HEADING

RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT ENGINEERS

WRITTEN TEST

Date

SECTION II
Duration: Two hours Max Marks: 100

General Knowledge, Aptitude and Reasoning

This question paper contains 13 printed pages (including this page) and a few blank sheets for
rough work.

Read the following Instructions carefully

1. Question paper consists of two sections : I and II. Each Section has a duration of two
hours.
2. This Section II has 100 questions. Answer all questions. All questions are of objective
type. All questions carry 1 mark each.
3. All answers to be marked with HB or 2B pencil only on the answer (OMR) sheet. For
each question, indicate your answer by shading the corresponding oval in a dark way. Do
not put an “X” or “ “ in the oval.
4. There will be negative marking for incorrect answers. Questions of 1 mark each carry a
negative marking of 0.25. Questions that are not answered do not attract negative
marking.
5. Shade only one oval per question. If you shade more than one oval, the questions will
attract negative marking. If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing
shade completely before shading another oval.
6. You may use the blank sheets provided at the end of question booklet for rough work.
However, this part will not be evaluated.
7. After last bell, signed and thumb impressed OMR answer sheet and question paper
should be handed over to the invigilator and receive OMR duplicate copy.

------------------------------
For each question, in Section II, four answers are provided. Indicate the correct or the
most appropriate answer by shading the corresponding oval in a dark way using a pencil in
the answer (OMR) sheet.

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 SECTION II

1. Who among the following is the National Security Adviser?

A) Brajesh Mishra B) J. N. Dixit C) Soli J. Sorabjee D) MK Narayanan

2. Who among the following is the new Chairman of Administrative Reforms Commission?

A) S. M. Krishna
B) Ms. Uma Bharathi
C) Dharam Singh
D) M. Veerappa Moiley
3. Who among the following has won the Miss Universe 2008 crown?

A)Dayana Mendoza B).Shandi C) Alba Reyes D) None of these

Finnessey
4. Who among the following is the Minister for Transport in Karnataka

A) Janardhana Reddy
B) R Ananth Kumar
C) R Ashok
D) Rama Chandra Gowda

5. Which of the following cricketers holds the world record of maximum number of sixes in
T 20 -20 match ?

A) Chris Cairns (New Zealand) B) Vivian Richards (West Indies)

C) Sachin Tendulkar (India) D) Yuvraj Singh (India)

6. Who among the following has been appointed the new Chief Justice of India?

A) Justice Rajendra Babu B) Justice V. N. Khare

C) KG Balakrishnan D) None of these

7. Who among the following sports persons got the honour of participating in Mysore
Dasara festival recently?

A). Anjali Bhagwat B) Abhinav Bindra

C) Viswanathan Anand D) K. M. Beenamol

8. Which combination among the following hold the Ministry of Science and Technology in
Karnataka and in Centre?

A) Yediyurappa and B) Kapil Sibal and C) M.S. D) Kapil Sibal and

Eswarappa Asnotikar Anand Swaminathan Aswath narayan
Vasant and K S Naidu

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9. ISRO, Bangalore launched Chandrayan from one of the following places

A) Moon B) Srihari Kota C) Bangalore D) Mysore

10. Which of the following countries was readmitted to the Commonwealth recently ?

A) Nepal B) Myanmar C) Pakistan D) None of these

11. Which day is world environment day?

A) January 15 B) November 19 C) June 5 D) July 7
12. Who is India’s first Woman Grand Master in Chess ?

A) Aarti B) Koneru Humpy C) S. Meenakshi D) S.Vijayalakshmi

Ramaswamy
13. Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha after Indian independence?

A) G V Mavalankar B) Rabi Ray C. Nijalingappa D. B D Jatti

14. The age of a tree can be determined by

A) Measuring its B) Measuring its C). Analyzing its sap

D). Counting the
height diameter annual growth rings
of its stem
15. By what name do we better know the hindi film actor Bhushan Pandit?

A) Dilip kumar B) Raaj Kumar

C) Amitabh Bachan D) None of the above

17. Who was the first Indian women IPS officer?

A) Kiran Bedi B) Smitha Patil C) Kiran Rao D) Kabir Bedi

18. The Lingaraja Temple built during the medieval period is at

A) Bhubaneswar B) Khajuraho C) Madurai D) Mount Abu

19. Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance ?

A) Kuchipudi B) Kathak C) Manipuri D) Mohiniattam

21. The deepest oceanic trench Mariana is located in

A) Atlantic Ocean B) Arctic Ocean C) Pacific Ocean D) Indian Ocean

23. Although fog consists of fine drops of water, we cannot see clearly through it because

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 A. The light rays B. Fine drops of C. The fine drops D. The drops
undergo total water in fog are opaque to the scatter most of
internal polarize the light the light
reflection in light
the drops

24. Which state has the lowest per capita income in India

A) Bihar B) Orissa C) Rajasthan D) Gujarat

25. Gandhi’s inspiration for Civil Disobedience came from the writings of

A) Henry David Thoreau B) David Ricardo

C) Henry Kissinger D) Bestrand Russel

26. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right.

A) Right to equality B) Right to property

C) Right to Freedom D) Right to constitutional remedies

27. The Fundamental Rights in our constitution are inspired by the Constitution of

A) United States of America B) United Kingdom

C) Switzerland D) Canada

28. Where Naptha Jhakri project is located

A)Uttaranchal B)Arunachal C) Andhra Pradesh D)Jammu and

Pradesh Kashmir

29. The first person to enter into space was

A) Valentina Tereshkova B) Edward White

C) Yuri Gagarin D) Alan Shapard

30. The number of perfect square numbers between 50 and 1000 is

A) 21 B) 22
C) 23 D) 24

31. The largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by each of 12, 15, 18 and 27 is

A) 9690 B) 9720
C) 9930 D) 9960

32. If x, y are two positive real numbers and x1/3 = y1/4 , then which of the following relations
is true?

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 A) x3 = y 4 B) x 3 = y
C) x = y 4 D) x 20 = y 15

33. When simplified, the sum

1 1 1 1 1 1
+ + + + +.... +
2 6 12 20 30 n(n +1)

1 1 2( n −1) n
A) B) C) D)
n n +1 n n +1

35. 1 2 -2 2 + 3 2 -4 2 +…..-10 2 is equal to

A) 45 B) -45
C) -54 D) -55

36. A man joined a service in the scale Rs. 3,325-50-4,275-75-5,660. His salary after 23
years will be

A) Rs. 4,475 B) Rs. 4,500

C) Rs. 4,575 D) Rs. 4,975

37. A man has in all Rs. 640 in the denominations of one-rupee, five-rupee and ten-rupee
notes. The number of each type of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes he
has?

A) 150 B) 120
C) 100 D) 90

38. The greatest number, by which 1657 and 2037 are divided to give remainders 6 and 5
respectively, is

A) 127 B) 133
C) 235 C) 305

39. The greatest one of 3,3 4,4 6 and 6 8 is

A) 3 B) 3 4
C) 4 6 D) 6 8

40. If 17 200 is divided by 18, the remainder is

A) 17 B) 16 C) 1 D) 2

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41. 1
If for non-zero x, x 2 -4x-1 = 0, the value of x 2 + is
x2

A) 4 B) 10
C) 12 D) 18

42. 1 1 1 1
+ + +…… + is equal to
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 99 + 100

A) 1 B) 5 C) 9 D) 10

43. A and B together can complete a work in 8 days and B and C together in 12 days. All of
the three together can complete the work in 6 days. In how much time will A and C
together complete the work?

A) 8 days B) 10 days
C) 12 days D) 20 days

44. A tank can be filled by two pipes in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. When the
tank was empty, the two pipes were opened. After some time, the first pipe was stopped
and the tank was filled in 18 minutes. After how much time of the start, was the first pipe
stopped?

A) 5 minutes B) 8 minutes C) 10 minutes D) 12 minutes

45. A, B and C entered into a partnership. A invested Rs. 2,560 and B invested Rs. 2,000.
At the end of the year, they gained Rs. 1,105 out of which A got Rs. 320 C’s capital was

A) Rs. 4,280 B) Rs. 2,840 C) Rs.4,820 D) Rs. 4,028

46. The ratio of the areas of the in-circle and the circum-circle of a square is

A) 1:2 B) 2 :1 C) 1: 2 D) 2:1

47. The area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle is 4 3 cm 2 . The area of the
circle is

16 22 28 32
A) πcm 2 B) πcm 2 C) πcm 2 D) πcm 2
3 x x x

48. In a right circular cone, the radius of its base is 7 cm and its height 24 cm. A cross-
section is made through the mid-point of the height parallel to the base. The volume of
the upper portion is

A) 168 cm 3 B) 154 cm 3 C) 1078 cm 3 D) 800 cm

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49. The base and altitude of a right angled triangle are 12 cm and 5 cm respectively. The
perpendicular distance of its hypotenuse from the opposite vertex is

4 8
A) 4 cm B) 4 cm
13 13
C) 5 cm D) 7 cm

50. If the height of a cylinder is increased by 15% and the radius of its base is decreased by
10%, then by what percent will its curved surface area change?

A) 3.5% decrease B) 3.5% increase C) 5% increase D) 5% decrease

51. A shopkeeper gives 12% additional discount after giving an initial discount of 20% on
the marked price of a radio. If the sale price of the radio is Rs. 704, the marked price is

A) Rs. 844.80 B) Rs. 929.28 C) Rs. 1,044.80 D) Rs. 1,000

52. A shopkeeper after allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price makes a profit of 8%.
How much percent above the cost price is the marked price?

A) 8 B) 18 C) 20 D) 24

53. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts on an article marked Rs. 450. The first
discount given is 10%. If the customer pays Rs. 344.25 for the article, the second
discount given is

A) 14% B) 10% C) 12% D) 15%

54. If a, b, c are three numbers such that a : b = 3: 4 and b: c = 8:9, then a :c is equal to

A) 1 : 3 B) 2: 3 C) 3 : 2 D) 1 : 2

55. In a regular polygon, the exterior and interior angles are in the ratio 1 : 4. The number of
sides of the polygon is

A) 10 B) 12 C) 15 D) 16

56. The ratio of the ages of a father and his son 10 years hence will be 5 : 3, while 10 years
ago, it was 3: 1. The ratio of the age of the son to that of the father today, is

A) 1 : 2 B) 1 : 3 C) 2 : 3 D) 2 : 5

57. Vessels A and B contain mixtures of milk and water in the ratios 4:5 and 5:1 respectively.
In what ratio should quantities of mixture be taken from A and B to form a mixture in
which milk to water is in the ratio 5 : 4?

A) 2 : 5 B) 4 : 3 C) 5 : 2 D) 2 : 3

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58. A bag contains three types of coins 1 rupee-coins, 50 p-coins, and, 25 p-coins totaling
175 coins. If the total value of the coins of each kind be the same, the total amount in the
bag is

A) Rs. 75 B) Rs. 175 C) Rs. 300 D) Rs. 126

59. The average age of 24 boys and their teacher is 15 years. When the teacher’s age is
excluded, the average age decreases by 1 year. The age of the teacher is

A) 38 years B) 39 years C) 40 years D) 41 years

60. The average score of a class of boys and girls in an examination is A. The ratio of boys
and girls in the class is 3 : 1. If the average score of the boys is A + 1, the average score
of the girls is

A) A + 1 B) A - 1 C) A + 3 D) A – 3

61. The average of three numbers is 28. If the first number is half of the second and the third
number is twice the second, then the third number is

A) 48 B) 36
C) 24 D) 18

62. If the average of m numbers is n 2 and that of n numbers is m 2 , then the average of (m
+ n) numbers is

m
A) B) m + n C) mn D) m – n
n

63. Nita blends two varieties of tea-one costing Rs. 180 per kg and another costing Rs. 200
per kg in the ratio 5 : 3. If she sells the blended variety at Rs. 210 per kg, then her gain is

A) 10% B) 11% C) 12% D) 13%

64. If a manufacturer gains 10%, wholesaler 15% and retailer 25%, then the production cost
of an article, whose retail price is Rs. 1,265, is

A) Rs. 700 B) Rs. 750 C) Rs. 800 D) Rs. 900

65. Partha earns 15% on an investment but losses 10% on another investment. If the ratio of
two investments is 3:5, then the combined loss percent is

5 4 8 5
A) B) c) D)
4 5 5 8
66. A tradesman, by means of a false balance defrauds 10% in buying goods and also
defrauds 10% in selling. His gain percent is

A) 10 B) 11 C) 21 D) 10

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67. The total cost price of two watches is Rs. 840. One is sold at a profit of 16% and the
other at a loss of 12%. There is no loss or gain the whole transaction. The cost price of
the watch on which the shopkeeper gains, is

A) Rs. 360 B) Rs. 370 C) Rs. 380 D) Rs 390

68. If Nita’s salary is 25% more than Papiya’s salary, then the percentage by which Papiya’s
salary is less than Nita’s salary is

A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 32

69. A candidate who scores 30% fails by 5 marks, while another candidate who scores 40%
marks gets 10 more than minimum pass marks. The minimum marks required to pass are

A) 50 B) 70 C) 100 D) 150

70. An interval of 3 hours 40 minutes is wrongly estimated as 3 hours 45.5 minutes. The
error percentage is

A) 5.5 B) 5.2 C) 5 D) 2.5

71. The Government reduced the price of sugar by 10%. By this a consumer can buy 6.2 kg
more sugar for Rs. 837. The reduced price per kg of sugar is

A) Rs. 12.50 B) Rs. 13.00 C) Rs. 13.50 D) Rs. 14.00

72. Two trains are moving on two parallel tracks but in opposite directions. A person sitting
in the train moving at the speed of 80 km/hr passes the second train in 18 seconds. If the
length of the second train is 1000 m, its speed is

A) 100 km/hr B) 120 km/hr C) 140 km/hr D) 150 km/hr

73. In a one-kilometre race A, B and C are the three participants. A can give B a start of 50
m and C start of 69 m. The start, which B can allow C is

A) 17 m B) 20 m C) 19 m D) 18 m

74. A person invests money in three different schemes for 6 years, 10 years and 12 years at
10%, 12% and 15% simple interest respectively. At the completion of each scheme, he
gets the same interest. The ratio of his investments is

A) 6 : 3 : 2 B) 2 : 3 : 4 C) 3 : 4 : 6 D) 3 : 4 : 2

75. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order
within the number?

A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

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76. In a certain code COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written
in that code?

A) MYCILEBF B) KTAILEBF C) MTAGJEBF D) KTAGJEBF

78. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters IDET using each letter
only once in each word?

A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

79. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?

A) HK B) BD C) FI D) MP

80. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?

A) Tomato B) Brinjal
C) Radish D) Pumpkin

81. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IMPORTANCE, each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English
alphabet?

A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

82. Three of the following four are alike a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group.

A) Dog B) Horse C) Wolf D) Jackal

83. In a certain code FIRE is written #%@$ and DEAL is written as ©$* ↑. How is FAIL
written in that code?

A) #*% ↑ B) #$% ↑ C) #*@$ D) #*C ↑

84. In a certain code language, ‘come again’ is written as ‘ho na’, ‘come over here’ is written
as ‘pa na ta’ and ‘over and above’ is written as ‘ki ta ja’. How is ‘here’ written in that
code language?

A) pa B) na C) ta D) ja

85. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?

A) 84 B) 120 C) 72 D) 108

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86. A narrow passage of water connecting two large bodies of water is known as a/an

A) Oasis B) Strait C) Isthmus D) Bay

87. Lateritie soil develops under which of the following types of climate?

A) Hot and dry B) Wet tropical D) Mediterranean D) Cold temperate

88. Which of the following instruments is used for reading the changes that occur in
atmospheric humidity?

A) Barometer B) Hygroscope
C) Pyknometer D) Quartz clock

89. India’s permanent research station Dakshin Gangotri is situated in the

A) Great Himalays B) Indian Ocean

C) Antarctica D) Arabian Sea

90. Himalayas are

A) Fold Mountains B)Residual C)Volcanic D)None of the

Mountains Mountains above.

91. For a time difference of one hour the longitudinal distance is equal to

A) 1 degree B) 5 degree C) 10 degree D) 15 degree

92. Imaginary lines drawn on a global map, from pile to pole and perpendicular to the
Equator, are called

A) Contours B) Isobars C) Meridians D) Steppes

93. The rivers included in which of the following groups flow into the Bay of Bengal?

A) Brahmaputra, B) Cauveri, Krishna C)Krishna, E) Narmada,

Ganges and and Narmada Godavari and Ganges and
Godavari Tapti Brahmaputra

94. Atmospheric temperature increases at the higher altitudes due to

A) Conduction B) Convection C) Inversion D) Radiation

95. In a certain code the following numbers are coded in a certain way by assigning signs:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
÷ x _ + > < ∧ ∨ *
Which number can be decoded from the following?

>*x ∨ ÷

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 A) 59821 B) 59182 C) 52981 D) 59281
96. The word “UNITED” is coded as ‘SLGRCB’. How should the word ‘DISOWN’ be
coded?

A) BGQMUL B) CGRLTK
C) CGRTLK D) BGQLUM

97. A word given in capital letters below is followed by four words as options A), B), C) and
D). Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find
out that word.

ENCYCLOPEDIA

A) CYCLE B) PENCIL C) YOKE D) DIAL

98. A word is given in capital letters below. It is followed by four words as options A), B),
C) and D) Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in
capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word
in capital letters.

PHILANTHROPIST

A) FIST B) LARK C) HYPOCRISY D) PISTON

99. Six friends are sitting in a circle and playing cards. Kenny is to the left of Danny.
Michael is in between Bobby and Johnny. Roger is in between Kenny and Bobby. Who
is sitting to the right of Michale?

A) Danny B) Johnny C) Kenny D) Bobby

10 A, B, C, D are four friends. Average age of A and C is 35 years and that of B and D is 40
0. years. Average age of B, C and D is 40 years. The sum of the ages of A and D is equal
to that of B and C. Find out the ages (in years) of A, B, C and D.

A) 20, 30, 40, 50 B) 20, 25, 30, 35 C) 30, 35, 40, 45 D) 30, 40, 50, 60

10 Which one of the following statements on the motion of earth is TRUE?

1.
A) It rotates on its axis from east to west
B) The day and night are as a result of rotation.
C) It rotates round the Sun, taking 365 days, 5 hours and 48 minutes and 45.51 seconds.
D) None of the above.

10 Fill up the right words in the following sentence from the options:
2.
“________ the activities of moneylenders could have an adverse impact on those
who___________ access to bank credit.”

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 A)Encouraging, B) Permitting, C) Confining, D) Promoting,
enjoying do not have entitled benefit

10 Fill up the right words in the following sentence from the options:
3.
“The budget announced substantial_________ of _______________ in critical sectors
like education and healthcare.”

A) expenditure, B) sanctions, C)allotment, D)disbursement,

capital initiatives security investment

10 Fill up the right words in the following sentence from the options:
4.
The government decided not to make any__________ changes in the country’s tax
________.

A)sweeping, B) transparent, C) drastically, D) constitutional,

regime hike net revenue

10 Fill up the right words in the following sentence from the options:
5.
“The RBI has ____________ a statement that the implementation of KYC norms should
not lead to the denial of banking ___________ to customers.”

A) released, B) issued, C) drafted, D) notified,

asset services clearing transaction.

***
End of the paper

Working Sheets Follow:

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 ASSISTANT ENGINEERS (General Knowledge, Aptitude and Reasoning)

(Solutions)

SECTION II

1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C
5. C 6. C 7. B 8. B
9. B 10. C 11. C 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. D 16. B
17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. A 23. B 24. A
25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B
29. D 30. D 31. D 32. C
33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C
37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B
41. A 42. A 43. A 44. B
45. B 46. B 47. D 48. C
49. D 50. B 51. A 52. A
53. C 54. A 55. B 56. D
57. A 58. C 59. C 60. C
61. D 62. C 63. A 64. B
65. A 66. D 67. C 68. B
69. B 70. A 71. B 72. B
73. C 74. B 75. C 76. D
77. B 78. A 79. A 80. D
81. D 82. B 83. B 84. C
85. A 86. D 87. C 88. A
89. B 90. D 91. A 92. C
93. D 94. D 95. C 96. B
97. B 98. C 99. B 100. D

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