2009 Cbse PMT 2

CBSE - 2009 (Pre)
PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY SET-A
1. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be
(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 (2) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 (4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2
Sol: Ans [2]
Force
Pressure =
Area
Dimension of pressure = [M1 L–1 T–2]

i.e., a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
2. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in first
10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then :
(1) S2 = S1 (2) S2 = 2S1 (3) S2 = 3S1 (4) S2 = 4S1
Sol: Ans [4]
Here u = 0, acceleration = a
Distance travelled in first 10 seconds
1
S1  u  10   a  10  10  0  50a  50a
2
Distance travelled in first 20 seconds
1
S 2  u  20   a  20  20  0  200a  200a
2
So, S2 = 4S1
3. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus
in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist
chase the bus?
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 (3) 40 ms–1 (4) 25 ms–1
Sol: Ans [2]
Let V be the speed of scooterist
S = V × 100 = 100 + 10 × 100
V = 20 m/sec
4. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration
is
(1) 14 ms–2 upwards (2) 30 ms–2 downwards (3) 4 ms–2 upwards (4) 4 ms–2 downwards
Sol: Ans [3]
R – mg = ma
R  mg 28000  2000  9.8

a   4.2 m / sec 2 upwards  4 m/sec2 upwards
m 2000
Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42
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5. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two
are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of
8 ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms–1. If the third part flies off with a velocity
of 4 ms–1, its mass would be
(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg
Sol: Ans [2]
8 m/sec
4 m cos  = 12 ....(i)
4 m sin  = 2 × 8 = 16 ....(ii)
(4m)2 × (cos2 + sin2) = 144 + 256 12 m/sec
2 kg 1 kg
16 m2 = 400

m2 = 25
m
m = 5 kg 4
6. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling
and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The
maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be
(1) Mg/2k (2) Mg/k (3) 2Mg/k (4) 4Mg/k
Sol: Ans [3]
1
mgx  kx 2  0  0
2
2mg
x
k
7. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ and  3iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ, respectively..
The centre of mass of this system has a position vector
(1) –iˆ  ˆj  kˆ (2) 2iˆ  2kˆ (3) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ (4) 2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ
Sol: Ans [3]

m1 = 1 kg; m2 = 3 kg
 
r1  iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ; r2  3iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
 
 m1r1  m2 r2
r
m1  m2
 iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ  3( 3iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ)
r  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
1 3

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8. Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length l, form a square frame. Moment of inertia of this
frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is
1 2 4 2 2 2 13 2
(1) Ml (2) Ml (3) Ml (4) Ml
3 3 3 3
Sol: Ans [2] 2 m

2
 ML2  L 
I  4 M  
 12  2   m
m
4
I  ML2
3 m
9. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its
plane with a constant angular velocity . If two objects each of mass m be attached gently to the
opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity
M ( M  2m) M ( M  2m)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
M m M  2m M  2m M
Sol: Ans [3]
I11 = I22
(Mr2)  = (M + 2m) r2 
M
 =
M  2m

10. A body, under the action of a force F  6iˆ  8 ˆj  10kˆ, acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of
this body must be
(1) 10 2 kg (2) 2 10 kg (3) 10 kg (4) 20 kg

Sol: Ans [1]

| F | 36  64  100  200  10 2 N

| F | 10 2
m   10 2 kg
a 1
  
11. If F is the force acting on a particle having position vector r and  be the torque of this force about
the origin, then
     
(1) r .   0 and F .   0 (2) r .   0 and F .   0
     
(3) r .   0 and F .   0 (4) r .   0 and F .   0
Sol: Ans [4]
  
r F

So, r.  0 and F .  0

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12. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded
area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to
move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to B then
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
Sol: Ans [4]
dA1 dA2 2x x
 
dt1 dt2  t1 t2
t1 = 2t2
13. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is
the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?
1 2 2 1 3 1 2
(1) mv (2) mv (3) mv3 (4) mv
2 2 2
Sol: Ans [2]
d d 1 2 1  dm 2 dv 
(KE) = (  mv  =  v  m.2v 
dt dt  2  2  dt dt 
d 1  dv 

2
(KE) = .mvv  0  0
dt 2  dt 
dm
Here m = a , = a v = mv .
dt
1 3
=mv
2
14. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after
attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 30 J (4) 40 J
Sol: Ans [2]
1
K.E. at ground =  1 20  20  200 J
2
P.E. at height = 1 × 10 × 18 = 180 J
Loss in energy due to friction = 200 – 180 = 20 J.
15. The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T1
dQ
and T2(T1 > T2). The rate of heat transfer, , through the rod in a steady state is given by
dt
dQ kA(T1  T2 ) dQ kL(T1  T2 )
(1)  (2) 
dt L dt A
dQ k (T1  T2 ) dQ
(3)  (4)  kLA(T1  T2 )
dt LA dt
Sol: Ans [1]
Self explanatory

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16. In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?
(1) In an adiabatic process PV = constant
(2) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings
(3) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
(4) In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
Sol: Ans [3]
In isochoric process, volume remains constant.
17. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 Cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of
heat radiated in the same units will be
(1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 112
Sol: Ans [4]
E =  T4
7 (227  273) 4 (500) 4

 
E2 (727  273) 4 (1000)4
E2 = 112
18. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 Kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is
(1) 7900 J (2) 8900 J (3) 6400 J (4) 5400 J
Sol: Ans [1]
dQ = 2 kcal = 2 × 4.2 × 1000 J = 8400 J
dW = 500 J
dU = dQ – dW = 8400 – 500 = 7900 J
19. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If
the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is
(1) 500 Hz (2) 550 Hz (3) 555.5 Hz (4) 720 Hz
Sol: Ans [4]
 330 
f1  600  
 330  30 
 330  30  600  330 360

f 2  f1     720 Hz
 330  300 330
20. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period
T. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be
a 3 a 3 a 32 a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
T 2T T T
Sol: Ans [1]
a2
v   a2  y2   a2 
4
2  3 a  3a
v . 
T 2 T

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21. Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion?
(1) acceleration = kx (2) acceleration = –k0x + k1x2
(3) acceleration = –k(x + a) (4) acceleration = k(x + a)
Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive.
Sol: Ans [3]
In S.H.M., acceleration displacement
22. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0
N  rad   2 rad  
E y  2.5 cos   2  106  t     10  x ; E = 0. The wave is
C  m   s   z
(1) moving along –x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
(2) moving along y direction with frequency 2 × 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
(3) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100 m.
(4) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
Sol: Ans [4]
E = 2.5 cos [(2 × 106)t – ( × 10–2)x]
Compare with
2
E  a cos (vt  x)

2
vt  2  106 t ... (i)

2
x   102 x ... (ii)

So,  = 200 m; v = 200 × 106 m/sec.
v
n  106 Hz

23. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the +ve direction of x axis with a
speed of 128 m/sec, and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation
describing the wave is
(1) y = (0.02)m sin (7.85x – 1005t) (2) y = (0.02)m sin (7.85x – 1005t)
(3) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x – 2010t) (4) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x – 2010t)
Sol: Ans [1]
a = 0.02 m
v = 128 m/sec.
4
 m
5
 2 2 
y  a sin  x  vt 
   

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 2 2 
y  0.02sin   5 x   5  28t 
 4 4 
y = (0.02)m sin (7.85 x – 1005 t)

24. Each of the two string of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per
unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously
the number of beats is
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 8
Sol: Ans [3]
100 20
1 = = 13.82
2  51.6 .001
100 20
2 = = 143.78
2  49.1 .001
number of beats = 1 –2 = 143.78 – 136.82 = 6.96  7

25. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance
and breakdown voltage of the combination will be
C V V C
(1) 3C, 3V (2) , (3) 3C , (4) , 3V
3 3 3 3
C C C
Sol: Ans [4]
C
C =
3
V = 3V
26. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The
resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as show in the figure, is
(1) 6  (2) 0.6 
(3) 3  (4) 6 
Sol: Ans [2]
10 2 
Circumference circle = 2    
100 10 5
 12
Resistance of wire = 12  
5 5
12
Resistance of each section = 
10 A B
12 12
2 
10 10  6  0.6 
Eq. resistance = 12 12
 10
10 10
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27. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 × 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A
horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10–4 T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly
from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is
(1) 2J (2) 0.6 J (3) 12 J (4) 6 J
Sol: Ans [4]
M = 2 × 104 J/T ; B = 6 × 10–4 T ; Q1 = 0° ; Q2 = 60°
Work = 2 × 104 × 6 × 10–4 (cos 0 – cos 60) = 6 J.

28. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge –2µc in a magnetic field of 2T acting in y
direction, when the particle velocity is
(2iˆ  3 ˆj )  106 ms 1 , is
(1) 8 N in z direction (2) 8 N in –z direction
(3) 4 N in z direction (4) 8 N in y direction
Sol: Ans [2]
  
F  q(v  B )  2  106 (2iˆ  3 ˆj )  (2 ˆj )106
 2(4kˆ  0)  8kˆ newton.

29. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to
the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when
the radius is 2 cm is
(1) 1.6 µV (2) 3.2 µV (3) 4.8 µV (4) 0.8 µV
Sol: Ans [2]
d d dr
e  B.r 2  B 2r
dt dt dt
2 2
e  0.04     3.2  10 –6 V = 3.2  V.
100 1000
30. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by
V – x2y – xz3 + 4

The electric field E at that point is
 
(1) E  iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆj xy 2  kˆ3z 2 x (2) E  iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆj x 2  kˆ3 xz 2
 
(3) E  iˆ2 xy  ˆj ( x 2  y 2 )  kˆ(3 xz  y 2 ) (4) ˆ 2  ˆjxyz  kˆ z 2
E  iz
Sol: Ans [2]
 dV ˆ dV ˆ dV 
E   i j kˆ 
 dx dy dz 
 [(2 xy  z 3 )iˆ  ˆj (  x 2 )  kˆ( 3z 2 x )]
 iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆj x 2  kˆ3 xz 2 .

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31. See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equations is a correct equation
for it?
(1) 1 – (i1 + i2) R + i1 r1 = 0
(2) 1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1 r1 = 0
(3) 2 – i2 r2 – 1 – i1 r1 = 0
(4) –1 – (i1 + i2) R + i2 r2 = 0
Sol: Ans [2]
1 = (i1 + i2)R + i1r1

1 = (i + i2)R – i1r1 = 0.
32. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60  shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp
passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by
(1) putting in parallel a resistance of 15  (2) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 
(3) putting in series a resistance of 15  (4) putting in series a resistance of 240 
Sol: Ans [4]
I g Rg 1  60 60
R    15 
I  Ig 5 1 4
and to convert a galvanometer into ammeter put the resistance in parallel.
33. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed V in a
circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle
(1) depends on both V and R (2) depends on V and not on R
(3) depends on R and not on V (4) is independent of both V and R
Sol: Ans [4]
2m
t .
Bq
34. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c. source of emf  is
2
 1 
2   1  
(1)
2 2
 R / R   Lw   (2)  2 R /  R 2   Lw   
 Cw    Cw  
2
  1  
2  2  R 2   Lw   
 1    Cw  
(3)  2 R 2   Lw   /R (4)
 Cw  R
Sol: Ans [2]
EIR EER
P  EI cos    2
z z
E2R
P 2
.
 2  1  
 R   L   
  C  

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35. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge densities ,
– and  respectively. if VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then, for c = a + b, we
have
(1) VC = VB = VA (2) VC = VA  VB (3) VC = VB  VA (4) VC  VB  VA
Sol: Ans [2]
1 (4a 2 ) 1 4b 2 1 4c 2

VA   .  .
4 0 a 40 b 40 c
 
 ( a  b  c)  (2a )
0 0
1 4a 2 1 4b 2 1 4c 2

VB  .   .
4 0 b 40 b 40 c
  a2    a2 
  b  c    a
0  b  0  b 
1 4a 2 1 4b 2 1 4c 2

VC  .  .  .
4 0 c 4 0 c 40 c
  a 2 b2  
    c    2a.
0  c c  0
36. A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf  and internal resistance r)
as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of the graph between V and
I, then, respectively, equal
(1) – and r (2)  and –r (3) –r and  (4) r and –
Sol: Ans [3]
V =  – Ir
V = –Ir + 
Slope is –r and intercept is .
37. A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x – y) plane, are moving out of a

uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, V  viˆ. The magnetic field is directed along the
negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region,
will not remain constant for
(1) any of the four loops (2) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops
(3) the circular and the elliptical loops (4) only the elliptical loop
Sol: Ans [3]
Area coming out per second from the field is not constant.
38. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is
(1) attracted by both the poles
(2) repelled by both the poles
(3) repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
(4) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole

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Sol: Ans [2]
Diamagnetic material is repelled by magnetic field.

39. The number of photo electrons emitted for light of a frequency v (higher than the threshold frequency
v0) is proportional to
(1) Frequency of light (v) (2) v – v0
(3) Threshold frequency (v0) (4) Intensity of light
Sol: Ans [4]
Number of photo electrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity of light.
40. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is
9 mW. The number of photons arriving per sec. on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is
(1) 3 × 1019 (2) 9 × 1017 (3) 3 × 1016 (4) 9 × 1015
Sol: Ans [3]
 = 667 nm = 667 × 10–9 m

E = 9 mW sec = 9 × 10–3 J
9  103  667  109

n  3  1016.
6.6  1034  3  108
41. The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three
different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(1) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity.
(2) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
(3) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities.
(4) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensity.
Sol: Ans [3]
Stopping potential depends upon frequency and photo current depends upon intensities.
42. The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles
emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an:
(1) isotope of parent (2) isobar of parent
(3) isomer of parent (4) isotone of parent
Sol: Ans [1]
Due to alpha emission atomic number decreases by 2 and due to beta emission atomic number increases
by 1.

- 11 -
43. The ionization energy of the electron in hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. atoms are excited
to higher energy levels to a radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation
corresponding the transition between
(1) n = 4 to n = 3 states (2) n = 3 to n = 2 states
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 states (4) n = 2 to n = 1 states

Sol: Ans [1]
4
n( n  1)
6 3
2
2
n=4 1
44. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when projectile of charge z1 and mass M1 approach a target
nucleus of charge z2 and mass M2 distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is
(1) directly proportional to mass M1 (2) directly proportional to M1 × M2
(3) directly proportional to z1 z2 (4) inversely proportional to z1

Sol: Ans [3]
1 q1q2
k = potential energy = 4 . r
0 0
So, k  q1q2
45. In the nuclear decay given below:

A
Z X  AZ 1Y  AZ 14 B *  AZ 14 B,
the particles emitted in the sequence are:
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 

Sol: Ans [2]
A   A 4
 A 4
Z X  Z 1 Y A  Z 1 B  Z 1 B
,  
46. The mean free path of electrons in metal is 4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on an average
2 eV energy to an electron in the metal will be in units of V/m
(1) 5 × 107 (2) 8 × 107 (3) 5 × 10–11 (4) 8 × 10–11

Sol: Ans [1]
2eV = eE × 4 × 10–8
2
E  5  107 V / m
4  108

- 12 -
47. Sodium has body centred packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattic parameter
is
(1) 8.6 Å (2) 6.8 Å (3) 4.3 Å (4) 3.0 Å

Sol: Ans [4]
3a 1.7  3.7
  3Å
2 2
48. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal
of wavelength:
(1) 4000 Å (2) 6000 Å (3) 4000 nm (4) 6000 nm

Sol: Ans [1]
hc 6.6  1034  3  108

   4.95  107 = 4950 Å
E 2.5  1.6  1019
 4000 Å
49. The symbolic representation of four logic gates are given below
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND gates are respectively :
(1) (i), (iii), (iv) (2) (iii), (iv), (ii) (3) (iv), (i), (iii) (4) (iv), (ii), (i)
Sol: Ans [4]
These are standard conventions.
50. A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at Vc = 2V such that a change in the base
current from 100 µA to 200 µA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The
current gain is
(1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 150
Sol: Ans [3]
Ib = 200 – 100 = 100 A = 100 × 10–6 A
IC = 10 – 5 = 5 mA = 5 × 10–3 A
I c 5103
=   50
I b 100 106

- 13 -
51. 10 g of hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol (3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol
Sol.: Ans. [4]
2H2 + O2  2H2O
Oxygen is limiting reagent.
64g O2 = 2 mole of oxygen
Hence 4 mole of water will be produced.
52. Oxidation numbers of P in PO 34 of S in SO 24 and that of Cr in Cr2O 27 are respectively
(1) – 3 , +6 and +6 (2) +5, +6 and +6 (3) +3, +6 and +5 (4) +5, +3 and +6
Sol.: Ans. [2]
P O 34  5
S O 24  6
C r2O 72  6
53. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following
(1) 2n 2 (2) 4l + 2 (3) 2l +1 (4) 4l–2
Sol.: Ans. [2]
Total number of orbitals in subsheel = 2l +1
Hence total number of e = 4l + 2
54. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = –½ (2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – ½
(3) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = + ½ (4) n = 3, l =2, m = –3, s = –½
Sol.: Ans. [4]
Value of m cannot be greater then l.
55. From the following bond energies
(1) H–H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol–1 (2) C = C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol–1
(3) C – C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol–1 (4) C – H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol–1
Enthalpy for the reaction;
H H H H
| | | |
C  C H  H  H  C C H
| | | | will be
H H H H
(1) 553.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 1523.6 kJ mol–1 (3) –243.6 kJ mol–1 (4) –120.0 kJ mol–1
Sol.: Ans. [4]
H g  {Bond energy of the reactants – Bond energy of product}

- 14 -
  ΔH(C  C)  ΔH 4(C  H   ΔH(H  H)]  [  C  C)  ΔH 6(C  H)]
= – 120.0 kJ mol–1
56. The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 ×10–5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammo-
nium chloride is
(1) 5.65 × 10–12 (2) 5.65 × 10–10 (3) 6.50 × 10–12 (4) 5.65 ×10–13
Sol.: Ans. [2]
kw
KH 
Kb
10 14
5
 0.565  109  5.65  10 10
1.77  10
57. Given
(i) Cu 2  2e  Cu, Eo  0.337V
(ii) Cu 2  e   Cu  , Eo  0.153V
Electrode potential, E° for the reaction
Cu   e   Cu will be;
(1) 0.38 V (2) 0.52 V (3) 0.90 V (4) 0.30 V
Sol.: Ans. [2]
Cu 2  2e  Cu E   0.337 V; ΔG1   nFE10  2  F 0.337
Cu   e  Cu 2  E   0.1537 V; ΔG 2   nFE 02  1 F 0.153
Cu   e   Cu . E   ? ΔG 3  ΔG1  ΔG 2  0.52 V
58. What is the [OH–] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of
0.10 M Ba(OH)2?
(1) 0.12 M (2) 0.10 M (3) 0.40 M (4) 0.0050 M
Sol.: Ans. [2]
No. of milli moles of HCl = M×V = 0.050 ×10 = 1
No. of millimoles of Ba(OH)2 = M×V = 0.10 × 30 = 3
2HCl + Ba(OH)2  BaCl2 + 2H2 O
1×10–3 mole 0.5×10–3 mole 0.5×10–3 mole 1×10–3 mole
2.5×10 moles of Ba(OH)2 will left in resulting solution hence moles of OH– = 2×2.5×10–3 = 5×10–3
–3
mole
 50 ml solution contains 5×10–3 mole of [OH]
5  10 3  1000
 1000 ml solution contains  10 1 M  0.1 M
50
59. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4×10–19 J and bond energy per mol-
ecule is 4.0 ×10–19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be
(1) 4.0×10–20 J (2) 2.0 ×10–20 J (3) 2.2×10–19 J (4) 2.0×10–19 J
Sol.: Ans. [2]

- 15 -
d[NH 3 ]  d[H 2 ]
60. For the reaction N 2  3 H 2  2 NH 3 , if  2  10 4 mol L1s 1 , the value of would be
dt dt
(1) 1 10 4 mol L1s 1 (2) 3  10 4 mol L1s 1 (3) 4  10 4 mol L1s 1 (4) 6  10 4 mol L1s 1
Sol.: Ans. [2]
 d[N 2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[NH 3 ]

 
dt 3 dt 2 dt
 d[H 2 ] 3 d[NH 3 ] 3
   2  10 4  3  10  4
dt 2 dt 2
61. For the reaction A+ B  products, it is observed that
(a) on doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
(b) on doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate
of the reaction
The rate of this reaction is given by:
(1) rate = k[A] [B] (2) rate = k[A]2 [B] (3) rate = k[A] [B]2 (4) rate = k [A]2 [B]
Sol.: Ans. [3]

Rate = k[A] [B]2
Because with respect to A; it is 1st order and with respect to B; it is 2nd order.
62. The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mhos cm2 and at infinite
dilution is 400 mhos cm2. The dissociation constant of this acid is
(1) 1.25 ×10–4 (2) 1.25 × 10–5 (3) 1.25 ×10–6 (4) 6.25 ×10–4
Sol.: Ans. [2]
8.0 1
  0.02; K  C 2   4  10 4  1.25  10 5
400 32
63. A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH3)5(NO2)Cl freezes at –0.00732°C. Number
of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (Kf = –
1.86°C/m)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol.: Ans. [2]
Calculated freezing point depression = Kf.m = 1.86 ×0.0020
Observed freezing point depression = 0.00732
Observed frezzing point

Van’t Hoff factor i 
Calculated freezing point
0.00732
 2
1.86  0.0020

- 16 -
64. In the reaction BrO3 (aq)  5Br  (aq)  6H  3Br2 (l )  3H2O(l ) . The rate of appearance of bromine
(Br2) is related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions a following:
d(Br2 ) 3 d(Br  ) d(Br2 ) 3 d(Br  )

(1)  (2) 
dt 5 dt dt 5 dt
d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br  ) d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br  )

(3)  (4) 
dt 3 dt dt 3 dt
Sol.: Ans. [2]
BRO 3 (aq) + 5 Br(aq)


+ 6 H +  3 Br2 (P) + 3 H 2 O(P)
 d[BrO 3 ] 1 d[Br  ] 1 d[Br2 ] 1 d[H 2 O]

  
dt 5 dt 3 dt 3 dt
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br]

dt 5 dt
65. Lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cube crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of
lithium is 351pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be
(1) 300.5 pm (2) 240.8 pm (3) 151.8 pm (4) 75.5 pm
Sol.: Ans. [3]
3a 0.732  351
Radius for BCC r    151.8
4 4
66. The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN at 25°C are 1.5×10–5 and 4.5×10–10 respectively.
The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium
CN   CH 3COOH HCN + CH3COO– would be
(1) 3.0 × 104 (2) 3.0 × 105 (3) 3.0 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–4
Sol.: Ans. [1]
CH3COOH CH3COO– + H+; K1 = 1.5×10–5 ...(i)
HCN H+ + CN– ; K2 = 4.5 ×10–10 ...(ii)
CN– + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO–; K3 = ?
K1 1.5  10 5
K3   10
 3.0  10 4
K 2 4.5  10
67. The values of H and S for the reaction C(graphite) +CO2(g)  2CO(g) are 170 kJ a 170 JK–1 respec-
tively. This reaction will spontaneous at:
(1) 510 K (2) 710 K (3) 910 K (4) 1110 K
Sol.: Ans. [4]
Using formula G = H – TS

- 17 -
68. Half life period of a first order reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of reaction is
(1) 5.0×10–2 s–1 (2) 5.0×10–3 s–1 (3) 0.5×10–2 s–1 (4) 0.5×10–3 s–1
Sol.: Ans. [4]
0.693
  0.5  103 sec 1
t1/ 2
69. In which of the following molecules /ions BF3, NO2–, NH2– and H2O the central atom is sp2 hybridized?
(1) BF3 and NO2– (2) NO2– and NH2 – (3) NH2– and H2O (4) NO2– and H2O
Sol.: Ans. [1]
70. Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent?
(1) Cl2 (2) F2 (c) Br 2 (4) I 2
Sol.: Ans. [2]
71. According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing
bond order?
(1) N 2  N 22  N 2 (2) N 2  N 2  N 22 (3) N 22  N 2  N 2 (4) N 2  N 22  N 2

Sol.: Ans. [3]
Bond order of N 2   2 , Bond order of N 2  2.5 , Bond orders of N2 = 3
72. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order
(1) MI > MBr > MCl > MF (2) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(3) MF > MCl > MBr > MI (4) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
Sol.: Ans. [1]
As difference in electronegativity increases, covalent character decreases.
73. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
(1) BeO (2) B2 O 3 (3) CaO (4) SiO2
Sol.: Ans. [3]
CaO because metal oxide does not react with metal oxide.
74. Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0×104 amperes of current is
passed through molten Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced? (Assume 100% cur-
rent efficiency, At mass of Al = 27 g mol–1)
(1) 1.3 × 104 g (2) 9.0 ×103 g (3) 8.1 ×104g (4) 2.4 ×105 g
Sol.: Ans. [3]
q = i.t. = 4.0 ×104 × 6 × 60 × 60 C
 3 × 96500 C deposits 27 g of Al
27  4.0  10 4  6  60  60
 4.0 × 104 × 6 × 60 × 60 will deposit  8.1  10 4 g
3  96500
75. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence
(1) Ga < ln < Al < Tl (2) Al < Ga < ln < Tl (3) Tl < ln < Ga < Al (4) ln < Tl < Ga < Al

- 18 -
Sol.: Ans. [2]
Down the gp; stability of lower oxidation state increases.
76. Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius
of copper atom in pm?
(1) 108 (2) 128 (3) 157 (4) 181
Sol. Ans. [2]
a 361
Radius for FCC cube:   128 pm
2 2 2  1.414
77. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH
to a gas?
(1) London dispersion force (2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) Dipole-dipole interaction (4) Covalent bonds
Sol: [2]
Due to presence of intermolecular H-bonding; CH3OH is liquid at room temperature
78. Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light?
(1) [Zn(NH3 )6 ]2+ (2) [Sc(H2 O)3 (NH3) 3] 3+
(3) [Ti(en)2 (NH3 )2]4+ (4) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+
(Atomic number Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
Sol: [4]
due to unpaired electrons, it shows d–d transition by absorbing visible light.

79. Out of TiF62  ,COF62 , Cu2Cl2 and NiCl24  (Z of Ti = 22, CO = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless
species are:
(1) COF63 and NiCl24 (2) TiF62  and COF63
(3) Cu 2 Cl2 and NiCl52  (4) TiF62  and Cu 2 Cl2
Sol: [4]
In TiF62  , Ti+4 exists, electronic configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p6
In Cu2Cl2 Cu+ exists. electronic configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p63d10
There are no unpaired electrons in both the cases.
80. Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?

(1) [CO(en)3 ]3+ (2) [CO(en)2Cl2 ]+
(3) [CO(NH3 )3Cl3 ]0 (4) [CO(en)Cl2(NH3)2 ]+
(en = ethylenediamine)
Sol: [3]
81. Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number
of oxidation states?
(1) 3d2 4s2 (2) 3d3 4s2 (3) 3d5 4s1 (4) 3d5 4s2

- 19 -
Sol: [4] This is the outer orbital configuration of Mn; it shows variable oxidation states from +2 to +7.
82. Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

(1) (CH3 ) 3 N (2) (CH3) 3 B (3) (CH3 ) 2 O (4) (CH3) 3 P
Sol: [2]
Central atom Boron is electron deficient.
83. Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest
ionization energy?
(1) Ne[3s2 3p1 ] (2) Ne[3s2 3p3 ] (3) Ne[3s2 3p2 ] (4) Ar[3d10 4s24p3 ]
Sol: [2]
Ne[3s2 3p3 ]
84. The straight chain polymer is formed by:

(1) hydrolysis of (CH3)2 SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerisation
(2) hydrolysis of (CH3)3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation
(3) hydrolysis of CH3 SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerisation
(4) hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by addition polymerisation
Sol: [1]
CH3 CH3 CH3
Cl Si Cl 
hydrolysis
 HO Si OH Condensation
  Si O
CH3 CH3 CH3 n
85. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH  C  CH  CH 2 is:
(1) 1-butene-3-yne (2) 3-butene-1-yne (3) 1-butyn-3-ene (4) but-1-yne-3-ene
Sol: [1]
86. Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?
(1) 2 Butenol (2) 2-Butene (3) Butanol (4) 2-Butyne
Sol: [2]
2-Butene; 2 butenol may show geometrical isomerism but it is misprinted actually it should be
2-butanol.
87. H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives:

H
CHO
(1) 2 C O (2) 2 CO2 (3) 2 HCOOH (4)
H CHO
Sol: [1]
CH2 OH
HIO 4
   2HCHO  H 2 O  HIO 3
CH2 OH

- 20 -
88. Consider the following reaction,
PBr3 alc.KOH i) H 2SO 4 room temperature
ethanol   X   Y  ii) H 2 O, heat

the product Z is:
(1) CH3 CH 2 OH (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H
Sol: [1]
PBr 3 KOH alc. i) H 2 SO 4 room temperature
CH 3 CH 2 OH   CH 3 CH 2 Br   CH 2  CH 2  ii) H 2 O; 
 CH 3 CH 2  OH
(X) (Y) ( Z)
89. Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence anhydrous AlCl3 to form:
(1) Xylene (2) Toluene (3) Chlorobenzene (4) Benzylchloride
Sol: [2]
according to NCERT book; However xylene will also be formed because –CH3 group is weakly
activating towards electrophilic substitution hence further electrophilic substitution occurs
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
CH 3Cl
  CH 3Cl
  
anhy. AlCl3 anhy. AlCl3
CH3
90. Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2S. In the
mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an:
(1) catalyst (2) reducing agent (3) acid (4) base
Sol: [4]
HNO3 acts as a base because it accepts H+ from H2SO4
 
 H2 O
H 2SO 4  HO  NO 2 
 H O  NO 2   N O2
|
H
91. Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction?

(1) RX  Mg 
 RMgX (2) RX  KOH 
 ROH  KX
(3) 2RX  2Na 
 R  R  2NaX (4) RX  H2 
 RH  HX
Sol: [2]
X– is substituted by OH– (nucleophile)
92. Which one of the following is employed a tranquilizer?

(1) Chloropheninamine (2) Equanil (3) Naproxen (4) Tetracycline
Sol: [2]
Equanil

- 21 -
93. Structures of some common polymers are give which one is not correctly presented?
(1) Nylon 66
 NH(CH 2 ) 6 NHCO(CH 2 ) 4  CO 
2
(2) Teflon
 CF2  CF2 
n
(3) Neoprene
CH 2 C CH CH 2 CH 2
Cl n
(4) Terylene
O CH2 CH2 O
OC C
n
O
Sol: [1]
Nylon 66 is polymer of adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine it should be

 N H (C H 2 ) 6 N H C O (C H 2 ) 4  C O 
n
94. Predict the product

NH
CH3
 NaNO 2  HCl 
 Product
OH CH3
N N
CH3 N
(1) (2)
O
CH3 CH3
HN HN
CH3
NO
N
NO2 
(3) (4)
NO
Sol: [2]
2° amine with NaNO2 + HCl give Nitrosamine
95. Propionic acid with Br2 | P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:
Br
(1) H3C C COOH

(2) CH2Br – CHBr – COOH
Br
Br
(3) H C CH2
(4) CH2Br – CH2 – COBr
Br COOH

- 22 -
Sol: [1]
H3C CH2 Br
Br2
C O 
(HVZ reaction)
 H3C C COOH
HO Br
96. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces:
Cl
Cl
Cl C Cl
(1) Cl HC (2)
Cl CH2
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
OH
(3) (4) Cl C Cl
Cl C Cl Cl
H
Cl
H Cl
Cl
CH O  dil. H2SO4
  Cl
Sol: [1] Cl C Cl Cl
H Cl
Cl
Cl
97. Consider the following reaction:
CH 3Cl Alka line KMnO 4
Phenol 
Zn dust
 X 
Anhydrous AlCl3
 Y  Z
the product Z is:
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene (3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid
Sol: [4]
OH CH3 COOH
Zn CH3 Cl alkaline KMnO4


 ZnO
 
anhy.AlCl3
  
(Friedel Craft
reaction)

- 23 -
98. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon,
CH3 CH3
H3C C CH CH CH C CH
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
CH3
is in the following sequence:

(1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3 (3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
Sol: [2] sp, sp3, sp2, sp3
99. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is:
(1) nucleoside (2) nucleotide (3) ribose (4) gene
Sol: [4] gene
100. Which of the following hormones contains iodine?

(1) thyroxine (2) insulin (3) testosterone (4) adrenaline
Sol: [1] Thyroxine


- 24 -

2009 Cbse PMT 2

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CBSE - 2009 (Pre)

PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY SET-A

Dimension of pressure = [M1 L–1 T–2]

R  mg 28000  2000  9.8

Sol: Ans [3]

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [2] 2 m

(1) 10 2 kg (2) 2 10 kg (3) 10 kg (4) 20 kg

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

7 (227  273) 4 (500) 4

 330  30  600  330 360

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

y = (0.02)m sin (7.85 x – 1005 t)

number of beats = 1 –2 = 143.78 – 136.82 = 6.96  7

M = 2 × 104 J/T ; B = 6 × 10–4 T ; Q1 = 0° ; Q2 = 60°

Work = 2 × 104 × 6 × 10–4 (cos 0 – cos 60) = 6 J.

 2(4kˆ  0)  8kˆ newton.

Sol: Ans [2]

 [(2 xy  z 3 )iˆ  ˆj (  x 2 )  kˆ( 3z 2 x )]

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [2]

1 = (i1 + i2)R + i1r1

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

1 (4a 2 ) 1 4b 2 1 4c 2

1 4a 2 1 4b 2 1 4c 2

1 4a 2 1 4b 2 1 4c 2

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Diamagnetic material is repelled by magnetic field.

Number of photo electrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity of light.

(1) 3 × 1019 (2) 9 × 1017 (3) 3 × 1016 (4) 9 × 1015

Sol: Ans [3]

 = 667 nm = 667 × 10–9 m

9  103  667  109

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

(1) n = 4 to n = 3 states (2) n = 3 to n = 2 states

(3) n = 3 to n = 1 states (4) n = 2 to n = 1 states

(1) directly proportional to mass M1 (2) directly proportional to M1 × M2

(3) directly proportional to z1 z2 (4) inversely proportional to z1

45. In the nuclear decay given below:

the particles emitted in the sequence are:

(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 

(1) 5 × 107 (2) 8 × 107 (3) 5 × 10–11 (4) 8 × 10–11

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

(1) 8.6 Å (2) 6.8 Å (3) 4.3 Å (4) 3.0 Å

(1) 4000 Å (2) 6000 Å (3) 4000 nm (4) 6000 nm

hc 6.6  1034  3  108

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

H g  {Bond energy of the reactants – Bond energy of product}

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Cu 2  2e  Cu E   0.337 V; ΔG1   nFE10  2  F 0.337

Cu   e  Cu 2  E   0.1537 V; ΔG 2   nFE 02  1 F 0.153

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

 d[N 2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[NH 3 ]

Sol.: Ans. [3]

Observed frezzing point

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

d(Br2 ) 3 d(Br  ) d(Br2 ) 3 d(Br  )

d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br  ) d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br  )

BRO 3 (aq) + 5 Br(aq)

 d[BrO 3 ] 1 d[Br  ] 1 d[Br2 ] 1 d[H 2 O]