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c) 180
Answer:C
5. What is power at pulse?
a) Peak power
b)Pulsed power
c) Average power
Answer:A
6. What frequency increases radar relative range?
a) High
b)Low
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change
Answer:B
7. If radar pulse is reduced there is
a) increased relative range
b)reduced relative range
c) no effect
Answer:C
8. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,
resistance would be
a) 80 ohm
b)160 ohm
c) 0 ohm
Answer:
9. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you
a) 3 ft error
b)6ft error
c) 12 foot error
Answer:C
10. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the
a) widest width
b)narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends
Answer:C
This is exam number 4.
1. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot
if any failure is detected
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a
single failure
Answer:C
2. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?
a) QDH
b)QDM
c) QDR
Answer:B
3. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
b)radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
Answer:B
4. The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from
a) roll errors
b)localiser deviation errors
c) heading errors
Answer:C
c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of
200 meters
Answer:C
9. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by
a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b)three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
Answer:C
10. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing
equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
b)no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
Answer:B
This is exam number 5.
1. The purpose of a yaw damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic response
b)produce a co-ordinated turn
c) block the Dutch roll frequency
Answer:C
2. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system
will disconnect
a) all channels
b)the failed system and carry on with an autoland
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach
Answer:B
8. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft
would
a) fly a circle
b)increase its drift angle
c) fly parallel to the beam
Answer:C
9. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system
are laid down in
a) JAR AWO
b)CAIPs
c) BCARs
Answer:A
10. VOR capture can be determined by
a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the
selected radial
b)is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio
deviation signals
c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the
selected radial
Answer:B
This is exam number 6
1. Versine is generated by
a) torque receiver synchros
b)synchros resolvers
c) control synchro transformers
Answer:B
Answer:C
8. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be
bedded first, this can be done
a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
b)the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench
c) at the manufacturers only
Answer:A
9. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative
density of a lead acid battery?
a) The temperature
b)The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity
Answer:A
10. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided
a) to prevent precipitation static build up
Answer:C
5. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
b)LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
Answer:B
6. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed
and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
b)the electronic interface units (EIU)
c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
Answer:C
7. What type of memory do CMCs have?
a) Volatile
b)Non-volatile
c) Hard
Answer:B
8. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
a) To provide a balance for CofG
b)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
Answer:B
9. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true
airspeed?
a) Higher than its IAS
b)Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS
Answer:A
10. The stall margin is controlled by
a) EPR limits
b)speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap position
Answer:A
This is exam number 9.
1. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle
path signals
Answer:A
9. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal
accidents per landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
b)1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8
Answer:B
10. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the
a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b)ground radio aids must be at CAT III
c) ILS system must be working
Answer:C
This is exam number 10.
1. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an
autothrottle system is
a) mandatory
b)a matter of choice for the operator
c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
Answer:A
2. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated
a) automatically
b)by a selector on the throttle control panel
c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum
Answer:C
Answer:C
8. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
a) the system degrades to CAT II
b)the autoland is continued
c) a go-around is initiated
Answer:C
9. The order of autoland approach is
a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b)GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
Answer:A
10. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to
a) assist with localiser tracking
b)assist with glideslope tracking
c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
Answer:C
This is exam number 11.
Answer
1.23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C CBBABBABB
1. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot
b)fail operational
c) fail redundant
10. A fail passive system in the event of failure will
a) produce a significant out of trim condition
b)produce no significant out of trim condition
c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
This is exam number 12.
Answer
1.23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B CBBBACBBA
1. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a
a) simplex system
b)duplex system
c) dual-dual system
b)Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
7. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are
open circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b)Put a set resistance across the terminals
c) Leave the terminals open circuit
c) 5 degree
b)120 nm
c) 140 nm
10. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature , the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
b)090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
b)200v ac
c) High voltage stepped up
6. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the
output reading is
a) zero
b)full scale deflection
c) centre scale
7. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would
a) increase capacitive reactance
b)increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance
8. Float fuel gauge system is
a) adjusted when tanks are full
b)adjusted when tanks are empty
c) cannot be adjusted
9. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are
a) bulkheads
b)longerons
c) frame
10. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
a) excessive electrical loading
b)high charge current
c) low charge current
This is exam number 19.
Answer
1.2 3 45 6 7 89 10
B BACCBACBB
1. With engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1.
a) This is normal
b)You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
c) You would adjust the Tx
2. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would
carry out
a) damping and periodicity checks
b)damping and pivot friction check
c) damping and alignment checks
3. The specific gravity readings of a leadacid cell taken twice after
charging shows substantially lower value.
a) Cell is defective
b)You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell
4. Suppressor line is required for
a) ATC and DME only
b)TCAs only
c) all L band equipments including TCAS
5. Differential GPS requires
a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
b)4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter
6. GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
forceentrifugal force
b)PCDU (power control distribution unit)entrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
c) SPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
10. As you approach supersonic speedentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
a) total drag is increasedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
b)lift is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
c) thrust is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
BCAAABCBBC
1. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
b)a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
2. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic
conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main
earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b)1 ohm
c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less
3. Mach trim in some aircraft assists
a) longitudinal stability
b)lateral stability
c) vertical stability
4. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central
b)no signal
c) excess signals
This is exam number 26.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B BBAAABAAA
1. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
b)the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection
2. Servo tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
b)move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
3. Spring Tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
b)move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
4. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of
a) 20 degrees per millisecond
b)30 degrees per millisecond
c) 15 degrees per millisecond
c) negative if northerly
8. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
9. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from
above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the
helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
b)Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
10. A spring balance control system you
a) can move the control surface on the ground
b)can move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) cannot move the control surface on the ground
5. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
a) blade alignment
b)centrifugal force and lift
c) centrifugal force only
5. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path
a) balance
b)restore
c) align
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 910
B ABBAABBCC
1. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should
consider
a) power requirements
b)the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
c) the diameter of cables
2. GPS has
a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b)24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9
3. Audio select panel voice switch
a) allows voice ident of DME
b)cuts "beeps" from DME signal
c) disables DME voice ident
4. GPS frequency is
a) 1575 GHz
b)1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz
5. Radio switches are normally
a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b)latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
BAACABBBBB
1. In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director
pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
b)speed decrease
c) height decrease
2. Back beam is captured
a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b)this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode
3. With a bonding meter
a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead to
item
b)the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
c) it does not matter which lead goes where
4. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
a) higher
b)lower
c) higher or lower
5. Flight director incompatible modes are
a) VOR and glideslope
b)heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold
6. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?
b)120 nm
c) 130 nm
7. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?
a) c/a code only
b)c/a code and P code
c) P code only
8. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a
helicopter. The primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
b)design of engine and gearbox supports
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
9. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from
a) rad alt to barometric
b)rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
10. On power up, the IRS obtains position
a) latitude from previous position
b)longitude from previous position
10
C
b)+/-40 degrees
c) +/-60 degrees
9. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to
aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates
a) 30 degrees
b)90 degrees
c) 60 degrees
10. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous
voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b)conductive paint
c) earth primary conductors
This is exam number 33.
Answer
1.23 4 56 789 10
C CBBCACCAA
1. In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of
a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
b)5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier
b)attitude of aircraft
c) rate of yaw
8. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed
a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
b)in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
c) to assist the up going aileron
9. Glideslope deviation signals are
a) DC polarity sensitive
b)AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only
10. A triplex system loses one channel
a) pilot can continue with autoland
b)pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land
This is exam number 34.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
C AAAACCABC
1. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority
b)50% authority
c) 10% authority
2. Stall warning will be given
a) before stall
b)after stall
c) at stall
3. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central
maintenance function (CMF) is to
a) log relevant maintenance data
b)transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
4. How are spoilers normally operated?
a) Hydraulic actuator
b)Air pistons
c) Electrical motors
stabiliser
b)after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the
elevator
3. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to
a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b)prevents slip and skid in yaw
c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
4. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
a) differentiating deviation signals
b)integrating deviation signals
c) integrating course error signals
5. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer
would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b)the pointer to read mid scale
c) the pointer to read full scale
6. The instantaneous VSI is designed to
a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
b)use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
7. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of
precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
b)decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
8. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
b)longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
9. The glideslope equipment operates in the
a) HF band
b)UHF band
c) VHF band
10. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
b)aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
b)capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade
3. EICAS provides the following
a) engine parameters
b)engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
4. The stabiliser is set to high setting when
a) the flaps are moving down
b)the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
5. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the
system
a) operational
b)passive
c) simplex
6. DSR TK (desired track) means
a) the bearing to capture the track
b)a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
c) distance left or right from desired track
7. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from
a) the barometric alt capsule
b)a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
8. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall.
This is called
a) transient droop
b)static droop
c) under swing
9. Loran C Uses
a) 16 Khz
b)20 Mhz
c) 100 Khz
10. The amount of travel of a series actuator is
a) 50% of control movement
b)10% of control movement
c) full control movement
This is exam number 38.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
B ABABCBABC
1. GPS Telemetry consists of
a) week number and time label
b)satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information
2. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum
flap at
a) 90o
b)180o
c) 0o
3. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by
a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
b)JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8
4. The rotor disc is
a) the distance between tip to tip
b)the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
5. A DME is in auto stand by when
a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
b)the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
This is exam number 41.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 910
C BBABAABCB
1. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b)Radio deviation
c) Course deviation
2. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct
sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
b)Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
3. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
b)When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
4. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
10. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b)25 miles
c) 40 miles
This is exam number 42.
Answer
1.2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
A AACBAAABB
1. With a spring balance control system you can
a) move the control surface on the ground
b)move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground
2. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
a) 50 ohms
b)20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
3. Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
b)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made
4. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
a) remains at the neutral position
b)controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position
b)Pulse
c) FM and Pulse
This is exam number 44.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C ABAAAAABB
1. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a
turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input
signal
b)They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
c) They disappear out of view
2. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?
a) Normal
b)Longitudinal
c) Lateral
a) 0.5 ohms
b)1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms
This is exam number 45.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
10
1.2 3 4 56 7 8 9 10
B BABCBABAC
1. ADF is
a) Rho
b)Theta
c) Rho-Theta
2. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
b)absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
3. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and
a) relative air flow
b)tip path plane
c) horizontal axis
4. If cyclic is moved to the right
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
b)the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
5. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b)2 - 6 GHz
c) 100 KHz
6. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack
a) underswing
b)overswing
c) a hole in one
6. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the
same level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b)it will display the airfield height above sea level
c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
c) fully articulating
2. Earths atmosphere is
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b)4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
Answer
1.2 34 5 6 7 8 9 10
C ACBCABABA
1. Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b)can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted
2. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA
will
a) increase
b)decrease
c) remain
9. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
b)Elevons
c) Ailerons
10. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator
give?
a) Up Elevator
b)Left rudder
c) Down elevator
This is exam number 52.
Answer
1.2 3 4 56 7 8 9 10
B AABCAAABA
1. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
b)Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
2. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?
a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b)Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only
3. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?
a) Heading error
b)Course error
c) Radio deviation
a) aerodynamic damping
b)the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief
10. ADF operates within which frequencies?
a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b)118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32KHz - 64 KHz
This is exam number 53.
Answer
1.23 4 56 7 8 9 10
B CAA? AAACC
1. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?
a) Roll out
b)Flare
c) Touchdown
2. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is
a) DME Freq
b)LNAV
c) CRZ
3. Mode C response is
a) 21 microseconds
b)12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds
4. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude
reporting system?
c) roll
6. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires
a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
b)2 ground stations and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites
7. The term 'circulating currents' refer to
a) AC generators
b)AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators
8. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you
only have one to dispatch the aircraft.
Where do you fit it?
a) LH side
b)RH side
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
9. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b)aircraft flies along the runway centre line
c) aircraft flies in circles
10. DME how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b)Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
This is exam number 55.
Answer
1.23 4 5 6 7 8 910
C ? BBAAAACB
1. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a
dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohmmeter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms
b)200 ohms
c) more than 20 megohms
c) +/- 62
This is exam number 56.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
B AAABCBAAA
1. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI
indicates
a) 90
b)180
c) 0
2. In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
a) flaps are retracted
b)landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
3. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds
after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the
station?
a) 96 nautical miles
b)100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles
4. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the
aircraft?
a) 10
b)5
c) 2.5
5. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
a) 2-30 MHz
b)118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz
6. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals
a) above the carrier signal
b)below the carrier signal
c) No sidebands present
7. On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning
a) would initiate a Go Around
b)audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only
8. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
b)can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver
9. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying
pressure
a) to the control wheel
31.24 56 7 8 9 10
CC CACAAAAC
8. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
a) stationary
b)fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
9. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by
a) 29cm
b)59cm
c) 70cm
3. An isotropic radiator
a) is an end fed π/2 unipole
c) ground services
2. Bandwidth of HF transmission is
a) 1khz
b)1.5khz
c) 3khz
3. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?
a) More deviation
b)More variation
c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only
4. GPS
a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
b)uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
5. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect
a) galley services
b)IFE
c) first officers transfer bus
6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make
a) TA
b)RA
c) either RA or TA
7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?
7. A split flap
a) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted
b)forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted
c) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
8. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. The
aircraft will enter MCP SPD mode when
a) APP switch is pressed
b)the aircraft captures the glideslope
c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal
9. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set
a) in the workshop
b)by the manufacturer
c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is
obtained
10. Airspeed hold is a
a) pitch mode
b)lateral mode
c) heading mode
This is exam number 66.
Answer
1.234 56 7 8 910
? ? ? A? BBCC?
4. An anti-servo tab
a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
b)moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the
pilot
c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist
the pilot
5. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would use
a) 3 phase AC
b)Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter
c) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter
6. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will be
a) 300m
b)400m
c) 800m
7. ADF quadrantal error will be at
a) 0 Degrees
b)45 Degrees
c) 90 Degrees
8. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing
a) trailing edge
b)leading edge lower surface
c) leading edge upper surface
9. A plain flap
a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface
b)When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface
c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing
10. Compass error Q corrections correct
a) A error
b)B error
c) C error