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of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38). Christian baptism is to be administered "in the name of Jesus." This means to invoke the name Jesus orally at water baptism.
Corinthians were baptized in (literally, "into") the name of Christ, not Paul, they belonged to Christ, not Paul. Paul was saying this: Jesus died for the whole church and the whole church was baptized in His name, so the church should unite in following Him. If the Corinthians were not baptized in Jesus' name, Paul's argument makes no sense. We conclude from these six passages that the apostolic church always baptized in Jesus' name. All believers - Jews, Samaritans, and Gentiles - received baptism in the name of Jesus.
the Old Testament were barred from the priesthood because they were not registered under their father's name and could not prove their genealogy (Ezra 2:61-62). However, we can claim our priesthood and our spiritual inheritance when we become "registered" in our Father's name. Jesus came in the Father's name, having received His name by inheritance (John 5:43; Hebrews 1:4), 50 Jesus is the name by which the Father has revealed Himself to us. The whole spiritual family of God has taken on the name of Jesus (Ephesians 3:14-15). Clearly, then, Jesus is the name we take at baptism. If we expect to become part of His family at baptism, we must take on His name.
When it comes to specific spiritual acts that require the invocation of God's name, however, this verse applies literally. We pray, cast out devils, and lay hands on the sick in the name of Jesus, all by uttering His name, and water baptism should be no exception. One who lives by the spirit of Colossians 3:17 as Christ's representative and follower will certainly be baptized in His name.
(Acts 3:16; 10:43). The sons of Sceva could not cast out a devil even though they used the name Jesus, because they did not have a personal relationship with Him or faith in Him (Acts 19:1417). That the name of Jesus cannot be taken as a magical incantation does not detract from the need to invoke the name orally. Peter prayed for the lame man by saying, "In the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth rise up and walk" (Acts 3:6). When the man walked, Peter explained, "And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong" (Acts 3:16). It takes the name of Jesus called in faith. We cannot separate inner faith from obedience to God's Word. At baptism, when we invoke the name Jesus in faith as His Word commands, He comes and remits our sins.
Further Research
For further discussion of the significance of the name of Jesus, see chapter three of The Oneness of God by David bernard. For further discussion of the full deity of Jesus Christ, see chapter four of the same book.
(1) Baptism in the name of Jesus does mean baptism with His power and authority, but the way to invoke His power and authority is to invoke His name in faith. The authority represented by a name is always invoked by actually using the proper name. All the discussion of power and authority cannot obscure one point: when we actually use a name at baptism it should be the name Jesus. (2) The Bible reveals that the name Jesus was orally invoked at baptism. Acts 22:16 says, "And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord." Here is a biblical command to call the Lord's name (Jesus) at baptism. Some argue that in this verse only the baptismal candidate called the name of Jesus, not the administrator. This is debatable, but even so the name Jesus was orally invoked. In general, the baptizer normally invokes the name, but the candidate may also call on the name of Jesus as well, for baptism's validity depends on the candidate's faith, not on the baptizer's faith. An oral calling did occur, for the Greek word rendered "calling" is epikaleomai, which means "to call over or "to invoke." This is the same word that describes Stephen's oral prayer to God: "And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit" (Acts 7:59). The same verb also appears in Acts 15:17: "the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord," and in James 2:7: "Do not they blaspheme that worthy name by the which ye are called?" Both passages imply a specific time when the name of Jesus was invoked over believers, which occurred at water baptism. Other translations of James 2:7 are as follows: "[Do] not they blaspheme the good name called on you?" (Interlinear Greek-English New Testament); "Do not they defame the noble name which hath been invoked upon you?" (Rotherham); "Is it not they who slander and blaspheme that precious name by which you are distinguished and called [The name of Christ invoked in baptism]?" (TAB). Thus the Bible states in one verse and indicates in several others that the name of Jesus is to be orally invoked at baptism. (3) The clear, common sense reading of the baptismal passages leads one to believe that "in the name of Jesus" is the baptismal formula. That is the natural, literal reading, and a person must use questionable and twisted methods of biblical interpretation to deny that the words mean what they appear to mean. If this is not a formula, it is strange that it appears so many times as if it were a formula without any explanation to the contrary. (4) In other situations, "in the name of Jesus" means orally uttering the name Jesus. Jesus told His disciples they would pray for the sick in His name (Mark 16:17-18), and James said we should pray for the sick "in the name of the Lord" (James 5:14). When Peter prayed for a lame man, he actually used the name, for he said, "In the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth rise up and walk" (Acts 3:6). Then he explained that the man was healed "by the name of Jesus" (Acts 3:16; 4:10). In other words, when the Early Church prayed for the sick in the name of Jesus, they actually uttered the name Jesus. Likewise, when the Early Church baptized in the name of Jesus, they actually uttered the name Jesus as part of the baptismal formula. (5) If "in the name of Jesus" does not represent a formula, then the Bible gives no formula for Christian baptism. The only other candidate for a baptismal formula would be
the wording of Matthew 28:19. However, if "in the name of Jesus" does not teach a formula, then neither does "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost ," for the grammatical structure is identical in both verses. If "in the name" means "by the authority of" without literally invoking a name, then neither verse gives a formula. However, we do not believe Jesus left us without guidance on such an important subject. In Chapter six, Water Baptism we demonstrated that water baptism is very important, so it is inconceivable that the Bible would not give adequate instructions as to its administration. If we do not have a formula, what distinguishes Christian baptism from heathen baptisms, Jewish proselyte baptism, or John's baptism? If there is no formula, or if the formula does not matter, why did Paul rebaptize John's disciples in the name of Jesus? No reputable scholar holds that baptismal formula is irrelevant or that the Bible gives no direction regarding a baptismal formula. Yet, if "in the name of" does not describe a formula, we have none. (6) Theologians and church historians recognize that the Book of Acts does give the baptismal formula of the Early Church. The Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics says with respect to baptism in the New Testament, "The formula used was 'in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ' or some synonymous phrase: there is no evidence for the use of the trine name." The Interpreter's Dictionary of the Bible states, "The evidence of Acts 2:38; 10:48 (cf. 8:16; 19:5), supported by Galatians 3:27, Romans 6:3, suggests that baptism in early Christianity was administered, not in the three-fold name, but 'in the name of Jesus Christ' or 'in the name of the Lord Jesus.'" Some argue that "in the name of Jesus" is not a formula since the various baptismal accounts use different descriptive phrases, such as "in the name of Jesus Christ," "in the name of the Lord Jesus," and "in the name of the Lord." However, all these phrases are equivalent, for they all describe the same name, which is Jesus. Lord and Christ are simply titles that distinguish the Lord Jesus Christ from any others who might have the name Jesus, but the unique name of the Son of God is Jesus. Even Matthew 28:19 describes the baptismal formula as being in the name of Jesus.
Matthew 28:19
This verse records the words of Jesus just before His ascension: "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." How do we reconcile this verse with all the later references to baptism in the name of Jesus, such as Acts 2:38? There are several views one could take. First, one could say the two verses describe two different baptismal formulas. If so, they are contradictory. One must be right and the other wrong, for there can be only one form of Christian baptism. Since God's plan of salvation in the New Testament church age is the same for all people, there cannot be two contradictory baptismal formulas. Since the Bible is the inerrant Word of God, it does not contradict itself. If the Bible gives two formulas, which is correct? Which do we trust? Matthew recorded Matthew 28:19 and also stood with Peter when he preached at Pentecost (Acts 2:14). The question, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" was addressed to all the apostles (Acts 2:37). If Peter had given an incorrect answer, Matthew
would have corrected him. Some people say, "I would rather obey the words of Jesus than the words of Peter." However, they must rot realize that Peter heard Jesus speak Matthew 28:19, that Matthew heard Peter speak Acts 2:38, and that only seven to ten days separated the two events. If Acts 2:38 contradicts Matthew 28:19, then the first spokesman of the church (Peter) was in doctrinal error, the other apostles (including Matthew) followed him in error, and we cannot trust anything the apostles preached or recorded. If that be the case, we might as well discard all the teachings of the New Testament. A second solution is to say that Matthew 28:19 describes a formula while Acts 2:38 does not, or vice versa. This is unsatisfactory because the same words "in the name of" appear in both verses. If one does not describe a formula, neither does the other. We have already seen many reasons why Acts 2:38 does describe a formula. A third answer is that neither Matthew 28:19 nor Acts 2:38 describes a formula, leaving us without any formula at all. This is very unlikely in light of the importance of baptism, the need to distinguish Christian baptism from other types of baptism, and the common sense reading of the passages in question. This leaves only one remaining possibility: namely, that Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38 both describe the same baptismal formula. If true, this solution is very attractive because it will both give a formula and preserve the harmony of Scripture. A basic biblical principle is that truth must be established by more than one witness (II Corinthians 13:1). Matthew 28:19 is the only verse in the Bible to use the baptismal phrase "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost," while many verses reiterate the baptismal phrase in Acts 2:38, "in the name of Jesus Christ." Apparently, Matthew 28:19 is the more indirect passage that we should harmonize and interpret in light of the others.
Mark
Go to whole world, preach to everyone Belief and baptism In my name Signs will follow
Luke
Preach among all nations Repentance and remission of sins In his name Wait for power from on high (the Spirit)
Matthew and Mark explicitly mention baptism. Since baptism is closely associated with remission of sin (Acts 2:38), Luke indirectly refers to it as well. Significantly, all three accounts describe a name. In each case, including Matthew, the name is singular. Mark and Luke both unquestionably describe the name Jesus. Apparently, Matthew 28:19 also describes the name Jesus.
my name, he shall teach you all things" (John 14:26). The Spirit is given and revealed through the name Jesus.
2:9-10), so it is not surprising that Matthew 28:19 refers to the name of Jesus. One can analyze the verse as follows. Who is the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost? Of course, this describes God. What is God's name? In the Old Testament, Jehovah (or Yahweh) was the unique name by which God distinguished Himself from all other gods (Isaiah 42:8). This analysis led a Presbyterian professor to say, "The 'name' not 'names' of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit in which we are to be baptized, is to be understood as Jahweh, the name of the Triune God." However, the supreme name of God in the New Testament is not Jehovah but Jesus. Jesus supersedes all other names and specifically includes Jehovah within its meaning, since Jesus literally means "JehovahSavior" or "Jehovah is Salvation." In the Book of Revelation the servants of "God and the Lamb" shall have "his name" (singular) in their foreheads (Revelation 22:3-4). The name of the Lamb is Jesus, so the name of God is Jesus. Many twentieth-century evangelicals have recognized at least partially the significance of Jesus' name. Essex Kenyon held that Jesus was the revealed name of God in the New Testament and the family name of God. He taught that using the name gives the Christian legal power of attorney in prayer and applies Christ's redemptive benefits in the present. William Phillips Hall, President of the American Tract Society of New York, undertook a study of the name of God. In 1929 he published a booklet entitled Remarkable Biblical Discovery or "The Name of God" According to the Scriptures. His conclusion: The Name of the Lord Jesus Christ is the full revelation of God and the apostles correctly understood and obeyed Matthew 28:19 by invoking this Name. Furthermore, the words of Matthew 25:19 "were never used in baptism by the original apostles, or by the Church during the early days of its existence" and "all baptisms of those early days were commanded to be, or stated to have been, performed in, or with the invocation of, the Name of Lord Jesus Christ."
In recent years, a prominent independent pastor named James Beall wrote a book on baptism called Rise to Newness of Life, which advocates baptism in Jesus' name while retaining trinitarian doctrine. See chapter ten - The Witness in Church History for a list of other trinitarians today who baptize in Jesus' name. As already noted, many trinitarian scholars such as W. E. Vine, Matthew Henry, and James Buswell have recognized the significance of the singular in Matthew 28:19 although apparently not associating it with baptism in the name of Jesus. We should also note in passing that there is no reason to use a trinitarian baptismal formula to uphold the erroneous doctrine of the trinity. The word trinity never appears in Scripture, and the Bible always emphasizes that God is one, not three. Furthermore, Jesus is the Father (Isaiah 9:6), the Son (Matthew 1:21), and the Holy Ghost (II Corinthians 3:17-18). All the fulness of the Godhead dwells in Christ bodily (Colossians 2:9). Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are simply three different manifestations of the one God who came in flesh as Jesus. There is no reason, then, to insist on a trinitarian baptismal formula when the Bible does not teach the modern doctrine of trinitarianism. (For a full discussion of the biblical doctrine of one God and the doctrine of the trinity, see The Oneness of God by David Bernard. Especially chapter six for an explanation of the biblical meanings of the terms Father, Son, and Holy Ghost.)
original formula. Church historians generally agree that Jesus' name was the older formula and that the trine formula was only gradually adopted.
knowledge but yet submit to the biblical formula out of faith and obedience; it is quite another thing to disregard the teaching of Scripture and use a man-made formula that confesses a false doctrinal system. Interestingly, Roman Catholics have traditionally taught that baptism is essential to salvation and that pronouncement of the words "in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost" is necessary to its validity. Simply put, the Bible teaches no baptismal formula other than one using the name Jesus. If any other formula will suffice, the Bible does not tell us. If we limit ourselves to the scriptural record, we must draw two conclusions: (1) Christian baptism should be performed in the name of Jesus, which means by His power and authority, by faith in Him, and by orally invoking His name; (2) No other baptismal formula has biblical validity.
Conclusion
In conclusion, below are the biblical reasons for baptism in the name of Jesus. (1) The Bible gives this formula and no other.
(a) Matthew 28:19 describes this formula. (b) The apostolic church adhered to this formula (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5; 22:16; I Corinthians 1:13).
(2) Baptism is a burial with Christ and no one else (Romans 6:4; Colossians 2:12). (3) Baptism is a personal identification with Christ (Romans 6:3; Galatians 3:27), and His name identifies us as His possession. (4) At baptism we take on our new family name, as part of our new birth, adoption, and spiritual circumcision. The name God's spiritual family bears is Jesus (Ephesians 3:1415). (5) Baptism is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38), and Jesus is the only name that remits sin (Acts 10:43). (6) The name of Jesus represents all the power and authority of God (Matthew 28:18; Acts 4:7, 10). When we invoke His name in faith, that power and authority become available to us (Acts 3:6,16). (7) Everything we do in word or deed should be done in the name of Jesus (Colossians 3:17), and baptism is both word and deed. (8) The name of Jesus is the highest name known to man, and everyone must bow to that name (Philippians 2:9-11). (9) Baptism is part of our salvation, and Jesus is the only saving name (Acts 4:12).
(10) Baptism in Jesus' name manifests complete faith in Jesus as our only Savior and our only access to God (John 14:6-11). (11) It signifies belief that the fulness of the Godhead is manifested in Jesus (Colossians 2:9). (12) Jesus is the name by which God has revealed Himself in the New Testament (Matthew 1:21; John 5:43; 14:26). (13) Baptism in the name of Jesus demonstrates reverence for and obedience to the Word of God over and above human tradition. In view of all the important things baptism in Jesus' name signifies, why would anyone refuse to use the name? Why would anyone hesitate to take on the name of the One who died for them and be identified publicly with Him? Why would anyone reject the only saving name - the name that is above every name?