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The California ground squirrel must constantly balance the conflicting demands of self-preservation and predator assessment.

Because predator assessment requires a fairly high degree of proximity and sensory contact, the ground squirrel can only safely assess predators from whom there is little to no immediate threat. For example, when avian predators, including the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle, launch sudden, unexpected aerial attacks, self-preservation must take precedence over the acquisition of knowledge. Rattlesnakes, on the other hand, pose relatively little immediate danger, and give the squirrel the greatest opportunity for predator assessment. Predator assessment might normally be hampered by the inherent danger of the rattlesnake's lethal bite. But while squirrels constitute almost 70 percent of the rattlesnake's diet, adult ground squirrels are all but immune to rattlesnakes. Rattlesnakes hunt slowly and stalk their prey, in marked contrast to sudden avian attacks. And even though a rattlesnake's strike is fast, the ground squirrel can move much faster. More important, any danger posed by a snakebite is mitigated by proteins in the squirrel's blood that confer resistance to rattlesnake venom. Adult ground squirrels will generally survive a rattlesnake bite that could prove lethal to a grown human. Indeed, it is the squirrel pups that are most susceptible to rattlesnake bites, because their smaller bodies cannot neutralize a full bite's worth of venom. This innate resistance allows the ground squirrel to change the dynamic of the traditional predator-prey relationship and approach the rattlesnake in an effort to acquire useful information regarding size and body temperature. Larger snakes, which deliver more venom per strike, are naturally more dangerous, as are warmer snakes, which can strike faster, from a greater distance, and with greater accuracy. Visual cues can be helpful, but the squirrel is often hampered by the

surrounding vegetation and darkness of burrows. Auditory cues are generally more reliable. For this reason, the ground squirrel will engage in tail-flagging, sand-kicking, and substrate-throwing in an attempt to put the snake on the defensive, and coax the snake into rattling its tail. The sound of a particular snake's rattle "leaks" information about the snake's size and body temperature. Not only does this information allow the squirrel to accurately assess the surrounding danger to itself and its pups, but it also allows the squirrel to communicate this danger (or lack thereof) to other squirrels by additional tail-flagging. 1. Which of the following can most reasonably be concluded about adult ground squirrels on the basis of the passage? A. They are found exclusively in California. B. They have always been immune to rattlesnake venom. C. They are sometimes vulnerable to a rattlesnake's venom. D. They generally stay away from rattlesnakes in order to protect their young. E. They have only avian and reptilian predators.

2. According to the passage, the adult ground squirrel generally does NOT engage in which of the following? A. The self-application of snake scent B. Acquisition of knowledge regarding a rattlesnake's size C. Biting rattlesnakes D. Large-scale assessment of avian predators E. Communication with other adult ground squirrels

3. The author mentions the hunting method of rattlesnakes in order to A. show how the rattlesnake can sneak up on a ground squirrel engaged in predator assessment. B. give an example of an attack against which the adult ground squirrel must defend itself in order to survive. C. explain why 70 percent of squirrels are eaten by rattlesnakes. D. show how the rattlesnake is different from the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle. E. provide a secondary explanation for the adult California ground squirrel's ability to safely approach the rattlesnake.

4. The passage suggests which of the following about predatorprey relationships? A. They only allow for predator assessment when there is no danger from the predator. B. They often do not allow for a high degree of predator assessment. C. They are fairly traditional in their resistance to evolution. D. They tend to minimize the predator-prey proximity. E. They are the same regardless of the species in question.

An interesting quirk of the modern international automotive industry is the off-shore production of domestic automobile brands combined with the simultaneous on-shore production of foreign automobile brands, a phenomenon known as ""shoreswapping."" More than half of domestic Japanese car brands, for example, are produced in the United States, while a nearly equivalent proportion of American brands are produced in Asian countries such as Japan, China, and Korea. Although international shipping and logistics costs are expensive, the practice of shore-swapping is quite logical and profitable. 5. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the conclusion above? A. Automotive producers can sell their automobiles at a premium in their domestic markets. B. Economic globalization has allowed for cultural norms and values to be shared across international borders. C. Last year, Japanese consumers boycotted the purchase of American cars, demanding better working conditions for Japanese laborers. D. The majority of automobiles produced via shoreswapping are sold in the market where they are produced, eliminating shipping costs. E. Free trade with a political ally engenders international goodwill.

On Earth, the dynamic between global warming and the proliferation of greenhouse gases is typically regarded as having dangerous ramifications for our planet. This phenomenon, however, has a potential upside when we consider its implications for other planets. Mars has the potential to become a new human habitat; if the carbon dioxide trapped in its icy poles and in its soil were released, this currently "dead" planet could indeed become a giant greenhouse. While the project would take hundreds of years, the result could be an Earth-like ecosystem that could produce crops and even sustain whole forests. In time, Mars could prove to be a second home to the people of Earth. As wild as such a notion sounds, the science behind this potential transformation is sound enough. After all, we are now keenly aware of the atmosphere-thickening capacities of carbon dioxide and methane. Much of the latter is stored in our own arctic regions; as the arctic tundra melts, vast amounts of atmosphere-building methane are released into the air. After a series of 18-month survey missions, habitation modules could be established on Mars to enable more serious work in this direction to go forward. Factories could then be established that would spew the potent gases we seek to avoid on Earth into the planet's atmosphere. Within 200 years, the planet would be sufficiently insulated to allow microbes and lichens to grow, beginning a process of rock deformation that, in combination with the rain that would begin to fall, would eventually provide topsoil. Once this organic soil was in place-after a few hundred years-plants would start to flower. Boreal and even-temperate forests could grow. The Red Planet would turn green. 6. The author's main objective in writing this passage is to A. argue for converting Mars into a planet for Earth to colonize B. highlight the difficulties of bringing a dead planet to life

C. explain how to a habitable environment might be fashioned D. present a detailed plan for giving Mars an atmosphere E. illuminate the hidden similarities of Earth and Mars

7. It can be inferred from this passage that A. Earth will eventually need to convert Mars into a new home B. carbon dioxide and methane are not inherently harmful C. NASA is hard at work on plans to transform Mars into a habitable planet D. few people will want to uproot from their familiar lives and colonize Mars E. once microbes take hold, plants and trees will immediately flourish

8. The author probably mentions ""arctic tundra"" in order to A. illustrate the ecological challenges on Earth B. explain the presence of methane in Earth's atmosphere C. warn the reader of a growing danger D. explain the feasibility of an effort to transform a planet's climate E. show how methane could be transported to Mars

A parents' association, noting that the new energy snack bar Buzz-y-Bee contains 2 percent (by weight) of cinarol, has been lobbying to have the snack banned from vending machines in schools. Cinarol is known to increase alertness but has also been linked to an increased risk of fertility problems. 9. Which of the following is an assumption made by the parents' association? A. All students who consume Buzz-y-Bee will later have fertility problems. B. While currently a niche product, Buzz-y-Bee will soon be rolled out nationwide. C. Students will probably dislike the taste of Buzz-y-Bee due to its high cinarol content. D. Some food that contains 2 percent (by weight) of cinarol causes fertility problems. E. There is no affiliation between the makers of Buzz-yBee and the parents' association.

10. Meiosis produces haploid daughter cells that are genetically different from each other and from the parent cell; in contrast to mitosis, which produces daughter cells identical to the parent. A. parent cell; in contrast to mitosis, which produces daughter cells identical to the parent B. parent cell, and different from mitosis, which produces daughter cells identical to the parent C. parent cell; in contrast, mitosis produces daughter cells identical to the parent D. parent cell, different from the production of daughter cells identical to the parent, known as mitosis E. parent cell, in contrast to the production of daughter cells identical to the parent, known as mitosis

Farming Industry Expert: Meteorologists expect this spring to be excessively cold and wet in the apple-growing regions of Washington State, which is the largest producer of apples in the United States. While cold and wet weather typically causes a large decrease in the yield of the apple crop, our estimations indicate that Washington apple growers will not see a substantial reduction in revenue as a result of these lessthan-favorable conditions. 11. The claim of the Farming Industry Expert is best supported by which of the following statements? A. The cold and wet weather is likely to increase demand for outerwear, which is produced by a very large company based in Washington State. B. New York, which is the second-largest producer of apples after Washington, is expected to have relatively mild weather that will result in higher yields of apples, pears, and other fruit. C. This growing season, Washington apple growers will use organic pesticides, which are better for the environment than the pesticides currently in use. D. The yield of the apple crop in Washington typically decreases less as a result of cold and wet weather than do the yields of some other crops. E. The drop in supply of apples due to unfavorable weather will result in a large increase in market prices for apples.

12. Despite inflation expectations, allocations to alternative investments like private equity and hedge funds remain roughly constant even though allocations to commodities like gold and precious metals are a market cycle that reflects whether inflation is expected. A. Despite inflation expectations, allocations to alternative investments like private equity and hedge funds remain roughly constant even though allocations to commodities like gold and precious metals are a market cycle that reflects whether inflation is expected. B. Whether inflation is expected determines the market cycle of allocations to commodities such as gold and precious metals, whereas allocations to alternative investments like private equity and hedge funds remain roughly constant despite inflation. C. Allocations to commodities like gold and precious metals are a market cycle that reflects if inflation is expected, whereas alternative investments like private equity and hedge funds remain roughly constant despite inflation. D. The market cycle of allocations to commodities such as gold and precious metals reflects whether inflation is expected, whereas alternative investments such as private equity and hedge funds remain roughly constant despite inflation. E. The market cycle of allocations to commodities such as gold and precious metals reflects whether inflation is expected, whereas alternative investments like private equity and hedge funds remain roughly constant despite inflation.

To the casual observer fortunate enough to have viewed the launch of a space shuttle, the raucous torrent of water that flooded the launch platform may have seemed part of a dramatic show. Those who considered the function of the water-1,135,620 liters of it-often assumed that it served to suppress the flames that flowed from the engine bells so that the shuttle did not sustain damage. Such an assumption is not entirely unfounded, given our understanding of fire's destructive nature and the extreme heat created during a launch. The primary function of the deluge, however, is much less intuitivethe water was intended not for flame suppression but sound suppression. People experience not only a constant onslaught of acoustic waves that their brains translate as sound but also infrasonic and ultrasonic waves that are so subtle as to be sensed only on an unconscious level. Sound intensity, as opposed to volume, refers to the energy of these waves and can be expressed as work in units of microjoules or as power in units of microwatts. Early materials testing indicated that the acoustic energy of launch sound reflected by the Mobile Launcher Platform was stressing the orbiter's wings and causing minor fatigue damage to the thermal curtains of the solid rocket boosters. The water, released 6.6 seconds before main engine ignition, flowed out in just 41 seconds, suppressing acoustic energy by about half. In a successful launch, by the time the flow was exhausted, the shuttle had attained enough altitude (305 meters) to escape the damaging acoustic reflection. 13. It can be inferred from the passage that A. acoustic energy is a daily threat to the safety of living things B. casual assumptions about causes and effects may be naive

C. further materials testing on spacecraft materials should be conducted D. the Mobile Launcher Platform was poorly designed E. observers should not have been allowed access to the launch viewing area

14. Which of the following would be the most likely topic for a paragraph that logically continues the passage, given an audience of lay readers interested in this subject? A. a mathematical representation of the suppression of acoustic energy that resulted from launch B. a budgetary justification for the additional expense of the water suppression system C. a cautionary explanation of how acoustic energy can cause long-term hearing loss D. a description of the safest locations from which shuttle launches were viewed E. information on the development of the sound suppression system

15. Which detail, if added to the first paragraph, would best support the author's contention that assuming the water's primary purpose is fire suppression is the more intuitive conclusion? A. Observers admire those who fly the shuttle and therefore worry about the crew's safety. B. Observers watch the launch through binoculars and telescopes, not from nearby. C. Sound-suppressing water is forcefully propelled through six huge nozzles called ""rainbirds."" D. Infrasonic and ultrasonic waves caused much of the sound damage to the space shuttle. E. Flame deflectors direct the engine blast down into a trench and away from the shuttle.

16. Employers are interested not only in attracting the best candidate to interview and determining which candidate is best of them all. A. and determining which candidate is best of them all B. and they have to determine what makes one candidate better than another C. but they must understand which candidate is better than another D. but also in determining what makes one candidate better than another E. but they have to determine what makes one better than another

Due to budget constraints for the upcoming year, the corporate office of the Super Video chain has elected to reduce the amount of advertising funding it provides to individual chain stores in rural areas. To offset this loss in advertising funding, the manager of one such store, Store 123, has elected to raise late fees from $2.00 per day to $2.50 per day. Despite the fee increase, the store manager has not seen a reduction in the number of videos returned late. The manager has concluded that the late fee increase will help to offset the cut in company funding. 17. Which of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the manager's claim? A. Since the late fee increase, salespeople at Store 123 have noticed a drop in sales of used DVDs and VHS tapes. B. Store 123 had to spend a small amount of its monthly advertising budget to let customers know about the new late fee. C. Store 123 is part of Super Video's corporate video tracking system, which allows Store 123 to know exactly how many videos are overdue in real time. D. Since the advertising budget reduction, Store 123 has had to lay off one salesperson, reducing costs by ten percent. E. Since the fee increase, the average number of days a video is late has not changed.

18. An unconfirmed nominee doing nothing to advance the administration's judicial goals, the president will not consider controversial candidates. A. An unconfirmed nominee doing nothing to advance the administration's judicial goals, the president will not consider any controversial candidates. B. That nominees do nothing to advance the administration's judicial goals unless confirmed, which is why the president will not consider controversial candidates. C. The reason that the president will not consider a controversial candidate is because he will do nothing to advance the administrations judicial goals unless he is confirmed. D. Because nominees do nothing to advance the administration's judicial goals unless confirmed, the president will not consider controversial candidates. E. Nothing is done for the judicial goals of the administration by an unconfirmed candidate, which is why the president will not consider any controversial candidate.

Numerous studies of chemotherapy patients over the last ten years have shown that patients who had regularly attended support groups or received counseling experienced significantly fewer side effects and shorter recovery times from chemotherapy than did patients who had not. Clearly, although the mainstream scientific community has been slow to acknowledge it, psychological support has an effect on the body's ability to heal. 19. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? A. The survival rates for chemotherapy patients in the study were virtually identical regardless of whether or not they received support. B. The patients who did not attend support groups chose not to do so, even though they were healthy enough to attend. C. Many medical doctors believe that the mind plays a role in the causation and prevention of illness. D. The majority of chemotherapy patients must undergo more than one round of treatment. E. Some hospitals do not conduct support groups on their premises for chemotherapy patients and their families.

20. According to legal experts, doctors require that a minimum of $250,000 in malpractice coverage be purchased to protect against the most common types of medical lawsuits. A. require that a minimum of $250,000 in malpractice coverage be purchased to be protected B. require that there be a minimum of $250,000 in malpractice coverage to be protected C. require that there be a minimum of $250,000 in malpractice coverage D. require a minimum of $250,000 in malpractice coverage for the protection E. require a minimum of $250,000 in malpractice coverage to be protected

21. The discovery of gold near Deadwood, South Dakota, drew adventurers and created economic competition, leading to violence that claimed as many as 100 lives. A. leading to violence that claimed as many as 100 lives B. leading to violence that claimed as much as 100 lives C. with the effect of violence that claimed as much as 100 lives D. with the effect that violence claimed as many as 100 lives lost E. and led to violence that claimed as many as 100 lives

River blindness, a devastating condition caused by water parasites, is more common among the people of the Baka tribe than among those of other tribes in the area. River blindness can be prevented through water purification, improved eating habits, and nutritional education. Even so, the incidence of river blindness among the Baka tribe continues to increase, while in neighboring tribes, the incidence of river blindness is decreasing. 22. Which of the following, if true, would best explain the situation described above? A. Swimming is more popular among the members of the Baka tribe than among the members of the neighboring tribes. B. The Baka tribe is growing more quickly than any other tribe in the area, and its lands are among the most crowded. C. Unlike its neighboring tribes, which are smaller, the Baka tribe must focus more on food gathering and water recycling than on water purification and nutritional education. D. More Baka tribe members have access to education than do members of neighboring tribes. E. A decade ago, a visiting group of doctors identified that the occurrence of river blindness was much higher in the Baka tribe than in neighboring tribes.

Product Manager: Introducing a new board game typically grows our business, since new releases tend to appeal to a new demographic and expand our customer base. However, our new game, Defending the Kingdom, will very likely reduce our profits. As we already have a cooperative fantasy-themed game with a design similar to Defending the Kingdom's, the launch of the new game is likely to take sales away from our other game rather than expand our company's customer base. Also, since there are many up-front costs that make Defending the Kingdom a more expensive game to produce, profitable sales from our other game will be replaced with lower-margin revenue. 23. In the argument above, which of the following statements best describes the role played by each portion in boldface? A. The first is evidence that the Product Manager provides in support of a certain prediction; the second is that prediction. B. The first is a generalization that the Product Manager accepts as true; the second is a consequence that follows from that generalization. C. The first acknowledges a consideration against the main conclusion of the Product Manager; the second is that conclusion. D. The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the Product Manager predicts will be repeated in the case at issue; the second acknowledges a circumstance in which that pattern would not hold. E. The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the Product Manager predicts will not hold in the case at issue; the second offers a consideration in support of that prediction.

As many as 2,000 packages get shipped to the wrong address each month due to postal errors. In a concerted effort to reduce the number of mistakes, post offices implemented an eight-step method that included ZIP code verification, legibility confirmation, and new carrier training. The postmaster estimated that over a 45-day period, more than 2,040 packages that would otherwise have gone to the wrong address were correctly delivered. 24. Which of the following can be inferred from the above statements? A. The eight-step method implemented by post offices will continue to be used in the future. B. The eight-step method corrected many of the deficiencies in the original package delivery system. C. Prior to the implementation of the new method, package delivery personnel were negligent in performing their jobs. D. The postmaster is uncertain about the efficacy of the new package delivery method. E. In the future, no packages will be shipped to the wrong address.

25. Effective trade practices with local tribes and newly emerging currencies provided a strong local economy for European settlers living in and around the St. Louis area. A. living in and around the St. Louis B. of St. Louis C. around the vicinity of the St. Louis D. of the St. Louis E. in and around the St. Louis

African exploration in the late nineteenth century is almost entirely a story of white males: scientists, traders and missionaries. Mary Henrietta Kingsley stands out as an exception. Ostensibly, Kingsley planned her first trip to Africa so she could conduct research on fetishes and complete the academic treatise her father, an explorer, had begun. Privately, Kingsley told a friend she was traveling to Africa "to die," though she had dreamt of such an adventure since childhood. Nevertheless, she prepared for the trip carefully, interviewing friends, doctors, missionaries, and former explorers, all of whom advised her not to make the trek. Kingsley was undaunted and set off for West Africa carrying only £300, and chemicals and specimen cases designed to collect samples of unknown fish and insects for the British Museum. Kingsley sailed the coast, finally putting in at the mouth of the Congo. Recognizing that the natives were naturally suspicious of Europeans traveling without an obvious purpose, Kingsley purchased cloth and other goods in the port and traveled inland for six months as a trader, exchanging goods for food and shelter along the way. During this and her second trip in 1895, Kingsley demonstrated resourcefulness in dealing with such challenges as rescuing a native from cannibals, defeating a leopard with a bucket of water, learning to pilot a native canoe up the Ogooue River, and becoming the first white woman and third "Englishman" to climb the 14,435 foot Mount Cameroon. Upon her return to London, Kingsley campaigned for an enlightened African policy, published her bookTravels in West Africa and advocated a forum for the serious ethnological study of Africa. Kingsley's third trip was to Cape Town during the 1900 Boer War. There she encountered an epidemic of dysentery, volunteered to nurse prisoners of war, contracted typhoid, and died.

30. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To demonstrate that even the most seasoned African explorers are at risk due to disease. B. To outline the early history of African exploration. C. To establish the need for a more tolerant colonial policy in 19
th

century England.

D. To discuss the achievements of one female explorer. E. To argue that the contributions made by women explorers in Africa were as important as those made by men.

31. The author suggests that Mary Kingsley may have gone to Africa for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. to serve as an Anglican missionary B. to complete her father's fetish research C. to fulfill a childhood dream D. to collect specimens of fish and insects for the British Museum E. to die

32. Mary Kingsley's reason for purchasing cloth and other supplies at the mouth of the Congo was: A. to be able to trade for food and shelter along the way B. to earn extra money to finance her trip C. to assuage the natives' concerns over her motives D. to acquire examples of fetish sculptures for her father's research E. to acquaint the natives with European goods

33. Why does the author insert the anecdotes about Kingsley's travels in paragraph three? A. To show that she was not afraid of wild beasts. B. To compare the obstacles faced by female travelers with those faced by male explorers of the day. C. To entice you into reading Kinsley's best-selling book Travels in West Africa. D. To emphasize the dangers Mary faced in her travels. E. To illustrate Kingsley's ability to conquer a variety of challenges.

African exploration in the late nineteenth century is almost entirely a story of white males: scientists, traders and missionaries. Mary Henrietta Kingsley stands out as an exception. Ostensibly, Kingsley planned her first trip to Africa so she could conduct research on fetishes and complete the academic treatise her father, an explorer, had begun. Privately, Kingsley told a friend she was traveling to Africa "to die," though she had dreamt of such an adventure since childhood. Nevertheless, she prepared for the trip carefully, interviewing friends, doctors, missionaries, and former explorers, all of whom advised her not to make the trek. Kingsley was undaunted and set off for West Africa carrying only £300, and chemicals and specimen cases designed to collect samples of unknown fish and insects for the British Museum. Kingsley sailed the coast, finally putting in at the mouth of the Congo. Recognizing that the natives were naturally suspicious of Europeans traveling without an obvious purpose, Kingsley purchased cloth and other goods in the port and traveled inland for six months as a trader, exchanging goods for food and shelter along the way. During this and her second trip in 1895, Kingsley demonstrated resourcefulness in dealing with such challenges as rescuing a native from cannibals, defeating a leopard with a bucket of water, learning to pilot a native canoe up the Ogooue River, and becoming the first white woman and third "Englishman" to climb the 14,435 foot Mount Cameroon. Upon her return to London, Kingsley campaigned for an enlightened African policy, published her bookTravels in West Africa and advocated a forum for the serious ethnological study of Africa. Kingsley's third trip was to Cape Town during the 1900 Boer War. There she encountered an epidemic of dysentery, volunteered to nurse prisoners of war, contracted typhoid, and died.

30. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To demonstrate that even the most seasoned African explorers are at risk due to disease. B. To outline the early history of African exploration. C. To establish the need for a more tolerant colonial policy in 19
th

century England.

D. To discuss the achievements of one female explorer. E. To argue that the contributions made by women explorers in Africa were as important as those made by men.

31. The author suggests that Mary Kingsley may have gone to Africa for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. to serve as an Anglican missionary B. to complete her father's fetish research C. to fulfill a childhood dream D. to collect specimens of fish and insects for the British Museum E. to die

32. Mary Kingsley's reason for purchasing cloth and other supplies at the mouth of the Congo was: A. to be able to trade for food and shelter along the way B. to earn extra money to finance her trip C. to assuage the natives' concerns over her motives D. to acquire examples of fetish sculptures for her father's research E. to acquaint the natives with European goods

33. Why does the author insert the anecdotes about Kingsley's travels in paragraph three? A. To show that she was not afraid of wild beasts. B. To compare the obstacles faced by female travelers with those faced by male explorers of the day. C. To entice you into reading Kinsley's best-selling book Travels in West Africa. D. To emphasize the dangers Mary faced in her travels. E. To illustrate Kingsley's ability to conquer a variety of challenges.

34. According to many obstetricians, the intake of iron, if double that of nonpregnant women, may actually reduce developing iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy, further supporting the findings of several major health organizations. A. According to many obstetricians, the intake of iron, if double that of nonpregnant women, may actually reduce developing iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy B. Iron, many obstetricians suggest, if double that of nonpregnant women, may actually reduce the development risk of iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy C. Many obstetricians suggest that increasing iron intake to double that of nonpregnant women may actually reduce the risk of developing iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy D. Many obstetricians suggest that supplementing iron double that of nonpregnant women actually reduces the risk of developing iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy E. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy may be at a lower risk of development if iron is taken double nonpregnant women, according to many obstetricians

35. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal. A. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal B. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal C. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while an infinite and ready-made supply of environments is at the disposal of astronomers D. The fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments while astronomers have an infinite and readymade supply of environments at their disposal is one reason, late in their careers, some particle physicists are switching to astronomy E. The existence of an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at the disposal of astronomers compared with the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments suggests one reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers

The government of Country X recently enacted legislation that eliminated property tax credits for homeowners who purchase solar water heaters. Due to this change, solar water heater sales in Country X, which have tripled over the past three years, will likely slow drastically within the next two years. 36. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens the conclusion reached above? A. The majority of homeowners in Country X do not own a solar water heater. B. Home energy prices are not expected to change over the next two years. C. Solar water heaters are known to have less heating capacity than traditional water heaters. D. Most consumers in Country X who purchased solar water heaters over the last three years were unaware of the tax credit. E. Economic research has found that solar water heaters are more expensive to keep up and replace than are traditional water heaters.

37. Oxfordians maintain that Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, had written the plays and poems attributed to William Shakespeare traditionally. A. Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, had written the plays and poems attributed to William Shakespeare traditionally B. Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, wrote the plays and poems attributed to William Shakespeare traditionally. C. that Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, wrote the plays and poems traditionally attributed to William Shakespeare. D. that Edward de Vere, as 17th Earl of Oxford, had written the plays and poems traditionally attributed to William Shakespeare. E. that Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, wrote the plays and poems having been traditionally attributed to William Shakespeare.

38. Within the global warming discussion, scientists still dispute about whether current estimation techniques are adequate to determine climate sensitivity-a measure of how responsive the temperature of the climate system is to a change in the radiative forcing. A. about whether B. as to whether C. whether D. whether or not E. if

39. Although the tarantula rarely bites and is much less venomous than either the black widow or brown recluse, its fangs are of such size and power that they can cause mechanical damage. A. its fangs are of such size and power that they can be a cause of mechanical damage B. its fangs are so large and powerful as to cause mechanical damage C. such are the size and power of its fangs that they can be a cause of mechanical damage D. their fangs are large and powerful enough to cause of mechanical damage E. such are the size and power of its fangs that it can cause mechanical damage

A recent poll suggests that European and American players prefer different board game experiences. For example, European players tend to prefer games that focus on clever mechanisms and shorter playing times, while American players prefer more thematic and longer games. In most board game stores, demonstrations focus on game mechanics and shorter game play. Additionally, the current trend in game stores is to carry games that feature shorter playing times and are not very thematic. 40. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following as a conclusion? A. American and European players do not enjoy playing games together. B. People buying gifts for American players should not shop at game stores. C. European players are more likely than American players to enjoy the demonstrations at board game stores. D. The current games available at game stores contribute to the lack of American game players. E. More American players than European players would enjoy a game about space travel.

41. The direction and length of the bee's dance tells its fellow foragers where honey will be found out. A. tells its fellow foragers where honey will be found out B. tells its fellow foragers where they will find honey C. tells where honey will be found out by its fellow foragers D. tell where honey will be found to its fellow foragers E. tell its fellow foragers where they will find honey

42. Thomas Eagleton resigned as Democratic nominee for vice president after newspapers published reports that he earlier underwent electroconvulsive therapy, under pressure from presidential nominee George McGovern. A. Thomas Eagleton resigned as Democratic nominee for vice president after newspapers published reports that he earlier underwent electroconvulsive therapy, under pressure from presidential nominee George McGovern. B. Thomas Eagleton, under pressure from presidential nominee George McGovern after newspapers published reports that he had earlier underwent electroconvulsive therapy, resigned as Democratic nominee for vice president C. After newspaper reports that he had undergone electroconvulsive therapy, under pressure from presidential candidate George McGovern, Thomas Eagleton resigned as Democratic nominee for vice president. D. Under pressure from presidential nominee George McGovern, Thomas Eagleton resigned as Democratic nominee for vice president after newspapers published reports that he earlier underwent electroconvulsive therapy. E. Under pressure from presidential nominee George McGovern, Thomas Eagleton resigned as Democratic nominee for vice president after newspapers published reports that he had undergone electroconvulsive therapy.

Doctors now believe that as many people age they will suffer a number of mini-strokes that go undetected. However, as each of these small strokes leads to a cumulative loss of brain tissue, a person who suffers them is much more likely to be debilitated by a subsequent detectable stroke that in others would only cause minor or temporary physical impairment. 43. Which of the following is the best analogy for the process described above? A. According to chaos theory, a butterfly flapping its wings in Africa can cause a hurricane in the Caribbean. B. People who buy lottery tickets regularly are more likely to win a prize than those who buy tickets only occasionally. C. Athletes who use performance enhancing drugs are much more likely to experience career-ending injuries than athletes who do not. D. Repeated exposure to hurricane-force winds causes concrete in buildings to develop tiny cracks, as a result of which an average-sized hurricane can cause an inordinate level of damage. E. Random smells or sounds can trigger intense fear in people who have lived through childhood trauma.

44. Of all the possible threats that affect American national security, the possibility of electromagnetic attack is maybe the more difficult for analysis. A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis B. is probably the most difficult to analyze C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis D. is probably the more difficult to analyze E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult

A new type of organism-one that exhibits signs of life only during the wet season-has recently been discovered by scientists in the Namib desert. During times of drought, the organism blends into the drab color of the sandy landscape and lies dormant. Therefore, researchers must have first discovered the organism during the wet season. 45. The argument depends on which of the following assumptions? A. No similar organism lives in the Namib desert. B. The terrain in the Namib desert is a uniform drab color. C. It is impossible for the organism to survive anywhere other than the Namib desert. D. The new organism is not related to previously known organisms. E. During times of drought, the organism cannot be detected.

Most cars are built to last for more than 12 years, and if serviced regularly, the average older car is well equipped to meet the common daily demands of running errands and commuting to work. Nevertheless, the typical American driver buys or leases a new car every five years. 46. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following conclusions? A. New cars offer marked improvements in performance compared to older cars. B. Cars that are no longer being used by their original drivers command a large market. C. Today's cars are more durable than cars made in the past due to advances in production technology. D. The purchase or lease of new cars must be explained by something other than the ability of cars to serve the demands of everyday driving. E. Cars should not last as long as they do now.

47. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium. A. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium B. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies C. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, small, emergent economies are not subject to the same applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance as established economies D. Because small, emergent economies are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to them in the same way they apply to established economies E. Small, emergent economies are not subject to the applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance in the same way as established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium

Once the nexus of commerce, small specialty stores located downtown now struggle financially due to a confluence of factors. For one, their size does not permit them to negotiate favorable terms with distributors, and as a result, they face higher costs than do large stores in suburban strip malls. This leads to higher prices and lower profit margins, neither of which is conducive to the growth of the business. Unable to expand, a business in this position is relegated to a small niche, with a limited product variety that subsequently limits the store's customer base. 48. If the statements above are true, then small stores would be most likely to break the pattern described above by successfully accomplishing which of the following? A. Specializing in an unusual product B. Advertising in neighborhood papers to attract more local business C. Partnering with a larger ""parent"" organization and using its strength to negotiate good terms with distributors D. Educating the public about the higher prices charged to small businesses by distributors E. Lobbying for increased bus service to bring suburban consumers downtown

An increasing number of new passenger car models are being shipped with side-impact air bags as standard equipment, in part because such air bags are known to be beneficial in many accident scenarios and in part because not having them is regarded as a marketing disadvantage. However, side-impact air bags are not entirely without risk; for example, they can result in serious injury if a passenger is leaning against the window or the door when an accident takes place. Thus, a leading advocacy group has taken the position that side-impact air bags should not be made standard on all models until their absolute safety can be guaranteed. 49. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the position of the advocacy group? A. Shoulder belts for passengers in the rear middle seat of a vehicle save many more lives per year than side-impact air bags do. B. Side-impact air bags have lessened the exhilaration of driving. C. Each year, many people are injured when a side-impact air bag inflates against an object suspended from a coat hanger in a vehicle. D. Features should not be made standard until they are proven to be completely safe. E. No feature of a vehicle will ever be absolutely safe.

Petroleum, which is the primary base of synthetic fibers, is a fossil fuel. By contrast, cotton is a natural fiber and thus a renewable resource. Accordingly, many well-meaning consumer advocates recommend the purchase of cotton clothing as a way of lessening the use of fossil fuels. 50. Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the validity of the consumer advocates' position? A. Other natural fibers are cheaper than cotton. B. Converting factories that are currently set up to produce synthetic fibers into factories that process cotton fiber would require millions of dollars in renovations. C. Cotton production requires the heavy use of pesticides and causes greater environmental pollution than the production of synthetic fibers. D. Purely cotton clothing has been limited in its availability to major retail outlets. E. More energy from fossil fuels is expended in the care for cotton clothing over its lifetime than is used in the production of synthetic fibers.

The human brain is about 95 percent of its adult size by age six. Because of this fact, researchers used to believe that one's lifelong learning capacity was determined by a fairly young age. Consequently, a great deal of attention was paid to stimulating the brain during early childhood. Doting new parents diligently supplied their offspring with flashcards, black and white patterned mobiles, and classical music CDs in hopes of raising smarter children. Scientists have since determined, however, that the gray matter responsible for intelligence continues growing and making connections throughout childhood and into adolescence. Similar to the growth of a tree, new connections, or "branches," continue to form and grow in the frontal lobe-responsible for planning, organizing, strategizing, and judgment-until this process, begun in the womb, peaks at the onset of puberty (11 for girls and 12 for boys, on average). At that point, the "use it or lose it" principle kicks in. After years of being over-produced, the brain's unused cells and connections wither and die. The branches stop growing and begin to be pruned back. How much and which parts are pruned back depend on the brain (and child) in question. While an important milestone in neural development, this pubescent pruning stage still does not mark the limits to one's intellectual capacity. Recent research has found that a second wave of brain cell over-production occurs during adolescence, roughly between the ages of 10 and 13, followed by another pruning and reorganization. Scientists stress that these teenage years are a critical time for children, as their brain becomes hardwired during this time. Whether young people engage in sports and academics or play videogames and watch TV during these years, the activities they engage in shape the neural pathways that become fixed, potentially for life. 51. The primary purpose of this passage is to A. explain why teenagers think differently from adults

B. disprove the importance of classical music on brain development C. convey new developments in adolescent brain research D. clarify the "use it or lose it" principle of brain development E. refute findings that suggest a second wave of gray matter production

52. The author would most likely agree with which of the following? A. Teens should spend more time on academics than sports. B. Cell phone use during adolescence is dangerous. C. Flashcards do not help infant brain development. D. Learning a new subject may be more difficult for adults than for young adolescents. E. The voting age should be raised, since adolescent brains are not fully formed.

53. The author presents the image of tree branches in order to A. demonstrate that brain development is a natural process B. explain why certain connections are pruned while others survive to become hardwired C. clarify how gray matter grows and forms connections D. create an extended metaphor comparing growing children to trees E. show that brain cells regenerate like leaves

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