APT2 Tes

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 100 questions.
3. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct
response.
PART A PHYSICS (144 marks)
Question No. 1 to 18 & 25 to 30 consist of FOUR (4) marks and 19 to 24 consist of EIGHT (8) marks for each correct
response.
PART B CHEMISTRY (144 marks)
Question No. 31 to 54 consist of FOUR (4) marks and Question No. 55 to 60 consist of Eight (8) marks for each correct
response.
PART C MATHEMATICS (144 marks)
Question No. 61 to 65, 67, 68 & 70 to 90 consist of Three (3) marks, 92 to 100 consist of Four (4) marks and 66, 69, 91
consist of EIGHT (8) marks for each correct response.
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each question.
(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score
will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom
of each page.
7. On completion of the test, the candiate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However,
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Make sure that the CODE printed of the Answer Sheet is the same c as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the
condidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator fo replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Date : 18-04-2011 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 432
AIEEE PREPARATORY TEST-2 (APT-2)
TARGET : AIEEE 2011
0
CODE
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CLASS - XII / XIII
RESONANCE APT-2 180411C0-1
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
PART-A
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 18 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A convex lens forms a real image 9 cm long on a screen. Without altering the position of the object and
the screen, the lens is displaced and we get again a real image 4 cm long on the screen. Then the length
of the object is-
(1) 9 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 6 cm (4) 36 cm
2. As shown in the fig. the uniform magnetic field between the two identical plates is B. There is a hole
in the plate. If through this hole a particle of charge q, mass m and kinetic energy E enters the
magnetic field, then the particle will not collide with the upper plate provided

B
d
d
v
(1)
2mE
B
qd
!
(2)
2mE
B
qd
!
(3)
2mE
B
qd
"
(4)
2mE
B
qd
"
3. Copper and silver voltameters are connected in series. If 0.8 gm of copper is deposited in copper voltameter,
then the amount of silver deposited in silver voltameter will be
(Chemical equivalents of copper and silver are 32 and 108 respectively)
(1) 0.27 kg (2) 2.7 kg (3) 27 gm (4) 2.7 gm
4. Figure shows the intensity-wavelength relations of X-rays coming from two different Coolidge tubes.
The solid curve represents the relation for the tube A in which the potential difference between the
target and the filament is V
A
and the atomic number of the target material is Z
A
. These quantities are V
B
and Z
B
for the other tube. Then,
(1) V
A
> V
B
, Z
A
> Z
B
(2) V
A
> V
B
, Z
A
< Z
B

(3) V
A
< V
B
, Z
A
> Z
B
(4) V
A
< V
B
, Z
A
< Z
B
5. The potential energy of a particle in a certain field is given by
2
a b
U
r r
# $
, where a and b are positive
constants and r is the distance from the centre of the field. The distance of particle in the stable equilibrium
position is
(1)
a
b
(2)
a
b
$
(3)
2a
b
(4)
2a
b
$
6. A playground merry-go-round is at rest, pivoted about a frictionless axis. A child of mass m runs on the
ground along the path tangential to the rim with speed v and jumps on to merry-go-round. If R be the
radius of merry-go-round and I is the moment of inertia, then the angular velocity of the merry-go-round
and the child is :
(1)
2
mvR
mR I %
(2)
mvR
I
(3)
2
mR I
mvR
%
(4)
I
mvR
7. A microscope consists of an objective with a focal length 2 mm and an eye piece with a focal length 40 mm.
The distance between the foci (which are between the lenses) of objective and eyepiece is 18 cm. The total
magnification of the microscope is (Consider normal adjustment and take D = 25 cm)
(1) 562.5 (2) 625 (3) 265 (4) 62.5
8. The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 ms
2
. Suppose the earth suddently shrinks uniformly to half its
present size without losing any mass. The value of g at the same point (distance of the point from the
centre of earth does not change) will now be :
(1)
2
9.8ms
$
(2)
2
4.9ms
$
(3)
2
19.6ms
$
(4)
2
39.2ms
$
9. Assuming that the junction diode is ideal, the current in the arrangement shown in the figure is :
R=100&
1V 2V
(1) 0 mA (2) 2 mA (3) 10 mA (4) 30 mA
10. Two junction diodes one of Germanium (Ge) and other of silicon (Si) are connected as shown in figure to a
battery of emf 12 V and a load resistance 10k&. The germanium diode conducts at 0.3 V and silicon diode
at 0.7 V. When a current flows in the circuit, the potential of terminal Y will be
10 k&
Y
12 V
Ge
Si
(1) 12 V (2) 11 V (3) 11.3 V (4) 11.7 V
11. A semiconductor X is made by doping a germanium crystal with arsenic (Z = 33). A second semiconductor
Y is made by doping germanium with indium (Z = 49). The two are joined end to end and connected to a
battery as shwon. Which of the following statements is correct?
X Y
(1) X is p-type, Y is n-type and the junction is forward biased
(2) X is n-type, Y is p-type and the junction is forward biased
(3) X is p-type, Y is n-type and the junction is reverse biased
(4) X is n-type, Y is p-type and the junction is reverse biased
12. A block of ice at 10
0
C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100
0
C. Which of the following curves
represents the phenomenon qualitatively
(1)
T
e
m
p
Heat supplied
(2)
T
e
m
p
Heat supplied
(3)
T
e
m
p
Heat supplied
(4)
T
e
m
p
Heat supplied
13. A potential barrier of 0.4 V exists across a p-n junction. A constant electric field of magnitude 10
6
V/m
exists in the depletion region. The width of depletion region is
(1) 4 10
7
m (2) 0.1 m (3) 5 10
7
m (4) None of these
14. If energy(E), velocity(V) and force(F) be taken as fundamental quantity, then what are the dimension of mass
(1) EV
2
(2) EV
2
(3) FV
1
(4) FV
2
15. The expression y = a sin bx sin 't represents a stationary wave. The distance between two consecutive
nodes is -
(1)
b
(
(2)
b 2
(
(3)
b
2(
(4)
b
1
16. In an interference pattern the (n + 4)
th

blue bright fringe and nth red bright fringe are formed at the same spot.
If red and blue light have the wavelength of 7800 and 5200 then value of n should be -
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
17. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increase, the binding energy per nucleon
(1) increases continuously with mass number
(2) decreases continuously with mass number
(3) remains constant with mass number
(4) first increases and then decreases with increase of mass number
18. Potential difference between the points P and Q in the electric circuit shown is -
i=1.5A
R =12
c
& R =6
D
&
R =2
A
& R =4
B
&
3&
P
Q
(1) 4.5 V (2) 1.2 V (3) 2.4 V (4) 2.88 V
SECTION - II
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
19. Flux ) (in webers) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in seconds) according
to the equation ) = 6t
2
5t + 1. What is the magnitude of the induced current in 0.25 second-
(1) 0.8 A (2) 1.2 A (3) 0.6 A (4) 0.2 A
20. A flywheel is in the form of a uniform circular disc of radius 1 m and mass 2 kg. The work which mustbe
done on it to increase its frequency of rotation from 5 revs
-1
to 10 revs
-1
is approximately
(1)
2
1.5 10 J + (2)
2
3.0 10 J + (3)
3
1.5 10 J + (4)
3
3.0 10 J +
21. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied which
increases the internal energy of the gas is
(1)
2
5
, -
. /
0 1
(2)
3
5
, -
. /
0 1
(3)
3
7
, -
. /
0 1
(4)
5
7
, -
. /
0 1
22. The fundamental frequency of a string stretched with a weight of 4kg is 256 Hz. The weight required to
produce its octave is -
(1) 4 kg wt (2)12 kg wt (3) 16 kg wt (4) 24 kg wt
23. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm x 4 cm of a black body at a temperature of 127
0
C emits energy at the
rate of E per second. If the length and breadth of the surface are each reduced to half of its initial value, and
the temperature is raised to 327
0
C, the rate of emission of energy will become
(1)
3
E
8
(2)
81
E
16
(3)
9
E
16
(4)
81
E
64
24. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of the
shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P at a distance R/2 from the centre of the shell is :
(1)
R 4
Q 2
0
(2
(2)
R 4
q 2
R 4
Q 2
0 0
(2
$
(2
(3)
R 4
q
R 4
Q 2
0 0
(2
%
(2
(4)
R 4
) Q q (
0
(2
%
R
2
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 25 to 27
The bob of a pendulum of mass of m and length ! and a charge of q is in the rest position in a uniform
horizontal electric field of E.
25. The tension in the string of the pendulum is :
(1) mg (2) qE (3)
3 4
2 / 1
2 2
) qE ( ) mg ( %
(4)
3 4
4 / 1
2 2
) qE ( ) mg ( %
26. Find out the angle 5 made by string from vertical in equilibrium positon :
(1)
/
/
1
-
.
.
0
,
$
qE
mg
tan
1
(2)
/
/
1
-
.
.
0
,
$
qE
mg
sin
1
(3)
/
/
1
-
.
.
0
,
$
qE
mg
cos
1
(4) /
/
1
-
.
.
0
,
$
mg
qE
tan
1
27. Find out time period of small oscillations from mean position :
(1)
g
2
!
(
(2)
g 2
1 !
(
(3)
2 / 1
2
2
m
qE
g
2
/
/
1
-
.
.
0
,
/
1
-
.
0
,
%
(
!
(4)
2 / 1
2
2
m
qE
g
2
1
/
/
1
-
.
.
0
,
/
1
-
.
0
,
%
(
!
In the Young's double slit experiment a point source of 6 = 5000 is placed slightly off the central axis as
shown in the figure.
28. Find the nature and order of the interference at the point P :
(1) 70
th
maxima (2) 70
th
minima (3) 60
th
maxima (4) 60
th
minima
29. Find the nature and order of the interference at O :
(1) 20
th
minima (2) 20
th
maxima (3) 10
th
maxima (4) 10
th
minima
30. Where should we place a film of refractive 7 = 1.5 and what should be its thickness so that maxima of zero
order is obtained at O.
(1) Infront of S
1
, 20 7m (2) Infront of S
2
, 20 7m
(3) Infront of S
1
, 10 7m (4) Infront of S
2
, 10 7m
PART-B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br =
80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
This section contains 24 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which of the following has the minimum bond length ?
(1) O
2
+
(2) O
2
(3) O
2
2
(4) O
2
32. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO
4
]
4
is shared ?
(1) Linear chain silicate (2) Sheet silicate
(3) Pyrosilicate (4) Three dimensional silicate
33. Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds
respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be :
(1) 50.00 u (2) 12.25 u (3) 6.50 u (4) 25.00 u
34. The energies E
1
and E
2
of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their
wavelengths i.e. !
1
and !
2
will be :
(1) !
1
= !
2
(2) !
1
= 2!
2
(3) !
1
= 4!
2
(4) !
1
=
2
1
!
2
35. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N
2
. If the total pressure of the mixture
was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N
2
) in the mixture is :
(1) 0.5 atm (2) 0.8 atm (3) 0.9 atm (4) 1 atm
36. The complexes [Co(NH
3
)
6
] [Cr(CN)
6
] and [Cr(NH
3
)
6
] [Co(CN)
6
] are the examples of which type of isomerism?
(1) Linkage isomerism (2) Ionization isomerism
(3) Coordination isomerism (4) Geometrical isomerism
37. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method ?
(1) Ga and "n (2) Zr and Ti (3) Ag and Au (4) Ni and Fe
38. In the reaction
A(s) + B(g) + Heat 2C(s) + 2D(g)
equilibrium is established. The pressure of D is increased and found be doubled when equilibriium is
restablished. The factor by which B is changed is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4)
3
39. For the reaction NO
2
+ CO # CO
2
+ NO the experimental rate expression is
dt
dc
= k[NO
2
]
2
the number
of molecules of CO involves in the slowest step will be -
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
40. Which of the following will have maximum electron affinity :
(1) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
5
(2) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
(3) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
5
(4) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
41. The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH
3
)
4
(NO
2
)Cl]SO
4
is
(1) tetramminechloronitroplatinum ("") sulphate (2) tetramminechloronitroplatinum ("V) sulphate
(3) chlorotetramminenitroplatinum ("V) sulphate (4) chloronitrotetrammineplatinum ("V) sulphate
42. Which one of the following statements is correct:
(1) Brownian movement is more pronounced for smaller particles than for bigger ones
(2) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic
(3) Schulze-Hardy law states, the bigger the size of the ion, the greater is its coagulating power
(4) One would expect charcoal to adsorb hydrogen gas more strongly than chlorine.
43. Nesslers reagent is a mixture of
(1) HgCl
2
and K" (excess) (2) HgCl
2
, K" (excess) and liquor ammonia
(3) HgCl
2
, K" (excess) and KOH (4) K
2
[Hg"
4
] and K"
44. Critical temperature of a gas is ______ its Boyle temperature .
(1) higher than (2) equal to (3) lower than (4) no relation
45. Which of the following statement is wrong.
(1) Resonance effect operates through $ bonds.
(2) All resonating structure of carboxylate ion are equivalent.
(3) Resonance and inductive effect are permanent in nature.
(4) Resonance and inductive effect are distance dependent.
46. % % % % # %
4 2
CCl / Br
(Y) % % % % % # %
& / NaNH
2
(Z)

The correct statement is :
(1) Compounds W and Z are same. (2) Compounds X and Z are same.
(3) Compounds X and W are same. (4) None of the compounds (X, Y, Z and W) are same.
47. B % % % % % % % % % '
2
H / catalyst Lindlar
RC(CR % % % % # %
3
NH / Na
A, A and B are geometrical isomers. (RCH=CHR).
(1) A is cis, B is trans (2) A is trans, B is cis
(3) A and B both are cis (4) A and B both are trans.
48. Which of the following is a nonreducing sugar ?
(1)
O
||
OH CH ) CHOH ( C OHCH
2 3 2
) ) )
(2)
(3) (4)
49. In which of the following reaction, the stereo chemistry of the product has been correctly shown
(1)
% % # %
"
3
P
(2)
% % % % % # %
Ether / SOCl
2
(3)
% % # %
HBr
(4)
% % % % % % # %
Pyridine / SOCl
2
50. What is the acidity order of the following compounds
I
COOH
II
COOH
CH
3
III
COOH
CH
3
IV
COOH
CH
3
V
COOH
CH
3
CH
3
(1) I > II > III > IV > V (2) II > III > IV > V > I
(3) V > III > I > II > IV (4) V > III > II > I > IV
51. Which of the following is polyamide molecule?
(1) Terylene (2) Rayon (3) Nylon6 (4) Polystyrene
52. 3HC(CH % % % % % % # %
tion Polymerisa
X
4 2
3
SO H . conc
HNO . conc
% % % % % # % Y Y % % % % # %
HCl / Sn
Z
) C 5 0 (
HCl ,
2
NaNO
!
% % % % % # %
NaOH dil
Phenol
% % % # % W
Product W can be :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
53. Which statement is INCORRECT.
(1) Phenol has smaller dipolemoment than methanol.
(2) Haloarenes are insoluble in water but are soluble in benzene.
(3) Chloroform contains chlorine but gives no reaction with AgNO
3
solution.
(4) Ethanol has much lower pka value than phenol.
54. C
6
H
12
% % % % % # %
* O
2
H Zn ,
3
O
(y)
OH
2
NH
% % # % (z)
4
SO
2
H
% % # %
(x)
Compound x in the above reaction will be
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
SECTION - II
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
55. The number of hydroxide ions in 10 ml of an aquesous solution with pOH = 13 is
(1) 10
13
(2) 6.023 x 10
8
(3) 6.023 x 10
13
(4) 6.023 x 10
10
56. The volume occupied by atoms in a simple cubic unit cell is : (edge length = a)
(1) a
3
(2)
3
a 4
3
$
(3)
6
a
3
$
(4)
8
3$
57. Which is the correct relation between osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl solution & 0.1 M

Na
2
SO
4

solution:
(1) the osmotic pressure of Na
2
SO
4

is less than NaCl

solution
2
SO
4

is more than NaCl solution
2
SO
4

is 1.5 times that of NaCl solution
(4) the osmotic pressure of NaCl

is 1.5 times that of Na
2
SO
4
solution
58. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are 382.64 kJ
mol
1
and 145.6 J K
1
mol
1
, respectively. Standard Gibb's energy change for the same reaction at 298 K is:
(1) 2221.1 kJ mol
1
(2) 339.3 kJ mol
1
(3) 439.3 kJ mol
1
(4) 523.2 kJ mol
1
59. The d-electron configurations of Cr
2+
, Mn
2+
, Fe
2+
and Co
2+
are d
4
, d
5
, d
6
and d
7
respectively. Which one of
the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour ?
(1) [Mn(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
(2) [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
(3) [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
(4) [Cr(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
(At, nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
60. The electrode potentials for
Cu
2+
(aq)
+ e
%# % Cu
+
(aq)
and Cu
+
(aq)
+ e
%# % Cu
(s)
are +0.15 V and + 0.50 respectively. The value of
Cu / Cu
2
E
*
will be :
(1) 0.500 V (2) 0.325 V (3) 0.650 V (4) 0.150 V
PART-C
SECTION - I
This section contains 30 questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. If
a
!
,
b
!
,
c
!
are unit vectors, then the maximum value of
2
| b 3 a 2 |
!
!
+
2
| c 3 b 2 |
!
!
+
2
| a 3 c 2 |
! !
is
(1) 27 (2) 39 (3) 51 (4) 57
62. If the curves
2
2
a
x
+
2
2
b
y
= 1 and
2
2
x
o

2
2
y
|
= 1 cut each other orthogonally, then
(1) a
2
+ b
2
= o
2
+ |
2
(2) a
2
b
2
= o
2
|
2
(3) a
2
b
2
= o
2
+ |
2
(4) a
2
+ b
2
= o
2
|
2
63. If A = {(x, y): y = e
x
, x e R}, B = {(x, y): y = x , x e R}, then
(1) A B c (2) B A c (3) B A = | (4) B A = AA
64. The area bounded by the function f(x) = x
2
: R
+
R
+
and its inverse function is
(1)
2
1
sq. units (2)
3
1
sq. unit (3)
3
2
sq. units (4)
6
1
sq. units
65. The greatest value of the function f(x) = 2sin x + sin 2x on the interval (
t
2
3
, 0
is
(1)
2
3 3
(2) 3 (3)
2
3
(4) none of these
66. Find the radius of largest circle in the following figure if all the three small circles are identical of radius r
(1)
r 1
3
2
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
(2)
r 1
3
2
|
|
.
|
\
|
(3)
|
|
.
|
\
|
+1
3
2
r
(4)
r 1
3
2
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
67. If o, | be the roots of x
2
+ x + 2 = 0 and , o be the roots of x
2
+ 3x + 4 = 0 then (o + )(o + o)(| + )(| + o)
is equal to
(1) 18 (2) 18 (3) 24 (4) 44
68. ABCD is a square taken in anticlockwise direction with A as (1 2i) and the point of intersection of diagonals
is E (6 i) then vertex D is
(1) 7 6i (2) 5 4i (3) 5 + 4i (4) none of these
69. For real numbers x and y, we write x R y x y +
2
is an irrational number. Then the relation R is
(1) reflexive only (2) symmetric only (3) transitive only (4) equivalence relation
70. The value of
3 cos x
lim
[cos
1
x] where [ ] denotes greatest integer function is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 3 (4) Limit does not exist
71. Which of the following transformation reduces the differential equation
dx
dz
+
x
z
" nz =
2
x
z
( " nz)
2
into the
form
dx
du
+ P(x) u = Q(x) ? Where P(x) and Q(x) are function of x
(1) u = "nz (2) u = e
z
(3) u = ("nz)
1
(4) u = ("nz)
2
72. If (1 + 3x + 3x
2
)
20
= a
0
+ a
1
x + a
2
x
2
+ a
3
x
3
+ a
4
x
4
+ a
5
x
5
+ ....... + a
40
x
40
, then find the value of
2a
2
6a
3
+ 12a
4
20a
5
......... + 1560a
40
(1) 3450 (2) 3350 (3) 3540 (4) 2150
73. If g = f
1
then [f(g(x))]'' equals
(1) 3
)] x ( g [
) x ( g
'
' '
(2) 0 (3)
) x ( g
1
' '
(4) 3
)] x ( g [
1
'
74. A is a region such that
4
z
and
z
4
have their real and imaginary parts s e (0, 1). If P = area of region A then [P]
equals ([x] represents greatest integer x)
(1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4
75. In how many ways 4 mangoes, 1 orange, 1 banana, 1 watermelon can be arranged in a row so that none of
the mangoes is together. Assume that fruits of same kind are identical
(1) 144 (2) 288 (3)
! 4
! 12
(4) none of these
76. The negation of the compound proposition p v (~ p v q) is
(1) p . q (2) t (3) f (4) (p . q) . ~ p
77. In a quadrilateral ABCD if sin
|
.
|
\
| +
2
B A
cos
|
.
|
\
|
2
B A
+ sin
|
.
|
\
| +
2
D C
cos
|
.
|
\
|
2
D C
= 2 then
2
A
cos cos
2
B
is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 2
78. If 4no = t, then the numerical value of tano . tan2o. tan3o.....tan(2n 1)o is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2
79. If head means one and tail means two then coefficients of quadratic equation ax
2
+ bx + c = 0 are chosen
by tossing three fair coins. The probability that roots of the equation are imaginary is
(1)
8
5
(2)
8
3
(3)
8
7
(4)
8
1
80. |tanx + secx| = |tanx| |secx|, x e [0, 2t], if and only if x belongs to the interval
(1) [0, t) (2)
|
.
|
t
2
, 0
(
\
|
t
t
,
2
(3)
|
.
|
t
t
2
3
,
(
\
|
t
t
2 ,
2
3
(4) none of these
81. Matrix A such that A
2
= 2A I, where I is the identity matrix. Then for n > 2, A
n
is equal to
(1) nA (n 1) I (2) nA I (3) 2
n 1
A (n 1) I (4) 2
n 1
A I
82. y = f(x) be a function such that f(x) = min{ } ) x 2 ( , ) x 2 ( x then the area bounded by y = f(x) and x-axis is
equal to
(1)
4
1
2
+
t
(2)
4
1
4
+
t
(3)
2
1
4
+
t
(4)
2
1
2
+
t
83. If p(x) be polynomial satisfying the identity p(x
2
) + 2x
2
+ 10x = 2x p(x + 1) + 3, then function p(x) is
(1) one-one (2) many-one (3) periodic (4) even
84. For all positive integers n, P(n) is true 2
n 2
> 3n then which of the following is true.
(1) P(3) is true. (2) P(5) is true.
(3) If P(m) is true then P(m + 1) is also true. (4) If P(m) is true then P(m + 1) is not true.
85. The reflection of the point A(1,0,0) in the line
2
1 x
=
3
2 y +
= 20 z is
(1) (3, 4, 2) (2) (5, 10, 38) (3) (1, 1, 10) (4) (2, 3, 8)
86. The top of a pole, placed against a wall at an angle o with the horizon just touches the coping and when its
foot is moved a meter away from the wall and its angle of inclination is |, it rests on the sill of a window, the
vertical distance of the sill from the coping is
(1) a sin
|
.
|
\
| | + o
2
(2) a cot
|
.
|
\
| | + o
2
(3) a cot
|
.
|
\
| | + o
2
(4) a tan
|
.
|
\
| | + o
2
87.
|
.
|
\
|
(
+ + + +

1 n n 1 n n lim
2 2
n
where [ ] denotes the greatest integer function is
(1) 0 (2) 1/2 (3) 2/3 (4) 1/4
88. Two sides of a rhombus are parallel to the lines y = x + 2 and y = 7x + 3. If the diagonals of the rhombus
intersect at point (1, 2) and vertex A lies on y-axis then coordinates of A are
(1) (0, 1) (2) (0, 1) (3) (0, 2) (4) |
.
|
\
|
2
5
, 0
89. If f(x) = o
n
+ |
n
and
) 4 ( f 1 ) 3 ( f 1 ) 2 ( f 1
) 3 ( f 1 ) 2 ( f 1 ) 1 ( f 1
) 2 ( f 1 ) 1 ( f 1 3
+ + +
+ + +
+ +
= k (1 o)
2
(1 |)
2
(o |)
2
, then k is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) o| (4) o|
90. Let x
1
, x
2
,........x
n
be n observations such that 400 x
2
i
= and 80 x
i
= . Then a possible value of n
among the following is
(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 18
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
91. If a, b, c are distinct numbers in arithmetic progression and roots of the quadratic equation
(a + 2b 3c)x
2
+ (b + 2c 3a)x + (c + 2a 3b) = 0 are o and | then both o and | belong to domain of
(1) sin
1
x (2) sec
1
(secx) (3) sec(sec
1
x) (4) tan
1
x
92. If the sum of the products taken two at a time of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, ......., 10 is N then
220
N
(1) is a prime number (2) is a composite number
(3) has two proper divisors (4) has 18 as sum of its divisors
93. The slope of the tangent to the hyperbola
25
x
2

16
y
2
= 1 which passes through the point (1, 4) is
(1) 1 (2)
3
4
(3) 2 (4) 1
94. If f(x) =
s + t +
>
+
0 x , 4 ln x x sin e
0 x ,
x
1 2 4 8
x
2
x x x x
is continuous at x = 0, then is a
(1) rational number (2) irrational number (3) natural number (4) complex number
95.
}
dx | x | n | x | "
equals (x = 0)
(1)
2
x
2
| x | n "
4
x
2
+ c , x = 0 (2)
2
1
| x | n | x | x "
4
1
| x | x + c, x = 0
(3)
2
x
2
| x | n " +
4
x
2
+ c, x < 0 (4)
2
x
2
| x | n "
4
x
2
+ c , x > 0
96. A letter is selected from each of the words MATHEMATICS and STATISTICS the probability that the same
letters is selected is
b
a
then a + b + 3 (where a and b are co-prime) is divisible by
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 13
97. If P(A) denotes power set of set A, then
(1) P(A) A = A (2) P(A) A = | (3) P(A) {A} = A (4) P(A) A = P(A)
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 questions. Each question has
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Definite integral of any discontinuous function is normally solved by the property
}
b
a
dx ) x ( f =
}
c
a
dx ) x ( f +
}
b
c
dx ) x ( f , where c e (a, b) is the point of discontinuity of f(x).
98. The value of
}
2
2
1
) x ec (cos ec cos dx is
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 2
99. The value B =
}
100
1
1
] x [sec dx (where [.] denotes greatest integer funciton) is equal to
(1) sec1 (2) 100 sec1 (3) 99 sec1 (4) sec 1 100
100. The value of
}
t
0
1
dx ) x (sin cos is
(1)
4
3
2
t
(2)
2
2
t
(3)
4
2
t
(4) 0

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