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1. The maturation of insulin from its precursor (preproinsulin) involves:
(A) acetylation. (B) oxidation. (C) phosphorylation.
(D) proteolysis. (E) reduction.
2. If glucose labeled with
14
C at C-1 were the starting material for amino acid biosynthesis,
the product(s) that would be readily formed is (are):
(A) serine labeled at the carboxyl carbon.
(B) serine labeled at alpha carbon.
(C) serine labeled at the R-group carbon.
(D) all of the above.
(E) none of the above.
3. Which of these statements about triacylglycerol synthesis is correct?
(A) Humans can store more energy in glycogen than in triacylglycerols.
(B) Insulin stimulates conversion of dietary carbohydrate into triacylglycerols.
(C) It is not a hormone-sensitive process.
(D) Mammals are unable to convert carbohydrates into triacylglycerols.
(E) Phosphatidate is not on the pathway of triacylglycerol synthesis.
4. The synthesis of starch and sucrose in plants uses _________ as the substrate, rather than
_________, which is used in the synthesis of glycogen in animal cells.
(A) ADP-fructose; UDP-glucose
(B) ADP-glucose; UDP-glucose
(C) fructose 1-phosphate; glucose 1-phosphate
(D) glucose 1-phosphate; glucose 6-phosphate
(E) UDP-glucose; ADP-glucose
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5. The glycine decarboxylase complex in the leaves of pea or spinach plants is localized
mainly in the:
(A) chloroplast. (B) endoplasmic reticulum. (C) mitochondrion.
(D) cell membrane. (E) peroxisome.
6. The rate of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is controlled primarily by:
(A) feedback inhibition by CO2.
(B) the availability of NADH from the TCA cycle.
(C) the concentration of citrate (or) the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle.
(D) the mass-action ratio of the ATD-ADP system.
(E) the presence of thermogenin.
7. Serine or cysteine may enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl-CoA after conversion to:
(A) oxaloacetate. (B) propionate. (C) pyruvate.
(D) succinate. (E) succinyl-CoA.
8. The two moles of CO2 produced in the first turn of the citric acid cycle have their origin in
the:
(A) carboxyl and methylene carbons of oxaloacetate.
(B) carboxyl group of acetate and a carboxyl group of oxaloacetate.
(C) carboxyl group of acetate and the keto group of oxaloacetate.
(D) two carbon atoms of acetate.
(E) two carboxyl groups derived from oxaloacetate.
9. Which one of the following directly results in the activation of glycogen synthase?
(A) Binding of glucose-6-phosphate
(B) Dephosphorylation of multiple residues by phosphoprotein phosphorylase-1 (PP1)
(C) Phosphorylation of specific residues by casein kinase II (CKII)
(D) Phosphorylation of specific residues by glycogen synthase kinase-3 (GSK-3)
(E) The presence of insulin
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10. Which of the following is a cofactor in the reaction catalyzed by glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate dehydrogenase?
(A) ATP (B) Cu
2+

(C) heme (D) NAD
+

(E) NADP
+

11. Which of the following compounds has the largest negative value for the standard free-
energy change (!G')upon hydrolysis?
(A) Acetic anhydride (B) Glucose 6-phosphate (C) Glutamine
(D) Glycerol 3-phosphate (E) Lactose
12. Which of the following is not involved in signal transduction by the "-adrenergic receptor
pathway?
(A) Cyclic AMP synthesis
(B) GTP hydrolysis
(C) GTP-binding protein
(D) Protein kinase
(E) All of the above are involved.
13. The fluidity of the lipid side chains in the interior of a bilayer is generally increased by:
(A) a decrease in temperature.
(B) an increase in fatty acyl chain length.
(C) an increase in the number of double bonds in fatty acids.
(D) an increase in the percentage of phosphatidyl ethanolamine.
(E) the binding of water to the fatty acyl side chains.
14. Which of the following statements concerning fatty acids is correct?
(A) One is the precursor of prostaglandins.
(B) Phosphatidic acid is a common one.
(C) They all contain one or more double bonds.
(D) They are a constituent of sterols.
(E) They are strongly hydrophilic.
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15. The technique known as two hybrid analysis for detecting interacting gene products
depend on:
(A) activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein
complexes.
(B) direct binding of a Gal4p activation domain to a DNA sequence in the promoter
region.
(C) having a promoter that responds directly to one of the two proteins whose
interactions is being measured.
(D) hybridization of DNA segments corresponding to the two genes being examined.
(E) stimulation of transcription by interaction of two Gal4p domains via fused protein
sequences.
16. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
(A) AGGTCC
TCCAGG
(B) CCTTCC
GCAAGG
(C) GAATCC
CTTAGG
(D) GGATCC
CCTAGG
(E) GTATCC
CATAGG
17. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:
(A) fructose. (B) glucose1-phosphate. (C) sucrose.
(D) #-D-glucose. (E) "-D-glucose.
18. When two carbohydrates are epimers:
(A) one is a pyranose, the other a furanose.
(B) one is an aldose, the other a ketose.
(C) they differ in length by one carbon.
(D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom.
(E) they rotate plane-polarized light in the same direction.
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19. The Lineweaver-Burk plot is used to:
(A) determine the equilibrium constant for an enzymatic reaction.
(B) extrapolate for the value of reaction rate at infinite enzyme concentration.
(C) illustrate the effect of temperature on an enzymatic reaction.
(D) solve, graphically, for the rate of an enzymatic reaction at infinite substrate
concentration.
(E) solve, graphically, for the ratio of products to reactants for any starting substrate
concentration.
20. Enzyme X exhibits maximum activity at pH = 6.9. X shows a fairly sharp decrease in its
activity when the pH goes much lower than 6.4. One likely interpretation of this pH
activity is that:
(A) a Glu residue on the enzyme is involved in the reaction.
(B) a His residue on the enzyme is involved in the reaction.
(C) the enzyme has a metallic cofactor.
(D) the enzyme is found in gastric secretions.
(E) the reaction relies on specific acid-base catalysis.
21. The amino acid substitution of Val for Glu in Hemoglobin S results in aggregation of the
protein because of ___________ interactions between molecules.
(A) covalent (B) disulfide (C) hydrogen bonding
(D) hydrophobic (E) ionic
22. Experiments on denaturation and renaturation after the reduction and reoxidation of the
SS bonds in the enzyme ribonuclease (RNase) have shown that:
(A) folding of denatured RNase into the native, active conformation, requires the input of
energy in the form of heat.
(B) native ribonuclease does not have a unique secondary and tertiary structure.
(C) the completely unfolded enzyme, with all SS bonds broken, is still
enzymatically active.
(D) the enzyme, dissolved in water, is thermodynamically stable relative to the mixture
of amino acids whose residues are contained in RNase.
(E) the primary sequence of RNase is sufficient to determine its specific secondary and
tertiary structure.
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23. By adding SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) during the electrophoresis of proteins, it is
possible to:
(A) determine a proteins isoelectric point.
(B) determine an enzymes specific activity.
(C) determine the amino acid composition of the protein.
(D) preserve a proteins native structure and biological activity.
(E) separate proteins exclusively on the basis of molecular weight.
24. The aqueous solution with the lowest pH is:
(A) 0.01 M HCl.
(B) 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa = 4.86).
(C) 0.1 M formic acid (pKa = 3.75).
(D) 0.1 M HCl.
(E) 10
12
M NaOH.
25. In a mixture of the five proteins listed below, which should elute second in size-exclusion
(gel- filtration) chromatography?
(A) cytochrome c Mr =13,000
(B) immunoglobulin G Mr =145,000
(C) ribonuclease A Mr =13,700
(D) RNA polymerase Mr =450,000
(E) serum albumin Mr =68,500
". Explain the following terms.!20%"
1. Isozymes
2. Genome
3. Disulfide bond
4. Chaperonins
5. Antigen
6. Cytokinesis
7. Hydrogenation
8. Catalase
9. cAMP (cyclic AMP)
10. Ionophore
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#. Answer the following questions. !30%"
1. How many ATPs are consumed in the conversion of each of the following to a glucosyl
residue in glycogen?
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(B) Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
(C) Pyruvate
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate
2. Supposing that an average human consumes energy at the rate of 1500 kcal/day at rest and
that long-distance running consumes energy at 10 times that rate, how long would the
glycogen reserves last during a marathon run? Recall that 1 kcal is equivalent to 4.184 kJ.
3. The E. coli chromosome is 1.28 mm long. Under optimal conditions the chromosome is
replicated in 40 minutes.
(A) What is the distance traversed by one replication fork in 1 minute?
(B) If replicating DNA is in the B form (10.4 base pairs per tern), how many nucleotides
are incorporated in 1 minute in one replication fork?
(C) If cultured human cells (such as HeLa cells) replicate 1.2 m of DNA during a 5-hour S
phase and at a rate of fork movement one-tenth of that seen in E. coli, how many
origins of replication must the cell contain?
(D) What is the average distance, in kilobase pairs, between these origins?
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