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Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Test Location : Latest (2012) Posted By : Priya M menon
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IBPS recruitment process and aptitude test experiences Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\ IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS

Latest IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Question Paper with answers-Reasoning,Quatitative Aptitude & General Awareness on March 2012

IBPS Bank PO CWE GENERAL AWARENESS Questions 1. The Name of Abdul Karim Telgi is associated with: (1) Oil for Food scam (2) Stamp Paper scam (3) Fodder scam (4) MP LADs Fund scam (5) Shares scam

2. Match the following books with their authors: (A) In Line of Fire (i) Pervez Musharraf (B) My Name is Red (ii) Orhan Pamuk (C) Call of Honour (iii) Sagarika Ghose (D) Blind Faith (iv) Jaswant Singh ABCD

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (5) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

3. Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission: (i) The budget for the scheme is approximately Rs 1000 crore. (ii) It will cover 100 cities having population over one million. (iii) It is aimed at infrastructure and the poor. Which of the above is NOT true? (1) (iii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (5) None of the above

4. The Tarapore Committee Report is concerned with which of the following: (1) SEZs (2) SBI (3) RBI (4) Exim policy (5) Capital A/c convertibility 5. Out of the following options regarding the Railway Budget announcements, 2006, which of these is not true? (1) Major railway stations will have ATMs and cybercafes (2) Central budgetary support of nearly Rs 7500 crores (3) AC fares brought down (4) The railways generated resources worth Rs 13,000 crores internally (5) Railway safety fund was Rs 100 crores

6. Afghan President Hamid Karzai was recently awarded: (1) Indira Gandhi prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2005 (2) Gandhi Peace Prize, 2005 (3) Right Livelihood Award, 2006 (4) Nobel Prize for Peace, 2006 (5) Mother Teresa International Award, 2006

7. Which of the following has completed 50 years in 2006? (1) HDFC (2) RBI (3) LIC (4) BARC (5) SBI

8. Which of these matchings of recently appointed persons is not correct? (1) A.K. AntonyForeign Minister (2) M.M. SinghChairman of Planning Commission (3) Sureesh MehtaChief of Naval Staff (4) M. NairChief of ISRO (5) N. GopalaswamiChief Election Commissioner

9. What is the Book of Life related to? (1) Book which received Booker prize, 2006 (2) A new book on zoology (3) A comprehensive dictionary on various life-forms on earth. (4) The Human Genome Project (5) Peace efforts in various nations

10. Who was recently invited by the U.N. Secretary General Kofi Annan to deliver a lecture on poverty alleviation? (1) Anil Ambani (2) Lalu Prasad Yadav (3) Swami Ramdev (4) Atal Behari Vajpayee (5) Pandit Ravi Shankar

11. Given below is the list of Forbes powerful women and their fields/posts.: (A) ICICI Bank (i) Sonia Gandhi (B) Pepsico (ii) Lalita Gupte (C) German Chancellor (iii) Indra Nooyi (D) Congress Chief (iv) Angela Merkel Which of these matchings is correct: ABCD 1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 5. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

12. Considering the Tarapore Atomic Power Plant-3, which of these facts is TRUE? 1. It has 540 MW capacity 2. It is Indias 3rd such plant 3. Indias nuclear energy capacity now goes upto 3890 MW 4. It is situated in Maharashtra (1) All the above are true (2) 1, 2 only are true (3) 1, 2, 3 are true

(4) 1, 3, 4 are true (5) Only 3, 4 are true

13. On the basic needs of LPG and kerosene, approximately how much a cylinder and a litre, did the government subsidize in early 2006? (1) Rs 220 and Rs 12 (2) Rs 250 and Rs 20 (3) Rs 300 and Rs 30 (4) Rs 180 and Rs 10 (5) None of the above

14. The per capita income in India is estimated by: (1) Census Commission (2) Central Bank (3) RBI (4) Joint Parliamentary Committee (5) Central Statistical Organisation

15. The Health Ministry has planned to set standards of aerated water, following the controversy between the soft-drink giants and the NGO, Centre for Science and Environment. What is the tentative period assigned for this? (1) by December 2006 (2) by January 2007 (3) by August 2007 (4) by March 2007 (5) by December 2007

16. Roughly how many years has the economic liberalisation programme completed in India? (1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (5) 50 17. Which of the following is correctly matched? 1. Asit BiswasStockholm Water Prize 2. ChandrakantaVyas Samman 3. Devi CherianRajiv Gandhi Rashtriya Ekta Samman (1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) Only 1 (4) Only 2 (5) 1, 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements regarding India and tell which one is not correct: (1) 2005 experienced a fall in total unemployment (2) High Security Animal Disease Lab declared India free of bird flu (3) ULFA chairman Arbinda announced a peace truce with the army

(4) The RBI praised SEZs for creating regional balance in the future (5) None of these

19. Regarding the online population of India (accessing the internet), as in mid-2006, which of the following statements is true? (1) There were approximately 18 million users (2) The percentage increase over previous year was 20% (3) India has the 2nd largest online population (4) The population was measured for people aged 18 years or nmore (5) None of these

20. NACP III can be designated as: (1) National AIDS Control Programme (2) National Adult Consultancy Programme (3) National Air Craft Programme (4) New Age Child Programme (5) None of these

21. Match the following: State Rank according to no. of patent applications (A) Delhi (i) 4 (B) Andhra Pradesh (ii) 2 (C) Tamil Nadu (iii) 1 (D) Maharashtra (iv) 3 ABCD (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (5) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

22. IAFs recent combat exercise on the Western front was: (1) Garuda (2) Gagan Shakti (3) Vayudoot (4) Sangha Shakti (5) Varuna

23. Consider the following happenings/programmes: I. D. Raju has been appointed for micro-division of reservation. II. India will host International AIDS Conference, 2012. III. Supreme Court upheld that State domicile was needed for contesting election to Rajya Sabha, from a State.

Which of the above statements is/are true? (1) Only I (2) Only I and II (3) Only II and III (4) Only III (5) All of the above

24. Recently France honoured an Indian with the officer de la legion d honneur. The honour was bestowed on: (1) Mukesh Ambani (2) Amitabh Bachchan (3) Sonia Gandhi (4) M.M. Singh (5) Aamir Khan

25. Match the sports events/terms: (A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (i) Pankaj Advani (B) Badminton (ii) Aparna Popat (C) Shooting (iii) R.S. Rathore (D) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (iv) Panjab University ABCD (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (5) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 26. Kadima political party is associated with which country? (1) Turkey (2) Kazakhstan (3) S. Arabia (4) Israel (5) Pakistan 27. Arrange the following States in the descending order of the number of child labourBihar, M.P., Rajasthan, U.P. (1) Bihar, U.P., M.P., Rajasthan (2) U.P., Bihar, M.P., Rajasthan (3) M.P. Rajasthan, U.P., Bihar (4) U.P., Rajasthan, Bihar, M.P. (5) None of the above

28. Dronacharya award is associated with: (1) Teaching (2) Peace (3) Science (4) Armed Forces (5) Sports Coaches

29. Ban Ki-moon, elected as next Secretary-General of the UN, belongs to: (1) Philippines (2) Japan (3) China (4) South Korea (5) Thailand

30. Approximately what was the amount sent by NRIs to their fellowmen in India (in US $) in the year 2004? (1) 10 B (2) 12 B (3) 16 B (4) 18 B (5) 22 B

31. The venue of the World Economic Forum Meet, 2006 was: (1) Davos (2) Manila (3) Beijing(4) New Delhi (5) New York

32. With regard to 2006 Foreign Trade, which one of these is not true? (1) total merchandise export in 2005-06 was nearly $ 100 B (2) the government announced initiatives to promote exports (3) there was realisation of potential in sports good and toys (4) the growth in merchandise exports was almost 25% (5) there was decrease in trade deficit

33. The Rural Employment Guarantee Programme in Februarym2006 guarantees a minimum how many days of employment in an year? (1) 122 (2) 120 (3) 183 (4) 100 (5) 150

34. The 104th Constitutional Amendment Bill, deals with: (1) Panchayati Raj System (2) Reservation to SCs, STs and OBCs in educational institutes (3) Sixth Pay Commission (4) Better Schemes for the Girl Child (5) Rural Employment Guarantee

35. Kalpana-I is actually: (1) INSAT-2B (2) METSAT (3) PSLV (4) EDUSAT (5) None of these

36. Approximately what per cent of the Indian population lives on $ 1 or even less a day? (1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 35 n(4) 27 (5) 22

37. The author of Snow is: (1) Javed Akhtar (2) Enid Blyton

(3) Orhan Pamuk (4) Jennifer Lopez (5) Aishwarya Rai

38. The 10th five-year plan aims at an annual GDP growth rate of: (1) 6% (2) 7% (3) 8% (4) 9% (5) 10%

39. The largest electronic company in India is: (1) Videocon (2) Philips (3) National (4) TCL (5) BPL

40. The terms Grameen Bank and Microcredit are associated with: (1) Manmohan Singh (2) Mulayam Singh Yadav (3) Bill Gates (4) Aung San Su Ki (5) Muhammad Yunus

41. In the year 2005, the per cent increase in Foreign Direct Investment in India was: (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 10 (5) 30

42. Which one is Indias Ist LPG powered car? (1) Tatan Indigo (2) Tata Indica (3) Maruti 800 (4) Maruti Alto (5) Maruti WagonR Duo 43. What is the new monthly salary of an MP? (1) Rs 16,000 (2) Rs 14,000 (3) Rs 12,000 (4) Rs 15,000 (5) Rs 13,000

44. Which State is planning to have a port in another State? (1) Jharkhand (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttaranchal

(4) Bihar (5) Rajasthan

45. Who is the highest paid Indian brand ambassador? (1) Saurav Ganguli (2) Sachin Tendulkar (3) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (4) Yuvraj Singh (5) Kapil Dev

46. The J.L. Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research was recently in the news because of: (1) success in DNA coding (2) Ist nano-technology lab in India (3) ultra modern scientific courses in India (4) international meeting of scientists (5) None of these

47. Karvar, Sasan, Akaltara, Mudra and Ratnagiri are the sites proposed for: (1) archaeological survey (2) special economic zones (3) ultra-mega power plants (4) test sites for Indian missiles (5) hydroelectric power projects

48. The purpose of designing MSCI indices is: (1) to eliminate poverty from all the nations (2) to encourage international trade (3) to assist UNO in economic projects (4) to study national incomes of various countries (5) to measure stock market performances worldwide

49. New names were proposed for a few cities in South India. which of these is not correctly matched? 1. BangalooruBangalore, 2. MysooruMysore, 3. PondichooruPondicherry (1) Only 1 (2) 3 only (3) 2 only (4) 1 and 2 (5) None of these

50. Indias new Chief of Naval Staff is: (1) Sureesh Mehta (2) Piyush Pandey (3) N. Gopalaswamy (4) Pranab Mukherjee (5) Pratyush Sinha

IBPS Bank PO CWE English Language Questions ENGLISH

Directions (Qs. 51-65): Read the following passage and answer the questions below it. A few words are given in the bold form to help easy location while answering some questions. To some extent, it is the nature of the intellect to narrow our vision and give it focus. Tragedy comes in when we forget this limitation and think the intellect can comprehend things as a whole. The intellect views the world through a slit. When a cat walks by, it observes the eye, then fur, and then the tail, and then it infers that the eye is the cause ofnthe tail, unless of course, the cat was walking backward. If this sounds absurd, some of the theories about biochemistry and behaviour use very similar reasoning. Nachiketa would object, Man, why dont you open the door? Thats just your black cat Frodo, pacing back and forth. But instead we usually get caught up in clarifying slitinformation, even though without a larger view our conclusions may be entirely wrong. To make matters worse, we specialize. I am not against specialization per se but what often happens is that we do not even look through whole slit; we subdivide. My field is the upper part of the tail; yours is the lower. I might even forget about the eye and the fur. My main concern will be my debate with a colleague in Tokyo over whether hair on the tail grows up or down. If anybody asks how the eye fits in, I refer him to another researcher. After all, what have eyes got to do with geotropic hair growth? Debates like this cannot be resolved on the slit level. What is required is to open the door; then argument becomes unnecessary. Once the door is opened, even a little, we will not quarrel over whose slit is correct or whether we should confine ourselves to the top of it or the bottom. As long as we see only part of the picture, logic and argumentation can never settle an issue. When the intellect becomes calm and clear, theory gives way to demonstration. It is not beyond our reach to see life whole. We have simply become so attached to this precious slit that we think there is no higher mode of knowing. After a while, we become so used to slits that we put on a special mask with just a hairline crack in front of the eyes. Try walking around wearing a mask like this and see what happens. Every little thing will fill your field of vision. The intellect that sees only a small corner of life makes a very poor guide. We follow it like the blind led by the blind. I see this illustrated every day in the newspapers. To take just one urgent example, I have read that perhaps half a million scientists and engineers around the world are engaged in weapons research. I have no doubt that the vast mmajority of these people have no desire for war. They feel they are onlydoing a job, playing a small role in an inevitable activity. Nevertheless,this is not a defence industry, this is a half a million highly skilled menand women preparing for war. Producing and selling instruments of war is one of the biggest business in the world today. Even before the First World War, George Bernard Shaw caught the spirit of the industry in the character of undershaft in Major Barbara. Undershaft is no sinister merchant of death. He is just a businessman, whose credo is to give arms to all who offer an honest price for them, without respect of persons or principles, to capitalist and socialist, to protestant and catholic, to burglar and

policeman, to black man, white man and yellow man, to all sorts and conditions, all nationalities and faiths, all follies, all causes and all crimes. The defence-minded intellect might object, Thats unfortunate, but defence is necessary. Everybody has to have weapons, and somebody is going to sell them. Here is a business that is thriving. These sales, the merchant argue, help supply allies who cannot produce needed equipment. Needed for what? Any school boy knows that weapons are needed by people in order to kill each other. From the evidence, we would have to conclude that death is a much more desirable goal than health, education, or welfare. Or, look at cancer. Many researchers today maintain that perhaps seventy to ninety per cent of all human cancers are caused by environmental agents involved in manufacturing and processing new products. Most of these substances are relatively recent additions to our environment. We made them, and we can cease to make them if we choose.Yet one way or another such substances appeal to us so much that life without them seems untenable. As a result, instead of trying to eliminate the causes of cancer, we pour millions of dollars into what one writer calls the Vietnam of modern medicine: The Search for a Cancer Cure. This kind of myopia is not a necessary fault of the intellect. Given a larger picture, the intellect can rise to the occasion. Then even if the Nobel Prize is dangled before its eyes, it will refuse to work at any project that is at the expense of life, but will give all its attention to matters of real urgency.

51. Which of these is true in context to the passage: (1) humans are capable of unlimited applications of the mind (2) whether the slit is small or large, conclusion is the same (3) all researchers view through slit-like intellects (4) it is not possible to view life as a whole (5) the intellect is capable of adjustments

52. The passage is against: (a) short-sightedness of the scientists (b) the nature of the intellect (c) narrowness of the intellect (1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a) and (c) (5) all (a), (b) and (c)

53. What should be the right approach for argumentation: (1) to specialise in a particular field (2) to study bio-chemistry (3) sub-divide topics and research on them (4) open the doors of the intellect (5) leave attachment to our slits

54. According to the author, the intellect which sees a small corner of life, can: (1) lead to scientific and engineering outcomes (2) lead to follies and crimes (3) race for better defence (4) cause environmental pollution (5) lead to harmful and unwanted results

55. What leads to cancer? (1) pre-existing environmental pollutants (2) man-made additions to environment (3) tasty and good-looking things (4) modern medicines (5) None of the above

56. The difference between narrow and broad vision is: (1) narrow vision leads to specialisations, while broad vision does not (2) narrow vision leads to debates while broad vision easily settles them (3) narrow vision leads to desire for war while broad vision leads to desire for defence sales (4) narrow vision leads to greedy business while broad vision leads to fair salesmanship (5) narrow vision leads to Nobel prizes and broad vision refuses them

57. In context to the passage, which one of these is false: (1) weapons are needed by nations for money (2) weapons are needed for security reasons (3) a person with a broad intellect would not sell weapons to all (4) the author is against specialisations (5) scientists all over the world are preparing for war

58. The title to the passage can be: (1) Disasters of science (2) Nature of the intellect (3) Intellectual misconducts (4) Human debates (5) Viewing life as a whole

59. The undershaft is: (1) a very clever businessman (2) an intellectual businessman (3) an immoral character (4) the major role in Major Barbara (5) a blindly-led intellect

Directions (Qs. 60-62): In context of the above passage choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the given word. 60. CREDO (1) crime (2) credit (3) business (4) job (5) management

61. COMPREHEND (1) absorb (2) digest (3) guide (4) assimilate (5) understand

62. GEOTROPIC (1) falling to ground (2) attracted towards earth (3) touching the earth (4) projected toward the earth (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 63-65): In context of the above passage choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the given word.

63. INEVITABLE (1) blasting (2) accidental (3) certain (4) incidental (5) avoidable

64. MYOPIA (1) narrowmindedness (2) broadmindedness (3) shortsightedness (4) evilsightedness (5) hypermetropia

65. UNTENABLE (1) probable (2) cured (3) unworthy (4) worthsome (5) pleasant

Directions (Qs. 66-70): In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by A, B, C and D. By using all four sentences, frame a meaningful para. Choose answer from the five alternatives given and the correct order of the sentences is your answer.

66. (A) Indias patent authorities are at the centre of globalattention. (B) Indias patent law is equipped to drive out frivolouspatent seekers and to reward meritorious inventors (C) If successful, Indian generic drug-makers may have topay royalties. (D) As many MNC drug-makers have applied for patentsunder Indias new product patent law (1) ABCD (2) ADCB (3) BACD(4) DACB (5) CABD

67. (A) Whats more, if you happen to be inching towardsretirement, your EMIs will be structured accordingly. (B) Future credit may get customised. (C) The next time you get a hike in your company, restassured your Equated Monthly Instalments (EMIs) willgo up. (D) EMIs will now be fixed according to your affordability. (1) DCAB (2) BCAD (3) BCDA(4) ABCD (5) CBAD

68. (A) The Tax Return Prepares Scheme has been introducedrecently to help individuals file their income tax returns. (B) According to this scheme, certain tax return prepareswill be specially trained. (C) The aim is to ease the process of filing returns andreduce the cost for tax payers. (D) However, individuals should carefully examine thisservice and its likely benefits. (1) ABCD (2) ADCA (3) DABC(4) BACD (5) BCAD

69. (A) There is nothing more soothing to the mind, body andsoul than being on the beach front. (B) Thats what Archil, which buys bad loans, thinks. (C) A little bit of business can also be thrown in such asetting. (D) The ARC thought of the idea of organising a workshopon junk bonds in an exotic beach resort in Goa and hasroped in the Indian Banks Association. (1) DCAB (2) ABCD (3) DACB(4) ACBD (5) CBDA

70. (A) The financial markets in the country have provided awide array of such instruments. (B) Doing business is all about managing risk. (C) The profit and loss account is a reflection of the risk thatis dexterously handled by CFOs. (D) Which have been seized with alacrity by the industry. (1) BACD (2) ABCD (3) ACBD(4) DBCA (5) BCAD

Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks.Choose the correct answer from the given options to fill the blankswhich are numbered.

71 has marked mans 72 progress from 73 times. Modernmedicine is built on the innovative 74 of scientists and physicians suchas Louis Pasteur. He 75 in a revolution in medicine by producing a 76against rabies in 1880. 77 with Robert Koch, Pasteur founded 78. Therehas been no 79 back 80 then. 71. (1) Discovery (2) Innovation (3) Reforms(4) Applications (5) Interests 72. (1) amazing (2) alluring (3) alarming(4) charming (5) exciting 73. (1) antique (2) mid-historic (3) recent(4) remote (5) prehistoric 74. (1) fantastic (2) dilemma (3) genius(4) brain (5) intellect 75. (1) ushered (2) projected (3) prospered(4) thrushed (5) brushed 76. (1) injection (2) medicine (3) antidote(4) vaccine (5) antibody 77. (1) Along (2) Also (3) Going(4) Working (5) Enjoying 78. (1) immunology (2) pathology (3) zoology (4) botany (5) bacteriology 79. (1) viewing (2) looking (3) seeing (4) peeping (5) hopping 80. (1) till (2) from (3) until (4) since (5) by

Directions (Qs. 81-90): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, five pairs of words are given. Find out the correct pair of words and fill in the blanks.

81. The world is ___ the way it is, because it is what we wanted to experience at some level of . (1) wonderful, brightness (2) perfect, consciousness (3) famous, search (4) okay, intelligence (5) brilliant, dreams

82. The church of England has that it cant allow a multifaith ceremony for Prince Charles. (1) decided, functional (2) projected, wedding (3) asserted, coronation (4) ordered, birth (5) allowed, dancing

83. The ___ are the poorest and most people in our cities. (1) poor, helpless (2) rural, hardworking (3) workers, happy (4) scheduled castes, strong (5) homeless, vulnerable

84. Reform will not only help the U.N., but also contribute to stability in Asia. (1) revitalise, geopolitical (2) regenerate, economic (3) ascend, social (4) revolutionise, political (5) charge, general

85. Feeling the of the higher power is an . (1) value, dream (2) emotions, theme (3) presence, ecstasy (4) absence, innocence (5) acknowledgement, accomplishment 86. All the for a robust and sustainable growth are being putmin . (1) ingredients, place (2) factors, striding (3) points, list (4) component, consideration (5) plans, favour

87. India is firmly in the of vote bank politics. So, the for job reservation for SC and ST in private sector will grow. (1) gloves, greed (2) grip, clamour (3) hands, rush (4) roots, need (5) net, suicide

88. One of the secrets Gandhi gave us is that strength doesnot come from bone and muscle, it comes from an will. (1) simple, inner (2) straight, ironical (3) wonderful, ideal (4) tactical, iron (5) magnificent, indomitable

89. If disasters and are the wake up call for a world that it has gone , then we are now in the position to acknowledge it to manifest the world we desire to experience. (1) peace, mad (2) wars, insane (3) famines, out (4) tragedies, troublesome (5) mishaps, trivial

90. Inner-faith harmony requires that there is both and among religions. (1) value, esteem (2) establishment, survival (3) trust, respect (4) harmony, co-operation (5) co-existence, concord

Directions (Qs. 91-95): Each of the following questions consists of a sentence. Find out whether there is any error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of thatpart is answer. If there is no error, mark 5 as your answer. (Ignorethe errors of punctuation). 91. (1) Neither of them (2) are coming here (3) to address this(4) large gathering. (5) No error. 92. (1) Hardly she finished (2) her duty when (3) the bell(4) started ringing. (5) No error. 93. (1) More private companies should (2) be permit to enter(3) into field of communication (4) to strengthen the network. (5) Noerror. 94. (1) Government should severely (2) punish the persons(3) involved in the (4) practice of female foeticide. (5) No error. 95. (1) Parents should ensure (2) and cultivate (3) reading habitsbetween (4) their children. (5) No error.

Directions (Qs. 96-100):These questions are based on idioms.From among the options, choose the one that is closest inmeaning to the given idiom/phrase. 96. keep at an arms length: (1) keep a good distance (2) keep closeness (3) avoid involvement or friendship (4) hate (5) give a warm welcome

97. take the bull by the horns: (1) invite danger from an enemy

(2) prepare for unwanted situation (3) be full of vigour (4) face boldly (5) None of these

98. a dark horse: (1) a person who is not good-looking but is very good at heart (2) a person who is specially called for an event (3) a person having a poor reputation (4) a person whose past is mysterious (5) a person who is quite less known

99. pour oil on troubled waters: (1) create a nice scenery (2) settle down a situation (3) aggravate matters (4) worsen a situation (5) create an unfavourable situation

100. to drag ones feet: (1) slow down deliberately (2) lazy behaviour (3) uninterested behaviour (4) present opposition to someone (5) move very quietly

IBPS Bank PO CWE Quantitive Aptitude Questions

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. If the persons A and B have incomes in the ratio 7 : 5 andexpenditures in the ratio 3 : 2 and each one of them saves Rs R, then,the income of A is:

102. If x + a is a factor of x3 + ax2 2x + a + 4, then a equals:

103. At 7 : 55 a.m. a police jeep started chasing a stolen carrunning at 85 km/hr ahead of it by 5 km. At what time will the police jeepovertake the stolen car, if its speed is 100 km/hr? (1) 8 : 30 a.m. (2) 8 : 20 a.m. (3) 8 : 25 a.m. (4) 8 : 15 a.m. (5) 9 : 00 a.m.

104. It takes the same time to go 20 km downstream as it takes to go 12 km upstream. If the speed of the boat used is 8 km/hr in still water, the speed of the stream (in km/hr) is: (1) 4 (2)1 (3)0 (4) 3 (5)2

105. Ravi and Dev have an age ratio of 15 : 8, which will be 5 : 3nin 10 years time. Their present ages (in years) are: (1) 15, 8 (2) 30, 16 (3) 45, 24 (4) 60, 32 (5) 75, 40

Directions (Qs. 106-108): Each of the following questions has two equations on the basis of which you have to find the relation between a and b. Provide the answers as:

106. I: a2 10a + 25 = 0. II: 300% of 60% + 10% of 32 = b.

107. I: a2 3a 18 = 0. II: b2 + 6b + 9 = 0 108.

Directions (Qs. 109-110): Find the approximate value of x 109. x = log10 160 (given log10 2 = 0.3010). (1) 2.5 (2) 2.2 (3) 2.4 (4) 2.1 (5) 2.8 110. 2 sin2 x cos x + 4 = 0

Directions (Qs. 111-115): In these questions, each question is followed by two statements. On the basis of the question asked and the given statements, you have to decide whether the data is/are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:

(1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient, while not in II alone (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient, while I alone is not (3) if the data in either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient (4) if the data in both statements together is not sufficient (5) if the data in both statements I and II are needed together

111. How many straight lines can be formed from 6 points in a plane? Statement I: 4 points are collinear. Statement II: 3 points are collinear.

112. What is the probability that Ravi and Dev contradict a given statement? Statement I: Ravi speaks truth in 60% cases. Statement II: Dev speaks truth in 50% cases.

113. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years is Rs 260. Find the sum. Statement I: The sum amounts to Rs 5590 in 3 years and Rs 5850 in 5 years. Statement II: The sum is doubled in 40 years.

114. Is the two-digit number N divisible by 18? Statement I: When N is multiplied with 3, the result is a 3-digit number. Statement II: When N is divided by 3, the remainder is 1.

115. A boat goes upstream and then returns downstream. What is the total distance? Statement I: Upstream speed is 4 km/hr and downstream speed is 8 km/hr. Statement II: Average speed is

116. The value of x in the inequality 2x2 x + 15 < 0 is:

117. What should be the value of the question mark:

118. 2 rice varieties costing Rs 25 per kg and Rs 35 per kg were mixed as 2 : 3 and sold so as to gain 20%. What was the SP of the mixture (Rs/kg)? (1) 37.2 (2) 28.6 (3) 30 (4) 32 (5) 40.5

119. A huge jar contains 2 liquids A and B in the ratio 7 : 4.When 12 litres of mixture is removed and replaced by B, the ratio now 4 : 7. The capacity of the vessel (in litres) is: (1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 280 (4) 300 (5) 560

120. If the difference between CI and SI on Rs 1 lakh was Rs 36 in 2 years, the rate of yearly interest is:

121. Toffees are bought at 4 for a rupee and the same number at 6 for a rupee. Then, they are mixed and sold at 5 per rupee. What is the net profit or loss? (1) 2% loss (2) 10% profit (3) no profit or loss (4) 4% loss (5) None of these

122. How many triangles can be obtained from 5 coplanar points? (No 3 points are collinear). (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 10 (4) 20 (5) 8

123. If the chances that Sonu, Monu, Mahesh can solve a problem are what is the probability that given problem can be solved if they all try?

124. In an examination, a candidate can provide answers as True or False. For ten questions, how many sequences are possible? (1) 512 (2) 1024 (3) 100 (4) 10 (5) 2048

Directions (Qs. 125-127): Each question comprises 4 parts, one of which may be wrong and does not yield the same answer as the others. Find out the wrong part and if none is wrong, mark 5 as your answer. 125. 126. 127. 128.

Directions (Qs. 129-130): What should come in place of question mark in these number series:

129. 4 5 18 81 ? 2065. (1) 388 (2) 365 (3) 350 (4) 361 (5) 1032 130. 3 ? 50.5 202.5 810.5. (1) 6 (2) 7.5 (3) 10.5 (4) 22.5 (5) 12.5 Directions (Qs. 131-135): Study the following table carefullyand answer the questions that follow. A few data are assigned alphabetically:(Sales of shirts and jeans sold by Co. X in various years,Rs crores)

131. The per cent increase in the shirts sale between years2002 and 2004 is: (1) 40% (2) 50% (3) 45%(4) 60% (5) 100% 132. The per cent increase in the jeans sale between 2001 and2005 is: (1) 75% (2) 37.5%(3) 375% (4) 750%(5) Cant be determined 133. If G = 1.5, what per cent is sales of jeans in 2005 of salesof jeans in 2002? (1) 150 (2) 175 (3) 87.5(4) 160 (5) 190.5 134. If C : D : G = 1 : 2 : 3, then F : B = ? (1) 15.0 (2) 57.3(3) 7.50 (4) 3.75(5) 37.5 135. The value of A : E is: (1) 0.6 (2) 0.8 (3) 1.01.2 (5) 1.5 Directions (Qs. 136-140): Study the pie-charts and answer thequestions below them.

136. How much extra is the availability of spending on otheritems, during 1980-2005 period? (1) Rs 2760 (2) Rs 2000 (3) Rs 3150(4) Rs 2250 (5) Rs 2350 137. The ratio of actual spending on food in 2005 to that in 1980is: (1) 10 : 7 (2) 20 : 9 (3) 5 : 2(4) 3 : 1 (5) 2 : 3 138. In 1980, people in rural India had 30% less earning andspent 40% on food and out of this, expenditure on milk products was only 10%. Its value is: (1) Rs 84 (2) Rs 92 (3) Rs 60 (4) Rs 42 (5) Rs 90 139. How much other food items are available in 2005, in Rs terms? (1) Rs 180 (2) Rs 93 (3) Rs 642 (4) Rs 1200 (5) Rs 558 140. In relative per cent terms, is there an increase or decrease in the expenditure on milk etc? Directions (Qs. 141-145): The following bar chart gives theamount of imports and exports of a leather company over theyears (Imports .., Exports .. ) in Rupees crores:

141. Total imports for Ist 2 years are what per cent of totalexports for these 2 years? (1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 120%(4) 80% (5) 200% 142. For which years is the value of the total imports equal to thetotal exports? (1) 1970, 1990 (2) 1970, 1980 (3) 1990, 2000(4) 2000, 2005 (5) None of these 143. The ratio of exports to imports was maximum in the year: (1) 1990, 2000, 2005 (2) 1900, 2005 (3) 2000, 2005 (4) 1970, 1990, 2000 (5) 1970, 1990, 2000 144. When was the per cent increase in exports, over theprevious 10-year, the least? (1) 1980 (2) 2000 (3) 1990(4) 2005 (5) 1970 145. The ratio of total exports to the total of imports for all theyears is: (1) 8 : 7 (2) 6 : 5 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (5) 8 : 5 Directions (Qs. 146-150): Study the following graph andanswer the questions(No. of motorcycles in 1,000s sold by Companies A and B, in the recent years) (A ____ , B _ _ _ _).

146. Approximately what per cent is the sale of Company A in2003, compared to its total sale? (1) 13% (2) 12% (3) 15%(4) 11% (5) 10% 147. What per cent is total sale of Company A with respect toCompany B? (approx) (1) 75% (2) 85% (3) 90%(4) 95% (5) 100% 148. For which year(s) did Company B experience the highest per cent increase, compared to the previous year? (1) 2003 (2) 2004 (3) 2004, 2005 (4) 2003, 2004 (5) 2002, 2005 149. The total sale for years 2000, 2001, 2002 for Company B forms what per cent of its total sale? (approx) (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35% (5) 40% 150. For Company A, which combination of year and per cent rise in sale from previous year, correct? (1) 200140% (2) 200230%

(3) 2003100% (4) 200450% (5) 200520% TEST OF REASONING 151. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) White (2) Indigo (3) Blue (4) Red (5) Orange 152. Cooler is related to summer in the same way which of the following is related to rain? (1) Shirt (2) Umbrella (3) Icecream(4) Fan (5) Fridge 153. City A is larger than city B which is smaller than city D. If cityE is larger than city A but smaller than city D, which of the following isthe largest? (1) E (2) A (3) D(4) B (5) Cannot be determined 154. If red means blue, blue means black, black meansyellow, yellow means green, green means white, white meansbrown and brown means indigo, then what is the colour of middle lineof our National Flag? (1) white (2) yellow(3) brown (4) green(5) None of these 155. If INVITATION is written as KMXHVZVHQM, then READYis written in that code as which of the following? (1) SCDDA (2) TDCDB(3) QFBEZ (4) TDCCANone of these Directions (156-160): Read the following character sequencecarefully and then answer the questions given below it. 156. If the first half of the series is reversed and similarly the second half is also reversed, then which of the following will be the 4thto the right of 16th character from your right? (1) P (2) % (3) B(4) S (5) C 157. What will be the 2nd last letter of the word made of the 1st,2nd, 11th, 20th and 22nd characters of the given sequence? If no such word can be made your answer is W. If more than one such word can made your answer is D. (1) I (2) C (3) A(4) W (5) D 158. Which character is midway between 7th from left and 6th from right in the above series? (1) % (2) 5 (3) S(4) P (5) . 159. If every alternate character in the above sequence from right is dropped (drop B first) then which of the following character will be 5th to the right of 6th character from the left? (1) C (2) 8 (3) . (4) I (5) T 160. If A C 3, 6 . $, P .. % + ? , then what will come in place of question mark. (1) (2) . (3) (4) S (5) 8 Directions (161-165): In each question below, three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear at variance from commonly known facts. Then decide which of the conclusions logically

follows from the given statements. Mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct. Statements: 161. (a) All papers are books. (b) All books are pages (c) All pages are material. Conclusions: I. Some material are pages. II. All books are material. III. All papers are pages. IV. Some books are papers. (1) All the four follow (2) Only II, III follow (3) Only I, III and IV follow (4) Either I or III and II follow (5) None follows Statements: 162. (a) Some bats are balls. (b) No stars are moons (c) All balls are moons. Conclusions: I. Some moons are not balls. II. No balls are stars. III. Some moons are not balls. IV. Some balls are bats. (1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I, II and IV follow (3) Either II or IV follows (4) All follow (5) None of these follows Statements: 163. (a) All coats are pants. (b) No pants are shirts. (c) Some shirts are pullovers. Conclusions: I. No coat is a shirt. II. Some coats are shirts. III. All coats are shirts. IV. Some coats are not pullovers. (1) Only I, II and III follow (2) Only Ist follows (3) Only I and IV follow (4) Either I and III or II and IV follow (5) Only III and IV follow Statements: 164. (a) Some pens are pencils. (b)Some rubbers are gum.

(c) No bag is a gum. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are gum. II. Some pencils are not gum. III. some rubbers are not bag. IV. Some rubbers are bag. (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only II and III follow (4) Either I or II and either III or IV follow (5) None of these follows Statements: 165. (a) No fruits are bananas. (b) No oranges are peas. (c) All bananas are oranges. Conclusions: I. No bananas are peas. II. Some oranges are not fruits. III. Some bananas are fruits. IV. Some oranges are bananas. (1) Only III follows (2) Only I, II and IV follow (3) Either I or II follows (4) Only I and II follow (5) All follow Directions (Qs. 166-170): Study the following arguments and distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments because they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also not directly related to the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the argument is a strong and weak. Give answer: (1) if only argument I is strong. (2) if only argument II is strong. (3) if either I or II is strong. (4) if neither I nor II is strong. (5) if both I and II are strong. Statement: 166. Should the government punish those schools which charge high admission fee? Arguments: I. Yes, where will the poor students go? II. Yes, education has become more of a business than a pious commitment. Statement: 167. Should there be a quota for those who are poor? Arguments: I. Yes, this will decrease the level of unemployment and poor people will not be discriminated by upper caste.

II. No, we already have reservations in our jobs. Statement: 168. Should there be no place for interview in selection? Arguments: I. Yes, it is a difficult part of selection. II. No, it is the only way to judge the candidates personality and motives. Statement: 169. Should women be provided more job opportunities? Arguments: I. Yes, they should go into the outside world. II. No, they are not interested in jobs. Statement: 170. Should government provide more benefits to those who are the only child of their parents? Arguments: I. Yes, it will control increase of population. II. Yes, it will give them bright future and love of parents. Directions (Qs. 171-175): In these questions, a statement is given, which is followed by various assumptions. Read the statements and the assumptions and decide which one of them are implicit. Statement: 171. Ensure freedom from thieves with this car locking system. Assumptions: I. This car locking system is the best. II. It is desired to have freedom from thieves. III. There are thieves everywhere. (1) I and II are implicit. (2) II and III are implicit. (3) I and III are implicit. (4) Only II is implicit. (5) All are implicit. Statement: 172. We deal in used cars. Contact us at phone no. XYZ, at the earliest possible.an advertisement. Assumptions: I. Some people want to sell old cars. II. The advertisement will be read by the needy people. III. Used cars may not be totally useless. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II and III are implicit. (3) Only I and III are implicit. (4) All I, II, III are implicit. (5) None of I, II, III are implicit. Statement: 173. Lalu Prasad is expected to announce several schemes for poor people in the budget.a news reporter. Assumptions:

I. The reporter has a fair reporting. II. The news-reporter has genuine report sources. III. Lalu Prasad is capable of announcing schemes. (1) I and II are implicit. (2) II and III are implicit. (3) Only III is implicit. (4) All are implicit. (5) None is implicit. Statement: 174. Mr X tells Mrs X: I cannot send my child to that school. Children over there smoke and drink. Which of these assumptions is implicit? Assumptions: I. Smoking and drinking are not desirable of children. II. Their child will agree to their decision. III. The school has a good reputation. (1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and I (4) I only (5) All I, II, III Statement: 175. Monicas advice to Sonia: Go to Chandigarh via Ambala the best route. Assumptions: I. Sonia wants to go to Chandigarh. II. Monica loves advising everybody. III. They love Chandigarh. (1) I is implicit. (2) II is implicit. (3) Either I or II is implicit. (4) Neither I nor II is implicit. (5) Both are implicit. Directions (Qs. 176-180): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it: (1) Six friends Asad, Babli, Cajole, Dev, Eva and Fatima are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. (2) Cajole is between Asad and Babli. (3) Fatima is between Eva and Asad. (4) Eva is to the left of Dev 176. Who is on the left of Babli? (1) Asad (2) Cajole (3) Dev (4) Eva (5) None of these 177. Who is on the left of Cajole? (1) Dev (2) Eva (3) Asad (4) Fatima (5) None of these 178. Which pair of friends is sitting on the opposite of each other? (1) Dev, Asad (2) Dev, Babli (3) Asad, Fatima (4) Cajole, Babli (5) None of these

179. Which of the following is sitting on the right side of Fatima? (1) Eva (2) Dev (3) Asad (4) Babli (5) Cajole 180. Which of the above given statements is superfluous? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 181-185): Read the following information and answer the questions. Four people of different nations live on the same side of a sector in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. The Englishman lives in the red house. The following additional information is: The Hindu drinks tea. The Muslim lives in the first house on the left. The Muslim lives adjacent to the blue house. In the second house from the right they drink coffee. The Sikh drinks banana shake. Tea is drunk in the blue house The pink house is to the right of red house 181. Which of the following drink coffee? (1) Muslim (2) Hindu (3) Englishman (4) Muslim and Hindu (5) None of the above 182. The colour of Sikh house is: (1) yellow (2) bluen(3) red (4) pink (5) None 183. The Muslim drinks which of the following drink: (1) tea (2) coffee (3) banana shake (4) tea, coffee (5) milk 184. Who sits adjacent to Muslim? (1) Hindu (2) Englishman (3) Sikh (4) Both Hindu and Sikh (5) None of the above 185. Which of the following statement is not true? (1) Hindu lives in the blue house (2) Sikh drinks banana shake and his colour of house is pink (3) Muslim drinks coffee (4) Yellow house is occupied by Muslim (5) None of the above Directions (Qs. 186-195): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Given here are the conditions to become the members of a Lake Club. A person must: (1) be in the age group of 21-50 as on August 13, 2006. (2) be drawing a minimum salary of Rs 1 lakh per annum.

(3) own a house. (4) not have a family of more than five members including himself. (5) have excellence in any field of arts and sports. However, if a person: (6) satisfies all except (4) above, but draws a salary of more than 2 lakh per annum, the case may be referred to the Club president. (7) satisfies all except (3) above, the case may be referred to the Club secretary. On the basis of above conditions and information, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken regarding each condition. Mark answer: (1) if the person is eligible to be a member (2) if the person cant be allowed the membership (3) if the data provided is inadequate. (4) if the case is to be referred to the Club secretary (5) if the case is to be referred to the Club president 186. Mr Rahul Tiwari, living with his mother and father, is a college professor earning Rs 8600 monthly. He has his own house and is having a good record in the field of fine arts. 187. Ravi Tripathi, an IAS officer, draws a salary of Rs 15000 p.m. His date of birth is March 17, 1985. He lives with his mother, father and a brother. He is having his own house and holds a certificate of being the best volleyball player in his college. 188. Mr Pankaj Pandey works as a manager in horticulture. He is 35 years old and lives as a tenant with his wife and two daughters. He draws a monthly salary of Rs 8700 p.m. for the last 7 years. He holds a good record in sports. 189. Mr Dev Taneja, a bachelor, lives in a private house owned by him with his parents and grand parents. He is senior manager in American Express, drawing a salary of Rs 17000 p.m. He has won the Trophy in Badminton and his D.O.B. is August 13, 1992. 190. Mrs Radha Kapoor, living with her husband, receives a salary of Rs 10,000 p.m. She has completed 12 years of service in the company on January 10, 2004. 191. Mrs Poonam completed 33 years in March 2005. She stays in her own house along with his husband and three sons. She works as G.M. in Infosys, and draws Rs 117000 per annum. She has exhibited excellence in the field of arts. 192. Mr Ajay is a Branch Manager in SBI and draws a salary of Rs 201000 per annum. He lives in a flat which is not owned by him, along with his wife and a son. He holds a certificate of excellence intennis. His D.O.B. is October 15, 1980. 193. Mr Satyakam is 40 years old, lives alone in his house. He works as manager in textile mill and earns Rs 10,200 every month. 194. Ms Kavita lives in her own house with his husband and a daughter. She is working as a Assistant Manager in HDFC. She is 26 years old and having a excellence in painting. 195. Mr Abhinav is a bachelor working as a Computer Engineer in electron company. He draws Rs 10900 p.m. His D.O.B. is October 1982. He has been the captain of the Basketball team. He lives in his own house and having family of four persons including him.

Directions (Qs. 196-200): An arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearrange them following a particular rule and solve it. Input: This chapter would give you basic concepts. Step 1: basic this chapter would give you concepts. Step 2: basic chapter this would give you concepts. Step 3: basic chapter concepts this would give you. Step 4: basic chapter concepts give this would you. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow. 196. Input: Do not imitate others work. Which of the following will be Step 3 for the given input? (1) Do others not imitate work. (2) Do imitate not others work. (3) Work do others imitate. (4) Do not others work imitate. (5) None 197. Input: Adequate safety arrangements are must for kids. Which of the following will be 2nd last step for the given input? (1) Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must. (2) Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety. (3) Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids. (4) Adequate safety are arrangements must for kids. (5) None 198. Input: Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information. How many steps are required to rearrange the above input properly. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these 199. Input: Most Indian leaders cannot even visualise free India. Which of the following will be last step of above input? (1) Most Indian even leaders cannot visualise free India. (2) Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise. (3) Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise. (4) Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise. (5) None. 200. Step IV: It is figure anti-establishment from media. Which of the following is the input of the above mentioned step. (1) It is figure from anti-establishment media. (2) Media it is figure from anti-establishment. (3) It is anti-establishment media from. (4) Cant be determined. (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 201-205): Study the Venn-diagrams given below and answer the following questions (The Venn-diagram gives the number of persons into various kinds of business).

201. People who are into only furniture business are: (1) e (2) z + a (3) b + e + d + f (4) e + f (5) z + a + b + d + e + f 202. People doing furniture business and steel business, but not tea, are: (1) y + a (2) a + b (3) b + d (4) d + g (5) d 203. People doing steel and plastic and furniture business are: (1) g (2) d (3) b (4) a (5) y 204. What is the number of people into tea and furniturebusiness? (1) z + e (2) a (3) e(4) z + a (5) b + a 205. What is the number of people carrying out all fourbusinesses? (1) b (2) d (3) a(4) c (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 206-210): These questions are based oninferences. Read the following passage carefully and mark youranswers as (1) Probably true (2) Definitely true

(3) Probably false (4) Definitely false (5) Data inadequate Most people find change stressful, so I do not find it surprising thatresearchers have discovered a statistical relation between falling ill andthe experience of major life events such as death of a spouse, gettingmarried, etc. Those who have experienced a higher index of such changes, generally report a greater incidence of ill-health. Yet, most of us find that this research quite doesnt tally with the experience.Reasoning similarly, another group found a strong correlation between health and hassles of lifethe thousands of little daily irritations. 206. Generally people tend to get irritated to some extent. 207. Everyone does not experience stress, only few do. 208. One should avoid big changes. 209. The approach of the two research groups is not different. 210. The researchers conclusion quite fits into everybodys life. Directions (Qs. 211-215): Each of the following series consists of seven figures, two of which at the ends are unnumbered. One of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Find out the figure.

Directions (Qs. 216-220): The second figure of the problem figure bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Determine the relationship and hence find out the answer from the answer figures:

Directions (Qs. 221-225): Each question comprises question figures and answer figures. The question figures obey a specific pattern. From among the answer figures, choose that option which follows the series or pattern, in the next step.

Answers General Awareness 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (5)5. (5) Rs 1365 crores.6. (1) 7. (3)8. (1) .... Defence Minister. 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3)12. (4) ... 16th13. (1) 14. (5) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (5)18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3)26. (4) ... major ruling coalition.27. (4) ... UP = 19 lakh (+). 28. (5) 29. (4) 30. (5) 31. (1)32. (5) ... (Increase, $ 25 B $ 39 B).33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (6) 41. (1) 42. (6)43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (3)48. (5) 49. (2) 50. (1) English 51. (5) .... refer last few lines.

52. (4) .... refer Ist and last paragraphs. 53. (4) .... refer 2nd statement, para 2. 54. (5) .... refer last para and the main theme. Other options also followclosely. 55. (2) 56. (2) .... 2nd para. 57. (2) .. para 1. 58. (2) ... para 1, line 1 and subject theme. 59. (5) .... 2nd line, para 3. 60. (4) 61. (5) 62. (2) 63. (5) 64. (5) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (5) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (5) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (5) 84. (1) 85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (5) 89. (2) 90. (3) 91. (2) ... it should be is instead of are. 92. (1) ... hardly should be followed by had. 93. (2) ... permitted instead of permit. 94. (5) 95. (3) ... among instead of between. 96. (3)97. (4)98. (4)99. (4)100. (3) Quantitative Aptitude 101. (3)102. (3)103. (4)104. (5)(4)106. (3)107. (4)108. (2). (2)110. (5)111. (3)112. (5)113. (3) ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 114. (2)115. (4)116. (2)117. (3)118. (1)119. (3)120. (1)121. (4)122. (3)123. (5)124. (2)125. (5)126. (3) 127. (3)128. (2)129. (1)130. (5)131. (2)132. (5)133. (3)134. (4)135. (1)136. (3)137. (1)138. (1)139. (3) 149. (2)150. (5) Reasoning 151. (1) All the others are colours of rainbow (VIBGYOR) 152. (2) Cooler is used to protect us from heat. Similarly umbrella isused to protect us from rain. 153. (3) According to first statement or sentence .154. (4) Colour of middle line of NF is white and green means white isgiven in the statement so green is the answer. 155. (4) The first letter moves two places forward while the secondletters moves one place backward. This process continues forthe whole word. 156. (3) The reversed series is: 4th to the right of 16th from right is 12th (16 4) from right is B. 157. (4) The letters are A, C, P, I, T. No word can be made by using these letters. 158. (1) Seventh from left isis 159. (5) The series is after dropping characters: then 5th to the right of 6th from left is 11th from left i.e. T 160. (2) Do it yourself. 161. (1) Using Ist and 2nd statement we get All papers are pages and by using 2nd & 3rd we get All books are material so, 2 & 3 follow and I & IV are conversion of Ist statement and 3rd statement.166. (1) 167. (1) providing jobs would definitely decrease unemployment,hence 1 is strong. II is not strong because quota for poorsdoesnt mean reservation. 168. (2) Ist is not strong but II is obviously strong. 169. (1) Ist is strong, II is void. 170. (5) 171. (4) There is no hint of use of bestand everywhere terms. 172. (4) I and II are definitely implicit. Also an advertisement is meantto be read. 173. (2) We cannot say anything about I. 174. (4)175. (1)(176 to 180). In the circle the arrangement is as shown. 176. (3) Dev. 177. (5) Because Babli is on the left of Cajole. (see diagram.) 178. (1) Dev, Asad. 179. (1) Clearly, Eva. 180. (5) Since all the statements are necessary to determine thearrangement.

(181 to 185) Based on given information, the correct sequence of datais as follows. 181. (3) see chart. 182. (4) 183. (5) Although it is not mentioned in the question but it appear thatmilk is his drink.Yellow Blue Red Pink Nationality Muslim Hindu Englishman Sikh 184. (1)185. (3) (Muslim drinks milkit is assumed). 186. (3) Condition 1 is missing. 187. (1) Satisfies all the condition. 188. (4) (Condition 7 is fulfilled, as the candidate does not have his own house.) 189. (5) Condition 6 is fulfilled, as the candidate has a family of 5 members. 190. (3) Conditions 1 and 5 is missing. 191. (2) She is having a family of five members and condition 6 is not fulfilled because her salary is less than 200000. 192. (4) 193. (2) Condition 5 is missing. 194. (2) Condition 2 is missing. 195. (1) All conditions are satisfied. (196-200) The logic is: the words are arranged in alphabetical order bynot interchanging places. That is ,basic goes to the first placeand the whole remaining sentence is as it is. 196. (5) because in this only one step is possibleInput Do not imitate others work.Step-I Do imitate not others work. 197. (1) Step-1 Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids. Step-2 Adequate are arrangements safety must for kids. Steps-3 Adequate are arrangements for safety must kids. Steps-4 Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must. Step-5 Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety. And 2nd last one is step 4. 198. (2) Step-1 Brauchli Marcus gives inaccurate information. Step-2 Brauchli gives Marcus inaccurate information. Step-3 Brauchli gives inaccurate Marcus information. Step-4 Brauchli gives inaccurate information Marcus. 4 Steps are required. 199. (4) Step-1 Cannot most Indian leaders even visualise free India. Step-2 Cannot even most Indian leaders visualise free India. Step-3 Cannot even free most Indian leaders visualise India. Step 4 Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise. Step 5 Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise. Step 6 Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise. Shortcut (Just arrange the input alphabetically). 200. (4) In this type of question determination of previous step or input is not possible. (201-205)201. (5) 202. (3) 203. (2) 204. (4) 205. (5)(206-210) 206. (2)........last lines. 207. (3)........research done on several people. 208. (5)........no such hint is made. 209. (4)........it is different......one considers big events, the otherconsiders small ones. 210. (3)........3rd sentence. (Yet, most of us....). (211-215) 211. (5) The elements move one step Anti-clockwise in one step whilein the next the element on extreme Anti-clockwise positionmoves Clockwise end and others move one step Anticlockwise. 212. (3) The outermost and innermost sides rotate by 90 Anticlockwisewhile the middle one rotates by 90 Clockwise.

213. (2) In this the elements shift one step in cyclic order and oneelement is replaced by a new one. 214. (1) In this the upper and the lower elements rotate by 180 whilemiddle element inverted vertically in alternate steps. 215. (4)216. (4) Y changes by 180, Anti-clockwise & 2 places in Clockwisedirection. I changes Clockwise at same place, by 90. has no rotation but goes to ends. 217. (2) Notice Clockwise and Anti-clockwise rotations as above. 218 (1) similar to above Qs. 219. (2) end point moves Anti-clockwise, 45, move 45 to top. circle moves by 180. 220. (3) Just send elements to opposite places. 221. (1) notice how the vertically and horizontally attached components change alternately. 222. (3) triangle moves 1 place to ends/sides, Anti-clockwise, moves by places, diagonally, moves Anti-clockwise by 135 or 1 places Anticlockwise. 223. (4) semi-circle turns Anti-clockwise and gets diminished/enlarged alternately, T jumps to opposite side and reverses, arrow head changes direction and places, after 2 turns. 224. (1) notice how the various elements move by side and then from one extreme to another. 225. (2) circle changes shade and places Anti-clockwise, triangle tilts Anti-clockwise and Clockwise alternately, 45.

.. IBPS Bank PO CWE General awareness 1. Which one of the following Public Sector Organizations has offered largest ever equity offer ? 1.SAIL 2.Coal India 3.Power Grid 4.Shipping Corporation of India 5.None of these

2. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ? (a) IPO only (b) FPO only (c) Commercial papers 1.Only (a) and (b) 2.All (a), (b) and (c) 3.Only (a),and (c) Only (a) 5.Only (c) 3. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs? 1.To reduce liquidity in the market 2.It is as per Basel II requirements 3.It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives 4.It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown 5.None of these 4. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total dividend Payout? 1.SBI 2.PNB 3.Bank of India 4.Canara Bank 5.None of these

5. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil ? 1.Iran 2.Iraq 3.Kuwait 4.Sudan 5.U.A.E. IBPS Bank PO Numerical Ability Questions 1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them? 1.25 2.26 3.27 4 30 5.26 Answer: (3) 2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is: 1.1/8 2.4/9 3.2/8 4.3/8 5.3/8 Answer: (5) 3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively. 1.36 2.37 3.42 4.29 5.47 Answer: (2) 4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayeshs age in years? 1.29 2.30 3.24 4.25 5.28 Answer: (3) 5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paisa coins is: 1.Rs. 28 2.Rs. 36 3.Rs. 49 4.Rs. 72 5.Rs. 50 Answer: (1)

6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:1.Rs. 78,000 2.Rs. 78,500 3.Rs. 80,000 4.Rs. 85,000 5.Rs. 87,500 Answer: (5)

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction? 1.19 2.18 3.24 4.22 5.23 Answer: (2)

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is: 1.10 2.16 3.20 4.22 5.18 Answer: (2)

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid? 1.Rs. 320 2.Rs. 345 3.Rs. 355 4. Rs. 380 5.None of these Answer: (2)

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately: 1.10.4 km/hr 2.10.8 km/hr 3.12 km/hr 4.14 km/hr 5.13 km/hr Answer: (2)

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings? 12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes: 1.13% 2.10.25% 3.15% 4.11% 5.None of these Answer: (2) 13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is: 1.11% 2.12% 3.20% 4.28% .33% Answer: (4) 14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)? 1.418 2.592 3.5790 4.585 5.None of these Answer: (4) 15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year? .86 crore 2.107.5 crore 3.103.95 crore 4.101 crore 5.None of these Answer: (3)

IBPS Mental Ability Verbal Questions 1. If Step IV reads to restrict the use of air conditioners, which of the following will definitely be the input? (1)use to of the air conditioners restrict (2)restrict the to of air conditioners use (3)the air conditioners of restrict use to (4) Cant be determined (5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security easons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every atch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch. Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on 2. If pass-code for the third batch is night succeed day and hard work-to for, what will be the passcode for the sixth batch? (1)work hard to for succeed night and day (2)hard work for and succeed night to day (3)work hard for to succeed night and day (4)hard work for to succeed night and day (5) None of these 3. If visit in zoo should the time day is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in will be the pass-code for which of following batches? (1)II (2)IV (3)I (4)III (5)VI 4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code to fast rush avoid not do very run. What would have been the pass-code for him had visited the museum in the second bitch? (1)rush do not avoid to run very fast (2)rush not do-avoid to run very (3)avoid rush not do to run very fast (4) Date inadequate (5) None of these 5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code length the day equal of an night are. However, he could not visit the museum the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him? (1)and of are night the length equal day (2)and are of night the length equal day (3)and of are night the equal day length (4)and of are the night length day equal (5) None of these 6. If ass-code for the second batch is to confidence hard you leads work and success, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch? (1)leads success to you hard confidence and work (2)leads success you to hard confidence and work (3)leads success to you hard confidence work and (4)leads to success you hard confidence and work (5) None of these 7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is and pencil by all boys used are pen, what will be the passcode for the first batch? (1)pencil and pen are used by all boys (2)pen and pencil used are by all boys (3)pen and pencil are used by all boys

(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys (5) None of these 8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is not go the way to of out do, what will be the pass-code for the third batch? (1)Of do to out go not way the (2)of to do out not go way the (3)of to go out do not way the (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions: A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement: Input: Over you pat me crow easy to. Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on. As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions: 9. If Step II of an input is ge su but he for game free, what would be step VI? (1)a for but fine he game su (2)for free ge game su he but (3)free ge for but game su he (4)he ge su but game free for (5) None of these 10. If step IV of an input is blue navy kit lime se get, which of the following would definitely be the input? (1)navy get lime out kit se blue (2)lime navy get kit se blue out (3)lime blue navy kit get out se (4)kit blue navy se get out lime (5) None of these 11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input? (1)so free but calm eat are not (2)but calm are free not so eat (3)are but calm free not eat so (4)but so free eat are not calm (5) None of these

12. If step V of an input is put down col in as mach sa , what would be the 8 th step? (1)down in put much sa as col (2)in put down cot much sa as (3)much in put down sa as col

(4)col put down as much sa in (5) None of these 13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be fe low rim to bye klin eat? (1)VIth (2)vth (3)IVth (4)IIIrd (5)None of these Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement: Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them. Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them. Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them. Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them. Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them. And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow: 14. If Step III of a given input be fly sky birds my su fur say, what is the seventh step of the input? (1)fly sky birds my su fur say (2)fly birds sky my fur su say (3)fly fur su my birds sky say (4)fly su fur my sky birds say (5) None of these 15. If Step VII of an input is slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi, what is step V of that input? (1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi (2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi (3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi (4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi (5) None of these IBPS Bank PO CWE English Language Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four ords are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case. The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of they, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48 ) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated,with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50 ) putting in place appropriatesystems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improve the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52 ) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54 ) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments. 1. (1)interest (2)participation(3)step (4)role (5)None of these 2. (1)point (2)tune 3)view (4)pursuit (5)None of these 3. (1)decisively (2)reluctantly 3)visibly (4)particularly (5)None of these 4)equilibrium (2)emphasis (3)appeasement (4)overload (5)None of these 5. (1)by (2)for (3)against (4)upon (5)None of these 6. (1)trivial (2)jubilant (3)fastidious (4)significant 5)None of these 7. (1)addressed (2)contributed (3)initiated (4)evolved (5)None of these 8. (1)measures (2)activism (3)debacle (4)efficiency (5)None of these 9. (1)paved (2)repaired (3)dug (4)elevated (5)None of these 10.(1)revolutionised (2)indiscriminate (3)flexible (4)arbitrary (5)None of these

Answers 1. (3 ) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (4)

6. (2)

7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10.(3)

IBPS Bank PO CWE Computer Knowledge Questions 1. Buffer is device/storage area 1.Where data are temporarily stored 2.Where data is permanently stored 3.Where data error occurs 4.All of the above 5.None of these 2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called 1.Car Topology 2.Bus Topology3.Truck Topology 4.All of the above 5.None of these 3. An error in a computer program is referred as 1.Bug 2.Bit3.Virus 4.All of the above 5.None of these 4. Circuits that provide a ommunication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is1.Car 2.Bus3.Truck 4.All of the above5.None of these 5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as 1.Byte 2.Octal 3.Bubble 4.All of the above 5.None of these 6. Cache memory is a 1.Small buffer storage 2.Permanent storage 3.Main memory 4.All of the above 5.None of these 7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as 1.Number system 2.Base 3.Power 4.All of the above 5.None of these 8. Cache memory 1.Is a Static RAM 2.Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate 3.Both 1. and 2. true . 4.Both 1. and 2. are false 5.None of these

9. Following is false for BASIC1.Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code 2.High-level interactive programming language 3.Works in time sharing nvironment 4.Low level object oriented language 5.None of these

10. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as 1.Baud 2.Bit 3.Bond 4.All of the above 5.Batch

11. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed 1.Alpha test 2.Beta Test 3.Gamma test 4.All of the above None of these 12. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as 1.Unary 2.Binary 3.Octal 4.All of the above 5.None of these

13. Base band System is 1.A networking system 2.Where the channel support a single digital signal 3.Both 1. and 2. are true.All of the above 5.None is true 14. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is 1.ASCII code 2.BCD 3.ASCII-8 4.All of the above 5.None of these 15. In Batch processing 1.Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually 2.Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually 3.Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to un each program individually 4.All of the above 5.None is true 16. BISYNC is 1.Binary synchronous 2.A process of transmitting data 3.A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method 4.All of the above 5.None of these 17. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as 1.Storage 2.Memory 3.Carrier 4.All of the above 5.None of these 18. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as 1.Canned programs 2.Beta program 3.Alpha program 4.All of the above 5.None of these 19. A binary numbers are represented by 1.Digits 0 and 1 2.Digits 0, 1, ..., 8 3.Digits AB, C,... 4.All of the above 5.None of these 20. BIOS is responsible for 1.Handling the particulars of input/output operations 2.Output operations 3.Input operations 4.All of the above 5.None of these 21 BIOS is an abbreviation for 1.Binary Input/Binary Output 2.Binary synchronous 3.Binary digit 4.All of the above 5.None of these 22. BISYNC is an abbreviation for1.Binary Input/Binary Output2.Binary synchronous3.Binary digit4.All of the above 5.None of these 23. The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as1.Computer Architecture 2.Computer Flowchart 3.Computer Algorithm 4.All of the above 5.None of these

24. A number system with a base of two is referred as 1.Unary number system 2.Binary number system 3.Octal number system 4.All of the above 5.None of these 25. Call statement 1.A program statement which transfers program control to a subroutine. 2.A program statement that does not transfers program control to a subroutine 3.Void statement 4.All of the above 5.None of these Answers 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2)

IBPS Probationary officers English Language questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved placement papers IBPS Test of English language Directions for questions 1 to 30 : An expression followed by four words is given in each of the following questions. The expression carries the meaning of one of the words. Identify the word and mark its number as your answer. 1. People or animals of a place that have been the earliest there from known times a) ancestors b) immigrants c) aboriginals (Ans) d) natives 2. A person who is very good at something a) adept b) popular c) talented d) virtuoso (Ans) 3. An anxious and eager concern for someone a) solicitude (Ans) b) worry c) elation d) good will 4. A cowardly and unfaithful person a) miscreant b) mendicant c) pervert d) recreant (Ans) 5. a) A fixed plan of food, sleep, etc. in order to improve one's health custom

b) regimen (Ans) c) resolution d) encompassment 6. An introduction that comes before something we say/write a) prologue (Ans) b) prediction c) review d) premonition 7. a) b) c) d) A steep or almost upright side of a high rock mountain or cliff nadir zenith precipice (Ans) abyss

8. Characteristic of children or young people a) Juvenile (Ans) b) mature c) puerile d) experienced 9. Causing damage to both parties involved a) mutual b) internecine (Ans) c) interdict d) interstitial 10. a) b) c) d) a large and impressive building mansion colossal ciadel edifice (Ans)

11. Next to each other a) simultaneous b) vicinity c) succession d) contiguous (Ans) 12. A place of scene of great disorder a) chaotic (Ans) b) repulsive c) shamble d) unpleasant 13. Connected with or relevant to something a) perspective b) invalid c) significant d) pertinent (Ans) 14. To hold the attention and interest completely

a) enthral b) yield c) entice d) charm 15. a) b) c) d) 16. a) b) c) d) 17. a) b) c) d) 18. a) b) c) d) 19. a) b) c) d) 20. a) b) c) d) 21. a) b) c) d) 22. a) b) c) d)

(Ans)

Showing great knowledge or insight profane fantastic nostalgic profound (Ans) A long meaningless set of actions modicum vicissitudes tidings rigmarole (Ans) To defeat completely in a battle or competition vanquish (Ans) imbroglio forfeit tryst Most typical example of something idol epitome (Ans) moron penchant Ability to speak well and easily loquaciousness temerity eloquence (Ans) glibness One who is famous or an expert chartlatan paragon toady luminary (Ans) A speech or piece of writing praising somebody or something paean transcription panegyric (Ans) verbatim A place where everything is perfect Utpia (Ans) Cosmos heaven artifice

23. a) b) c) d) 24. a) b) c) d) 25. a) b) c) d) 26. a) b) c) d) 27. a) b) c) d) 28. a) b) c) d) 29. a) b) c) d) 30. a) b) c) d)

Voluntary relinquishing of something valued nihilism scrimmage sabotage sacrifice (Ans) Asking everyone for an opinion jeremiad encomium referendum (Ans) similitude A sign of shame Snide probity pride stigma (Ans) Great disaster such as flood cataclysm (Ans) genocide conflagration waterloo Extreme greed for money and possessions chicanery avarice (Ans) rectitude clemency Firm and lasting courage in bearing trouble strength fortitude (Ans) prayer endurance an object that is neat/pretty/small delicate dainty (Ans) artistic categorical brail an attitude/habit/behaviour not genuine or natural deception imitation protection affectation (Ans)

Direction : Questions 31-60 : Each question has a word followed by four choices. From among the choices, identify the word which is opposite in meaning (antonym) to the main word and mark its number as your answer. 31. VIVIDLY a) unimpressively (Ans)

b) c) d) 32. a) b) c) d) 33. a) b) c) d)

plain amalgamated distinct CHURLISH agitated cultured (Ans) young unique TRADUCE criticise admonish praise (Ans) altercate

34. PLUMMET a) pester b) copy c) praise d) soar (Ans) 35. a) b) c) d) 36. a) b) c) d) 37. a) b) c) d) 38. a) b) c) d) 39. a) b) c) d) NIGGARDLY softly generously plesantly miserly JUBILANT lethargic inebriated refreshed morose ENSUE follow instigate precede cease BILIOUS pleasant malevolent succulent impure

(Ans)

(Ans)

(Ans)

GARRULOUS laconic (Ans) boastful bashful resonant

40. SCOFF

a) b) c) d) 41. a) b) c) d) 42. a) b) c) d) 43. a) b) c) d) 44. a) b) c) d) 45. a) b) c) d) 46. a) b) c) d) 47. a) b) c) d) 48. a) b) c) d)

entertain belittle applaud castigate

(Ans)

TEMPORAL devious immaculate didactic celestial (Ans) TRUNCATE lengthen (Ans) split digress enervate WASPISH berserk imperious amiable (Ans) ingeuous LIBERTINE perfect chaste (Ans) ignominious dubious IMPUGN invoke contradict defend (Ans) pacify INDELIBLE temporary decorous surprising concerted

(Ans)

EXPEDIENT beneficial necessary harmful (Ans) relevant DUCTILE opaque brittle (Ans) coarse soft

49. a) b) c) d) 50. a) b) c) d) 51. a) b) c) d) 52. a) b) c) d) 53. a) b) c) d) 54. a) b) c) d) 55. a) b) c) d) 56. a) b) c) d) 57. a) b) c) d)

ADEPT skilled inept (Ans) ugly serene CATALYST promoter obstacle destroyer deterrent (Ans) BOLSTER undermine interdict support contradict

(Ans)

FORLORN sorrowful encouraging cheerful (Ans) careless OSTENSIBLE external real (Ans) internal unreal RAZE raise disperse split foster (Ans) NONCHALANCE Pollution Confusion Suppression tension (Ans) APOCRYPHAL reliable authentic (Ans) incredible unreal DECREPIT Sturdy (Ans) feeble attractive repulsive

58. a) b) c) d) 59. a) b) c) d) 60. a) b) c) d)

SKIMPY glaring generous affluent miserly

(Ans)

PREPOSTEROUS unpleasant pertinent reasonable (Ans) interesting GORGE starve (Ans) crave relish dislike

Directions for questions 61 to 80 : In each question, four words identified as a, b, c and d are given. Two of them are opposite in meaning to each other. Identify this pair and marks as your answer the combination from the choices that matches your selection. 61. a) b) c) d) 62. a) b) c) d) 63. a) b) c) d) 64. a) b) c) d) 65. a) b) c) d) (i) Fume, (ii) - (iii) (i)- (iv) (i)-(ii) (iv)-(ii) (ii) Aroma, (Ans) (iii) stench, (iv) Filth

(i) Shallow, (ii) Vital, (i)-(ii) (i) - (iv) (Ans) (i)-(iii) (ii)-(iii)

(iii) Ostensible, (iv) Profound

(ii) Deteriorate, (ii) Wane, (i)-(ii) (ii) - (iii) (ii)-(iv) (Ans) (iii)-(iv) (i) Emphasise, (ii) Delay, (i)-(iii) (i)-(ii) (ii)-(iv) (iii)-(iv) (Ans) (i) Timid, (ii) Audacious, (i)-(ii) (Ans) (ii)-(iii) (i)-(iv) (iii)-(iv)

(iii) Zoom,

(iv) Flourish

(iii) Help,

(iv) Hamper

(iii) Powerful,

(iv) Violent

66. a) b) c) d) 67. a) b) c) d) 68. a) b) c) d) 69. a) b) c) d) 70. a) b) c) d) 71. a) b) c) d) 72. a) b) c) d)

(i) Repent, (ii) Flaunt, (iii) Hide, (i)-(iii) (ii)-(iii) (Ans) (iii)-(iv) (i)- (iv) (i) Sleep, (ii) Toil, (iii)-(iv) (Ans) (i)-(iv) (ii)-(iv) (ii)-(iii) (iii) Repose,

(iv) Fulfil

(iv) Labour

(i) Mundane, (ii) Unique, (i)-(iv) (i)-(iii) (Ans) (ii)-(iv) (ii)-(iii) (i) Serene, (ii) Moody, (i)-(ii) (ii)-(iv) (ii)-(iii) (i)-(iv) (Ans) (i) Eclipse, (i)-(iv) (ii)-(iv) (iii)-iv) (i)-(ii)

(iii) Exciting,

(iv) Emotional o

(iii) Blithe,

(iv) Emotional

(ii) Discreet, (iii) Increase, (Ans)

(iv) Reveal

(i) More, (ii) Bit, (i)-(ii) ((ii)-(iii) (ii-(iv) (Ans) (i)-(iv) (i) Lewd, (iii)-(iv) (i)-(ii) (ii)-(iv) (ii)-(iii)

(iii) Superfluous,

(iv) Lot

(ii) Dignified, (Ans)

(iii) Decent,

(iv) Ribald

73. (i) Aver, a) (i)-(ii) b) (i)-(iii) c) (ii)-(iv) d) (iii)-(iv) 74. a) b) c) d)

(ii) Contradict, (Ans)

(iii) Deny,

(iv) Repeat

(i) Oppose, (ii) Incite, (i)-(iv) (iii)-(iv) (ii)-(iii) (ii)-(iv) (Ans)

(iii) Defer,

(iv) Quell

75. a) b) c) d) 76. a) b) c) d) 77. a) b) c) d) 78. a) b) c) d) 79. a) b) c) d) 80. a) b) c) d)

(i) Amiable, (ii) Angry, (iii) Active, (i) - (ii) (ii)-(iv) (i)-(iv) (Ans) (ii)-(iii) (i) Stubborn, (ii) Amorous, (ii)-(iii) (Ans) (i)-(ii) (iii)-(iv) (i)- (iv) (i) Clear, (i)-(ii) (iii)-(iv) (i)-(iii) (ii)- (iii) (ii) Suppressed, (Ans)

(iv) Curt

(iii) Frigid, (iv) Chaste

(iii) Notorious,

(iv) Famous

(i) Actual, (ii) Alleged, (i)-(iv) (i)-(iii) (i)-(ii) (Ans) (ii)-(iii) (i) Renege, (ii) Break, (i)-(ii) (i)-(iv) (ii)-(iii) (i)-(iii) (Ans) (i) Terse, (ii) Verbose, (i)-(iii) (ii)-(iii) (ii)-(iv) (i)-(iv) (Ans)

(iii) Obvious,

(iv) Blamed

(iii) Fulfil, (iv) Complete

(iii) Short,

(iv) Detailed

Directions for questions 81-100: An idiom and four possible meanings are given. Identity the meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices and mark its number as your answer. 81. Child's play a) to handle a situation calmly b) to dispute over petty points c) an easy task (Ans) d) to treat lightly 82. a) b) c) d) On thin Ice on the verge of ruins unbounded to undergo risks in a precarious situation

(Ans)

83. a) b) c) d) 84. a) b) c) d)

Bury the hatchet decide to end hostility to keep under control to retire from active life to turn pale Cut no ice unable to perform make no impression come to nothing to fail

(Ans)

(Ans)

85. It makes no odds a) come to a compromise b) quite certain c) to cause no interest d) it is not important (Ans) 86. a) b) c) d) Sign on the dotted line agree to do something unconditionally take the blame or punishment without any delay left with no choice

(Ans)

87. The bottom line a) the trick b) the most important factor c) the secret d) ignorance 88. a) b) c) d) 89. a) b) c) d) 90. a) b) c) d) 91. a) b) c) d) Read between the line have a reason to suspect consulted one another have insight into a situation under consideration Turn down to reject or refuse to dominate to run away to disappoint

(Ans)

(Ans)

(Ans)

Lie low to cease fighting destructively active hide and wait (Ans) lethargic On cloud nine beyond control in excellent spirits fortune in favour at a distance

(Ans)

92. a) b) c) d) 93. a) b) c) d)

See eye to eye well thought of continuously to fix the limit have same opinion Count one's chickens be overoptimistic to make money rapidly with all one's power wholly or entirely

(Ans)

(Ans)

94. A bird's eye view a) without care b) within the walls c) an overall survey d) out of place 95. a) b) c) d) 96. a) b) c) d) 97. a) b) c) d) 98. a) b) c) d) 99. a) b) c) d)

(Ans)

Be in two minds be burdened be indifferent be mischievous be undecided (Ans) A shot in the arm to have his revenge to stimulate a situation/person to show strength to behave in an agitated manner Make no bones without offence to be frank (Ans) undaunted by anything practically Turn one's back object to retain aversion refuse help (Ans) run off Be hand in glove remain faithful spread rapidly in ignorance in close association

(Ans)

(Ans)

100. Head to toe a) thoroughly b) continuously

(Ans)

c) nothing d) completely

.. Information Technology 1. a) b) c) d) 2. a) b) c) d) 3. a) b) c) d) 4. a) b) c) d) Signals that involve human communications are generally : Digital Analog (Ans) Either digital or analog None of these A large sized network is termed as : MAN WAN (Ans) LAN VAN Spot the odd one amongst the following : BASIC (Ans) WINDOWS DOS UNIX Personal computers can be connected together to form a : Server Super Computer Network (Ans) Enterprise

5. Which of the following is not a storage medium ? a) Hard disc b) Flash drive c) DVD d) Monitor (Ans) 6. a) b) c) d) 7. a) b) c) A--- shares hardware, software, and data among authorised users; Network (Ans) Protocol Hyperlink Transmitter Which of the following is not related to Internet Function Key (Ans) Link Browser

d) 8. a) b) c) d) 9. a) b) c) d) 10. a) b) c) d) 11. a) b) c) d) 12. a) b) c) d)

Search engine User can use----- commands to search for and correct words in a computer Print and Print preview Header and Footer Find and Replace Spelling and Grammer (Ans) To see the documents before the printout is taken, use -----Print Preview (Ans) Format Printer Paste Insert Table The domain name of India : ind in (Ans) id hin Which company developed 'WINDOWS'? Microsoft (Ans) Apple LG HCL The full form of CD Computer Disc Compact Disc (Ans) Compact Device Compact Document

13. Determining whether an Internet site is a commercial (.com) or governmental (.gov) site helps determine its ...... a) Accuracy b) Purpose (Ans) c) Objectivity d) Expertise 14. a) b) c) d) 15. One Kilo byte = ------ bytes 1204 1024 (Ans) 1440 512 Laser Printer was first introduced by :

a) b) c) d) 16. a) b) c) d) 17. a) b) c) d) 18. a) b) c) d) 19. a) b) c) d) 20. a) b) c) d)

IBM Samsung Canon HP Who discovered 'Mouse'? Douglas Engelbart (Ans) Alen Shugart Charles Babbage Edison WINDOWS is a : Operating system (Ans) Hardware Virus None of these What is used for computer communication between users ? e-mail (Ans) SMS Tele mail Phonogram Which is the exact opposite of 'space' key ? Delete Insert Shift Backspace (Ans) Which one of the following is not a hardware ? Motherboard Keyboard Computer Mouse e-mail (Ans)

Current Affairs 1. a) b) c) d) 2. a) b) The native state of Pranab Mukherjee, the President of Inda : Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh West Bengal (Ans) Bihar The venue of the 2016 Summer Olympics : Rio de Janeiro (Ans) London

c) d) 3. a) b) c) d) 4. a) b) c) d)

Innsbruck Sochi The Union Finance Minister : Pranab Mukherjee S. M. Krishna P. Chidambaram (Ans) Faruq Abdulla In which state is Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project ? Karnataka Kerala Tamil Nadu (Ans) Andhra Pradesh

5. Which portfolio is held by Salman khurshid in the Union Cabinet ? a) Home b) External Affairs (Ans) c) Defence d) Human Resource Development

6. a) b) c) d) 7. a) b) c) d) 8. a) b) c) d)

Julia Gillard visited India recently. She is the Prime Minister of : Australia (Ans) Bangladesh Pakistan Italy The pilotless target aircraft of India : Saras Lakshya (Ans) Agni Prithvi In which country Mohamed Morsy became president ? Syria Tunisia Egypt (Ans) Iran

9. Which Latin American country granted asylum to Julian Assange, the founder of Wikileaks ? a) Peru b) Ecuador (Ans) c) Chile d) Brazil

10. a) b) c) d) 11. a) b) c) d) 12. : a) b) c) d)

Which neighbouring country of India ended direct media censorship in 2012 ? Pakistan Nepal Bhutan Myanmar (Ans) The venue of 2012 Summer Paralympics: Innsbruck Vancouver London (Ans) Nanjing Name the political parties in Kerala which abstained from Presidential Election 2012 Communist Party of India and the Revolutionary Socialist Party Communist Party of India and Kerala Congress Revolutionary Socialist Party and IUML Revolutionary Socialist Party and NCP (Ans)

13. After 18 years of negotiations which country joined the World Trade Organisation in 2012 ? a) India b) China c) Russia (Ans) d) USA 14. After the leaving of Trinamul Congress from the United progressive Alliance which is the second largest party in UPA ? a) NCP b) DMK (Ans) c) RLD d) IUML 15. a) b) c) d) The mascot of 2012 Winter Youth Olympics : Yoggi (Ans) Sumi Miga Quatchi

16. a) b) c) d)

Who was the Returning Officer for the Presidential Election 2012? V.K. Agnihotri (Ans) T.K. Viswanathan D.P. Agarwal V.S. Sampath

17. a) b) c) d)

Who is the IT minister of the present Union Cabinet ? A. K. Antony Manmohan Singh Kapil Sibal (Ans) Sharad Pawar

18. Which country successfully test fired the intercontinental Ballistic Missile Dongfeng41 ? a) Taiwan b) Japan c) China (Ans) d) South Korea 19. a) b) c) d) 20. a) b) c) Which Country topped in the medal count of 2012 Summer Olympics ? Russia Britain China USA (Ans) Who is the chairperson of the United Progresive Alliance ? Manmohan Singh Sonia Gandhi (Ans) Pranab Mukherjee

. IBPS IT officers computer based questions with answers,IBPS computer based questions with answers,IBPS 1. Assembly language is1.Low-level programming language 2.High level programming language 3.Machine language 4.All of the above 5.None of these 2.In Assembly language 1.Mnemonics are used to code operations 2.Alphanumeric symbols are used for addresses 3.Language lies between high-level language and machine 4.All of the above -Answer 5.None of these 3. The following computers memory is characterized by low cost per bit stored 1.Primary 2.Secondary -Answer 3.Hard disk

4.All of the above 5.None of these 4. The following is true for Auxiliary Storage 1.It has an operating speed far slower than that of the primary storage. -Answer 2.It has an operating speed faster than that of the primary storage. 3.It has an operating speed equivalent than that of the primary storage. 4.All of the above 5.None of these 5. Following is true for Bandwidth 1.The narrow the bandwidth of a communications system the less data it can transmit in a given period of time. -Answer 2.The narrow then bandwidth of a communications system the more data it can transmit in a given period of time. 3.The wider the bandwidth of a communications system the less data it can transmit in a given period of time. 4.All of the above 5.None is true 6. Acknowledgement from a computer that a packet of data has been received and verified is known as 1.ACK -Answer 2.BCK 3.ECK 4.All of the above 5.None of these 7. The following is a communications device (modem) which allows an ordinary telephone to be used with a computer device for data transmission 1.Keyboard 2.Acoustic coupler -Answer 3.Mobile phone 4.All of the above 5.None of these 8. ALGOL is the 1.High-level language -Answer 2.Low level language 3.Machine language 4.All of the above 5.None of these 9. A high level programming language named after Ada Augusta, coworker with Charles Babbage 1.Augustan 2.Babbage 3.Ada -Answer 4.Charlie 5.All of the above

10. Following is a logic circuit capable of forming the sum of two or more quantities 1.Adder -Answer 2.Multiplier 3.Address 4.Access 5.None of these 11. To identification particular location in storage area one have a 1.Address -Answer 2.Password 3.Logic 4.Mouse 5.None of these 12. A local storage register in the CPU which contains the address of the next instruction to be executed is referred as 1.Key register 2.Address register -Answer 3.Password 4.All of the above 5.None of these 13 .A sequence of precise and unambiguous instructions for solving a problem in a finite number of operations is referred as 1.Address 2.Algorithm -Answer 3.Advice 4.All of the above 5.None of these 14 .A character set that contains letters, digits, and other special characters such as $, @, + % etc.is referred as 1.Numeric 2.Alphanumeric -Answer 3.Alphabetic 4.All of the above 5.None of these 15. One of the components of central Processing Unit (CPU) of the computer that performs mathematical and logical operations is 1.ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) -Answer 2.Address register 3.Analog 4.All of the above

5.None of these 16. A standard intended to connect relatively lowspeed devices such as keyboards, mouse, modems and printers is 1.Access bus -Answer 2.Access time 3.Connector 4.All of the above 5.None of these 17. The concept that one can disconnect peripherals and plug them in without letting computer shut down or reconfigure the system is referred as 1.Hot plugging -Answer 2.Cold plugging 3.Access bus 4.All of the above 5.None of these 18. The time interval between the instant at which data is called from a storage device and the rust delivery begins in 1.Access time -Answer 2.Delivery time 3.Service time 4.All of the above 5.None of these 19. The automatic execution of lower-priority (background) computer programs when higherpriority (foreground) programs are not using the system resources is referred as 1.Background processing -Answer 2.Foreground processing 3.Null processing 4.All of the above 5.None of these 20. A form of access to a computer or network with specified user name and password is referred as 1.Account -Answer 2.Address 3.Algorithm 4.All of the above 5.None of these 21 .A local storage area also called a register, inwhich the result of an arithmetic or logic operation is formed, is 1.Accumulator -Answer 2.Address 3.Algorithm 4.All of the above

5.None of these 22. Computer that operates on data which is in the form of continuously variable physical quantities 1.Digital computer 2.Analog computer -Answer 3.Mechanical computer 4.All of the above 5.None of these 23. Anonymous FTP is the 1.Internet file transfer protocol -Answer 2.Protocol that requires password 3.None access files 4.None of these 24 .EFF sites allows anonymous FTP that 1.Do not require a password or access -Answer 2.Requires password or access 3.Is a none access file 4.All of the above 5.None of these 25. ANSI is 1.American National Standards Institute 2.A USA based national organization that establishes uniform standards in several fields of computers. 3.1. and 2. both are true -Answer 4.All of the above 5.None is true 26. APL is 1.A high level language for specifying complex algorithms. 2.A real-time language primarily for scientific applications. 3.Only 1. is true 4.Both 1. and 2. are true -Answer 5.None of these 27. The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as 1.Computer Architecture -Answer 2.Computer Flow chart 3.Computer Algorithm 4.All of the above 5.None of these 28. Asynchronous communication is 1.Communication between indepen-dentlyoperating units -Answer 2.Communication between dependent operating units

3.Communication between independent and dependent operating units 4.All of the above 5.None of these 29. Audio response is 1.Output medium 2.Produces verbal responses from the computer system 3.Both 1. and 2. are true -Answer 4.Only A is true 5.None is true 30. Automated Office refers to the merger of ............... in an office environment. 1.Computers 2.Office 3.Telecommunications 4.All of the above -Answer 5.None is true 31. Auxiliary storage is 1.Secondary storage -Answer 2.Primary storage 3.Processing device 4.All of the above 5.None of these 32. Archive is 1.Backup storage 2.Forward operation -Answer 3.Primary storage 4.All of the above 5.None of these 33. A branch of computer science that deals with computers that possess reasoning, learning and thinking capabilities that resemble those of human beings is recognized as 1.Software engineering 2.Artificial intelligence -Answer 3.Hardware engineering 4.All of the above 5.None of these 34. ASCII is 1.A standard coding system for computers -Answer 2.Hardware device 3.Software 4.All of the above 5.None of these

35. Following is true for Bandwidth 1.The wider the bandwidth of a communication system the more data it can transmit in a given period of time. -Answer 2.The narrow the bandwidth of a communication system the more data it can transmit in a given period of time. 3.The wider the bandwidth of a communication system the less data it can transmit in a given period of time .4.All of the above 5.None is true 36. ASCII-8 is 1.An extended version of ASCII-7 -Answer 2.Is a 8-bit code 3.Both 1. and 2. are true 4.Both 1. and 2. are false 5.None of these 37. ASCII File is 1.Document file in the universally recognized text format -Answer 2.Word processor 3.System file 4.All of the above 5.None of these 38. A program that translates mnemonic statements into executable instructions is referred as 1.Software 2.Assembler -Answer 3.Translator 4.All of the above 5.None of these 39 .An assembler is 1.Translator -Answer 2.Hardware 3.Assembly language 4.All of the above 5.None of these 40. Following is not true for Backup files 1.These are the files which are generated automatically in when one save a document. 2.These files help in protecting the document due to out of order of the computer or power failure 3.These files delete as soon computer is off -Answer 4.All of the above 5.None of these 41. An algebra that deals with logical propositions which are either true or false is referred as 1.Boolean algebra -Answer

2.Modern Algebra 3.Abstract Algebra 4.All of the above 5.None of these 42. Bandwidth is 1.The range of frequencies available for data transmission -Answer 2.Data transmission rate 3.Alternate for rubber band 4.All of the above 5.None is true 43. A coding structure in which characters are represented by means of a series of parallel bars is 1.Bar code -Answer 2.Menu bar 3.Numeric bar 4.All of the above 5.None of these 44. n Broadband system or a network system 1.Several analog signals share the same physical network channel -Answer 2.Only digital signals share the same physical network channel 3.Single analog signals share the same physical network channel 4.All of the above 5.None of these 45. Bit stands for 1.Binary digit 2.One binary piece of information 3.Both 1. and 2. are true -Answer 4.All of the above 5.None is true 46. Broadband channel is the 1.The fastest carriers where data transfer rates is of 1 million baud (bits/second) or more. -Answer 2.The slower carriers where data transfer rates is of 56k baud 3.Musical channel 4.All of the above 5.None of these 47. BLOB is 1.Binary Large Object 2.A long bit string representing complex data 3.Object oriented language 4.Only 1. and 2. are true -Answer 5.None of these

48. A group of related items/section of program oding treated as a unit is referred as 1.Block -Answer 2.Duplex 3.Street 1 4.All of the above 5.None of these 49. An operation in which data is moved to a different location is referred as 1.Block move -Answer 2.Street move 3.Delete 4.All of the above 5.None of these 50. The following is responsible for number of logical records in a physical record 1.Blocking factor -Answer 2.Block 3.Boolean algebra 4.All of the above 5.None of these Computers Related Most Important Full Form ALU Arithmetic logic unit ACPI: Advanced Configuration and Power Interface AC: Alternating Current AM: Amplitude Modulated AMD: Advanced Micro Devices, Inc. AMD: Advanced Micro Devices, Inc. AMI: American Megatrends Inc. ANSI: American National Standards Institute APIC: Advanced Programmable Interrupt Controller APM: Advanced Power Management ASCII: American Standard Code for Information Interchange ASIC: Application Specific Integrated Circuit

ASPI: Advanced SCSI Programming Interface AT: Advanced Technology ATA: AT Bus Attachment ATAPI: ATA Packet Interface ATM: Asynchronous Transfer Mode BBS: Bulletin Board System BCC: Block Check Character BSC: Binary Synchronous Communications BSD: Berkeley Standard Distribution BTU: British Thermal Units BCD: Binary Coded Decimal BIOS: Basic Input / Output System BNC: Bayonet Nut Connector BPS/bps: Bytes/bits Per Second CAM: Computer Aided Manufacturing CAD: Computer Aided Design CAS: Column Address Strobe CPU Central Processing Unit CPI: Clocks Per Instruction CR: Carriage Return CUI Composite User Interface CRT Cathode Ray Tube CRC: Cyclical Redundancy Check CD: Carrier Detect & Compact Disc

CD-R Compact Disc-Recordable CD-RW Compact Disc-ReWritable CD-ROM Compact disc read-only memory CGA: Color Graphics Adapter CHS: Cylinder Head Sector COMPUTER Common Oriented Machine Particularly Used for Trade Education and Research CMOS: Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor CSR: Command Status Register CTS: Clear To Send DVI Digital Visual Interface DVD Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc DAT: Digital Audio Tape DC: Direct Current DCD: Data Carrier Detect DCE: Data Circuit-terminating Equipment DD: Double Density DEC: Digital Equipment Corporation DIP: Dual-In-line Package DMA: Direct Memory Access DMI: Desktop Management Interface DOS: Disk Operating System DPE: Data Parity Error DRAM: Dynamic Random Access Memory

DS: Double Sided DSP: Digital Signal Processor DSR: Data Set Ready DTC: Data Terminal Controller DTE: Data Terminating Equipment DTR: Data Terminal Ready EBCDIC: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code EC: Error Check ECC: Error Check and Correction ECP: Enhanced Communication Port ECU: EISA Configuration Utility EDO: Extended Data Out RAM EEPROM: Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory EGA: Enhanced Graphics Adapter EIA: Electronic Industries Association EIDE: Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics EISA: Enhanced Industry Standard Architecture EMI: Electro-Magnetic Interference EMF: Electro-Magnetic Force EMS: Expanded Memory Specification EOF: End Of File EOL: End Of Line EPP: Enhanced Parallel Port EPROM: Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

ESCD: Extended System Configuration Data ESD: Electro-Static Discharge ESDI: Enhanced Small Devices Interface 51. A digital communication system capable of interconnecting, a large number of computers, terminals and other peripheral devices within a limited geographical area is called 1.LAN -Answer 2.WAN 3.Internet 4.All of the above 5.None of these 52. A secondary storage device that uses a long plastic strip coated with a magnetic material as a recording medium is 1.Magnetic tape -Answer 2.Compact disk 3.Hard disk 4.All of the above 5.None of these 53. An E-mail protocol for storage, manage-ment and change, especially in corporate offices 1.Message handling service-Answer 2.Postal services 3.Data storage 4.All of the above -Answer 5.None of these 54. Which of the following is an advantage of stored programs? 1.Reliability-Answer 2.Reduction in operation costs 3.The computers becoming general-purpose 4.All of the above 5.None of these 55. Which of the following is not true for primary storage? 1.It is a part of the CPU-Answer 2.It allows very fast access of data 3.It is relatively more expensive then other storage devices. 4.Can be removed and transported. 5.All of the above 56. Function of control unit in the CPU is 1.To decode program instructions2.To transfer data to primary storage

3.To perform logical operations 4.To store program instructionsAnswer 5.All of the above 57. Electronic spreadsheets are useful in situation where relatively .......... data must be input 1.Small -Answer 2.Large 3.No 4.All of the above 5.None is true 58. A list of options from which a program user can select anyone in order to perform a desired action is referred as 1.Menu 2.Index-Answer 3.Directory 4.All of the above 5.None of these 59. A method whereby messages to be transmitted between computers are all sent to a central computer, which gathers them and routes them to the appropriate destination(s) is known as 1.Message switching-Answer 2.Message delete 3.Message accept -Answer 4.All of the above 5.None of these 60. Which of the following describe one or more characteristics of a modem computer? 1.An electronic deviceAnswer 2.A mechanical device 3.A electro-mechanical device 4.All of the above 5.None of these 61. Combining records from two or more ordered files into a single ordered file is called 1.Menu -Answer 2.Merging 3.Taking 4.All of the above 5.None of these 62. The ascending order of a data hierarchy is 1.Bit-byte-record-field-file-database2.Byte-bit-field-record-file-databaseAnswer 3.Byte-bit-record-file-field-database 4.Bit-byte-field-record-file-database 5.All of the above

63. A LSI chip contains the entire CPU of computer except main memory is called 1.Microprocessor 2.Hard disk 3.Input device 4.Output deviceAnswer 5.All of the above 64. A storage medium that loses its contents in the event of power failure is called 1.Volatile storage-Answer 2.Non volatile storage 3.Permanent storage 4.All of the above 5.None of these 65. One-millionth of a second is referred as 1.Microsecond -Answer 2.Millisecond 3.Hour 4.Minute 5.All of the above 66. Alternate facilities of programs, data files,hardware equipments, etc. used in case the original one is destroyed, lost, or fail to operate is 1.Backup -Answer 2.Forehead 3.Delete 4.All of the above 5.None of these 67 One-thousandth of a second is called 1.Microsecond -Answer 2.Millisecond 3.Hour 4.Minute-Answer 5.All of the above 68. The CPU (central processing unit) consists of 1.Input, output, and processing 2.Control unit, primary storage, andsecondary storage-Answer 3.Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit, andprimary storage 4.All of the above 5.None of these 69. The product of data processing is 1.Data 2.Information

3.Software -Answer 4.Computer 5.All of the above 70. The input device used by computer is 1.Motherboard 2.Central processing unit-Answer 3.Keyboard 4.System unit 5.All of the above 71. The structure of interconnecting of nodes of a computer network is referred as 1.Network topology 2.Internet 3.Local Area Network-Answer 4.Wide Area Network 5.All of the above 72. Nible is 1.Double of byte 2.Half of byte 3.Ten times of byte 4.Five times of byte-Answer 5.All of the above 73. Multiprogramming is the 1.The inter-leaved execution of two or more different and independent programs by the same computer 2.The execution of single by the different computers 3.The inter-leaved execution of two or more different and independent programs by the different computers-Answer 4.All of the above 5.None of these 74. A facility available in an operating system that allows multiple functions from the same application package is referred as 1.Multi-threading-Answer 2.Multi-programming 3.Multi-processing 4.All of the above 5.None of these 75. Narrowband channel is a communication channels 1.That handle low volumes of data 2.Used mainly for telegraph lines and low speed terminals-Answer 3.Both 1. and 2. 4.All of the above 5.None of these

76. Following is the example of Network 1.LAN-Answer 2.WAN 3.Internet 4.All the above 5.None of these 77. Peer-to-peer is a description 1.Of communications between two dissimilar devices-Answer 2.Of communications between two equal devices 3.Of communications between two different devices 4.All of the above 5.None of theses 78. Non-document files are 1.Pure ASCII files that can be listed for any word processing software-Answer 2.Non ASCII files that can be listed for any word processing software 3.Pure ASCII files that can be listed for specific word processing software 4.Non ASCII files that can be listed for pecific word processing software 5.All of the above 79. The method of dividing a physical channel into many logical channels so that a number of independent signals may be simultaneously transmitted on it is referred as 1.Multithreading -Answer 2.Multiprocessing 3.Multiplexing 4.All of the above 5.None of these 80. An interconnected computer configura-tions or computers with two or more independent CPUs that have the ability to simultaneously execute several programs is called 1.Multithreading -Answer 2.Multiprocessing 3.Multiplexing 4.All of the above 5.None of these 81. Following is not a non-impact printer 1.Thermal printer -Answer 2.Ink-jet printer 3.Laser printer 4.Dot-matrix printer 5.All of the above 82. A number system with a base of 8 is referred as

1.Binary -Answer 2.Decimal 3.Octal 4.All of the above 5.None of these 83. Devices converts digital signals to Sine waves at the sending end and back to digital signals at the receiving end is called 1.Modem -Answer 2.Telephone 3.Mobile phone 4.All of the above 5.None of these 84. Dividing a project into segments and smaller units in order to simplify the analysis, design and programming effort is referred as 1.Monitoring 2.Modular approach 3.Microprocessing 4.All of the above-Answer 5.None of these 85. The technique where digital signals are converted to its analog form for transmission over an analog facility is called 1.Modulation -Answer 2.Digitization 3.Multiprocessing 4.All of the above 5.None of these 86. Multiprocessor is a computer system 1.Where many CPU under a common control 2.Consisting of more than one input devices under common control 3.Where many output devices under-Answer 4.All of the above 5.None of these 87. The point at which the flow of text in a document moves to the top of a new page 1.Page break -Answer 2.Page insert 3.Page format 4.All of the above 5.None of these 88. Technique to implement virtual memory where memory is divided into units of fixed size memory is 1.Paging -Answer 2.De-fragments

3.Segmentation 4.All of the above 5.None of these 89. An adder where all the bits of the two operands are added simultaneously 1.Parallel adder-Answer 2.Half adder 3.Full adder 4.All of the above 5.None of these 90. An extra bit added to a string of bits that enables the computer to detect internal errors in the transmission of binary data 1.Parity bit 2.Byte 3.Nibble 4.All of the above 5.None of these 91. Password is 1.Code by which a user gains access to a computer system 2.Pass for viewing movie 3.Entrance without paying something 4.All of the above 5.None of these 92. PL 1 (Programming Language One) is 1.High level programming language 2.Low level programming language 3.Machine language 4.Assembly language 5.All of the above 93. Pascal is 1.A high-level programming language-Answer 2.Named after Blaise Pascal 3.Named after mathematician that facilitates structured programming techniques 4.All of the above 5.None of these 94. S torage device where time to retrieve stored information is independent of address where it is stored is called 1.Random access memory (RAM) 2.Primary memory 3.Secondary memory 4.All of the above -Answer 5.None of these

95. Octal number system has a base 1.Two -Answer 2.Four 3.Eight 4.Ten 5.All of the above 96. Since input and output devices are on the edge of the main processing therefore they are referred as 1.Peripheral devices 2.Processing devices 3.Personal devices-Answer 4.All of the above 5.None of these 97. A system changeover method where complete changeover to the new system takes place incrementally over a period of time is referred as 1.Phased replacement-Answer 2.Block replacement 3.Complete replacement 4.All of the above 5.None of these 98. One trillionth of a second is 1.Pico second -Answer 2.Mille second 3.Micro second 4.Minute 5.All of these 99. Following is of Non-vo a storage device 1.Magnetic tape -Answer 2.Compact disk 3.Floppy disk 4.All of the above 5.None of these 100. A storage medium that retains its contents even in the absence of power is referred as 1.Non-volatile storage 2.Volatile storage 3.Secondary storage 4.Primary storage-Answer 5.None of these . FTP File Transfer Protocol

FAT: File Allocation Table FCC: Federal Communications Commission FDD: Fixed/Floppy Disk Drive FDDI: Fiber Distributed Data Interface FDM: Frequency Division Multiplexing FDX: Full-Duplex Transmission FE: Front End FEP: Front End Processor FF: Form Feed FIFO: First-In First-Out FILO: First-In Last-Out FM: Frequency Modulation FPGA: Field Programmable Gate Array FPM: Fast Page Mode RAM FPU: Floating Point Unit FRC: Functional Redundancy Checking FRU: Field-Replaceable Unit FSF: Free Software Foundation FSK: Frequency Shifty Keying GUI Graphical user interface GAS: Gallium Arsenide GFLOPS: Billions of Floating Point Operations Per Second HTML Hyper Text Markup Language

HD: High Density / Hard Disk HDD: Hard Disk Drive HDX: Half-Duplex Transmission HFS: Hierarchical File System HPFS: High Performance File System IBM International Business Machines, Indian Bureau of Mines I/O: Input/Output IC: Integrated Circuit IDE: Integrated Device Electronics IEEE: Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers IMP: Interface Message Processor IPC: Inter Process Communication IPX: Inter network Packet eXchange IRQ: Interrupt ReQuest ISA: Industry Standard Architecture ISDN: Integrated Services Digital Network ISO: International Standards Organization JFS: Journalized File System KNI: Katmai New Instructions KVA: KiloVolt-Amps LBA: Linear Block Array / Addressing LCD Liquid crystal display LAN Local area network LOGO Language of Graphic-Oriented

LED: Light Emitting Diode LF: Line Feed LIM: Lotus/Intel/Microsofts Expanded Memory Manager LRU: Least-Recently Used LSB/lsb: Least Significant Byte/bit LSI: Large Scale Integration LUN: Logical Unit Number LASER Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation MAN Metropolitan area network MIPS Microprocessor without Interlocked Pipeline Stages MSo Micro Soft Office, Multi system operator MB/Mb: Mega Bytes/bits MBR: Master Boot Record MCA: Micro Channel Architecture MCGA: Multi-Color Graphics Array MCM: Multi-Chip Module MDRAM: Multi-bank RAM MFLOPS: Millions of FLOating Point Operations per Second MFM: Modified Frequency Modulated MHz: MegaHertz MICR: Magnetic Ink Character Recognition MIDI: Musical Instrument Data Interface MIMD: Multiple-Instruction Multiple-Data

MISD: Multiple-Instruction Single Data MMX: Multi-Media Extensions MNP: Microcom Network Protocol MODEM: MOdulator / DEModulator MOPS: Millions of Operations Per Second MOS: Metal-Oxide Semiconductor MP: Multi-Processor MPP: Massively Parallel Processor MPS: Multi-Processor System MSB/msb: Most Significant Byte/bit MSDOS: Microsofts Disk Operating System SI: Medium Scale Integration MTBF: Mean Time Between Failure N/C: No-Connect NBS: National Bureau of Standards NEMA: National Electrical Manufacturers Association NFS: Network File System NFU: Not-Frequently Used NMI: Non-Maskable Interrupt NMOS: Negatively doped Metal-Oxide Semiconductor NOP: No OPeration NRU Not-Recently Used NSF: National Science Foundation NVRAM: NonVolatile Random Access Memory OCR: Optical Character Recognition

ODI: Open Data link Interface OEM: Original Equipment Manufacturer OS: Operating System OSF: Open Software Foundation OSI: Open Systems Interconnect PAL/PLA: Programmable Array Logic / Logic Array PB: Push Button PBX: Private Branch eXtender PC: Personal Computer, Program Counter PCB: Printed Circuit Board PCI: Peripheral Component Interconnect PCM: Pulse Code Modulation PCMCIA: Personal Computer Memory Card International Association PE: Processor Element PFF: Page Fault Frequency PGA: Professional Graphics Array PGA: Pin Grid Array PIC: Programmable Interrupt Controller PIO: Programmed Input / Output PIROM: Processor Information ROM PLCC: Plastic Leaded Chip Carrier PLL: Phase Locked Loop PM: Preventive Maintenance

PMOS: Positively doped Metal-Oxide Semiconductor PnP: Plug-and-Play POST: Power On Self Test PPP: Point-to-Point Protocol PQFP: Plastic Quad Flat Pack PROM: Programmable Read Only Memory PSTN: Public Switched Telephone Network PTE: Page Table Entry QAM: Quadrature Amplitude Modulation QFP: Quad Flat Pack QIC: Quarter Inch Cartridge RAM Random-access memory RAID: Redundant Arrays of Inexpensive Disks RAMDAC: Random Access Memory Digital to Analogue Converter RAS: Row Address Strobe RCA: Radio Corporation of America RCC: Routing Control Center RDRAM: Rambus DRAM RFC: Request For Comments RFI: Radio Frequency Interference RI: Ring Indicator RISC: Reduced Instruction-Set Computer RLL: Run Length Limited RMS: Root Mean Squared

RMW: Read Modify Write ROM: Read Only Memory RPC: Remote Procedure Call RPM: Rotations Per Minute RTC: Real Time Clock RTS: Request To Send SAM: Sequential Access Memory SASI: Shugart Associates Standard Interface SCSI: Small Computer Systems Interface SD: Single Density SDLC: Synchronous Data Link Control SDRAM: Synchronous Dynamic RAM SDRAM DDR: Double Data Rate SDRAM SDRAM BDDR: Bi-Directional Strobed DDR SDRAM SE: Systems Engineer SEC: Single Edge Contact SFF: Small Form Factor SGRAM: Synchronous Graphics RAM SMS Short Message Service SIMD: Single-Instruction Multiple-Data SIMM: Single Inline Memory Module SIPP: Single Inline Pinned Package SISD: Single-Instruction Single-Dat

SLIP: Serial Line Internet Protocol SMD: Surface Mount Device SMT: Surface Mount Technology SNA: System Network Architecture SNR: Signal to Noise Ratio SO/SOL: Small Out Line SOIC: Small Outline Integrated Circuit SPOOL: Simultaneous Peripheral Operation On Line SPT: Sectors Per Track SPU: Single Processor Unit SRAM: Static Random Access Memory SS: Single Sided STDM: Synchronous Time Division Multiplexing STN: Super Twisted Nematic STU: Streaming Tape Unit SVGA: Super Video Graphics Array TCM: Trellis Code Modulation TCP/IP: Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol TDM: Time Division Multiplexing TI: Texas Instruments TIA: Telecomm Industry Association TLB: Translation-Look aside Buffer TPI: Tracks Per Inch TRANSISTOR: TRANSformer resISTOR

TSR: Terminate and Stay Resident TTL: Transistor-Transistor Logic UAE: Unrecoverable Application Error UART: Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter UDP: User Datagram Protocol UMB: Upper Memory Block UNIX: A trademark used for a computer disk operating system UPS Uninterruptible power supply USL: UNIX System Labs UUCP: UNIX to UNIX Copy Program VIRUS Vital Information Resources Under Seize VDU Visual Display Unit VBE: Video BIOS Extensions VCR: Video Cassette RecorderVESA: Video Enhanced Standards Association VGA: Video Graphics Array VLB: VESA Local Bus VLIW: Very Long Instruction Word VLSI: Very Large Scale Integration VM: Virtual Memory VME: Versa Module Euro-card VRAM: Video Random Access Memory VRT: Voltage Reduction Technology VTR: Video Tape Recorder

WAN Wide area network WATS: Wide Area Telephone Service WD: Western Digital WORM: Write Once Read-Many WRAM: Window Random Access Memory WS: Wait State WWW World Wide Web XGA: eXtended Graphics Array XMS: Extended Memory Specification XOR: Exclusive-OR XT: eXtended Technology ZIF: Zero Insertion Force

.
IBPS PO and clerical bank based general awareness and economics based questions, IBPS banking awareness questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved question with answers and detailed explnations

1. Economic Survey is an annual commentary on the state of the economy of India which is put together by ______. (a) Reserve Bank of India (b) Planning Commission (c) Finance Ministry (Ans) (d) India Statistical Institute (e) None of these

2. The Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on Feb 25, 2011 has pegged the economic growth at ____ for fiscal year 2012. (a) 8.25 - 8.75 per cent (b) 8.50 - 9.0 per cent (c) 8.75 - 9.25 per cent (Ans) (d) 9.0 - 9.50 per cent (e) None of these

3. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The Economic Survey 2011 has favored a phased opening of foreign direct investments in multi-brand retail saying it could help address concerns of consumers and farmers, besides bringing technical knowhow. 2. At present India allows 100 per cent FDI in cash and carry wholesale trading, while it is prohibited in multi-brand retail. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) Either 1 or 2

4. The Economic Survey 2011 has been prepared under the mentorship of Finance Ministry's chief economic advisor, who is (a) C Rangarajan (b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia (c) R Venkateshwar

(d) Kaushik Basu (Ans) (e) None of these

5. According to Economic Survey 2011, agriculture is likely to grow at _____ in 2010/11. (a) 5.1 per cent (b) 5.2 per cent (c) 5.3 per cent (d) 5.4 per cent (Ans) (e) None of these

6. According to Economic Survey 2011, what is the growth in industrial output ? (a) 5.6 per cent (b) 6.6 per cent (c) 7.6 per cent (d) 8.6 per cent (Ans) (e) None of these

7. According to Economic Survey 2011, what is the growth in manufacturing sector ? (a) 6.1 per cent (b) 7.1 per cent (c) 8.1 per cent (d) 9.1 per cent (Ans) (e) None of these

8. According to Economic Survey 2011, how much did the trade gap narrow in April-December 2010 ? (a) $ 81.01 billion (b) $ 82.01 billion (Ans) (c) $ 83.01 billion (d) $ 84.01 billion (e) None of these

9. Which of the following statements with reference to Economic Survey 2011 is/are correct ? 1. Net bank credit has grown by 59 per cent. 2. Savings rate has gone up to 33.7 per cent. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) Either 1 or 2

10. The government aims at raising Rs 40,000 crore by selling its stake in public sector undertakings in 2011-12, despite missing the current year's target. As against a target of Rs. 40,000 crore, the government has raised about ____ from disinvestment in 2010-11. (a) Rs 22, 144 crore (Ans) (b) Rs 23, 144 crore (c) Rs 24, 144 crore (d) Rs 25, 144 crore

(e) None of these

11. In 2010-11, government sold its stake in different state-run companies including Coal India, Power Grid Corporation of India, Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam, Engineers India Ltd, Shipping Corporation of India and Manganese Ore India Ltd. The government aims at retaining what percent of ownership and management control in the central public sector undertakings ? (a) 26 per cent (b) 51 per cent (Ans) (c) 63 per cent (d) 74 per cent (e) None of these

12. According to Union Budget 2011-12, exemption limit for the general category of individual taxpayers has been enhanced by (a) Rs 20,000 (Ans) (b) Rs 30,000 (c) Rs 40,000 (d) Rs 50,000 (e) None of these

13. According to Union Budget 2011-12, qualifying age for Senior Citizens has been reduced from 65 years to ___ and exemption limit for Senior Citizens has been enhanced from Rs 2,40,000 to ___. (a) 60 years, Rs.2,50,000 (Ans) (b) 61 years, Rs.2,60,000 (c) 62 years, Rs.2,70,000 (d) 63 years, Rs.2,80,000

(e) None of these

14. A new category of Very Senior Citizens, ______ and above, has been created who will be eligible for a higher exemption limit of ____. (a) 75 years, Rs.4,00,000 (b) 70 years, Rs.5,00,000 (c) 80 years, Rs.5,00,000 (Ans) (d) 85 years, Rs.4,00,000 (e) None of these

15. The Finance Minister has proposed to increase the exemption limit for general category individual tax payers by Rs.20,000 to Rs.1,80,000 per year. This will provide a uniform tax relief of ____ to every tax payer of this category. (a) Rs 1000 (b) Rs 2000 (Ans) (c) Rs 3000 (d) Rs 4000 (e) None of these

16. Union Budget 2011-12 has allocated Rs 2,14,000 crore for infrastructure in 2011-12. This is an increase of ____ over 2010-11. (a) 20.3 per cent (b) 21.3 per cent (c) 22.3 per cent (d) 23.3 per cent (Ans)

(e) None of these

17. According to Union Budget 2011-12, exports have grown by ____, while imports have recorded a growth of ____ during April to January 2010-11 over the corresponding period last year. (a) 29.4 per cent, 17.6 per cent (Ans) (b) 30.4 per cent, 16.6 per cent (c) 31.4 per cent, 15.6 per cent (d) 32.4 per cent, 14.6 per cent (e) None of the above

18. The Economic Survey presents a rosy picture about the per capita income by representing India's per capita net national income (factor cost at current prices) at _____ for 2010-11. (a) Rs 54,527 (Ans) (b) Rs 55,527 (c) Rs 56,527 (d) Rs 57,527 (e) None of these

19. According to the Economic Survey 2010-11, what was the total Gross Domestic Saving in 2009-10 ? (a) Rs. 21,07,423 crore (b) Rs. 22,07,423 crore (Ans) (c) Rs. 23,07,423 crore (d) Rs. 24,07,423 crore (e) None of these

20. According to the projection of GDP in the Economic Survey 2010-11, the economy's growth rate has been pegged at ____ in 2010-11. (a) 7.6% (b) 8.6% (Ans) (c) 9.6% (d) 10.6% (e) None of these

21. According to the projection of GDP in the Economic Survey 2010-11, the economy's growth rate has been pegged at _____ in 2011-12. (a) 7% (b) 8% (c) 9% (Ans) (d) 10% (e) None of these

22. According to the projection of GDP in the Economic Survey 2010-11, India's GDP at Factor Cost (real GDP) been pegged at ___ in 2010-11. (a) Rs. 4579232 crore (b) Rs. 4679232 crore (c) Rs. 4779232 crore (d) Rs. 4879232 crore (Ans) (e) None of these

23. What is the allocation for social sector in the total plan allocation ? (a) 33.4% (b) 34.4% (c) 35.4% (d) 36.4% (Ans) (e) None of these

24. The Union Budget 2011-12 estimates fiscal deficit at Rs.4,12,817 crore. What is the fiscal deficit with reference to percentage of GDP ? (a) 2.6 per cent (b) 3.6 per cent (c) 4.6 per cent (Ans) (d) 5.6 per cent (e) None of these

25. The Union Budget 2011-12 estimates gross tax receipts to grow by ______ to Rs. 9,32,440. (a) 24.9 per cent (Ans) (b) 25.9 per cent (c) 26.9 per cent (d) 27.9 per cent (e) None of these

26. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount will be transferred to the States and UTs as plan and non plan transfers ?

(a) Rs. 1,01,733 crore (b) Rs. 2,01,733 crore (Ans) (c) Rs. 3,01,733 crore (d) Rs. 4,01,733 crore (e) None of these

27. In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister has proposed to create a micro finance equity fund with Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for providing equity to smaller micro finance institutions. What is the value of this proposed fund ? (a) Rs 50 crore (b) Rs 100 crore (Ans) (c) Rs 150 crore (d) Rs 200 crore (e) None of these

28. In the Union Budget 2011-12, the minimum alternate tax (MAT) rate has been hiked from 18 per cent to ___ of book profits. (a) 18.5 per cent (Ans) (b) 19 per cent (c) 19.5 per cent (d) 20 per cent (e) None of these

29. A few new services have been brought under service tax net. Consider the following services :

1. Hotel accommodation in excess of Rs. 1000 per day. 2. Service provided by air conditioned restaurants with licence to serve liquor Which of these services have been brought under the tax net ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) Either 1 or 2

30. The RESIDEX was launched by he National Housing Bank (NHB) to provide an index of residential prices in India across cities and over time. In which year was RESIDEX launched ? (a) 2006 (b) 2007 (Ans) (c) 2008 (d) 2009 (e) None of these

31. According to Economic Survey 2010-11, housing sector contributes what per cent of national employment ? (a) 9 per cent (Ans) (b) 10 per cent (c) 11 per cent (d) 12 per cent (e) None of these

32. With a view to reduce wastage of farm produce, how many more mega food parks has the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee announced in the Budget ? (a) 15 (Ans) (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (e) None of these

33. According to Union Budget 2011-12, credit flow to farmers has been raised from Rs. 3,75,000 crore to : (a) Rs 4,00,000 crore (b) Rs 4,25,000 crore (c) Rs 4,50,000 crore (d) Rs 4,75,000 crore (Ans) (e) None of these

34. During the first three years of the current Five Year Plan, the agriculture sector (including allied activities) recorded an average growth of ____ against the Plan target of __ per annum. (a) 3.03 per cent, 4 per cent (b) 2.03 per cent, 5 per cent (c) 4.03 per cent, 6 per cent (d) 2.03 per cent, 4 per cent (Ans) (e) None of these

35. The Economic Survey 2010-11 says that the overall GDP has grown by an average of 8.62 per cent during 2004-05 to 2010-11, agricultural sector GDP has increased by only 3.46 per cent during the same period. Agriculture sector accounts for what per cent of employment in the country (as per 2001 census) ? (a) 56 per cent (b) 58 per cent (Ans) (c) 60 per cent (d) 62 per cent (e) None of these

36. According to Union Budget 2011-12, Direct Taxes Code (DTC) would be finalized for enactment during 2011-12. The proposed DTC is to be effective from _____. (a) April 30, 2012 (b) May 1, 2012 (c) June 1, 2012 (d) April 1, 2012 (Ans) (e) None of these

37. In the Union Budget 2011-12, Defence expenditure for 2011-12 has been pegged at Rs 1,64,415 crore, an increase of ___ over the last financial year 2010-11. (a) Rs 16,071 crore (b) Rs 17,071 crore (Ans) (c) Rs 18,071 crore (d) Rs 19,071 crore (e) None of these

38. In the Union Budget 2011-12, how much amount has been earmarked for cleaning of rivers ? (a) Rs 50 crore (b) Rs 100 crore (c) Rs 150 crore (d) Rs 200 crore (Ans) (e) None of these

39. In the Union Budget 2011-12, allocation under Rashtirya Krishi Vikas Yojna (RKVY) has been increased to (a) Rs 5860 crore (b) Rs 6860 crore (c) Rs 7860 crore (Ans) (d) Rs 8860 crore (e) None of these

40. In the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount is to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining minimum Tier l capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR) of 8% in public sector banks ? (a) Rs 5000 crore (b) Rs 6000 crore (Ans) (c) Rs 7000 crore (d) Rs 8000 crore (e) None of these

41. In the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount is to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining CRAR in regional rural banks ?

(a) Rs 500 crore (Ans) (b) Rs 600 crore (c) Rs 700 crore (d) Rs 800 crore (e) None of these

42. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, there is an increase in remuneration for Anganwadi workers from _____ to _____ per month. (a) Rs 1,500, Rs 2,000 (b) Rs 1,500, Rs 3,000 (Ans) (c) Rs 1,000, Rs 2,000 (d) Rs 1,500, Rs 2,500 (e) None of these

43. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, what is the amount that has been proposed to be allocated for Green India Mission from National Clean Energy Fund ? (a) Rs 50 crore (b) Rs 100 crore (c) Rs 150 crore (d) Rs 200 crore (Ans) (e) None of these

44. The Union Budget 2011-12 has proposed to distribute ten lakh Aadhaar numbers per day from (a) Aug 1, 2011

(b) Sept 1, 2011 (c) Oct 1, 2011 (Ans) (d) Nov 1, 2011 (e) None of these

45. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, an international award has been instituted for promoting values of universal brotherhood as part of National celebrations of 150th birth anniversary of Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore. What is the prize money of this award ? (a) Rs 25 lakh (b) Rs 50 lakh (c) Rs 75 lakh (d) Rs 1 crore (Ans) (e) None of these

46. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, eligibility for pension under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries has been reduced from 64 years of age to ____ years. (a) 55 (b) 58 (c) 60 (Ans) (d) 62 (e) None of these

47. The Government's special support to Jammu & Kashmir is anchored in Rs 28,000 crore Prime Minister's Reconstruction Plan. In the Union Budget 2011-12, _____ would be given as Special Developmental Assistance to the troubled Jammu and Kashmir in the current fiscal. (a) Rs 8,000 crore (Ans)

(b) Rs 9,000 crore (c) Rs 10,000 crore (d) Rs 12,000 crore (e) None of these

48. To give a boost to the development of backward regions, the Union Budget 2011-12 has increased allocation under the Backward Regions Grant Fund from Rs 7,300 crore to _____ . (a) Rs 6,890 crore (b) Rs 7,890 crore (c) Rs 8,890 crore (d) Rs 9,890 crore (Ans) (e) None of these

49. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the announcements in Budget 201112 ? 1. National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched. 2. 7 Mega clusters for leather products to be set up. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) Either 1 or 2

50. With reference to the trends in India's Fertilizers Production, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. India meets 85 per cent its urea requirement through indigenous production but depends heavily on imports for its phosphatic and potash fertilizer requirements. 2. Farmers pay only 25 to 40 per cent of the actual cost and the rest of the cost is borne by the Government in the form of a subsidy, which is reimbursed to the manufactures/importers. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) Either 1 or 2