VCE Biology 2007 Year 11 Practice Exam Unit 2

Multiple Answer Section

Question1: How many of the following organisms are autotrophs?

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A. One. B. Two. C. Three D. Four. Question 2: Which of the following shows the correct sequence of events in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant? A. growth of pollen tube, pollination, fertilisation, seed maturation. B. pollination, growth of pollen tube, seed maturation, fertilisation. C. fertilisation, seed maturation, pollination, growth of pollen tube. D. pollination, growth of pollen tube, fertilisation, seed maturation. Question 3: Which of the following would cause a potted tomato seedling to close its stomata? A. Watering the tomato seedling. B. Covering the tomato seedling with a plastic bag. C. Transplanting the tomato seedling into a garden bed. D. Moving the pot with the tomato seedling to a shadier area. The following information relates to Questions 4 and 5. The figure below shows the relationship between kidney functioning and blood pressure.

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Question 4. If blood pressure dropped from 100 mm Hg to 50 mm Hg, you would expect A. the filtration rate of the kidney to drop to 0 ml/min. B. urine volume to be unaffected. C. a decrease in the volume of urine produced. D. an increase in the volume of urine produced.

Question 5: The part of the kidney where filtration occurs is the A. glomerulus. B. loop of Henle. C. kidney tubule. D. medulla. The following information relates to Questions 6 and 7. Brome grass (Diandrus rigidus) is a weed of agricultural land in Victoria. A student hypothesised that the seeds of this plant germinated better in the dark. He carried out an experiment to test this hypothesis. The results are shown in Table 1.

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Question 6: To improve the reliability of these results, the student should A. water the seeds more frequently. B. increase the number of seeds tested in each treatment. C. use soils with a higher level of nutrients. D. record the growth rate of each seedling after germination. After repeating the experiment, the student was able to conclude that light inhibited the germination of the seeds of brome grass. In areas where wheat is grown in Victoria, brome grass is a noxious weed that competes with wheat for water and sunlight. Question 7. Which of the following strategies would reduce the effects of this weed on the yield of a wheat crop? A. Sowing the wheat using a method that doesnt disturb the soil. B. Ploughing the ground before sowing the wheat. C. Sowing the wheat after good rains. D. Applying fertiliser before sowing the wheat. Question 8: Pumpkins are fruit that have large numbers of seeds. It can be concluded from this that pumpkin flowers have many A. pollen grains. B. ovaries. C. ovules. D. anthers. Question 9: Table 2 details some information about the flowers of three different species growing in a forest.

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What inference can be concluded about how each plant is pollinated?

A. All three species are wind pollinated. B. All three species are insect pollinated. C. Species 3 is self pollinated. D. Species 1 and 3 are insect pollinated while Species 2 is wind pollinated.

Question 10: A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is an example of an autotroph? A bracket fungus growing from the trunk of a eucalypt. A bacterium in the gut of a mammal. A moss growing on a log in a rainforest. A kangaroo eating grass in a paddock.

Question 11: The cell that is specialised to transport oxygen to the various tissues in a mammal is A. haemoglobin. B. a red blood cell. C. a white blood cell. D. blood plasma. Use the following information to answer Question 12. A marine biologist collected four seaweeds that grew at different depths in the sea. For each seaweed, he measured its rate of photosynthesis at varying light intensities. The results are shown in the graph below. Question 12: Which seaweed was most likely collected in the deepest part of the sea? A. Seaweed 1. B. Seaweed 2. C. Seaweed 3. D. Seaweed 4. Question 13: According to the table and your own knowledge, which of the following would you expect to excrete ammonia as its major nitrogenous waste product? A. A freshwater fish, such as a trout. B. A terrestrial reptile, such as a goanna. C. A desert mammal, such as a camel. D. A seabird, such as an albatross. Question 14: Some plants, such as lettuce, wilt after being picked. This wilting is caused by A. a reduction in the uptake of water through the stomata of the lettuce leaves. B. the stomata closing when the lettuce is picked. C. a reduction in the flow of water from the roots through the stem and leaves of the lettuce. D. a reduced amount of water available for photosynthesis in the lettuce leaves.
Question 15: Many more species of plants live in a tropical rain forest than live in a desert. The different is likely due to the fact that compared to a tropical rain forest a desert: A. has less sunlight than a desert B. contains soil with sand C. has more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D. contains less water.

Question 16: Macropus rufus, shown the in the illustration on the right, is superbly adapted to surviving arid environments. Which of the following would be considered a physiological adaptation? A. A tail that provides bipedal hopping B. Muscular hind limbs enabling speeds of 50km/h QuickTime and a C Microbial digestion of green vegetation within the TIFF (Uncompressed) decompressor are needed to see this picture. forestomach D. Sections of fur are reflective

Question 17: Damage to the myelin sheath may result in A. loss of coordination B. numbness C. slurring of speech D. all of the above Question 18: Which definition best describes the term homeostasis? A. Maintaining a blood glucose level within narrow limits B. Keeping biochemical reaction rates the same regardless of the external stimulus C. Maintaining a constant internal environment within narrow ranges D. To indicate that structures between organisms are the same or similar Question 19: Which term belongs in area A?

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A. mutualism B. prey C. saprophytism D. host

Question 20: Organisms that are always part of the relationship indicated by letter C may be classified as A. bryophytes B. parasites C. scavengers D. carnivores

Question 1 (4 marks) In 1965 a survey of the herbivorous Espaola tortoise population in the Galapagos Islands showed that the numbers of the Espaola tortoises had declined to fourteen individuals. Conservationists transferred the

fourteen Espaola tortoises to a research station where the tortoises successfully reproduced. In 1975 the Espaola tortoises were released from the research station. The Espaola tortoise population in the Galpagos Islands now numbers between 800 and 1000. a) State one human activity that could have led to the decline of the original Espaola tortoise population. (2 marks)

b) State one consequence that the decline of the Espaola tortoise population could have for the ecosystem of the Galpagos Islands. (2 marks)

Question 2 (7 marks) European settlement in Australia has had a range of harmful effects on the environment. Widespread clearing of land for agricultural purposes has had a serious impact. a) Name two environmentally harmful effects of widespread land clearing. (2 marks)

Introduced species are another major problem that came with European settlement. Grasses and other weeds have escaped from farms to establish themselves in bushland. b) Briefly explain two different ways these non-native plant s can harm natural ecosystems. (1 mark) i)

ii) (1 mark)

c) To combat introduced pests, scientists sometimes use a strategy called biological control. i) Briefly explain what is meant by biological control. (1 mark)

ii) List two precautions that must be taken to ensure biological control does not get out of control itself. (2 marks)

Question 3. (3 marks) The graph below shows seasonal changes in the following environmental factors in a lake ecosystem: nitrate concentration, light intensity, number of zooplankton, temperature of the lake, and number of phytoplankton.

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Zooplankton are microscopic heterotrophs found in the lake. Phytoplankton are microscopic autotrophs found in the lake. (a) Discuss the relationships that exist between light intensity, zooplankton and phytoplankton as indicated by the graphs over the year. (2 marks)

b) Give an explanation to account for the changes in nitrate concentration shown on the graph. (1 mark)

Question 4. Brine shrimp are crustaceans found naturally in saltwater lakes and ponds in Australia. Figure 9 shows the structural features of a brine shrimp.

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Refer to Figure 9. a. State one structural feature of a brine shrimp that suggests it lives in an aquatic environment. Justify your answer.

(1 mark)

Question 5. A biologist wanted to investigate the effect that competition had on germinating marigold seeds. She set up a series of pots and added various numbers of seeds to each pot. See Table 3.

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a. What is the variable in this experiment?

(1 mark) b. State one factor that the biologist would need to control in this experiment.

(1 mark) At the end of the experiment, the average dry weight of the marigold plants in the three pots was measured. The data is shown in Table 4.

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(c) From the data in Tables 3 and 4, state two conclusions that can be drawn. Conclusion 1.

Conclusion 2.

(2 marks) Total = 4 marks Question 6. In red kangaroos, gestation is usually very short. Shortly after giving birth, females mate and become pregnant again. Red kangaroos have the ability to stop the development of the new embryo. This is known as embryonic diapause. This is controlled by a feedback system. a. What is meant by feedback system?

(1 mark) Figure 12 shows how embryonic diapause is controlled in red kangaroos.

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b. What type of substances are prolactin and progesterone?

(1 mark) c. When a young joey is being weaned, its diet changes from milk to grass. By referring to Figure 12, explain why an embryo in diapause would recommence development when an older joey is being weaned.

(3 marks) Total = 5 marks