FIITJEE Admission Test

FI I TJEE Ltd.
., FI ITJ EE House, 29-A, Kal u Sarai , Sarvapri ya Vi har, New Del hi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
websi te: www.fi i tjee.com
FI I TJEE Admission Test
for students soon going to
Class 10

Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 270

1. You are advised to devote 1 Hour on Section - I and 2 Hours on Section - II.

2. This Question Paper consists of 2 sections. All questions will be multiple choice single correct
out of four choices with marking scheme in table below:

Marking Scheme for each
question
Section
Question
No. Correct
answer
Wrong
answer
SECTION I
(IQ)
Q. 1 to 30 +3 1
Physics Q. 31 to 50 +3 1
Chemistry Q. 51 to 70 +3 1
SECTION II
(PCM)
Mathematics Q. 71 to 90 +3 1

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.

4. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.

5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.

6. Before attempting paper write your Name, Registration Number and Test Centre in the
space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Registration Number :

Name of Candidate : _______________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _______________________________________________________________

Instructions:
PAPER - 1
Sample Paper (AT)-2014-15-IQ+PCM-C-X-Paper-1-2

FI I TJEE Ltd., FI ITJ EE House, 29-A, Kal u Sarai , Sarvapri ya Vi har, New Del hi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
S Se ec ct ti io on n I I IQ

Directions (Q. 1 to 3): Find the odd one out:

1. (A) Apple (B) Mango
(C) Orange (D) Papaya

2. (A) J anuary (B) March
(C) J une (D) November

3. (A) EKG (B) J PL
(C) CHE (D) HNJ

4. Find the wrong term in the letter number series given below:
G4T, J 10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(A) J 10R (B) M20P
(C) P43N (D) G4T

5. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series
A3E, D6H, ?, J 12H
(A) F9J (B) F9K
(C) G9L (D) G9E

Directions (Q. 6 to 11): These questions are based on 26 English alphabet, where 1
st
Letter on Left end
is A and 26
th
on Right end is Z.

6. Which letter is 8
th
to the left of seventh letter from the right?
(A) O (B) L
(C) T (D) P

7. Which letter is 4
th
to the left of 7
th
from the left?
(A) B (B) C
(C) A (C) D

8. If every fourth letter from left to right of English alphabet is dropped then 10
th
letter from the right
will be _____
(A) M (B) N
(C) L (D) None of these
Space for rough work


9. If every alternate letter of the given alphabet series (English alphabets A Z) starting from A
indicates the every next 3
rd
month of the year. A indicates March 2001, then which letter indicates
the last month of the year 2001?
(A) G (B) K
(C) H (D) F

10. If the alphabets are written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting with Y is
dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the alphabets?
(A) M (B) N
(C) O (D) L

11. If the first half of English Alphabets are reversed then, which letter will be 11
th
to the left of 26
th

letter from the left?
(A) M (B) N
(C) O (D) C

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word EXCLUSIVE which have as many letters between
them as in the English alphabets in cyclic order?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

13. In certain code BROTHER is written as $%53#4% and DREAM is written as 9%47. How is
THREAD written in that code?
(A) #3%479 (B) 3#%479
(C) 3#%79 (D) None of these

14. If sky is called bright, bright is called rain, rain is called green, green is called air, air is called
blue, blue is called water, then where does a bird fly?
(A) Bright (B) Sky
(C) Blue (D) Air

15. If A is brother of B, C is the sister of A, D is the brother of E, E is the daughter of B, F is the father
of C, then who is the uncle of D?
(A) B (B) A
(C) E (D) C

16. PALE : LEAP : : POSH : ?
(A) HOSP (B) POHS
(C) SHOP (D) POSH

17. BUCKET : ACTVBDJ LDFUV : : BONUS : ?
(A) ACMNMOTVRT (B) SUNOB
(C) ACNPMOTVRT (D) ACMNMOTURT


Directions (Q. 18 to 19): In the following question of data sufficiency, a question is given with two
statements, you have to mark choice
(A) If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement II alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement I alone is not sufficient.
(C) Together statement I and II are sufficient but neither of them alone is sufficient
(D) Even together statement I and II are not sufficient.

18. Find the number of days in the year X.
Statement I X is divisible by 4.
Statement II X is divisible by 100.
(A) (A) (B) (B)
(C) (C) (D) (D)

19. Is X >1?
Statement I X
2
=1.
Statement II |X| =2.
(A) (A) (B) (B)
(C) (C) (D) (D)

20. Which year after 2002 will have the same calendar as of 2002?
(A) 2009 (B) 2008
(C) 2013 (D) None of these

21. In a row of boys, Mukesh is 13th from the left and Suresh is 17th from the right. If in this row,
Mukesh is 11
th
from the right then what is the position of Suresh from the left?
(A) 6th (B) 7th
(C) 10th (D) 12
th

22. Pankaj is fifth from the left and Sandeep is twelfth from the right end in a row of children. If
Sandeep shifts three places towards Pankaj, he becomes tenth from the left end. How many
children are there in the row?
(A) 21 (B) 22
(C) 23 (D) 24

23. Which of the boxes (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed by the given net pattern (X)?

(1) (2) (3) (4) (X)

(A) 1 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


24. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its incorrect formation will be:
B F
D
E
A
C
A
E B
(A)
A
E D
(B)
D
C F
(C)
A
B F
(D)

Directions (Q. 25 to 27): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. D is second to the left of H, who is
third to the left of A. B is the fourth to the right of C, who is immediate neighbour of H. G is not a
neighbour of B or C, F is not a neighbour of B.

25. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second
person?
(A) DG (B) BE
(C) HB (D) GH

26. Who is third to the left of B?
(A) F (B) G
(C) C (D) D

27. What is Fs position with respected to G?
(A) Second towards right (B) Third towards left
(C) Third towards right (D) None of these

Directions (Q. 28 to 30): In each of these questions, find the missing character ?.
28.
5
4 7
3
11 8
8 2
1 64
27 ?

(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 125 (D) 216


29.
3
25 2 6
4
7 1
70 -12 8 5 11 4
6 ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 10

30.
466
341
250
398
282
?

(A) 232 (B) 268
(C) 298 (D) 350


S Se ec ct ti io on n I II I PCM

PHYSICS

31. A particle moves along a semicircle of radius 10m in 5 seconds. The average velocity of the
particle is is
(A)
1
2 ms
t (B)
1
4 ms
t
(C)
1
2 ms
(D)
1
4ms

32. A mass of 1kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is
connected to its lower end (see figure). If a sudden jerk is given to C,
then
(A) The portion AB of the string will break
(B) The portion BC of the string will break
(C) None of the strings will break
(D) The mass will start rotating

33. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000N, then its
acceleration is
(A) 30 ms
-2
downwards (B) 4 ms
-2
upwards
(C) 4 ms
-2
downwards (D) 14 ms
-2
upwards

34. A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5m/s. The work done by the
force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
(A) -1.25J (B) 1.25J
(C) 0.5J (D) -0.5J

35. A force of 5N, making an angle u with the horizontal, acting on an object displaces it by 0.4m
along the horizontal direction. If the object gains kinetic energy of 1J , the horizontal component of
the force is
(A) 1.5N (B) 2.5N
(C) 3.5N (D) 4.5N


36. Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R are placed in contact with each other. The
gravitational attraction between them is proportional to
(A) R
2
(B) R
-2
(C) R
4
(D) R
-4

37. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earths surface, the
mean density of the earth is
(A) 4 G/ 3gR t (B) 3 R / 4gG t
(C) 3g/ 4 RG t (D) RG/12G t

38. Unit of acceleration is
(A) N-Kg (B) N/m
(C) N/Kg (D) Kg/N

39. The correct statement from the following is
(A) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration
(B) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration
(C) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration
(D) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration

40. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3cm. How much further if
will penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces resistance to motion
(A) 1.5cm (B) 1.0cm
(C) 3.0cm (D) 2.0cm

41. A police jeep is chasing with velocity of 45 km/h a thief in another jeep moving with velocity 153
km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity with which it will strike the
car of the thief is
(A) 150 m/s (B) 27 m/s
(C) 450 m/s (D) 250 m/s

42. Same force acts on two bodies of different masses 3 kg and 5 kg initially at rest. The ratio of
times required to acquire same final velocity is
(A) 5:3 (B) 25:9
(C) 9:25 (D) 3:5


43. A sphere is accelerated upwards by a cord whose breaking strength is four times its weight. The
maximum acceleration with which the sphere can move up without breaking the cord is
(A) g (B) 3g
(C) 2g (D) 4g

44. A mass of 5kg is suspended by a rope of length 2m from a ceiling. A force of 50N in the
horizontal direction is applied at the mid- point of the rope. The angle made by the rope with the
vertical in equilibrium is
(A) 50
0
(B) 60
o
(C) 30
0
(D) 45
o

45. A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To one of its ends, a mass of 6kg is attached. To
its other end a mass of 10 kg is attached. The tension in the thread will be

(A) 24.5N (B) 2.45N
(C) 79N (D) 73.5N

46. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45
o
inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide down
the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the
inclined plane is
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.80

47. Two bodies of masses 1kg and 5kg are dropped gently from the top of a tower. At a point 20cm
from the ground, both the bodies will have the same
(A) Momentum (B) Kinetic energy
(C) Velocity (D) Total energy

6 kg
10 kg

48. A ball is projected vertically upwards with a certain initial speed. Another ball of the same mass is
projected at an angle of 60
o
with the vertical with the same initial speed. At highest points of their
journey, the ratio of their potential energies will be
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 3:2 (D) 4:1

49. If a body of mass 200g falls from a height 200m and its total P.E is converted into K.E. at the
point of contact of the body with earth surface, then what is the decrease in P.E. of the body at
the contact (g=10m/s
2
)
(A) 200J (B) 400J
(C) 600J (D) 900J

50. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(A) 2 (B)
1
2

(C)
1
2
(D) 2

CHEMISTRY

51. Which of the following represent the suitable conditions for the liquefaction of gases?
(A) low temperature, low pressure (B) high temperature, low pressure
(C) high temperature, high pressure (D) low temperature, high pressure

52. Dispersed particles are visible by the naked eyes, in a :
(A) suspension (B) true solution
(C) colloidal solution (D) all the above

53. To separate two miscible liquids having a difference of boiling points lesser than 25K, we use :
(A) fractional distillation (B) simple distillation
(C) separating funnel (D) chromatography


54. The size of colloidal particles is :
(A) smaller then
8
10
cm (B) bigger than

6
10
cm
(C) between
6
10
and
8
10
cm (D) none of the above

55. If 0.5 mol of BaCl
2
is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na
3
PO
4
, the maximum amount of Ba
3
(PO
4
)
2
that can
be formed is :
(A) 0.70 mol (B) 0.5 mol
(C) 0.20 mol (D) 0.10 mol

56. Evaporation is the process of a liquid changing into vapour :
(A) at its boiling point (B) below boiling point
(C) at 273 K (D) at 373 K

57. The correct order of steps to separate different components of a mixture containing iron filings,
sand and ammonium chloride is :
(A) solution, filtration and magnetic separation
(B) magnetic separation, solution and sublimation
(C) magnetic separation and sublimation
(D) solution, distillation and magnetic separation

58. To separate acetone and water (which have a difference of more than 25K in their boiling points)
we use the process of :
(A) fractional distillation (B) simple distillation
(C) chromatography (D) separating funnel

59. What mass of NH
3
(g) will be formed when 50 kg of N
2
(g) and 10.0 kg of H
2
(g) are mixed?
(A) 50.23 kg (B) 56.66 kg
(C) 60.7 kg (D) 85.0 kg

60. Which one of the following has least density?
(A) water (B) water vapour
(C) ice (D) common salt

61. Which of the following gas has lowest freezing point?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbondioxide (D) Helium


62. Which of the following mixtures cannot be separated by sublimation?
(A) NH
4
Cl +NaCl (B) NH
4
Cl +sand
(C) NH
4
Cl +I
2
(D) NH
4
Cl +CuSO
4

63. A sample of CaCO
3
contains
23
3.01 10 ions of Ca
2+
and
2
3
CO

. The mass of the sample is :
(A) 100 g (B) 50 g
(C) 200 g (D) 5 g

64. x grams of calcium carbonate was decomposed in air. The weight of the solid residue formed is
28 g. What is the value of x in grams?
(A) 44 (B) 200
(C) 150 (D) 50

65. An element X has the following isotopic composition
200
X : 90%,
199
X : 8.0%,
202
X : 2.0%. The
weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to
(A) 200 amu (B) 199 amu
(C) 201 amu (D) 202 amu

66. 0.56 g of gas occupies 280 cm
3
at NTP, then its molecular mass is .
(A) 4.8 (B) 44.8
(C) 2 (D) 22.4

67. How many H-atoms are present in 0.046g of ethanol?
(A)
20
6 10 (B)
21
1.2 10
(C)
21
3 10 (D)
21
3.6 10

68. Which of the following are physical changes?
(i) LPG is burnt in the kitchen (ii) Tawa is heated
(iii) kneeled flour is baked (iv) water is poured over hot tawa
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)


69. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ion
( )
3
N

are
(A) 2.4 N
A
(B) 4.2 N
A
(C) 3.2 N
A
(D) 1.6 N
A

70. In a compound C, H and N are present in the ratio 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. Molecular mass of the
compound is 108. Molecular formula of the compound is :
(A) C
2
H
6
N
2
(B) C
3
H
4
N
(C) C
6
H
8
N
2
(D) C
9
H
12
N
3

MATHEMATICS

71. The value of 0.23 0.22 + is
(A) 0.45 (B) 0.43
(C) 0.445 (D) 0.45

72. If
2/3 1/2
g t 4t ,
= + what is the value of gwhen t =64?

(A)
31
2
(B)
33
2

(C) 16 (D)
257
16

73. The positive square root of 7 48 + is
(A) 7 2 3 + (B) 7 3 +
(C) 2 3 + (D) 3 2 +

74. If
5 3
x y 3
2 3
= +
+
, then
(A) x 13 = , y 7 = (B) x 13, = y 7 =
(C) x 13, = y 7 = (D) x 13, = y 7 =


75. If
2
1 1
49a b 7a 7a ,
2 2
| || |
= +
| |
\ .\ .
then the value of bis
(A) 0 (B)
1
4

(C)
1
2
(D)
1
2

76. In Fig., if l m , then x =

65
o

40
o

x

m

(A) 105
o
(B) 65
o

(C) 40
o
(D) 25
o

77. The area of the triangle formed by the points A (2, 0), B (6, 0) and C (4, 6) is
(A) 24 sq. units (B) 12 sq. units
(C) 4 sq. units (D) 6 sq. units

78. In A ABC,
o
A 30 , Z =
o
B 40 Z = and
o
C 110 Z = . The angles of the triangle formed by joining the
mid-points of the sides of this triangle are
(A) 70
o
, 70
o
, 40
o
(B) 60
o
, 40
o
, 80
o
(C) 30
o
, 40
o
, 110
o
(D) 60
o
, 70
o
, 50
o

79. Which one of the following is not equal to
( )
1/2
3
8 ?

(A)
( )
1/2
3
2

(B)
1/6
8

(C)
( )
1/2
3
1
8
(D)
1
2



80. The value of m for which
1/4
1/3
2
m
2
1
7 ,
7
(

| |
(
=
`
|
(
\ .

)

is
(A)
1
3
(B)
1
4

(C) 3 (D) 2

81. In a right angled triangle, two sides other than the hypotenuse are 8 cm and 15 cm. Then, the
length of its circumradius is
(A)
17
2
cm (B)
15
2
cm
(C)
13
2
cm (D)
11
2
cm

82. If 2 1.4142, = then
2 1
2 1
+
is equal to
(A) 0.1718 (B) 5.8282
(C) 0.4142 (D) 2.4142

83. If
2 2 2
a b c ab bc ca 0, + + = then
(A) a b c + = (B) b c a + =
(C) c a b + = (D) a b c = =

84. The factors of
3 3
x 1 y 3xy + + are
(A) ( ) ( )
2 2
x 1 y x 1 y x y xy + + + + + (B) ( )( )
2 2
x y 1 x y 1 xy x y + + + +
(C) ( ) ( )
2 2
x 1 y x 1 y x y xy + + + + (D) ( ) ( )
2 2
3 x y 1 x y 1 + +

85. If 3x a b c, = + + then the value of ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )( )
3 3 3
x a x b x c 3 x a x b x c + + is
(A) a b c + + (B) ( )( )( ) a b b c c a
(C) 0 (D) None of these


86. If ( )
7
7 6 5
7 6 5 1 0
3x 1 a x a x a x ... a x a , = + + + + + then
7 6 5 1 0
a a a ... a a + + + + + =
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 128 (D) 64

87. Two straight lines AB and CD intersect one another at the point O. If
o
AOC COB BOD 274 , Z + Z + Z = then AOD Z =
(A) 86
o
(B) 90
o

(C) 94
o
(D) 137
o

88. In Fig., ABC is a triangle in which B 2 C. Z = Z D is a point on side BC such that AD bisects
BAC Z and AB =CD. The measure of BAC Z is

A
B C
D

(A) 72
o
(B) 90
o

(C) 120
o
(D) 60
o

89. If
1
p 3
p
= + , then value of
2
p
p p 1 +
is
(A)
7
4
(B)
5
4

(C)
3
4
(D)
1
4

90. If y 1 = , then value of
2 3 4 5
1 1 1 1 1
1
y y y y y
+ + + + + is
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2

FI I TJEE Admission Test
for students soon going to
Class 10

ANSWER KEYS

SECTION I (IQ)

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A
5. D 6. B 7. B 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. C
17. C 18. D 19. A 20. C
21. B 22. D 23. D 24. B
25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D
29. B 30. A

SECTION II (PHYSICS)

31. D 32. B 33. B 34. A
35. B 36. C 37. C 38. C
39. A 40. B 41. A 42. D
43. B 44. D 45. D 46. C
47. C 48. D 49. B 50. B

SECTION II (CHEMISTRY)

51. D 52. A 53. A 54. C
55. D 56. B 57. C 58. B
59. B 60. B 61. D 62. C
63. B 64. D 65. A 66. B
67. D 68. D 69. A 70. C

SECTION II (MATHEMATICS)

71. A 72. B 73. C 74. A
75. B 76. A 77. B 78. C
79. A 80. A 81. A 82. C
83. D 84. A 85. C 86. C
87. A 88. A 89. D 90. B

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cm (B) bigger than

cm (D) none of the above

= + what is the value of gwhen t =64?

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