Professional Documents
Culture Documents
A corporation is defined based on Section 22, includes partnership no matter how created or organized,
joint account companies, insurance companies and other associations except:
3. Joint consortium for the purpose of engaging in petroleum, geothermal and other
energy operations pursuant to a consortium agreement with the government
Sec 22. (B) The term "corporation" shall include partnerships, no matter how created or organized,
joint-stock companies, joint accounts (cuentas en participacion), association, or insurance companies,
but does not include general professional partnerships and a joint venture or consortium formed for
the purpose of undertaking construction projects or engaging in petroleum, coal, geothermal and other
energy operations pursuant to an operating consortium agreement under a service contract with the
Government. "General professional partnerships" are partnerships formed by persons for the sole
purpose of exercising their common profession, no part of the income of which is derived from
engaging in any trade or business.
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Why does it exclude general professional partnership? For tax purposes, that a corporation includes all
partnership except general professional partnership? Are there any type of partnership that you know?
o Partnerships may be taxable business partnerships or the non-taxable partnerships which is
the general professional partnership. In some books or in some discussions, you will see general
co-partnership, but they are actually partnerships which are still taxable.
o
The taxable partnerships, these are the business partnerships, the unregistered
partnerships/
And the non-taxable partnerships, which are the general professional partnerships.
Does corporation include associations? Is an association a corporation? Note: Dont confuse yourself with
corporations being taxable all the time. My question is simple, is an association a corporation? Does it fall
under corporate tax payers?
o
Yes,
40 Million
60 Million
100 Million total income
To Your Income
To the income of the Construction
Company
Corporations enter into joint ventures with other corporations for purposes of
developing construction projects. if you are a land owner and you dont have funds to
develop that land that you own. You task a construction company who will develop the
parcel of land and make condominium units, subdivision units out of it. Sharing would be
40-60 fusion or 30-70. You dont spend. You are the owner of the land, you dont spend for
anything in the construction. After all is finished, 40% of the units given to you and 70
percent of the units will be owned by the construction company.
o In that case, if you are the land owner and you get to have 40% of the
subdivision units transferred in your name, is this subject to Capital Gains Tax? Is it
a sale?
CGT is imposed not only in sale and exchange but any other modes of
disposition. But in this case it is NOT subject of CGT for the reason that the
transfer is not really for a disposition of property but to simply effect what
has been agreed in the joint venture agreement.
Now, if the joint venture between your corporation and the construction company
earns income, is it subject to income tax? Is your joint venture subject to the corporate tax
rate of 30%?
o General corporation or partnerships, they are not subject to the corporate tax.
They are exempt from income tax actually. The income of joint ventures between 2
corporations under the sole management of either one company or particular
group of persons will also be not covered under the corporate tax of 30%.
But is the income really taxable? Can the government not collect any form of tax
covered by the joint venture? Parcel of land with houses, everything was sold, 40% of the
income, 40 million was given to you, 60 million was retained by the construction company.
Since the total of 100million income is not taxable in a joint venture. So is this really free
from tax? Can the government not really collect any form of tax on the income derived
from the activity covered by the joint venture agreement? Who will be liable for the
100million income, is it the joint venture or someone else?
o
o Joint venture for purposes of undertaking construction projects are not subject
to corporate tax of 30%. Nonetheless, any income distributed to the parties who
enter into a joint venture agreement will be separately taxable to income tax.
o So, meaning to say, that the 4 million will be added to your other income of
your corporation and the 60 million to the income of the construction company. It
will still be subject to 30% tax still as part of the income for the entire taxable year.
o It does not mean that joint venture is really free from the corporate tax of 30%.
It is free from the corporate tax of 30% but the liability will be shouldered
separately by the parties of the joint venture agreement. Now thats joint venture.
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Corporations are defined to include partnerships, associations or joint ventures, joint stock companies,
joint accounts except for 3:
o
o 3. Joint consortium for the purpose of engaging in petroleum, geothermal and other energy
operations pursuant to a consortium agreement with the government
You have to be specific, all joint ventures as a rule, are subject to the corporate tax of
30% except if it for undertaking construction projects or a joint consortium for the
petroleum, geothermal and other energy operations but it has to be with the government.
If its a joint consortium NOT in contract with the government, it is taxable still. So
you have to be careful on the requisites for these 3 entities which are not covered by the
definition of a corporation.
General Professional Partnership (GPP) partnerships formed by person for the sole purpose of
exercising their common profession, no part of the income of which is derived from engaging in
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
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any trade or business. Persons engaged in business as partners in a GPP, shall be liable for
income tax only in their separate and individual capacities. For purposes of computing the
distributive share of the partners, the net income of the partnership shall be computed in the
same manner as a corporation. Each partner shall report as gross income his distributive share,
actually or constructively received, in the net income of the partnership. Income of a GPP is
deemed constructively received by the partners.
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General Profession partnership. We now know, that the income of a joint venture is not taxable to the joint
venture but taxable separately. How about general professional partnerships? Would the income of general
professional partnerships be absolutely be free from tax or is it taxable on someone else?
o You remembered when we said that any share of the partners in GPPs, the undistributed shares
will still be considered as constructive income already taxable on the part of the individual
partners. Now, even if the GPP is not subject to 30% corporate tax rate on the net income, the net
income is considered as earned by the partners composing the GPP. And taxable separately on
the part of these partners to 5%- 32%.
o
But is the GPP free from the obligation of filing an income tax return?
General professional partnerships even if they are exempt from income tax are
required to file an Income Tax Return for the simple reason that it is the only tool that
the government will use to determine whether the partners composing the GPP are
correctly declaring their income. Its the basis, if there are 3 partners, the only thing that
the government will do is divide it into 3, 1/3 must have been reported as part of the
income tax return of the individual partners.
In fact, the individual partners, when they submit their income tax return, strictly, they
have to include and submit the income tax return of the GPP.
So you will see class that taxation may not be imposed in this type of person, whether natural or juridical
but somehow since there is an income, the tax will be imposed upon some other tax payer.
Joint Venture created when 2 corporations, while registered and operating separately, are placed
under one sole management which operated the business affairs of said companies as though
they constituted a single entity thereby obtaining substantial economy and profits in the
operation.
Joint Account created when 2 persons form or create a common fund and such persons engages
in a business for profit. This may result in a taxable unregistered association or partnership
Joint Stock Companies the midway between a corporation and a partnership, a hybrid
personality, somewhat a corporation because this is managed by a Board of directors and such
persons may transfer their share/s without the consent of others, and somewhat a partnership
because it is an association, and persons or members of the same contribute fund, money to a
common fund.
Emergency Operation these may be formed by 2 corporations with separate personalities. If they
form that emergency operation (it is a really a special activity) to engage in a joint venture.
Corporation 1 may be taxed only from the income derived from such business. The income derived
from such emergency operation should also be included in that taxable income subject to
corporate income tax. In the same way, that corporation 2, has a separate and distinct
personality; if its a part of that emergency operation, the income derived from such special
activity should also be included in the income of that corporation 2, subject to corporate income
tax, even if it is not registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission.
-
Joint Venture: it is between 2 corporations placed under one sole management for sometimes, a special
operation.
Joint Account: it is between 2 persons forming or creating a common fund for profit. It is usually an
unregistered association. They do not need to register that with the SEC.
Joint Stock Companies: probably, the only time this will come out is when you are asked to define what
it is.
When you say earning profits, does elevating their status as an unregistered
partnership, does it include sharing in the income of the estate left to them by the
decedent?
o If a co-owned property produces income and enjoyed by the co-owners, it is
not automatic that it will be subject to the corporate tax rate of 30% as an
unregistered partnership.
o It will only be considered as an unregistered partnership if co-owners
themselves have undertaken steps to infuse investment and make it a profitable
business.
Who are the taxable corporations? How do we classify corporations in the Philippines, as taxpayers?
FOREIGN
1. Philippine Laws
1. Foreign Laws
2. Abroad
3. NET
(allowed to deduct expense within and
without)
3. Within
If allowed to deduct expense
depends on:
Resident Foreign
Corporation
Non-Resident Foreign
Corporation
Taxed at NET
Allowed to deduct expenses WITHIN
Tax Rate: 30%
Taxed at GROSS
NOT Allowed to deduct expenses
Tax Rate: 30%
Tax Rates:
Domestic Corporation
30%
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
4|Page
Resident Foreign
Corporation
30%
Non-Resident Foreign
Corporation
30%
Domestic corporations
1. formed and organized under Philippine laws
2. income is taxable within and without
3. In so far as computing their tax due, they are allowed to deduct expenses, and taxable on
their net taxable income
4. Tax rate 30%
IN CONTRAST WITH:
Foreign corporations
1. Formed and organized under laws of a foreign country
2. Income is taxable within
3. In so far as computing their tax due and whether they can deduct expenses, it depends
whether they are:
a. Resident foreign corporation
1. Allowed to deduct expenses but only those in relation to income generated within
the Philippines.
2. Since resident foreign corporations are taxable only on income generated within,
therefore, NET, meaning they are allowed to deduct expenses; the expenses that
they are allowed to deduct against their income would only be expenses within the
Philippines or those which they have incurred in relation to producing the income
that is taxable under Philippine laws;
3. As to tax rate 30%
b. Non-resident foreign corporation
1. NOT allowed to deduct expenses.
2. Therefore, they are taxed at GROSS, meaning there are no deductions; expenses
within and without have no bearing because it is subject to tax at gross.
3.
You see, under the diagram shown above, corporate tax payers are simpler to understand. There are only 3
kinds of taxable corporations. They do receive some other source of income which is passive income, we
dont have the 25% for non-resident not engaged in trade or business. All of them are taxable at 30%. The
main difference is that this is taxable worldwide and no expenses allowed for NRFC.
What makes a foreign corporation Resident and what makes it a non-resident corporation? What is the
simplest way of determining whether it is resident or non-resident?
o If we go to the legal phase, a foreign corporation would like to do business in the Philippines, to
register itself as a resident foreign corporation in the Philippines. So if it is registered as a
Philippine branch of a foreign company, it is automatically considered as a resident foreign
corporation.
o But NON-REGISTRATION of a foreign corporation does not mean that you can never be
classified as a resident foreign corporation. Why?
Because the criteria really is not the registration for tax purposes, or your official
registration in the Philippines. But it is WON you are doing business in the Philippines.
So you cannot escape taxation simply by not registering. Because non-resident foreign
corporations are foreign corporations not doing business in the Philippines. If they are
considered as not doing business in the Philippines, why do we have to discuss
them, as a corporate taxpayer?
o
Domestic corporations are liable for 30% on the net income (because they are allowed expenses
incurred within and without), are they required to file an ITR at the end of the year or on a quarterly basis
and finalize at the end of the year?
o Corporations, especially domestic corporations, it abounds in the Philippines, they are required
to declare their income in a quarterly basis. These are mere estimates and at the end of the year it
is annualized. On their own, they have to do that, this is called self-assessment (you assess
yourself as to how much your income is, how much expenses and what is your tax liability to the
government).
Resident foreign corporations: Are they required to file an ITR at the end of the year?
o YES, being resident foreign corporations, they are categorized still having the same obligation
of filing the ITR at the end of the year and/or a quarterly basis.
But what about Non-resident foreign corporations. These are corporations organized abroad; not
doing business in the Philippines. When they enter into one isolated transaction in the Philippines, are they
required to file an ITR at the end of the year or on a quarterly basis?
o If you are from the BIR, what ways are there available to collect the 30% tax on the gross
income?
Any payments made to non-resident foreign corporations, just like payment to nonresident aliens NOT engaged in trade or business of 25%, since they are not considered as
doing business in the Philippines, they would have to be withheld of the tax.
Payments to:
o
Is this a final tax or a creditable tax? Is the tax withheld from a nonresident foreign corporation, including non-resident alien not engaged in
trade or business a final withholding tax or creditable withholding
tax?
Why does it give relief from double taxation? In what way does it give
relief from double taxation if you would not be required to withhold the
30%?
If you read through SEC. 28 B on non-resident foreign corporations, the gross income of non-resident
foreign corporations includes the same gross income that has been enumerated in non-resident aliens not
engaged in trade or business, such as:
1.
Interests
2.
Dividends
3.
Rents
4.
Royalties
5.
Salaries
6.
Premiums
7.
Annuities, etc
Except: Capital gains on sale of shares of stocks, which will be subject to the same rate of: 5% and
10%
Why did it not mention, except capital gains on the sale of real property?
Non-resident aliens not engaged in trade or business are subject to 25% final tax on
gross income, for all types of gross income including interest, etc. except capital gains
on sale of shares of stock and sale of real properties classified as capital assets. In this
case, exception is only capital gains on sale of shares of stock. The reason is that nonresident foreign corporations are not expected to have probably real properties in the
Philippines.
Towards the end of the outline, you will see special domestic corporations and special resident foreign
corporations and non-resident foreign corporations. The tax rates are different, it is not the 30%.
SEC. 30. Exemptions from Tax on Corporations. - The following organizations shall not be taxed under this
Title in respect to income received by them as such:
(A) Labor, agricultural or horticultural organization not organized principally for profit;
(B) Mutual savings bank not having a capital stock represented by shares, and cooperative bank without
capital stock organized and operated for mutual purposes and without profit;
(C) A beneficiary society, order or association, operating fort he exclusive benefit of the members such as a
fraternal organization operating under the lodge system, or mutual aid association or a nonstock corporation
organized by employees providing for the payment of life, sickness, accident, or other benefits exclusively to
the members of such society, order, or association, or nonstock corporation or their dependents;
(D) Cemetery company owned and operated exclusively for the benefit of its members;
(E) Nonstock corporation or association organized and operated exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific,
athletic, or cultural purposes, or for the rehabilitation of veterans, no part of its net income or asset shall
belong to or inures to the benefit of any member, organizer, officer or any specific person;
(F) Business league chamber of commerce, or board of trade, not organized for profit and no part of the net
income of which inures to the benefit of any private stock-holder, or individual;
(G) Civic league or organization not organized for profit but operated exclusively for the promotion of social
welfare;
(H) A nonstock and nonprofit educational institution;
(I) Government educational institution;
(J) Farmers' or other mutual typhoon or fire insurance company, mutual ditch or irrigation company, mutual or
cooperative telephone company, or like organization of a purely local character, the income of which consists
solely of assessments, dues, and fees collected from members for the sole purpose of meeting its expenses;
and
(K) Farmers', fruit growers', or like association organized and operated as a sales agent for the purpose of
marketing the products of its members and turning back to them the proceeds of sales, less the necessary
selling expenses on the basis of the quantity of produce finished by them;
Notwithstanding the provisions in the preceding paragraphs, the income of whatever kind and character of the
foregoing organizations from any of their properties, real or personal, or from any of their activities conducted
for profit regardless of the disposition made of such income, shall be subject to tax imposed under this Code.
(TAKE NOTE: in the outline there are additional like from number 1 3):
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Are the collections made by a condominium corporation subject to 30% income tax? No.
NO.
Once a condominium building is set up, the developer is separate from this building
and every unit owner is a separate taxpayer. So if he decides to lease it out, he will be
subject to income tax on the rents.
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
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But there will be a condominium corporation composed by the different unit owners for
the management of the entire building. You call it a condominium corporation. The
proceeds or collections of a condominium corporation are:
1.
Association dues
2.
Electricity
3.
4.
Water
NO, these are not income and these are not collected for profit!!!
If there is a cemetery, and there is a big space rented out for a concert, will the proceeds be subject to
tax?
YES, it is taxable.
o Even if that leasing out would not fall under activities for profit, lets say it is only for once a
year or twice a year, still it is an income generated from the use of the real property.
o
Legal basis
There is a caveat in the last paragraph of Section 30, that notwithstanding that these
exempt entities have been granted exemption from income taxes, they will still be subject
to income tax if and when they realize income coming from any of these three:
1.
2.
3.
These are subject to income tax regardless of how the proceeds will be used or
utilized. Even if it will be used for beautification purposes. Since the law is clear that it
does not give any preference, whether it is used for the purpose or not, it will be
subject to income tax.
If you run through the income tax exempt entities, under Section 30, you will note that
these are actually associations or entities which are made:
o
Once there is an activity or usage of any real or personal property defining the rule in the last paragraph
automatically, it will be subject to income tax.
How will the BIR expect payment from these types of organizations? What first comes to mind is that, if
you make up a cemetery company, (not the one selling the lots because it is a corporation), a cemetery
company is usually not for profit, can the BIR keep track of the liabilities of these corporations or entities?
Or how will they keep track the liabilities of these entities? Are these entities required to file an ITR, if
the default is that they are exempt from income tax, but once they venture 3 activities, they
will be subject to income tax?
o
o Once you register an association, entity or corporation with the SEC and with it comes the
registration of the BIR, you are expected to be under the coverage reportorial requirements that
have to be complied with before the BIR. Even if it is among the tax exempt entities, but you are
registered for BIR purposes, you are expected to file an ITR year in year out. All you have to do is
simply put there the details, whatever proceeds there is, the expense, and at the bottom that it is
exempt.
o If you want to avoid the reportorial requirements, anyway you are not liable for income tax,
you have to prove before the BIR, get a ruling that you are exempt so that you will be taken out
from the coverage of those who are required to file an ITR.
o Once registered in the BIR, the default is whether you are exempt or not, you are expected to
file an ITR, unless you have been given a special privilege of exemption of not filing an ITR.
o This is one way of monitoring the activities of tax exempt entities, because if you do declare
huge amounts of proceeds but still considered as exempt, it is one way for the tax authorities to
examine the legality of the exemption being claimed. Because usually, when you are a tax exempt
entity you dont have huge amounts of proceeds and how the expenses will go as well.
2.
3.
From numbers 15-19 of letter C in the outline, their exemption does not come from
Section 30, but from Section 27(c) which covers domestic corporations. GOCC are
domestic corporations. Section 27 is domestic corporation. Section 28 is resident
foreign corporation
Exception:
1.
GSIS
2.
SSS
3.
PHIC
4.
PCSO
NAPOCOR is not by virtue of the tax code, is a special law. And there are many
special laws that we actually dont need to study in taxation. Probably when
you are in practice.
In individual income taxation, we identified what are the types of income that an individual may be
earning.
1.
Compensation income
2.
Business income
3.
4.
Interests
5. Rents:
-
ATTY: I included here rents, because there is a bar question, on what is the difference between an
operation lease and financial lease. When you say that you are spending rent payment of an office space,
is that an operating lease or financial lease.
Example: You are renting an apartment in Cebu. Is that rental payment an operating lease or financial
lease? Lease and rent are the same.
Operating Lease
What you are paying is for the temporary use of property without the transfer of
ownership at the end of the lease period.
The owner of the property does not foresee relinquishing ownership over it at the end
of the contract period, while the one using it is only paying for the temporary usage of it.
The owner will relinquish ownership over the property at the end of the contract, while
the one leasing it will become the owner of the property.
The owner of the property is expecting that over the lease period not to go below 730
days, he will recover the full value of the property. So if youre in a financial lease,
whatever you are paying to the lessor is a purchase price, you dont recognize it as an
expense in your books. If youre into business and you lease out under financial lease,
whatever payments you are making is not an expense, but is an advance payment, part of
the purchase price.
-
F. Royalties
o
There are many types of activities for which you can pay royalties.
In letter c, do you think the royalty payments made by XYZ to the Republic of
Zimbabwe, classifies under any of the classification? It was more on extracting the
economic rent or the privilege to extract natural resources in a foreign land.
o Nonetheless, you will see that it is more of a right, privilege, or use. Use or
privilege which can command the payment of royalties. Its not the simple
McDonalds that we have been talking about. Royalty payments can be the transfer
of technical knowledge.
o
But the software you purchase is an offshelf available to all. You are not
required to pay royalty fees for that. It is simply the purchase of an item.
o So royalties are more on the privilege of having the right to use a scientific or
technical knowledge.
-
G. Dividends
distributable to the owners. In what way this will be distributed, that we have the different kinds of
dividends:
1.
2. Property dividends
o All encompassing; whatever property you would wish to give to your
stockholders it will be taxable.
o Example: if you are Manny Villar and you have investors. You like to distribute
dividends, in the form of subdivision units, is the subdivision units given to
stockholders subject to tax?
House and Lots
Give 1 each as
dividend
VILLA MANNY
There were 46 investors
o This is Villa Manny. There are different subdivision units. 46 investors, aside
from Manny Villar. After accumulating profits, instead of distributing cash, lets say
the financial statement of Villa Manny is in short of cash. It is not liquid, but it has
enough properties to declare as dividends. He decided to give 1 each stockholder,
is this subject to tax?
Company A
Is the owner
B Shares
Company B
V
W
X
Y
Z
Payor? Corporation A
RULES:
V 100
100
W 100
X
Company B
B Shares
Stock Dividends
100
Y 100
Example:
If UVWXY owns 100 shares each and instead of giving
cash, A said ok I will give another 100 A shares. These are
stock dividends not yet realized income, unless it will be
converted into cash, or under the exemptions given.
3. Stock Dividends
Illustration: 10 years ago you formed a corporation. You are 46 all in all. You
put 46 Million, 1 Million each. You are a part-owner, you have been given 1
Million shares each for the 1 Million investment that you put into the
corporation.
1st Day of business
10
years
Assets
46 Million
Liabilities
------ (no liabilities
100 Million
Net Worth
46 Million
Capital (less) 46 Million
Profits
----- (no profit yet)
500 Million
yet)
400 Million
46 Million
364 Million
46Million
For each to receive
1M
364 Million profit is distributable to all of you. It is part of the 500 Million asset.
If you have a cash of 500 M you can distribute 364 M to the owners.
But what if this 500 M is in property, you cannot distribute in cash, unless you
sell first the property. And selling property would entail tax on the income. So
you dont sell it, otherwise it will be double. You sell property in order to
generate cash, then you are taxable on the income from selling. When you
declare it as cash dividends, taxable again. So might as well declare it
automatically as property dividends, because there is only 1 tax on the
property dividend.
o
But as stockholders, if you dont want to pay any tax to the BIR, all you
have to do is declare STOCK DIVIDENDS. And dividends can be
declared out of the unrestrictive profits of the corporation.
If you have 1 M each, and you are given another or another 46 M will
be transferred there. It means to say that you received 1 M stock
dividends. Are you subject to tax?
Capital 46 Million
Profits 364
Million
the
Declared 50 Million
as Stock Dividends
Declared SD
1 Million
5 Million
4 Million
TAXABLE!!!
=
=
Lovelys question: When can we say it is substantial or any difference will be taxable already?
o In some books, it is simply delusional???(ambot unsa na word) The interest of the other
stockholders it will already be taxable. Substantial, probably what it meant kung 1 share lang or 1
peso. But once the percentage of shareholdings will be different, automatically it will be subject to
dividends tax or the final tax. Why? Because there is a rule in Corporation Code, that declaration
of stock dividends must follow strictly the percentage of ownership of the stockholders that are to
receive it. So if it is 1 over 46 all of you, it is 2 over 46 na that she will receive, it is already an
alteration. She will have more interest in the corporation.
Carlos question: Who pays for the final tax in property dividend?
o Corporation will remit it in behalf of the recipient. In case it is a pure property dividends, the
corporation will have to collect in cash from the stockholders, your property dividends. Before the
dividends will be given out, 10% will be remitted or else to be paid by the stockholder to the
corporation, who will in turn remit it to the government.
-
Follow up Question of Carlo: What will be deducted from the retained earnings?
o Its really the value in the books, not the fair market value. For tax purposes, 10% will be
computed in the fair market value. But for the books of the corporation, what will be deducted is
the actual cost that went out of its ownership.
What are disguised dividends? What type of payment will be considered as disguised dividends?
o
-So are you saying these are really dividends coming from the profits of the corporation?
o The other dividends that we have discussed, in cash property and stock came from retained
earnings and profit. But disguised dividends is something else, but it is called dividends.
o Disguised dividends are payments made by the corporation to the stockholders in any other
form, other than dividend payment.
1st Example: If the owners composed of the Board of Directors, and the honorarium for
every meeting every month is 1 M for the presence of a 10-minute meeting, is that not a
dividend distribution disguised as honorarium.
It may be any other kind of payment to the owners or stockholders not denominated as
dividends but actually profit distribution simply to avoid tax.
2nd Example: Refer to previous illustration. 46 owners. Instead of declaring the 364
Million you will be given 1 motor vehicle each. It will be claimed by the company as an
expense, not as a dividend distribution. The company will be benefited by the depreciation
of the motor vehicle that they acquire.
The point is, whenever there are huge amounts of payments to the owners not
considered as dividends, they are actually disguised dividends.
o
withholding tax. But if the corporation will simply pay royalties of 5%, or royalties declared
to foreign corporation, it will not be taxed of 15% final withholding tax in dividends. But
once payments to its stockholder, which is its parent-company becomes too excessive, it
will be considered as dividend distribution subject to the rate of? What rate is imposed
on disguised dividends?
payments to domestic
Why? Because it is still an umbrella before the ultimate owner will receive the
dividends. If it is corporation to corporation domestically, no tax.
Nonetheless, it is not yet part of the topic, but the point is, if a distribution of
payment is found to be a disguised dividend, it is taxable just like cash or property
dividends.
-
Disguised dividends may be considered as distributed to an individual who is not a stockholder. Agree
or disagree?
o
It will be taxable on the part of the President but not as dividends. Whatever income
will be derived by an individual, it will be taxable. In what way? It depends on what is
the treatment given by the Tax Code. In case excessive payment is made to an
individual who is a stockholder, it will be treated as disguised dividends and subject to
the usual rates of 10% for RC, NRC and RA, 20% for NRA-ETB, and 25% for NRA-NETB.
But if it so happens that the individual who received excessive payouts or payments is
not a stockholder, it will not be considered as disguised dividends. No dividends shall
be given to a non-stockholder. But still, being an income or an inflow of wealth in the
hands of such individual, it will be taxable subject to the ordinary rates to be withheld,
if hes an employee, of the 5-32% income tax according to the withholding tax on
wages table.
LIQUIDATING DIVIDENDS
-
Whenever a corporation dissolves, liquidates and winds up its business operations, it may happen that
assets will be left after paying all the creditors and these assets will be distributed to the stockholders
in accordance with the proportion of ownership that they have in the business and its called
liquidating dividends. Its taxable.
o
Liquidating dividends given, like cash, properties or other remaining assets after paying out all
the creditors of the corporation, if distributed to the stockholders, will it be subject to FWT
10%, 20% or 25% depending on the classification of the taxpayer or the corporation?
NO.
Do you think a stockholder will experience loss in receiving a liquidating dividend? YES.
Assets
46,000,000
100,000,000
Liabilities
-060,000,000
Net worth
46,000,000
40,000,000
Capital stock
46,000,000
o Example:
46M as invested by 46 people for 1M each 10 years ago and 0
1,000,000
liability. Profits
Net worth, therefore,
- 0 -is 46M. Capital stock of first day of operation is 46M
and profits is 0. 10 years after, assets grew to 100M, liabilities to 60M. Net worth,
therefore, is 40M. If you dissolve and wind up the affairs of the corporation, you
distribute the 40M after you payout the liabilities to the creditors. Would the
stockholders be receiving the same amount that they invested of 1M each? NO.
The stockholders will receive less than 1M. Is there a gain subject to tax? NO, since
there is a loss. Can we consider the less than 1M receipt of cash, property or assets
as liquidating dividend? YES. Would such liquidating dividend be taxable? NO, it
will be deductible.
o So if it will happen that your receipt of liquidating dividend is less than what
you have invested in the corporation, you actually suffered a loss from the
investment. Whatever you received, considered as liquidating dividend, is not
subject to tax.
Assets
46,000,000
400,000,000
Liabilities
-060,000,000
Net worth
46,000,000
340,000,000
But if its the other way around, there is a gain or you receive more than what
you have invested. And whatever you have invested is the cost of your
investment. Any difference of what you receive as liquidating dividend from
such cost will be considered as taxable income subject to the rate of 5-32%.
E. DEDUCTIONS
1. Fundamental Principles
-
Are corporations allowed deductions? YES. The same as the available deductions for individual
taxpayers? NO.
o
However, not all these three are available to all types of individuals. If an
individual is purely a compensation income earner, only 1 and 2 would be
deductible. But if the individual is into business already, whether together with
ER-EE relationship, he can also claim any of the itemized deductions or
optional standard deductions because itemized deductions is for business
expenses. But then, all three would not be available to an individual who is
classified as a NRA-NETB. In so far as the corporation is concerned, which of
the 3 deductions are available to a corporation?
o
What are the underlying principles that need to be followed before a corporation can deduct itemized
deductions?
o
iii. If the law provides for requirement that the amount or the expense payment needs to be
withheld of tax, a tax should have been withheld, otherwise, the deduction is not allowed
REASON for exception: Such corporation, its tax base is at gross. And the mere fact
that a NRFC is construed as a corporation NETB, there is no deductions allowed from
their income. Whatever they earn in the Phil. is subject to 30% income tax except
those capital gains from the sale of shares of stocks in a domestic corporation.
Can OSD be allowed as a deduction if the corporation is not allowed to claim itemized deductions?
o
NO, OSD is in lieu of itemized deductions. So if a corporation or any taxpayer is not allowed to
claim itemized deductions, there is no OSD allowed. But there are cases or exceptions when
itemized deduction is allowed but OSD is not allowed, such as when the taxpayer is a NRA-ETB
since OSD can be claimed by any individual except NRA but NRA-ETB can claim itemized
deductions because they are subject to tax on net income.
OSD example: If your gross income is 1M, you can automatically deduct OSD of 400K. Pay tax
as a corporation on the 600K. Itemized deduction is only 300K, go for OSD. You dont need to
substantiate it with receipts. You dont even have to incur such expense. But if your itemized
deduction is 900K, forget about OSD. Claim such itemized deduction as an expense. The only
problem is that your books will be audited to determine whether you really have incurred 900K
in total expenses and whether it is substantiated with official receipts, or invoices or in
contracts.
1. Individuals, whoever that individual is, if he is purely earning income from ER-EE
relationship, forget about itemized deduction because itemized deduction is only in business,
trade, or profession.
Itemized deduction becomes the default of every businesses. Every business, whether individual
taxpayer or a corporation, is required to report on a quarterly basis the income tax liability of that
business.
o
If the taxpayer forgets to choose which option is it taking, whether it is itemized deduction (ID)
or OSD, automatically, the default is ID. But once in the first quarter, the taxpayer has already
chosen OSD, you can no longer shift back to or revert back to ID for the entire year. So that
means, OSD, as an option, is irrevocable for the year at issue.
Can the taxpayer choose ID the following year? YES because irrevocability of an OSD is only for
the current year. Its on a year-to-year basis.
If a GPP, who is not taxable, elects to report its taxable income choosing OSD, then the
partners who have to report their tax liability and paid will also be liable under OSD. If the GPP
elects ID, the partners dont have any other choice but to go for ID. So GPPs and the individual
partners are taken as a single entity for tax purposes. Not one of the taxpayers, GPP or the
partners, can choose the other and the other one go for the other option.
EXPENSES
-
Ordinary expenses (OE) refers to the expenses which are normal, usual or common to the
business, trade or profession of the taxpayer.
Necessary expenses (NE) one which is useful and appropriate in the conduct of the
taxpayers trade or profession.
Can a NE of one business be a NE of another business? Or is it always the case that if the expense is
necessary in this business, it is always necessary expense for another?
o
NO.
Example: If youre into banking business and your friend is into siomai business. What expense
is necessary for your business but is not necessary for your friends business? Banking
business has to hire security guards and rent armored car for its business as a NE, which is not
a NE in a siomai business.
So what is necessary, useful and appropriate for one type of business may not be useful and
appropriate for another kind of business. So there is no standard rule for what type of
expenses may be deductible for this corporation or another corporation. You can name more
than a hundred expense accounts in your business, but may not be found in another type of
business. But so long as the classification of that business is that its necessary, useful,
appropriate and its ordinarily incurred in the business operations, for those who are similarly
situated, then it is classified as a deductible business expense.
o
They are expenditures for the extraordinary repairs which are capitalized and
subject to depreciation. These are extraordinary expenses which tend to
increase the value or prolong the life of the taxpayers property.
What important requisite for the deductibility of an expense is not complied with by a
capital expenditure making it non-deductible on the year of incurrence?
When you say paid, it is expense but it must also pertain to the year for
which that expense is related to the income generated by the business. If its
incurred during the year, if the CE would prolong the life of an asset over which
the asset would be useful for 10 years, then the expense of the CE should be
distributed over 10 years as well to benefit the company. Its the matching
principle wherein you only deduct the expenses which is related to the
business activity. If its only 1/10 every year, then only 1/10 of the expense is
deductible.
The reason why it is deductible but not in the year of payment or not in the
year when the year it was constructed, purchased, repaired, etc.
What are the common requisites to make an ordinary or necessary expense deductible?
o
Its ordinary when its normal, usual and common. Although sometimes it does not
necessarily need to be incurred day-in, day-out but so long as its usual in the type of
business or the industry to which that business is in then it can be considered as OE,
not unusual.
Its NE when its useful and appropriate for the business activities.
ii. It must be paid or incurred during the taxable year (whether calendar or fiscal year)
If the expense that youre claiming as a deductible item this year is an expense for the
operation of the previous year, it is not deductible expense. So your expense claims
must be paid this year or if not paid this year, it must have been incurred.
In the Phil., we do not usually follow the cash method in determining whether
your income is already taxable or not. We follow the accrual method of
accounting. Cash method of accounting, whatever you receive in cash is
considered as sales and whatever you have paid for in your expense, is
deductible and the difference is taxable under the cash accounting method.
But the accrual method, whatever you have sold, so long as you have
completed the transaction, whether it has been paid by your customer or not,
is reported as sales already and whatever you have paid as an expense
including those expenses for which you have effected already the transaction,
the services have already been performed in your favor, and its payable,
meaning, the other party, your supplier, has already the legal right to demand
payment from you but not as yet. Probably, there is a period within which you
can pay. Its already deductible. It simply follows the all-events test. You have
all the events to complete the transaction, then the sale has been perfected,
whether paid or not, taxable. Expense, whether paid or not, so long as service
has been performed, goods have been delivered, its deductible.
So in the expense, so long as it has been paid this year or has been incurred
and it pertains to this years operations, the expense is deductible.
If youre claiming an expense which is for the future, advance rental payments,
is it deductible?
o
NO. All the expenses must be paid or incurred during the year except
net operating loss carry-over.
iii. It must be paid or incurred in connection with the trade, business or profession of the
taxpayer
If you are the president of the corporation earning 100K a month, it may be reasonable
in so far as that business is concerned but your 100K will be unreasonable in another
type of corporation.
So there is no fix amount within which we can determine whether this type of expense
claimed is reasonable or not. No fix amount but you have to consider it in so far as the
operation is concerned.
But there is one type of expense that is regulated by the tax authorities and that
expense is Entertainment, Amusement and Recreation expense (EAR expense).
Why? Because this type of expense as a deduction has been abused. Many
businesses claim representation expense bringing clients to clubs. And the
amount is unreasonable. Instead of distributing as dividends, they claim it as
representation expense they require stockholder or employee to bring in
receipts and thy can even ask receipts from you and have it reimbursed, such
as medical representatives.
There is already a regulation that sets a quota for such expense. What is the
ceiling set by the Secretary of Finance?
o
What happens if you are both engaged in the sale of service or in the
sale of goods? Which will you follow?
You still have to follow the formula 1% for the service and
0.5% for the goods and properties.
Example: If the net income is only 1M, only 100K should be given to
the Board of Directors for the entire year for all of them. Any excess
will be considered as unreasonable.
v. It must be substantiated by sufficient evidence such as official receipts and other official
records; and
Official receipts
Adequate records
Nature of expense direct connection or relation of the expense being deducted to the
development, management, operation and/or conduct of the trade, business, or
profession of the taxpayer
So in one of the companies here, the only thing that they can
produce is the proof that it had been weighed by a reputable
weighing company, the deposit that they made in millions to
an individual in Mindanao. But if you really want them to
produce an O.R., they can show you their guns. So as a
business man, you dont force them to issue an O.R. So how to
prove to the BIR that these are valid and legitimate expenses?
NO, because the law in OSD says whether or not you have incurred
actual expenses. So this requisite applies only in so far as ID is
concerned.
vi. It must not be against law, morals, public policy or public order
You have an assessment of 10M in unpaid taxes or delinquent taxes. You come
into a compromise or common grounds. You will only pay 5M and you will be
issued a tax clearance. And for the 5M that you will pay, only 2.5M will be
receipted as received by the government. Wherever the other 2.5M will go, we
do not know. How much is deductible from your business operations? 10M, 5M,
2.5M or none of the above?
o
How
about
payments
to
rebels
as
revolutionary
taxes?
Telecommunications towers, so that it will not be blown up, you have to
pay a certain amount. Is that deductible?
NO. All taxes, as a rule, are deductible, except income tax paid
to the Phil. government, income tax paid to the foreign
government, estate tax, donors tax and VAT. All the other
taxes are deductible. However, even if they call it as a formal
tax that is paid to the rebels, it doesnt go to the government,
therefore, however media will try to make it legal in the news,
its still a non-deductible expense because its contrary to law
and public order.
As a rule, APE are deductible unless it borders to creation of goodwill for the company or creating a
name for the company, future recall, etc
o
Example: Dandruff shampoos we have Guard, Head and Shoulders. Weve been through that
for years already. When Clear came in, almost all actors and actresses became endorsers for it.
How much did they have as a budget for that? Its 1B. Is it deductible as APE in the year it was
incurred?
NO. Its excessive and the purpose of actually of Clear is not to make it as an expense
in the year of entry but rather its purpose was to give a brand and give a name recall
for the customers and its expected to benefit a number of years for the company,
therefore, whatever expense it had paid during the year of entry will be amortized over
future years. Lets say, for 5 years.
TE are deductible even if its not receipted because theyre TE that we incur without having a receipt
from the carriers, etc
PEIs have the option to deduct capital expenditures in the year it was paid or incurred or the other
option is to depreciate the expense over the useful life of the asset.
o
Example: USC would purchase a 100M value building. It can opt to deduct entirely the 100M in
the year of purchase or amortized the 100M over its useful life. In any case, whatever the
option chosen by USC, since its not subject to tax, it wont have any effect. It doesnt need to
match the expense incurred today against the income for today or year-to-year basis.
What is interest?
o
Example: If you have a business and you obtained a loan for the working capital of
your operation and you are to pay 10K monthly as interest. Is the 120K for the entire
year be deductible as a business expense if its related to the business?
YES.
2. It must be reasonable.
iii. This must observe the limitation under the arbitrage rule
Corporation to corporation where only one individual is maintaining the controlling interest, the
interest is not deductible.
Example: Co. A (parent company) and Co. B (subsidiary company). Usually the parent
company grants a loan to a subsidiary company for operational purposes. If the
agreement is stated that interest shall be paid in writing, is the individual, according to
the grandfather rule If Co. A is owning Co. B 100% and the loan is granted to the
subsidiary company where interest is stipulated to be paid, is the interest payments
made by the subsidiary to the parent company deductible? NO. Here, Co. A is a holding
company of Co. B. When one is a holding company of the other and extends loans, the
IE becomes a non-deductible expense. The 50%-rule (controlling interest rule) is only
applicable to non-existing holding companies.
Example: A company declares dividends. Dividends comes out from your shareholdings
and shareholdings, usually, shares that you have can be classified as common shares
or preferred shares. Whenever you organize a corporation, you may say that this group
has common shares, this group will have preferred shares. The term preferred shares,
you will have a preference in the distribution of dividends, as a rule. If there comes a
point in time that the business, in a certain year, cannot declare a dividend, some
dividend would accrue to them but not totally paid out, nothing would accrue to you.
Meaning, they have a collectible. In the following year, when distribution happens, they
will get their prior-year accrual dividends plus interest, you will receive yours for the
year. Will the interest on the preferred shares be considered as deductible IE?
The taxpayers allowable deduction for IE shall be reduced by an amount equal to 33% of the
interest income earned by him which has been subjected to final tax.
The arbitrage rule automatically limits the deductibility of the IE by reducing 33% of the
interest income subject to final tax, whether or not engaged in back-to-back loan transactions.
Co. A cannot claim fully the 600K as a deductible IE but only 567K (600K
[33% x 100K]). The arbitrage rule applies since Co. A is earning interest income
subjected to final tax. If none, the arbitrage does not apply, automatically full
interest payment can be deductible.
Co. B can fully claim the 600K as a deductible IE since its interest income is not
subjected to final tax. Interest income subjected to final tax is only those
coming from the banking institutions.
Co. C can fully claim the 600K as a deductible IE since it is not earning interest
income.
To discourage Back-to-Back loan transactions obtaining loan from one bank and
invest it to another bank in order to benefit the difference between the tax due on
interest income and the tax benefit from the IE.
If the IE is 100K, interest income subject to final tax is 100K, do you have a deductible IE? YES.
You have a deductible IE of 67K (100K [33% x 100K]).
If the interest income is 500K subject to final tax, IE is 100K, do you have a deductible IE? NO.
33% of 500K is 165K. So the 165K will be deducted to 100K, which results to no deductible IE.
Example: Lets say that the company has an IE of 600K but it has no interest income, is
the IE deductible fully? YES. Say for example, Co. A (earning interest income of 100K
subject to 20% final tax), Co. B (earning 100K interest income from loans to
employees) and Co. C (no interest income). All of them obtained the 1M loan running
for 10 years wherein they would be liable each for 600K annually as IE. Which of the 3
corporations can claim the full 600K as expense and which cannot?
Its an interest which is computed or calculated, not paid or incurred, for the purpose of
determining the opportunity cost of investing in a business. Its not real. Theres no payment at
all. Thus, its not deductible nor taxable.
Sec. 50 of the tax code Allocation of Income and Deductions In the case of 2 or more
organizations, trades or businesses (whether or not incorporated and whether or not organized
in the Philippines) owned or controlled directly or indirectly by the same interests, the
Commissioner is authorized to distribute, apportion, or allocate gross income or deductions
between or among such organization, trade or business, if he determines that such
distribution, apportionment, or allocation is necessary in order to prevent evasion of taxes or
clearly to reflect the income of any such organizations, trades or businesses.
Such provision is powerful in the sense that the BIR can do anything with it so long as it sees
relationships between corporations.
Example: If Co. A is related to Co. B as the controlling or fully owning the other
corporation, any expense loan (lets say 1M) to Co. B, which is interest-free, so Co. A
did not earn any interest income. Can Co. B deduct IE? Automatically, no IE because IE
must be stipulated in writing and there is no interest payment made. But the BIR can
impute an interest based on the legal rate of 12% and subject such interest income on
the part of Co. A to tax. But Co. B is absolutely not allowed to claim the IE for no
interest has been paid and there is no stipulation in writing.
At the option of the taxpayer, interest incurred to acquire property used in trade, business or
exercise of a profession may be allowed as a deduction or treated as a capital expenditure.
Example: Co. A obtained a loan for working capital purposes. Co. B obtained a loan for
construction of a building. Both of them paid 1M in interest. 1M in IE and no interest
income subject to final tax. Thus, the IE not limited with the arbitrage rule. Does Co. A
or Co. B have an option in treating the IE, whether deductible now or deductible in the
future?
Co. A, the incurrence of expense is for working capital purposes, day-in day-out
operations, the IE incurred, if its not subjected to arbitrage rule, would be fully
deductible as an expense for the year of incurrence. But since Co. B obtained a
loan to construct a property that is a capital expenditure, the IE can also be
considered as a capital expenditure. Where the principal cost goes, the
accessory interest expense can also join the principal cost. So if the building
has an estimated life of 10 years or 20 years, the IE can be considered as
capital added to the cost of the building and it will be considered as an
expense over the estimated life of the asset that was acquired using the loan
amount.
3. TAXES
-
GR: All taxes, national or local, paid or incurred within the taxable year in connection with the
taxpayers trade, business or profession are deductible from gross income.
o
E:
Claiming it as a tax credit, you can claim the full benefit of the
tax paid abroad since tax credit is a deduction from Philippine
income tax. But if you claim it as an expense, only to the
extent of 30% of that foreign tax will it reduce the tax due
since tax deduction, as an expense, is a deduction from gross
iii. Taxes which are not connected with the trade, business or profession of the
taxpayer
Whatever type of tax that is, since its not connected with the trade, business
or profession of the taxpayer, automatically, its not deductible.
v. VAT
Is the real property tax (local tax) payment made by the corporation on its real property used in trade
or business a deductible expense for purposes of computing income tax liability, not real property tax
liability?
o
2. Reasonable in amount
Example of national tax that is deductible: Customs duties when the corporation is engaged in
importation of goods.
All taxes, whether national or local tax, will be considered as deductible from gross income in
computing the net taxable income so long as it follows the requisites of being paid or incurred during
the taxable year in connection with the trade, business or profession of the taxpayer subject to the
exceptions.
What type of taxpayer can offset the foreign taxes directly by 100% against the Philippine tax due?
o
i. Resident Citizens since liable of income within and without to avoid double taxation
NRC not included because liable of income within only no double taxation
ii. Domestic corporations since liable of income within and without to avoid double taxation
If the tax paid in China is 10M and the tax due on your entire income here in the Philippines is 30M,
can Co. B (which operates 80% in the Philippines and 20% in China with 100M total income. Thus, 20M
from China and 80M from the Philippines), can Co. B fully deduct the 10M against the 30M?
o
NO, since the foreign income tax paid to the foreign country is not always the amount that may
be claimed as tax credit because under the limitation provided under the tax code, it must not
be more than the ratio of foreign income to the total or global income multiplied by the Phil.
income tax due.
Thus, 20M (foreign income)/100M (global income) = 20% x 30M (Phil. income tax) due = 6M
limit. Therefore, only 6M can only be claimed as a tax credit.
Had it been the other way around, if the limit is higher than the actual tax payment abroad,
you claim whichever is lower in favor of the government.
Q: What have we discussed in taxes as a deductible expense. What are the taxes that are deductible
and what are those that are not deductible expense?
o
They are not deductible because they are not related to the business of the taxpayer.
o Why is value-added tax not deductible, when in fact it is related to selling your product or
services?
Value added tax is not deductible for computing gross income because VAT is an
indirect tax, not only that, the VAT that the corporation is paying to the government is a
tax that has been shouldered by the customer or consumer. While the VAT that the
corporation actually pays on its purchased product are not considered as part of the cost of
the product but offset-able against the tax payable to the government.
-
Special assessments of levy are they deductible? No. Is real property tax a deductible tax? Yes, it is
deductible but special assessments are not deductible.
o Special levies are imposed on the improvement or the fact that a parcel of land has been
benefited by an improvement. Its some form of a real property tax.
What makes it different from real property tax being deductible taxes?
o Real property tax is a tax on the land itself while assessment is a tax directed
against the land for the benefit derived from the improvement made by the
government.
o It is not deductible because this is not the basic real property tax. All real
properties are subject to real property taxes, and whenever real properties are
used in trade or business, the real property taxes due from these real properties
are rightfully deductible against the gross income of the corporation.
o But special assessments are one kind, only happens when there are
improvements, and these are only premium fees that you need to pay whenever
you have derived any benefit which is not directly related to the operation of the
business itself which makes it non deductible.
Mr X, a non resident citizen, has income within and income without. Income within amounted to 1M,
income without amounted to 1M. Tax due paid in the respective countries amounted to 300,000 and
300,000 as well. Is this income tax paid to the Philippine government a deductible tax? Is this a deductible
tax? NO. Philippine income taxes are not deductible against gross income.
o The tax paid to the US government is a foreign income tax. Is it deductible? If this has already
been paid to the US, this 300,000 tax on 1M income earned abroad, what benefit will Mr X get out
of the 300,000 income tax? Is there any benefit? Do you think it is proper for Mr X to claim as
deduction the 300,000 paid to the US as an expense deduction or at his option as a tax credit
against his Philippine tax due?
MR. X, Non-resident
Corporation:
Not Deductible Because income tax
Tax Due
not allowed
Within
= 1,000,000
Not Deductible Because
= 300,000
NRC
Without = 1,000,000 =
If it is not a deductible expense, can the foreign income tax paid be offsetted against
the Philippine income tax due? NO, cannot be claimed as tax credit.
o Foreign income tax has only been computed directly against the foreign
income, and the Philippine income tax has been exclusively computed only against
the Philippine income. No component of this Philippine tax due pertains to any
foreign income. Exclusively Philippine tax, exclusively foreign tax.
-
Whats the difference between allowing it as a tax credit or allowing it as a deductible expense? Are
they in the same direction?
o The deductibility of an expense is always premised on whether or not it is related to the trade,
business or profession or whether it is directly related to the income of the taxpayer.
o Foreign tax credit can only be claimed or offsetted against the Philippine tax due if the
Philippine tax due is that of a resident citizen or domestic corporation because these two types of
taxpayers are taxable on income within and income without. If you say within and without, the
Philippine tax already comprises of tax on the Philippine income and the foreign income. Therefore,
component of that is a foreign tax, which should rightfully be managed.
o Say for example, this is a resident citizen, would your answer be different or the same? Lets
say income within is 1M, income without is 1M. Philippine tax is still at 300,000, for income within
and without. Foreign tax paid is 300,000. Can the taxpayer claim the foreign income tax as an
expense deduction or offsetted as a tax credit? Can he claim it as an expense?
Yes, since a resident citizen is taxable within and without, and required to declare the
total global income, he can also claim it as an expense.
His other option is to claim it as a tax credit, directly offsetted against the Philippine
income tax due.
o
How much can he claim? Since this is only one foreign country, you can directly go to
global limitation. If there are more than two foreign countries, you go for both limitations,
whichever is lower.
Since this is only one foreign country, what is the formula? So, you will not forget the
formula.
o
Formula: -
The tax credit that shall be allowed to the taxpayer Mr X shall only be
to the extent of the foreign tax component in the Philippine tax due.
Imagine this being the entire Philippine tax due of his global income.
What is the component recognized by the Philippine tax authorities as
forming part in this tax?
Let us change the facts. If the tax paid abroad is 100,000, and the limit still remains the same. Onehalf proportion , one-half the proportion of the foreign income against the entire global income against the
Philippine tax due so the component is still 150,000 foreign. The limit is still 150,000. How much can Mr X
claim as a foreign tax credit?
MR. X, Resident Corporation:
1
150,00
Tax Due
X 300,000 = Max
million
0
Within
= 1,000,000
2
150,00
= 300,000
million
0
Therefore,
claim
only
Php
100,000
whichever
is
Without = 1,000,000 =
100,000 lower
o 100,000. It shall not exceed the maximum limit or the actual payment abroad, whichever is
lower. You will see there a per country limitation. Per country limitation would still be the same.
This means to say, what the resident citizen or domestic corporation has more than one foreign
source, in considering what is the maximum limit, for a taxpayer who has more than two foreign
sources, he has to consider the global limitation and the per country limitation. Per country, the
taxpayer should know per country how much is the maximum total, in global limitation, foreign
income against worldwide income.
o If there is more than one foreign country, compute the limit per country, compute it globally
using still the same formula, and compare it to the actual. Whichever is the lowest is the available
tax credit. Use the principle. The government f the Philippines would only allow you to claim a
foreign tax credit to the extent of what you have actually paid or to the extent of what it
recognizes as a foreign component of the Philippine tax that it is trying to collect, whichever is
lower in all cases. Lifeblood doctrine.
-
In order to claim foreign tax credits, what are the proofs that you need to show?
o
The taxpayer must establish to the satisfaction of the Commissioner the following:
(1) the total amount of income from sources without the Philippines,
(2)the amount of income derived from each country, the tax paid or incurred to which
is claimed as a credit, and
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
31 | P a g e
(3) all other information necessary for the verification and computation of such credits.
The reason there in letter C in the outline, who may claim tax credits for taxes of foreign countries:
o
Resident citizens
domestic corporations
Why member of GPPs in the Philippines they should still be resident citizens.
As a rule, we only have Filipino practitioners, foreign individuals cannot engage in the
practice of law. Beneficiaries of estates and trusts- they are allowed to claim foreign tax
credit, but we will discuss that when we reach estate taxation.
-
Foreign income tax, if you look at the tax code, It is one of the exceptions to the rule that it is
deductible unless if it is claimed as a tax deduction. The topic is itemized deductions- the topic is expense,
can it be claimed as an expense?
o As a rule, probably you can say foreign income tax is not deductible as an expense unless the
taxpayer is a resident citizen or a domestic corporation, wherein he has the option to claim it as an
expense or a tax credit. Because the tax credit benefit always is available to domestic corporation
and resident citizens. He can always forego claiming the tax credit and opt for expense. So its a
little bit complicated if you dont know the principle. You try to memorize it.
o
Again, lets restate it. Foreign income tax is one of the exceptions to the deductibility of taxes.
But it can be a deductible tax if the taxpayer is a resident citizen or a domestic corporation,
because the option lies with him either to claim it as a tax credit or a tax expense.
Because it is more strict to claim the tax paid abroad as a credit, can a tax subsequently refunded to a
taxpayer be taxable? Say for example you have overpaid taxes, you sought for a refund, you were
refunded. Is that a taxable refund or inflow of money or not?
Tax Refund
Sales
10,000,000
Cost
8,000,000
Gross Income
2,000,000
Less: Expenses 1,000,000
Net Taxable Income
1,000,000
+ 1,000,000
o Lets put that into illustration. In 2007, you have overpaid 1M in income taxes. You are a
resident citizen, no income abroad. The 1M tax that you have overpaid pertains strictly to
Philippine income. In 2008, you immediately applied for a refund. In 2009 you were granted the
refund. In filing your income tax return for 2009, would you take into consideration the inflow of 1M
cash that has been refunded to you for overpaid taxes?
Yes, you will be taxable. You will have additional 30% tax, you will have additional
300,000 taxes on the 1M.
No exception to that?
o You have to answer the question: Have you been benefited previously?
Because the taxability of a tax that has been subsequently refunded would lie on
whether you have been benefited in prior years.
o Remember, bad debts that have been subsequently refunded can only be
taxable to the extent that you have been benefited by the expense that you have
previously claimed. In this case, would all tax refunds be taxable? Were you
benefited by the foreign tax that you have overpaid prior?
expense, or in the year that you decided its no longer collectible, did your
tax liability decrease? If it did, then it will be taxable at the year that you
will collect it or you are able to recover it from your debtor.
o In this case it is the same, in the tax that you have subsequently been
refunded, did it decrease your tax liability in the prior years? Did you ever claim
income tax as an expense before? No.
If within the same year you decide to claim as an expense the bad
debts amounting to 1M also, this will be your other expenses plus the
uncollectible loan of your debtor. This will become zero. Your tax would be
zero. If in the subsequent year this was recovered, the 1M is fully
deductible.
Why? The government will seek to recover the tax that it failed
to collect because you claimed it as an expense. So if it is
subsequently recovered by you, you have to pay 300,000.
o That is the same principle in tax refund. Now, if the tax that has been refunded
to you is not a deductible tax, there is never any taxable income at the time that it
is refunded.
If its real property tax (RPT) that has been refunded to you, will the RPT subsequently refunded be
taxable? You overpaid Real Property Taxes after filing a claim for refund, you are given Php1M refund in
cash, will the Php 1M subsequently received as a tax refund be subject to tax? Yes or no?
o
o For example, So that if you deducted Php1M real property tax here, which erased your tax
liability, if subsequently that expense that you claimed has been refunded because it was a
wrongful tax that youve paid, that will be taxable because that RPT which you erroneously paid
before, effectively reduced your tax liability. The government will only try to recover that which you
have not paid.
o But if the RPT only benefited to the extent to the portion of the tax, only to that extent will the
refund of taxes be taxable. It is entirely the same principle as bad debts that you subsequently
recovered, in all aspects. The only difference is that (in all aspects daw but there is a difference):
In bad debts, so long as you can prove that its worthless, uncollectible, you have
taken legal actions, etc., is deductible expense.
As for taxes, you have to be very aware what kind of taxes has been refunded. If its a
deductible tax, follow the bad debts principle. If its not a deductible tax, forget about the
principle.
4. Losses
-
What is a net operating loss? In our formula, change it to an operating loss. What will you change in
the formula? Change the cost to 3M and it will become net operating loss. Because if you change the sales
to 12M, this will be gross loss. But usually you dont go into business selling at a loss.
o Example, if you have this, you purchase siopao at Php 10, you dont sell it at Php 6 pesos or
Php 8 pesos. You usually sell it at a mark up. Lets say, you bought it at Php 10, you sold it at Php
12, you still have gross income of Php 2. But you may suffer a net operating loss because the
salary of your tinder is Php 10,000 a month. This is what will produce the net operating loss
because ordinarily, tax authorities would expect this (gross income) to be positive. On this level
only.
o The cost. This is the house that you are selling (Sales Portion). Cost is the construction of the
house.
-
What is net operating loss carry over? Lets make the expenses Php5Million your net operating loss.
Because usually in the initial stages of your business, we will suffer a loss. If your operating loss is Php
3Million, the law provides that it can be carried over to the next 3 succeeding years. And it is the exception
to the rule that expenses or deductions shall only pertain during the year, paid or incurred during the year.
In this case, if the Php 3million is carried over as a deduction, it is a valid deduction notwithstanding that
this Php3Million is not incurred in year 2, not incurred in year 3, nor incurred in year 4 because that is the
exception.
YEAR 1YEAR 2YEAR 3Sales10,000,00010,000,00010,000,000Less:
Cost8,000,0008,000,0004,000,000Gross
Income2,000,0002,000,0006,000,000Less:
Expenses5,000,0004,000,0002,000,000Net Taxable
Income(3,000,000)(3,000,000)4,000,000Taxable Income-0--0--0-
Point is, whatever loss that you suffered, is already a deductible loss.
Is it favourable to the government? You might think it is not. But of course the government has devised
a way to still collect taxes notwithstanding that you are losing. You may be at a loss at the level of net
income but you still have to pay taxes at the level of gross income, whichever is higher. We will discuss this
once we reach minimum corporate income tax. Let us not combine the 2 as yet.
For losses only, if the loss in the first year, is not used up the next 3 years, whether fully or partially, it
goes down the drain, it is no longer usable in the 4 th year after it has been suffered as a loss. Only 3 years
at a time. Year 1 is allowed 3 years. Year 2 has a life of 3 years.
Lets change the facts. This is XYZ Corporation, it has been given 4 years income tax holiday. For the
first 4 years of operation, it totally suffered annual operating losses. In the 5 th year of operation, it earned
income. Can the losses suffered in the previous years be used up to offset against the taxable income in
the 5th year? No.
o Why? Whats the reason? Whenever a corporation is at a stage or it is granted exemption from
income taxes, any losses suffered during those years covered by the exemption cannot be
considered as a loss or carry over. It will not benefit years that the corporation will subsequently be
taxable.
o Meaning or which means to say that net operating losses that can be carried over can only
arise when a corporation is subject to income tax.
-
XYZ Corporation and ABC Corporation, both companies owned 80% by A. Shown below are the list of
shares in each company.
A 80%
A 80%
5%
Year 1
W 5%
X
ABC
Corporation
XYZ
Corporation
U 5%
LOSS
5%
Year 5
MERGE
Year 1
INCOME
B 5%
C
5%
D 5%
E 5%
Year 5
o A total of 100% ownership for both companies. Year 1 until year 5, operate at a loss. Year 1 to
year 5 for ABC Corporation operated positive. The stockholders of XYZ Corporation could not use
the losses suffered in year 1 to the next 3 years nor the losses in year 2 to the next years. Why?
Because it consistently operated at a loss.
In this case, ABC has been paying huge income taxes. So what stockholders of both
corporation decided was to merge in the hope of using the losses of XYZ Corporation to
offset against the income of ABC Corporation and claim it as a deductible expense.
Is it allowed? Yes as long as the change in ownership is not less than 75%.
Should it be more than 75%? Which means? Not less than 75% is 75% or above.
o So if the facts above is changed to 75% ownership: Can the loss be considered as deductible in
the merged corporation? Yes. It is still deductible because the merger because the ownership is still
owned by A at 75%.
o Combining corporations in order to use up the losses suffered by 1 corporation is allowed so
long as there is no substantial change in ownership from the individual corporations down to the
merged corporation.
So in that case, it is still Mr. A who is still holding the same percentage prior to merger.
So long as after merger, it is still A who is holding atleast 75%.
o In cases, where it does not reach 75% or there is a substantial change in the ownership, the
opposite, substantial change meaning there is already a change of more than 25%. It means to say
that the loss suffered by 1 corporation cannot be used by the merged corporation. When it merges,
or there is a merger of corporation, there is only 1 surviving entity will remain.
-
What is meant by capital loss carry over? Losses from sale or exchange of capital assets.
o So can you say that there can be capital losses on sale of real properties classified as capital
assets? NO.
You do not disturb these rules class. There are only 3 types of capital assets which can
give rise to capital transactions.
o
o Sale of shares of stock wherein you are not a broker of securities subject to
capital gains tax.
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
35 | P a g e
Real properties are taxable on the gross selling price or fair market value whichever is
higher. So any loss that you suffered from the sale of this property cannot be carried over
because it is on a per transaction basis and you are never taxed on the profit alone. You
are taxable on the gross selling price or the fair market value itself.
But on the other 2, you can have capital losses. (Meaning capital losses can only arise
in sales of shares of stocks and all other capital assets. Never on the sale of real
properties.)
o Motor vehicle that you personally own. So if you sell a motor vehicle that you
personally own. You are not in the business of leasing or buying or selling of motor
vehicles. You bought it at Php 4million and sold it at Php 2Million, you suffered a
loss. This is capital loss. And there is also what we call as, NET CAPITAL LOSS
CARRY OVER.
o The loss that you suffer in a capital transaction excluding the sale on real
properties can be carried over only to the NEXT YEAR. Not 3 years.
CAPITAL ASSETS:
Applicable
NCLCO?
1. Real Property
5% / 10%
Carry this
3. All other MV (personally own)
over the
NEXT
Bought
4Million
YEAR!
Sold
2Million
Capital
Does this rule apply,
forLoss
capital 2Million
losses to be carried over, is this available to corporate taxpayers? It is
NCLCOincan
be carried
over
the NEXT
YEAR ONLY!
NOT. As provided
theonly
outline,
its not
available
to corporate
taxpayers. Therefore, we will discuss the
mechanics of this one once we reach capital transactions towards the end of the semester.
o
Securities becoming worthless simply means to say that if you are a corporate tax
payer and have invested in another corporation which that investing corporation, the other
corporation which you have invested in, is suffering a loss, insolvent or dissolved, etc. Your
shares or securities held in that corporation, your ownership is already worthless. So the
losses that you suffer is a capital loss. This is not, you are not into active trading of shares.
In the outline, losses arising from failure to exercise privilege to sell or buy property
like option money that you have for which you did not exercise the option, its a loss if you
are the one who put up the option money. Its a capital loss.
Abandonment losses in the case of natural resources wherein you have invested in a property hoping
to find natural resources or minerals only to find out that there is none. So abandonment losses is a capital
loss because you are not yet in the operation of the mining business. Its still under exploratory stage.
Losses from wash sales or stock securities, I want you to read that class. We will discuss that once we
reach capital transactions.
o Wash sales or stock securities are just like I think a simulated sale. Is this a simulated sale?
Wherein a sale and a purchase of the same type of stocks or securities happens within 30 days. No
deduction of capital losses experienced will be allowed unless the one experiencing it is a dealer of
stock securities. Because wash sales are type of simulated sales of securities in order to influence
the stock market.
So as to make it appear that the shares of this company is actively traded in the
market in order to increase its value, some person in trading, within the span of 30 days,
would buy himself for the same but it is simply simulated in order to influence the value of
the shares in the market, its not any loss that is deductible.
Unless you really are a dealer in shares. Because if you really are a dealer in stock
securities, your eyes really is on the stock market. You buy and sell shares many times
within the day.
Are gambling losses deductible? Can you deduct the excess of your gambling loss over your gambling
gains? Can you deduct the excess against your ordinary business income? You cannot deduct?
o Say for example your gambling gain is Php2million, your gambling loss is Php5 million,
separate days. Your net gambling loss is Php 3million. Can you offset the 3 million against your
business income of Php100million?
Capital losses can NEVER BE DEDUCTED AGAINST ORDINARY INCOME. Capital losses
are off settable against capital gains to the extent of the gain. Any excess so long as its
NOT ILLEGAL losses can be carried over as an individual taxpayer to the next year.
Ordinary income can only cater to ordinary expenses and ordinary losses because one
of the common requisites that we have in order for an expense to be deductible, is that it
must be incurred or paid directly in relation to the trade, business or profession. Your
gambling losses is NOT really related to your business.
Therefore, you put a border line but in the end, as a individual taxpayer or corporate
tax payer, you report under 1 income tax return your ordinary income, ordinary losses,
bottom line, you pay for the tax. As long as you dont cross over. Capital for capital and
ordinary for ordinary.
Casualty Loss
What is the casualty loss? And what are the requisites to make it deductible?
o Number 1, whenever you, whenever the business suffers a casualty loss and casualty losses
are those major losses really, fire, storm, shipwreck, robbery, embezzlement, and theft losses. It
must be duly reported within 45 days by a sworn statement to the tax authorities.
o
o It must be actually sustained during the year in which you want the charge it off against your
income.
o
Actually sustained
o Must not be compensated by an insurance. In case there is an insurance, remember that only
the difference between that that has not been compensated by the Insurance Company is
deductible. And we know for a fact that property can only be insured to the extent of the value
otherwise, any excess will become over insurance. It will not be paid by the insurance company.
So we dont actually have to discuss the excess of the insurance over the loss because
these are property losses, casualty losses. Unless of course if its.ok! (Wala gi tiwas n atty.
Iya sentence..:( )
Which leads me to princess of the stars. Is the loss deductible in so far as sulpicio lines
is considered? Deductible fully or does it have..? Is it still floating class? Here, class
interacts na no na daw. So it will be total loss not floatable na. Deductible?
o It happened in 2008. And insurance companies will only pay when everything
has been cleared. The finding of the fault, etc., etc., in so far as the shipping
company is concerned.
Diba you know that it sunk in 2008 but if its still under
investigation as to whose fault is it, the government will not allow
you to deduct fully in 2008 when you are expecting to be
compensated by the insurance company in 2009. So, unless and
until, in Atty.s opinion, everything has been settled with the
insurance company, only then can you determine how much is
your deductible loss.
Probably thats the reason why Atty. has heard that it has or it
should not still float. Atty .does not know the reason.
Because if you wait forever for the insurance company, and its
10 years after already, it will not be deductible already because
there is no matching of the losses that occurred in 2008 and 10
years after.
o Nonetheless, you have an idea that in case casualty loss is suffered, you should act within 45
days to report the loss. Non reporting of the loss would result to non deductibility.
5. BAD DEBTS
-
o In many supreme court cases, there are had been many instances that the Supreme Court
actually denied the claiming of a bad debt or a debt unpaid as a deductible expense.
o For example, if the debtor is already dead is it enough for you to say that it is an uncollectible
and worthless loan? Can you automatically deduct the unpaid debt of that decedent who just
recently died?
In 1 SC case, No! Because you still have the estate against which to collect. Its not yet
bad, you call it bad na if you cannot collect the unpaid debt.
o
When can you become insolvent again class? When your liabilities will exceed your
assets. If your liability is equal your asset, your still mid solvent, you are still solvent. You
will become insolvent only after when your liabilities exceed Php1 over your asset.
A collection letter.
Referral to lawyer
Demand letter
And if the debtor still fails to pay, you file an action in court.
4. And once you determine it to be worthless this year, automatically charge it against
your income this year. Otherwise, it will no longer be deductible in the subsequent years.
o So, when you are able to determine it to be worthless, that is the only year
when you charge it against your income as an expense.
5. The final requisite, number 5, is that it must be uncollectible in the near future.
o
So it probably will be collectible in the far future but not in the near future.
o Atty. Tiu does not know what is near. As long as not next year, not two years
from now. Far away.
o Say for example, you and your seat mate, you have separate businesses. But during the
election, you placed your bet on Brother Eddie. The other party placed her bet on President Noy.
You won. So you tried to collect as agreed, Php1Million. She failed to pay despite persistent
collections. Can you claim the Php1million as a bad debt expense?
First, It is not related to the trade or business or profession that you are in.
Second, it did not arise from any valid and subsisting obligation to pay. Remember its
just a betting game.
6. DEPRECIATION
-
What is depreciation?
The gradual diminution of the useful value of the property used in trade, business, or profession of the
taxpayer arising from wear and tear or natural obsolescence. The term is also applied to amortization of
the value of intangible assets, the use of which in trade or business is definitely limited in duration.
Depletion is the exhaustion of natural resources like mines and oil and gas wells as a result of
production or severance from such mines or wells. These are non-replaceable assets.
We all know that all properties and assets, as a general rule would diminish in value unless of course if
it pertains to parcels of land, which as a rule, opposite, will appreciate in value. Is there an instance where
a parcel of land will diminish in value? Wear or tear? Is it really wear and tear?
It does not depreciate as a rule but the value may decrease in some instances. Like if
the volcano near by will erupt. Lahar-filled, the value will go down.
What happens if the parcel of land that you are holding becomes a red district? Ermita
for example in Manila. Does it appreciate in value or depreciate? As a rule, it will increase
in value because of the trade and profession.
-
So when you are talking about depreciation, we refer to properties or assets which depreciate or whose
value gradually diminish naturally. The wear and tear, obsolescence, etc.
o
o Even your personal laptops. You bought it for this much, after probably a year, only of its
price. Your resale value is only .
-
Depletion refers only to natural resources. It is easier to depreciate than to deplete. Because
depreciation is an exact computation. You only have a formula. If it will exist for 10 years, then divide it for
ten years.
o But natural resources sometimes is undetermined. You will have to depend on how much the
estimated produce from that parcel of land.
If you think you can produce 10 truck loads of diamonds in 10 years, you cannot divide
it for over 10 years. The only thing that you can do if you expect 10 truckloads of
diamonds is if you can produce this year 2 truckloads, over 10 expected, then 20% of your
cost of your property should be depleted already.
o If you produce 5 truckloads in the first year, estimated is 10. So of the
natural resources should be depleted as of that year.
o
How different is this against amortization? (Did it ring already? So she can finish amortization)
Amortization is applied to intangible assets.
o What asset can be amortized? You can amortize intangible properties that you have for
example:
There are new rules already, for goodwill, thats an intangible property. For accounting
properties, goodwill is no longer deductible. But for tax purposes, it may be deductible if
you really PURCHASED the good will. If you PURCHASED.
o But if its a goodwill that you just put up your business without any extra cost.
Its not deductible. Its not amortizable.
Another instance wherein you can amortize an expenses is when you under go
research. Research and development, during those stage you accumulate cost for coming
up with a model or a prototype. The cost of your research and development can be
amortized over 5 years once you go full production. Anyway, research and development is
not really tangible. So its amortized rather than depreciated or depleted.
Have you read the bar exam for tax? There are around 40 items. So for those who have read, how did
you find it? Lets go through the items that we have discussed. Let us see how you will fare if you have
taken the bar exam.
True or False.
o A . Gains realized by the investor upon redemption of the shares of stock in a mutual fund
company are exempt from income tax. Are they exempt? Exclusion from gross income class. In the
outline.
o B. A corporation can claim the optional standard deduction equivalent to 40% of its gross sales
or receipts as the case may be. = FALSE.
Against gross sales or gross income? Gross income. What is stated here is gross sales
or receipts. What is the difference? Remember the formula that we have had before?
What is optional standard deduction for? Its in lieu of Itemized deductions. So since
this is what you dont want to claim, 40% OSD is applicable.
o C. premium payments for health insurance of an individual who is an employee in an amount
of PhP2500 per year may be deducted from gross income if his gross salary per year is not more
than PhP250,000. False. PhP2400.
o D. The tax code allows an individual taxpayer to pay in two equal installments, the first
installment- we will discuss that towards the end. This is true.
o An individual taxpayer can adopt either the calendar or fiscal year period for purposes of filing
his income tax return = False.
Individual taxpayer, in all cases, an individual can never chose to be taxable in the
fiscal year basis. Always his taxability begins January 1 and ends December 31. Only
corporate taxpayers have the option to be taxable on a taxable year which starts on any
day other than January 1, ending 365 days thereafter.
o
The Capitalization rules may be resorted this will be discussed, I think next week.
Informers Reward is subject to final withholding tax of 10%. Yes this is true.
If you report someone and it will lead to collection of taxes, you will be given informers
reward, which reward is still subject to 10% tax.
o This one, interesting. A non-resident alien who stays in the Philippines for less than 180 days
during the calendar year will be entitled to personal exemption not to exceed the amount allowed
to citizens of the Philippines in the country of which he is a citizen. FALSE!
False, because only non-resident aliens engaged in trade more than 180 days in the
Philippines are allowed through reciprocity rule to claim personal exemptions.
-
ABC, a domestic corporation entered into a software license agreement with XYZ, a non resident
foreign corporation based in the United States. Under the agreement, which the parties forged in the US,
XYZ the nonresident foreign corporation granted ABC the domestic corporation the right to use the
computer system program and to avail of the technical know-how relative to such program. In
consideration for such rights, ABC agreed to pay 5% of the revenues it receives from the customers who
will use and apply the program in the Philippines. Discuss the tax implication of the transaction. Is the
payment by the domestic corporation ABC to the non-resident foreign corporation XYZ which is 5 % of its
revenues received from customers.
o
Is it taxable in the Philippines? Yes. Royalties will have situs in the country where it is used.
o And where is the technical knowledge imparted by the non-resident foreign corporation. Where
is it used? In the Philippines, where the customers of the domestic corporation are using it.
-
In 2009, a resident Filipino citizen received dividend income from a US based corporation which owns a
chain of Filipino restaurants in the West Coast US. SO who is the income earner?
From where is his income? From a non-resident foreign corporation. The dividend
remitted to the resident citizen is subject to US withholding tax with respect to the United
States, him being a non resident alien in the US.
What will be your advice to him in order to lessen the income and possible double taxation on the
same income?
o
Tax credit or avail of the tax treaty provisions under the RP-US tax treaty.
Would your answer in letter A be the same if he became a US immigrant in 2008 prior to receiving the
dividends and had become a non resident Filipino citizen.
o It would be different because if he becomes a non resident citizen, he is only taxable on
income within and the dividends given by the non-resident foreign corporation based in the US is
an income without so it is totally subject to US tax only, no Philippine tax. No use of tax credits, no
use in availing tax treaty.
-
A is a travelling salesman working full time for new (NU) skin products. (I know you have read losses
na, losses is a deductible expense). He receives a monthly salary plus 3% commission on his sales in the
Southern province where he is based. He regularly uses his own car to maximize his visits even to farflung areas. One fine day, a group of militants seized his car. He was notified the following day by the
police that the marines and the militants had a bloody encounter in his car and his car was completely
destroyed after a grenade hit it. A wants to file a claim for casualty loss (losses from theft, robbery ,
embezzlement etc). Explain the legal basis for your tax advice.
o
Whats your tax advice can A file for casualty loss? NO.
o What are the deductions or exemptions that he can claim? Personal exemptions, additional
exemptions, premiums and health and hospitalization insurance. Unless and until the taxpayer
claiming casualty losses has a business, trade or profession , he wouldnt have that expense
deductible for him.
-
A inherited a two storey building in Makati from his father a real estate broker in the 60s (?). A group of
monks approached A and offered to lease the building in order to use it as a venue for their Buddhist
rituals and ceremonies. A accepted the rental of 1M for the whole year. The following year the city
assessor issued assessment against A for non payment of real property taxes. Is the assessor justified in
assessing As deficiency real property taxes?
o The question here is: Is it correct for the city assessor to collect real property tax? Question is
real property tax if a real property is actually, directly, and exclusively used for religious
purposes, it will be exempt from real property tax?
But the assessment is for real property tax, not income tax.
Local government code exemption from real property taxes Yes, this is exempt from
real property tax based on Use and not ownership. Ownership is for the government
property.
September 21, 2010
LAST WEEKS QUIZ:
-
Last weeks quiz, many of you didnt get it right. XYZ Corporation obtained a loan from a bank, wholly
owned by a foreign government. It paid interest of Php1M for the entire taxable year. But no withholding of
tax was made. Does it make any relevance class? Doesnt. This is just a recap of what we have learned
before midterms.
o That whenever an interest is paid on a loan made from a bank that is wholly owned from a
foreign government, it is not subject to tax therefore, there is no need to withhold. Its just a
matter of fact.
o Question is the interest a deductible expense? I am referring to the interest payments made to
the foreign bank. On the part of the domestic corporation if during the same taxable year it earned
interest income of Php2M from loans of affiliate companies. Discuss your answer briefly.
So the question was simple, is the interest deductible in light of the existence of the
interest income earned from loans extended to affiliate companies. There were less than 5
who got it right.
o
o Some were saying that its not deductible because the loans were to affiliate
companies. How could you relate the bank as an affiliate company when the
interest expenses were being paid to a foreign bank, interest income was earned
from an affiliate company.
The only issue is if the interest expenses were being paid to the
affiliate companies? Here, its actually the other way around. The interest
expense were valid payments.
o The issue was or is it fully deductible in light of the income that was earned
from loans to affiliate companies? What did we say about interest? Interest is
deductible subject to the arbitrage rule. In the assumption that all other requisites
are present, interest expense is fully deductible unless the arbitrage rule will apply.
Does the arbitrage rule will apply if the interest income that the
company is earning comes from loans extended to affiliate companies? No.
Because arbitrage rule will only apply if the interest income earned by the
company is subject to final tax. And interst income that is subject to final
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
42 | P a g e
tax are those interests incomes earned from deposits and investments or
placements in banking institutions and financial institutions or
intermediaries.
So FULLY DEDUCTIBLE!
o Many answered subject to the arbitrage rule. Diba we made illustrations gani, Company ABC,
one earning interest income subject to final tax. One earning interest income not subject to final
tax. One not totally earning interest income. And in so far in our discussion, we were all in the
same track.
o As to the rule wherein you cannot deduct if you did not withhold taxes? Okay Section 34K(?) of
the tax code says that in so far as it is required that it needs to be withheld, it should be withheld,
otherwise, it will not be deductible. Many answer this.
To whom were interest payments made? It was made to the foreign government. To the
bank that is fully owned by the foreign government. Section 32B, says of the exclusion that
investments of the foreign government which includes loans extended to domestic
corporations is not subject to tax, therefore no withholding is necessary.
-
One more area, ABC Corporation declared dividends in favor of its stockholders. The dividends were
given in form of XYZ shares of stock held by ABC corporation. Will the dividends be subject to final
withholding tax? Many said it is not subject to withholding tax because it is a stock dividend.
o Did we not say that stock dividends would only refer to dividends given in the form of shares
issued by the issuing company? If the shares given by the company is the shares held as in an
investment of another corporation, it is just like a property of that company and if given, making
the stockholders, the stockholders of the investing company, it will be considered as property
dividends. And property dividends are subject to tax just like cash dividends.
True or false, regional operating headquarters are exempt from income tax except if it derives income
from any of its real or personal properties or from any of its activities conducted for profit. FALSE.
o Regional operating headquarters are NOT exempt. Thats the only statement that we need to
address. Regional AREA headquarters are the ones that are exempt from tax.
ABC Corporation, a resident foreign corporation paid Php5M income taxes to the United states for the
taxable year 2010. Is this an expense deductible, why or why not? Totally, the expense is NOT deductible
because the Php 5M income taxes paid to the US is for taxes on income that is earned outside the
Philippines. Resident foreign corporations are not taxable for income outside. Therefore, the Php5M income
taxes are not deductible not even for tax credit or expense.
Mr. A invested Php1M in XYZ. 5 years after he received Php5M in case dividends. After another 5 years,
the business was dissolved and its remaining assets were distributed to the creditors and after which
stockholders got properties in proportion to the interest they hold in the corporation. To which Mr. A
received Php1M in properties. Is it subject to income tax or final withholding tax?
o It is not subject to income tax because the corporation is already in the process of liquidation.
Whatever will be received will be considered as liquidating dividends which is not a guarantee that
tax will be imposed. Liquidating dividends if the value of the properties received in time of
liquidation is more than the investment made in the company.
o And if the investment is only pHp1M and what he received thereafter is Php1M, there is no
gain, no tax.
o What about the Php5M that was received throughout the existence of the corporation and
given as dividends? It was already subjected to final withholding tax as passive income. It will not
be considered in determining whether gain was earned or not.
Start of Classes:
6. Depreciation
-
Depreciation is the gradual diminution of the useful value of a property that is used in trade, business,
or profession of the taxpayer, corporation or individual which gradual diminution of the useful value refers
to the gradual wear and tear or the natural obsolescence of the property that is depreciated.
And whenever a property, I heard this came out in the mockbar exam last Sunday, what are the
methods for depreciating a property as provided in the tax code, the easiest that we can determine is the
straight line method. But if you are asked to enumerate. But I doubt it if you will be asked to explain. If you
are asked to enumerate, there are 4:
o Straight-line method. So the number of years that the property is estimated to be useful is the
factor with in which we spread out the value of the property. So if its 100 years, then you
depreciate the property over a hundred years.
o
o Last method is any other method that can be agreed upon or prescribed by the Secretary of
Finance which would include double declining method, etc2x.
So, if you have come into an agreement with the Bureau of Internal
Revenue that you would be using the sum of years digit method for a
particular machinery, you should use it all through out the existence of the
machinery. If you intend to change it say for example to straight line
method why do you have to change it class? Sometimes you need to
change in order to make do with your financials. If you want to claim more
expenses, minimize the expenses, you can do something with the method
of depreciating the assets.
How about if your property will be obsolete already? What are the kinds of properties that may become
obsolete in a few years time? Software, electronics (Class ni answer ni. Ingon Atty: Exactly!). These
properties should not exist for more than 5 years in the business.
o Probably, if at the point that there will be no introduction of new technology and you think that
your asset is already obsolete even if you have not fully utilized the number of years intended for
it to be useful, you can claim it as an obsolete product and you can claim an expense in addition to
the depreciation that you are already claiming.
o For example, you put it a new technology and expected it to last for 5 years. So its Php5million,
Php1million per year through the straight line method. If on the 3 rd year, you determine, that it is
no longer usable forever, then the remaining value of the asset can be claimed as obsolescence of
the property. Its a deductible expense so long as it can be proven.
And we said that depletion of assets would only refer to assets which are referred to as natural
resources. And we have actually illustrated that depleting a natural resource would depend on some
factors:
o Diba remember, if you expect that this is the number of units that you can recover and these
are the number of units that you actually recovered, its the percentage of the ratio that you can
deplete the natural resource.
-
And finally we said that amortization is as well available to intangible properties. If and when you
purchased an intangible, you have ACTUALLY SPENT or shelled out money for an intangible, such as
patent, goodwill, copyright, etc, you spend for it, can be depreciated over its useful life.
o But if the intangible is built solely on goodwill for which you cannot truly identify the actual
cost that you have spent, it is not a deductible expense. Only for those intangibles in which you
have actually incurred an expense. That is amortized over its useful life.
7. Charitable Contributions
-
Are contributions and donations deductible in, say for example you have a business, and you have this
concern for social welfare. Are your contributions and donations deductible for purpose of computing your
tax liability to the government? What are the requisites to make a charitable contribution deductible?
o 1. The contribution must actually be paid or made to the Philippine Government or any political
subdivision or to any of the domestic corporations or associations specified by the Tax Code.
o 2. No part of the net income of the beneficiary must inure to the benefit of any private
stockholder or individual;
o
o 4. It must not exceed 10% in the case of an individual and 5% in the case of a corporation of
the taxpayers taxable income except where the donation is deductible in full to be determined
without the benefit of the contribution; and
Would all contributions and donations and limitations be subject to the limitation that it
shall not exceed 10% for individuals, 10% of the taxable income of individuals or 5% of
taxable income of corporations? No.
o
o
-
Deductible in full
First, fully deductible. We call these special contributions. What are the fully deductible contributions?
Or rather to whom will the contributions, because class in our outline, we have said that contributions will
be classified into 2:
Special Contributions
Ordinary Contributions
o The easiest to think is that, if and when a contribution is made to particular persons which
qualify to special contributions, then, your contribution is fully deductible, whatever amount it is. If
you decide to contribute or donate your entire taxable income to a specific entity that is among
the recipients of these special contributions, totally that is deductible.
1
2
3
4
5
Special Contributions
- Deductible
Recipients
Not inure to a private
stockholder
Within Taxable Year
Sufficient Records
Fully Deductible
Ordinary Contributions
-Deductible
Recipients
Not inure
Contributions NonDeductible
All others
But
nonetheless, special contributions, ordinary contributions, and contributions which are not deductible.
o First, you have to know who the recipients are. All others which do not qualify to the recipients
in the special and ordinary contributions.
o No. 2 whatever you make contributions that you make your recipients in order to be dedutible,
it must not inure to a private stockholder or an individual. Otherwise, you will just be transferring
funds, avoiding taxation.
o
No. 3, it must, as all other common requisites, it must be made within the taxable year.
o No. 5, the main difference, special contributions are fully deductible and ordinary contributions
are partially deductible, requirements no. 2, 3, and 4, are in order for a contribution and donation
to be deductible, both contributions specially made or ordinarily made must not inure to any
private individual or stockholder, it must be made within the taxable year within which you want to
charge off the expense. There must be sufficient records to support your contribution or donation.
But in so far as who the recipients are, there is a difference. In so far, as the tax wise or
the benefit, special contributions are fully deductible and ordinary contribution is not fully
deductible or just partially deductible.
-
What areas would all contributions to a local government unit be fully deductible for
tax purposes? It must for priority projects. Priority projects would be SHE:
o
3. Accredited NGO.
And accreditation would mean that it has been accredited by the duly appointed
accrediting entity.
o Prior it has been the Philippine Council for NGO Certification which is PCMC. But
there is already a new accrediting entities, DSWD, CHED. So it would actually
depend on what type of NGO it is. Formed or organized for educational purposes,
then you know that the accrediting body would refer to CHED or DECS.
o
If its for Science then it should be DOST. And its for social welfare, DSWD.
Accrediting would mean, the process of accreditation is that these accrediting bodies
would determine whether indeed that NGO has complied with all the requirements that it
is, example education, that it is to address or to support indigent students, etc. The
activities itself and that no member of that organization would be directly or indirectly
benefited by any fundings made by outsiders. Not more than 30% of its funding or
donations or contributions would be used for administrative purposes.
o Imagine class if you are allowed to use the donation, if you are an organization
and allowed to use the donation without any limit for administrative purposes, you
can make the entire 90% as your salary, to run the organization, which is not
actually addressing the issue.
o If its non-government for civic purposes, it should be for specific purposes and
to benefit other people not the stockholders, not the members.
-
If we only have 3 categories of recipients in order to make a donation fully deductible, who are the
recipients wherein the donation is subject to limitations?
o
(1) the Philippine government, political subdivisions, GOCCs for priority projects,
(3) non government organizations which are duly accredited for purposes of health,
education, research, charitable, sports, etc.
-
So give an example of a recipient of a donation wherein a donation is covered only as ordinary but not
special donation:
o When the donation is given to a non-accredited NGO, because if it were an accredited NGO,
the deduction is fully deductible.
Question: so if it is given to an NGO that is not accredited, it is still a deductible expense but not fully
meaning subject to limitations? Would a donation or a contribution to a particular group of individuals that
is not organized as an association, not an entity, not an NGO, be deductible contributions?
o I dont think so. The accreditation is only needed for the amount of deductions, but regardless
of that, it should be made to an NGO (?).
Youre saying that A donation to a particular group of individuals that is not organized properly is not a
deductible expense? Totally? So whats the difference between (white board)?
o NGO is a non profit corporation, so any group of individuals who have convened under a
charitable cause does not necessarily mean that they are a non-profit corporation. In the law, it
may only be deductible, whether fully or partially if it is formed as a non profit corporation.
So, class, when you say that there is a donation, you cannot automatically conclude that it is either
partially deductible or fully deductible. It may be not deductible. Because for a donation to be deductible, it
must be made to the government, its political subdivisions, GOCCs, or to a social welfare institution or to
an NGO whether accredited or not.
o The difference lies in that if you give your contributions or donations to these kind of entities,
the only question that you have is does it belong to an ordinary donation or a special donation.
o But if the recipient of your donations is beyond those identified in the tax code, not the
government etc, any donation outside of those will NOT be deductible.
o If you give it to the government, political subdivisions, etc, its fully deductible if you fund it for
a priority project.
If its an NGO that is not accredited by an accrediting body, the donation will still be
deductible but subject to limitations.
If its a social welfare institution that is still not accredited, it will belong (deductible).
Other than that, all others are not deductible.
If fully deductible:
Sales
Cost
Gross Income
Less: Expenses
Taxable/
Net Income
CD
Tax Due
-
11Million
9 Million
2 Million
1 Million
1 Million
(1Million)
- 0 c-
If OC-D:
Note:
Expenses
here do not
include
charitable
donations
Sales
Cost
Gross Income
Less: Expenses
Taxable/
Net Income
CD
Tax Due
11Million
9 Million
2 Million
1 Million
1 Million
50,000
950,000
So when you say that it is subject to a limitation, (illustration) you have sales of 11M, you have cost of
9M, your gross income is 2M, expenses is 1M. Where do you base your limited deductibility of the
expense? Under Taxable income.
o So if this is a corporation, what is the extent of the donation that you can make to a nonaccredited NGOs?
o The basis of the limit for a corporation, they can actually donate everything. They can donate
the 1M, but if they donate the entire 1M because they want to avoid paying the tax to these kind of
recipients, it will be fully deductible no tax due, zero - assuming this expense does not include
yet the donations.
o If the recipient of the 1M donation is recipient no 1 (government, political subdivisions, etc) for
priority projects, its fully deductible as expense, you report zero taxable income, you pay zero tax
dues.
o If the recipient is a non-accredited NGO, you donated the entire 1M (same facts and figures),
will you be liable to tax?
Yes, you will get a deduction but you will still be liable for tax.
Whats the basis for your tax liability? You made 1M contribution, you contributed the
entire 1M to an NGO that is not accredited, you said you are still liable for tax to the BIR.
What is the basis of your 30% tax due?
o
o OK class, even if you donate the entire 1M, but since your donation is subject to limitation
because the recipient is not one of those reported as fully deductible donation, you will still be
liable for tax.
The basis would be the net taxable income less the maximum limit that you can
actually contribute which is 5% of your net taxable income, its not based on gross. You
pay 30% of the 950,000 regardless of zero cash.
What usually happens now is that every NGO is striving to have itself accredited in
order to encourage donors, because donors would only be encouraged to donate to NGOs
that are accredited because they can claim full deduction of expense and they can also be
exempt from paying the donors tax.
-
Another exception provided by your special law is when you adopt a school. There is what we call as
adopt-a-school program. You provide books, computer equipments etc, and whenever you do that, have
yourself accredited and whatever your donation to that school is, its fully 100% deductible plus 50%
deductible. This is beyond the tax code, this is special law. So if you donate 1M in books to a school that
you have adopted, your deductible donation is 1.5M.
I think we discussed already research and development, there are some research and development
expenses that you can fully claim as an expense in the year that you have incurred it or those that you can
chose to amortize over 5 years so long as it is attributable to a capital asset or capital account.
You remember our discussion on retirement plans? Every corporation is encouraged to have a
retirement plan in order to address the need if someone in the company would be retired.
Corporatio
n
Retirement
Plan
Separate
Entity
In straight
line borders
are codal
provisions.
Deductible
Expense?
Yes!
Employees
o This is the retirement plan, this is the corporation. If you have a retirement plan, any money
that is placed by the corporation here, for whose benefit is this? For the employees. This is a
separate entity from the corporation. If the corporation puts in money to this retirement plan for
the exclusive benefit of its employees, this is totally a separate entity and any income earned from
this plan is not an income of the corporation. Mind you, the income of this retirement plan is totally
tax free. Would the transfer of funds to this retirement plan by the corporation be a deductible
expense?
Yes. In order for the contributions to be deductible, the amount contributed to the plan
must be:
o
Reasonable, the contribution must be given by the employer and the amount
contributed must no longer be under the control of the corporation. Once the
corporation has transferred the money, the corporation may no longer get back the
money or use it in their operations.
o Second requisite, the payment has not yet been allowed as a deduction it
cannot be deducted twice. And plan is for the benefit of the employees and
deductions apportioned in equal portions over 10 consecutive years beginning in
the year in which the transfer was first made.
o Whenever the corporation gives out money for the retirement plan for the benefit of the
employees, it is already considered as an expense because it will not go back to the coffers of the
corporation. This is a separate entity so whatever comes out of the corporation is an expense.
Whether or not it is deductible is another issue.
o
If it is for that year, it can be deductible if it is considered as ordinary expense for that
year. But if such deductions were made for services that have been rendered for the past
years, you can have it amortized over a period of 10 years. Divide the amount to be paid
over the next 10 years.
So if they will determine that there are 100 employees and the
put in 1M every year, this 1M every year will be deductible expense.
corporation need to
Why? This is for the current year service of the employees. If 1M will be placed in the
funds this year, then the 1M is entirely and fully deductible for that year. This is not like
other expenses, this will only be deductible if it is paid meaning there is an actual
contribution. If the corporation does not contribute this year, there will be no deduction of
expense.
2010
2011
1Million For Current Year
100%
Deductible
Contribution:
-
Let us say the following year, the corporation made a contribution of 2M, 1M for the year which it failed
to contribute and 1M for the current year. How much contribution did the corporation give to the
retirement plan? 2M.
o The details: 2010 the corporation is required to contribute 1M. This is for the current service of
the employees covered by the plan. In 2011, it is required to contribute another 1M.
o
How much is deductible for next year? 1M which is for the current year and 1/10 th of the 1M.
Why? If the corporation does actually contribute 1M this year, this will be fully
deductible because this year pertains to the current year service of the employees covered
by the plan.
If it foregoes contributing and decides to contribute next year 2M, it is allowed but the
problem is that if it contributes only next year, what is current for next year?
o This one only (1M), the other (1M) is for the past years service of the
employees. And since we said that expense can only be deducted in the year that
it pertains, this is 100% deductible (1m current year) and this is only 1/10 th
deductible (1M past year).
o
It will be spread out for the next years. What will happen if the
corporation does not contribute for 10 years, theres no deduction for 10
years of 1M.
G. Tax Rates
-
Lets go to tax rates. Were already familiar that the tax rate for all corporations is always at 30%.
Unless if it falls under special corporations. The general rule is 30% tax of the net taxable income and
there is an option not to be taxed at 30%. The option is given to the domestic corporations and resident
foreign corporations where they can choose to be taxed at the preferred rate of 15% gross income
taxation, provided that certain conditions are met. That, the ratio of the cost to their gross sales or receipts
from all sources should not exceed 55%, and if they shall elect that option, it shall be irrevocable for three
years.
What is 15% gross income taxation? Where shall you apply the 15%?
Sales
11,000,000
55% of 11M is
Cost
9,000,000
605,000. This is the
15% Gross Income
2,000,000
cost to avail.
= 300,000
Less
500,000
30% Net Income
1,500,000
=
o 400,000
In the 2M (gross income/same illustration). Using this data, would you want to be subjected to
the 30% net taxable income or would you want to pay 15% of the gross income?
You dont actually benefit in choosing either. You should only opt for the 15% gross
income taxation if it is more beneficial to you.
o Now (refer to lower part of illustration) still the gross income is 2M, expenses 500,000,
therefore net taxable income of 1.5M. 30% of 1.5M is 450,000. She wants to chose gross income
taxation of 15%, because 15% of 2M gross income is only 300,000. Are you allowed to pay
300,000? Assuming that all the ratios, the GDP rate etc, are present? Yes.
o
Non-resident foreign corporations are not expected to file these tax returns and are
subject to final withholding tax of 30%.
o Assuming illustration is a domestic corporation, can the domestic corporation chose to pay
15% based on gross income?
Yes, only available if the ratio of cost of sales to gross sales or receipts should not
exceed 55%.
Does 9M (costs) exceed 55% of 11M (sales)? OK, 55% of 11M is 6.05M. This (costs)
should not exceed 6M.
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
50 | P a g e
o You dont have the complete liberty of choosing 15% gross income. The only time that you can
opt to pay the 15% gross income taxation, assuming that all conditions are present is that:
(2) the ratio of the cost to your sales must not exceed 55%.
o Otherwise, if you have no limit here, for example this is 10M (costs) which is
almost 100%, you will surely be benefited by gross income taxation. Lifeblood
doctrine still dictates that you have to pay more.
When are you required to pay the minimum corporate income tax? MCIT is 2% from the gross income
of the corporation.
o
o When is a corporation required to pay the MCIT? A corporation is required to pay the MCIT if
the normal corporate income tax is less than the 2% gross income tax which is the MCIT.
-
Whether or not a corporation is liable at all times for MCIT, the answer is No.
Why? If the corporation is not subject to the 30% normal corporate income tax, then it
will not also be subject to the MCIT.
o Can it happen that a corporation may be liable for both the 30% regular/normal corporate tax
and the 2% MCIT? No.
What is the relationship of these two types of taxes? It excludes the other. If one is
used, the other is excluded from being applied. The 2% MCIT will apply if the 2% MCIT is
higher than the 30% normal rate of gross income.
So:
o (1) if the 2% MCIT is higher than the 30% normal corporate tax, the MCIT will
apply and
o (2) if the corporation is operating at a loss then the MCIT will apply. 2% MCIT
which is 2% of the gross income, not the net taxable income, is only a tax that is
made in lieu of the 30%.
Your actual tax liability to the government is always the 30% tax. But in years wherein
the corporation is operating at a loss, you dont have 30% tax, you will have to pay the
30% MCIT. Or in years wherein the corporations regular tax on net income is lower than
2% MCIT, you have to pay the 2% MCIT. Whichever is more favorable and higher in taxes to
the government for your operations, you have to pay it to the government.
-
What is the principle of imposing the MCIT, prior to 1998, this was not imposed, because corporations
are abusing expenses. They bloat the expenses resulting to either minimal net taxable income or they
bloat this to the extent of reporting a loss, therefore there will be no income tax. And normally you dont
exist for 10 years at a loss, you should have closed your business already. This is what the BIR was looking
into, there are corporations which were operating at a loss for more than 10 years. The problem was there
was over-claiming of expenses but the BIR would not believe you if you would report this at a loss at this
level. Now at least the BIR is assured, if you report a loss, the BIR is assured of collection.
Can the 2% MCIT be imposed if you are not liable for the 30% normal corporate income tax?
o NO, it will only be applicable if you are liable for 30% tax so those entities which are exempt
from the 30% tax are not liable for the MCIT.
o If you are a corporation that has been granted income tax holiday for 4 or 6 years, during
those years when you are not liable for the 30% normal corporate income tax , you will not as well
be liable for the 2% MCIT.
How about non-profit hospitals or proprietary educational institutions? They are subject to 10% tax on
net income.
o Are they liable for 2% MCIT in case they operate at a loss. No, MCIT also not applicable
because the 30% normal tax is not applicable to them.
Next example, a corporation that is registered with the Philippine Economic Zone Authority or the
Subic Bay Free Port Enterprise, they are subject to 5% tax on gross income in lieu of all taxes, are they
subject to the 2% MCIT?
o Not subject to 2% MCIT, unless if it refers to another activity or they are doing another activity
in which they are not registered.
o Those corporations that are located inside the economic zone and even in IT Park, if they opt to
be subject to 5% income tax based on gross income in lieu of all taxes, they are not liable for VAT,
not liable for other taxes, they will not be liable to MCIT at all because it is only imposed if you are
subject to 30%.
o These corporations within the economic zones however are only allowed to pay 5% tax on
activities that have been registered with the government. If they venture into activities that are not
covered by the 5% tax, then Imagine Timex, its within the zone.
Timex
100 Million
5 Million
Registered
Selling FF, E, M
5%
30%
MCIT:
X
o Timex has 100M sales of registered activities (watch manufacturing and sales etc). And they
earn 5M income from selling old furniture, equipments, motor vehicles, etc, is this covered by the
registration?
No, this is not subject to 5% tax, this will be subject to 30%. As to whether MCIT
applies to these activities, it would depend on whether MCIT is higher or normal corporate
tax rate is higher.
-
Exception is if the profits are a result of engaging in activities that are not related to
the trade and it exceed 50% of their income the rate is 30% normal tax on net taxable
income.
Gross Income:
100,000,000 from Tuition Fees
100,000,000 from Rental Fees
200,000,000 Total
Subject to
10%
o If you own a school, and your gross income, a proprietary educational institution, is 100M from
tuition fees and 100M from rental fees. You have 200M total income. What is the tax rate
applicable?
It is still 10% because it did not exceed 50% of the gross income. 10% tax on the entire
net taxable income.
Proprietary educational institutions and nonprofit hospitals are subject to 10% tax on
their net taxable income as preferred or special corporations.
But once they violate the predominance test, meaning once their income from other
activities (other than educational or other than hospital services), the entire income will be
subject to the regular rate of 30%. You do not divide the income.
Say for example the gross income from tuition fees is 100M and from rental fees is
100M, total of 200M. It did not violate the rule that it should not exceed 50%, its 50-50.
Therefore, the entire taxable income of this school is subject to 10% tax.
Gross Income:
100,000,000 from Tuition Fees
100,000,000 from Rental Fees
200,000,000 Total
Subject to
10%
o If this becomes 101M (from rentals, other income), what rate shall apply? Once the other
income (other sources) exceeds 50% of the total income, 30% would apply on the whole net
taxable income. Its either 10 or 30 applied to the whole income.
o
Question, still on MCIT: if the school is still under 10% tax, is MCIT applicable? NO.
If the corporation surpasses the 50% boundary, subject to 30%, will MCIT apply? YES.
o Just simple class (!), whenever 30% is present, 2% is lurking around. So MCIT will only be
present if the school is 30% taxable.
-
When do you begin to impose the MCIT, on the first year of operations? No, in the fourth taxable year
beginning after the year the corporation has commenced (pertains to registration with BIR) business
operations.
o So, in 2005 December 24: you registered your business. When should you start comparing
your 2% MCIT against your 30% normal corporate tax? In 2009.
Why? Its the fourth year after 2005. Beginning the fourth taxable year following the
year in which you commenced your business operations.
o You registered your business with BIR in 2005, assuming you follow the calendar year, when is
the year after you commenced business operations 2006.
The 2% MCIT is based is on gross income. When you say gross income, what is gross income as a
general rule and what is gross income for a corporation that is engaged in the sale of service and a
corporation that is engaged in the sale of merchandise?
o So when you actually want to know what is gross income for purposes of computing the 2%
MCIT, it would only refer to the definition found in Sec. 27(e) of the Tax Code. But if youre engaged
into merchandising or trading business, the cost that you can deduct on your sales in order to
arrive at the gross income would only pertain to the products that you actually trading plus the
insurances plus the costs to put that product into the location or sale.
o So if youre selling siomai, what would be the cost is the siomai that you bought, if its trading,
and the transportation cost from getting it from the supplier down to your business. Of course, the
transportation that would pertain from the delivery to your consumers or customers would no
longer form part of the cost. It would already form part of your selling expenses.
o
The cost would pertain to the expenses for bringing the product into the location or sale.
o And it would also depend if youre into one type of business. If its manufacturing business
the cost of the raw materials, the cost of buying the raw materials, the freight/shipment, the
insurance, the commission from buying it, and of course, the processing of the product. So these
are, in short, the direct expenses the direct cost to put the product available for sale, whether the
product be goods or services.
o You cannot deduct the expenses which are already for operation and for selling or for
marketing. When you say transportation cost, it would refer to transportation from buying or
transportation from selling.
o So gross income is very restrictive. That is the reason why the tax rate of MCIT is very low 2%
lang unlike 30% taxable income of normal corporate income tax (NCIT) because youre allowed to
deduct all the business expenses that youre incurring.
-
The MCIT is only a tax temporarily in lieu of the income tax that you cannot pay probably because
youre losing or the NCIT is low. Its a temporary tax that you have to pay but eventually, you are allowed
to credit the excess of the MCIT that youve paid beyond the NCIT.
o
Any excess of the MCIT over the NCIT can be carried over to the next 3 consecutive
years and offsetted against the NCIT.
NO.
So any excess or the excess of your MCIT over your NCIT, dba when are you required to
pay MCIT? Only if your NCIT is lower than the MCIT or when youre totally at a loss wherein
you dont pay any NCIT. So what youll have to pay is MCIT any excess over the NCIT can
be used up as a credit against your future NCIT in the succeeding 3 years. Its an offset.
-
6th year
7th year
8th year
9th year
10M
5M
5M
5th
year
10M
2M
8M
10M
2M
8M
10M
3M
7M
10M
4M
6M
10M
4M
6M
5M
0
7.8M
200K
7.7M
300K
6.8M
200K
5.5M
500K
5.6M
400K
0
0
0
60K
160K
160K
90K
160K
160K
60K
140K
140K
150K
120K
0
120K
120K
20K
100K
170K
250K
100K
Given the table above, in the 4th year, how much are you going to pay to the government?
o
Beginning the 4th taxable year following the year that you commence business
operations or which means to say, following the year you registered your business for BIR
purposes.
o So in the 4th year, how much is your tax liability? 0. MCIT is 0. At this point, youre not yet liable
to MCIT because MCIT will commence at the 4 th taxable year following the year that you commence
business operations, which in fact is the 5th year. In this case, it is still the 4th year.
o
-
Since here, your NCIT is also 0, your payment to the government is 0. Your excess MCIT is 0.
Lets go to the 5th year. How much is your liability to the government? How much are you going to pay
to the government?
o
160K. So the government will receive 160K because MCIT is higher than NCIT.
o How much is your excess MCIT? 100K. At this point, you have a reserve nah! Your true tax
liability to the government is only the NCIT, but you paid the MCIT of 160K because MCIT is higher
than NCIT. Therefore, you have a reserve of 100K that is creditable against your future tax liability
in the succeeding 3 consecutive years.
-
Lets go to the 6th year. How much will you pay to the government?
o
NO, because excess MCIT is only offsettable against the NCIT. It cannot be credited
against the MCIT. You always have to pay the MCIT, whatever it is. But once you reach to
the point that your liability is already the NCIT, its when you can use the reserve. In this
case, your payment to the government is MCIT so, therefore, you cannot deduct the
reserve yet.
o
-
140K.
o How much are you going to pay to the government? 140K because MCIT is higher than the
NCIT.
o
-
In the 8th year, how much will you pay to the government?
o 0. Here, the NCIT is higher than the MCIT, therefore, you dont need to pay the MCIT. You pay
the NCIT supposedly. But since in this case, you have an existing 250K total of excess MCIT, thus,
such excess is offsettable against the 150K NCIT, so the remaining reserve is 100K [250K-150K].
In the 9th year, how much will you pay to the government?
o
o You only pay the MCIT if the company is operating at a loss or when NCIT is lower than MCIT. In
this case, its equal, so you still pay the NCIT. But since you have an excess reserve still of 100K
coming from the prior years, you can offset it against the 120K, which is the NCIT, so therefore,
you only pay 20K.
-
At any point, did any excess MCIT expire? Was there an expiration of excess MCIT, meaning, it was
carried forward for 3 years but was never used?
o
NO.
o Lets look at the 5th year. Was the 100K used within the 3 succeeding years? YES, it was used in
the 8th year [first in-first out dba?]. So the 100K excess in the 8 th year pertains to a portion of the
excess MCIT in the 6th year and 7th year. Therefore, nothing expired.
-
How much is your total tax due (NCIT) from the 5th year to the 9th year?
o
480K.
How much did you actually pay to the government? 480K still.
o The difference is that your true tax liability is always the 30% NCIT. But at any point that you
operated at a loss or your NCIT is lower than MCIT, you will be required by the government to pay
MCIT as an advance payment for future years. Why an advance payment for future years? Because
whatever excess MCIT that you pay to the government will be creditable to the next 3 years.
o So instead of paying 60K in the 5 th year, you are required to pay 160K. In the 6 th year, instead
of 90K, you are required to pay 160K. In the 7th year, instead of 60K, you are required to pay 140K.
But in the 8th year, instead of paying 150K, you paid actually 0. In the 9 th year, instead of paying
120K, you only paid 20K.
o So bottomline, your true tax liability (NCIT) for these years is only 480K. The amount that you
actually paid is also 480K. So long as no MCIT expires, meaning nothing is unused, you will always
arrive at equal amounts. But if at any point, there will be an unused MCIT, that expired MCIT will be
the amount that you have overpaid the government.
o So assuming that the excess 100K in the 5th year is not used at any time because you operated
MCIT all throughout, your actual payment would be higher than your true tax liability (NCIT).
o So MCIT is not really your tax liability. Its not. Its just an advance payment of your NCIT
offsettable against your future NCIT because the government would want to collect regularly from
you.
Example: Where MCIT expires
Sale
Less: Cost
Gross income (2%
MCIT)
Less: Expenses
Net
taxable
income
(30%
NCIT)
30%
tax
due
4th year
10M
5M
5M
5th year
10M
2M
8M
6th year
10M
2M
8M
7th year
10M
3M
7M
8th year
10M
4M
6M
9th year
10M
4M
6M
5M
0
7.8M
200K
7.7M
300K
6.8M
200K
5.7M
300K
5.4M
600K
60K
90K
60K
90K
180K
(NCIT)
MCIT (2%)
Paid
to
the
government
Excess MCIT
Given the table above, lets
8th year?
o
0
0
160K
160K
160K
160K
140K
140K
120K
120K
120K
0
0
100K
170K
250K
180K
0
start-off with the 8 th year. How much will you pay to the government in the
o What will happen to your excess MCIT in the 8 th year? How much is your total reserve for the
8th year that is usable or that can be carried forward in the 9 th year?
180K [(250K-100K) + 30K]. 250K is the total reserve of the 7 th year and you deduct the
100K from 250K because the 100K excess MCIT of the 5 th year has already expired. Then
you add 30K which is the excess MCIT in the 8 th year. So therefore, the total reserve would
now be 180K.
The 100K excess MCIT of the 5th year can only be carried forward in the 6 th, 7th and 8th
year. Since at the end of the 8th year, were looking at the excess MCIT that will be applied
in the 9th year, you only cover the excess MCIT from the 6 th year. The excess MCIT of the 5th
year has already expired because you were unable to use the excess MCIT of 100K of the
5th year. The life of the 100K excess MCIT of the 5 th year would only exist for 3 years after.
Since such excess was not used because in the 8 th year, you paid MCIT, its no longer
usable in the 8th year, so you have to take it out on the total reserves in the 8 th year. So you
only have 180K, which comes from 30K excess MCIT of the 8th year + 80K excess MCIT of
the 7th year + 70K excess MCIT of the 6th year.
-
If we have the same figures in the 9th year, how much will you pay to the government in the 9th year?
o
0.
o In this case, it is only in the 9 th year wherein you benefited from the excess MCIT payments
because it was only in the 9th year that you have a higher NCIT.
-
How much did you actually pay to the government from the 5th year to the 9th year?
o
580K.
o REMEMBER: Your true tax liability is only the NCIT. So long as no MCIT excess will expire, your
actual payment to the government will equal your NCIT liability.
o But in this case, we have an expiry of excess MCIT in the 8 th year. The first 100K excess MCIT of
the 5th year was not being utilized. Therefore, although your true tax liability is 480K, you actually
paid 580K because you failed to utilize your excess MCIT or advance payments to the government.
o
o So if you feel that on the 3rd year, something is expiring, report a higher NCIT so you can utilize
your excess MCIT.
-
What are the instances wherein you can ask temporary relief from the payment of MCIT?
o
2. Force majeure
MCIT means that you are required to pay regularly to the government. Its just an advance payment.
You can utilize it afterwards. Its in order to plug the loophole in the tax code wherein the taxpayer is
abusing the expenses that they claim as deductible. You can zero out your net taxable income by claiming
huge expenses then when you zero out your net taxable income, youre not required to pay any income
tax due. But because of the MCIT, you will be paying MCIT due. And in order to avoid expiring the MCIT, at
some point, in the 3rd year, you will be honest enough to declare your true income tax in order to be liable
for NCIT.
Proprietary Educational Institutions (PEI) what are the requirements? Or should it be a formal EI for
you to avail of the 10% special rate?
o YES, it must have been issued a permit to operate from the DECS or CHED, or TESDA, as the
case may be.
o
What are the rules on the taxability of PEI or Non-Profit Hospital (NPH)?
Tax rate is 10% if its income derived from unrelated trade, business or activity does not
exceed 50% of its gross total income.
Tax rate is 30% ordinary tax rate is its income from unrelated trade, or business or
activity exceeds 50% of its gross income.
So we have to consider that if this is the gross total income of the PEI, how much of it
comes from unrelated trade, business or activity. If more than 50%, then automatically, the
net taxable income of that PEI would be subject to 30%. You dont apportion 10% to tuition
fees and related educational income and 30% to other income. Its either all the net
income will be subject to 10% because it did not exceed 50% on unrelated trade, business
or activity or all the net income will be subject to 30%.
But for purposes of determining whether the predominance test has been violated or
not, you look into the gross total income, not the net income, because the net income of
educational activities and the net income of commercial activities is different. You have lots
of expenses that you can claim in commercial activities but for educational, tuition lang,
etc its not many.
But if its profitable? Its subject to the 30% ordinary tax rate.
PEI and NPH are special domestic corporations, which are taxable from sources within and without.
International Air Carrier (IAC) and International Shipping (IS) are taxable within on their tax base of
Gross Phil. Billings (GPB) at the tax rate of 2.5%.
o For purposes of IAC, GPB refers to the amount of gross revenue derived from carriage of
persons, excess baggage, cargo and mail originating from the Philippines in a continuous and
uninterrupted flight irrespective of the place of sale or issue, and the place of payment of the ticket
or passage document. Tickets revalidated, exchanged, and/or endorsed to another international
airline form part of the GPB is the passenger boards a plane in a port or point in the Philippines.
o For purposes of IS, GPB means gross revenue whether from passenger, cargo or mail
originating from the Philippines up to final destination, regardless of the place of sale or payments
of the passage or freight documents.
Lets say a corporation, SILKAIR, which is based in Singapore, opens an agency in the Philippines to
accept purchase of tickets for Singapore airlines. Would it be subject to the 2.5% tax on GPB? The outlet
caters to all sales of SILKAIR tickets.
o
o If you register a foreign corporation here and it ventures on the sale of tickets from whatever
point of origin or airport of origin, would the sales be considered as subject to 2.5% tax as GPB?
o What is the basic requirement for a foreign corporation to be allowed to avail of the lower rate
of 2.5%?
o
Would all foreign corporations selling tickets here in the Phil. be subject to the 2.5% on GPB?
NOT NECESSARILY. So what is the requirement? What is that basic requirement that
makes the tax rate a lower rate of 2.5% on GPB?
GPB would not apply to all sales of airways or airlines or transport companies. GPB
would only apply, specifically, to the amount of gross revenues derived from the carriage
of passengers, excess baggage, cargo and mail ORIGINATING FROM THE PHIL. in a
continuous and uninterrupted flight regardless of where the ticket is sold.
Now, if and when a foreign corporation, like SILKAIR or QATAR AIRWAYS, open up an
agency or outlet here in the Phil. selling tickets, whatever the destination is or the port of
origin or airport of origin, it will already be covered by the normal tax rate for RFC, not the
special rate. Why? Its already engaged in selling tickets. On the normal basis, it becomes
subject to the 30% tax.
If the existence of such corporation is really to sell tickets, whatever the port of origin
or airport of origin is, it will be subject to the normal tax of 30% because the 2.5% on GPB
refers only to the revenues based on a flight originating from the Phil. in a continuous and
uninterrupted flight. It would also include ticket sales made elsewhere other than the Phil.
so long as the origin of the flight is in the Philippines.
So its different. When you put up a corporation and register it here and you sell
tickets, it does not guaranty you 2.5% on GPB. It would really depend on what youre
selling and what is covered by GPB.
-
Why 10%?
A ROHQ is defined in your Sec. 22 of the tax code, maybe engaged in operations in the
Phil., therefore, being operational, it will generate profits, and any profits, the taxable
income of which, will be subject to the special rate of 10%, in the same manner that the
employees of these ROHQs of multinational corporations are given the preferential rate of
15% so long as theyre occupying, if foreigner, managerial or technical, if Filipino,
managerial and technical positions, ROHQs as well are granted the preferential rate as a
corporation at 10%.
ROHQs are just like any other corporations. It has employees. It will be liable for other taxes. Its just
that as far as income tax is concerned, it will be subject to the preferential rate of 10%. The question as to
whether it will be required to withhold taxes on the employees compensation? YES. Will it be required to
remit? YES. Everything is the same except to the preferential rate of 10% to the corporation and 15% to its
employees occupying managerial and/or technical positions.
In so far as RAHQs are concerned, are Regional Area Headquarters (RAHQs) liable for income tax as a
special RFC?
o
Income derived by the OBUs from foreign currency loans to residents is subject to the
preferential rate of 10%. But if the income is derived from foreign currency loans or
transactions to non-residents, other OBUs, local commercial banks, it will be exempt. And if
its an income derived from investments or deposits or other loans to non-residents,
whether individual or corporation, is exempt.
Easy recall would be if the income is derived by the OBUs from residents, individual
residents, taxable at 10%. If the income is derived from non-residents, whether individuals,
corporations, OBUs, exempt. But there is one EXCEPTION to the rule if the income is
derived from a Phil. commercial bank or a local commercial bank, it is still exempt.
OBUs are just an extension of foreign banks. When it grants foreign currency loans to
also non-residents, its as if off-shore. Its beyond the Phil. jurisdiction. Thats why its
exempt. But if the foreign currency loan to residents, dba what is the situs of interest or
income from loan transactions? Its where the debtor resides. And if the loan is granted to
a resident and a resident of the Phil., the situs is in the Phil. Its an income within for OBUs.
Thats why its taxable at 10%.
Branch Profits Remittance Tax (BPRT), what is that? When are they required to pay it? What does it
imply? Would a DC be liable for the 15% BPRT before it pays off to a FC? What kind of relationship must
exist for the 15% BPRT to apply?
o Illustration: There is A International Corp. There is B Corp. (domestic), which is 100% fullyowned by A International Corp., and C, which is a Phil. Branch of A International Corp. Which
relationship must exist? The relationship between A and B or A and C?
A and C relationship.
BPRT will only be applied in the A and C relationship and not A and B relationship.
The A and B relationship when a NRFC fully owns a corporation, you call such
relationship as the parent-subsidiary relationship. Here, B is a separate corporation distinct
from the parent company. B is registered with its own set of stockholders and own set of
Board of Directors. A as well has its own set of stockholders and own set of Board of
Directors.
The A and C relationship you call it a home-office branch under the single entity
concept. A and C are one and the same. Since C is a mere branch of the home-office
abroad established in the Philippines as a RFC, C doesnt have any stockholders. In the
absence of the stockholders, it means to say that the owner of C is the owner of A. There is
no set of Board of Directors. Just a general management because the set of Board of
Directors is found in the home office, which is A International Corporation.
If lets say A invested in B corporation and A put up a branch, C. Both are performing
well (B and C). How would B distribute the profits to A and how would C distribute the
profits to A? How would B corporation give profits to its stockholders? Or how would A get
profits from B?
o B corporation will declare dividends. B, whenever it has unrestricted retained
earnings, the next step for it is to declare the profits in favor of its ownerstockholders. So it will go outside of the country. You call this declaring dividends to
its stockholders.
Illustration: DC, owned by 5 individuals (I1, I2, I3, I4 and I5). Another
DC. Another RFC. If the DC will declare dividends to I1 I5, all individuals,
its subject to 10% FWT on dividends if its cash or property to RC and NRC,
20% if its NRA-ETB and 25% if its NRA-NETB. But what about a
stockholder who is DC and a stockholder who is RFC? Both are exempt.
Why exempt? In order to avoid double taxation because DCs are also
owned by corporations. At the point that the DC declared dividends to
another DC of property and cash dividends, it is exempt to avoid double
taxation. The profit is simply transfer to the other DC. Taxability would only
arise once it goes out to an individual. Because if you tax the dividend
given to the other DC and the ultimate distribution to the latters individual
stockholders, there would be now 2 stages of tax nah. There should only be
one. Thus, the dividends given to a DC is simply a transfer of profits. In the
same way that RFCs are also exempt for further distribution to its
individual stockholders.
But in receiving the dividends from a DC, when the recipient is NRFC, it
follows the general rule that all incomes of a NRFC are subject to the 30%
tax except on capital gains from capital gains on sale of shares. It means to
say that dividends received by a NRFC are subject to the normal rate of
30%. But what is that special rule on dividends being given to NRFC?
the branch to the head office. Here, the profit that is earmarked for abroad to be
remitted to its head office will be subject to 15% BPRT.
o Would all Phil. branches be subject to the 15% BPRT on remittances made
abroad?
The tax code provides that if and when the Phil. branch is located
within the economic zone, any remittances made to its home office will not
be covered by the 15% BPRT. In order to totally avoid the 15% BPRT and
totally avoid the 15% intercorporate tax dividends, you locate yourself as a
Phil. branch within the economic zone (Tax avoidance scheme). Thats why
there were some subsidiaries within the economic one that converted itself
into Phil. branches so that to avoid the 15% BPRT. So everything that goes
outside the Phil. branch office will be totally tax-free.
Can a DC be liable for the 15% BPRT? NO. BPRT is only applicable to RFC.
BPRT vis--vis intercorporate dividends or under the tax sparing credit rule. What is the difference
between the two?
NRF
C
100
%
DC
Subsidiary
Corp.
RFC
Phil.
Branch
Illustration: If a NRFC puts two investments in the Phils. One in a DC, fully-owning it and one
establishing a Phil. branch. A DC, being a subsidiary corporation, will have entirely different
sets of officers, its own capital stock, etc only that 100% of it is owned by a parent company.
So any distribution made by a DC is called dividends-distribution. Its not remittance of profits
because for every capital stock that is owned by a stockholder, the fruit of that capital stock is
a dividend. But when that NRFC, likewise, establishes or opens up a Phil. branch, such branch
is not a separate entity from the NRFC. It is simply a branch an extension of its home-office
and any profit of the branch is directly a profit of the home-office. Its just that for every
instance that there will be profits earmarked for remittance abroad, it will cross borders
territorial jurisdiction it will already be subject to the 15% BPRT in order to equal the tax on
the dividends that will be declared by the subsidiary corporation. So in both cases, a NRFC,
whether he chooses the parent-subsidiary type of investment or the home-office branch type
of investment, will be subject at the same rate of 15%, differently termed. One is
intercorporate dividends. The other is a BPRT.
In BPRT, this involves 2 countries the Philippines and one from abroad, a foreign country. There will
be no BPRT of a DC having a branch anywhere in the Phils. because its one and the same entity
o
covered by one jurisdiction the Phil. jurisdiction. So BPRT should involve the Phils. and another
foreign country.
o Would all Phil. branches of a NRFC, when it earmarks profits for remittance abroad, be liable for
the 15% BPRT? As a rule, Phil. branches of a NRFC is liable for 15% BPRT on the total profits
that it earmarks for remittance abroad except if the Phil. branch is located within the economic
zone that is legally recognized by the government.
Intercorporate dividends. What is the general rule of the taxability of a NRFC?
o All income received by a NRFC will be subject to 30% tax except capital gains from the sale of
shares of stock, not traded in the stock exchange.
o But would dividends declared and paid by a subsidiary corporation to a NRFC be subject to the
30% tax? If the foreign government of such NRFC allows or grants tax credit to Phil.
corporations located abroad, the intercorporate dividends would be subject to 15% tax, not the
30% tax.
o The reason why intercorporate tax on dividends is at 15% is because:
2. As a rule, NRFC will be taxed at 30% on gross income including dividends earned
from a DC. But if there is a tax credit that is granted by the foreign country to Phil.
corporations, not a resident there, equivalent to 15% then, we can only impose tax of
15% as well. It means to say that 30% tax rate of NRFC less the tax credit that is
expected to be granted by the foreign country to Phil. corporations at 15% - so the
difference is 15%. The difference of 15% is the rate of intercorporate tax on dividends.
RAHQs are not taxable because theyre not expected to be performing any profitable activities in the
Phils.
SPECIAL NRFC
Non-resident cinematographic film owner, lessor or distributor taxed at 25% on their gross income
derived from within.
o A cinematographic film owner, lessor or distributor it does not include leasing out DVDs or
CDs. What it includes is only films one which is used probably for movies.
Non-resident owner or lessor of vessels chartered to Filipino Nationals or Corporations taxed at 4.5%
on gross rentals, lease or charter fees derived from within
o The Charter Agreement of which is approved by Maritime Industry Authority.
o Some DCs would lease out vessels from foreign owners in order to ship in the raw materials
that theyre purchasing. So whatever the arrangement is with the lease, whether it be by
bareboat charter or demise charter, whether its with crew or not, its covered by the 4.5% on
gross income for the lease payments.
Non-resident owner or lessor of aircraft, machinery and equipment taxed at 7.5% on gross rentals or
fees derived from within
PASSIVE INCOME
Individuals, as a rule, are subject to the 20% tax withheld on the interest income that they earn,
except that if theyre NRA.
When we look at corporate taxpayers, theyre, as a rule, subject to the 20% tax withheld on the
interest income that they earn DC and RFC.
How about NRFC? Are they subject to the general rule of 30%? Or are they given the
preference as well of 20% tax on interest income?
Lets say that you are the manager of the bank. A NRFC places a time deposit in your
bank. Are you going to withhold on the interest income? YES. At what rate? 30%.
Lets say the NRFC placed its time deposit in an OBU. Subject to tax or not? NO, since
theyre exempted. Can we consider it as a passive income subject to FWT? Or what is
covered by passive income of corporations subject to FWT? When you say passive
income of corporation that is subject to FWT, it must be an income that is derived
within the Phils. in order for us to have jurisdiction over the withholding agent. If the
income, whether it is a kind of passive income, is earned abroad or has situs abroad, it
will not be considered as income subject to FWT but the income, if applicable, will just
simply form part of the other income of the taxpayer, whether corporate or individuals.
When a NRFC derives interest income on bank deposits, its 30%. But interest income
on loans, 20% final tax.
Under the expanded FCDU, its 7.5% for RFC and DC while NRFC is exempt just like placing your
deposit or investment in an OBU. Its offshore. Its outside the jurisdiction of the Phils. so, although its
located in the Phils., as a special treatment, it is exempt if the depositor and the bank that is accepting
the deposit are treated as non-residents.
Royalties derived within the Phils., if the income-earner is a DC or a RFC, its both at 20%. It does not
negate from the rates that is applicable to individual taxpayers. But if the royalty income thats
considered as passive income, the earner is NRFC, its 30% because as a rule, NRFCs are taxable at
30%.
o NOTE: Royalties should be considered first as a passive income before you apply the special
rates of 20% and 30%. If the royalty income is already an active income that is earned in the
usual course of trade or business of the corporation, it will be subject to the ordinary tax rate
of 30%.
For capital gains derived from the sale of shares of stock:
o If it is listed and traded thru local stock exchange: of 1% of the GSP
o If it is not listed or traded thru local stock exchange: Not over 100K 5% and over 100K 10%
Would the rates differ if the seller is a NRFC? NO. This is one income or one type of
gain capital gain wherein the rate holds true or the same for all types of corporate
taxpayers. If you look into Sec. 28(b) NRFC are subject to 30% tax on gross income.
Blah, blah, blah all types of income have been mentioned, except capital gains on
sale of shares of stock, which means that it will be subject to the 5 and 10%.
Capital gains derived from the sale of real property. What is the taxability of the different corporate
taxpayers?
o For DC 6% of the GSP or Zonal Value, whichever is higher
o For RFC and NRFC should be treated as OTHER INCOME subject to 30%
NRFC
(STU)
100
%
RFC
(JKL)
Phil.
Branch
DC
(ABC)
Subsidiary
Corp.
Illustration: Based on the illustration above, what is the relationship between DC (ABC) corporation and
NRFC (STU)? Parent-subsidiary relationship. How about RFC-Phil. branch (JKL) and NRFC (STU)? Homeoffice branch relationship.
NRFC
(STU)
Single-entity
BPRT)
(15%
60%
RFC
(JKL)
20%
Phil.
Branch
20%
DC
(XYZ)
DC (ABC)
Subsidiary
Corp.
Profits 100M
-
Declaration of
Dividends
Another illustration:
Based on the illustration above, lets say DC (ABC) is not 100% owned by RFC
(STU). DC (ABC) was setup by the NRFC (STU). There is also a RFC, which is a Phil. branch of NRFC
(STU). Such NRFC setup a Phil. branch, RFC-Phil. branch (JKL). Afterwards, both of them (the NRFC
(STU) and RFC-Phil. branch (JKL)) invested in the DC (ABC). DC (ABC) is 60% owned by NRFC (STU),
20% owned by RFC-Phil. Branch (JKL)OW and 20% owned by another DC (XYZ). Now DC (ABC) earned
profits and it would like to distribute the profits. How will it distribute the profits? Declaration of
dividends or remittance of profits?
o Declaration of dividends. Dividends will have to be declared and distributed to all stockholders.
o If 100M will be distributed as the total dividends, 20M will go to XYZ. Is ABC required to
withhold tax on the dividends to XYZ?
NO, since it is exempted from tax on dividends received from a DC (Sec. 27).
The law already provides, under Sec. 27, that dividends declared by a DC to another
DC is not subject to tax as yet. Only when the dividends would be ultimately declared
to individual stockholders will the tax rates apply of 10%, 20% or 25% applicable to
individual taxpayers
o How about the 20M dividends to JKL? Will it be subject to withholding tax?
NO, since it is also exempted from tax on dividends received from a DC (Sec. 28(a)).
Sec. 28(a) (7) also provides that the dividends declared by DC to a RFC is as well
exempt from tax.
o How about the 60M dividends to STU?
Liable for tax at 30% but subject to the tax sparing credit rule (Sec. 28(b)).
Here, the tax sparing credit rule can be applied. If the foreign government of STU
grants or allows tax credit, the intercorporate tax of 15% shall be imposed on the
dividends received by STU from ABC.
No actual grant is necessary so long as it can be seen that the foreign country allows a
tax credit to Philippine corporations in such country, therefore, its automatic that we
can apply the tax sparing credit rule instead of the 30% general rate on NRFC, we
can actually imposed the 15% intercorporate tax on dividends declared by a DC to a
NRFC.
Sec. 28(b) provides that the dividends declared by a DC to a NRFC, subject to the tax
sparing credit rule, will be subject to 15% tax.
Can the NRFC raise the argument that under the single-entity concept, it will also be
exempt just like a RFC?
NO. According to the SC, the NRFC cannot use the single-entity concept in
avoiding the tax of 15% on dividends declared to it in comparison to the
dividends declared by the subsidiary corporation to a RFC of which it owns. If
we pull out such 15% tax just so to equalize the exemption granted to RFC,
there will be no tax that can be collected by the government. The reason why
the RFC is exempt and why the NRFC is taxable is because the NRFC is already
a given state its direct dividends. Unlike RFC, its still exempt. Once the RFC
receives the dividends from a DC, it will still remit the profits abroad subject to
the 15% BPRT. And the SC clearly stated that for purposes of investing in a
corporation in the Phils., the single-entity concept will not apply wherein a
NRFC and its Phil. branch, both investing in the same corporation, they will be
considered as separate entities for purposes of taxing the dividends.
And BPRT is only directed to a RFC. So DC is not subject to the 15% BPRT. With
more reason that a NRFC is not subject to BPRT since a foreign branch is not
within our jurisdiction.
Assets
100M
Liabilities
80M
Net worth
20M
Capital Stock 1M
1M as
capital stock
Illustration: The net worth of your business is broken down into capital stock and profits
(earnings that you retain in the business or in the corporation). You accumulate
earnings improperly. When you accumulate the earnings of your business improperly,
you might be imposed of the 10% IAET. If your asset is 100M. Liabilities is 80M. Your
net worth is 20M. If your capital or investment from the start of your business is only
1M. It means to say that the profits that you have accumulated is 19M. Have you
accumulated profits unreasonably? Is there a chance that the BIR will impose the IAET?
Whats the principle behind imposing the IAET? Why is the BIR taxing a profit
that is already exempt from the tax? Dba class, when you earn income, you will
be subject to the income tax. Whatever remains is the profit that you will
accumulate and will only be taxable again once it will be distributed to the
stockholders. So this is the current state you did not distribute the 19M worth
of profits to your stockholders. Why is the BIR taxing the profits that you have
accumulated?
o The reason why there is IAET is to actually penalized corporations that
have been unreasonably withholding the profits from being distributed
to the stockholders. Why? Because had it been distributed to the
stockholders, at what rate can the BIR collect the tax on the
distribution of dividends to stockholders? Dba, generally, if the
recipient is a RC, NRC and RA, it would have been subjected to 10%
tax. The BIR could have collected tax on the profits had this profits
been distributed. Being unreasonably accumulated (the profits), the
BIR is going to penalize the corporation.
Case scenario: If you will be subjected to the 10% IAET for unreasonably withholding of
profits and you decide later on to distribute the profits as dividends to all of your
stockholders, who are all RC, would you still be required to withhold another 10% tax
on the dividends subsequently declared to such stockholders after being penalized of
the 10% IAET?
YES. There is no double taxation here. Even if your profits which you have
unreasonably accumulated have been exposed already and you have paid the
10% IAET, subsequent distribution as dividends would still entail withholding of
the regular rates of 10% to RC, 20% to NRA-ETB, and 25% to NRA-NETB. It
doesnt means that if you have already shouldered the 10% IAET, it will already
cover for the normal 10% FWT on dividends. These taxes (IAET and FWT on
dividends) are entirely separate. They have different purposes. One (IAET) is
imposed as a penalty and the other one (FWT) is simply a tax on the income
earned by the stockholders.
Average for the dividends or accumulated earnings that is a probable area for imposing
the 10% IAET would only start from 1998. Your dividends or accumulated earnings from
Dec. 31 down would still be free from the IAET because this kind of tax has already
been effective Jan. 1, 1998. And if youre operating on a fiscal year basis, which means
that you start at any day other than Jan. 1, your free coverage from IAET would be
starting from the last month in 1998 the end of your fiscal year. So if your fiscal year
is Nov. 1 ending in Oct. 31. Oct. 31, 1998 down would still be free from IAET.
If youre from the BIR, do you have the figure or taxable base within which you can impose the IAET? Is
it readily available in the given illustration above? Where do you have to pick out the taxable base for
the 10% IAET?
o The 10% IAET will be computed according to the formula given in Sec. 29 of the tax code. The
19M accumulated retained earnings given in the illustration above is only an indicator, a red
light, for the BIR to assess. The moment that the retained earnings would exceed 100% of your
capital stock, it will try to compute the IAET. But it is not a guaranty that the BIR will actually
collect the IAET. The retained earnings is not the base. It is just an indicator that you have
improperly accumulated your earnings.
o Under Sec. 29, computing IAET would start-off from your taxable income for the year that the
BIR is considering imposing the IAET.
So the basis of the 10% IAET is not the retained earnings given from the formula in the
illustration given above but the formula on the TAX BASE (IAE).
So if your taxable income for the year that is covered by the assessment of the IAET is
0. You have no exempt income, 0 as well. And you have not paid any tax. Therefore,
you have no IAET, even if you have retained earnings because again, such retained
earnings is only an indicator for audit and assessment, not necessarily the payment of
10% IAET because 10% IAET is based on the TAX BASE (IAE) formula.
But the BIR is not so unreasonable as to not allow you to accumulate profits. There are
instances when you are allowed to accumulate profits even beyond your capital stock.
What are the instances when you have the free time to accumulate the profits more
than 100% of your capital stock? What are the instances when you are allowed to
accumulate profits beyond 100% of your capital stock?
o
o
4. Earnings reserved for compliance with any loan covenant or preexisting obligation established under a legitimate business agreement
When you say that you would want to accumulate profits for expansion projects, what are the steps
that you need to make? Is it enough that you will tell the BIR that you are planning to expand your
business? How will you prove? What if for 10 years already you have been placing in your financial
statements that this is for future expansion projects, etc. but it never really took place? Can you now
be imposed on the IAET?
o Proven by a Board resolution, blue prints, etc.. But it should be definite expansion projects
proven by sufficient documentary evidence
o If at the end of this year, you have an inkling that you will be audited or assessed by the BIR so
you decided to put into record, prepare a board resolution by your Board of Directors that 18M
of the retained earnings will be declared as dividends, within how many months or years
should you actually pay out the 18M? What is the time frame that is given you by the tax
authorities to realize the actual distribution of dividends?
At the end of every taxable year, you are given the leeway on how to distribute your
accumulated earnings. If you want to avoid the IAET, maintain 100% of your capital
stock and the excess, either for future expansion projects or dividend distribution. But
it cannot stay forever as is. It should actually be distributed within 1 year from the
close of the taxable year wherein you declare the dividends. So it should be paid out
within 1 year, otherwise, you will pay the IAET.
What corporations or entities are not covered by the IAET?
o 1. Publicly held corporations
What is a publicly held corporation? Is that the same as a publicly listed corporation?
NO, because a publicly held corporation means that which is not covered by the
definition of a closely held corporation
What is a publicly listed corporation? It is a publicly listed corporation if its stocks are
listed in the stock exchange. Publicly listed corporations are corporations wherein the
stocks are listed and offered to the public. So automatically, a publicly listed
corporation is a publicly held corporation because being listed, it would normally have
numerous stockholders. Its open to the public.
But a publicly held corporation is different because publicly held corporations are
corporations which are not closely-held. And for purposes of the IAET, you have to
know the definition first of what a closely-held corporation is. What is not covered by a
closely-held corporation becomes a publicly held corporation.
50%
50%
more than
CLOSELY-HELD
CORPORATION
1 individual
20
individuals
Illustration: A DC, 50% of its capital stock is owned by more than 20 individuals, and
the other 50% is owned by 1 individual.
49%
1
individual
21
individuals
PUBLICLY
HELD
CORPORATION
49%
21
individuals
51%
51%
1
individual
CLOSELY
HELD
CORPORATION
Another illustration: A DC, 49% of its capital stock is owned by 21 individuals and 50%
of its capital stock is owned by 51% of 1 individual.
Publicly held corporations are not exposed to liability for IAET while closely held
corporation are exposed to such liability.
Is a closely held corporation a family corporation?
Not all closely held corporations are family corporations because so long as a
corporation satisfies at least 50% owned by not more than 20 individuals, it is
considered a closely held corporation.
RULES (See Mamalateo on p. 466)
Not covered by IAET because theyre required to maintain some reserves and
regulated with the Insurance Commission
4. PEZA-registered companies
Not covered by IAET because theyre liable, instead of the 30% corporate tax, to a
special rate of 5% tax on gross income in lieu of all taxes, whether national tax or local
tax, which includes the exemption from the payment of IAET.
The reason is simple. The 5% tax is based on the gross income and gross
income for companies located within the economic zone is heavily regulated
wherein they can only deduct 9 types of expenses or costs from the sales.
[Gross total sales costs = gross income]. For PEZA, the costs is regulated to 9
types of expenses that is directly related. Whereas if they choose to be liable
for 30%, its based on the taxable income all expenses related to the trade,
business or profession of the taxpayer can be deducted.
Is a RFC covered by the IAET? Will a Phil. branch of a NRFC be liable for IAET?
Its not covered by the IAET because it does not have a capital stock
Not taxable joint ventures are as well not covered by the IAET because it is not
considered as a corporation for tax purposes.
7. General professional partnerships
Its also not covered by the IAET because it is not considered as a corporation for tax
purposes.
CAPITAL TRANSACTIONS
2 types of assets:
o Capital asset capital income
o Ordinary asset ordinary business income or trade income
Capital transactions are transactions arising from the use of capital assets. When you say capital loss,
its the loss that you suffered from transacting using capital assets.
Whats an Ordinary Asset (OA)? (Sec. 39 negative definition of what capital assets are)
o 1. Stock in trade or property of the taxpayer which may be properly included in the inventory
at the end of the taxable.
o 2. Property primarily held for sale to customers in the ordinary course of trade or business
o 3. Property used in trade or business subject to depreciation, which means that this must be
depreciable property
o 4. Real property used in trade or business
What are Capital Assets (CA)?
o 1. Properties not considered as ordinary assets.
o 2. Properties used in trade or business classified as capital assets:
i. accounts receivable
If you have an accounts receivable or collectible from your customer and you
are short of cash and would like to assign that receivable or collectible to
another corporation by selling your right to collect. Even if its part of your
trade, business or profession but because youre not into selling receivable or
collectible, its still considered as capital transaction.
If you have a business and youd like to invest in another business, so long as
youre not a holding company into investing another businesses, that particular
asset the investment in capital stock is still considered as capital asset
while you are not into trading shares. But if youre a broker of shares, thats
automatically considered as ordinary assets.
Because of the regularity and the continuity of the conduct of the buying and selling of
real estate properties, you will already be considered into engaging ordinary
transactions of buying and selling real estate properties. CGT of 6% will no longer
apply.
Viewing the tax rates of 6% and 5-32% on a property, which is more favorable?
It depends. 6% is based on the GSP (Gross Selling Price) or FMV (Fair Market
Value), whichever is higher. The 5-32% is based on the net taxable income. The
difference in rates would actually have to depend on how much your actual
cost is and the selling price.
If youre selling a property that you acquired 50 years ago and you sell it today.
You better be subjected at 6% CGT because if you sell that property you
purchased 50 years ago, the difference in the selling price and the cost is very
wide wherein you can already be subject to the highest tax bracket in the
individual tax table of 5-32%. And ordinary transactions are liable for VAT while
capital transactions, no VAT.
It is really better to stick selling pure pieces of real properties every year in
order to be still covered by CGT.
BIR has already set the limit. If you are able to sell at least 6 real properties in
one year on your individual capacity without registration, you will be
considered as in the regular conduct of selling real properties ordinary
transactions. If you sell lower than 6 during the calendar year, still capital
transactions, without BIR registration. So you stop at 5.
Its like selling the shares today but 30 days before, you acquired the same or
substantially similar shares or 30 days after, you acquired the same or substantially
similar shares.
Your reckoning point is WON 30 days before the sale, you acquired the same or
substantially similar shares or 30 days after. Its a wash sale. Its a simulated sale. Is
the gain taxable or is the loss deductible in this kind of transaction?
In all cases, the question whether the gain is taxable or not, lifeblood doctrine,
the gain is taxable and the loss, being a simulated sale, is not deductible.
o Short sale
Its just like advance selling but just make sure that at the time you need to deliver the
shares that you have sold prior, you already have the ownership of such shares still
valid basta so long as he has the ownership at the time that he needs to deliver.
Its a transaction wherein a person sells securities which he does not own yet,
provided, however, that he has ownership of the securities at the time of delivery he
has the right to transfer ownership.
Is there an instance where a capital loss arising from a sale wherein 30 days
prior, you acquire the same or substantially similar shares, be deductible? Is
there an instance wherein your capital loss is deductible in such case?
o YES, if the seller is a dealer in securities or shares of stock, in which
case, youre into ordinary transactions of buying and selling shares
whether its within 30 days, within 1 day or within 2 days that you have
acquired substantially similar shares or the same shares, you can
2 Lands
June 31, deduct
2009 the losses and offset it with your other capital gains.
o Basta the rule is, in capital transactions, whenever a loss is deductible,
Cost 1M
only offset it against the capital gains. Do not cross the border of
offsetting the capital losses
Gainfrom ordinary income.
There are 3 rules governing capital transactions which are not applicable to ordinary transactions, what
1)
areDecember
these? 31, 2009
o 1. Holding-period rule
Selling price 1.5M
100% of 500K
500K
Applies only to individual taxpayers because the capital gain derived from capital
2) October 5, 2010
transaction of corporate taxpayers is always 100% recognized irrespective of the
number of months during which the property was in the possession of the corporate
Selling price 2M
50% of 1M
taxpayer.
500K
If the property has been held by the taxpayer for a period of not more than 12 months,
the gain or loss is 100% recognized.
If the property has been held for more than 12 months, the gain or loss is 50%
Change of facts:
recognized.
1) Dec. 31, 2009
Selling price 1.5M
2) Oct. 5, 2010
***In brokenSelling
line borders
outline notes.
priceare
.5M
70 | P a g e
(250K)
100% of 500K
500K
Not
deductible
In straight
lineof
borders
are codal provisions.
50%
(500K)
against 500K bec.
Example: You have 2 parcels of land. Youre not engaged in the real estate business or
in any other businesses wherein the land is used in trade or business. You purchased
such lands Jan. 31, 2009 for a cost of 1M each. The 1 ST parcel of land, you sold it at
Dec. 31, 2009 for the selling price of 1.5M. The 2 nd parcel of land, you sold it today,
Oct. 5, 2010 for the selling price of 2M.
For individual taxpayers holding capital assets which they sell, you have to
consider the period within which the property was with the seller the holding
period (for how many months was it with the taxpayer whos selling it). If the
taxpayer sold it within a few months, 12 months or less, everything is taxable
and deductible (100%). If the property has been held on to by the taxpayer for
more than 12 months, only 50% is taxable or 50% is deductible.
In the case of the 1st parcel of land, you gained 500K and 100% of 500K, which
is 500K, is taxable because such land was held on to for 12 months. While the
2nd parcel of land, you gained 1M but only 50% of 1M, which is 500K, is taxable
because such land was held on to for more than 12 months.
The reason for such rule is that whenever you purchase a personal property,
you are not expected to dispose of it easily. When you dispose of personal
property more often within 1 year, you are considered to be in trade or
business but not necessarily. So gain 100% is taxable or 50% is taxable. Its
the same way that the loss is only 50% deductible or 100% deductible.
Another example: Lets change the facts. The 2 nd parcel of land was sold for .5M. Other
facts are the same with the preceding example. What will happen?
In this case, the sale of the 2 nd parcel of land constitutes a loss of (500K). 50%
of (500K) is (250K). Is the (250K) recognized loss deductible on the capital gain
of 500K from the sale of the 1st parcel of land?
o NO. The loss is deductible but not against such 500K. The loss is
deductible against the capital gain that has been earned in 2010 but
not against the 500K because such 500K was earned a year ago, in
2009.
o Assuming that you had no other transactions in 2010, no other sale,
you have a loss of (250K), can you carry forward such loss?
In this case, since the loss of (250K) was from the sale of a
capital asset held for more than 12 months, the net capital loss
carry-over rule cannot be applied.
In net capital loss carry-over rule, how many years can you
carry forward a net capital loss?
Capital losses are deductible only to the extent of capital gains during the year on a
yearly basis.
1. Its a capital loss. Its the excess of the loss over the capital income or
capital gains.
3. The amount that can be carried over is not exactly the same amount that
you will see as the net capital loss for the year for capital assets held on to for
not more than 12 months. You have to consider that it should not exceed the
net income from the ordinary transactions of the year when such loss is
incurred. You have to look into how much is the net income from ordinary
transactions.
o Example: Assuming that the (250K) net loss arose from the sale of
capital assets held on to for not more than 12 months. If the ordinary
net income is 250K, you can carry-over such (250K) loss in the
succeeding taxable year. If the ordinary net income is 200K, you can
carry-over only 200K. If the ordinary net income is 500K, you can carryover 250K it should not exceed.
The basic formula in determining the gain that you derived from selling your real property or property,
in general, is the amount that you received as consideration for the property. This is basically the
GSP or any consideration. It may be exchange of property or may be sale of property. But as to how
much is subject to tax, you have to determine what is the cost of your property. The cost of your
property that youre selling or exchanging would differ according to how you acquired your property. So
how do you determine the cost of the property that youre selling?
o 1. If it was acquired through purchases the cost of the property
o 2. If the property sold was previously acquired through inheritance the FMV of the property at
the time of the acquisition (the time youve inherited such property).
o 3. If the property sold was acquired through donation the same as if it would be in the hands
of the donor (so, its the same amount at the time the donation was made) BUT:
Exception: If the basis is greater than the FMV of the property at the time of the
donation/gift then, for the purpose of determining loss, the basis shall be such FMV.
It simply means that if youre selling a property today, Oct. 5, 2010. Youre
selling it at 1M. The property that youre selling has been donated to you. The
law says that the amount that you have to deduct as cost in determining your
income subject to tax would be the amount as if it is in the hands of the donor.
It means at the time it was donated. If at the time it was donated, its value was
500K. Then you deduct it from the 1M, so you get an income of 500K taxable.
But theres an exception to the rule. If the 500K that youre deducting (FMV at
the time of donation) is greater than the FMV today, Oct. 5, 2010, say for
example, the FMV of the property today is 200K so you use such 200K.
Lifeblood doctrine. Why? If you use 200K, the taxable income is 800K.
What type of property do you think that the FMV is lower today than the time it
was donated?
o Depreciable assets.
Both properties do not actually have the same value in so far as the owners are
concerned.
There are instances wherein no gain and no loss is recognized for certain types of exchange. What are
these?
o 1. Transactions made pursuant to plan of merger or consolidation
This happens when you gave out your properties in exchange for the shares of the
surviving/absorbing corporation or when you exchange shares for the shares of the
other corporation.
o 2. If a person alone or together with other, not exceeding 4 (so total of 5), exchanges his
property for stock in a corporation and this person or persons, after this exchange, acquired
controlling interest over that corporation. This means to say that they acquired at least 51% of
the shares of stock of such corporation. (Sec. 40(c)(2))
ABC
Corp.
46
46M
5M
51M
46 people
U &
45
1 person
51 people
LAND
(5M + 46M) and the total owners would be 51 people. (5 + 46). This is a case of an
exchange of property. You gave out land to ABC Corp. in exchange of 46M shares. Land
for shares shares for land. Is the 46M parcel of land subject to 6% CGT?
YES (apply the first-highest-5-rule, which will be discussed later; in this case,
applying the first-highest-5-rule, the interest of the first 5 would only be
10.87%, thus, they did not acquire controlling interest, so therefore, all the
gains of the 46 people from the exchange of property will be subject to 6%
CGT)
o NOTE: [the first-highest-5-rule kay g-himo-himo ra nko na rule.. wala
jud na na term actually hehe.. para short-cut lng sa transcription.
Anyways mkasabot ramo later as you go on reading I hope]
ABC
46M
5M
Corp.
51M
5 people
U &
1 person
6 people
LAND
46M
So that the facts would be that there are 5 people who invested 46M
parcel of land in exchange for the 46M shares in ABC Corp. So the total
capitalization is 51M and there are already 6 people owning ABC Corp.
In this case, the 5 people acquired controlling interest over ABC Corp.
because they own 46M shares out of the total 51M shares from the
exchange of property (more than 51%), so therefore, this case is
covered by the exception, and as such, the 46M parcel of land is
exempted from the 6% CGT and documentary stamp tax.
o
o
ABC
7M
2M
Corp.
9M
7 people
U &
5 people
12 people
LAND
7M
***In broken line borders are outline notes.
74 | P a g e
Consider first whether the first 5 transfers acquired controlling interest over
the capital stock of the corporation.
In this case, the first 5 transfers amounts to 5M. 5M over 9M total capital stock
is 55.55%. [5M/9M = 55.55%]. Thus, the first 5 transfers acquired more than
51% so that they have acquired controlling interest over the capital stock of
ABC Corp. Therefore, even if the transfer numbers more than 5 people, so long
as the first highest 5, would acquire controlling interest over the new capital
stock of the corporation, they (the first highest 5) will be granted exemption
from the 6% CGT. Since in this case, the 7M is equally owned by the 7 people,
so you know that the first 5 would have 5M. And 5M/9M is more than 51%.
Therefore, the gains from the exchange of property will not be subject to the
6% CGT with respect only to the first 5.
What will happen is if of the many, 5 will acquire controlling interest, 5 will be
exempt, the rest will be subject to 6% CGT.
o Consider first the first highest 5, so that the first highest 5 will be
exempted from CGT.
o If they own the stocks equally, then, there would be a problem. It
depends actually on their agreement whether they will share the
burden of tax or whether who will be exempted and who will be
subjected to CGT.
Instances where gain is recognized and loss is not recognized:
o 1. Wash sale
o 2. Illegal transactions
o 3. Those transactions involving related taxpayers
o 4. Transactions not solely in kind
It means to say that transactions not solely in kind is when the transfer involves cash.
If cash, in addition to property, is transferred, in exchange for shares, its no longer
exchange solely in kind, therefore, no exemption from CGT.
2. Every Filipino citizen residing outside the Phils., on his income from sources within
the Phils.
3. Every alien residing in the Phils., on income derived from sources within the Phils.
Who has not been mentioned here? What type of individual taxpayer is not
required to file ITR?
o NRA-NETB
o Why? Because theyre subject to a FWT rate of 25%. Thus, every payor
of that NRA-NETB is required to withhold a final tax. Withholding of a
final tax is a tax with finality. Theres no requirement for that incomeearner to report the income already subjected to final tax as part of his
ITR.
o So in all instances, a NRA-NETB is never expected to file an ITR.
What are the instances when individuals are not required to file an ITR?
o 1. An individual whose gross income does not exceed his total personal and additional
exemptions
Example: If your income is 1K a month, you have 12K in a year. Your personal and
additional exemption is 50K. Thats below minimum wage. Youre not required to file an
ITR.
o
o
-
2. An individual with respect to pure compensation income derived from sources within the
Phils., the income tax on which has been correctly withheld.
If you have only 1 employer and your tax has been correctly withheld by your
employer, no need to file an ITR. How do you call that? Whats the correct term for
that?
Example: Youre the president of ABC Corp. You earn 100K a month. Are you
required to file an ITR or not?
o NO, if the income tax has been correctly withheld by the employer and
your only income is the 100K you earn a month as the president of ABC
Corp.
o This is called the SUBSTITUTED FILING OF ITR.
3. An individual whose sole income has been subjected to a FWT
4. An individual who is exempt from income tax
Example: Once this is violated, meaning to say, if youre the President of the
corporation, you have 100K income monthly. You only have one employer who has
been correctly withholding you but during break time, you sell siopao to your
officemates, thats already other income. And being other income, you have to
combine that with your income from your employment. Maybe your income from
siopao business will escalate your bracket of income. The reason why youre required
to combine your income is to determine what bracket you really belong to. Thats why
every income should be consolidated. And substituted filing is very strict in a sense
that:
4. No other income.
o If the requirements are not met, all of them are not met or one of them
is not met, at the end of the year, you have to file an ITR.
Who are the individuals not qualified for substituted filing?
o See outline.
o NOTE: Letter c of outline is no longer applicable in the advent of RA 9504 individuals who are
minimum-wage income earners are exempt from income tax so theyre no longer required to
file an ITR.
o Illustration: You were employed by ABC Corp. from Jan. 1, 2010-Oct. 5, 2010. By November,
you applied and got hired by XYZ Corp. There was no overlapping of employment. Both
employers, according to their own records, correctly withheld the taxes. Are you qualified for
substituted filing?
NO, because the requirement must have to be only 1 employer. If you have 2
employers now, whether 2 employers employing at the same time or 2 employers
employing successively, youre not qualified for substituted filing because theyre may
be a chance that the correct tax when the combined income is computed has not been
correctly withheld by those employers.
o Another illustration: Youre the President of a multi-national corporation. You only have 1
employer. Your tax has been correctly withheld by your employer. But your husband is selling
siomai. Are you qualified for substituted filing?
NO, because you are no longer required for substituted filing if and when any of the
spouses would not as well qualify with the full requirements.
So in order for you to be qualified for substituted filing, make sure that your spouse is
also qualified for substituted filing.
If youre qualified for substituted filing but your spouse is earning business income, like
siomai business, no substituted filing for you both. Why? Because at the end of the
year, in so far as it is practicable to combine both your income husband and wife it
(the filing of ITR) has to be done for purposes of determining the true tax bracket that
you belong to.
Self-employed individuals.
So if you are a practicing lawyer with no law firm, etc. You are required to file your ITR
(professional or trade income) on a quarterly basis still.
Corporations. When are corporations required to file an ITR?
o Quarterly 3 times. 60 days after the end of every quarter and the last is on or before the 15 th
day of the 4th month following the close of the taxable year.
o To make it easy, corporations can follow the calendar year or the fiscal year.
o What is fiscal year?
Starts on any day other than Dec. 31 and ends 365 days after.
o So if the corporation follows the calendar year, quarterly ITR has to be filed 60 days after
March 31, after June 30, after Sept. 30 and the final ITR has to be filed on or before the 15 th day
of the 4th month following the end of the calendar year, which is April 15 the 4 th month.
o If its fiscal year, its a little bit complicated.
o But for individual taxpayers, can we have fiscal year basis?
NO. Always we have to follow calendar year basis and the quarterly ITR is 45 days after
the end of every quarter except first quarter. First quarter ITR has to be filed April. 15,
2ND quarter of June 30 has to be filed 45 days after, 3 rd quarter of Sept. 30 has to be
filed 45 days after, and the final ITR has to be filed April 15 No other date. Why?
Because we only follow calendar basis. So it would appear that on April 15, we
individuals (individual business income earners) would file 2 ITRs one is for full year
and one is for 1st quarter of the new year.
CGT return has to be filed within 30 days after the transaction and paid within 30 days after the
transaction.
o Can we pay on installment basis on income taxes due?
YES for individuals and if their income tax due is more than 2K.