AQA 8402 1 W MS Jan14

AQA Level 1/2 Certificate
Chemistry
Paper 1 (8402/1)
Mark scheme

8402
January 2014

Version/Stage: Final

Mark schemes are prepared by the Lead Assessment Writer and considered, together with the
relevant questions, by a panel of subject teachers. This mark scheme includes any amendments
made at the standardisation events which all associates participate in and is the scheme which was
used by them in this examination. The standardisation process ensures that the mark scheme covers
the students responses to questions and that every associate understands and applies it in the same
correct way. As preparation for standardisation each associate analyses a number of students
scripts: alternative answers not already covered by the mark scheme are discussed and legislated for.
If, after the standardisation process, associates encounter unusual answers which have not been
raised they are required to refer these to the Lead Assessment Writer.

It must be stressed that a mark scheme is a working document, in many cases further developed and
expanded on the basis of students reactions to a particular paper. Assumptions about future mark
schemes on the basis of one years document should be avoided; whilst the guiding principles of
assessment remain constant, details will change, depending on the content of a particular
examination paper.

Further copies of this mark scheme are available from aqa.org.uk

Copyright 2014 AQA and its licensors. All rights reserved.
AQA retains the copyright on all its publications. However, registered schools/colleges for AQA are permitted to copy material from this
booklet for their own internal use, with the following important exception: AQA cannot give permission to schools/colleges to photocopy any
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MARK SCHEME AQA Certificate in Chemistry Paper 1 8402/1 January 2014

3 of 18

Information to Examiners
1. General
The mark scheme for each question shows:
the marks available for each part of the question
the total marks available for the question
the typical answer or answers which are expected
extra information to help the Examiner make his or her judgement and help to delineate
what is acceptable or not worthy of credit or, in discursive answers, to give an overview
of the area in which a mark or marks may be awarded.
The extra information is aligned to the appropriate answer in the left-hand part of the mark
scheme and should only be applied to that item in the mark scheme.
At the beginning of a part of a question a reminder may be given, for example: where
consequential marking needs to be considered in a calculation; or the answer may be on
the diagram or at a different place on the script.
In general the right-hand side of the mark scheme is there to provide those extra details
which confuse the main part of the mark scheme yet may be helpful in ensuring that
marking is straightforward and consistent.

2. Emboldening
2.1 In a list of acceptable answers where more than one mark is available any two
from is used, with the number of marks emboldened. Each of the following bullet
points is a potential mark.
2.2 A bold and is used to indicate that both parts of the answer are required to award
the mark.
2.3 Alternative answers acceptable for a mark are indicated by the use of or. Different
terms in the mark scheme are shown by a / ; eg allow smooth / free movement.

3. Marking points
3.1 Marking of lists
This applies to questions requiring a set number of responses, but for which
candidates have provided extra responses. The general principle to be followed in
such a situation is that right +wrong =wrong.
Each error / contradiction negates each correct response. So, if the number of error
/ contradictions equals or exceeds the number of marks available for the question,
no marks can be awarded.
However, responses considered to be neutral (indicated as * in example 1) are not
penalised.
Example 1: What is the pH of an acidic solution? (1 mark)

Candidate Response Marks
awarded
1 green, 5 0
2 red*, 5 1
3 red*, 8 0


4 of 18

Example 2: Name two planets in the solar system. (2 marks)

Candidate Response Marks awarded
1 Neptune, Mars, Moon 1
2 Neptune, Sun, Mars,
Moon
0

3.2 Use of chemical symbols / formulae
If a candidate writes a chemical symbol / formula instead of a required chemical
name, full credit can be given if the symbol / formula is correct and if, in the context
of the question, such action is appropriate.
3.3 Marking procedure for calculations
Full marks can be given for a correct numerical answer, without any working shown.
However, if the answer is incorrect, mark(s) can be gained by correct substitution /
working and this is shown in the extra information column or by each stage of a
longer calculation.
3.4 Interpretation of it
Answers using the word it should be given credit only if it is clear that the it refers
to the correct subject.
3.5 Errors carried forward
Any error in the answers to a structured question should be penalised once only.
Papers should be constructed in such a way that the number of times errors can be
carried forward are kept to a minimum. Allowances for errors carried forward are
most likely to be restricted to calculation questions and should be shown by the
abbreviation e.c.f. in the marking scheme.
3.6 Phonetic spelling
The phonetic spelling of correct scientific terminology should be credited unless
there is a possible confusion with another technical term.
3.7 Brackets
(..) are used to indicate information which is not essential for the mark to be
awarded but is included to help the examiner identify the sense of the answer
required.
3.8 Ignore / Insufficient / Do not allow
Ignore of insufficient is used when the information given is irrelevant to the question
or not enough to gain the marking point. Any further correct amplification could gain
the marking point.
Do not allow means that this is a wrong answer which, even if the correct answer is
given, will still mean that the mark is not awarded.

5 of 18

4. Quality of Communication and levels marking

In Question 5(c) candidates are required to produce extended written material in English,
and will be assessed on the quality of their written communication as well as the standard
of the scientific response.

Candidates will be required to:
use good English
organise information clearly
use specialist vocabulary where appropriate.

The following general criteria should be used to assign marks to a level:

Level 1: basic
Knowledge of basic information
Simple understanding
The answer is poorly organised, with almost no specialist terms and their use
demonstrating a general lack of understanding of their meaning, little or no detail
The spelling, punctuation and grammar are very weak.

Level 2: clear
Knowledge of accurate information
Clear understanding
The answer has some structure and organisation, use of specialist terms has been
attempted but not always accurately, some detail is given
There is reasonable accuracy in spelling, punctuation and grammar, although there may
still be some errors.

Level 3: detailed
Knowledge of accurate information appropriately contextualised
Detailed understanding, supported by relevant evidence and examples
Answer is coherent and in an organised, logical sequence, containing a wide range of
appropriate or relevant specialist terms used accurately.
The answer shows almost faultless spelling, punctuation and grammar.


6 of 18

Question Answers Extra information Mark AO/spec ref

1(a)(i)

Neutron (top label)
Electron (bottom label)
1
1
AO1
1.2c

1(a)(ii)

13 1 AO1
1.2i

1(a)(iii)

electrons 1 AO1
1.2e

1(b)(i)

compound
hydrogen
bond
1
1
1
2AO1/1AO2
1.2b, 1.3a,
8.2a, 8.2b

1(b)(ii)

C
4
H
10
1 AO2
8.2b

Total 8


7 of 18


2(a)(i)

iron
carbon dioxide
either order 1
1
AO2
1.3f, 6.2b

2(a)(ii)

reduced 1 AO1
6.2b

2(b)(i)

each correct line gains 1
mark
extra lines from
statement negate the
mark
max.
2

AO1
1.2a, 14.2a

2(b)(ii)

the layers / rows are distorted /
disrupted or it doesnt occur in
layers or the atoms are different
so cannot slide over one another
or slide less easily
1

1
AO1/AO2
6.3e

Total 7


8 of 18


3(a)(i)

Solids 1 AO1
3.2b

3(a)(ii)

Chlorine 1 AO1
3.2b

3(a)(iii)

improves dental health or
reduces tooth decay
1 AO1
3.2d

3(b)

put a sample of the filtered water
in an evaporating basin or leave
to evaporate
there will be crystals of salt left
accept any description of
evaporation (using a Bunsen or
leaving on the windowsill)
1

1
AO1/AO2
3.2a, 3.2c

3(c)(i)

Test flame test
Result yellow / orange /
persistent orange flame
1
1
AO1
14.1e

3(c)(ii)

sodium and / or chloride ions are
bigger than water (molecules) or
ions are charged or molecules
are not charged
do not accept sodium chloride
molecules as ions is given in the
question
1 AO3
3.2a, 14.2a

Total 8


9 of 18


4(a)

colourless ignore clear 1 AO1
9.1d

4(b)(i)

decomposition 1 AO1
9.1a

4(b)(ii)

C
8
H
18
1 AO2
1.3f, 9.1b

4(c)(i)

two single trailing bonds
extending from the carbons
(through the brackets) 1 mark
five single bonds (1 CC bond
and 4 CH bonds) 1 mark
2 AO1
9.2a

4(c)(ii)

any two from:
(polymers made from)
cornstarch are
biodegradable
less space needed in
landfill sites
polymers from cornstarch
come from a renewable
source.
allow converse for poly(ethene)

2 AO1/AO3
9.2e, 9.2f

Total 7


10 of 18


5(a)(i)

covalent 1 AO1
2.1g, 2.1h

5(a)(ii)

increases the rate of reaction 1 AO1
7g

5(b)(i)

the reaction is reversible 1 AO1
1.3i, 12b

5(b)(ii)

at lower pressure the molecules
will be further apart
so there will be fewer collisions
per unit time

accept frequency of collisions
lower
1

1
AO2
12f

5(b)(iii)

as the temperature increases, the
yield of the reaction increases
1 AO2
12g

5(b)(iv)

2 molecules / volumes become 4
or more molecules / volumes of
product than reactant
1 AO1
7d

Question 5 continues on the next page


11 of 18

Question 5 continued

5(c) 6 marks 1AO1/2AO2/3AO3
1.1a, 8.3a, 8.3c, 8.3f
Marks awarded for this answer will be determined by the Quality of Communication (QoC) as well as the
standard of the scientific response. Examiners should also refer to the information on page 5, and apply
a best-fit approach to the marking.
0 marks Level 1 (12 marks) Level 2 (34 marks) Level 3 (56 marks)
No relevant content Candidate has written
about some basic
points from the table but
has not added any extra
knowledge. Candidate
may have included
advantages or
disadvantages.
Candidate has
attempted an evaluation
using points from the
table and their own
knowledge. Candidate
has included
advantages and
disadvantages.
Candidate has given an
evaluation that includes
both advantages and
disadvantages.
Candidate has clearly
linked points from the
table with their own
knowledge and uses
appropriate scientific
terminology.
examples of the points made in the response
Advantages of using hydrogen:
its combustion only produces water
combustion of hydrogen does not
produce carbon dioxide or does not
contribute to climate change
petrol requires much more oxygen to
burn so partial combustion is possible
producing carbon monoxide
combustion of hydrogen does not
produce any particulates or does not
contribute to global dimming
petrol comes from a non-renewable
source or there are renewable ways of
producing hydrogen, eg electrolysis of
water.
Disadvantages of using hydrogen:
hydrogen has to be stored at high
pressure or risk of explosion or larger
volume needed for storage.
much less energy produced from the
combustion of hydrogen or need to
refuel more often
most methods of producing hydrogen
need fossil fuels.

Total 13


12 of 18


6(a)

magnesium loses electrons
two electrons
chlorine gains electrons
two atoms of chlorine
there are four ideas here that
need to be linked in two pairs.
magnesium loses electrons and
chlorine gains electrons scores 2
marks.
magnesium loses two electrons
and two chlorines each gain one
electron will score full marks.
1
1
1
1
2AO1/2AO2
2.1c

6(b)

95 correct answer with or without
working gains 2 marks
if answer incorrect, allow 24 +
35.5 +35.5 for 1 mark
2 AO2
1.3b

Total 6


13 of 18


7(a)(i)

ethanol 1 AO1
10.1a

7(a)(ii)

oxidised 1 AO1
10.1c

7(a)(iii)

Test
add any named carbonate or
hydrogen carbonate
Result
A will effervesce (carbon dioxide)
or B will not effervesce.
or
Test
add a named (magnesium,
aluminium, zinc, iron or tin) metal
Result
A will effervesce (hydrogen), B
will not
or
Test
add an acidbase indicator
Result
credit any acid colour for that
indicator eg for universal
indicator allow red, yellow or
orange
give credit for the neutral colour
for B
or
Test
add an alcohol (+acid catalyst)
Result
sweet or fruity smell of esters.
the first mark is for the test; the
second is for the result
if the result is incorrect, award the
first mark only
if the test is incorrect award 0
marks.
candidates do not have to name a
gas but penalise an incorrect gas.
give credit to any test that will
work.
allow a test that would identify B.

1

1
AO1/AO2
10.2b

Question 7 continues on the next page


14 of 18

Question 7 continued


7(b)(i)

H
2
O 1 AO2
1.3f, 10.2b

7(b)(ii)

ethyl ethanoate 1 AO1
10.3a

7(b)(iii)

any one from:
flavourings
perfumes
solvents
plasticisers
allow any correct use of esters 1 AO1
10.3b

Total 7


15 of 18


8(a)

any two from:
temperature (of the HCl)
mass or length of the
magnesium
surface area of the
magnesium
volume of HCl
2 AO3
7d, 7f

8(b)(i)

(a greater concentration has)
more particles per unit volume
therefore more collisions per unit
time or more frequent collisions.
allow particles are closer together 1

1
AO1
7e

8(b)(ii)

particles move faster

therefore more collisions per unit
time or more frequent collisions
collisions more energetic
(therefore more collisions have
energy greater than the
activation energy) or more
productive collisions
allow particles have more (kinetic)
energy
1

1

1
AO1
7c

8(c)(i)

add (a few drops) of indicator to
the acid in the conical flask
add NaOH (from the burette) until
the indicator changes colour or
add the NaOH dropwise
repeat the titration
calculate the average volume of
NaOH or repeat until concordant
results are obtained
allow any named indicator

candidate does not have to state
a colour change but penalise an
incorrect colour change.
1

1

1
1
AO1
5.1h

8(c)(ii)

moles of NaOH
0.10 x 0.0272 =0.00272 moles
Concentration of HCl
0.00272 / 0.005 =0.544
correct number of significant
figures
correct answer with or without

allow ecf from mp1 to mp2

1

1
1
AO2
5.1i

Total 14


16 of 18


9(a)(i)

giant lattice

atoms in in graphene are
covalently bonded
and covalent bonds are strong or
need a lot of energy to be broken
allow each carbon atom is joined
to three others
max. 2 marks if any reference to
wrong type of bonding
allow difficult to break
1

1

1

1AO1/2AO2
2.2f

9(a)(ii)

because graphene has
delocalised electrons
which can move throughout the
structure
allow each carbon atom has one
free electron
do not accept just electrons can
move.
1

1

AO1/AO2
2.2i

9(b)

because there are weak forces
between molecules
so layers / molecules can slip /
slide.
allow no bonds between the layers 1
1
AO1
2.2h

Total 7


17 of 18


10(a)

(24 x 12) x 100 =67.6
426
or
426 x (67.6/100) =288
288/12 =24
1 AO2
1.3d

10(b)

5.65/12 2.2/14 0.629/1

0.471 0.157 0.629

3 1 4

C
3
NH
4

correct answer of C
3
NH
4
with no
working scores 2 marks

allow ecf from mp2 onwards

if the ratios are not shown but the
correct working is shown for mp1
and mp2 , the ratio mark can be
scored from C
3
NH
4
if the initial fractions are inverted
and the candidate gets an answer
of C
4
N
12
H
3
award 2 marks
1

1

1

1
AO2
1.3e

Total 5


18 of 18


11(a)

products are at a lower energy
level than reactants

activation energy correctly drawn
and labelled
H correctly labelled
if candidate has drawn a profile
for an endothermic reaction
penalise first marking point only
1

1

1
2AO1/1AO2
11.2d

11(b)(i)

93 (kJ per mole)

correct answer with or without
allow 2 marks for +93 kJ per mole
if any other answer is seen award
up to 2 marks for any two of the
steps below:
bonds broken (614 +193) =807
(kJ ) or (614 +193 +(4 x 413)) =
2459(kJ )
bonds formed (348 +276 +276)
=900(kJ ) or 348 +(2 x 276) +(4
x 413) =2552(kJ )
bonds broken bonds formed
allow ecf for arithmetical errors
3 AO2
11.2e

11(b)(ii)

more energy is released when
the bonds (in the products) are
formed
than is needed to break the
bonds (in the reactants)

if no other marks gained, allow 1
mark for energy released for bond
making and energy used for bond
breaking
1

1
AO1
11.2f

Total 8

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