Q.1 Generation of eddy currents depends on the principle of: A. wave guide theory. B. electromagnetic induction. C. magneto-restrictive forces.

D. all of the above. Q.2 A secondary field is generated by the test object and is: A. equal and opposite to the primary field. B. opposite to the primary field, but much smaller. C. in the same plane as the coil is wound. D. in phase with the primary field. Q.3 When a non-ferromagnetic part is placed in the test coil, the coil's voltage: A. increases. B. remains constant because this is essential. C. decreases. D. shifts 90 degrees in phase. Q.4 Eddy currents generated in a test object flow: A. in the same plane as magnetic flux. B. in the same plane as the coil is wound. C. 90 degrees to the coil winding plane. D. Eddy currents have no predictable direction. Q.5 The discovery of electromagnetic induction is credited to: A. Arago. B. Oersted. C. Maxwell. D. Faraday. Q.6 A standard depth of penetration is defined as the point in a test object where the relative eddy current density is reduced to: A. 25 percent. B. 37 percent. C. 50 percent. D. 100 percent. Q.7 Calculate the standard depth of penetration at 10 kHz in copper; = 5.7 107 mhos per meter. A. 0.1 mm B. 0.02 mm C. 0.66 mm D. 66 mm Q.8 Differential coils are usually used in: A. bobbin coils. B. probe coils. C. OD coils. D. any of the above.

Q.9 When using a probe coil to scan a test object, ______ A. the object must be dry and polished. B. the object must be scanned carefully to insure inspection coverage. C. the object must be scanned in circular motions at constant speeds. D. the probe must be moving at all times to get a reading. Q.10 A "spinning probe" would most likely be a (an): A. bobbin coil. B. ID coil. C. OD coil. D. probe coil. Q.11 A "feed-through" coil is: A. a coil with primary/secondary windings connected so that the signal is fed through the primary to the secondary. B. an encircling coil. C. an OD coil. D. both B and C. Q.12 When inspecting a tubular product with an encircling coil, which statement is not true? A. OD discontinuities can be found. B. Axial discontinuity locations can be noted. C. Circumferential discontinuity locations can be noted. D. ID discontinuities can be found. Q.13 An absolute coil measurement is made A. by comparing one spot on the test object to another. B. without reference to or direct comparison with a standard. C. only with probe coils. D. by comparative measurement to a known standard. Q.14 When coils in a differential arrangement are affected simultaneously with the same test object variables, the output signal A. is directly proportional to the number of variables. B. is "0" or near-"0." C. is indirectly proportional to the number of variables. D. is primarily a function of the exciting current. Q.15Which coil type inherently has better thermal stability? A. Bobbin B. Absolute C. OD D. Differential Q.16 A hybrid coil is composed of two or more coils. The coils A. must be aligned coplanar to the driver axis. B. may be of widely different dimensions. C. must be impedance-matched as closely as possible. D. are very temperature sensitive.

Q.17 Proper selection of test coil arrangement is determined by: A. shape of test object. B. resolution required. C. sensitivity required. D. all of the above. Q.18 A coil's resistance is determined by: A. wire material. B. wire length. C. wire cross-sectional area. D. all of the above. Q.19 Inductance is analogous to: A. force. B. volume. C. inertia. D. velocity. Q.20 The unit of inductance is the: A. henry. B. maxwell. C. ohm. D. farad.

21. Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and the extent a liquid penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and other small openings? a. the hardness of the specimen being tested b. the surface condition of the specimen being tested c. the color of the penetrant d. the conductivity of the specimen being tested 22. Which of the following is a commonly used classification for penetrant? a. post-emulsifiable penetrant b. nonferrous penetrant c. chemical etch penetrant d. nonaqueous penetrant 23. A generally accepted method for removing excess nonwater-washable penetrant is: a. repeatedly dipping the test specimen in a cleaner b. soaking the test specimen in hot detergent water c. blowing the excess penetrant off the surface of the part with compressed air d. wiping and cautiously cleaning the test specimen with a cleaner-dampened cloth 24. All of the following parts can be tested by the liquid penetrant method except: a. an iron casting b. an aluminum forging c. a part made from a porous plastic material d. a part made from a non-porous material

25. Which of the following discontinuities can be found by the penetrant test method? a. a surface crack b. a subsurface crack c. an internal inclusion d. none of the above 26. Which of the following is generally the more acceptable method for cleaning parts prior to penetrant testing? a. sand blasting b. wire brushing c. grinding d. vapor degreasing 27. All of the following methods are commonly used to clean parts prior to penetrant testing except: a. vapor degreasing b. liquid solvent c. power wire brushing d. alkaline cleaner 28. Cutting oils may be effectively removed from parts before penetrant testing by: a. pre-heating b. vapor degreasing c. washing with water d. all of the above 29. The most common type of contaminant in fluorescent penetrant fluid is: a. metal filings b. oil c. detergents (from cleaning) d. water 30. Black light, with a proper functioning filter in place, used for fluorescent penetrant inspection can cause permanent damage to: a. human tissues b. human eyes c. human blood cells d. none of the above 31. All of the following basic inspection principles apply to the penetrant methods excepta. the penetrant must enter the discontinuity in order to form an indication b. indications glow when illuminated with a black light c. a longer penetration time is required for smaller discontinuities d. if the penetrant is washed out of the discontinuity, an indication will not be formed by that discontinuity

32. Subsurface discontinuities can be best detected by: a. the post-emulsification penetrant method b. the visible dye penetrant method c. the fluorescent, water-washable penetrant method d. none of the above 33. Visible penetrant may be applied by: a. brushing b. spraying c. dipping d. none of the above 34. The first step in conducting a liquid penetrant test on a surface that has been painted is to : a. carefully apply the penetrant over the surface b. completely remove the paint c. thoroughly wash the surface with a detergent d. wire brush the surface to roughen the smooth surface coating of paint 35. When using a post-emulsification penetrant, it is necessary to apply the emulsifier: a. before applying the penetrant b. after the water wash operation c. after the dwell time has elapsed d. after the develonment time has elapsed 36. When conducting a water-washable liquid penetrant test, the wet developer is applied: a. immediately after the penetrant has been applied b. immediately before the penetrant is applied c. after removal of the penetrant d. after removal of the emulsifier 37. The term used to describe the action of a particular developer in soaking up the penetrant in a discontinuity, so as to cause the maximum bleed-out of the liquid penetrant for increased contrast and sensitivity, is known as: a. blotting b. capillary action c. concentration d. attraction 38. Using a black light lamp with a cracked filter or without the filter in place can cause damage to human eyes because the lamp emits: a. black light b. ultraviolet light c. infrared light d. none of the above

39. The term used to define the period of time in which the test part is covered with penetrant is: a. waiting time b. soak time (drain time) c. penetration time (dwell time) d. bleed-in time 40. Usually, the most desirable method of removing excess water-washable penetrant after the dwell time is by using: a. a low pressure coarse water spray b. water and brush c. a solid stream of water d. water and clean rags 41. When conducting a liquid penetrant test using a post emulsifiable visible dye penetrant, the generally accepted method for applying the wet developer is by: a. brushing b. swabbing c. dipping d. spraying 42. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to liquid penetrant testing? a. this method can accurately measure the depth of a crack or discontinuity b. this method can be used for on-site testing of large parts c. this method can be used to find shallow surface discontinuities d. this method can be made more or less sensitive by using different penetrant materials 43. Which of the following discontinuities is most likely to be missed due to improper rinse techniques? a. a forging lap b. deep pitting c. shallow and broad discontinuities d. the rinse technique will not affect the detection of discontinuities 44. When conducting a fluorescent penetrant test, a commonly used technique for assuring that the excess penetrant has been removed prior to the application of a developer is to: a. blow compressed air over the surface b. chemically etch the surface c. blot the surface with absorbent paper d. scan the surface with a black light 45. Which of the following surface conditions could have a detrimental effect on a liquid penetrant test? a. a wet surface b. a rough weld c. an oily surface d. all of the above

46. Liquid penetrant testing is capable of detecting: a. intergranular stress corrosion cracking discontinuities b. discontinuities open to the surface c. subsurface discontinuities d. all of the above 47. Black light equipment is required when penetrant testing by: a. the.fluorescent penetrant method b. the visible dye penetrant method c. the non-fluorescent penetrant method d. all of the above 48. The term used to define the tendency of certain liquids to penetrate into small openings such as cracks or fissures is: a. saturation b. capillary action c. blotting d. wetting agent 49. Excess penetrant (all penetrant except that which is in discontinuities) is removed from the specimen: a. after the required penetrant dwell time has elapsed b. before the application of an emulsifier if a post-emulsifier penetrant is used c. by means of a steam cleaner d. only when water-washable penetrants are used 50. When using a post-emulsifiable penetrant, the emulsifier time should be: a. as long as the penetrant dwell time b. half the penetrant dwell time c. the same as the developer time d. only as long as necessary to remove the interfering background 51. When an inspector is working in a darkened area, he/she should become adjusted to the dark before inspecting parts. The generally accepted time period for becoming accustomed to the dark is: a. 1 minute b. 5 to 0 minutes c. 10 to 15 minutes d. no waiting period is necessary 52. When applying penetrant by dipping, heating the penetrant prior to dipping: a. will increase the sensitivity of the test b. will increase the capillary action of the penetrant c. will increase the stability of the penetrant d. is not generally recommended 53. A penetrant inspection cannot find: a. surface p orosity b. surface cracks c. an internal cavity d. a surface forging lap

54. All of the following materials can be tested by the usual liquid penetrant tests except: a. unglazed porous cerai b. titanium c. high alloy steel d. cast iron 55. Liquid penetrant testing can be used to detect: a. discontinuities 1.6 mm (0.06 in.) below the surface b. internal discontinuities c. discontinuities open to the surface d. all discontinuities 56. Which of the following are commonly accepted methods for applying penetrant? a. dipping the part in penetrant (dipping) b. pouring the penetrant over the test specimen (flowing) c. spraying the penetrant on the test specimen (spraying) d. all of the above 57. A solvent used to clean the surface of a test specimen must possess all of the following characteristics except that the: a. cleaner must be capable of dissolving oils and greases commonly found on the surface b. cleaner must not be flammable c. cleaner must be free of contaminants d. cleaner must leave a minimal residue on the surface 58. Which of the statements below best states the danger of sandblasting (without subsequent chemical etching) for cleaning surfaces to be penetrant tested? a. the discontinuities may be peened over and closed b. oil contaminants might be sealed in the discontinuities c. the sand used in the sandblasting operation may be forced into the discontinuity d. the sandblasting operation may introduce discontinuities 59. The penetrant applied to the surface of a test specimen: a. seeps into discontinuities b. is absorbed by discontinuities c. is drawn into discontinuities by capillary action d. is drawn into discontinuities by gravity 60. Which of the following statements concerning liquid penetrant testing is correct? a. fluorescent penetrants will produce red against white discontinuity indications b. non-fluorescent penetrants require the use of black lights c. fluorescent indications will be seen when exposed to black light d. nonfluorescent discontinuities glow in the dark for easy viewing and interpretation

61Even with the use of image intensifiers, fluoroscopy in industrial radiography has limited application because a) sensitivity is poorer than film b) no permanent record can be made c) it is not as safe as film radiography d) all of the above 62The smallest form in which a substance retains all of its physical properties is a (an) a) nucleus b) crystal c) molecule d) photon 63In its neutral state, the helium atom has _____ electrons. a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 64If it was doubly ionized, a helium atom would contain ______ electrons. a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 65The material used to provide the high degree of sheilding needed in an exposure device (gamma camera) is _________. a) lead b) zircoloy c) depleted uranium d) stainless steel 66Which of the following is not a means of detecting ionizing radiation a) LiF crystals b) calorimetry c) ionization chambers d) all of the above can be used as detectors 67Theromoluminescence dosimetry makes use of the phenomenon that absorbed radiation energy a) ionizes a gas b) causes ionization in solids c) excites electrons to higher energy states in isolators d) causes fluorescence

68Detection of neutron radiation is by a) thermoluminescence b) film badge c) indirect ionizations d) none of the above 69The best definition of radiation dosimetry is; a) radiation protection measurement b) the determination of the quantity of radiation which produces a given biological effect c) the determination of absorbed dose and exposure d) the selection of the correct isotope and film for a given exposure requirement 70If instead of a steady voltage applied to it at all times, an ion chamber was charged to a known voltage an allowed to discharge upon irradiation, it would be considered a a) direct reading dosimeter (DRD) b) Geiger-Muller counter c) proportional counter d) discharge tube 71Radioactive decay is a series of ________ events. a) random b) equally spaced c) interconnected d) controllable 72The half life of an unstable isotope can be altered by varying a) temperature b) pressure c) chemistry of surrounding atmosphere d) none of the above 73The electric charge associated with gamma rays is a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) -2 74A positron and an electron has similar a) mass b) charge c) both a and b d) none of the above

75When an isotope emits a gamma photon, the atomic number changes by a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) 2 76.The rate at which a charged particle deposits energy along its travel path as a result of collisions is termed a) ionization rate b) energy transfer factor c) biological equivalence factor d) linear energy transfer 77Flow of a charge in a conductor results in a) electric current b) capacitance c) x-rays d) voltage 78If an electric current is flowing in a conductor it induces ______ in the surrounding space. a) ions b) EM radiation c) a magnetic field d) voltage 79The practical unit of current in the SI (metric) system is a) volt b) ampere c) esu d) watt 80The movement of a charge of 1 Coulomb past a point in 1 second is equal to a) 1 watt b) 1 ampere c) 1 Farad d) 1 volt 81Cables connecting the x-ray tube to the transformer affect the machine by acting as a) heat sinks b) filters c) capacitors d) counter weights

82A combination of atoms having a specific structure or form is called a(an) a) element b) molecule c) crystal d) chain 83Visible light has a frequency that is a) higher than x-rays b) lower than radio waves c) higher than infra-red radiation d) none of the above 84In electromagnetic radiation, the distance between a point on one wave to the corresponding point on the subsequent wave is called the a) wavelength b) period c) wave velocity d) frequency 85The velocity of a gamma photon a) varies directly with wavelength b) varies inversely with frequency c) varies inversely with the square of frequency d) is a constant 86The angstrom unit () is a unit of a) mass b) length c) energy d)force