ELECTRONICS SYSTEM & TECHNOLOGIES

**Biomedical Technology**
1.

A mammography service examined 327 patients

during the third calendar quarter of 1996. 719 films
were exposed during this period, eight of which were
repeats. What is the repeat rate?
a. 45.5%
b. code 2.45% c. 1.1% d. 54.52%
ANS. 1.1%

2.

A type of luminescence where the visible light is

emitted only during the stimulation of the phosphor.
a. fluorescence b. phosphorescence c. after glow
d. any of the above
ANS. Fluorescence

3.

If a heart measures 12.5 cm from side to side at its

widest point, and its image on chest radiograph
measures 14.7 cm, what is the magnification factor?
a. 0.85 b. 1.18 c. 0.15
d. 2.2
ANS. 1.18
MF= (image size)/(object size)
MF= (14.7 cm)/(12.5 cm)
MF= 1.18

4.

5.

6.

Radiation doses in the range of approximately200 to

1000 rad produce the
a. Gastrointestinal (GI) syndrome
b. Central Nervous System (CNS) syndrome
c. Hematologic syndrome
d. Prodomal syndrome
ANS. Hematologic syndrome
Ratio of incident to transmitted radiation through a
grid ratio of patient dose with and without grid
a. Bucky factor b. Damadian factor c. Grid ratio
d. Roentgen equivalent
ANS. Bucky factor
A radiographic single-phase unit installed in a private
office has a maximum capacity of 100 milliseconds of
120kVp and 500mA. What is the power rating?
a. 42 kW
b. 60 kW
c. 600W
d. 24kW
ANS 42 Kw
Power rating=(0.7)x (mA x kVp)/1000
Power rating=(0.7)x ((500)(120))/1000

Power rating=42 kW
7.

Who completes the development of first computed

tomographic (CT) scanner (EMI, Ltd.) in 1973?
a. Mistretta
b. Forssmann
c. Kuhl
d. Hounsfield
ANS. Hounsfield

8.

It is the study of the response of an image receptor to

x-rays
a. sensitometry b. xeroradiography
c.
xeroradiometry
d. spectrometry
ANS. Sensitometry

9.

Ratio of radiographic contrast with a grid to that

without a grid
a. grid ratio
b. contrast improvement factor
c. Collidge factor
d. Bucky factor
ANS. contrast improvement factor

10. Analysis of persons irradiated therapeutically with

superficial x-rays has shown that the skin erythema
dose required to affect 50% of persons so irradiated is
about
a. 200 rad
b. 400 rad
c. 600 rad
d. 800 rad
ANS. 600 rad
11. ECG recording requires a bandwidth of 0.05 to ___Hz
a. 1000
b. 540
c. 100
d. 40
ANS.100
12. Find the potential generated if blood flowing in a
vessel with radius 0.9 cm cuts a magnetic field of 250
G. Assume a volume flow rate of 175 cubic cm per
second.
a. 206 uV
b. 309 uV c. 903 uV
d. 260 uV
ANS. 309 uV
E= QB/50a
E= ((175 cc.s)(250 G))/(50(0.9cm))
E= 309 uV
13. Period during which heart contracts.
a. Diastole
b. Systole c. block mode
Synapse
ANS. Systole
14. Apparatus for measuring blood pressure
a. defibrillator
b. electrocardiogram
c. plethysmograph
d. sphygmomanometer
ANS d. sphygmomanometer

d.

15. Given the energy level of 6.624x10^-18 J imparted to

an electron stream by an X-ray device, calculate the
frequency in MHz.
a. 10^6 MHz
b. 45.29 MHz c. 10^10 MHz
d.
300 MHz
ANS. 10^10 MHz
f= E/h
f= (6.624x10^(-18) J)/(6.624x10^(34) J-s)
f= 10^10 MHz
16. It was first noted by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and won
Albert Einstein the Nobel Prize in 1905. It refers to the
emission of electrons from a clean metallic surface
(phototube) when electromagnetic radiation (light
waves or X-rays) falls onto that surface.
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Compton effect
c. Bremsstrahlung
d. Mie effect
ANS. Photoelectric effect
17. Unit of radiation exposure or amount of X-ray
radiation that will produce 2.08x10^9 ion pairs per
cubic centimetre of air at standard temperature and
pressure (STP).
a. Curie
b. Roentgen
c. Radiation absorbed dose (rad)
d. Gray
ANS. Roentgen
18. An optical electronic device that measures the color
concentration of a substance in solution.
a. colorimeter
b. flame photometer
c. spectrophotometer d. chromatograph
ANS.colorimeter
19. Recording of heart sounds
a. ultracardiography
b. cardioacoustics
c. electrocardiogram
d. phonocardiography
ANS. Phonocardiography
20. Recorder for measuring galvanic skin resistance
a. electrodermograph
b. electromyograph
c. electrocorporealograph d. electrogalvanograph
ANS.electrodermograph

**Digital and Data Communications**

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

It consists of 36 unique codes representing the 10

digits and 26 uppercase letters
a. Discrete code
b. code 39 c. continuous code
d. 20 code
ANS.code 39
The first fixed- length character code developed for
machines rather than for people
a. ASCII Code b. Gray Code c. EBCDIC code
d. Baudot Code
ANS.Baudot Code

14. A bit pattern or a character added to the beginning

and the end of a frame to separate the frames
a. Flag b. Firewall c. Frameguard d. Footprint
ANS.Flag
7.

Inaccuracies caused by the representation of a

continuously varying quantity as one of a number of
discrete values.
a. alias signal b. slope overload c. distortion d.
quantizing errors
ANS.quantizing errors

8.

Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using

knowledge of the way in which voice sounds are
produced:
a. vocoder b. codec c. sample-and-hold circuit
d. ADC
ANS.vocoder

The early pioneer in the development of errordetection and correction procedures:

a. Richard W. Hamming b. William R. Hamming c.
Emile Baudot d. Samuel Baudot
ANS. Richard W. Hamming
The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for
error detection
a. checksum b. LRC c. CRC d. VRC
ANS.CRC
For the given parameters, determine the energy per
bit-to noise power density ratio
C = 10e-12 W
fb = 60 kbps
N = 1.2 x 10e-14`W
B = 120 kHz
a. 16.2 dB b. 14.2 dB c. 20.2 dB
d.
22.2 dB
ANS.22.2 dB
;

A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is

positive with its voltage one-half the maximum value.
What proportion of the maximum output voltage is
produced?
a. 0.786Vmax
b. 0.876Vmax c. 0.867Vmax
d. 0.678Vmax
ANS.0.876Vmax

9.

A coding scheme that records the change in signal

level since the precious sample
a. unipolar code b. PPM c. PCM d. delta
modulation
ANS.delta modulation

10. Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate

when coding an analog signal for digital transmission
a. aliasing b. foldover distortion c. either a or b
d. neither a nor b
ANS.either a or b
11. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only
an average of 12000 frames per minute with each
frame carrying an average of 10000 bits. What is the
throughput of this network?
a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps
ANS.2 Mbps
Throughput= (12 000 x 10 000)/60 = 2 Mbps
12. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB
above 40. What is the minimum number of bits?
a. 3.56 b. 5.63 c. 6.35 d. 3.65
ANS6.35
SNRdB = 6.02nb + 1.76 = 40
n = 6.35
13. The thick coaxial cable implementation of standard
Ethernet
a. 1000 Base-T b. 10 Base-T c. 10 Base 2 d.
10 Base 5
ANS.10 Base 5

15. An IPv4 has an address space of how many?

a. 4294967296 b. 6927694924 c. 2449692769
d. 9672969442
ANS. 4294967296
232 = 4294967296
16. What is the bit rate of STS 1?
a. 51.84 Mbps b. 64 kbps c. 100 Mbps d. 2.4
GHz
ANS.51.84 Mbps
17. A block coding technique in which four bits are
encoded into a five bit code
a. Baudot b. 2B1Q Encoding c. 4B/5B Encoding
d. 4A/5A Encoding
ANS.4B/5B Encoding
18. A national standards organization that defines
standards in the United States
a. ANSI b. FCC c. ITU d. CCITT
ANS.ANSI
19. In asynchronous transmission, one or more bits to
indicate the end of transmission
a. trailer b. flag c. escape byte d. stop bit
ANS.stop bit
20. What is the overhead (number of extra bits) in the DS3 service?
a. 1.368 Mbps b. 1.480 Mbps c. 2.048 Mbps d.
6.024 Mbps
ANS.1.368 Mbps
**Electronics/Communications**
1.

The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist

Theorem
a. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
b. equal to the highest frequency of a signal
c. twice the bandwidth of a signal
d. twice the highest frequency of a signal
ANS.twice the highest frequency of a signal

2.

It is used in wireless applications in which stations

must be able to share the medium without

interception by an eavesdropper and without being

subject to jamming from a malicious intruder
a. modulation
b. Multiple access
c. multiple access
d. Spread spectrum
ANS.spread spectrum
3.

4.

d. five
ANS. Two
10101 XOR 11001 = 01100 ( presence of two 1)
9.

An error detection method which uses ones

complement arithmetic
a. Checksum
b. CRC
c. Simple-parity check
d. Two-dimensional parity check
ANS.Checksum
It is a connecting device between two internetworks
that use different models
a. Bridge
b. Gateway
c. Repeater
d. router
ANS.gateway

5.

It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of

data due to circuitry action which causes bits to arrive
at different times
a. alias
b. impulse
c. jitter
d. parity
ANS.jitter

6.

In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input

voltage level to the smallest voltage level that can be
quantized
a. Dynamic range
b. Figure of merit
c. Quality factor
d. Noise figure
ANS.Dynamic range

7.

A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using

a time slot of 2 bits, determine the frame duration.
a. 20s
b. 50s
c. 100s
d. 400s
ANS.20s

8.

Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords (

10101, 11001)
a. one
b. two
c. three

ANS. 3.6 dB
The total noise temperature of the antenna and
receiver is NTtot = 75+ 300 = 375.
The noise temperature is given by:
where: NT noise temp, NR = Noise
ratio
Rearranging the above to find NR gives:
NR = (375/290) +1 = 2.29
The Noise figure is the decibel equivalent of the noise
ratio, such that:
NF = 10 log NR = 3.6 dB

An address space is the total number of addresses

used by the protocol, such as IPv4 and IPv6. What
is the address space of IPv6?
a. 232
b. 264
c. 296
d. 2128
ANS.2128

10. It is a standard designed by ITU to allow telephones

in the public telephone network to talk to
computers/terminals connected to the internet
a. H. 111
b. H.123
c. H.321
d. H. 323
ANS.323

3.

The modulation index of an AM radio station is 0.75. If

the carrier power is 500W, what is the total
transmitted power?
a. 391 W
b. 438 W
c. 641 W
d. 688 W
ANS.641 W

4.

An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal

oscillator to generate a very stable 108MHz final
carrier frequency. The output of the crystal oscillator
is fed to a x36 multiplier circuit then mixed with a 34.5
MHz signal. The sum output of the mixer is filtered
out, while the difference is fed to another multiplier in
order to generate the final carrier frequency. What is
the multiplier value?
a. 108
b. 3
c. 1.5
d. 72
ANS. 72
Basic Block Diagram of the FM carrier generator:
1 MHz carrier > x 36 > Mixer > Multiplier >
108MHz carrier

11. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000

pixels. If each pixel uses 1024 colors, how many bits
are needed to send the complete contents of a
screen?
a. 12 Gigabits
b. 1. 2 Gigabits
c. 120 Megabits
d. 12 Megabits
ANS.12 Megabits
1,200 times 1000 pixels x 10 bits = 12 Mb
1024 colors requires 10 bits , 210 = 1024

First Multiplier output:

1MHz x 36 = 36 MHz
Mixer output:
36MHz + 34.5 MHz = 70.5MHz (filtered output)
36MHz 34.5 MHz = 1.5 MHz (difference fed
to the next multiplier)
Multiplier stage:
Output = 108MHz
Output = 1.5MHz x n
N = 108/1.5
= 72

**Laws and Ethics, Analog and Digital Electronics,

Microelectronics, Power Line Communications**
1. The sensitivity of a radio receiver is given in terms of
dBm. If the receiver is receiving 200 mW, what is the
corresponding dBm of this signal?
a. 46dBm
b. -46 dBm
c. 23 dBm
d. -23 dBm
ANS.23 dBm
dBm for 200 mW = 10 log (200mW/1mW) = 23 dBm
2.

An antenna with a noise temperature of 75 Kelvin is

connected to a receiver input with a noise
temperature of 300 K. Given the reference
temperature T0 = 290 K, find the noise figure of the
system.
a. 0.97 dB
b. 3.6 dB
c. 6.02 dB
d. 7.2 dB

**Electronic Communications**
1.

A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the

upper frequency is double the lower frequency.
a. bandwidth b. frequency doubler c. octave d.
harmonics

ANS.octave
2.

3.

Determine the worst-case output S/N for a

narrowband FM receiver with deviation maximum of
10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3
kHz. The S/N input is 3:1.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16
ANS. 10

a. inductive
b. capacitive c. parallel-resonant
d. series-resonant
ANS.parallel-resonant
5.

A small variable capacitance in parallel with each

section of ganged capacitor is called _______.
a. trimmer
b. converter c. padder d.
autodyne
ANS. trimmer
6.

**EST**
1.

2.

3.

How many wavelengths long are required for a pair of

conductors to be considered as a transmission line?
a.

b.
c.
1/10
d. 5/8
ANS.1/10
Determine the time taken for a signal to travel down a
10 m transmission line, if its velocity factor is 0.7.
a. 23.33 ns
b. 14.52ns
c. 76.8 s
d. 47.6 ns
ANS. 47.6 ns
T= L/ (Vf x Vc)
T= 10 m/ (0.7)(3x108 m/s)
T= 47.6 ns
The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U
foam coaxial cable is 52 V and its minimum voltage is
17 V. How many percent of the incident power is the
reflected power?
a. 51%
b. 26%
c. 3%
d. 97%
ANS.26%
2 = Pr/Pi
= SWR-1
SWR+1

; SWR = Vmax/ Vmin = 52/17 = 3.05

= 3.05 1 = 0.51
3.05 +1
Thus : 2 = (0.51)2 = 0.26
The reflected power is 26 % of the incident power
:
4.

At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited

transmission line behaves as a(an) ___________
circuit.

7.

8.

.
9.

Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns

delay of a 4 MHz signal to a 75-ft cable with a
dielectric constant of 2.3.
a. 108 degrees
b. 4.8 degrees c. 52
degrees d. 250 degrees
ANS.108 degrees
= 360 td / T
T =1/f = 1 / 4MHz = 250 ns
= 360 (75) / 250 = 108 degrees
Which of the following is a flat conductor separated by
an insulating dielectric from a large ground plane that
is usually one-quarter or one-half wavelength long?
a. stripline
b. microstrip
c. twin-lead wire
d. shielded-pair
ANS. microstrip
One complete revolution around a Smith Chart
represents _________ wavelengths.
a.
b.
c. 1
d. 2
ANS.
A mismatched transmission line is also referred to as
a ___________ line.
a. lossy
b. lossless
c. non-resonant
d. resonant
ANS.resonant
It is the ratio of the speed of propagation on a line to
that of light in free-space.
a. velocity factor b. refractive index c. dielectric
constant d. standing-wave ratio
ANS.velocity factor

10. Which of the following is the most widely used UTP

cable that can carry baseband data at rates up to 100
Mbps at a range up to 100m?
a. CAT 4
b. CAT 5
c. CAT 5e
d. CAT 6
ANS.CAT 5
11. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the
unmodulated carrier value is 85V. What is the
modulation index?
a.0.47
b. 1.47
c. 0.68
d. 0.32
ANS.0.47

m = Em/ Ec
Emax = Ec + Em ; Em = Emax Ec = 125 85 = 40 V
m = 40V/ 85V = 0.47
12. The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast
transmitter with a carrier power of 50kW when
modulated 80 percent is:
a. 62.5kW
b. 66W
c. 66kW
d. 40kW
ANS.66kW
Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2)
Pt = 50,000 ( 1 + 0.82 /2)
Pt = 66,000 W
Pt = 66kW
13. One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great
deal of power. Which of the following is the reason
why it is not widely used?
a. the signal occupies a narrow bandwidth b. the
signal has a low S/N
c. the signal is
weak at high frequencies
d. the signal is difficult
to demodulate
ANS.The signal is difficult to demodulate
14. If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the
system is called a _______________________.
a. low level modulator
b. highlevel modulator
c. differentialamplifier modulator
d. lattice modulator
ANS.high-level modulator
15. input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the
frequency deviation caused by the noise if the
modulating frequency is 1.5KHz and the permitted
deviation is 4KHz?
a. 1,460.8 Hz
b. 547.8 Hz
c. 2.67 Hz
d. 4,107.3 Hz
ANS.547.8 Hz
-1 N/S = sin -1 1/2.8 = 0.3652
16. What circuit is used to return the frequency response
of a signal to its normal, flat level?
a. pre-emphasis
b. de-emphasis c. carrierrecovery d. frequency-multiplier
ANS. de-emphasis
17. It is the most common means of overcoming the
problems of quantizing error and noise.

a. multiplexing
b. companding
c. amplifying
d. anti-aliasing
ANS. companding
18. ________________ means that the characteristics
and performance of an antenna are the same whether
the antenna is radiating or intercepting an
electromagnetic signal.
a. antenna reciprocity
b. antenna
polarization
c. antenna grounding
d. tower sway
ANS. antenna reciprocity

3.

4.

An antenna's beamwidth is measured

a. from +90 to 90
b. between half-power points
c. from front to back
d. between the minor side-lobes
ANS. between half-power points

5.

"Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's

radiation pattern caused by
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
ANS. radio signals reflecting off the ground

19. Which of the following methods is used to lower the

resonant frequency of a shortened vertical antenna?
a. loading coil b. top hat loading
c. drooping
radials
d. grounding
ANS.top hat loading
20. Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a
parabolic antenna that has a diameter of 3 m, an
efficiency of 60% and operates at a frequency of 4
GHz.
a. 39.8 dBi
b. 41.94 dBi
c.
37.66dBi
d. 79.53 dBi
ANS. 39.8 dBi
G=
2 D2/ 2
= 3x108/ 4MHz = 0.075 m

6.

0.0752
G= 9474.8
G = 10 log 9474.8
G = 39.8 dBi
21. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators
used at the ends of the wire antenna.
a. skin effect
b. end effect
c. faraday
effect d. miller effect
ANS.end effect

7.

**Electronics System & Technologies**

8.

1.

2.

A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67

ohms and a loss resistance of 5 ohms, measured at
the feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency.
a. 90%
b. 91%
c. 92%
d. 93%
ANS. 93%
Efficiency = Rr / Rt = 67 / (67 + 5) = 93%
Two antennas have gains of 5.3 dBi and 4.5 dBd,
respectively. Which has a greater gain?
a. The first antenna has a higher gain.

b. The second antenna has a higher gain.

c. Both antennas have the same gain
d. Cannot be determined
ANS. The second antenna has a higher gain.\
A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. Marconi antenna
b. Yagi antenna
c. Hertz antenna
d. none of the choices
ANS. Hertz antenna

9.

An antenna can be matched to a feed line using

a. a shorted stub
b. an LC network
c. a loading coil
d. all of the choices
ANS. all of the choices
As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased
a. the number of lobes increases
b. efficiency decreases
c. the number of nodes decreases
d. none of the above
ANS. . the number of lobes increases
LPDA stands for
a. Low-Power Dipole Array
b. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
c. Low-Power Directed Array
d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
Field strength at a distance from an antenna is
measured with
a. a slotted line
b. an EIRP meter
c. a dipole

d. a field-strength meter
ANS. a field-strength meter
10. A receiving antenna with a built-in preamplifier
a. active antenna
b. passive antenna
c. coil
d. LC antenna
ANS. active antenna
11. Which of the following is not a reason why most halfwave antennas are mounted horizontally at low
frequencies?
a. physical construction is easier
b. more cost-effective
c. mounting is easier
d. support is easier
ANS. more cost-effective
12. The shape of the electromagnetic energy radiated
from or received by an antenna is called the
a. signal shape
b. electromagnetic pattern
c. radiation pattern
d. antenna pattern
ANS. radiation pattern
13. Antennas that transmit an equal amount of energy in
the horizontal direction are called
a. bi-directional
b. unidirectional
c. omnidirectional
d. unilateral
ANS. omnidirectional
14. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals
over a narrow horizontal directional range is referred
to as
a. focal factor
b. permittivity
c. directivity
d. horizontal range
ANS. directivity
15. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus
one or more additional conductors that are not
connected to the transmission line form a
a. parasitic array
b. bi-directional array
c. half-wave dipole
d. counterpoise
ANS. parasitic array

16. An antenna made up of a driven element and one or

more parasitic elements is generally referred to as a
a. Hertz antenna
b. Marconi antenna
c. collinear antenna
d. Yagi antenna
ANS. Yagi antenna
17. Which antennas usually consist of two or more halfwave dipoles mounted end to end?
a. Hertz
b. Marconi
c. collinear
d. Yagi
ANS. collinear
18. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave
dipoles spaced from one another by one-half
wavelengths is the
a. broadside array
b. end-fire array
c. wide-bandwidth array
d. parasitic array
ANS. broadside array
19. When the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line matches the output impedance of
the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna
itself,
a. the SWR will be 10:1
b. the SWR will be 1:10
c. minimum power transfer will take place
d. maximum power transfer will take place
ANS. maximum power transfer will take place
20. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced
transmission line of a specific impedance connected
between a load and a source in order to match
impedances is
a. a balun
b. an autotransformer
c. a Q section
d. dummy load
ANS. a Q section
21. By how much should two antennas be separated for
space diversity in the 11 GHz band?
a. 5.5 m
b. 7.5m
c. 9.5m
d. 11.5m
ANS.5.5 m

22. What is the phase velocity of a rectangular waveguide

with a wall separation of 3 cm and a desired
frequency of operation of 6 GHz?
a. 3.45 x 108 m/s b. 4.35 x 108 m/s c. 4.53 x 108 m/s d.
5.43 x 108 m/s
ANS.5.43 x 108 m/s
23. A transmitter and a receiver is 45 km apart. Suppose
that there is an obstacle midway between the
transmitter and receiver. By how much must the path
between the towers clear the obstacle in order to
avoid diffraction at a frequency of 11 GHz?
a. 17.52 m b. 10.51 m c. 8.76 m d. 7.52 m
ANS. 10.51 m
24. How far from the transmitter could a signal be
received if the transmitting and receiving antennas
where 40 m and 20 m, respectively, above level
terrain?
a. 44.5 km b. 45.4 km c. 54.4 km d. None of the
choices
ANS.44.5 km
25. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of
electric intensity change between two further walls,
and no component of the electric field in the direction
of propagation. The mode is
a. TE11 b. TE10 c. TM22 d. TE20
ANS. TE20
26. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return
loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator,
and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much
power is dissipated in the load?
a. 1 W b. 851 mW c. 750 mW d. 638 mW
ANS.638 mW
27. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return
loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator,
and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much
power returns to the source?
a. 250 mW b. 350 W c. 535 W d. 690 W
ANS. 5.43 x 108 m/s
28. It is a microwave device that allows RF energy to
pass through in one direction with very little loss, but
absorbs RF power in the opposite direction.
a. multiplexer b. circulator c. isolator d. wave trap
ANS.isolator

29. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna

aperture to eliminate sidelobes interfering nearby
stations is called
a. radome b. shield c. shroud d. bass drum
ANS.shroud
30. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
_________.
a. is greater than in free space
b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and
the free space wavelength
c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. is directly proportional to the group velocity
ANSWER:is greater than in free space
31. Geostationary satellites are located at ____ with
respect to the equator.
a. 00 longitude b. 00 latitude
c. 450 longitude
d. 900 latitude
ANS. 00 latitude
32. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the
______ ratio.
a. S/N b. G/T c. C/N d. EIRP
ANS. G/T
33. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by
several kHz during a low earth orbit satellite pass?
a. The distance between the satellite and ground
station is changing, causing the Kepler effect
b. The distance between the satellite and ground
station is changing, causing the Bernoulli effect
c. The distance between the satellite and ground
station is changing, causing the Boyles Law effect
d. The distance between the satellite and ground
station is changing, causing the Doppler effect
ANS. The distance between the satellite and
ground station is changing, causing the Doppler
effect
1.

The most ambitious LEO constellation to date is

______.
a. Iridium
b. NAVSTAR
c. Teledesic
d. Globalstar
ANS.Teledesic

2.

A satellite-dish owner has a 3 meter dish designed for

C-band (4 GHz) operation. The owner wants to use
the same dish with a new feedhorn, for Ku-band (12
GHz) satellites. What effect will the change in

frequency have on the gain and beamwidth of the

antenna?
a. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth
decreases to 1/3 of its former value.
b. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth
decreases to 1/3 of its former value.
c. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth increases
to thrice of its former value.
d. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth
increases to thrice of its former value.
ANS. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth
decreases to 1/3 of its former value.

3.

4.

5.
3.

The moon orbits the earth with a period of

approximately 28 days. How far away is it? Assume
circular orbit.
a. 380 Mm b. 382 Mm c. 384 Mm d. 386 Mm
ANS.384 Mm

Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna

that is 200 m high and a receiving antenna that is 100
m high
a. 99.5km
b. 96.5 km
c. 95.87 km
d.
97.5 km
ANS. 99.
The height above the earths surface from which a
refracted wave appears to have been reflected
a. actual height
b. virtual height
c. average
height d. mean height
ANS. virtual height
The highest frequency that can be used for skywave
propagation between two specific points on earths
surface.
a. Critical Frequency
b. MUF c. Cut-off
frequency d. center frequency
ANS. Critical Frequency

4.

What is the length of the path to a geostationary

satellite from an Earth station if the angle of elevation
is 300?
a. 6400 km b. 39000 km c. 42400 km d. 46000 km
ANS.39000 km

6.

5.

What is the nominal uplink frequency for the Ku

band?
a. 6 GHz
b. 4 GHz
c. 14 GHz
d. 12 GHz
ANS. 14 GHz

**Communications / Broadcast**
1. An acoustical phenomenon wherein the sound
continues to persist after the cause of sound has
stopped resulting in repeated reflections is called
a. echo
b. reverberation
c. reflection
d. diffraction
ANS.reverberation

6.

To cover all inhabited regions of the earth, the

number of polar-orbit satellites required is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
ANS.1

2.

**Printing**
1. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave
propagation between two specific points on earths
surface.
a. Critical Frequency b. MUF
c. Cut-off
frequency
d. mid frequency
ANS. Critical Frequency
2.

Variation in signal loss caused by natural weather

disturbances.
a. attenuation
b. fading
c. spreading loss
d. weather loss
ANS. fading

3.

4.

5.

Determine the sound power in Watts produced by the

banks alarm if a by-stander heard the alarm at a
sound pressure level of 100 dB-SPL. The by-stander
is 100 ft away from the bank.
a. 56.85 W
b. 55.68 W
c. 58.56 W
d. 58.65 W
ANS. 58.65 W
PWL = SPL + 20 log D(m) + 8
PWL = 100 + 20 log (100/3.28) + 8 = 137.68 dB-PWL
137.68 = 10 log W + 120
W = log-1 [(137.68 120)/10]
W = 58.65 Watts

6.

A loudspeaker produces an SPL of 85dB-SPL at 1

meter distance and input electrical power of 1 W. How
loud is the SPL at distance of 20 meters if this
speaker is driven to 10 W of electrical power?
a. 82 dB-SPL
b. 69 dB-SPL
c. 65 dB-SPL
d. 79 dB-SPL
ANS. 69 dB-SPL
SPL@1m/1W = 85 dB-SPL (given)
SPL@20m/1W = 85 - 20 log (20m/1m) = 59 dB-SPL
SPL@20m/10W = 59 + 10 log (10W/1W) = 69 dBSPL

7.

A number from 0 to 1 representing the ability of a

surface material to absorb sound energy is known as
a. Sound absorption
c. Absorption Coefficient
b. Reflection coefficient
d. Room Constant
ANS.Absorption Coefficient

Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the

horizon level.
a. ground waves b. surface waves c. sky waves
d. space waves
ANS. sky waves

A group of filters has 1/3 octave of spacing. If the

initial frequency is 25 Hz, what is the next frequency
available for the filter?
a. 50 Hz
b. 12.5 Hz
c. 75 Hz
d. 31.5 Hz
ANS. 31.5 Hz
f2 = 2x f1 where x = 1/3, fraction of an octave
f2 = 21/3 x 25 = 31.5 Hz
+ 26 dBu is how many volts?
a. 7.75 V
b. 15.5 V
c. 31 V
d. 62 V
ANS. 15.5 V

V (dBu) = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 Volts ]

26 = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ]
26 / 20 = log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ] = 1.3
Voltage = log-1 (1.3) x 0.775 V
Voltage = 15.5 V
A type of microphone that uses the principle of a
capacitor as a means of transduction. It uses a
polarizing voltage of between 9 and 48 V of DC
supply applied to its diaphragm by an external power
supply.
a. Dynamic
b.Condenser
c. Ribbon
d.Carbon
ANS. Condenser

8.

The difference in dB between the loudest level of

sound and the softest passage of sound is known as
a. Headroom
b.
signal-to-noise ratio
c. gain
d.dynamic range
ANS. dynamic range

**Satellite Communications**
1. The height above mean sea level of a satellite in a

geosynchronous orbit around Earth is:

a. 35,786 miles
b. 35,786 NM
c. 35,786
feet
d. 35,786 km
ANS.35,786 km
2.

3.

4.

The location of a satellite is generally specified in

terms of
a. azimuth & elevation b. latitude & longitude
true morth d. bearing
ANS.latitude & longitude

c.

A point in the orbit of an object orbiting the earth that

is located closest to Earth.
a. perigee
b. apogee
c.
apex
d.
subsatellite point
ANS. perigee
Find the velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit 500
km above the earths surface.
a. 76 km/s
b.
76 m/s
c.
7.6
km/s
d. 7.6 km/s2
ANS. 7.6 km/s
4 x1011
Formula :
v

d 6400

Where : v = velocity in meters per second

d = distance above earths surface in km

4 x1011
(500 6400)

= 7.6 km/s
5.

Find the orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit

36,000 km above the earths surface if the earths
radius is 6400 km.
a. 1440 mins
b. 24 days
c. 3,600 sec
d. 1440 sec
ANS. 1440 mins
Formula :
Where :

C
v

T = orbital period
C = circumference
v = orbital velocity

C = 2 r
= 2 ( 6400 + 36,000 ) = 266.4 x 106 m
4 x1011
v
3.07km /s
(36,000 6400)
T

d. 526.5 to 1705 kHz

ANS. 526.5 to 1705 kHz
2.

Part of broadcasting in a day that refers to that period

of time between 1000 UTC to 2200 UTC. UTC stands
for Universal Time Coordinates.
a. daytime period
b. nighttime period
c. experimental period
d. primetime period
ANS. nighttime period

3.

An AM broadcast service area in which groundwave

field of 1mV/m (60dBu) is not subject to objectionable
interference or objectionable fading.
a. primary service area
b. secondary service area
c. intermittent service area
d. none among these
ANS. primary service area

4.

In antenna mast or tower construction, the required

obstruction painting and/or lighting must be imposed
on mast or tower more than from the ground level.
a. 100 ft
b. 150 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft
ANS. 150 ft

5.

Regarding the design of AM antenna, what should be

the polarization of the radiator?
a. horizontal
b. vertical
c. circular
d. elliptical
ANS. vertical

6.

As per Phillipine standard, what is the minimum

frequency separation in any service area for adjacent
AM radio stations?
a. 40 kHz
b. 200 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 300 kHz
ANS. 36 kHz

7.

What is the maximum power allowable for remote

pick-up stations used as broadcast auxillary services
for AM and FM broadcast stations?
a. 10 W
b. 15 W

C 266.4 x106 m

24hrs
v 3.07x103 m / s

or 1440 minutes
6.

7.

The outline of a communications satellite antenna

pattern on the earth is known as:
a. beam
b. propagation pattern
c. spot
d. footprint
ANS. footprint
Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary
satellite from an earth station where the angle of
satellite above earth is 36 X 103 km)
a. 36,000 km
b. 36,000 mi
c. 39,000 km
d. 39,000 mi.
ANS.39,000 km

Formula :
8.

9.

d (r h) (rcos) rsin
2

A satellite access technique where each earth station

transmits a short burst of information during a specific
slot.
time
a. FDMA
b. DAMA
c. TDMA
d.
SCADA
ANS. TDMA ( Time Division Multiple Access)
An earth station antenna look angle is determined by :
a. azimuth & elevation b. longitude & latitude c.
bearing
d. true north
ANS. azimuth & elevation

10. An ITU radiocommunication standards for satellite

services which provides information on the range of
frequencies that can be used by fixed satellite service
systems for emergency and disaster relief operations.
a. ITU-R M1854 b. ITU-R S 009 c. ITU-R
S.1001-2
d. ITU-R S.004
ANS.ITU-R S.1001-2
**Communications / Broadcast Engineering and
Acoustics**
1. As per Philippine standard, frequency allocation of
AM Radio Broadcasting is from
a. 535 to 1605 kHz
b. 526.5 to 1605 kHz
c. 535 to 1705 kHz

8.

9.

c. 35 W
d. 200 W
ANS. 35 W
What is the classification of an FM station having an
ERP not exceeding 30kW?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
ANS. Class B
What is the modulation used for the stereophonic
subcarrier of FM composite baseband signal?
a. AM DSB FC
b. AM DSB SC
c. AM SSB
d. AM VSB
ANS. AM DSB SC

10. What is the pilot subcarrier frequency used in FM

stereophonic transmission?
a. 15 kHz
b. 19 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 38 kHz
ANS.19 kHz
11. The output power of an FM transmitter is 5 kW. If the
power loss in transmission line is around 10 W and
the antenna has a power gain of 6 dB, what is the
ERP of the station in kW?
a. 5 kW
b. 30 kW
c. 20 kW
d. 19.96 kW
ANS. 19.96 kW
GANT = 6 dB = 4
ERP = (5000 10) x 4 = 4990 x 4 = 19,960 W or
19.96 kW
12. Frequency allocation of FM broadcast in the
Philippines
a. 535 1605 kHz
b. 88 108 MHz
c. 50 15000 Hz
d. 174 216 MHz
ANS. 88 108 MHz
13. What is the color TV system adopted by the
Philippines?
a. NTSC
b. PAL

c. SECAM
d. none among choices
ANS.NTSC
14. Exact value of color subcarrier frequency (MHz) is
a. 3.579554
b. 3.579455
c. 3.580545
d. 3.579545
ANS. 3.579545
15. Determine the visual carrier frequency of TV channel
9
a. 175.25 MHz
b. 187.25 MHz
c. 193.25 MHz
d. 199.25 MHz
ANS.187.25 MHz
fNLB = 174 + (N 7)6, using Arithmetic Progression
f9LB = 174 + (9 7)6 = 174 + (2)6 = 174 + 12 = 186
MHz, low band frequency of channel 9
fVC = 186 + 1.25 = 187.25 MHz, visual carrier
frequency of channel 9
16. What is the maximum allowable ERPs for channels 7
13 in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu?
a. 100 kW
b. 316 kW
c. 350 kW
d. 1 MW
ANS. 1 MW
17. At NTSC standard, the number of lines per frame =
________ lines/frame
a. 485
b. 525
c. 625
d. 585
ANS. 525
18. At NTSC standard, line frequency = 15734.264 Hz.
What is the equivalent line period?
a. 66.556 usec
b. 65.556 usec
c. 63.556 usec
d. 64.556 usec
ANS. 63.556 usec
fH = 15734.264 Hz
H = 1 / fH = 1 / 15734.264
H = 63.556 x 10-6 = 63.556 usec
19. Nominal RF bandwidth of NTSC TV channel
a. 4.2 MHz

b. 4.5 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 5.35 MHz
ANS. 6 MHz
20. A land mobile station used for the transmission of TV
program materials and related communications from
the scenes of events occuring at remote points from
TV broadcast station studios to TV broadcast station.
a. TV Pick-up station
b. TV STL station
c. TV Inter-city Relay station
d. TV Satellite link station
ANS.TV Pick-up station
21. For a total capacity of 36 Mbps and 64-QAM of digital
modulation, what is the ideal RF bandwidth?
a. 4 MHz
b. 5 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 7 MHz
ANS. 6 MHz
For a 64-QAM, the total number of symbol
combinations is 64 symbols and the number of bits to
produce this is
n = log2 64 = 6 bits per symbol
Therefore the ideal RF bandwidth is
BW = fB / n = 36 Mbps / 6 bits
BW = 6 MHz
22. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that
utilized ionosphere as a medium of transmission and /
or reception of radio signals?
a. ground wave
b. sky wave
c. space wave
d. all of these
ANS.sky wave
23. What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling at a
frequency of 220 MHz in a coaxial line having Teflon
foam as its dielectric, r = 2?
a. 1.0 m
b. 0.85 m
c. 0.96 m
d. 1.36 m
ANS. 0.96 m
c = 3 x 108 m/sec = 300 x 106 m/sec
velocity factor vf = 1 / sqrt (r) = 1 / sqrt (2) = 0.707 =
vP / c
Therefore the velocity of the radio signal in the coaxial
line is

vP = 0.707c = 0.707 (300 x 106) = 212,132,034.36

m/sec (or 212 x 106 m/sec approx.)
so that the wavelength of the signal is
= vP / f = 212 x 106 / 220 x 106 = 0.963636 m or
0.96 m approx.
24. What is the angle of refraction in a Teflon (r2 = 2)
medium of a radio wave from air (r1 = 1.0) if its angle
of incidence is 45?
a. 24
b. 26
c. 28
d. 30
ANS. 30
Using Snells Law
Sqrt (r1) sin i = Sqrt (r2) sin r
Sqrt (1) sin 45 = Sqrt (2) sin r
r = sin-1 [(Sqrt (1) sin 45) / Sqrt (2)] = sin-1 (0.5) = 30
25. An ionosphere layer also termed as absorption layer
because it absorbs most of the frequencies above
100 kHz is known as the layer.
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
ANS. D
26. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength
Classifications, what is the classification of Super
High Frequency?
a. metric
b. decimetric
c. centimetric
d. millimetric
ANS.centimetric
SHF band: 3 GHz 30 GHz
max = 3 x 108 / 3 x 109 = 0.1 m = 100 cm
min = 3 x 108 / 30 x 109 = 0.01 m = 1 cm
SHF band wavelength classification is ranging from 1
cm to 100 cm. Therefore it is centimetric wave.
27. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) separate
antennas and receivers for each single transmitter?
a. frequency diversity
b. space diversity
c. angle diversity
d. quadrature diversity
ANS.space diversity
28. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) different
frequencies in a simplex path?
a. frequency diversity

b. space diversity
c. angle diversity
d. quadrature diversity
ANS. frequency diversity

b. E
c. F1
d. F2
ANS. E

29. What is the critical frequency of a layer if the

maximum value of electron density is 2 x 106 per
cm3?
a. 11 MHz
b. 12 MHz
c. 13 MHz
d. 14 MHz
ANS.13 MHz
Nmax = 2 x 106 per cm3 = 2 x 106 x 106 per m3 = 2 x
1012 per m3
fc = 9 x sqrt (Nmax) = 9 x sqrt (2 x 1012)
fc = 12.73 MHz or 13 MHz approx.

33. A graph which shows the radiation in actual field

strength of electromagnetic fields at all points which
are at equal distance from the antenna is known as
a. Frequency Response
b. Radiation Pattern
c. Smith Chart
d. FCC F(50,50) Graph
ANS, Radiation Pattern

30. A radio communication link is to be established via

the ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of the
layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of the path and the
critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value
for the optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain
analysis.
a. 8.2 MHz
b. 8.3 MHz
c. 8.4 MHz
d. 8.5 MHz
ANS. 8.4 MHz
For flat terrain analysis, tan i = d/2hv
i = tan-1 [d/2hv] = tan-1 [500/2(110)] = tan-1 [2.273] =
66.25 angle of incidence
MUF = fc x sec i = fc / cos i = 4 / cos 66.25 = 4 / 0.40275
= 9.932 MHz via Secant Law
OWF = 0.85 x MUF = 0.85 (9.932) = 8.4422 MHz or 8.4
MHz approx.
31. The power density is inversely proportional to the
square of the distance from the source. This law is
known as
a. Faradays law
b. Snells law
c. Inverse Square law
d. Gauss law
ANS.Inverse Square law
32. The lowest portion of the ionosphere that is useful for
long-distance communication by amateurs; about 100
to 115 km above the earth is known as the layer.
This is often termed as the Kennely-Heavyside layer.
a. D

34. The efficiency of an antenna is 82 %. Its radiation

resistance is 30 . What is the value of its loss
resistance?
a. 75
b. 15
c. 12
d. 6.58
ANS.6.58
= Rd/(Rd + Rloss)
0.82 = 30/(30 + Rloss)
0.82 (30 + Rloss) = 30 = 24.6 + 0.82 Rloss
Rloss = (30 24.6) / 0.82 = 6.5854 or 6.58
approx.
35. A phenomenon on the surface of the sun with
appearance and disappearance of dark irregularly
shaped areas.
a. SID
b. 11-year sunspot
c. Sporadic E-layer
d. Ionospheric storms
ANS.11-year sunspot
36. What should be done to increase the transmission
distance at frequencies higher than HF bands?
a. increase antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power
d. increase receiver sensitivity
ANS. increase antenna height
37. Which of the following factors must be considered in
the transmission of a surface wave to reduce
attenuation?
a. electrical properties of the terrain
b. frequency
c. antenna polarization
d. all choices

ANS.all choices
38. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength.
What is the designated band of stations frequency?
a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. UHF
ANS.HF
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM SOLVING):
c = 3 x 108 m/sec
= 11 m = c / f
f = 3 x 108 / 11 = 27 MHz approx., which is within 3
30 MHz range designated as HF band
39. What is the total radio horizon distance between an
80 ft transmitting station and a 20 ft receiving station?
a. 53.66 km
b. 53.66 mi
c. 18.97 km
d. 18.97 mi
ANS. 18.97 mi
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM SOLVING):
dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x hT) + sqrt (2 x hR)
dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x 80) + sqrt (2 x 20)
dRH (TOT) = 18.97 mi
40. A power density of 1.57 x 10-4 W/m2 is measured 50
meters from a test antenna whose directive gain is
2.15 dB. How much power was fed into the test
antenna?
a. 1 W
b. 2 W
c. 3 W
d. 4 W
ANS.3 W
From Inverse Square Law, PD = PR/4d2
PR = PD x 4d2 = 1.57 x 10-4 x 4(50)2 = 4.93 W
approx. is the radiated power
GANT = log-1 [2.15 dB/10] = 1.64
PR = PFED x GANT
PFED = PR / GANT = 4.93 / 1.64 = 3.007 W or 3 W
approx.
**Wireline and wireless **
1. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a
country are distinguished by their ___.
a. language digits
b. area codes c. central office
codes d. access digits
ANS.area codes
2.

Telephone traffic is measured ____

8.

A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination.

Calculate the via net loss required for an acceptable
amount of echo.
a. 0.2 dB
b. 0.4 dB c. 0.6 dB d. 0.8 dB
ANS. 0.8 dB
VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB
Where:
VNL = minimum required via net loss in dB
t = time delay in ms for propagation one way
along line
VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB
= 0.2 X 2 + 0.4
= 0.8 dB

9.

The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook

is:
a. 48 volts DC
c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
ANS.48 volts DC

a. in erlangs
c. with echo cancellers
b. by the relative congestion d. in terms of the
grade of service
ANS.in erlangs
3.

In a cellular telephone system, each cell site contains

a ____.
a. touch tone processors c. repeater
b. control computer
d. direct link to a branch
exchange
ANS.repeater

4.

When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops

below a certain level, what action occurs?
a. the cell site switches antennas
b. the call is terminated
c. the unit is handed off to a closer cell
d. the MTSO increases power level
ANS.the unit is handed off to a closer cell

5.

In a cellular telephone system, group of cells is called

___.
a. sector
b. Cluster c. site d. cell segment
ANS.cluster

6.

In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are

transmissions from base stations to mobile units
(Downlink)
a. forward links
b. reverse links
c. TRX
d. TRA
ANS.forward links

7.

A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from

the base as -100 dBm. What should the mobile
transmitter power be set to as a first approximation,
considering - 76 dB at mobile power contol?
a. 150 mW b. 200 mW c. 250 mW d. 300 mW
ANS.250 mW
PT = -76 dB - PR
Where:
PT = transmitted power in dBm
PR = received power in dBm
PT = -76 dB - PR
= -76 dB (-100dBm)
= 24 dBm
= 250 mW

10. Central offices are connected by:

a. local loops
c. both a and b
b. trunk lines
d. none of the above
ANS.trunk lines
11. In telephony, call blocking is:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an
electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
ANS.occurs when the central office capacity is
exceeded
12. The cable used for local loops in telephone system is
mainly:
a. twisted-pair copper wire
c. coaxial cable
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire
d. fiber-optic
ANS.twisted-pair copper wire
13. In DTMF, the four vertical frequencies are ____.
a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz
b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz
d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz
ANS. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
14. In DTMF, the Horizontal frequencies are
a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz
b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz
d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz

ANS.1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz

b. Mobile Service Cellular

d. Minimum Signal Carrier

15. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are

transmissions from mobile units to base stations
(Uplink)
a. forward links
b. reverse links
c. TRX
d. TRA
ANS.reverse links

ANS.Mobile Switching Center

16. In DTMF, the horizontal frequencies is also known as

a. low group frequencies
b. high group frequencies
c. mid group frequencies
d. top group frequencies
ANS.high group frequencies

24. In Mobile Communications, GSM uses:

a. frequency hopping
c. CDMA
b. direct-sequence modulation
d. all of the above
ANS.frequency hopping

17. In DTMF, the Vertical frequencies is also known as

a. low group frequencies
b. high group frequencies
c. bottom group frequencies
d. top group frequencies
ANS.low group frequencies
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone
system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned"
b. prevent "singing"
c. allow signals to be multiplexed
d. all of the above
ANS. allow signals to be multiplexed
19. This is the highest-ranking office in the DDD network
in telephony in terms of the size of the geographical
area served and the trunking options available.
a. section center
c. primary center
b. regional center
d. all of the above
ANS.regional center
20. In Cellular Radio, AMPS stand for:
a. American Mobile Phone System
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service
C. Advanced Mobile Phone System
d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service
ANS.Advanced Mobile Phone Service
21. In Cellular Radio, BSC stands for:
a. Base Station Controller
c. Basic Service Contract
b. Base Signal Controller
d. Basic Service Code
ANS.Base Station Controller
22. In Cellular Radio, MSC stands for:
a. Mobile Switching Center
c. Maximum Signal Carrier

6.

The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a

portion of the light energy traveling in the cladding is
called
a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion
ANS. Waveguide dispersion

7.

Recent laser developments for fiber-optic

communication include
a. Distributed feedback (DFB)
b. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
c. Heterojunction
d. Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical cavity
surface emitting (VCSEL)
ANS.Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical
cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)

8.

Which of the following considerations is important

when deciding between using a diode laser or an
LED?
a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
ANS.Response time

9.

In 1815, the correct explanation of diffraction was

given by
a. Maxwell
b. Rayleigh
c. Fresnel
d. Snell
ANS.Fresnel

23. In GSM, voice channels are called:

a. traffic channels
c. bearer channels
b. voice channels
d. talking channels
ANS.traffic channels

25. In Mobile Communications, IMSI stands for::

a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. Intermodulation System Interference
ANS.International Mobile Subscriber Identification
** Electronics and Communications**
1. The most common light used in fiber-optic links is
a. Infrared
b. Red
c. Violet
d. Ultraviolet
ANS.Infrared
2.

3.

4.

5.

In the telecommunications industry, the most

commonly used fiber(s) are
a. 50 micron
b. 62.5 micron
c. 50 and 62.5 micron
d. 125 micron
ANS. 50 and 62.5 micron
The abrupt change in refractive index from core to
cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the
a. Total internal reflection b. Numerical aperture
c. Dispersion d. Step index
ANS. Step index
A technique that is used to minimize the pulse
dispersion effect is to
a. Use a higher frequency light source
b. Use plastic cladding
c. Minimize the core diameter
d. All the above
ANS. Minimize the core diameter
Which is not an important characteristic of a light
detector?
a. Responsitivity
b. Dark current
c. Power
consumption d. Response speed
ANS. Power consumption

10. It is the central part of the optical communication

system
a. Light Source
b. Optical Fiber
c.
Photodetector d. none of the above
ANS.Optical Fiber
11. The light energy that is always emitted or absorbed in
discrete units
a. Light Ray
b. Boson
c. Quanta
d. Light
ANS.Quanta
12. Which of the following Ethernet fiber optic standard
uses synchronous, Centralized Clock?
a. 10 Base-FL (Link)
b. 10 Base-FB (Backbone)
c. 10 Base-FP (passive)
d. Both a & c
ANS.10 Base-FB (Backbone)

13. It is a mixed, multiple-service standard to allow the

transmission of voice and video over an FDDJ
network.
a. FDDI - II
b. FDDI - I
c. Hi PPI
d. Escon
ANS. FDDI - II
14. It is a layer of plastic that surrounds a fiber or group of
fibers
a. Buffer Tube
b. Bulkhead
c. Cladding
d. Jacket
ANS. Buffer Tube
** Signal Processing and Control Systems **
1. The angular separation between the two half-power
points on the power density radiation pattern.
a.Bandwidth b Beamwidth c. Footprint d. Azimuth
ANS.Beamwidth
2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of

the electromagnetic wave radiated from an antenna
and is parallel to the antenna itself.
a.Propagation b. Coordinates
c. Polarization d. Azimuth
ANS.Polarization
Placing a metallic array on the antenna effects to
increase the current at the base of the antenna, and
also to make the current distribution more uniform.
What is this called?
a.Reflector b. Grounding c. Top loading d. Feeding
ANS.Top loading
What principle that states that the properties of an
antenna are independent of whether it is used for
transmission or reception.
a.Alternation b. Diplexer
c. Reciprocity d. Repeatability
ANS.Principle of reciprocity
Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m
paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz. Note: such
reflectors are often used at that frequency as
antennas outside broadcast television microwave
links.
a.140
b. 70
c. 3.50
d. 0.8750
ANS.3.50
This is often used to cure the problem of great
thickness required of lenses used at lower microwave
frequencies or for strong curved wavefronts.

a. Splicing b. Zoning c. Curving d. Polarizing

ANS.Zoning
7.

A structure-generally metallic and sometimes very

complex-designed to provide an efficient coupling
between space and the output of a transmitter or input
to a receiver.
a.Stub b. Antenna c. Transmission line d. waveguide
ANS.antenna

8.

The ratio comparing the power density generated by a

practical antenna in some direction, with that due to
an isotopic antenna radiating the same total power.
a. directivity
b. Directive gain
c. bandwidth
d. Elementary doublet
ANS.Directive gain(b)

9.

Any array that is directional at right angles to the

plane of the array is said, by inference, to have
__________.
a.Broadside b. Broadside array c. Broadside
action
d. End-fire array
ANS.Broadside action

10. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter is

called __________ of the parabola, just as in camera
lenses.
a. focus
b. resolution
c. feed
d. aperture
ANS.Aperture
11. Corresponds to a resonant transmission line, and the
dipole antennas describe so far have been resonant.
a. Non-resonant antenna
b. Resonant antenna
c. Antenna arrays
d. None of the above
ANS.Resonant antenna
12. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index
of 1.55 and is clad with another glass with a refractive
index of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What
numerical aperture does the fiber have?
a. 0.852
b.
0.352
c.
1.032
d. 0.235
ANS. 0.352
By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between
the indexes is:
=(n1-n2)/n1
=(1.55-1.51)/1.55
=0.0258
By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found
to be:

NA=n1(2)
=1.55[(2)(0.0258)]
= 0.352
13. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index
of 1.55 and is clad with another glass with a refractive
index of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What is
the acceptance angle?
a.
22.8
b. 18.6
c. 20.6
d. 23.6
ANS. 20.6
By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between
the indexes is:
=(n1-n2)/n1
=(1.55-1.51)/1.55
=0.0258
By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found
to be:
NA=n1(2)
=1.55[(2)(0.0258)]
= 0.352
By equation (20.8), the acceptance angle is:
0(max)=sin-1NA= sin-10.352=20.6
14. For a single-mode optical cable with 0.25-dB/km loss,
determine the optical power 100km from a 0.1-mW
light source.
a. -25dBm
b. -45dBm
c. 35dBm
d. -30dBm
ANS. -35dBm
P=0.1mW x 10-{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)}
=1 x 10-4 x 10{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)]
=(1 x 10-4)(1 x 10-25)
=0.316W
P(dBm)= 10log
= -35dBm
15. For an optical fiber 10km long with a pulse-spreading
constant of 5ns/km, determine the maximum digital
transmission rates for return-to-zero.
a. 10Mbps
b. 20 Mbps
c. 50 Mbps
d. 5 Mbps
ANS.20Mbps
16. In fiber optics, it is a measure of the conversion
efficiency of a photodetector. It is the ratio of the
output current of a photodiode to the input optical
power and has the unit of amperes per watt
a. Dark current b. Responsivity c. Spectral Response
d. Light Sensitivity
ANS.Responsivity

17. A phenomenon also called stress corrosion resulting if

the glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high
humidity?
a. Static fatigue
b. Absorption
c. Scattering loss
d. Dispersion
ANS. Static fatigue

2. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the

smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the
digital-to-analog converter.

18. The theory which states that when visible light or

high-frequency electromagnetic radiation illuminates a
metallic surface, electrons are emitted.
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Plancks law
c. Photoemission effect
d. Ray Theory of light
ANS.Plancks law

3. Is a PCM system which uses a single bit PCM code to

achieve digital transmission of analog signals

19. The science of measuring only light waves that are

visible to the human eye
a. Radiometry
b. Photometry
c. Optometry
d. Optics
ANS. Photometry
20. The process of constructing an ILD that is similar to
LED except that the ends are highly polished.
a.epitaxially grown
b. Planar diffusion
c. lasing
d. None of the above
ANS.Lasing
21. A phenomenon in optical fibers communication
system that is caused by the difference in the
propagation times of light rays that take different
paths down the fiber.
a. Pulse spreading
b. Wavelength distortion
c. Rayleigh scattering
d. Microbending
ANS.Pulse spreading

1. Is an OSI Layer which is responsible for providing

error-free communications across the physical link
connecting primary and secondary stations (nodes)

ANSWER: a. Data Link layer

c. Resolution

ANSWER: d. Dynamic range

a.Trellis Coding
PCM
d. QAM

9. Is a device which operates in the Network layer and it

makes forwarding decisions on the basis of network
addresses
a. Repeater
d. Switch

b. Delta modulation

c. Differential

b. hub

4. Is a redundancy error detection scheme that uses parity

to determine if a transmission error has occurred within a
message and is sometimes called message parity.
a. Longitudinal redundancy check b. Vertical
redundancy check
c. Character Parity Check
d. Checksum

c. Router

ANSWER: c. Router
10. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is
a. 51.84 Mbps
d. 2.048 Mbps

ANSWER: b. Delta modulation

c. Router

b. 1.544 Mbps

c. 3 Mbps

ANSWER: a. 51.84 Mbps

11. Is one in which all computers share their resources
with all the other computers on the network.
a. Dedicated client server network
b. Peer-to-peer
client/server network
c. Peer-to-peer
network
d. All of the above

ANSWER: a. Longitudinal redundancy check

ANSWER: b. Peer-to-peer client/server network
5. Is an n-bit data register inside the UART that keeps
track of the UARTs transmit and receive buffer registers
a. Control Register
register

12. Is used to interface DTEs to digital transmission

channels

b. Status Word
a. Data modem
b. Router
Channel service unit

c. Control and Status Register

d. Command
registerANSWER: b. Status Word register

c. Splitter

d.

ANSWER: d. Channel service unit

6. Is an access method used primarily with LANs

configured in a bus topology.
CSMA/CD
d. MA

b. CSMA

c. CSMA/CA

13. Modulation which combines encoding and modulation

to reduce the
probability of error.

ANSWER: a. CSMA/CD

Data comms

a.Data Link Layer b. Transport Layer

d. Presentation Layer

a. Step size
b. Quantization Error
d. Dynamic range

a. Repeater
b. hub
d. Switch ANSWER: d. Switch

c. Session Layer

a. DPSK
d. TCM

7. IP version 4 address length is

32 bits
d. 48 bits

b.

24 bits

c. 40 bits

Ans. 32 bits
8. Is a multiport bridge that provides bridging function.

b. FSK

c.

QAM

ANSWER: d. TCM
14. Is an empirical record of a systems actual bit error
performance

a. ER
d. BERT

b. BER

c. EER
5. Typical mode of radiation of helical antenna is:

10. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna

to the receiving antenna

ANSWER: b. BER
15. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting
transmission errors in synchronous data streams.

a. end fire
mode

b. normal
d. differential mode

c.

common
a. ground wave b. scatter
space wave
d. sky wave

c.

ANSWER: a. end fire

a. Trellis Code
d. Hamming code

b. EBCDIC

c.

6.The electric field is perpendicular to the earths surface,

the polarization is:
11. VLF waves are for some types of services because

ANSWER: d. Hamming code

RADIO WAVE
1. The electric field intensity is measured in:
a. V/m

ANSWER:c. space wave

Bisync Code

b. V-m
d. V/C

a. vertical
horizontal

b. normal
d. circular

c.

a. of low powers required b.

are of convenient size

the transmitting antennas

c. C/m
ANSWER:a. vertical

c. they are very reliable

ionosphere easily

d.

they penetrate the

ANSWER:a. V/m
ANSWER:c. they are very reliable
2. It is a result of an increase in the charge density in
dielectric materials.

7. In what major RF band is ground wave basically

applied?

a. polarization
b. dipole moment
d. potential difference

a. MF

c. potential

b. HF

c. VHF

12. It is the distance between two wave fronts having the

same phase at any given instant.

d. UHF
a. wavefront
b. wavelength
distance d. field intensity

ANSWER a. MF (Medium Frequency)

c. wave

ANSWER:b. wavelength
ANSWER polarization
8. A measure of mismatch in a transmission line
a. reflection coefficient
delay

b.

3. It refers to the maximum antenna gain

a. directivity

c. standing wave ratio

d. all of these

b. directive gain c. power gain

d. power density

propagation 13. It is a piece of transmission line which is normally

short-circuited at the far end.
a. terminator
b. stub
d. none of these

c. quarter wave transformer

ANSWER:c. standing wave ratio

ANSWER: a. directivity

ANSWER: b. stub

4. The maximum horizontal distance between the

transmitter and the receiver for line of sight propagation is
known as:
a. radio horizon b. range
d. service region
ANSWER: a. radio horizon

9. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by

the ionosphere, if wave is sent vertically upward.
a. maximum usable
propagating frequency

frequency

(muf)

b. 14. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm

resistive load. Calculate the reflection coefficient.

c. single hop distance

c. critical frequency d. cut-off frequency
ANSWER: critical frequency

a. 0.35
0.15

b. 0.25

c. 0.10

d.

ANSWER: b. 0.25

a. diffraction
absorption

b. refraction
d. reflection

c.

SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING)

c. Statistical concentration
d. Loopback
ANSWER:a.
Eye pattern

ans: diffraction

Ref Coeff = (30 50)/(30 + 50) = 0.25

5. The type of radio transmission that uses

pseudorandomly switched transmissions is known as

20. A microwave communications system, space loss

a. Facsimile
15. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line calculation formula is
b. Spread spectrum
does not depend upon its
c. Synthesizing
a. 92.4 + 10 log F + 20 log D b. 94.2 + 10 log F + 20 log D
d. Compression
a. conductor spacing
b. conductor diameter c. 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log Dd. 94.2 + 20 log F + 20 log D ANSWER: b. Spread spectrum
c. length
radius

d.

ANSWER:

6. The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

c. 92.4 + 20log F + 20 log D

DATA

a. Channel-division multiple-access systems

b. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
c. Capture-division multiple-access systems
d. Code-division multiple-access systems

1. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to

generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by
comparing the phase of two successive data bits is

ANSWER:Code-division multiple-access systems

conductor

ANSWER: c. length

16. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the

impedance measured at the _______ when its length is
infinite.

7. The acronym OFDM refers to ________.

a. CSU/DSU
d. CVSD

b.

DPSK

c.

TDM
a.

a. input b. shorted end of the line c. output

ANSWER: b.

DPSK

d. midsection
2. A special digital modulation technique that achieves
high data rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called

ANSWER:a. input

17. Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible

for long-distance night time communications?
a. D layer
A layer d. F layer

b. E layer

a. Delta modulation
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)
c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)
d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)
ANSWER: c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM

c.
3. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitudemodulation systems with respect to

ANSWER: d. F layer
18. Which is properly terminated antenna?
a. rhombic
c. marconi

b. dipole
d. hertz

ANSWER: a. rhombic
19. Occurs when the radio beam is at point of grazing over
an obstacle.

a. Noise performance
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
d. Power consumption
ANSWER: c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
4. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received
data bits that provide information on noise, jitter, and
linearity is called a
a.
b.

Eye pattern
Constellation pattern

Orthogonal Frequency Division

Multiplexing
b. Over Frequency Division Multiplexing
c. Optional Frequency Division Modulation
d. Orthogonal Frequency Division
Modulation
ANSWER: Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
8. Using radio to transmit gathered data on some
particular phenomenon without human monitors is known
as
a. Radio facsimile
b. Radio telemetry
c. Radio teletype
d. Radio multiplexing
ANSWER: Radio telemetry
9. The acronym for the form of data transmission in which
the modulating wave shifts the output between two
predetermined frequencies is _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

FSK
PSK
FPF
FSA

ANSWER: a.

FSK

ANSWER: Line Control

10. Pseudorandom implies a sequence that can be _____

but has the properties of randomness.
16. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
a. decoded
b. detected
c. re-created
d. minimized
ANSWER: re-created
11. ______ implies that both analog and digital signals
share the same channel bandwidth.

a.
b.
c.

Excessive noise producing errors

Slope overload
Insufficient frequency response of the
intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design
ANSWER: Slope overload
17. The AT&T T1 lines

a.
b.
c.
d.
Ans: hybrid

AM
Hybrid
FM
RF

12. Telemetry may be defined as _____ metering.

a. distance
b. specialized
c. remote
d. data
ANSWER: Remote
13. Which is not a type of pulse modulation?
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM)
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)
ANSWER: Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM)

a.

Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24

voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48
voice channels
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24
voice channels
d. Use delta modulation and include 24
voice channels
ANSWER: Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice
channels

Noise characteristics
Bandwidth characteristics
Simplicity in design
Frequency response of the intelligence
signal
ANSWER: Noise characteristics
15. A procedure that decides which device has permission
to transmit at a given time is called
a. Line control
b. Protocol
c. Flow control
d. Sequence control

a. modem
b. codec
c. channel
d. amplifier
ANSWER: Channel
22. In an S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled
voltage is
a. Aperture time
b. Acquisition time
c. Flat-top time
d. Dmin
ANSWER: Aperture time
23. Error signals associated with the sampling process are
called
a. Foldover distortion
b. Aliasing
c. Nyquist rate
d. Foldover distortion and aliasing
ANSWER: Fold over distortion and aliasing

18. The ground wire in a USB cable is ______

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Brown
ANSWER: Brown
19. A(n) ________ is used to allow a digital signal to be
transmitted on an analog channel.

14. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in

a.
b.
c.
d.

21. The relationship for bit rate to ________ bandwidth is

defined by the Shannon-Hartley theorem.

a. codec
b. alias
c. modem
d. PSK
ANSWER: Modem
20. The bit ________ is the amount of power in a digital bit
for a given amount of time.
a. error
b. energy
c. joule
d. hp
ANSWER: energy

24. A(n) ________ is a single LSI chip containing both the

ADC and DAC circuitry
a.
b.
c.
d.
ANSWER: codec

modem
DSP
codec
ASIC

25. The NRZ digital signal-encoding format has a

________ component in the waveform.
a.
b.
c.
d.
ANSWER: dc

dc
sinusoidal
harmonic
parity

ReedSolomon codes utilize a technique called ________

to rearrange the data into a nonlinear ordering scheme to
improve the chance of data correction
a.
b.
c.

pseudorandom
BSC
interleaving

d. quantizing
ANSWER: interleaving
1. .For an electronic device operating at a temperature of
17C with a bandwidth of 10 kHz, determine the thermal
noise power in dBm .
a. 134dBm
b. 130dBm
c. 134dBm
d. 130dBm
ANSWER: c. -134dBm
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)
N = KTB
B = 1 x 104 Hz

T(kelvin) = 17C + 273 = 290 K

= (1.38 x 10-23)(290)(1 x 104) =

4 x 10

-17

W
N(dBm) = 10log (4 x 10-17) = -134

dBm
0.001
2. A 300 resistor is connected across the 300 antenna
input of a television receiver. The bandwidth of the
receiver is 6MHz, and the resistor is at room temperature
.Find the noise voltage applied to the receiver input.
a. 5.4 V
b.
3.12 V
c. 4.5 V
d. 6.7 V
ANSWER:

4. It is desired to operate a receiver with NF = 8dB at S/N

= 15 dB over a 200-KHz bandwidth at ambient
temperature. Calculate the receivers sensitivity
a. -84dBm
b. -98dBm
c. -80dBm
d. -75dBm
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)

= x fi
= 0.5 x 5 kHz = 2.5 kHz
75 kHz = 30
2.5 kHz

S = Sensitivity = -74dBm + NF + 10logf +

desired S/N
** Signal Processing and Control Systems**
S = -174 + 8 + 10log(200,000) + 15
S = -98 dBm
1. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car
5. A Satellite receiving system includes a dish antenna (
from rest to v, neglecting friction. How much added
Teq = 35 K) connected via a coupling network (Teq= 40 K)
energy would be required to increase the speed from
to a microwave receiver (Teq=52 K referred to its input).
v to 2v?
What is the noise power to the receivers input over a 1a. Q b.2Q c. 3Q d.4Q
MHz frequency range?
a. 1.75 x 10-15W
b. 1.75 x 10-12W
c.
ANS. 3Q
-15
1.15 x 10 W
d. 1.15 x 10-12W
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)
Using the energy equation W=KE2 KE1
PN = KTf
= 1.38 x 10-23 J/K (35 + 40 + 52)K (1MHz)
= 1.75 x 10-15 W
6. Equivalent temperature of a passive system having the
same noise power output of a given system.
a.
b.
c.
d.

a. 5.4 V
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)

Noise figure
Total temperature
Equivalent temperature
Noise temperature

Q = 0.5mv2 0 -

4(1.38 x 10-23 J/K)(293 K)(6 x 106 Hz)(300

)
= 5.4 x 10-6 V
= 5.4 V
3. The signal power at the input to an amplifier is 100W
and the noise power is 1 W. At the output, the signal
power is 1W and the noise power is 30mW. What is the
amplifier noise figure, as a ratio?
a.
3.5
b.
4.5
c.
3
d. 4
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)
(S/N)p = 100W
1W
(S/N)o = 1W
0.03W
NF (ratio) = 100
33.5

= 100
= 33.3
=3

5.15 V
c. 2124mV

condition 2

W=2mv2 0.5mv2 = 3(0.5mv2) = 3Q

2.

d. noise temperature
7. The noise voltage produced across a 50 is input
resistance at a temperature of 302C with a bandwidth of
6 MHz is ______.
a.

condition 1

W = 0.5m(2v)2 0.5mv2 -

Answer:

VN =
=

SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)

Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential

energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is the
magnitude of the required electric field?
a. 0.475 MV/m
b. 0.336MV/m c. 0.225TV/m
d. 0.113TV/m
ANS.E=0.475 MV/m
u=1.00J/1.00m3 = 1.00J/m3

b. 3005mV
d. 2.24V

E=0.475 MV/m (a)

SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING
VN =

4(1.38 x 10-23)(302)(6

x 106)(50)
= 2.24V
8. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a broadcast
FM program that has a maximum intelligence frequency of
5 kHz. The input S/N is 2
a.

2.5 b.
d. 25

30

c.

3.

Material a is a water and material b is a glass with

index of refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an
angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of
the reflected ray.
a. 49.3o
b. 91.3o
c. 60o
d. 34.7o

3
ANSWER: 60o

9.
4.

The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon

sensor is 633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous
humor inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of
light in this substance.
a. 2.25 x 108 m/s b. 3.25 x 108 m/s

In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to

waves, commonly generated by electronic devices,
whose wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m
to 10-4 m. Due to their short wavelengths these are
often used in radar systems and for studying the
atomic and molecular properties of matter.
a. Radio waves b. Microwaves

c. 3.00 x 108 m/s

c. AM waves d. Radar waves

d. 1.25 x 108 m/s

ANS.microwaves

ANS. 2.25 x 108 m/s

5.

A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of

0.900c fires a robot space probe in the same direction
as its motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the
spaceship. What is the probes velocity relative to the
Earth?
a. 0.900c b. 0.345c c. 0.700c
d. 0.982c
ANS. 0.982c

6.

In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image

produced on a concave mirror due to the
convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points
on the principal axis. What do you call this effect?
a. spherical aberration b. focal divergence c.
parallax error d. Snells effect
ANS.spherical aberration

7.

In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a

fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In
addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the
elevation increases.
a. Clairuts equation
b. Bernoullis
equation
c. Maxwells equation

d. Hyrdofluid equation

ANS.Bernoullis equation
8.

In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average

speed of the charge carriers?
a. drag velocity b. molecular-kinetic speed
c. drift speed d. charge velocity
ANS.drift speed