LIC Assistant Administrative Officers Exam.

, 2009 Solved Papers

English Language
(Held on 7-6-2009) Directions(Q. 15) Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence meaningfully. 1. He went to the library to find that it was closed. (A) seldom (B) never (C) only (D) solely Ans : (C) 2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so that they can disappear at any moment. (A) tentative (B) tenuous (C) consistent (D) restrictive Ans : (B) 3. Her reaction to his proposal was . She rejected it . (A) inevitablevehemently (B) subtleviolently (C) cleverabruptly (D) sympatheticangrily Ans : (A)

4. His directions misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take.

(A) complicated (B) ambiguous (C) narrow (D) fantastic Ans : (B) 5. It would be difficult for one so to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste, race and religion. (A) emotional (B) democratic (C) intolerant (D) liberal Ans : (C) Directions(Q. 610) In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not accepted in standard English. Identify that part and mark its letter (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your as answer. 6. Gaze for a thing (A) that are not (B) available easily (C) in the country is a universal phenomenon. (D) Ans : (B) 7. It is foolish to be expecting (A) one person to be like another (B) person, for (C) each individual is born (D) with his characteristics traits. Ans : (A) 8. The tendency to believe (A) that (B) man is inherently dishonest is something (C) that will be decried. (D) Ans : (D) 9. I have not come across very (A) few (B) people who (C) think of thing beyond (D) their daily work. Ans : (B) 10. He managed to board (A) the running train (B) but all his luggages (C) was (D) left on the station. Ans : (C) Directions(Q. 1115) Select the pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalised words are related to each other. 11. SCALES : JUSTICE : : (A) Weights : Measures (B) Laws : Courts (C) Torch : Liberty (D) Launch : Peace

Ans : (C) 12. HOBBLE : WALK : : (A) Gallop : Run (B) Stammer : Speak (C) Stumble : Fall (D) Sniff : Smell Ans : (B) 13. FRAYED : FABRIC : : (A) Watered : Lawn (B) Renovated : Building (C) Thawed : Ice (D) Worn : Nerves Ans : (D) 14. YOLK : EGG : : (A) Rind : Melon (B) Nucleus : Cell (C) Stalk : Corn (D) Web : Spider Ans : (B) 15. BAMBOO : SHOOT : : (A) Bean : Sprout (B) Pepper : Corn (C) Oak : Tree (D) Holly : Sprig Ans : (A) Directions(Q. 1620) For each of the following capitalized words, four words or phrases are given of which only one is synonymous with the given word. Select the synonym. 16. DEFER (A) Respect (B) Dislike (C) Postpone (D) Disrespect Ans : (C) 17. DUBIOUS (A) Clear (B) Undoubtedly (C) Hesitant (D) Doubtful Ans : (D)

18. COARSE (A) Impolite (B) Rough (C) Polished (D) Improper Ans : (B) 19. PROXIMITY (A) Nearness (B) Aloofness (C) Completely (D) Nearly Ans : (A) 20. ABSTAIN (A) Stay (B) Tempt (C) Refrain (D) Pardon Ans : (C) Directions(Q. 2125) Fill in blanks by selecting appropriate alternative. 21. I met him only a week . (A) back (B) past (C) ago (D) previous Ans : (C) 22. Lovey asked me . (A) why are you angry ? (B) why I am angry ? (C) why I was angry ? (D) why was I angry ? Ans : (C) 23. Even after repeated warnings, he to office on time. (A) never come (B) never comes (C) is never coming (D) have never come Ans : (B) 24. He told his wife that from Germany.

(A) he will like to visit France (B) he was liking to visit France (C) he would like to visit France (D) he is liking to visit France Ans : (C) 25. Some people can even with murder. (A) get on (B) get out (C) get off (D) get away Ans : (D) Directions(Q. 2630) Choose the correct antonym from the choises for each of the following capitalised words 26. INDIFFERENT (A) Curious (B) Varied (C) Alike (D) Uniform Ans : (A) 27. DISCREET (A) Wise (B) Diplomatic (C) Prudent (D) Careless Ans : (D) 28. OBSOLETE (A) Free (B) Ancient (C) Current (D) Cultured Ans : (C) 29. RATIONAL (A) Sound (B) Insane (C) Judicious (D) Sensible Ans : (B) 30. SCEPTICAL (A) Doubtful

(B) Convinced (C) Questioning (D) Cinic Ans : (B)

Tuesday, December 21, 2010

LIC Assistant Administrative Officers Exam., 2009 Solved Paper

Reasoning Ability
(Exam Held on 07-06-2009) Directions(Q. 15) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following >> Each committee must have exactly three members. >> No person can serve on more than one committee. >> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee. >> C and D must serve on the same committee. >> A and B cannot serve on the same committee. >> E cannot serve on the same committee as I. >> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H. 1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ? (A) A (B) D (C) E (D) F Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ? (A) A, B, E (B) A, D, G (C) C, H, E (D) F, I, B Ans : (D) 3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ? 1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee. 2. E is appointed to the Games Committee. 3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee. (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only Ans : (A)

4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ? 1. A 2. G 3. I (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only Ans : (C) 5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ? (A) F is on the Entertainment Committee (B) C is on the Games Committee (C) G is on the Food Service Committee (D) F is on the Games Committee Ans : (A) Directions(Q. 610) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word 6. AYDOT (A) A

(B) D (C) T (D) Y Ans : (D) 7. ILCEOP (A) C (B) E (C) L (D) O Ans : (B) 8. CAPCET (A) A (B) C (C) P (D) T Ans : (D) 9. VISERL (A) E (B) L (C) R (D) S Ans : (C) 10. ERVSECI (A) E (B) I (C) R (D) S Ans : (A) Directions(Q. 1115) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet. 11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ? (A) Forest (B) Weight (C) Gravitation (D) Ocean Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ? (A) Mail (B) Letter-box (C) Stamp (D) Envelope Ans : (D) 13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to (A) Loss (B) Surplus (C) Balance (D) Sale Ans : (A) 14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to (A) Calculate (B) Count (C) Weigh (D) Measurement Ans : (B) 15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to (A) Precaution (B) Disaster (C) Risk (D) Danger Ans : (D) 16. Find the oddman out (A) MOndAy (B) tUESdAy (C) WEdNESdAy (D) thUrSdAy Ans : (B) 17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (A) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK (B) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ (C) OVERSEAS : TCHWWKCW (D) BANKING : HPLOSGI

Ans : (B) 18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ? (A) PROFIT : RPQCKR (B) OTHERS : QRJCTQ (C) LEGUME : NCISOC (D) CANKER : EYPIGP Ans : (A) 19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one (A) GWOURV (B) LZKMSU (C) JOEHNP (D) SFXPMG Ans : (D) 20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one (A) IW (B) MS (C) FT (D) JU Ans : (D) Directions(Q. 2125) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series 21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H (A) P 1485 S (B) R 180 M (C) S 198 I (D) T 206 K Ans : (B) 22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF (A) 12 PX (B) 6 RI (C) 9 LV (D) 8 TQ Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16 (A) V 4 (B) K 7 (C) T 13 (D) G 15 Ans : (C) 24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ? (A) A 12 L (B) I 18 X (C) Z 25 D (D) U 20 Q Ans : (C) 25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15 (A) GKV 5 (B) KPV 8 (C) PVZ 9 (D) KPU 11 Ans : (B) 26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ? (A) M (B) N (C) Q (D) P Ans : (B) 27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ? (A) L (B) O (C) M (D) N Ans : (D) 28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ? MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK

(A) LACK (B) MEET (C) ROAD (D) DEAF Ans : (C) 29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ? (A) HKNGSW (B) EIMQVZ (C) SUXADF (D) RVZDHL Ans : (D) 30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order (A) MGVFK (B) PJXHM (C) EQZFI (D) GWIQU Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 3135) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently. 31. D U E L (A) g (B) i (C) p (D) j Ans : (C) 32. P I T Y (A) g (B) b (C) r (D) k Ans : (B)

33. R I N G (A) it (B) rk (C) mp (D) ti Ans : (A) 34. G O A L (A) c (B) q (C) e (D) j Ans : (C) 35. S L A P (A) dx (B) ms (C) vp (D) io Ans : (C) Directions(Q. 3640) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ 36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ? (A) 4, 3 (B) 6, 2 (C) 8, 1 (D) 10, 0 Ans : (A) 37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be , whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be (A) L, x (B) j, x (C) U, (11) (D) x, L

Ans : (A) 38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ? (A) hy (B) Hy (C) sQ (D) Sq Ans : (C) 39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) azj (B) emb (C) qdf (D) xtk Ans : (B) 40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a consonant ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 41 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning I. P @ Q means add P to Q; II. P & Q means subtract Q from P; III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q. Now study the given information and answer the question following it Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together. 41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ? (A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20) (B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20) (C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20)

(D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20) Ans : (C) 42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ? (A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4 (B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3 (C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5 (D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20) Ans : (D) 43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ? (A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4 (B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20) (C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5 (D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3 Ans : (B) 44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ? (A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20) (B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5 (C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4 (D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3 Ans : (B) 45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ? (A) B and C travel in opposite directions (B) C travels towards West (C) D travels towards North (D) B and C travel in the same direction Ans : (D) 46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ? (A) North (B) East (C) South (D) West

Ans : (A) 47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now ? (A) East or West (B) North or West (C) South or West (D) North or South Ans : (D) 48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (D) 49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ? (A) 32 (B) 31 (C) 33 (D) 30 Ans : (A) 50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row (A) 61 (B) 62 (C) 63 (D) 64 Ans : (C) 51. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ? (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 17 (D) 33 Ans : (B)

52. Choose the odd numeral pair in the following (A) 140 45 (B) 120 35 (C) 110 35 (D) 80 25 Ans : (B) 53. Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set Given set (246, 257, 358) (A) (145, 235, 325) (B) (143, 253, 246) (C) (273, 365, 367) (D) (233, 343, 345) Ans : (A) 54. Choose the one which is different from the rest (A) 248 (B) 326 (C) 392 (D) 414 Ans : (C) 55. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) 156 (B) 152 (C) 72 (D) 42 Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 5660) In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer (A) If only assumption I is implicit; (B) If only assumption II is implicit; (C) If neither I nor II is implicit; and (D) If both I and II are implicit. 56. StatementTo achieve economic development, people should work hard. Assumptions :

I. Achieving economic development is desirable. II. Working hard is not impossible. Ans : (D) 57. StatementHe is too industrious to be poor. Assumptions :I. Very industrious people also can be poor. II. Very lazy people also can be rich. Ans : (C) 58. StatementVisitors may use lift at their own risk. Assumptions :I. Using lift is not always safe. II. Visitors do not want to use lift. Ans : (A) 59. StatementThis book is so designed that even a layman can easily learn science in the absence of a teacher. Assumptions :I. Learning science by everybody is desirable. II. A layman generally finds it difficult to learn science on his own. Ans : (B) 60. StatementAlthough the rates of this hotel are comparable with other hotels, the amenities provided here are far superior. Assumptions :I. Rates are independent of amenities provided. II. Rates are dependent on amenities provided. Ans : (C)

Wednesday, January 12, 2011

Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010

General Awareness
(Held on 31-10-2010)

1. The Business Correspondence Model being adopted by the banks provides Banking facilities to which of the following ? (A) Only Corporate borrowers (B) Only Weaker sections the society and people of small villages (C) Only those who are taking housing loans (D) All (A), (B) and (C) above (E) None of these Ans : (B) 2. The concept of Carbon Credit is associated with which of the following areas ? (A) Protection of environment (B) Women empowerment (C) Development of rural infrastructure (D) Development of coal mines (E) None of these Ans : (A) 3. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the achievements of the PDS uptill now, owing to which Government wants to further improve it ? [Pick up correct statement(s).] 1. After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive. 2. A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in overcoming the drought. 3. Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct (E) None of these Ans : (B) 4. Global Micro Credit Summit-2011 will be organized in which of the following countries ? (A) Britain (B) South Africa (C) Spain (D) Italy (E) None of these Ans : (C) 5. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term ? (A) Small Help Groups

(B) Self Help Groups (C) Small Hope in Growths (D) Self Hope Groups (E) None of these Ans : (B) 6. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries, which of the following is not considered among them ? (A) Petroleum (B) Automobile (C) Mining (D) Steel (E) Cement Ans : (B) 7. Which of the following agencies/organizations in India maintains the Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently ? (A) Confederation of Industries in India (CII) (B) Indian Banks Association (IBA) (C) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) (D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (E) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Ans : (D) 8. As per recent newspaper reports UK based Cairn Energy is in the process of selling its stake to which one of the following companies of Indian base ? (A) ONGC Videsh (B) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd. (C) Vedanta Resources (D) Posco India (E) None of these Ans : (C) 9. Which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ? (A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill (B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill (C) Companies Act Bill (D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill (E) Finance Bill 2010-11 Ans : (A)

10. Under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS), the benefits are available to the people having minimum age of . (A) 50 years (B) 55 years (C) 65 years (D) 60 years (E) 70 years Ans : (C)

11. Mr. Katsuya Okada who was on a visit to India few months back is the Foreign Minister of (A) South Korea (B) Myanmar (C) Japan (D) Thailand (E) None of these Ans : (C) 12. Govt. of India has decided to review its Foreign Direct Investment Rules twice in a year. This will be done from (A) 2015 (B) 2012 (C) 2014 (D) 2011 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 13. Many times we read about Hawala transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts ? (A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (B) Banking Regulation Act(C) Financial action Task Force Act (D) Foreign Exchange Management Act (E) None of these Ans : (D) 14. India recently reviewed its trade relation policy with Russia. What are the main exports from India to Russia ? 1. Pharmaceuticals 2. Apparel and Clothing 3. Tea and Coffee (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) All 1, 2 and 3(D) Only 2 and 3

(E) Only 1 and 2 Ans : (A) 15. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in India. What is the full form of DIPP ? (A) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (B) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions (C) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions (D) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity (E) None of these Ans : (A) 16. Israel and Palestinians open talks was the headline in some major newspapers. As we all know both the nations were not coming for the talks since 2008. Which of the following is the main dispute between these two nations ? (A) Membership of World Trade Organisation (B) Membership of G-20 (C) Selecting Syria, one of the major trade partners by Israel. Palestine is dead against it (D) Redefining the boundaries as a major glacier between them has erased the same (E) None of these Ans : (E) 17. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial newspapers. Which of the following is not included in Asian Market ? (A) Japan (B) China (C) Hong Kong (D) South Korea (E) Brazil Ans : (E) 18. As per the figures released by the World Bank, which of the following countries was the largest recipient of loans from the World Bank during 2009-10 ? (A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan(C) Brazil (D) China (E) India Ans : (E) 19. Which of the following has been fixed as the target for fiscal deficit 2010-11 ? (In terms of percentage of GDP) (A) 3% (B) 35%

(C) 4% (D) 5% (E) 55%Ans : (D) 20. As per news in various newspapers kfw Group released another instalment of its financial aid to India. kfw is an organization/bank based in (A) France (B) Japan (C) Italy (D) China (E) Germany Ans : (E) 21. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defence goods to India and has replaced Russia ? (A) Canada (B) USA (C) Israel (D) France (E) None of these Ans : (C) 22. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of the following is not allowed ? (A) White cement (B) Plastic goods (C) Cigarette and Cigars(D) Polythene bags (E) Pesticides Ans : (C) 23. The Mixed Double of which of the following Lawn Tennis tournaments was won by Leander Paes along with Cara Black in 2010 ? (A) Wimbledon (B) US Open (C) Australia Open (D) Dubai Open (E) None of theseAns : (C) 24. Which of the following is not amongst the Prime Ministers new 15 point programme ? (A) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities (B) Modernizing Madarsa Education (C) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities

(D) Free train journey for unemployed youths (E) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots Ans : (D) 25. The Summit of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in June in which of the following places ?(A) Shanghai (B) Moscow (C) Tashkent (D) Astana (E) None of these Ans : (C) 26. Indias political relations with its neighbouring countries are a critical part of its . (A) Industrial policy (B) Trade policy (C) Foreign policy (D) Development policy (E) None of theseAns : (C) 27. Which of the following organizations of Indian Origin is helping Sri Lanka in rehabilitation of its war widows ? (A) Khadi and Village Commission (B) SEWA (C) Action for Food Production (D) Adhar (E) Aasha Ans : (B) 28. Who amongst the following became the first Cricketer to take 800 wickets in Test Cricket ? (A) Kumar Sangakkara (B) Saqlain Mustaq (C) Anil Kumble (D) Muttiah Murlitharan (E) None of these Ans : (D) 29. Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIPs ? (A) IRDA (B) RBI (C) AMFI(D) FRBI (E) None of these Ans : (A)

30. The 16th SAARC Summit was organized in Thimpu. The declaration of the Summit was named as (A) Towards Green and Happy South Asia (B) Silver Jubilee of SAARC (C) Let us meet again in Delhi (D) SAARC : The Future of South Asia (E) None of these Ans : (B) 31. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the Govt. of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to make them self dependent ? (A) Apnalaya (B) Prayas (C) Abhiyogyata (D) Swadhar (E) SwawlambanAns : (D) 32. Which of the following terms is not used in the game of Cricket ? (A) Doosra (B) Century(C) Bouncer (D) Love (E) Ashes Ans : (D) 33. Which of the following countries won the Asia Cup Cricket Tournament 2010 held in Sri Lanka ? (A) Sri Lanka (B) India (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (E) None of these Ans : (B) 34. Mr. James Alix Michael who was on a visit to India recently is the President of (A) Australia (B) New Zealand (C) Colombia (D) Seychelles (E) None of theseAns : (D) 35. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a (A) Badminton player (B) Golf player (C) Lawn Tennis player

(D) Table Tennis player (E) Cricket player Ans : (A) 36. Which of the following is not a financial term ? (A) Acid Test(B) Double Fault (C) Gross Profit (D) Depreciation (E) Cash flow Ans : (A) 37. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in between is known as (A) Double Deflation (B) Deflation (C) Deep Recession (D) Double Dip Recession (E) None of theseAns : (A) 38. Saina Nehwal was in Paris recently to play in World Championship. She lost her match against whom amongst the following players ? (A) Le Chong Wei (B) Shixian Wang (C) Taufik Hidayut (D) Jung Eun (E) None of these Ans : (E) 39. Union Cabinet recently cleared 15000 crore Sukhoi deal. Sukhoi is (A) Battle tank (B) Fighter plane (C) Submarine (D) Radar system (E) None of these Ans : (B) 40. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award-2010 announced recently ? (A) Pankaj Adwani (B) Leander Paes(C) Sania Mirza (D) M. S. Dhoni (E) None of these

Ans : (C) 41. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ? (A) Balance of Payment (B) Call Money (C) National Debt (D) Elasticity of Demand (E) Boyles law Ans : (E) 42. Which of the following ministries /departments operates the Village Grain Banks Schemes ? (A) Ministry of Tribal Welfare (B) Department of Food and Public Distribution (C) Department of Social Welfare (D) Ministry of Forest (E) None of these Ans : (B) 43. Which of the following countries recently conducted general election and became the first Parliamentary Democracy of Central Asia ? (A) Turkmenistan (B) Uzbekistan(C) Kyrgyzstan (D) Kazakhstan (E) None of these Ans : (C) 44. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ? (A) The Golden Gate (B) Journey to Ithaca (C) Fore on the Mountain (D) The inheritance of Loss (E) 2 States : The Story of My Marriage Ans : (E) 45. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) ? (A) Fiji (B) Cuba (C) Sri Lanka (D) Colombia (E) Egypt Ans : (A) 46. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates ? (A) 6th August

(B) 16th August (C) 6th September(D) 16th September (E) 26th July Ans : (A) 47. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Human Rights Commission of India at present ? (A) Prof. M. S. Swaminathan (B) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan (C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan (D) Justice P. V. Reddi (E) None of these Ans : (B) 48. Booker Prize is given in the field of (A) Literature (B) Social service (C) Films (D) Science (E) Sports Ans : (A) 49. Which of the following games/sports is not included in the list of Commonwealth Games 2010 ? (A) Table Tennis (B) Hockey (C) Weight lifting(D) Golf (E) Boxing Ans : (D) 50. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with (A) Education (B) Social service (C) Journalism (D) Sports (E) Films Ans : (D)

I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Exam., 2010

General and Financial Awareness

(Held on 14-11-2010) 1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is (A) 5% (B) 55% (C) 6% (D) 65% (E) None of these Ans : (C) 2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is (A) to give boost to bank deposits (B) to safeguard banks advances (C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature (D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax (E) None of these Ans : (C) 3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to (A) 50% under section 80G (B) 75% under section 80G (C) 100% under section 80 G (D) 100% under section 88 (E) No exemption is available Ans : (C) 4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ? (A) Disbursal of small value credit (B) Collection of small value deposits (C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products (D) All the three above (E) Only (B) and (C) above Ans : (E) 5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds (A) Rs. 3,000

(B) Rs. 5,000 (C) Rs. 10,000 (D) Rs. 15,000 (E) There is no such provision Ans : (B) 6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to (A) Sanction of loans (B) Enhancement of loan limits (C) Recovery of loans (D) All the above (E) None of above Ans : (C) 7. MSMED Act is applicable to (A) Smalls enterprises only (B) Medium enterprises only (C) Micro enterprises only (D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises (E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity Ans : (D) 8. Money Laundering refers to (A) Conversion of assets into cash (B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained (C) Conversion of cash into gold (D) Conversion of gold into cash (E) None of the above Ans : (B) 9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of (A) one year (B) one month (C) two years (D) five years (E) None of these Ans : (E) 10. PPF account is opened for a period of (A) 5 years (B) 10 years (C) 15 years (D) 20 years (E) None of these Ans : (C)

11. Yuan is the currency of (A) Japan (B) China (C) Indonesia (D) Myanmar (E) None of these Ans : (B) 12. National savings certificate matures at the end of (A) Six years (B) Three years (C) Six and half years (D) Five years (E) Five and half years Ans : (A) 13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of (A) 5 years (B) 3 years (C) 10 years (D) 20 years (E) Any number of years Ans : (E) 14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by (A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) FEDAI (D) BCSBI (E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises Ans : (E) 15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ? (A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery (B) No interest earning for banks (C) Works like a normal withdrawal (D) All the above (E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder Ans : (E) 16. IFRS stands for (A) International Financial Reporting standards (B) Indian Financial Rating Standards (C) International Financial Rating Standards

(D) All the three above (E) None of the above Ans : (A) 17. What is the present Repo Rate ? (A) 5% (B) 55% (C) 6% (D) 65% (E) None of these Ans : (E) 18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as (A) Derivatives (B) Securitisation (C) Leasing (D) Factoring (E) Venture Capital Funding Ans : (A) 19. What is the full form of ASBA ? (A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount (B) Application supported by Blocked Amount (C) Application supported by Bank Amount (D) Allotment supported by Bank Account (E) None of the above Ans : (B) 20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to (A) Inject liquidity (B) Absorb liquidity (C) Increase the liquidity with banking system (D) Keep the liquidity at one level (E) None of the above Ans : (D) 21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ? (A) A Highway project (B) Construction of Educational Institution (C) Construction of Hospital (D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines (E) None of the above Ans : (E) 22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of

(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Ministry of Finance (C) Indian Banks Association (D) Financial Action Task Force (E) Ministry of Home affairs Ans : (A) 23. The term Power of Attorney refers to (A) Power of a person (B) An authority to operate a Bank account (C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person (D) All of the above (E) None of the above Ans : (C) 24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ? (A) Rs. 50 (B) Rs. 100 (C) Rs. 200 (D) Rs. 500 (E) It is at the discretion of each Bank Ans : (B) 25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ? (A) Mumbai (B) Chennai (C) Kolkata (D) New Delhi (E) All the above places Ans : (D) 26. Bridge loans refer to (A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges (B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers (C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions (D) All of the above (E) None of the above Ans : (C) 27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by (A) Payee (B) Holder (C) Purchaser (D) All of these

(E) None of these Ans : (A) 28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ? (A) The Chairman of concerned Bank (B) The Deputy Governor RBI (C) Governor of RBI (D) Finance Minister (E) None of the above Ans : (B) 29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ? (A) To boost their lending capacity (B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms (C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio (D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks (E) None of these Ans : (A) 30. What is monetary policy transmission ? (A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank (B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government (C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy (D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy (E) None of these Ans : (C) 31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ? (A) Tightening of monetary policy (B) Stimulus for agriculture sector (C) Concessions for foreign investment (D) Introduction of GST (E) None of these Ans : (A) 32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for (A) Customer (B) Members Establishments (C) Banks (D) All the above (E) None of the above Ans : (D)

33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ? (A) RBI Act (B) Banking Regulation Act (C) Indian Companies Act (D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (E) None of these Ans : (D) 34. Bancassurance is (A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits (B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks (C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product (D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies (E) None of the above Ans : (C) 35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter S denotes (A) Separate (B) Small (C) Special (D) Savings (E) None of these Ans : (A) 36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ? (A) CIBIL (B) SEBI (C) RBI (D) CRISIL (E) IBA Ans : (A) 37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as (A) Personal Loans (B) Priority Sector Loan (C) Business Loan (D) Corporate Loan (E) None of these Ans : (B) 38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ? (A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) NABARD

(D) IBA (E) None of these Ans : (A) 39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called (A) Consumption loan (B) White goods loan (C) Consumer durable loan (D) All the above (E) None of the above Ans : (C) 40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ? (A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas (B) To provide employment to educated youth (C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes (D) To create more valuable rural assets (E) None of these Ans : (A) 41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Eight (E) Six Ans : (B) 42. With which one of the following Channel Financing is associated ? (A) Retail Lending (B) Corporate Lending (C) SME Lending (D) Supply Chain Finance (E) None of these Ans : (D) 43. Expand the term FRBM (A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management (B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management (C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management (D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (E) None of these Ans : (D) 44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his

grievance from the bank within how many days ? (A) 10 days (B) 20 days (C) 8 days (D) 30 days (E) 60 days Ans : (D) 45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ? (A) Spain (B) Turkey (C) Portugal (D) Greece (E) Finland Ans : (D) 46. For achieving 85 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ? (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 40 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ? (A) China (B) India (C) Brazil (D) Russia (E) None of these Ans : (A) 48. Which one of the following has given Aadhaar as its new brand name ? (A) UIDAI (B) Sports Ministry, GOI (C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI (D) NHAI (E) None of these Ans : (A) 49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ? 1. Good Health Service 2. Freedom from illiteracy

3. Optimum Sex Ratio (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) Only 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ? (A) 40 (B) 45 (C) 5 (D) 333 (E) None of these Ans : (E)

Monday, January 31, 2011

FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE (Accounts) EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at (A) Cost price (B) Market price (C) Cost or market price which ever is higher (D) Cost or market price which ever is lower Ans. (D) 2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of (A) Over statement of assets (B) Understatement of assets

(C) Understatement of liabilities (D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts Ans. (B) 3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to (A) Accrual concept (B) Entity concept (C) Dual aspect concept (D) Money measurement concept Ans. (D) 4. Balance in Nazranas a/c in the books of lessee is shown in (A) Landlords a/c (B) P&L a/c (C) Balance sheet assets side (D) Balance sheet liabilities side Ans. (C) 5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on (A) Cash price of the asset (B) Hire purchase price of the asset (C) Higher of the two (D) Lower of the two Ans. (A) 6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under (A) Asset accrued method (B) Total cash price method (C) Any of the two methods (D) None of these Ans. (C) 7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be- (A) Rs. 16667 (B) Rs. 20000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs. 33333 Ans. (B) 8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at (A) Opening rate of exchange (B) Closing rate of exchange (C) Average rate of exchange (D) Rate applicable to debtors Ans. (B)

9. If goods are transferred from X department to Y department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in Y department will be (A) Rs. 4000 (B) Rs. 5000 (C) Rs. 6000 (D) Rs. 3333 Ans. (A) 10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of (A) Rs. 10000 (B) Rs.6000 (C) Rs. 4000 (D) None of the above Ans. (C) 11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum (A) 5 partners (B) 10 partners (C) 20 partners (D) Any number of partners Ans. (B) 12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner X. If X withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be (A) Debited to his capital a/c (B) Credited to his drawing a/c (C) Credited to his current a/c (D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c Ans. (A) 13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm (A) Interest at 6% p.a. (B) Interest at 12% p.a. (C) Interest at 15% p.a. (D) No interest Ans. (A) 14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be (A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2 (B) 4: 3 : 2: 1 (C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2 (D) None of the above Ans. (B)

15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be (A) 10:6:4 (B) 6:10:4 (C) 8:8:4 (D) 9:7:4 Ans. (D) 16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill (A) Rs.21000 (B) Rs.9000 (C) Rs. 15000 (D) Rs. 6000 Ans. (D) 17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of (A) Rs. 500000 (C) Rs. 800000 (B) Rs.600000 (D) Rs. 375000 Ans. (A) 18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c (A) Passage money (B) Freight (C) Primage (D) Address commission Ans. (D) 19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f. (A) 1st April 1949 (B) 1st April 1991 (C) 1st April 1992 (D) 1st April 1956 Ans. (C) 20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in (A) Revenue Account (B) Balance Sheet (C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet (D) None of the above Ans. (B)

21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of (A) Realisation (B) Consistency (C) Conservatism (D) None of the above Ans. (A) 22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in (A) Lowering the profit (B) Raising the profit (C) Raising the tax liability (D) None of the above Ans. (B) 23. Given, Total assets turnover 4 Net Profits 10% Total Assets Rs. 50000 Net profit will be (A) Rs. 15000 (B) Rs. 10000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs.20000 Ans. (D) 24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to(A) Board of directors (B) Members (C) Managing director (D) Company secretary Ans. (B) 25. Bonus shares means shares issued to (A) Workers (B) Existing equity shareholders (C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend (D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest Ans. (B) 26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification? (A) Stock (B) Plant (C) Loose tools (D) Goodwill Ans. (D)

27. Cash from operations is equal to (A) Net profit + increase in current assets (B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities (C) Profit from operation Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities (D) Fund from operation Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities Ans. (C) 28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firms capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be(A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs. 20000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs. 40000 Ans. (A) 29. Which of the following is not a current liability? (A) Bank overdraft (B) Redeemable debentures (C) Account payable (D) Provision for bad debts Ans. (B) 30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to (A) 2% (B) 2.5% (C) 3% (D) 5% Ans. (B) 31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory? (A) 2: 1 (C) 1: 1 (B) 1: 2 (D) None of these Ans. (C) 32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by (A) Peter Drucker (B) Herzberg (C) McGregor (D) Maslow Ans. (B) 33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day? (A) Autocratic

(B) Democratic (C) Free rein (D) Participative Ans. (B) 34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called (A) Management (B) Coordination (C) Planning (D) Decision-making Ans. (C) 35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called (A) Line organisation (B) Chain organisation (C) Command organisation (D) All the above Ans. (D) 36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called (A) Management by objective (B) Management by exception (C) Management by crisis (D) Management by choice Ans. (B) 37. Under delegation of authority (A) Authority is given to subordinates (B) Authority flows from top to bottom (C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability (D) All the above happens Ans. (D) 38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called (A) Job specification (B) Job evaluation (C) Job analysis (D) Job description Ans. (C) 39. In case of a private company (A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares (B) The number of members is restricted (C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited

(D) All of the above Ans. (D) 40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than (A) 1 Company (B) 7 Companies (C) 15 Companies (D) 20 Companies Ans. (C) 41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a (A) Public company (B) Any type of company (C) Private company (D) Private company subsidiary to a public company Ans. (C) 42. Henry Fayol is known for (A) Scientific management (B) Rationalisation (C) Industrial psychology (D) Principles of managements Ans. (D) 43. The principle of unity of command implies (A) Unity of thought and action (B) Unity amongst subordinates (C) Instructions from staff authority (D) Instructions from line authority Ans. (D) 44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be (A) 1:1 (B) 0.5: 1 (C) 0.4: 1 (D) None of the above Ans. (C) 45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called (A) Net working capital (B) Gross working capital (C) Deferred liabilities (D) Net worth Ans. (D)

46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be (A) Rs. 39000 (B) Rs. 40000 (C) Rs.41000 (D) Rs. 44000 Ans. (A) 47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as (A) An asset (B) A liability (C) An expense (D) A revenue Ans. (B) 48. Which of the following is known as backbone of auditing? (A) Verification of assets (B) Internal check (C) Vouching (D) Internal audit Ans. (C) 49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be (A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs.200 (C) Rs. 250 (D) Rs. 100 Ans. (D) 50. Sale of long term investments indicates (A) A change in current assets (B) Application of funds (C) Increase in working capital (D) Source of funds Ans. (D) 51. Net working capital refers to (A) Current assets (B) Current assets minus current liabilities (C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets (D) Retired earnings. Ans. (B)

52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be (A) Rs.400 (B) Rs.500 (C) Rs. 1100 (D) Rs. 2000 Ans. (B) 53. The primary objective of audit is (A) Detection and prevention of frauds (B) Detection and prevention of errors (C) Detection of frauds and errors (D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business Ans. (D) 54. An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound. This was observed in case of (A) London oil storage company (B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited (C) London General Bank (D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd. Ans. (B) 55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known (A) Horizontal combination (B) Vertical combination (C) Lateral combination (D) None of the above Ans. (A) 56. Surrender value is related to (A) Marine insurance (B) General insurance (C) Life insurance (D) Fire insurance Ans. (C) 57. Over capitalisation refer to (A) Excess of capital (B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares (C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation (D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power Ans. (D) 58. Motivation refers to (A) Coordinate the people (B) Guide the working people

(C) Terrorise the people (D) Inducing people to work willing by Ans. (D) 59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication (A) Fear and distrust (B) Affection (C) Perception (D) Noise Ans. (B) 60. Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group. This definition has been by (A) Peter Drucker (B) Henry Fayol (C) Harod Koontz (D) F. W. Taylor Ans. (C) 61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by (A) Exim Bank (B) Reserve Bank of India (C) State Bank (D) Ministry of commerce Ans. (B) 62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of years digit method will be (A) Rs. 1600 (B) Rs. 1800 (C) Rs. 2000 (D) Rs. 3000 Ans. (D) 63. Given: Gross profit Rs. 60000 Gross profit ratio: 20% Debtors velocity 2 months The amount of debtors will be (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs. 50000 (C) Rs. 120000 (D) Rs.200000 Ans. (B)

64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for (A) Issue of Bonus shares (B) Payment of Dividends (C) Payment of operating expenses (D) Redemption of debentures Ans. (A) 65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be (A) Rs. 10000 (B) Rs. 15000 (C) Rs. 37500 (D) Rs. 52500 Ans. (A) 66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading (A) Revenue and surplus (B) Provisions (C) Current liabilities (D) Miscellaneous items Ans. (C) 67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by (A) Company Law Board (B) Institute of charted accountants of India (C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India (D) Indian standard Board Ans. (B) 68. Which of the following is not correct (A) Purchase + Opening stockCost of goods sold = Closing stock (B) Opening stock + Purchases Closing stock = Cost of goods sold (C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold Purchases = Opening stock (D) Cost of goods sold Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock Ans. (D) 69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be (A) 3000 (B) 3600 (C) 3960 (D) 400 Ans. (D) 70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim

(A) Rs. 8000 (B) Rs. 9000 (C) Rs. 10000 (D) Rs. 7200 Ans. (D) 71. The data obtained from a newspaper are (A) Primary data (B) Secondary data (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Ans. (B) 72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs90000 (C) Rs. 120000 (D) Rs. 180000 Ans. (B) 73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head Income from House property. (A) The assessee has ownership on that house (B) The assessee uses that house for his business (C) The assessee himself lives in that house (D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence Ans. (A) 74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property (A) 25% of Annual Value (B) 30% of Net Annual Value (C) 1/5 of Annual Value (D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value Ans. (B) 75. Single entry system can not be maintained by (A) Sole proprietorship (B) Partnership concerns (C) Joint stock company (D) All of these Ans. (D) 76. Cash account will not be affected by (A) Cash paid to creditors

(B) Discount received (C) Cash sales (D) Cash received from debtors Ans. (B) 77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs. 100000 is allowed (A) Rs. 20000 (B) Rs. 25000 (C) Rs. 30000 (D) Rs. 33000 Ans. (C) 78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds (A) Rs. 50 Lakhs (B) Rs. 40 Lakhs (C) Rs. l0 Lakhs (D) Rs. 25 Lakhs Ans. (B) 79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as (A) Preferential Creditor (B) Partly Secured Creditor (C) Fully Secured Creditor (D) Unsecured Creditor Ans. (A) 80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called (A) Amalgamation (B) Absorption (C) Reconstruction (D) Purchase of Business Ans. (A) 81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner (A) Old firm has to be dissolved (B) Old partnership has to be dissolved (C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved (D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership Ans. (D) 82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000

On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700 On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600 On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300 On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100 Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to(A) Rs.2100 (B) Rs. 1950 (C) Rs. 1800 (D) Rs. 1700 Ans. (B) 83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidators remuneration will be (A) Rs.3100 (C) Rs. 3290 (B) Rs.3140 (D) Rs. 3350 Ans. (C) 84. EXIM Bank was established on (A) 1st Dec 1984 (B) 1st June 1985 (C) 1st Jan 1982 (D) 1st July 1980 Ans. (C) 85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an assessee should retain the assets for a period of (A) 40 months (B) 36 months (C) More than 36 months (D) Less than 36 months Ans. (C) 86. The salary received by a member of parliament is (A) Exempt from Tax (B) Taxable under the head of salary (C) Taxable under the head of other sources (D) Taxable under the lead of business Ans. (C) 87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that (A) Land should be used for agricultural activities (B) Land should be used for godown

(C) Land should be used for irrigation (D) None of above Ans. (A) 88. Depreciation is allowed on (A) Tangible Assets (B) Current Assets (C) Fixed Assets (D) Intangible Assets Ans. (C) 89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by (A) Nominal value of forfeited shares (B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares (C) Called up amount on forfeited shares (D) Forfeited amount of shares Ans. (C) 90. The term POIM for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by. (A) F.W. Taylor (B) Harold Smiddy (C) Tanon Brown (D) Peter F. Drucker Ans. (B)
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FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE (General/Depot) Reasoning Practice Questions

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series? ACE, FGH, ?, PON (A) KKK (B) JKI (C) HJH (D) IKL Ans. (A)

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ? (A) Script

(B) Pen (C) Paper (D) Book Ans. (B) 3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ? (A) Furniture (B) Forest (C) Fire (D) Carpenter Ans. (D) 4. acme : mace :: alga: ? (A) glaa (B) gaal (C) laga (D) gala Ans. (D) 5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:? (A) UTOPTU (B) UOTUPT (C) TUOUTP (D) TUOTUP Ans. (D) 6. Medicine is related to Patient in the same way as Education is related to (A) Teacher (B) School (C) Student (D) Tuition Ans. (C) 7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S, V, Y, B, ? (A) C (B) D (C) E (D)G Ans. (C) 8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20 (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8

(D) 9 Ans. (D) 9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark. AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? (A) IYZ (B) HWX (C) IWX (D) JWX Ans. (C) 10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ? (A) 48 (C) 52 (B) 49 (D) 56 Ans. (B) Directions(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three. 11. (A) Bokaro (B) Jamshedpur (C) Bhilai (D) Agra Ans. (D) 12. (A) January (B) February (C) July (D) December Ans. (B) 13. (A) Bible (B) Panchsheel (C) Geeta (D) Quran Ans. (B) 14. (A) Star (B) Sun (C) Sky (D) Moon Ans. (C) Directions(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.

15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left? (A) N (B) L (C) O (D) None of these Ans. (D) 16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left? (A) V (B) T (C) W (D) Y Ans. (B) 17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right? (A) V (B) X (C) W (D) I Ans. (C) Directions(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 18. (A) Green (B) Red (C) Colour (D) Orange Ans. (C) 19. (A) Rabbit (B) Crocodile (C) Earthworm (D) Snail Ans. (A) 20. (A) Polo (B) Chess (C) Ludo (D) Carrom Ans. (A) 21. (A) Sun (B) Universe

(C) Moon (D) Star Ans. (B) 22. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee Ans. (B) 23. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal Ans. (D) 24. In a certain code CONTRIBUTOR is written as RTNOCIROTUB. How is prohibition written in that code? (A) NOITIBIHORP (B) IHORPBITION (C) ITIONBIHOTP (D) IHORPBNOITI Ans. (D) 25. If CAT and BOAT are written as XZG and YLZG respectively in a code language how is EGG to be written in the same language? (A) VSS (B) URR (C) VTT (D) UTF Ans. (C) 26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as (A) CBIECD (B) CIBCED (C) CBICED (D) CIBECD Ans. (B) 27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is (A) 213310 (B) 213301 (C) 123301

(D) 012334 Ans. (A) 28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language? (A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink Ans. (C) 29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South Ans. (B) 30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikrams shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South Ans. (D) 31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest? (A) Manish (B) Pushpa (C) Namita (D) Nageena Ans. (A) 32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks? (A) Meena (B) Rupali (C) Raj (D) None of these Ans. (C)

33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajans mother? (A) Sister in law (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter in law (D) None of these Ans. (B) 34. If Amit s father is Billoo s fathers only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo? (A) UncleNephew (B) FatherDaughter (C) FatherSon (D) GrandfatherGrandson Ans. (C) 35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk? (A) Tuesday (B) Earlier weeks Saturday (C) Wednesday (D) Monday Ans. (C) 36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight? (A) 2 : 20 a.m. (B) 3 : 30 a.m. (C) 3 : 55 p.m. (D) 3 : 20 p.m. Ans. (D) 37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class? (A) 44 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 55 Ans. (D) 38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indras position from the left?

(A) 21st (B) 19th (C) 23rd (D) 20th Ans. (D) 39. How many 5s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7? 8953253855687335775365335738 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Ans. (A) 40. How many 8s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5? 6857854368198546829681368536 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Ans. (C) 41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as (A) MENOPM (B) MENOMP (C) NJOGPM (D) MNJOPM Ans. (D) 42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as (A) CJCEFQPYWC (B) CJGERQTYVG (C) CNCERQPCRG (D) GJGAVMTYVC Ans. (D) 43. Air is to Bird as Water is to .. (A) Drink (B) Fish (C) Wash (D) Swim Ans. (B)

44. Pencil is to Write as Knife is to (A) Injure (B) Peel (C) Prick (D) Attack Ans. (B) 45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row? (A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 24 (D) 35 Ans. (D) 46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank? (A) 26 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 33 Ans. (B) 47. Soldier is related to Army in the same way as Pupil is related to . (A) Education (B) Teacher (C) Student (D) Class Ans. (D) 48. Kilogram is related to Quintal in the same way as Paisa is related to (A) Coin (B) Money (C) Cheque (D) Rupee Ans. (D) 49. Stammering is to Speech as Deafness is to (A) Ear (B) Hearing (C) Noise (D) Commotion Ans. (B) 50. Guilt is to Past as Hope is to (A) Present (B) Future

(C) Today (D) Hopeless Ans. (B)

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FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot) exammODEL qUESTIONS

FCI selection process will be consisting of written test, group discussion (GD)and interview. written test will comprise of 90 multiple choice question of general aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness, Management and Current Affairs for the post of ManagementTrainees (Genl./Depot/Movt.)

1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule by an official proclamation? (A) Lord Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis (C) Lord Minto (D) Lord Dalhousie Ans. (D) 2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three? (A) Bauxite (B) Copper (C) Iron (D) Manganese Ans. (B) 3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 19912001? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Manipur (C) Nagaland (D) Sikkim Ans. (C)

4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate? (A) Laddakh (B) Lahaul (C) Nepal (D) Tibet Ans. (A) 5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate? (A) Condensation point (B) Dew point (C) Sublimation point (D) Saturation point Ans. (D) 6. The earths reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following? (A) Cropland (B) Forest area (C) Sand desert (D) Snow area Ans. (D) 7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus? (A) Raja Rammohan Roy (B) Devendranath Tagore (C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar (D) Keshab Chandra Sen Ans. (A) 8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself? (A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Robert Hooke (D) Robert Virchow Ans. (A) 9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration? (A) Dictyosomes (B) Endoplasmic reticula (C) Lysosomes (D) Mitochondria Ans. (D) 10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ? (A) Dolphins and Whales

(B) Frogs and Toads (C) Prawns and Crabs (D) Seals and Walruses Ans. (B) 11. Which one of the following statements is correct? A seed is a ripened (A) ovary (B) flower (C) gynoecium (D) ovule Ans. (D) 12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ? (A) Capitalism (B) Liberalism (C) Fascism (D) Marxism Ans. (D) 13. What is Look East Policy often in the news? (A) Government of Indias initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States (B) Indias search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline (C) Indias collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas (D) Indias continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries Ans. (D) 14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as Right of Mass and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ? (A) Thomas Jefferson (B) Thomas Paine (C) John Locke (D) Jean Jacques Rousseau Ans. (B) 15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand? (A) Eli Whitney (B) George Stephenson (C) McAdam (D) James Watt Ans. (A) 16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?

(A) Planning Commission (B) National Development Council (C) Union Ministry of Finance (D) Finance Commission Ans. (D) 17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat? (A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (B) The President of India (C) The Prime Minister of India (D) The Union Home Minister Ans. (C) 18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries? (A) First (C) Third (B) Second (D) Fourth Ans. (B) 19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India? (A) Ashoka Kanishka Milinda (B) Milinda Ashoka Kanishka (C) Ashoka Milinda Kanishka (D) Milinda Kanishka Ashoka Ans. (C) 20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus? (A) Bird-flu (B) Chickenpox (C) Cholera (D) Dengue Ans. (C) 21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced? (A) Bat (C) Shark (B) Pigeon (D) Vulture Ans. (A) 22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder? (A) Colour blindness

(B) Downs syndrome (C) Hemophilia (D) Xerophthalmia Ans. (D) 23. Which one of the following is an enzyme? (A) Gastrin (B) Keratin (C) Trypsin (D) Vasopressin Ans. (C) 24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ? (A) Oesophagus (B) Pancreas (C) Spleen (D) Large intestine Ans. (B) 25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when shortages occur? (A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Spleen (D) Lymph nodes Ans. (C) 26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds? (A) Conservation of angular momentum (B) Conservation of kinetic energy (C) Conservation of linear momentum (D) Conservation of velocity Ans. (C) 27. Which one of the following is correct? A negatively charged glass rod has always (A) less electrons than protons (B) less electrons than neutrons (C) less protons than electrons (D) less neutrons than protons Ans. (C) 28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Hardings to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?

(A) B. G. Tilak (B) G. K. Gokhale (C) M. G. Ranade (D) Motilal Nehru Ans. (B) 29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean? (A) Falkland Current (B) Canary Current (C) Labrador Current (D) Gulf Stream Ans. (A) 30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ? (A) Chattisgarh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (B) 31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow? (A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only (B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only (C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only (D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa Ans. (C) 32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India? (A) Dutch (B) English (C) French (D) Portuguese Ans. (D) 33. The efforts of who of the following led to the Age of Consent Act, 1891? (A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) M. G. Ranade (C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee (D) Mulbari Ans. (D) 34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian National Congress? (A) Congress Socialist Party (B) Forward Bloc (C) Indian National Conference

(D) Swaraj Party Ans. (B) 35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Vallabhbhai Patel Ans. (B) 36. Who was the architect of the Drain Theory and the author of the book Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt Ans. (A) 37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following? (A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district (B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha (C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission (D) Dandi March Ans. (D) 38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is (A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon dioxide Ans. (B) 39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for? (A) Kathak (B) Chhau (C) Kathakali (D) Odissi Ans. (A) 401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep? (A) Tamil (B) Marathi (C) Malayalam (D) Konkani Ans. (C)

41. Who is known as the Father of Indias missile programme? (A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (B) R. Santhanam (C) Raja Ramanna (D) Homi Bhabha Ans. (A) 42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day? (A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) PT. Usha (C) Prakash Padukone (D) Dhyan Chand Ans. (D) 43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler? (A) Erapalli Prasanna (B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar (C) Bishan Singh Bedi (D) Kapil Dev Ans. (D) 44 In which city were the first Asian Games held? (A) Bangkok (B) Kuala Lumpur (C) New Delhi (D) Moscow Ans. (C) 45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period (A) 1951-56 (B) 1952-57 (C) 1947-52 (D) 1950-55 Ans. (A) 46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately (A) 1.67m (B) 1.33m (C) 2.00m (D) 1.83m Ans. (A) 47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is (A) PSK (B) BPSK

(C) MSK (D) GMSK Ans. (D) 48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to (A) Refraction (B) Diffraction (C) Total internal reflection (D) Interference Ans. (C) 49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ? (A) Video bandwidth is large (B) Video signal takes longer to arrive (C) Electron emission takes time (D) All of the above. Ans. (C) 50. Seismograph is used in the study of (A) Moon (B) Earthquake (C) Floods (D) Tides Ans. (B)