogen bonds and base pairings occur between Answ
(a) A-U, C-G
(b) A-C, G-T
(c) A-G,C-T
(d) A-T,C-G

3. In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of Answ

(a) Auxin and no cytokinin
(b) Higher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin
(c) Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin
(d) Both auxin and cytokinin in equal proportions.

4. In DNA, adenine pairs with Answ

(a) Guanine
(b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil

5. In DNA, guanine lies opposite Answ

(a) Uracil
(b) Cytosine
(c) Adenine
(d) thymine

6. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands are Answ

(a) Coiled around a common axis
(b) coiled around each other
(c) coiled differently
(d) Colied over protein sheath

7. In RNA, thymine is replaced by Answ

(a) Adenine
(b) Guanine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil

8. In tissue / bacterial culture glassware and nutrients are sterilized through Answ
(a) Water bath at 200° C
(b) Dry air oven at 200° C
(c) Dehumidifire
(d) Autoclave

9. In tissue culture, callus can be induced to form shoot or root by altering the ratio of Answ
(a) Auxin to cytokinin
(b) Cytokinin to ethylene
(c)  Auxin to gibberellin
(d) Gibberellin to cytokinin
10. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eucaryotes) is Answ
(a) GUA
(b) GCA
(c) CCA
(d) AUG

11. Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is Answ

(a) Tissue culture
(b) Immunisation
(c) Biotechnology
(d) Genetic engineering

12. It is now possible to breed plants and animals with desired characters through Answ
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Chromosome engineering
(c) Ikebana technique
(d) Bonsia technique

13. Most abundant RNA of the cell of Answ

(a) tRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) mRNA
(d) tRNA

14. Nitrogen bases of DNA are Answ

(a) ATUC
(b) UTGC
(c) ATGC
(d) AUGC

15. Nonsense codon takes part in Answ

(a) Terminating message of gene controlled protein synthesis
(b) Formation of unspecified amino acids
(c) Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense one
(d) Releasing tRNA from polypeptide chain

16. Nucleosides are Answ

(a) Sugar + Phosphoric acid
(b) Purine / Pyrimidine + Sugar + Phosphate
(c) Purine / Pyrimidine + Phosphoric acid
(d) Purine / Pyrimidine + Sugar

17. Nucleotides present in one turn of DNA helix Answ

(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 9

18. Okazaki segments are formed during Answ

(a) Transduction
(b) Transcription
(c) Replication
(d) Translation

19. Plants developed in vitro culture from pollen grains are Answ
(a) Androgenic plants
(b) Pollen plants
(c) Male plants
(d) Sterile plants

20. Plasmids are vectors for gene cloning because they Answ
(a) Self replicate in bacterial cells
(b) Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
(c) Can be multiplied in culture
(d) Can be multiplied in laboratories using enzymes

1. Pomato is somatic Answ

(a) Poppy and Potato
(b) Potato and tomato
 (c) Poppy and tamarind
(d) Poppy and Tomato

2. Preserving germplasm in frozen state is Answ

(a) Cryopreservation
(b) Cold storage
(c) In situ preservation
(d) Vernalisation

3. Protein helping in opening of  DNA double helix in front of replication fork is Answ
(a) DNA gyrase
(b) DNA Polymerase I
(c) DNA ligase
(d) DNA topoisomerase

4. Pyrimidine base present in RNA in place of thymine of DNA is Answ

(a) Uracil
(b) Adenine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Guanine

5. Restriction endonuclease is employed for cutting Answ

(a) A single stranded DNA
(b) Double stranded DNA
(c) RNA fragment
(d) mRNA

6. Restriction endonucleases are Answ

(a) Used in genetic engineering for uniting two DNA molecules
(b) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
(c) Present in mammalian cells for degeneration of DNA of dead cells
(d) Synthesised by bacteria for their defence

7. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering because they Answ

(a) Can join DNA fragment
(b) Cut DNA at specific base sequence
(c) Cut DNA at variable sites
(d) Are proteolytic enzymes which degrade harmful proteins

8. Reverse transcriptase is Answ

(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

9. RNA contains Answ

(a) Hexose
(b) Ribose
(c) Fructose
(d) Glucose

10. RNA does not possess Answ

(a) Uracil
(b) Thymine
(c) Adenine
(d) Cytosine

11. RNA that picks up specific amino acid from amino acid pool of cytoplasm to carry it to ribosome during protein synthesis is Answ
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) gRNA

12. Semiconservative DNA / Chromosome replication using 14N was demonstrated by Answ
(a) Messelson
(b) Tylor
(c) Messelson and stahl
(d) Hershey and Chase
13. Similarity between DNA and RNA is that both have Answ
(a) Similar sugars
(b) Similar mode of replication
(c) Similar pyrimidines
(d) Polymers of nucleotides

14. Structure of DNA was given by Answ

(a) Kornberg
(b) Nirenberg
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Holley and Nirenberg

15. Successive nucleotides are covalently linked through Answ

(a) Glycosidic bonds
(b) Phosphodiester bonds
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Nitrogen bonds

16. Termination of polypeptide chain is brought about by Answ

(a) UUG, UAG and UCG
(b) UAA, UAG and UGA
(c) UUG, UGC and UCA
(d) UCG, GCG and ACC

17. The basic uniot of a nucleic acid is Answ

(a) Pentose sugar
(b) Nucleoid
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Nucleotide

18. The codon for anticodon 3’ UUUA - 5’ is Answ

(a) 5’ AAAU- 3’
(b) 5’ UUUA- 3’
(c) 3’ UAAD- 5’
(d) 3’ AUUU- 5’

19. The common feature amongst nucleus, chloroplast and mitochondria is Answ
(a) Lamellae
(b) DNA
(c) Cristae
(d) All the above

20. The enzyme taking part in joining two ends of DNA is Answ
(a) Ligase
(b) Polymerase
(c) Gyrase
(d) Helicase

1. _____ and _____ are combination of Agroforestry Answer: (d)

(a) Fodder crops, fibre crop
(b) Food crops, fibre crop
(c) Trees, grasses
(d) Food crops, tree crop

2. A non-renewale source of energy is Answer: (b)

(a) Wile life
(b) Fossils fuels
(c) Water
(d) Forest

3. A plant endemic to India is Answer: (a)

(a) Banyan
(b) Ginkgo
(c) Sequoia
(d) Triticum

4. A recent technique for the study of vegetation is Answer: (b)

(a) Ground photography
(b) Remote sensing
 (c) Field work
(d) Observation

5. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is Answer: (a)

(a) Forest
(b) Coal
(c) Petroleum
(d) Minerals

6. A species restricted to a given area is Answer: (a)

(a) Endemic species
(b) Allopatric species
(c) Sympatric species
(d) Sibling species

7. According to IUCN red list, what is the status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) Answer: (b)
(a) Critically endangered
(b) Endangered species
(c) Vulnerable species
(d) Extinct species

8. Agroforestry and social forestry both includes Answer: (d)

(a) Production forestry
(b) Commercial forestry
(c) Afforestation
(d) Plantation of trees

9. An endangered bird is Answer: (c)

(a) Passenger Pigeon
(b) Pink-headed duck
(c) Great Indian Bustard
(d) Vulture

10. An endangered species from the following Answer: (c)

(a) Azardirachta
(b) Rosa indica
(c) Rauwolfia serpentina
(d) Acacia arabica

11. An example of ex-situ conservation is Answer: (a)

(a) Seed bank
(b) Sacred groves
(c) National parks
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

12. An exhaustible renewable resource is Answer: (c)

(a) Coal
(b) Solar energy
(c) Fresh water
(d) Petroleum

13. An inexhaustible and renewable source of energy is Answer: (d)

(a) Wood
(b) Natural gas
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) Hydropower

14. Anthropogenic extinction occurs due to Answer: (d)

(a) Earthquakes
(b) Floods
(c) Changing environmental conditions
(d) Human activities

15. Biogas is which type of natural resources Answer: (d)

(a) Renewable
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Non-conventional
(d) Both(a) and(c)
 
1. Chipko Movement is an example of forest conservation through Answer: (c)
(a) Tehri-Garhwal district
(b) Uttaranchal
(c) Public awareness and participation
(d) Political issue

2. Chipko movement is related to Answer: (a)

(a) Forest conservation
(b) Soil conservation
(c) Water conservation
(d) Wetland conservation

3. Chipko movement was launched for protection of Answer: (a)

(a) Forests
(b) Grass lands
(c) Wet lands
(d) Live stocks

4. Conservation of species in its natural habitat is Answer: (a)

(a) In-situ
(b) Ex-situ
(c) In-vitro
(d) Both(b) and(c)

5. Deforestation brings about Answer: (a)

(a) Soil erosion
(b) Weed control
(c) Decreases drought
(d) Increased sunlight

6. Deforestation is caused due to Answer: (b)

(a) Silviculture
(b) Construction of roads
(c) Rainfall
(d) Plantation of trees

7. Deforestation is the major causal agent of Answer: (c)

(a) Depletion of natural resources
(b) Environmental pollution
(c) Desertification of habitat
(d) Genetic erosion

8. Deforestation will decrease Answer: (d)

(a) Soil erosion
(b) Land slides
(c) Soil fertility
(d) Rainfall

9. Development of botanical garden is what type of conservation Answer: (a)

(a) Ex-situ
(b) A common
(c) An easy
(d) In-situ

10. Ex situ conservation is carried out in Answer: (d)

(a) Sanctuary
(b) National park
(c) Biosphere reserve
(d) Zoo.

11. Extensive planting of trees to increase forest cover is called Answer: (d)
(a) Deforestation
(b) Agroforestry
(c) Social forestry
(d) Afforestation

12. For mapping. Remote sending equipment is mounted on Answer: (a)

(a) Aircraft and satellite
(b) Ship and spacecraft
 (c) Satellite and spacecraft
(d) All the above

13. Forests control drought by Answer: (c)

(a) Preventing soil erosion
(b) Increasing oxygen
(c) Increasing humidity and rainfall
(d) Preventing floods

14. Fresh water present on earth is Answer: (c)

(a) 97.5%
(b) 0.01%
(c) 2.5 %
(d) 1.97%

15. Fresh water problem arises due to Answer: (b)

(a) Globaly available stocks are insufficient
(b) Uneven distribution on earth
(c) No regeneration of required quantity through natural hydrological cycle
(d) Any one of above

1. Gamma and X-rays are not used for remote sensing because Answer: (c)
(a) They are absorbed by object
(b) They are reflected by object
(c) They are absorbed by layer atmosphere
(d) They are not absorbed

2. Geo-stationary satellites Answer: (d)

(a) Rotate very fast
(b) Are located near the earth
(c) Are stationary
(d) Rotate with speed equal to that of earth

3. Human dominated biosphere is called Answer: (d)

(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Hemisphere
(d) Noosphre

4. In a National Park protection is provided to Answer: (b)

(a) Entire ecosystem
(b) Flora and fauna
(c) Fauna only
(d) Flora only

5. In India, common type of forest is Answer: (d)

(a) Tropical thom forests
(b) Sal and Teak forests
(c) Tropical most deciduous forest
(d) Tropical dry deciduous forest

6. In national park protection is provided to Answer: (d)

(a) Flora only
(b) Flora and fauna
(c) Fauna only
(d) Entire ecosystem

7. Inexhaustible resource among the following is Answer: (b)

(a) Minerals
(b) Solar energy
(c) Plants
(d) Fossil fuels

8. INSAT system is type of Answer: (b)

(a) Satellite
(b) Geo-stationary satellite
(c) Sun-synchronous satellite
(d) Orbital satellite
 9. Islands have higher number of endemic species as they are separated from land masses by Answer: (c)
(a) Deserts
(b) Mountains
(c) Large expanses of water
(d) Valleys

10. It is not a protected forest Answer: (d)

(a) Reserve forest
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Core of biosphere
(d) Orchard

11. IUCN stands for Answer: (c)

(a) Indian Union of chemical Nomenclature
(b) Indian Union of conservation of nature
(c) International union for conservation of nature
(d) International union for conservation of nutrients

12. Life supproting zone earth’s surface is Answer: (b)

(a) Lithosphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Stratospere
(d) Ecotene

13. Main cause of extinction of species from tropical areas is Answer: (b)
(a) Afforestation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion

14. Main source of water to soil is Answer: (a)

(a) Rainfall
(b) River
(c) Canals
(d) Lakes

15. Maximum use of fresh water is in Answer: (a)

(a) Agriculture
(b) Domestic use
(c) Industry
(d) Pisciculture
 

1. More than 70% of world's fresh water is contained in Answer: (b)

(a) Ponds
(b) Glaciers and polar ice caps
(c) Green land
(d) Oceans

2. Most effective controlling floods is Answer: (c)

(a) Deforstation
(b) Constructing dams
(c) Reforestation
(d) Dagging canal

3. Most of the endangered species are victims of Answer: (d)

(a) Acid rain
(b) Competition with exotic species
(c) Over hunting
(d) Habitat Destruction

4. Natural resource which have definite cycle is Answer: (d)

(a) Exhaustible Non-renewable
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Non conventional
(d) Exhaustible Renewable

5. Natures hydrogical cycle involves Answer: (d)

 (a) Evaporation, condensation
(b) Condensation, precipitation
(c) Evaporation, precipitation
(d) Evaporation, condensation and precipitation

6. Out of total amount of water, the water found in seas and oceans is about Answer: (c)
(a) 70%
(b) 90%
(c) 97%
(d) 85%

7. Planned management of natural resources is Answer: (c)

(a) Not  possible
(b) Not easy
(c) called conservation
(d) Called depletion

8. Plantation of trees along with monocot crops is known Answer: (a)

(a) Agroforestry
(b) Silviculture
(c) Social forestry
(d) Afforestation

9. Planting of trees on unused farm land, road and rail sides etc is called Answer: (a)
(a) Social forestry
(b) Agroforestry
(c) General forestry
(d) Commercial forestry

10. Planting of trees on unused farmland, Rail and road sides is Answer: (c)
(a) Commercial Forestry
(b) Agroforestry
(c) Social forestry
(d) Reforestation

11. Planting of trees, shrubs and others in between crop plants for commercial exploitation and stabilization of soil is Answer: (c)
(a) Taungya system
(b) Social forestry
(c) Agroforestry
(d) Production plantation

12. Plants of endangered species are conserved through Answer: (c)

(a) Herbarinum
(b) Gene library
(c) Gene bank
(d) Reducing pollution

13. Population of species decreasing over a period called as Answer: (c)

(a) Extinct
(b) Eliminated
(c) Endangered
(d) Rare

14. Radiations not useful in remote sensing are Answer: (c)

(a) UV radiations
(b) Microwaves
(c) Ultrasonic waves
(d) Infra – red radiations

15. Red Data Book contains information about Answer: (d)

(a) Red coloured insects
(b) Red eyed birds
(c) Red coloured fishes
(d) Endangered plants and animals
 

1. Red data book deals with Answer: (a)

(a) Maintains and publish list of endengered and endemic species
 (b) Maintains and publish list of Plants that are extinct
(c) Maintains and publish list of Animals that are extinct
(d) Maintains and publish list of dangerous species

2. Reforstation is Answer: (b)

(a) Plantation of forests
(b) Plantation forests in deforested areas
(c) Cutting down of forets
(d) Management of forets

3. Remote sensing involves the use of Answer: (a)

(a) EMR
(b) NMR
(c) ESR
(d) SSR

4. Resources which are available in unlimited quantity are Answer: (c)

(a) National resources
(b) Exhaustible resources
(c) Inexhaustible resources
(d) Natural resources

5. Serious threat to wild life is Answer: (a)

(a) Habitat destruction
(b) International trade
(c) Introduction of exotic species
(d) Over exploitation

6. Shifting cultivation is also known as Answer: (b)

(a) Taungyo system
(b) Jhum cultivation
(c) Socia forestry
(d) Plant cultivation

7. Solor energy is which type of natural resources Answer: (d)

(a) Renewable
(b) Non-renewable
(c) Exhaustible
(d) Inexhaustible

8. Taungya is practice of Answer: (d)

(a) Shifting cultivation
(b) Agroforestry
(c) Production forestry
(d) Both A and B

9. The base on which remote sensors are mounted is termed as Answer: (c)
(a) Camera
(b) Energy source
(c) Platform
(d) Scanner

10. The endangered fauna is Answer: (a)

(a) The great Indian Bustard
(b) Viviparous toad
(c) Forest owl
(d) Kashmiri stag

11. The function of tree plantation is celebrated through Answer: (c)

(a) Environment day
(b) Vanikaran
(c) Social forestry programme
(d) Vasant Mahotsav

12. The human activities resulting in endangered species are Answer: (d)
(a) Poaching
(b) Deforestation
(c) Forest fires
(d) All of these
 13. The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are primarily concentrated in _______. Answer: (a)
(a) troposphere
(b) exosphere
(c) homosphere
(d) stratosphere

14. The main reserve of fresh water on earth surface is Answer: (d)
(a) Ground water
(b) Rivers
(c) Lakes
(d) Polar ice caps and glaciers

15. The management of resources on earth which maintains the balance between human requirements and other species is Answer: (a)
(a)  Conservation
(b) Conversation
(c) Diversity of ecosystem
(d) Geological diversity
 

1. The natural cause for extinction of species is Answe

(a) Floods
(b) Hunting
(c) Industrialization
(d) Destruction of natural habitats

2. The natural resources available in limited quantity at global level is Answe

(a) Non renewable
(b) Renewable
(c) Exhaustible
(d) Inexhaustible

3. The natural resources which are continuously consumed by man but are replenished by nature with a reasonable period of time is Answe
called
(a) Exhaustible
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Exhaustible renewable
(d) Exhaustible non-renewable

4. The percentage of evaporation of water from land and ocean surface are respectively Answe
(a) 16 and 84%
(b) 84 and 16 %
(c) 65 and 35%
(d) 60 and 40%

5. The recent technique used for study of vegetation is Answe

(a) Remote sensing
(b) Field work
(c) Ground potography
(d) Observation

6. The restricted distribution of species in small area called Answe

(a) Biome
(b) Niche
(c) Endemism
(d) Ectosphere

7. The vehicle used to carry the sensor in remote sensing is Answe

(a) Camera
(b) Shuttle
(c) Scanner
(d) Platform

8. There is decrease in _____ because of deforestation Answe

(a) Soil erosin
(b) Global warming
(c) Rainfall
(d) Drought
 9. Which has caused maximum damage to Indian forests Answe
(a) Selective harvesting
(b) Block cutting
(c) Taungya cultivation
(d) Jhum cultivation

10. Which of the following acts as a main source of ground water? Answe
(a) Rain
(b) River
(c) Ocean
(d) Canals

11. Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth? Answe
(a) Loamy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Sandy soil

12. Which of the following species is endemic? Answe

(a) Vanda
(b) Drosera sp
(c) Gnetum ula
(d) Ginkgo biloba

13. Which one is not an exhaustible resource Answe

(a) Solar energy
(b) Coal
(c) Rainfall
(d) Wind power

14. Which one is not endangered? Answe

(a) Bald Eagle
(b) Giant Panda
(c) Podophyllum
(d) Mergosa

15. Which one of the following in endangered species? Answe

(a) Cuscuta
(b) Nepenthes
(c) Datura
(d) Butea sps.
 

1. Which one of the following is not formed from mesoderm? Answer: (d)
(a) Blood
(b) Bones and cartilage
(c) Kidneys
(d) Nervous system

2. Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period of the normal menstrual cycle? Answer: (b)
(a) Release of ovum – 5th day
(b) Endometrium regenerates – 5 – 10 days
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation – 11 – 18 days
(d) Rise in progesterone level – 1 – 15 days

3. Which one is unpaired gland in male reproductive system Answer: (c)

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Cowper’s gland
(c) Prostate gland
(d) Lacrimal gland

4. Which one is not associated with gametogenesis? Answer: (c)

(a) Formation of ova
(b) Formation of spermatid
(c) Release of ova
(d) Change of spermatids of spermatozoa

5. Which one is involved in nourishing spermatozoans? Answer: (c)

 (a) Leydig cells
(b) Gubernaculum
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) Interstitial cells

6. Which one is initiated by secretion of trophoblast? Answer: (d)

(a) Blastulation
(b) Cleavage
(c) Gastrulation
(d) Implantation

7. Which one is incorrect about menstruation? Answer: (d)

(a) At menopause, there is abrupt increase in gonadotrophic hormones
(b) Beginning of cycles of menstruation is called menarche
(c) During normal menstruation about 40 ml of blood is lost
(d) The menstrual fluid can easily clot

8. Which one holds corona radiata? Answer: (a)

(a) Mucopolysaccharide
(b) Oligosaccharide
(c) Lipopolysaccharide
(d) Lipoprotein

9. Which one functions as endocrine gland after ovulation? Answer: (d)

(a) Stroma
(b) Vitelline Membrane
(c) Germinal epithelium
(d) Graafian follicle

10. Which of the following is ectodermal? Answer: (c)

(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Epithelial tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Connective tissue

11. Which of the following is a gonad? Answer: (c)

(a) seminal vesicle
(b) penis
(c) testis
(d) all of the above

12. Which of the following hormones prepares endometrium for embryo implantation? Answer: (b)
(a) LH
(b) Progesterone
(c) FSH
(d) Testosterone

13. Which is incorrect? Answer: (d)

(a) Menstruation lasts 4 days
(b) Menstrual cycle takes 28 days
(c) Menopause occurs at 45 – 55 years
(d) Ovulated egg released during pregnancy die

14. Which is ectodermal in origin? Answer: (c)

(a) Kidney
(b) Lungs
(c) Brain
(d) Notochord

15. Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of follicle and initiating the formation of corpus luteum? Answer: (c)
(a) follicle stimulating hormone
(b) luteotropin
(c) luteinizing hormone
(d) all of the above

16. Which group represents external genitalia of human female? Answer: (d)
(a) Labium minora, labium majora, vagina
(b) Labium minora, labium majora, oviduct
(c) Labium minora, labium majora, cervix
 (d) Labium minora, labium majora, clitoris

17. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of embryo inside the uterus? Answer: (b)
(a) Yolk sac
(b) Amnion
(c) Chorion
(d) Allantois

18. Which cells of the testis provide nourishment to spermatozoa? Answer: (a)
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Interstital cells
(d) Spermatogonia

19. When egg is not fertilized, yellow coloured corpus luteum degenerates to form Answer: (a)
(a) Corpus albicans
(b) Corpus callosum
(c) Corpus striatum
(d) Corpora quadrigemina

20. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of humans? Answer: (c)
(a) Meroblastic
(b) Starts when egg reaches uterus
(c) starts in fallopian tube
(d) It is identical to normal mitosis
 

1. What is false? Answer: (c)

(a) Menarche is beginning of menstruation
(b) Menstruation is shedding of endometrial lining
(c) Menopause occurs in the beginning of puberty
(d) Ovulation occurs under high tire of LH

2. Various parts of male urethra are Answer: (b)

(a) Prostatic, bulbourethra and ejaculatory
(b) Prostatic, membranous and penile
(c) Corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum
(d) Prostatic, bulbourethal and glans

3. Types of asexual reproduction found in hydra is Answer: (d)

(a) Sporulation
(b) Gemmule formation
(c) Bianry fission
(d) Budding

4. Type of cleavage that occurs in human zygote Answer: (b)

(a) Holoblastic and equal
(b) Holoblastic and unequal
(c) Meroblastic
(d) Meroblastic and superficial

5. Twins joined in various regions are Answer: (c)

(a) Fraternal twins
(b) Identical twins
(c) Siamese twins
(d) non-identical twins

6. Thick layer which immediately surrounds the ovum is Answer: (a)

(a) Zona pellucida
(b) Membrana granulosa
(c) Corona radiata
(d) vitelline membrane

7. The single layer of germinal epithelium covering the ovary is composed of Answer: (b)
(a) squamous cells
(b) cuboidal cells
(c) columnar cells
(d) none of the above
8. The shortest phase in menstrual cycle is Answer: (c)
(a) Menstrual phase
(b) Secretory phase
(c) Ovulatory phase
(d) Proliferative phase

9. The sense organs are developed from Answer: (a)

(a) ectoderm
(b) mesoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) different germ layers

10. The role of sertoli cells in spermatogenesis is Answer: (c)

(a) they direct morphogenesis of sperms
(b) they provide nutrition to developing sperms
(c) both a and b
(d) they stimulate germinal epithelium

11. The role of Leydig cells is Answer: (c)

(a) Nourishment of sperms
(b) Give motility to sperms
(c) Synthesize testosterone hormone
(d) Undergo spermatogenesis

12. The path, where male nucleus fuses with female pronucleus, is known as Answer: (a)
(a) Fertilization path
(b) Penetration path
(c) Copulation path
(d) none of the above

13. The morula is formed during cleavage after Answer: (b)

(a) 2 days of fertilization
(b) at the end of third day of fertilization
(c) 4 days after fertilization
(d) 7 days of fertilization

14. The membrane which holds ovary in position is called Answer: (b)
(a) mesorchium
(b) mesovarium
(c) parietal peritoneum
(d) mesosalpinx

15. The lytic enzyme released by sperm is Answer: (d)

(a) Acrosome
(b) Ligase
(c) Androgenase
(d) Hyalouronidase

16. The length of tube in the epididymis of a testis is Answer: (d)

(a) 3 meters
(b)  meters
(c) 5 meters
(d) 6 meters

17. The internal cavity commonly formed by cell division prior to gastrulation is Answer: (c)
(a) Enteron
(b) Blastopore
(c) Blastocoel
(d) Coelom

18. The hormone responsible for maintaining the pregnancy is Answer: (c)
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) Progesterone
(d) Oestrogen

19. The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of Answer: (b)

(a) An acrosome
(b) Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome
 (c) Two centrioles and an aial filament
(d) Nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm and mitochondrial sheath

20. The gravid phase of uterus is Answer: (d)

(a) proliferative phase
(b) ovulatory phase
(c) secretary phase
(d) none of the above
 

1. The first germ layer formed in the embryo is Answer: (b)

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Extra embryonal mesoderm

2. The cavity contained in graafian follicle is Answer: (a)

(a) Antrum
(b) Centrocoel
(c) Blastocoel
(d) Archenteron

3. Testis is Answer: (c)

(a) Endodermal
(b) Ectodermal
(c) Mesodermal
(d) Extramesodermal

4. Testes descend into scrotum in mammals for Answer: (a)

(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Fertilization
(c) Development of sex organs
(d) Development of visceral organs

5. Temporary pairing of parents for fusion of gametes is called Answer: (b)

(a) Copulation
(b) Conjugation
(c) Communication
(d) Coagulation

6. Surgical removal of uterus is Answer: (b)

(a) Tubectomy
(b) Hysterctomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Orchidectomy

7. Sperms remain alive in female genital tract for days Answer: (a)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7

8. Sperms produce an enzymatic substance for dissolving egg coverings. It is called Answer: (b)
(a) Hyaluronic acid
(b) Hyaluronidase
(c) Androgamone
(d) Diastase

9. Sperms are stored and nourished inside Answer: (b)

(a) testis
(b) Epididymis
(c) Seminiferous tubules
(d) vasa efferentia

10. Spermiogenesis changes Answer: (d)

(a) Spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
(b) Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
(c) Secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
 (d) Spermatid to sperm

11. Spermatozoa are nourished during their development by Answer: (a)

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Interstitial cells
(c) Connective tissue cells
(d) None of the above

12. Spermatogonia undergo a growth phase to become Answer: (a)

(a) spermatozoa
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Secondary spermatocyte
(d) Spermatid

13. Spermatogenesis without meiosis occurs in Answer: (b)

(a) birds
(b) bees
(c) bat
(d) none of the above

14. Sperm of animal species a cannot fertilise ovum of species b because Answer: (d)
(a) Fertilizins of a and b are not compatible
(b) Antifertilizins of a and b are not compatible
(c) Fertilizin of a and antifertilizin of b are not compatibel
(d) Antifertilizin of a and fertilizing of b are not compatibel

15. Sperm capacitation involves Answer: (c)

(a) Change in shape
(b) Release of mitochondria
(c) Removal of membrane fatty acids
(d) Hyaluronic acid

16. Smooth muscles lining the wall of scrotum are called Answer: (b)
(a) Deltoid muscles
(b) Dartos muscles
(c) Gluteal muscles
(d) Latissimus dorsi muscles

17. Site of vitellogenesis is Answer: (b)

(a) Secondary oocyte in fallopian tube
(b) Primary occyte in graafian follicle
(c) Primary spermatocyte in testis
(d) Secondary spermatocyte in testis

18. Site of fertilization in a mammal is Answer: (d)

(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vagina
(d) Fallopian tube

19. Sertoli cells occur in Answer: (d)

(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Ovary
(d) Seminiferous tubules

20. Sertoli cells are found Answer: (d)

(a) between the seminiferous tubules
(b) In the germinal epithelium of ovary
(c) In the uppermost part of fallopian tube
(d) in the germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules
 

1. Seminal vesicles are located in Answer: (c)

(a) Caput epidydimis
(b) Uterus
(c) Above Cowper’s glands
(d) Glans penis
2. Seminal plasma of human males is rich in Answer: (d)
(a) Glucose and calcium
(b) DNA and testosterone
(c) ribose and K+
(d) Fructose and Ca2+

3. Semen contains Answer: (a)

(a) fructose
(b) glucose
(c) lactose
(d) galactose

4. Select the odd one on of the basis of origin Answer: (a)

(a) Skin
(b) Lungs
(c) Liver
(d) Trachea

5. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by Answer: (b)

(a) MSH
(b) LH
(c) Testosterone
(d) Thyroxine

6. Secondary sexual characters in females develop in response of hormone Answer: (c)

(a) Relaxin
(b) Progesterone
(c) Estrogen
(d) Gonadotrofain

7. Role of placenta is to Answer: (a)

(a) provide nutrition to embryo
(b) protect embryo from shocks
(c) act as a storage organ
(d) convey nerve impulses

8. Ripe ova are shed by ovaries into Answer: (a)

(a) coelom
(b) oviducal funnel
(c) oviduct
(d) collecting tubules of kidney

9. Repairing of endometrium takes place during Answer: (d)

(a) secretory phase
(b) ovulatory phase
(c) pre menstrual phase
(d) proliferative phase

10. Removal of both ovaries in rat will result in decreased tire of Answer: (a)
(a) Estrogen
(b) Gonadotrophic releasing factor
(c) Prolactin
(d) Oxytocin

11. Release of seminal fluid in the vagina of female is Answer: (c)

(a) Ejaculation
(b) Implantation
(c) Insemination
(d) Copulation

12. Rearrangement of layers occurs during Answer: (a)

(a) Gastrulation
(b) Blastulation
(c) Morulation
(d) Organogensis

13. Proximal centriole of sperm is located in Answer: (b)

(a) Head
(b) Neck
 (c) Middle piece
(d) Tail

14. Prostate gland produces a secretion for Answer: (b)

(a) attracting sperms
(b) stimulating sperm activity
(c) inhibiting sperm activity
(d) none of the above

15. Prostate gland is present Answer: (d)

(a) on ureter
(b) on kidney
(c) on testis
(d) around urethra

16. Product of corpus luteum is Answer: (a)

(a) Progesterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Testosterone
(d) Estradiol

17. Primative streak which gives rise to mesoderm is formed by Answer: (a)
(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Yolk sac
(d) Amniotic cavity

18. Primative streak is formed from Answer: (c)

(a) Trophoblast
(b) Endoderm
(c) Ectoderm
(d) Mesoderm

19. Pregnancy hormone is Answer: (c)

(a) Estrogen
(b) Luteinising hormone
(c) Progesterone
(d) both a and b

20. Polar bodies develop during Answer: (a)

(a) Oogenesis
(b) Spermatogenesis
(c) Spermiogenesis
(d) Soamtic hybridisation
 

1. Phase of menstrual cycle when ovulation occurs is Answer: (c)

(a) Luteal
(b) Menstrual
(c) Proliferative
(d) Secretory

2. Peak of LH tire occurs during Answer: (a)

(a) Ovulatory phase
(b) Menstrual phase
(c) Follicular phase
(d) Secretory phase

3. Part of sperm involved in penetrating egg membrane is Answer: (b)

(a) Tail
(b) Acrosome
(c) Allosome
(d) Autosome

4. Part of fallopian tube closest to ovary is Answer: (a)

(a) Infundibulum
(b) Cervix
(c) Ampulla
 (d) Isthmus

5. Ovulation occurs under the influence of Answer: (a)

(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone

6. Ovulation in human female occurs at Answer: (b)

(a) beginning of proliferative phase
(b) end of proliferative phase
(c) middle of secretory phase
(d) end of secretory phase

7. Outer layer of blastocyst that gives rise to ectoderm is Answer: (a)

(a) trophoblast
(b) germinal vesicle
(c) Cnidoblast
(d) amnion

8. Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the influence of LH, after completing Answer: (d)
(a) Meiosis and before liberating polar bodies
(b) Meiosis I and before liberating polar bodies
(c) Meiosis
(d) Meiosis I after release of polar body

9. Onset of menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called Answer: (b)

(a) Menopause
(b) Menarche
(c) Menstruation
(d) Metamerism

10. One primary spermatocyte produces four spermatozoa but one primary oocyte produces Answer: (b)
(a) Four ova
(b) One ovum
(c) Two ova
(d) Sixteen ova

11. Nutritive cells of seminiferous tubules are Answer: (a)

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Spermatogonial cells
(d) Spermatocytes

12. Number of eggs released in the life time of a woman is approximately Answer: (b)
(a) 40
(b) 400
(c) 4000
(d) 20000

13. Notochord, skeletal system and dermis of skin are derivatives of Answer: (b)
(a) all the three germinal layers
(b) mesoderm
(c) Endoderm
(d) Ectoderm

14. Network of capillaries inside the testis is present in Answer: (b)

(a) Rete testis
(b) Tunica vasculasa
(c) Seminiferous tubules
(d) efferent duct

15. Multicellular, multinucleated irregular mass of embryo which passes into uterine wall is Answer: (c)
(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Syncytiotrophoblast
(d) Amnion

16. Morphogenetic movements take place during Answer: (c)

 (a) Formaiton of morula
(b) Blastulation
(c) Gastrulation
(d) Organogenesis

17. Middle piece of sperm has Answer: (b)

(a) nucleus
(b) mitochondria
(c) centriole
(d) ribosomes

18. Middle piece of sperm contains Answer: (d)

(a) Nucleus
(b) Acrosome
(c) Manchette
(d) Mitochondria

19. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses Answer: (a)

(a) Mitochondria and centriole
(b) Mitochondria only
(c) Centriole only
(d) Nucleus and mitochondria

20. Middle piece of mammalian sperm contains Answer: (c)

(a) Nucleus
(b) Vacuole
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Centriole
 

1. Merobalstic cleavage is Answer: (c)

(a) Total
(b) Spiral
(c) Incomplete
(d) Horizontal

2. Menstrual phase is followed by Answer: (b)

(a) Luteal phase
(b) Follicular phase
(c) Fertilization
(d) Implantation

3. Membrana granulose is Answer: (a)

(a) a layer of columnar cells around ova
(b) corona radiata
(c) a part of zona pellucida
(d) multilayer of follicular cells around ova

4. Maturation of sperms occurs in Answer: (b)

(a) Vasa deferentia
(b) Epididymes
(c) Rete testis
(d) Vasa efferentia

5. Mammary glands are modification of Answer: (a)

(a) Sebaceous glands
(b) Sweat glands
(c) Meibomian glands
(d) None of the above

6. Location and secretion of Leydig cells are Answer: (c)

(a) Liver - cholesterol
(b) Ovary - estrogen
(c) Testis - testosterone
(d) Pancreas - glucagon

7. Location and secretion of Leydig cells are Answer: (b)

(a) Liver - Cholesterol
 (b) Testis - Testosterone
(c) Ovary - Oestrogen
(d) Pancrease - Glucagon

8. Life expectancy of sperms in the female tract is Answer: (a)

(a) 48 hrs
(b) 12 hrs
(c) 60 hrs
(d) 36 hrs

9. Levels of estrogen and progesterone are minimum at the time of Answer: (a)
(a) on set of menstrual phase
(b) secretory phase
(c) ovulation
(d) follicular phase

10. Inability of sperm to fertilize ovum is termed as Answer: (b)

(a) impotence
(b) sterility
(c) prostatomegaly
(d) none of the above

11. In the testis, primary germinal cells undergo mitotic divisions to produce Answer: (c)
(a) spermatozoa
(b) primary spermatocyte
(c) spermatogonia
(d) secondary spermatocyte

12. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm Answer: (a)

(a) cannot penetrate the egg
(b) cannot get food
(c) cannot get energy
(d) cannot swim

13. In telolecithal egg Answer: (b)

(a) yolk is present in the centre
(b) yolk is unevenly distributed
(c) yolk is absent
(d) yolk is present all over the ovum

14. In Mammals the tests occur in scrotal sacs outside the viscera because of the Answer: (d)
(a) Presence of urinary bladder
(b) Presence of rectum
(c) Long vas deferens
(d) Requirement of low temperature for spermatogenesis

15. In humans, spermatogenesis takes about Answer: (a)

(a) 74 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 100 days
(d) 24 days

16. In humans, blastula is known as Answer: (b)

(a) Trophoderm
(b) Blastocyst
(c) Foetal blastula
(d) Oolemma

17. In humans at the end of first meiotic dividion, the male germ cells differentiate into Answer: (d)
(a) Spermatids
(b) Spermatogonia
(c) Primary spermatocytes
(d) Secondary spermatocytes

18. In human penis, urethra passes through Answer: (c)

(a) Corpus cavernosum
(b) Corpus luteum
(c) Corpus spongiosum
(d) Corpus albicans
19. In human male, the unpaired structure is Answer: (d)
(a) Testes
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Bulbourethal glands
(d) Prostate

20. In human beings the type of cleavage is Answer: (a)

(a) Holoblastic and complete
(b) Meroblastic and incomplete
(c) Holoblastic and incomplete
(d) Meroblastic and complete

1. In development, nervous system (brain, spinal cord, nerve cells) is Answer: (a)
(a) Ectodermal
(b) Endodermal
(c) Ectomesodermal
(d) Endomesodermal

2. In absence of pregnancy the corpus luteum forms Answer: (c)

(a) corpora quadrigemina
(b) corpus callosum
(c) corpus albicans
(d) crura cerebri

3. In a mammalian sperm, spirally arranged mitochondria around an axial filament occurs in Answer: (a)
(a) Middle piece
(b) Head
(c) End piece of tail
(d) Principal piece of tail

4. In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on Answer: (c)

(a) Day 1
(b) Day 5
(c) Day 14
(d) Day 28

5. Important sperm lysine used for dissolving egg covering is Answer: (d)
(a) Diastase
(b) Androgamone
(c) Hyalouronic acid
(d) Hyalourinidase

6. Implantation occurs after Answer: (a)

(a) 7 – 8 days of fertilization
(b) 10 days of fertilization
(c) 5 – 6 days of fertilization
(d) 12 days of fertilization

7. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely? Answer: (c)
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(c) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(d) Primary follicle starts developing

8. Identical twins in human beings is an example of Answer: (a)

(a) polymbryony
(b) Neoteny
(c) Paedogenesis
(d) Parthenogenesis

9. Hyaluronidase is present in Answer: (c)

(a) Ovary
(b) Ovum
(c) Sperm
(d) Blood

10. Human gametes differ from all other body cells as Answer: (c)
(a) they are without a cell wall
(b) they are motile
 (c) they are haploid
(d) none of the above

11. Human female reaches menopause at the age of about Answer: (c)
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 70 years

12. Human embryo is protected by Answer: (b)

(a) Allantois
(b) Amniotic cavity
(c) Pleural cavity
(d) Peritoneal cavity

13. Human egg is Answer: (d)

(a) Megalectical
(b) holoblastic
(c) Mesolecithal
(d) Microlecithal

14. Human egg is Answer: (c)

(a) Microlecithal
(b) Mesolecithal
(c) Alecithal
(d) Centrolecithal

15. Huma eggs are Answer: (a)

(a) Alecithal
(b) Microlecithal
(c) Mesolecithal
(d) Macrolecithal

16. How many layers does the muscle coat of the oviduct have? Answer: (b)
(a) one - longitudinal
(b) two inner circular and outer longitudinal
(c) three – oblique fibres in addition to the above
(d) none of the above

17. Hormones controlling human menstrual cycle are Answer: (d)

(a) Estrogen
(b) FSH
(c) LH
(d) All of the above

18. Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is Answer: (b)
(a) FSH
(b) LH
(c) LTH
(d) ICSH

19. Graafian follicles are found in Answer: (d)

(a) Testic of mammal
(b) Ovary of frog
(c) Ovary of cockroach
(d) Ovary of mammals

20. Gonads develop from embryonic Answer: (c)

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Both mesoderm and endoderm
 

1. Gonads can be classified as Answer: (d)

(a) endocrine glands
(b) exocrine glands
(c) gametes
 (d) none of the above

2. Gonads are formed from Answer: (c)

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Ectomesoderm

3. Gestation period in human is Answer: (d)

(a) 10 weaks
(b) 28 weaks
(c) 32 weaks
(d) 38 weaks

4. Germinal epithelium o fovary has Answer: (a)

(a) Cuboidal cells
(b) Columnar cells
(c) Squamous cells
(d) Stratified cells

5. FSH is secreted by Answer: (c)

(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Anterior pituitary
(d) Posterior pituitary

6. First to be formed during embryonic development is Answer: (d)

(a) Primitive streak
(b) Mesoderm
(c) Ectoderm
(d) Endoderm

7. First or fore milk is called Answer: (a)

(a) Colostrum
(b) Baby’s milk
(c) Rostrum
(d) Cholesterol

8. Fertilizins are emitted by Answer: (b)

(a) Immature eggs
(b) Mature eggs
(c) Sperms
(d) Polar bodies

9. Fertilization of ovum occurs in Answer: (c)

(a) Fimbriac of oviduct
(b) Isthmus of oviduct
(c) Ampulla of oviduct
(d) None of the above

10. Fertilization is Answer: (c)

(a) Union of diploid spermatozoon with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(b) Union of haploid sperm with haploid ovum to form haploid zygote
(c) Union of haploid sperm with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(d) Union of diploid sperm with haploid ovum to form triploid zygote

11. Eye develops from Answer: (d)

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Both ectoderm and mesoderm

12. Extra structure that provides nutrition to the embryo is Answer: (d)
(a) Umbilicus
(b) Amnion
(c) Chorion
(d) Placenta

13. Estrus cycle is found in Answer: (c)

 (a) Primates only
(b) Anthropoids only
(c) All mammals except apes and man
(d) none of the above

14. Estrogen level is maximum in which part of ovarian cycle Answer: (c)
(a) Secretory phase
(b) Ovulatory phase
(c) Proliferative phase
(d) Menstrual phase

15. Endometrium is part of Answer: (b)

(a) Urinary bladder
(b) Uterus
(c) Ureter
(d) Urethra

16. During gastrulation size of embryo remains constant but metabolic rate Answer: (a)
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) is unchanged
(d) none of the above

17. During cleavage, what is true about cells? Answer: (b)

(a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged
(b) Size does not increase
(c) There is less consumption of oxygen
(d) The division is like meiosis

18. During cleavage Answer: (a)

(a) size of resulting cells decreases
(b) Size of resulting cells increases
(c) Size of early embryo increases
(d) Size of early embryo decreases

19. Diameter of human ovum is about Answer: (b)

(a) 0.10 mm
(b) 0.13 mm
(c) 0.15 mm
(d) 0.17 mm

20. Cytoplasm surrounding mitochondria present in the middle piece of sperm is known as Answer: (b)
(a) Manchette
(b) Microplasm
(c) Centroplasm
(d) Acrosome