Question Bank (Chemical Engineering)

1. What is critical point?

(a) Gas and liquid exist as separate phases (b) Two phases become
indistinguishable (c) Matter exists only in gaseous state, (d) Matter exists
only in liquid state

2. Why is purging necessary in a process?
(a) To get the product from purge stream? (b) To avoid build up of a
component in the system (c) To allow recycle of a component (d) Neither
(a), nor (b) and (c)

3. An inclined manometer is used for one of the following purposes: (a)
For measuring large difference in pressure (b) For measuring small
difference in pressure (c) For measuring medium difference in pressure
(d) Neither (a),nor(b),and (c)

4. Filtration operation is represented by following: (a) Separation of a
liquid-liquid emulsion (b) Separation of solid from a fluid (c) Separation of
gas from liquid (d) Separation of gas from gas-liquid-solid mixture

5. Wet bulb temperature of air is as per the following: (a) It is greater
than dry bulb temperature (b) It is same as dry bulb temperature (c) It is
usually lower than dry bulb temperature (d) It is 10oC lower than dry bulb
temperature

6. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with
diffusivity (D) as (a) KD (b) KD0.5 (c) KD1.5 (d) KD2

7. Class D fire means fire of (a) solid fuels. (b)gaseous fuels (c) in
presence of electrical wiring. (d) metals.

8. In physical terms, Schmidt number means (a)Thermal
diffusivity/mass diffusivity (b)Thermal diffusivity/momentum diffusivity
(c)Momentum diffusivity/mass diffusivity (d)Mass diffusivity/thermal
diffusivity

9. Toxicants enter biological body through mouth into stomach is called
(a) Ingestion, (b) Inhalation, (c) Injection, (d) Dermal absorption.

10. Fatal Accident Rate (FAR) is based on entire life of (a) 100 workers,
(b) 1000 workers, (c) 10 workers, (d) 20,000 workers.

11. At break-even point (a) total product cost equals to the total income
(b) production rate is higher than the market demand (c) production time
per batch should be reduced (d) manpower required should be
increased.

12. Super production cost is related to (a) normal expenses due to
normal production rate (b) extra expenses due to accidental events (c)
extra expenses due to increasing production rate (d) extra expenses due
to raw materials cost.

13. Optimistic time is the minimum possible time required to accomplish
a task (a) assuming everything goes wrong (b) assuming everything
proceeds as normal (c) assuming everything proceeds better than
normal (d) assuming everything leads to a major catastrophe

14. Critical path in a project network indicates (a) the path to be decided
by the project engineer (b) the longest path through the network (c) the
shortest path through the network (d) the fixed path until the project
completion

15. Merged event is an event which represents (a) the joint completion of
more than one activity (b) the joint starting of more than one activity (c)
an independent starting of an activity (d) an independent completion of
an activity

16. In distillation of constant relative volatility mixture Fenske equation
determines- (a) maximum number of ideal plates (b) height of the
distillation column (c) minimum number of theoretical plates (d) optimum
reflux ratio

17. In a chemical process, a part of the recycle stream is purged for a)
increasing the yield b) enriching the product c) limiting the inert d) heat
conservation

18. The chart made from Antoine equation is known as the a) Ostwald
chart b) Cox chart c) Molliers diagram d) enthalpy concentration
diagram

19. Heat exchanger effectiveness reduced gradually with its use due to
(a) Reduction of film coefficient (b) Decrease in thermal conductivity (c)
Scale or dirt formation (d) None

20. Donohue correlation is used to determine (a) ho for shell and tube
heat exchanger (b) hi for shell and tube heat exchanger (c) dirt
resistance in shell and tube heat exchanger (d) conductive resistance of
heat transfer

21. If specific gravity of a liquid is G, then API gravity is a) 0API = 200
(G-1) b) 0API = (141.5/G) 131.5 c) 0API = (140/G) - 130 d) 0API = 145
- (145/G)

22. Which parameter in distillation is equivalent to selectivity in
extraction? a) relative volatility b) K factor c) both a) and b) d) diffusivity

23. Which of the following membranes is used for dehydration of
alcohol? a) Cross linked PVA b) Polycarbonate c) Cellulose acetate d)
PTFE

24. Absorption factor is a) inverse of stripping factor b) ratio of slopes of
operating line and equilibrium line c) ratio of slopes of equilibrium line
and operating line d) both a) and b)

25. A UF membrane has a pore-size range of a) 1-100 b) 1-100 m c)
1-100 nm d) 1-100 mm



Instrumentation Engineering Question Bank

1. The nozzle-flapper amplifier converts
a) Flow into pressure signal b) Pressure into displacement signal c)
Displacement into a pressure signal e) None of the above

2. In pneumatic controller, a pneumatic relay acts as a a) Controller b)
Power Amplifier c) Attenuator d) None of these
.
3. The output range of a pneumatic transmitter is a) 4 to20 mA b) 1 to 5
V c) 0.2 to 1 kg/cm2 d) 0 to 5 V

4. The transmitters having zero signal output for the zero input signal are
called a) SMART transmitter b) Pneumatic transmitter c) Electronic
transmitter d) Dead zero transmitter

5. The transmitter having a minimum signal output for zero input signal is
called a) Dead zero transmitter b) Live zero transmitter c) SMART
transmitter d) Pneumatic transmitter

6. An electronic level transmitter with a 4-20mA output is calibrated to a
range of 10cm to 100cm. if the transmitter output is 12 mA then the liquid
level is: a) 55cm b) 67.5cm c) 75cm d) 45cm

7. A flow transmitter with a 4-20 mA output has a calibrated range of 1.0-
6.0 m3/sec. What flow rate is indicated by a current of 12mA? a)
7m3/sec b) 3.5m3/sec c) 4.5m3/sec d) 3.6m3/sec

8. A pressure measuring instrument is calibrated between 10 bar and
250 bar. Span of the instrument is a) 10 bar b) 250bar c) 240 bar d) 260
bar

9. Much of process control is now- a -days implemented using network
to connect sensors, controllers and final control elements. Such network
is called a) serial bus b) parallel bus c) DDC bus d) Field bus

10. Square root extractor is not required for a) Venturi meter b)
Electromagnetic flow meter c) Rotameter d) Thermocouple

11. Differential pressure transmitter can be used to measure a) flow b)
temperature c) humidity d) torque

12. Electronic transmitters are usually favored due to a) computer
compatibility b) long transmission distances c) very cold ambient
conditions d) all of the above

13. HART protocol is a unique feature of a) Pneumatic transmitter b)
SMART transmitter c) Flapper-nozzle amplifier d) None of the above

14. For fast process like flow control, which of control operation should
be avoided? a) P only b) P+I only c) I only d) P+D only

15. Which is generally used to sense the differential pressure in a DP
transmitter a) - cell b) - cell c) - cell d) - cell

16. What do you want to minimize when optimizing the constant Kc, Ti &
Td? a) time b) response period c) error d) none of the above.

17. What type of controller is displayed by the equation below? E(t)=
Kc[e(t) +1/Tie(t)dt a) Feed forward b) PID c) Derivative d) Proportional
integral

18. Which among the following is a SISO system? a) PID b) Cascade
control c) Feed forward control d) None of this.

19. A first order system with a proportional controller in the negative
feedback loop has an offset to a step input .This offset can be eliminated
by- a. adding a derivative mode to the controller b. adding an integral
mode to the controller c. Decreasing the magnitude of the gain of the
proportional controller. d. Adding a delay in the controller loop

20. Which type of control more stable for using feed forward control? a)
cascade with P-I control b) only PI control c) only P-D control d) None of
this.

21. MIMO system used in- a) cascade control system b) feed forward
control system c) Both cascade & feed forward d) None of this.

22. For equal percentage valve flow characteristics is mathematically
expressed as : where constant, m =% flow , x= % lift a) dxdm= m b)
dxdm= m c) dxdm= m d) dxdm= m

23. Pneumatically operated piston actuators provide stem force
output for demanding service conditions. a) high b) low c) medium d)
very high

24. Piston actuators are pneumatically operated by a) High-pressure
plant air to 140 psig. b) Low-pressure plant air to 150 psig. c) High-
pressure plant air to 150 psig. d) High-pressure plant air to 130 psig.

25. For quick opening type valve the flow rate is maximum near valve
opening at a) 80% b) 60% c) 100% d) None of those

Question Bank (Electrical Engineering)

Sl. No. Question 1 1 Ampere of current is defined as 1. 1 coulomb 2. 1
volt/sec 3. 1 ohm/second 4. 1 coulomb/sec 2 Magnitude of the voltage V
in the following circuit is equal to: 1. 3V 2. -3V 3. 5V 4. -1V 3 The RMS
value of the voltage u(t)=3 + 4 cos(3t) is 1. 17 V 2. 5 V 3. 7 V 4. (3 +
22) V 4 An ideal capacitor is charged to a voltage V0 and connected at
t=0 across an ideal inductor L. (The circuit now consists of a capacitor
and an inductor). If we let LC10=, the voltage across the capacitor at
time t>0 is given by 1. 0V 2. ()tV00cos 3. ()tV00sin 4.
()teVt00cos0 5 Find rms value of the current i(t) in the following
circuit 1F1H11(1.0sint) Vi(t) 1. 21A 2. 21A 3. 1 A 4. 2A 6 The
resonant frequency for the given circuit will be 1. 1 rad/s 2. 2 rad/s 3. 3
rad/s 4. 4 rad/s 7 The voltage applied to a circuit is 1002 cos (100t)
volts and the circuit draws a current of 102 sin (100t + /4) amperes.
Taking voltage as the reference phasor, the phasor representation of the
current in amperes is 1. 102 -/4 2. 10 -/4 3. 10 +/4 4. 102
+/4 8 Find the average power delivered to a circuit with impedance of
(4 j3) by the current 5sin(200t+100) 1. 44.2 W 2. 50 W 3. 62.5 W 4.
125 W 9 For what value of the unknown resistance R, maximum power
will be transferred to the load resistance of 3 63R10VLoad 1. Zero
2. 3 3. 6 4. Infinity 10 The period of the signal
The LC circuit shown in the figure has an inductance of L=1 mH and a
capacitance C=10F. The initial voltage through the inductor is zero ,
while the initial capacitor voltage is 100 V. The switch is closed at t=0.
The current i through the circuit is: 1. 5cos(5x103t) A 2. 5sin(104t) A 3.
10cos(5x103t) A 4. 10sin(104t) A 12 If the 12 resistor draws a current
of 1A as shown in the figure, the value of resistance R is: 1. 4 2. 6 3.
8 4. 18 13 In an electric circuit, the applied voltage is E=100 Sin
(314t) V and the resultant current is I = 5 Sin (314t + /3). Then, the
circuit is comprised of: 1. L only 2. L and C 3. R and C 4. R and L 14 The
slip of an induction motor normally does not depend on 1. Rotor Speed
2. Synchronous Speed 3. Shaft torque 4. Core-loss component 15 A 4-
point starter is used to start and control the speed of a 1. dc shunt motor
with armature resistance control 2. dc shunt motor with flux control 3. dc
compound motor 4. dc series motor 16 A three-phase 440V, 6 pole,
50Hz, squirrel cage induction motor is running at a slip of 5%. The speed
of stator magnetic field with respect to rotor magnetic field and speed of
rotor with respect to stator magnetic field are 1. zero, - 50 rpm 2. zero,
955 rpm 3. 1000rpm, -50rpm 4. 1000rpm, 955rpm 17 A single-phase
transformer has a turns ratio of 1:2, and is connected to a purely
resistive load as shown in the figure. The magnetizing current drawn is
1A, and the secondary current is 1A. If core losses and leakage
reactances are neglected, the primary current is 1:2 1. 1.41 A 2. 2 A 3.
2.24 A 4. 3 A 18 A separately excited DC machine is coupled to a 3
phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole induction machine. The DC machine is energized
first and the machines rotate at 1600 rpm. Subsequently the induction
machine is also connected to a 50 Hz, 3-phase source, the phase
sequence consistent with the direction of rotation. In steady state 1. Both
machines act as generators 2. The dc machine act as a generator, and
the induction machine act as a motor 3. The dc machine act as a motor,
and the induction machine act as a generator 4. both machines act as
motors 19 A three phase squirrel cage induction motor supplied from a
balanced 3-phase source drives a mechanical load. The torque-speed
characteristics of the motor (solid curve) and the mechanical load (dotted
curve) are shown. Of the two equilibrium points A and B, which of the
following options correctly describes the stability of A and B? 1. A is
stable, B is unstable 2. A is unstable, B is stable 3. Both are stable 4.
Both are unstable 20 The single phase, 50 Hz, iron core transformer in
the figure has both the vertical arms of cross sectional area 20 cm2 and
both the horizontal arms of cross sectional area 10 cm2. If the two
windings shown were wound instead on opposite horizontal arms, the
mutual inductance will 1. double 2. remain same 3. be halved 4. become
one quarter 21 The type of single phase induction motor that has highest
power factor at full load is 1. shaded pole type 2. split-phase type 3.
Capacitor-start type 4. Capacitor-run type 22 Under no load condition if
the applied voltage to an induction motor is reduced from rated voltage
to half the rated value 1. the speed decreases and the stator current
increases 2. both speed and stator current decrease 3. the speed and
stator current remain practically constant 4. there is negligible change in
the speed but the stator current decreases 23 It is desired to measure
the parameters of a 230/115V, 2 kVA single phase transformer. The
following wattmeters are available in the laboratory W1: 250V, 10A, low
power factor W2: 250V, 5A, low power factor W3, 150V, 10A, high power
factor W4, 150V, 5A, high power factor The wattmeters used in open
circuit test and short circuit test of the transformer will be 1. W1 and W2
2. W2 and W4 3. W3 and W4 4. W2 and W3 24 In transformers, which of
the following statements is valid? 1. In open circuit test, copper losses
are obtained while in short circuit test, core losses are obtained 2. In
open circuit test, current is drawn at high power factor 3. In short circuit
test, current is drawn at zero power factor 4. In open circuit test, current
is drawn at low power factor 25 Distributed winding and short chording
employed in AC machines will result in 1. increase in emf and reduction
in harmonics 2. reduction in emf and increase in harmonics 3. increase
in both emf and harmonics 4. reduction in both emf and harmonics



METALLURGY

1. For a monoclinic crystal which relation between the lattice parameters
given below holds? (a) a=b=c (b) abc (c) a=bc (d) none of these 2.
State Braggs law of diffraction. 3. In a edge dislocation the angle
between the dislocation line vector and the Burgers vector is (a) 90 (b)
65 (c)180 (d)0 4. State differences between the continuous and
characteristic spectrum of x-ray . 5. Which one of the systems given
below is an isomorphous system? (a)Cu-Zn (b)Cu-Sn (c) Cu-Ag (d)Cu-Ni
6. Using lever rule find out which composition hypereutectoid steel in Fe-
C phase diagram is having 66% of pearlite. 7. Which one is the crystal
structure of iron carbon martensite? (a) BCC (b)HCP (c)BCT (d) FCC 8.
The peritectic composition in an iron-carbon phase diagram is (a) 0.39
(b) 0.5 (c) 1.89 (d) none of these 9. What will be the differences in the
microstructures of two 0.8% C steel samples annealed and normalised?
10. Chalcopyrite is an ore of (a) Cu (b) Sn (c)Pb (d) Zn 11. In froth
floatation process, write down the role of the froth producing agent. 12.
Brass is an alloy of (a) Cu-Sn (b)Cu-Pb (c)Cu-Zn (d) none of these 13.
Which one of these are known as agglomerates (a) Sinter and pellets (b)
Pellets (c) Sinter (d) sinter, pellet, briquette 14. Which one is the
peritectic reaction composition in a Fe-C system (a) 0.39 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.89
(d) none of these 15. What is mpy (unit of corrosion rate measurement)?
(a) Milli inches/ day (b) millimetres/day (c) Milli inches/ year (d)
millimetres/year 16. Which of the following processes is an indirect
compression type metal working process (a) forging (b) wire drawing (c)
rolling (d) Stretch forming 17. The shear stress along a principal direction
is (a) Maximum (b)zero (c) minimum (d) none of these 18. If the diameter
of a roll in a rolling mill is 800 mm and the coefficient of friction is =0.4;
then find out the maximum thickness reduction possible in the rolling
mill. 19. Which one gives the composition(in wt%) of Ni and Cr
respectively in AISI 304 SS (a) 10, 28 (b) 5, 15 (c) 18,8 (d) 8, 18 20.
What does the letter L denotes in AISI 316L SS? (a) Low temperature
(b) low pressure (c) Low carbon (d) None of these 21. How is
METALLURGICAL COKE different from conventional COAL? 22. Which
one is correct information about the BLAST FURNACE used in iron
making (a) Oxidising reactor (b) co-current reactor (c)counter-current
reactor (d) none of these 23. Which one below is correct information
about SiO2 (a) Acidic (b)Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) none of these 24.
Which one of the convertors given below is used for steel making
nowadays in INDIA (a) Bessemer (b)Open hearth (c) LD (d) none of
these

25. In an acidic solution the pH is (a) Less than 4 (b)greater than (c)
equal to 7 (d) less than 7.0

M.C.A

1. How many basic operation performed in DBMS: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 2.
ACID stands for: a. Atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability b.
Atomicity, command, integrity, and data c. Atomicity, control, integrated,
and direct d. None of these 3. Which structure of data clearly is one of
the main features of the database approach: a. Logical view b. Physical
view c. Both d. None 4. A physical view of data refers to the way data is
handled at a_____ its storage and retrieval: a. High level b. Low level c.
Medium level d. All of these 5. In logical and physical view of data the
set of principles that defines a data model may be divided into how many
parts: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 6. In logical and physical view of data the set of
principles that defines a data model may be divided into which part: a.
Data definition b. Data manipulation c. Data integrity d. All of these 7.
The overall description of a database is called______: a. Data definition
b. Data manipulation c. Data integrity d. Database schema 8. Which is
proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes
of users in order to hid or protect information: a. Schema b. Subschema
c. Non-schema d. None-subschema 9. A data dictionary is a repository
that manages _____: a. Database b. Memory c. Metadata d. All of these
10. Which languages are used to define and query a database: a.
Database b. Memory c. Metadata d. All of these. 11. DDL stand for: a.
Data definition language b. Data description languages c. Data design
languages d. Database dictionary languages 12. Which are the not most
frequently used DDL statements: a. CREATE b. DROP c. ALTER d.
None of these 13. VDL stand for: a. View data languages b. View design
languages c. View definition languages d. View done languages 14. SDL
stands for a. Stand definition languages b. Storage definition languages
c. Select definition languages d. system definition languages 15. The
DDL is used to specify the_____: a. Conceptual schemas b. Internal
schemas c. Both d. None 16. The SDL is used to specify the_______: a.
Conceptual schemas b. Internal schemas c. Both d. None 17. The ____
created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows
diverse systems to communicate. A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the
above 18. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the
development of universally compatible networking protocols. A) OSI B)
ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above 19. The physical, data link, and
network layers are the ______ support layers. A) user B) network C)
both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 19. The session, presentation, and
application layers are the ____ support layers. A) user B) network C)
both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 20. The _______ layer links the
network support layers and the user support layers. A) transport B)
network C) data link D) session 21. The _______ layer coordinates the
functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium. A)
transport B) network C) data link D) physical 22. The ______ layer is
responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across
multiple network links. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical
23. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process
delivery of the entire message. A) transport B) network C) data link D)
physical 24. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes
the interactions between communicating devices. A) transport B)
network C) session D) physical 25. The _______ layer ensures
interoperability between communicating devices through transformation
of data into a mutually agreed upon format. A) transport B) network C)
data link D) presentation

MBA HR

1. In today''s rapidly changing and highly competitive business
environment, HR professionals need to understand that the trend
is towards A) delegation of fewer responsibilities to subordinates
B) less flexibility and autonomy C) taller hierarchical structures D)
greater decentralization 2. A manager may delegate any of the
following except: A) Authority B) Workload C) Responsibility D)
attendance at meetings to represent the department 3. An
advantage of recruitment from outside the company is A) that it is
cheaper than internal recruitment B) that there is no need to
advertise the vacancy C) that it brings in new experience and skills
to the firm D) that it avoids jealousy within the firm 4. What is
meant by the term empowerment? A) A process of giving
employees greater autonomy and decision-making powers. B) A
system that encourages workers to move more freely within the
workforce. C) The opportunity to share in the company''s profits. D)
A formal system of leadership that relies greatly on control. 5.
Which of the following will NOT result following the introduction of
a more decentralised system of management? A) Increased
motivation amongst those empowered to make decisions B)
Greater consistency in the decisions made C) The development of
skills amongst the junior members of the management team D) An
increase in the speed at which essential decisions are made 6.
Which of the following terms refers to an interview conducted when
an employee quits a firm? A) situational interview B) appraisal
interview C) selection interview D) none of these 7. In a ________
interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously. A)
formal B) mass C) topical D) panel 8. What is that describes the
duties of the job, authority relationship, skills requirement,
conditions of work etc. A) Job specification B) Job analysis C) Job
criterion D) Job detail report 9. During an interview, Tanya
discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and
praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using
________. A) impression management B) talent management C)
behavior modification D) job enrichment 10. Who is an adult as per
Factories Act, 1948? A) who is more than 14 years B) who is less
than 18 years C) who has completed 18 years of age D) who is
more than 15 years 11. Which is not true A) The modern HR
function has HRD at its core. B) Performance appraisal cannot be
fair unless the appraiser is clear in mind about the job
requirements. C) Flexitime works better when employees are self
motivated D) None of these 12. Canteen is to be provided if
engaging employees more than ______ persons. A) 330 B) 250 C)
300 D) 275 13. The scope of human resource management
includes A) Procurement B) Development C) Compensation D) All
of these 14. Training need analysis takes place during which
phase of the training process? A) choosing appropriate
instructional methods B) deciding what to teach C) deciding how to
maximize participant learning D) determining whether training
programmes are effective 15. Payment of cash rewards for the
work extracted from the employee is normally called A) direct
compensation B) indirect compensation C) non- monetary
compensation D) None of the above 16. Which of the following
factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary
administration? A) Cost of living B) Labour legislations C) Ability to
pay D) Labour market conditions 17. Which of the following
techniques permits the grievant (complainant) to remain
anonymous? A) The exit interview B) The gripe-box system C) The
opinion survey D) None of the above 18. The management should
redress only those grievances that are A) real B) imaginary C) real
or imaginary D) none of the above 19. Which of the following is not
a characteristic of trade union? A) voluntary association B)
common goals C) intermediary D) individual actions 20. The 360-
degree performance feedback involves the evaluation of
employees by A) HR managers B) employees C) supervisors D) all
who are directly in contact with the ratee 21. Labour license has to
be taken by a contractor before commencement of work, if he
engages more than ____ number of labour A) 22 B) 21 C) 20 D)
19 22. _______ if the Form issued by a Principal Employer to a
contractor under Contract Labour Regulation & Abolition Act
(CLRA) before engaging him for any work A) Form IV B) Form V
C) Form VI D) Form II 23. The employee contribution and
employer contribution under ESI Act is _____ % and _______%
respectively of the wages A) 1.75% and 4.75 % B) 4.75% and
1.75% C) 12% and 12% D) 2.5% and 4.5% 24 What is the
minimum qualifying period of service for an employee to become
eligible for Gratuity A) 6 yrs B) 4 yrs C) 10 yrs D) 5 yrs 25. The
Principal Employer should ensure payment of wages to contract
labour (through the contractor) by the ____ day of every month A)
3rd B) 5th C) 7th D) 9th


MBA Finance

1. Find out the missing item using the following information:
Opening Stock Rs. 60,000 Purchases Rs. 3,40,000 Sales Rs.
4,80,000 Gross margin on sales 25% Stock as per physical
verification Rs. 32,500 (a) Freight Inward Rs. 32,500 (b) Freight
outward Rs. 7,500 (c) Goods withdrawn by the proprietor Rs.
7,500 (d) None of the above 2. Estimated life of an asset is 10
years and estimated scrap value id Rs. 3,200. Depreciation as
per SLM is charged at Rs. 2,500 every year on the asset. Find
the cost of the asset. (a) Rs. 25,000 (b) Rs. 28,200 (c) Rs.
28,000 (d) Rs. 30,200 3. In case of Bill at sight days of grace
allowed is (a) 1 day (b) 2 day (c) 3 day (d) Nil. 4. Cost of
advertisement on new product is a _________________ (a)
Capital expenditure (b) Revenue expenditure (c) Deferred
revenue expenditure (d) Capital Lost 5. Nominal account is
governed by the following rules: (a) Debit what comes in, Credit
what goes out. (b) Debit all expenses and losses, Credit all
income and gain. (c) Debit the receiver, Credit the giver. (d)
None of the above. 6. Cash column in cash book has _______
(a) Debit balance. (b) Credit balance. (c) Overdraft balance. (d)
Both Debit and Credit balance. 7. Unpaid salary of Rs. 5,000 is
to be recorded in the (a) Purchase Return book (b) Cash book
(c) Purchase book (d) Journal Proper 8. Amount spent for
replacement of the worn out part of the machine is: (a) Deferred
Revenue expenditure (b) Revenue expenditure (c) Capital
expenditure (d) None of the above 9. An item of Rs. 500 relating
to prepaid rent account was omitted to be brought forward. The
rectifying journal entry will be: (a) Rent A/c Dr. 500 To cash A/c
500 (b) Prepaid Rent A/c Dr. 500 To Cash A/c 500 (c) Prepaid
Rent A/c Dr. 500 To Suspense A/c 500 (d) None of the above
10. Above figures will show Gross Profit_________________
(a) Rs. 3,000 (b) Rs. 2,958 (c) Rs. 2,500 (d) Rs. 4,000 11. A
cheque of Rs. 1,000 receive from Ramesh was dishonoured
and had been posted to the debit of Sales Return account.
Rectifying journal entry will be_____________ (a) Sales Return
A/c Dr. 500 To Ramesh A/c 500 (b) Ramesh A/c Dr. 500 To
Sales Return A/c 500 (c) Sales Return A/c Dr. 500 Rs. Rs.
Opening Stock 5,570 Purchases 13,816 Closing Stock 8,880
Sales 15,248 Purchase Return 390 Import Duty 1,650 Sales
Return 524 Salary & Wages 1,000 To Suspense A/c 500 (d)
None of the above. 12. All the following are functions of
accounting concept except: (a) Decision making (c) Forecasting
(b) Measurement (d) Ledger posting 13. Patent A/c is: (a)
Personal A/c (c) Nominal A/c (b) Real A/c (d) None of the above
14. Mr. Y followed WDV method and SLM method of
depreciation during 2006 and 2007 respectively. He has
violated- (a) Conservatism Principle (b) Materiality Principle (c)
Cost Principle (d) Consistency Principle 15. X draws a bill on Y,
X endorsed the bill to Z, _____will be the payee of the bill: (a) X
(b) Y (c) Z (d) None 16. Average Stock = Rs. 12,000, Closing
Stock is Rs. 3,000 more than the opening stock. The value of
closing stock will be: (a) 12,000 (b) 24000 (c) 10,500 (d) 13,500
17. A company wishes to earn a 20% margin on selling price.
_______is the profit markup on cost, which will achieve the
required profit margin: (a) 33% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) None 18.
Which of the following errors will affect the trial balance? (a)
Repairs to building wrongly debited to Building A/c. (b) Total of
Purchase Journal cast short by Rs. 1,000. (c) Freight paid on
new machinery debited to Freight A/c. (d) None of the above.
19. A bill has been drawn on 26.02.2010 payable after 90 days.
The maturity date of bill will be: (a) 30.05.2010 (b) 25.05.2010
(c) 28.05.2010 (d) 27.05.2010 20. Cash book is a form of: (a)
Trial Balance (b) Journal (c) Ledger (d) All of the above 21. The
Cash book showed an overdraft of Rs, 2,000 as cash at bank,
but the Pass book made up to the same date showed that
cheques of Rs. 200, Rs. 150 and Rs. 175 respectively had not
been presented for payments; and the cheque of Rs. 600 paid
into account had not been cleared. The balance as per Pass
book will be: (a) Rs. 2,150 (b) Rs. 2,175 (c) Rs. 1,475 (d) Rs.
2,075 22. Managers Commission is 20% of Net Profit after
charging such commission. Net Profit before charging
managers commission is Rs. 1,20,000. The amount of
managers commission is: (a) Rs. 22,000 (b) Rs. 25,000 (c) Rs.
24,000 (d) Rs. 20,000 23. Errors of commission do not permit:
(a) Incorrect totaling of the Trial balance. (b) Incorrect totaling of
the Balance Sheet. (c) Trial balance to agree. (d) None of the
above. 24. According to the provisions of the Reserve Bank of
India, a promissory note cannot be made payable to the: (a)
Bank (b) Endorser (c) Bearer (d) None of these. 25.
__________will generally show a Debit balance. (a) Bank Loan
(b) Bad Debt Recovered (c) Salary Payable (d) Drawings

Mechanical Engineering

1. Time dependent permanent deformation is called
________________. (a) Plastic deformation (b) Elastic
deformation (c) Creep (d) inelastic deformation 2. If a material is
subjected to two incremental true strains namely 1 and 2,
then the total true strain is (a) 1 * 2 (b) 1- 2 (c) 1 + 2 (d) 1
/ 2 3. Value of Poissons ratio for ionic solids in the range of (a)
0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4 4. Bauschinger effect (a) Hysteresis
loss during loading and unloading (b) inelastic deformation (c)
Dependence of yield stress on path and direction (d) None 5.
Toughness of a material is equal to area under ____________
part of the stress-strain curve. (a) Elastic (b) Plastic (c) Both (d)
None 6. According to distortion-energy criterion, yielding occurs
when (a) Distortion energy reaches a critical value (b) Second
invariant of the stress deviator exceeded some critical value (c)
Octahedral shear stress reaches a critical value (d) All 7. von
Mises and Tresca criteria give different yield stress for (a) Uni-
axial stress (b) Balanced bi-axial stress (c) Pure shear stress
(d) All 8. Two threaded bolts A and B of same material and
length are subjected to identical tensile load. If the elastic strain
energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of bolt B and the mean
diameter of bolt A is 12 mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in mm
is (A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 48 9. If two nodes are observed at a
frequency of 1800 rpm during whirling of a simply supported
long slender rotating shaft, the first critical speed of the shaft in
rpm is (A) 200 (B) 450 (C) 600 (D) 900 10. A cylinder contains 5
m3 of an ideal gas at a pressure of 1 bar. This gas is
compressed in a reversible isothermal process till its pressure
increases to 5 bar. The work in kJ required for this process is
(A) 804.7 (B) 953.2 (C) 981.7 (D) 1012.2 11. In order to have
maximum power from a Pelton turbine, the bucket speed must
be (A) Equal to the jet speed. (B) Equal to half of the jet speed.
(C) Equal to twice the jet speed. (D) Independent of the jet
speed. 12. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 min. The
solidification time in min for a cube of the same material, which
is 8 times heavier than the original casting, will be (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 24 (D) 40 13. Which of the following is a higher pair? (A)
Belt and pulley (B) Turning pair (C) Sliding pair (D) Screw pair
14. Balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately
placing balancing weights in (A) A single plane (B) 2 planes (C)
3 planes (D) 4 planes 15. Whirling speed of a shaft coincides
with the natural frequency of its (A) Longitudinal vibration (B)
transverse vibration (C) torsional vibration (D) Coupled bending
torsional vibration 16. In the temperature-entropy diagram
shown below, the thermodynamic process shown by the dotted
line AB represents (A) Hyperbolic expansion (B) free expansion
(C) constant volume expansion (D) polytrophic expansion 17.
The loss of available energy associated with the transfer of
1000 kJ of heat from a constant temperature system at 600K to
another at 400K when the environment temperature is 300K is
(A) 166.67 (B) 250 (C) 500 (D) 750 18. Following condition
represents onset of necking (a) u = n (b) u = 1-n (c) u = 1+n
(d) u = ln(1+n) 19. The correct sequence of vapour
compression (VC), vapour absorption (VA) and steam ejector
(SE) refrigeration cycles in increasing order of COP is (A) VC,
VA, SE (B) VA, SE, VC (C) SE, VC, VA (D) SE, VA, VC 20.
Which one of the following sets of conditions clearly applies to
an ideal fluid? (A) Viscous and compressible (B) Non-viscous
and incompressible (C) Non-viscous and compressible (D)
Viscous and incompressible 21. Which of the following PV-T
diagrams correctly represents that of an ideal gas? 22. A
flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy
of 400 Nm while running at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If
the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed 2%, the mass
moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg-m2 is (A) 25 (B) 50 (C)
100 (D) 125 23. Water is coming out from a tap and falls
vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is
20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Acceleration due to
gravity is 9.81 m/s2. Assuming steady, inviscid flow, constant
atmospheric pressure everywhere and neglecting curvature and
surface tension effects, the diameter in mm of the stream 0.5 m
below the tap is approximately (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25 24. A
single degree of freedom system having mass 1 kg and
stiffness 10 kN/m initially at rest is subjected to an impulse force
of magnitude 5 kN for 104 seconds. The amplitude in mm of
the resulting free vibration is (A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 5.0 (D) 10.0 25.
Thermodynamic work is the product of (A) Two intensive
properties (B) Two extensive properties (C) An intensive
property and change in an extensive property (D) An extensive
property and change in an intensive property