Note: Previous year (EAMCET 2000) PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY PAPERS WITH KEY

PHYSICS EAMCET 2000

101. In a compound microscope cross wires are fixed at the point
1) Where the image is formed by the objective
2) Where the image is formed by the eye-piece
3) Where the focal point of the objective lies
4) Where the focal point of the eyepiece lies
102. Consider the following two statements A and B and identify the correct choice in the
given answers
A : Line spectra is due to atoms in gaseous state
B : Band spectra is due to molecules
1) Both A and B are false 2) A is true and B is false
3) A is false and B is true 4) Both A and B are true
103. Under minimum deviation condition in a prism, if a ray is incident at an angle 30
0
, the
angle between the emergent ray and second refracting surface of the prism is
1) 0
0
2) 30
0
3) 45
0
4) 60
0

104. A short bar magnet with its north pole facing north forms a neutral point at p in the
horizontal plane. If the magnet is rotated by 90
0
in the horizontal plane, the net magnetic
induction at P is ( Horizontal component of earth's magnetic field =B
H
)
1) 0 2) 2 B
H
3) 5/2 B
H
4) 5 B
H
105. Two similar bar magnets P and Q each of magnetic moment M are taken. If P is cut along
its axial line and Q is cut along its equatorial line, all the four pieces obtained have each
of
1) equal pole strength 2) magnetic moment M/4
3) magnetic moment M/2 4) magnetic moment M
106. There is no couple acting when two bar magnets are placed coaxially separated by a
distance because
1) There are no forces on the ples
2) The forces parallel and their lines of action do not coincide
3) The forces are perpendicular each other
4) The forces act along the same line
107. The pole strength of a 12 cm long bar magnet is 20 A.m. The magnetic induction at a
point 10 cm away from the centre of the magnet on its axial line is [
0
/ 4 =10
-7
Hm
-1
]
1) 1.1 x 10
2
T 2) 2.2 x 10
2
T 3) 1.1 x 10
-2
T 4) 2.2 x 10
-2
T
108. Electric charges of 1C, -C amd C are placed in air at the corners A, B and C
respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC having length of eath of each side 10 cm. The
resultant force on the charge at c is
1) 0.9 N 2) 1.8 N 3) 2.2 N 4) 3.6 N



109. A charged particle of mass 5 x 10 kg is held stationary in space by placing it in an electric
field of strength 10
6
NC
-1
directed vertically downwards. The charge on the particle is
(g =10 ms
2
)
1) 20 x 10
-5
C 2) 5 x 10
-5
C 3) 5 x 10
-5
C 4) 20 x 10
-5
C
110. Two long parallel copper wires carrying currents in the opposite direction of 5A each. If
the wires are separated by a distance of 0.5 m, then the force between the two wires is
1) 10
-5
N attractive force 2) 10 N
-6
repulsive force
3) 2 x 10
5
N attractive force 4) 2 x 10
-6
N repulsive force
111. An ammeter and voltmeter of resistance R are connected in series to an electric cell of
negligible internal resistance. Their readings are A and V respectively. If another
resistance R is connected in parallel with the voltmeter
1) Both A and V will increase 2) Both A and V will decrease
3) A will decrease and V will increase 4) A will increase and V will decrease
112. Two electric charges 12 C and -6 C are placed 20 cm apart in air. There will be a point
P at which electric potential is zero on the line joining these two charges and out side,
excluding the region between them. The distance of P from 6C charge is
1) 0.10 cm 2) 0.15 cm 3) 0.20 m 4) 0.25 m
113. Two wires of equal diameters of resistivities P
1
and P
2
and lengths x
1
and x
2
respectively
are joined in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is
1) P
1
x
1
+P
2
x
2
2) P
1
x
2
+P
2
x
1
3) P
1
x
2
+P
2
x
1
4) P
1
x
1
- P
2
x
2

x
1
+x
2
x
1
- x
2
x
1
+x
2
x
1
- x
2
114. The X - ray wavelength of L

line of platinum ( z =78 ) is 1.30 A

0
. The x - ray wavelength
L

line of Molybdenum ( Z =42 ) is

1) 5.41 A
0
2) 4.20 A
0
3) 2.70 A
0
4) 1.35 A
0

115. When a metal surface is illuminated by a light of wavelengths 400 nm and 250 nm, the
maximum velocities of the photo electrons ejected are V and 2V respectively. The work
function of the metal is : ( h =Plank's constant, c =velocity of light in air )
1) 2 hc x 10
6
J 2) 1.5 hc x 10
6
J 3) hc x 10
6
J 4) 0.5 hc x10
6
J
116. The energy of an x - ray photon wavelength 1.65 A
0

is
(h =6.6 x 10
-34
J - S, C =3 x 10
8
ms
-1
, 1 eV =1.6 x 10
-19
J )

1) 3.5 K eV 2) 5.5 KeV 3) 7.6 K eV 4) 9.5 K eV
117. The ratio of the longest to shortest wavelengths in Bracket series of hydrogen spectra is
1) 25/9 2) 17/6 3) 9/5 4) 4/3
118. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the ratio of periods of revolution of an electron in n =2
and n =1 orbits is
1) 2:1 2) 4:1 3) 8:1 4) 16:1




119. To generate a power of 3.2 mega watts, the number of fissions of U
235
per minute is
( Energy released per fission =200 MeV, 1 eV =1.6 x 10
-9
J )
1) 6 x 10
18
2) 6 x 10
17
3) 10
17
4) 6 x 10
16
120. Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct choice of the given
answers
A : The width of the depletion layer in a p - n junction diode increases in forward bias
B : In an intrinsic semiconductor the Fermi energy level is exactly in the middle of the
forbidden gas
1) A is true and B is false 2) Both A and B are false
3) A is false and B is true 4) Both A and B are true
121. The fundamental physical quantities that have same dimensions in the dimensional
formulae of torque and angular momentum are
1) mass, time 2) time, length 3) mass, length 4) time, mole
122. If pressure P, velocity V and time T are taken as fundamental physical quantities, the
dimensional formula of the force is
1) PV
2
T
2
2) P
-1
V
2
T
2
3) PVT
2
4) T
-1
VT
2

123. The displacement r of a charge Q in an electric field E =e
1
i +e
2
j +e
3
k is r =ai +bj.
The work done is
1) Q (ae
1
+be
2
) 2) Q (ae
1
2
) +(be
2
)
2
3) Q (e
1
+e
2
) a
2
+b
2
4) Q [ e
1
2
+ e
2
2
] (a +b)
124. A body is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity 4 reaches maximum height in 6
seconds. The ratio of distances travelled by the body in the first second and seventh
second is
1) 1:1 2) 11:1 3) 1:2 4) 1:11
125. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of 5 m height. It touches the ground
at a distance of 10 m from the foot of the tower. The initial velocity of the body is (g =10
ms
-2
)
1) 2.5 ms
-1
2) 5 ms
-1
3) 10 ms
-1
4) 20 ms
-1

126. Four bodies P,Q,R,S are projected with equal velocities having angles of projection 15
0
,
30
0
, 45
0
and 60
0
with the horizontal respectively. The body having shortest range is
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S
127. A force of 5 N waking an angle with the horizontal acting on an object displaces it by
0.4 m along the horizontal direction. If the object gains kinetic energy of 1J , the horizontal
component of the force is
1) 1.5 N 2) 2.5 N 3) 3.5 N 4) 4.5 N
128. A body of mass m
1
moving with a velocity 10 ms
-1
collides with another body at rest of
mass m
2
. After collision the velocities of the two bodies are 2 ms
-1
and 5 ms
-1

respectively along the direction of motion of m
1
. The ratio m
1
/ m
2
is
1) 5/12 2) 5/8 3) 8/5 4) 12/5
129. A ball is projected vertically down with an initial velocity from a height of 20 m on to a
horizontal floor. During the impact it looses 50% of its energy and rebounds to the same
height. The initial velocity of its projection is ( g =10 ms
-2
)
1) 20 ms
-1
2) 15 ms
-1
3) 10 ms
-1
4) 5 ms
-1
130. A 10 H.P. motor pumps out water from a well of depth 20 m and fills a water tank of
volume 2238 liters at a height of 10 m from the ground. The running time of the motor to
fill the empty water tank is ( g =10 ms
-2
)
1) 5 minutes 2) 10 minutes 3) 15 minutes 4) 20 minutes
131. A body is sliding down an inclined plane having co-efficient of friction 0.5. If the normal
reaction is twice that of the resultant downward force along the incline, the angle between
the inclined plane and the horizontal is
1) 15
0
2) 30
0
3) 45
0
4) 60
0

132. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass M and radius R about an axis passing through
its centre is 2/5 MR
2
. The radius of gyration of the sphere about a parallel axis to the
above and tangent to the sphere is
1) 7/5 R 2) 3/5 R 3) [7/5]R 4) [3/5]R
133. A wheel has a speed of 1200 revolutions per minute and is made to slow down at a rate
of 4 radians The number of revolution it makes before coming to rest is
1) 143 2) 272 3) 314 4) 722
134. R and r are the radii of the earth and moon respectively p
e
and p
m
are the densities of
earth and moon respectively. The ratio of the accelerations due to gravity on the surfaces
of earth to moon is
1) R/r p
e
/ p
m
2) r/R p
e
/ p
m
3) r/R p
m
/ p
r
4) R/r p
m
/ p
e
135. The height of the point vertically above the Earth's surface at which acceleration due to
gravity becomes 1% of its value at the surface is
1) 8 R 2) 9 R 3) 10 R 4) 20 R
136. A body of mass 1 kg executing simple harmonic motion, its displacement y cm at t
seconds is given by Y =6 sin (100 t +/4). Its maximum kinetic energy is
1) 6J 2) 18J 3) 24J 4) 36 J
137. A particle executing simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 6 cm. Its acceleration at
a distance from the mean position 2 cm is 8 cm / s
2
. The maximum speed of the particle
is
1) 8 cm / s 2) 12 cm / s 3) 16 cm / s 4) 24 cm / s



138. When a uniform wire of radius r is stretched by a 2 kg weight, the increase in its length is
2.00 mm. If the radius of the wire is r/2 and other conditions remaining the same, the
increase in its length is
1) 2.00 m 2) 4.00 m 3) 6.00 m 4) 8.00 m
139. 8000 identical water drops are combined to form a big drop. Then the ratio of final
surface energy to the initial surface energy of all the drops together is
1) 1:10 2) 1:15 3) 1:20 4) 1:25
140. When a liquid in a glass vessel is heated, its apparent expansion is 10.30 x 10
-4
/
0
C
Same liquid when heated in a metal, its apparent expansion is 10.06 x 10
-4
/
0
C. The
cooefficient of linear expansion of the metal is (coefficient of linear expansion of glass =9
x 10
-6
/
0
C)
1) 51 x 10
-6
/
0
C 2) 43 x 10
-6
/
0
C 3) 25 x 10
-6
/
0
C 4) 17 x 10
-6
/
0
C
141. A vessel is filled with an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atmospheres and temperature 27
0

C Half of the mass of the gas is removed from the vessel and temperature of the
remaining gas is increased to 87
0
C. Then the pressure of the gas in the vessel will be
1) 5 atm 2) 6 atm 3) 7 atm 4) 8 atm
142. During an adiabatic process, if the pressure of an ideal gas is proportional to the cube of
its temperature, the ration n =C
P
/ C
v
is (specific heat at constant volume =C
V
, Specific
heat at constant pressure =C
P
)
1) 3/5 2) 4/3 3) 5/3 4) 3/2
143. A flask is filled with 13 g of an ideal gas at 27
0
C and its temperature is raised to 52
0
C.
The mass of the gas that has to be released to maintain the temperature of the gas in the
flask at 52
0
C and the pressure remaining the same is
1) 2.5 g 2) 2.0 g 3) 1.5 g 4) 1.0 g
144. An ideal gas at a pressure of 1 atmosphere and temperature of 27
0
C is compressed
adiabatically its pressure becomes 8 times the initial pressure, then the final temperture is
1) 627
0
C 2) 527
0
C 3) 427
0
C 4) 327
0
C
145. Two liquids at temperatures 60
0
C and 20
0
C respectively have masses in the ratio 3:4
and their specific heats in the ratio 4:5. If the two liquids are mixed, the resultant
temperature is
1) 70
0
C 2) 50
0
C 3) 40
0
C 4) 35
0
C
146. Two metal rods A and B of equal lengths and equal cross sectional areas are joined end
to end. The coefficients of thermal conductivities of A and B are in the ratio 2:3. When the
free end of A is maintained at 100
0
C and the free end of B is maintained at 0
0
C, the
temperature of the junction is
1) 30
0
C 2) 40
0
C 3) 50
0
C 4) 60
0
C
147. The frequency of a stretched uniform wire under tension is in resonance with the
fundamental frequency of a closed tube. If the tension in the wire is increased by 8N, it is
in resonance with the first overtone of the closed tube. The initial tension in the wire is
1) 1N 2) 4N 3) 8N 4) 16N

148. If a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 255 Hz is moving with a velocity 4 ms
-1

perpendicular to a wall, the number of beats produced per second is (speed of sound in
air =340 ms
-1
)
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
149. A source producing sound of frequency 170 Hz is approaching a stationary observer with
a velocity 17 m/s. The apparent change in the wavelength of sound heard by the observe
is
(speed of sound in air =340 ms
-1
)
1) 0.1 m 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.4 m 4) 0.5 m
150. The focal length of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The
length of telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is
1) 45 cm 2) 55 cm 3) 275/6 cm 4) 325/6 cm

PHYSICS 2000 (KEY)

101) 1 102) 4 103) 4 104) 4 105) 3
106) 4 107) 1 108) 2 109) 2 110) 2
111) 4 112) 3 113) 1 114) 1 115) 1
116) 3 117) 1 118) 3 119) 1 120) 3
121) 3 122) 1 123) 1 124) 2 125) 3
126) 1 127) 2 128) 2 129) 1 130) 3
131) 3 132) 3 133) 3 134) 1 135) 2
136) 2 137) 2 138) 4 139) 3 140) 4
141) 2 142) 4 143) 4 144) 4 145) 4
146) 2 147) 1 148) 4 149) 1 150) 4










CHEMISTRY eamcet 2000

151. The volume of 10 moles of an ideal gas is 1 litre at 27
0
C and 1 atm. Pressure. What is
the volume (in lit) at 20 moles of same gas at sam temperature and pressure
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 8
152. Which of the following is used in the extraction of silver?
1) NaCI 2) Na
2
CO
3
3) NaCN 4) Na
2
SO
4
153. Which one of the following ions exhibits colour in aqueous solution ?
1) Sc3
+
2) Ni2
+
3) Ti4
+
4) Zn2
+
154. What is the electrolyte used in the electrolytic method of preparation of fluorine?
1) Naf +CaCI
2
2)KHF
2
+LiF 3) KF +LiHF
2

4) CaCI
2
+KF
155. Lead impurity is removed from lilver by ?
1) Poling 2) Cupellation 3) Distillation 4) Lavigation
156. Aniline on heating with X in the presence of KOH gives a product with very bad smell.
which of the following is X?
1) CH
3
CI 2) CCI
4

3) CHCI
4

4) C
2
H
5
CI
157. Chloral hydrate is dissolved in NaOH solution and distilled. What are the compounds
obtained?
1) CH
2
CI, NaCI 2) CH
3
CI, CH
3
COONa
3) CHCI
3
, HCOONa,H
2
O 4) C
2
H5CI, CH
3
COONa
158 Bleaching action of chlorine occurs in the presence of
1) O
2
2) Moisture 3) Dry air 4) Sun light
159. Which of the following reaction conditions are used for the conversion of ethanol to
ethylene?
1) Conc. H
2
SO
4
/70
0
C 2) Dil. H
2
SO
4
/140
0
C
3) Dil. H
2
SO
4
/10
0
C 4) Conc. H
2
SO
4
/10
0
C
160. Which of the following has more acidic character ?
1) H
2
O 2) H
2
Te 3) H
2
S 4) H
2
Se
161. Which of the following compounds is formed when ethanol reacts with acetic acid in the
presence of concentarted H
2
SO
4

1) CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
2) C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5

3) CH
3
OCH
3
4) CH
3
CH
2
CHO
162. In which of the following compounds ozygen exhibits an oxidation state of +2?
1)H
2
O 2) H
2
O
2
3) OF
2
4) H
2
SO
4
163. What is the compound formed when acetaldehyde is reacted with LiAIH
4
?
1) C
2
H
5
ONa 2) CH
3
COOH
3) C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5
4) CH
3
COCH
3
164. Ethyl chloride reacts with X to form NaCI and Y. One mole of Y reacts with two moles of
HI to form water and ethyl iodide. Which of the following is X?
1) C
2
H
5
ONa 2) C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5
3) CH
3
COOH 4) CH
3
CHO
165. What is the value of gas constant? R. in J mol
-1
K
-1
?
1() 82.1 2) 8.314x10
2
3) 8.314 4) 0.0821
166. What is the value (in ml) of 0.1 M Potassium permanganate solution required to
completely oxidize 100 ml of 0.5 M ferrous sulphate solution in acid medium?
1) 20 2) 200 3) 50 4) 100
167. What is the ozidation state sof carbon in carbon diozide?
1) +2 2) +4 3) +6 4) +1
168. Which of the following unclide is unstable?
1) 5
B10
2)

4
Be10
3) 7
N1
4 4) 8
01
6
169. The P
Ka
of a weak acid is 4.8. What is the ratio of [salt]/[acid]. If a buffer of P
H
=5.8 is to
be prepared ?
1) 1:1 2) 10:1 3) 2:1 4) 1:10
170. The probability of finding an electron in an orbital is approzimately:
1) 95% 2) 50% 3) 60% 4) 25%
171. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
1) HCOO
-
2) H
2
SO
4
3) SiF
4
4) H
2
S
172. What is the wavelength of H3 line the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum? (R=Rydberg
constant)
1) 36/5R 2) 5R/36 3) 3R/16 4) 16/3R
173. Which of the following is the correct order of ionic radli?
1) NA
+
<Mg2
+
<AI3
+
<Si4
+
2) AI3
+
<Si4
+
>Na
+
>Mg2
+

3) Si4
+
<AI3
+
>Mg2
+
>Na
+
4) Na
+
>Mg2
+
>AI3
+
>Si4
+
174. Which of the following is used to convert nitrobenzene to hydrazo benzene ?
1) Zn/NH
4
CI 2) Zn/NaOH 3) Sn/HCI 4) LiAIH
4

175. Which of the following has the highest electronegativity?
1) Na 2) CI 3) K 4) B
176. Which of the following has least bond energy?
1) F
2
2) H
2
3) N
2
4) O
2
177. Which of the following can be detected bny silver mirror test?
1) CH
3
COCH
3
2) CH
3
COOH 3) C
2
H6 4) CH
3
CHO
178. Which of the following is used to convert nitrobenzene to azobenene?
1) LiAIH
4
2) Zn/NaoH 3) Zn/NH
4
CI 4) Sn/HCI
179. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point ?
1) CH
4
2) H
2
O 3) HF 4) C
2
H
5
OH
180. Acetic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of H
2
SO
4
to form X and water, which of
the following is X ?
1) CH
3
CH
2
COOC
2
H
5
2) CH
3
COCH
3

3) CH
3
COC
2
H
5
4) CH
3
COOC
2
H
5
181. Methyl benzene can be prepared by reacting benzene with bromo methane in the
presence of :
1) Anhydrous AICI
3
2) Br
2
/CCI
4

3) Ni/H
2
,70
0
C 4) Dil. H
2
SO
4



182. 4 moles of HI is taken in a 1 litre closed vessel and heated till equilibrium is reached. At
equillbrium the concentration of H
2
is 1 mol. lit
-1
. What is the equilbrium constant for?

1) 4 2)0.5 3) 2 4) 0.25
183. What is the solution used for the preparation of hydrogen perozide by electrolytic
procedure?
1) 0.2 N NaOH 2) 50%H
2
SO
4
3) 20% NaOH 4) 5% NaCI
184. Heat of combustion of carbon is 96 Kcal. When some quantity of carbon is burnt in
ozygen, 48 Kcal of heat is liberated. What is the volume (in lit) of ozygen at STP reacted
with this carbon?
1) 48 2)22.4 3) 11.2 4) 1
185. What is the rate of the reaction for 2A - B?
1)1/2(-d[A]/dt) 2) -d[A]/dt 3) -d[B]/dt 4) +d[A]/dt
186. Benzene is used in the preparation of :
1) Polythene 2) Gammaxene 3) Chloroform 4) Venigar
187. In a reaction sodium is heated with BeCi
2
. In this reaction, sodium acts as :
1) Ozidizing agent 2) Reducing agent 3) Hydrolysing agent 4)
Precipitating agent
188. What is the molecular formula of plaster of paris?
1) 2CaSO
4
1H
2
O 2) 2CaSO
4
2H
2
O 3) CaSO
4
2H
2
O 4)
CaSO
4
3H
2
O
189. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of ethanol?
1) C
2
H
6
2) C
2
H
2
3) CH
4
4) C
2
H
4
190. What are the reaction conditions used for the formation of ethylene glycol from ethylene?
1) Bromine water 2) Cold alkaline KMnO
4

3) SO
4
/60
0
C 4) O
3
/H
2
O
191. Soild sodium hydrozide is reacted with carbon monozide under pressure. What is the
product obtained?
1) CO
2
2) CH
3
ONa 3) HCOONa 4) HCHO
192. What is the C-C bond length (in angstroms ) in Diamond?
1) 1.54 2) 3.35 3) 2.0 4) 5.2
193. In which of the following compounds, the weight percentage of C and H are 80 and 20
respectively?
1) CH
4
2) C
2
H
2
3) C
2
H
6
4) C
6
H
6
194. What is the formula of diaspore?
1) AI
2
O
3
2H
2
O 2) AI
2
O
3
3) AI
2
O
3
H
2
O 4) AIPO
4
195. Which of the following is calcium superphosphate?
1) Ca(H
2
PO
4
)
2
H
2
O+2(CaSO
4
2H
2
O) 2) Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
+2CaSO
4

3) CaSO
4
+CaO 4) Ca (H
2
PO
4
)
2
H
2
O +CaSO
4
196. What is the catalyst used during the manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald's method?
1) AI
2
O
3
2) NaH 3) B
2
H
6
4) KCI
197. Which of the following is an electron deficient compoud?
1) NaCI 2) NaH 3) B
2
H
6
4) KCI
198. Elecment Z
MA
emits one alpha particle followed by two beta particles. Which of the
following by two beta particles. Which of the following is daughter element?
1) z - 2
M
2) z - 2
M
3) z
M
4) z +2
M
199. Which of the following aqueous solutions conducts electricity?
1) Urea 2) Glucose 3) Sucrose 4) NaCI
200. 500ml of a solution contains 12.6 grams of ozalic acid (mol.wt. = 126) 10ml of this
solution is diluted to 100ml in a flask. What is the molarity (in mol. lit
-1
) of the resultant
solution?
1) 0.2 2) 0.1 3) 0.02 4) 0.01


CHEMISTRY 2000 (KEY)
151) 1, 3 152) 3 153) 2 154) 2 155) 2
156) 3 157) 3 158) 2 159) 4 160) 2
161) 1 162) 3 163) 1 164) 1 165) 3
166) 4 167) 2 168) 2 169) 2 170) 1
171) 3 172) 4 173) 4 174) 2 175) 2
176) 1 177) 4 178) 1 179) 1 180) 4
181) 1 182) 4 183) 2 184) 3 185) 1
186) 2 187) 2 188) 1 189) 4 190) 2
191) 3 192) 1 193) 3 194) 3 195) 1
196) 4 197) 3 198) 3 199) 4 200) 3