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ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
AIPMT MAINS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

UNIT-DIMENSION
1.
p P r4
then the dimensions of h by taking velocity (v), time (T) and mass (M) as
If discharge rate is given by V =
8 hl
fundamental units, are :-
[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
(1) M1vT2
2.
(2) Mv1T2
(3) MvT2
(4) Mv2T
t cos qT x
where t is the
l3
torque, q is the angle of twist, T is the time period and l is the length of the wire. The value of x, is :-
In an imaginary experiment, the Youngs modulus Y of a material is given by Y =
(1) 1
3.
4.
(2) 0
The dimensions of the quantity
(3) 2
(4) 4
1
e2
, where the letters have their usual meaning ,0 is the permitivity of free
4p 0 hc
space; h, the Planck's constant and c, the velocity of light in free space, are:-
(1) MLT1
(4) M0L0T0
(2) M1L1T2
(3) M1LT
Find the dimensions of the constant a in vander wall's gas equation P + 2 [V b] = RT

V
(1) M L T
1
5.
(2) M L T
0
(3) M L T
2
(4) M0L5T2
f represents momentum and q represents position, then the dimensions of plank's constant (h) in terms of q
and f are :[AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1) f1 q1
(2) f2 q1
(3) f1 q2
(4) f2 q2
KINEMATICS
1.
If s = 2t3 + 3t2 + 2t + 8 then the time at which acceleration is zero, is :-
(1) t =
2.
Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\ Eng.\Class XI
3.
1
2
(2) t = 2
(3) t =
1
2 2
(4) Never
Velocity of a particle varies with time as v = 4t. The displacement of particle betweent = 2 to
t = 4 sec, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
(1) 12 m
(2) 36 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 6 m
A particle is thrown vertically upwards from the surface of the earth. Let TP be the time taken by the particle
to travel from a point P above the earth to its highest point and back to the point P. Similarly, let TQ be the
time taken by the particle to travel from another point Q above the earth to its highest point and back to the
same point Q. If the distance between the points P and Q is H, the expression for acceleration due to gravity
in terms of TP, TQ and H, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
6H
(1) T2 + T2
P
Q
8H
(2) T2 - T2
P
Q
2H
(3) T2 + T2
P
Q
H
(4) T2 - T2
P
Q
1/91
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PHYSICS
4.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
An aeroplane is travelling horizontally at a height of 2000 m from the ground.

P
The aeroplane, when at a point P, drops a bomb to hit a stationary target Q on the
ground. In order that the bomb hits the target, what angle q must the line PQ make
with the vertical ? [g = 10ms2]
5.
(1) 15
(2) 30
(3) 90
(4) 45
Two cars start off to race with velocities 2m/s and 4m/s travel in straight line with uniform acceleration
2m/s2 and 1 m/s2 respectively. The length of the path if they reach the final point at the same time is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2008]
(1) 24 m
(2) 12 m
(3) 5 m
(4) Data insufficient
r
r
Velocity and acceleration of a particle at some instant of time are v = ( 2i - j + 2k ) m/s and a = (i + 6j - k ) m/s2.
6.
Then, the speed of the particle is .............. at a rate of ............ m/s2. Which of the following sets of information
best suits for the blank spaces?
7.
(1) increasing, 2
(2) decreasing, 2
(3) increasing, 4
(4) decreasing, 4
Some informations are given for a body moving in a straight line. The body starts its motion at t=0.
Information I : The velocity of a body at the end of 4s is 16 ms 1
Information II : The velocity of a body at the end of 12s is 48 ms 1
Information III : The velocity of a body at the end of 22s is 88 ms 1
The body is certainly moving with
*8.
(1) Uniform velocity
(2) Uniform speed
(3) Uniform acceleration
(4) Data insufficient for generalization
A large number of particles are moving each with speed v having directions of motion randomly distributed.
What is the average relative velocity between any two particles averaged over all the pairs ?
(1) v
9.
(2) (p/4)v
(3) (4/p)v
(4) Zero
The sum and the difference of two perpendicular vectors of equal lengths are
(1) also perpendicular and of equal length
(2) also perpendicular and of different lengths
(3) of equal length and have an obtuse angle between them
10.
A particle starting from rest has a constant acceleration of 4ms2 for 4s. It then retards uniformly for next
8s and comes to rest. Average speed of the particle during the motion is
(1) 16 ms1
11.
(2) 8 ms1
(3) 24 ms1
(4) None of these
In question 10, magnitude of average velocity of the particle for a time interval from t=0 to t=8s is
(1) 10 ms1
2/91
(2) 8 ms1
(3) 12 ms1
(4) None of these
(4) of equal length and have and acute angle between them
ALLEN
Path to Success
12.
TM
In question 10, magnitude of average acceleration of the particle for a time interval from t=0 to t=8s is
(1) 1 ms2
13.
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
(2) 2 ms2
(3) 4 ms2
(4) None of these
Two friends Raj & Pooja playing a game of collision of balls and throwing balls from the top of the tower
simultaneously as shown in the figure. If the balls collide in air at point P and point O is treated as origin
(g =10 m/s2). Distance D between the towers
Raj
45
20
2
m
/s
20m/s
Pooja
P
Q
(1) 100 m
14.
(4) 800 m
(2) (100,125)
(3) (75,100)
(4) (175,100)
In question 13, if wind starts blowing horizontally, due to which a horizontal acceleration ax=2m/s2 is imparted
to the ball from Raj to Pooja then coordinates of point of collision will be
(1) (125, 100)
16.
(3) 400 m
In question 13, coordinate of the particles at point P

(1) (100,75)
15.
(2) 200 m
(2) (75, 100)
(3) (125, 75)
Trajectory of particle in a projectile motion is given as y=x
(4) (100, 125)
x2
.
80
Here, x and y are in meters. g=10 m/s2.

ColumnI
ColumnII
(i)
Angle of projection (in degrees)
(P)
20
(ii)
Angle of velocity with horizontal after 4s (in degrees)
(Q)
80
(iii) Maximum height (in metres)
(R)
45
(iv) Horizontal range (in metres)
(S)
30
For this projectile motion, correct option is :(1) (i) R, (ii) R, (iii) P, (iv) Q
(2) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) S, (iv) Q
(3) (i) R, (ii) R, (iii) Q, (iv) S
(4) (i) R, (ii) S, (iii) P, (iv) R
NLM AND FRICTION
1.
For the following system
(1) Acceleration of the system = 2 m/s2
(2) T1 = 20N
(3) T2 = 10N
(4) T2 > T1
3/91
ALLEN
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2.
Path to Success
For shown situation in figure (Assume : g=10 ms2)
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
4cm
5N
4cm
=0.2
mA=1kg
mB=2kg
Smooth
Floor
3.
1m/s2
(1)
The acceleration of the block A is
(2)
The acceleration of the block B is 3m/s2
(3)
The time taken for the front face of A lining up with the front face of B is 0.25 sec
(4)
The time taken for the front face of A lining up with the front face of B is 0.50 sec
Two equal masses are placed as shown in the figure. Friction at the pulley
is negligible. If coefficient of sliding friction of the mass on the horizontal surface

is 0.2 and if the hanging mass is just released from position of rest, the
M
acceleration of the system, is:(1) 1 m/s2

4.
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3.92 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2
A block of mass 5kg is placed on horizontal surface, and a pushing force 20N is acting on block as shown in
fig. If coefficient of friction between block and surface is 0.2 then frictional force and speed of block after 15
sec, are respectively :- (Given g = 10 m/s2)
20N
45
5 kg
//////////////////////////////////////////////////////
(1) (5 + 2 2 )N, 3.25 ms1

5.
(2) (10 + 2 2 )N, 3.25 ms1
(4) (10 + 2 2 )N, 3.94 ms1

(3) (5 + 2 2 )N, 3.94 ms1
A weightless string passes through a slit over a pulley. The slit offers frictional force f to
the string. The string carries two weights having masses m1 and m2 where m2 > m1,
then acceleration of the weights is
6.
f - (m2 - m1 )g
(2)
m1 + m2
(m1 + m2 )g - f
(3) (m - m )
1
2
m2 g - f
(4) (m + m )
1
2
At a turn a track is banked for optimum speed of 40 km/h. At the instant

shown in the figure a car is traveling out of the plane of the figure.
If the car travels at 60 km/h, the net frictional force acting on the wheels must be
(1) static in nature and point downward along the bank of the track for safe driving.
(2) static in nature and points upward along the bank of the track for safe driving.
(3) kinetic in nature and points upward along the bank of the track for safe driving.
(4) kinetic in nature and points downwards along the bank of the track for safe driving.
4/91
m1
m2
(m2 - m1 )g - f
(1)
m1 + m2
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Path to Success
7.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
In question 6, if the car travels at 30 km/h, the net frictional force acting on the wheels must be
(1) static in nature and points downward along the bank of the track for safe driving.
(2) static in nature and points upward along the bank of the track for safe driving.
(3) kinetic in nature and points upward along the bank of the track for safe driving.
(4) kinetic in nature and points downwards along the bank of the track for safe driving.
8.
In question 6, when the car is on the turn the driver realizes that his speed is reaching the maximum safe limit
so he applies brakes to reduce the speed till the car reaches the optimum speed. While he is applying the
brake, the frictional force acting on the wheels of the car must be
(1) static in nature and directed somewhere in between downward along bank of the track and into the plane of
the figure.
(2) static in nature and directed somewhere in between upward along bank of the track and into the plane of the
figure.
(3) static in nature and directed somewhere in between downward along bank of the track and out of the plane
of the figure.
(4) static in nature and directed somewhere in between upward along bank of the track and out of the plane of
the figure.
9.
For shown situation tick incorrect alternative(s)
(i) The aceleation of m w.r.t. ground is
F
M
(ii) The aceleation of M w.r.t. ground is
(iii) The acceleration of M w.r.t. ground is zero
F
M
(iv) The time taken by m to separate from M is
2lm
F
The correct option is :(1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (ii), (iv)
WORK, POWER, ENERGY & CENTRE OF MASS, COLLISION

1.
A particle of mass M falls from height h and gets stick after collision, with identical particle lying on sand. After
sticking, both particles moves a distance d in sand, then the work done against retarding force of sand is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
(1)
2.
Mgh
+ 2Mgd
2
(2)
Mgh
+ Mgd
2
Mgh
2Mgd
2
(4)
Mgh
Mgd
2
A ball of mass m hits the floor with a speed v making an angle of incidence q = 45 with the normal to the
floor. If the coefficient of restitution e =
(3)
are :-
1
2
, then the speed of the reflected ball and the angle of reflection
(1)
3
v, tan -1 2
2
(2)
3
v, tan -1 3
4
(3)
2 3
v, tan -1 3
5
(4)
3
v, tan -1 2
5
5/91
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3.
Path to Success
A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r under a centripetal force equal to
where K is constant. The total energy of the particle, is :(1)
4.
-K
2r
(2)
-2K
r
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
-K
r$ ,
r2
(3)
-K
3r
(4)
-K
4r
A body is dropped from height 8m. After striking the surface it rises to 6m, the fractional loss in kinetic energy
during impact, is (Assuming the frictional resistance to be negligible)
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
4
(3)
1
5
(4)
1
7
A body of mass 0.8 kg has initial velocity (3 $i 4 $j ) m/sec. and final velocity ( 6 $j + 2 k$ ) m/sec, the change
in kinetic energy of the body, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
(1) 2 J
(2) 3 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 6 J
A body of mass 10 kg is released from a tower of height 20m and body acquires a velocity of 10ms 1 after falling
th rough the distan ce 20m. The work don e by th e push o f th e air on the body is:(Take g = 10 m/s2)
5.
6.
(1) 1500 J
7.
(2) 1800 J
(3) 1500 J
(4) 1800 J
A chain of mass m and length L is held on a frictionless table in such a way that its
the edge of table. The work done to pull the hanging part of chain is :(1)
mgL2
2n2
(2) Zero
(3)
1
th part is hanging below
n
mgL
2n
(4)
A particle of mass m is connected from a light inextensible string of length l such
8.
that it behaves as a simple pendulum. Now string is pulled to point A making an angle
q1 with the vertical and it is released from the point A then
mgL
2n2
q2
q1
(1)
Speed of the particle when string makes an angle q2 with vertical, is
2gl(cos q2 - cos q1 ) .
(2)
Speed of the particle when string makes an angle q2 with vertical, is
gl(cos q2 - cos q1 ) .
9.
10.
(1) 384.6 kg m/sec
(2) 277.2 kg m/sec
(3) 237.4 kgm/sec
(4) 309.6 kg m/sec
A block of mass 1 kg is attached to a spring with a force constant 100 N/m and rests on a rough horizontal
ground as shown in the figure. Initial displacement of block from equilibrium position is 50 cm. The total distance
covered by the block if coefficient of friction between block & ground is 0.05. [g =10m/s 2]
(1) 5 m
6/91
(2) 25 m
(3) 20 m
(4) None of these
(3)
The tension in the string when string makes an angle q2 with vertical is mg (4cosq2 2cosq1)
(4)
The tension in the string when string makes an angle q2 with vertical is mg (cosq2 cosq1)
A 70 kg. man jumps to a height of 0.8 m. The impulse provided by ground to man is :- [AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
ALLEN
Path to Success
11.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Rg
from the
2
A point mass m moves horizontally with a velocity of v 0 =
v0
peak of a smooth hemispherical surface of radius R.
The angle q0 at which the mass m leaves the spherical surface, is :

-1 2
(1) cos
3
12.
(2)
-1 5
(4) sin
6
5
g
6
(3)
6
g
5
(4)
g
5
In question 11, if there is friction on the spherical surface, then it leaves the surface at an angle q. Then value
of q is :
(1) > q0
14.
-1 5
(3) cos
6
In question 11, radial acceleration at q0 is :

(1) g
13.
-1 2
(2) sin
3
(2) < q0
(3) = q0
(4) Can't be determined
In the figure shown, when the persons A and B exchange their positions. [There is no friction between plank
and ground]
A
M1
M2
M
M1=50kg, M2 = 70 kg, M = 80 kg
Column I
Column II
(i)
The distance moved by the centre of mass of the system is
(P)
20 cm
(ii)
The distance moved by the plank is
(Q)
1.8 m
(iii) The distance moved by A with respect to ground is
(R)
(iv) The distance moved by B with respect to ground is
(S)
2.2 m
The correct option is :(1) (i) R, (ii) P, (iii) S, (iv) Q
(2) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) S, (iv) Q
(3) (i) P, (ii) S, (iii) Q, (iv) R
(4) (i) R, (ii) S, (iii) P, (iv) Q
15. A particle is suspended from a string of length R. It is given a velocity u = 3 gR at the lowest point.
Column I
Column II
(i)
Velocity at B
(P)
(ii)
Velocity at C
(Q)
5gR
(iii) Tension in string at B
(R)
7gR
(iv) Tension in string at C
(S)
7 mg
D
4 mg
The correct option is :(1) (i) R, (ii) S, (iii) P, (iv) Q
(2) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) S, (iv) Q
(3) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) Q, (iv) S
(4) (i) R, (ii) Q, (iii) P, (iv) S

7/91
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Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
16. A smooth sphere A of mass m collides elastically with an identical sphere B at rest. The velocity of A before
collision is 8 m/s in a direction making 60 with the line of centres at the time of impact.
(i) The sphere A comes to rest after collision.
(ii) The sphere B will move with a speed of 8 m/s after collision.
(iii) The directions of motion A and B after collision are at right angles.
(iv) The speed of B after collision is 4 m/s.
The correct option is :-
17.
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii)
Potential energy function along xaxis in a certain force field is given as

U(x) =
x4
11 2
x - 6x . For the given force field :
- 2x 3 +
4
2
(i) the points of equilibrium are x=1, x=2 and x=3.

(ii) the point x=2 is a point of unstable equilibrium.
(iii) the points x=1 and x=3 are points of stable equilibrium.
(iv) there exists no point of neutral equilibrium.
The correct option is :(1) (i), (ii), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii)
ROTATIONAL MOTION
1.
The angle between angular momentum and linear momentum for a particle in motion is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
(1) 0
2.
(2) 90
(3) 45
(4) 180
Two identical rods each of mass M and length L are kept according
to figure. The moment of inertia of rods about an axis passing through
O and perpendicular to the plane of rods, is :(1)
3.
1
ML2
3
(2)
2
ML2
3
(3) 2ML2
A flywheel of mass 0.2 kg and radius 10 cm is rotating with
(4)
1
ML2
2
5
rev/sec about an axis perpendicular to its plane
p
passing through its centre. The values of angular momentum and kinetic energy of fly wheel are respectively:(1) 1 102 kgm2s1, 0.2 J
(2) 2 102 kgm2s1, 0.1 J
3
2 1
(3) 1 10 kgm s , 0.4 J
(4) 1 102 kgm2s1, 0.4 J
The centre of a circular disc of uniform density of radius R and mass M
is at O. This disc may be assumed to have two partsone is another circular disc
C of radius R/3 with centre at O1 (OO1=2R/3) and the part K has its centre of
mass at O2 , the moment of inertia of the disc K about an axis perpendicular to
this plane of the disc and passing through O2 , is :(1)
8/91
71
MR2
162
(2)
70
MR2
160
(3)
71
MR2
165
(4)
70
MR2
165
4.
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Path to Success
5.
6.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases from 20p rad/s to 40p
rad/s in 10 seconds. The number of rotations, it made in this period are :- [AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
(1) 100
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 250
A uniform thin stick of length l and mass m is held horizontally with its
end B hinged at a point B on the edge of a table. Point A is
suddenly released. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the stick
at the time of release, is :(1)
(3)
7.
3
g
4
2
g
7
(2)
3
g
7
(4)
1
g
7
A fixed pulley of radius 20 cm and moment of inertia 0.32 kg.m2 about its axle
has a massless cord wrapped around its rim. A mass M of 2 kg is attached to the
end of the cord. The pulley can rotate about its axis without any friction. The
acceleration of the mass M is :- (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
8.
(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2
Three identical rings of mass 'M' and radius 'R' are placed shown in figure. The moment of inertia about axis
xx' is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
x
x'
(1)
9.
5
MR2
2
(2)
7
MR2
2
(3)
3
MR2
2
(4)
9
MR2
2
A disc is rotating with angular velocity (w) about its axis (without any translation push) on a smooth surface :
The directions and magnitudes of velocity at points B and A are :(1) VA = +
wR
(Towards right), VB = wR (Towards left)
2
10.
R/2
wR
(2) VA = wR (Towards right), VB =
(Towards left)
2
(3) VA = +
wR
(Towards right), VB = wR (Towards left)
4
(4) VA = +
wR
wR
(Towards right), VB =
(Towards left)
2
2
A uniform rod of mass 4m and length L lies on a smooth horizontal table. A particle of mass m moving on the
table strikes the rod perpendicularly at an end and stops. Velocity of centre of mass of the rod after collision
is
(1) v0
(2)
v0
2
(3)
v0
4
(4)
v0
6
9/91
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TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
11.
In question 10, angular velocity of the rod after collision is
12.
3v 0
3v 0
v0
v0
(2)
(3)
(4)
2L
4L
2L
4L
In question 10, distance travelled by the centre of rod by the time it turns through one revolution is
(1)
pL
pL
(4)
12
3
A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is gently placed on a rough horizontal ground with an angular speed
w0 and no linear veloicty. Coefficient of friction is m. Find the time t when the slipping stops.
(1) pL
13.
(1)
14.
2Rw 0
7mg
(3)
2Rw 0
3mg
(4)
2Rw 0
14mg
2
w
5 0
(2)
2
w
7 0
(3)
2
w
3 0
(4)
2
w
14 0
In question 13, the angular momentum of the sphere about the bottommost point at the end of slipping is
(1)
16.
(2)
(3)
In question 13, the angualr velocity at the end of the slipping is

(1)
15.
2Rw 0
5mg
(2) 2pL
2
mR 2w 20
5
(2)
2
mR 2w20
7
(3)
2
mR 2w 20
3
(4) None of these
A uniform hollow sphere is released from the top of a fixed inclined plane of inclination 37 and height 7m. It
rolls without sliding. (g = 10 ms 2)
The acceleration of the centre of mass of the hollow sphere is

(1)
(2)
18 -2
ms
5
(3)
9 -2
ms
5
15 -2
ms
7
In question 16, the speed of the point of contact of the sphere with the inclined plane when the sphere reaches
halfway of the incline is
(2) 21 ms -1
(3) 84 ms -1
42 ms -1
In question 16, the time taken by the sphere to reach the bottom is
(1)
18.
(4)
(4) zero
3
5
5
s
(2) s
(3) s
(4) None of these
5
3
4
A sphere rolls without slipping on a rough horizontal surface with centre of mass has constant speed v0. If mass
of the sphere is m and its radius is R, then what is the angular momentum of the sphere about the point of
contact
(1)
19.
(1)
10/91
5
mv0 R
2
(2)
7
mv 0 R
5
(3)
3
mv 0 R
5
(4)
1
mv 0R
2
17.
30 -2
ms
7
ALLEN
Path to Success
20.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
In an experiment with a beam balance on unknown mass m is balanced by two known masses of 16 kg and 4 kg
as shown in figure. The value of the unknown mass m is
l1
l2
l1
m
l2
16kg
(1) 10 kg
(2) 6 kg
(3) 8 kg
(4) 12 kg
A small solid sphere of mass m is released from a point A at a height h above the bottom of a rough track as
shown in the figure. If the sphere rolls down the track without slipping, its rotational kinetic energy when it
comes to the bottom of track is
10
(1) mgh
(2)
mgh
7
\\\\
\\\
\
2
mgh
7
(4)
\\\ \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
\
5
mgh
7
\\
\\\\\\
\ \ \\
\\\
(3)
\\\\
\\
\ \\
\\\
\\\\\\\\\\\
\\\\
\\\\
\\\\\\\
\\\\
21.
4kg
SHM
1.
Frequency of oscillation of a body is 6 Hz when force F1 is applied and 8 Hz when F2 is applied. If both forces
F1 & F2 are applied together then the frequency of oscillation, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
(1) 14 Hz
2.
(2) 2n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n
On the superposition of two harmonic oscillations represented by x1 = a sin (wt + f1) and x2 = a sin (wt + f2)
a resulting oscillation with the same t ime period a nd amplitude is obtained. Th e value of
f1 f2 is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
(1) 120
4.
(4) 10 2 Hz
(3) 10 Hz
When a particle oscillates simple harmonically, its kinetic energy varies periodically. If frequency of the oscillation
of particle is n, then the frequency of oscillations of K.E., is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
(1) n
3.
(2) 2 Hz
(2) 90
(3) 60
(4) 15
In damped oscillations, the amplitude after 50 oscillations is 0.8 a 0, where a0 is the initial amplitude, then the
amplitude after 150 oscillations is :(1) 0.512 a0
5.
(2) 0.280 a0
(3) Zero
(4) a0
Spring of spring constant 1200 Nm1 is mounted on a smooth frictionless surface and attached to a block of
mass 3 kg. Block is pulled 2 cm to the right and released. The angular frequency of oscillation is :-
(1) 5 rad/sec
6.
(2) 30 rad/sec
(3) 10 rad/sec
(4) 20 rad/sec
A simple pendulum of length 1m is allowed to oscillate with amplitude 2. It collides

elastically with a wall inclined at 1 to the vertical. Its time period will be : (use g = p2)
(1) 2/3 sec
(2) 4/3 sec
(3) 2 sec
(4) None of these
11/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
7.
Path to Success
Identify, which of the following functions represents simple harmonic motion

(1) y = aewt
(2) y = a sin2 wt
(3) y = a sin wt +b cos wt
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
(4) y= sin wt + cos 2wt
Values of the acceleration &x& of a particle moving in simple harmonic motion as a function of its displacement x
are given in the table below.
8.
&&x ( mm/ s2 )
16
-16
x (mm)
The period of the motion is

(1)
9.
1
s
p
(2)
2
s
p
(3)
p
s
2
(4) p s
Two pendulums of time periods 3 s and 7s respectively start oscillating simultaneously from two opposite
extreme positions. After how much time they will be in phase
(1)
10.
11.
21
s
8
(2)
21
s
4
(3)
21
s
2
(4)
21
s
10
A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM of amplitude 0.1 m. When the particle passes through the
mean position, its KE is 8 103 J. Find the equation of motion of this particle if the initial phase of oscillation is
45
(1) y = 0.1 cos (3t + p/4)
(2) y = 0.1 sin (6t + p/4)
(3) y = 0.1 sin (4t + p/4)
(4) y = 0.1 cos (4t + p/4)
Pendulum A is a physical pendulum made from a thin rigid and uniform rod whose length is l. One end of this
rod is attached to the ceiling by a frictionless hinge so that rod is free to swing back and forth. Pendulum B is
TA
a simple pendulum whose length is also l. The ratio T for small angular oscillationsB
(1)
13.
(2)
2
3
(3)
2
3
(4)
3
2
The potential energy U of a particle is given by U = {20 + (x4)2}J. Total mechanical energy of the particle is 36
J. Select the correct alternative(s)
(i) the particle oscillates about point x=4 m
(ii) the amplitude of the particle is 4m
(iii) the kinetic energy of the particle at x=2 m is 12 J
(iv) the motion of the particle is periodic but not simple harmonic
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii)
p
A particle moves along the Z-axis according to the equation z = 5+12 cos 2pt + , where z is in cm and t is
2
in seconds. Select the correct alternative (s)-
(i) The motion of the particle is SHM with mean position at z = 5cm
(ii) The motion of the particle is SHM with extreme position at z = 7cm and z = +17 cm.
(iii) Amplitude of SHM is 13 cm
(iv) Amplitude of SHM is 12 cm
The correct option is :(1) (i), (ii), (iv)
12/91
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii)
12.
3
2
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
THERMAL PHYSICS
1.
5
R. 2 moles of this gas is taken in a thermodynamically insulated system and 300
2
joules is supplied to the gas. The increase in temperature, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
CP for an ideal gas is
(1)
2.
100
K
R
(2)
50
K
R
(3)
150
K
R
200
K
R
(4)
Two moles of helium gas (g = 5/3), assumed ideal, are initially at 27C and occupy a volume of 20 litres. The
gas is first expanded at constant pressure till its volume is doubled. It then undergoes an adiabatic change until
the temperature returns to its initial value. [R = 8.3 J mol1 K1]
(1) Final volume of the gas is 75 2 litre

(2) Final pressure of the gas is 0.44 105 N/m2
(3) Work done under isobaric process is 4765 J
(4) Work done under adiabatic process is 7506J
3.
Assuming Newton's law of cooling to be valid. The temperature of body changes from 60C to 40C
in 7 minutes. Temperature of surroundings being 10C, its temperature after next 7 minutes, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
(1) 7C
4.
(2) 14C
(3) 21C
(4) 28C
The weight of sphere in air is 50g. Its weight 40 g in a liquid, at temperature 20C. When temperature increases
to 70C, it weight becomes 45 g, then the ratio of densities of liquid at given two temperature is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2008]
(1) 2 : 1
5.
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
The figure given below shows the variation in the internal energy U with
volume V of 2.0 mole of an ideal gas in a cyclic process a b c d a. The
temperatures of the gas during the processes a b and c d are 500K and 300K
respectively, the heat absorbed by the gas during the complete process is :(Take R = 8.3 J/molK and ln 2 = 0.69)
(1) 3200 J
6.
(2) Zero
(3) 2100 J
(4) 1 : 1
U
a
d
V0
b
c
2Vu
(4) 2291 J
2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupying volume V is adiabatically expanded from temperature 300K
to a volume of 2 2 V. Then the final temperature & change in internal energy are respectively (R = 8.3)
7.
(1) 150 K, 3735 J
(2) 140 K, 3735 J
(3) 150 K, 3537 J
(4) 140 K, 3537 J
A heat engine is having a source at temperature 527C and sink at temperature 127C. If the useful work is
required to be done by the engine at the rate of 750 watt, then the amount of heat absorbed by the sink per
second from the source in calories and the efficiency of heat engine are :(1) 482.2 cal/sec, 50%
(2) 482.2 cal/sec, 25%
(3) 357.14 cal/sec, 50%
(4) 357.14 cal/sec, 25%
13/91
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8.
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CAREER INSTITUTE
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A clock with a metallic pendulum gains 6 seconds each day when the temperature is 20C and loses 6
second when the temperature is 40C. Find the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal.
9.
(1) 1.4 105 C1
(2) 1.4 106 C1
(3) 1.4 104 C1
(4) 0.4 106 C1
Figure shows the adiabatic curve on loglog scale

7
performed on a ideal gas. The gas must be :
6
5
(1) Monoatomic
logT
(2) Diatomic
3
2
1
(3) A mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
(4) A mixture of diatomic and polyatomic

10.
4 5 6
log V
9 10 11
An ideal gas expands in such a way that PV2 = constant throughout the process. Select correct alternative
(1) This expansion is not possible without heating
(2) This expansion is not possible without cooling
(3) Internal energy remains constant in this expansion
(4) Internal energy increases in this expansion
11.
The variation of the lnT versus lnlm and lnE versus lnT are shown in figure. T is the temperature of the body
in Kelvins, lm is the wavelength corresponding to maximum spectral radiant energy and E is the energy emitted
by the body per second. The intercept made by the line 1 on the yaxis is A. What is the slope of line1?
lnE
Line-2
lnT
(1) 2
(4) 0.5
(3) 1
(4) 0.5
In question 11, what is the slope of line2?

(1) 2
13.
(3) 1
(2) 4
In question 11, what is the value of Wein's displacement constant?
(1) eA
14/91
(2)
1
eA
(3) lnA
(4)
1
lnA
12.
(2) 4
ALLEN
Path to Success
14.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Figure shows the temperature variation when heat is added continuously to a specimen of ice (10 g) at 40
C at constant rate. (Specific heat of ice is 0.53 cal/g C and Lice = 80 cal/g, Lwater= 540 cal/g)
Temp. (C)
100
0
-40
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
ColumnI
(i) Value of Q1 in cal
(ii) Value of Q2 in cal
(iii) Value of Q3 in cal
(iv) Value of Q4 in cal
The correct option is :(1) (i) S, (ii) P, (iii) R, (iv) Q
(3) (i) S, (ii) P, (iii) Q, (iv) R
15.
Q(cal)
ColumnII
(P) 800 cal
(Q) 1000 cal
(R) 5400 cal
(S) 212 cal
(2) (i) P, (ii) S, (iii) R, (iv) Q
(4) (i) Q, (ii) P, (iii) R, (iv) S
Volume versus pressure curves for one mole of an ideal gas are given for four processes as shown in figure.
(B Adiabatic process, C Isothermal process)
V
V2
B
V1
P2
ColumnI
P1
ColumnII
(i)
For process A
(P) Work done by the gas is positive.
(ii)
For process B
(Q) Temperature will increase.
(iii) For process C
(R) Heat supplied is positive.
(iv) For process D
(S) Change in internal energy is negative.
16.
(1) (i) S, (ii) PS, (iii) PR, (iv) PQR
(2) (i) P, (ii) S, (iii) R, (iv) Q
(3) (i) PS, (ii) P, (iii) PR , (iv) PQR
(4) (i) Q, (ii) P, (iii) R, (iv) S
The temperature drop through a two layer furnace wall is 900C. Each layer
is of equal area of crosssection. Which of the following action(s) will result in
lowering the temperature q of the interface?
(i) By increasing the thermal conductivity of outer layer.
(ii) By increasing the thermal conductivity of inner layer.
(iii) By increasing thickness of outer layer.
(iv) By increasing thickness of inner layer.
The correct option is :(1) (i), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (iii)

15/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
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TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
GRAVITATION
1.
An earth satellite is moved from one stable circular orbit to another higher stable circular orbit. Which one of the
following quantities increases for the satellite as a result of the change?
(1) gravitational force
(2) gravitational potential energy
(3) angular velocity
(4) linear orbital speed
2.
Consider that the Earth is revolving round the Sun in an circular orbit with period T. The area of the circular orbit
is directly proportional to
(1) T2/3
(2) T1/3
(3) T4/3
(4) T1/2
The escape velocity for a planet is ve. A particle starts from rest at a large distance from the planet, reaches
the planet only under gravitational attraction, and passes through a smooth tunnel through its centre. Its speed
at the centre of the planet will be-
3.
(1)
4.
ve
(3) ve
(4) zero
A particle is projected vertically upwards the surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed equal to one fourth of
escape velocity. What is the maximum height attained by it from the surface of the earth ?
(1)
5.
(2)
1.5v e
16
Re
15
(2)
Re
15
(3)
4
Re
15
(4) None of these
A satellite of mass m is orbiting the Earth at a height h above its surface. The mass of the Earth is M and its
radius R. Match the physical quantities in column I with the expression in column II
ColumnI
ColumnII
(i)
GMm
2 ( R + h)
(ii)
GM
R+h
(Q) Kinetic energy of the satellite.
(iii)
-GMm
R+h
(R) Orbital velocity of the satellite.
(iv)
GMm
(
2 R + h)
(S) Total energy of satellite.
(P) Potential energy of the earth satellite system.
The correct option is :(1) (i) S, (ii) P, (iii) R, (iv) Q

(2) (i) P, (ii) S, (iii) R, (iv) Q
(3) (i) S, (ii) P, (iii) Q, (iv) R
(4) (i) Q, (ii) R, (iii) P, (iv) S
Two point objects of masses m and 4m are at rest at an infinite separation. They move towards each other
under mutual gravitational attraction. If G is the universal gravitational constant, then at a separation r
(i) the total mechanical energy of the two objects is zero (ii) their relative velocity is
(iii) the total kinetic energy of the objects is
4Gm 2
r
(iv) their relative velocity is zero
(2) (ii), (ii)
(3) (i), (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
16/91
10Gm
r
6.
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
SOUND WAVES
1.
Speed of sound in a metallic rod of density 4 10 3 kg/m3 is 5000 m/s. The magnitude of linear stress required
to produce a linear strain of 1 percent in the rod, is :(1) 10 N/m
8
2.
(2) 10 N/m
9
(3) 10 N/m
3
(4) 104 N/m2
Two tuning forks A and B produce 8 beats/s when sounded together. A gas column 37.5 cm long in a pipe
closed at one end resonate to its fundamental mode with fork A whereas a column of length 38.5 cm of the
same gas in a similar pipe is required for a similar resonance with fork B. The frequencies of these two tuning
forks, are :[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
(1) 308 Hz, 300 Hz
(2) 208 Hz, 200 Hz
(3) 300 Hz, 400 Hz
(4) 350 Hz, 500 Hz
3.
Two identical wires under the same tension have a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz. The fractional increase
in the tension of one wire will give 5 beats per second, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.04
4.
A string with a mass density of 4 103 kg/m is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both ends. One of its
resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz. The mass of the string
is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
3
3
3
(1) 2 10 kg
(2) 3 10 kg
(3) 4 10 kg
(4) 8 103 kg
5.
A policemen buzz a whistle of frequency 400 Hz. A car driver is approaching the policemen. The speed of
car is 54 kmh1. The change in frequency experienced by the driver, when driver approaches the policemen
and after he crosses the policemen, is :- [Velocity of sound is 350 ms1]
(1) 42.8 Hz
6.
(2) 34.2 Hz
(3) 38.6 Hz
(4) 27.6 Hz
Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y1= 4 sin(500pt) and y2= 2 sin(506pt). These
tuning forks are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear
(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
7.
y (x, t) = 5 sin (wt x/5)

(1) Not a travelling wave
(2) A travelling wave with speed v = 10
(3) The wave is travelling in +x direction
(4) The wave is travelling in x direction
8.
A traveling wave is of the form y (x,t) = A cos (kx wt) + B sin (kx wt), which can also be written as
y (x,t) = D sin (kx wt f) where
9.
(1) D = A + B
(2) D = |A + B|
(3) D2 = A2 + B2
(4) D = A B
Consider the snapshot of a wave traveling in positive xdirection

(1) The particle A is moving in ve ydirection and particle B is moving in +ydirection
(2) The particle B is moving in ve ydirection and particle A is moving in +ydirection

(3) Both are moving in the +ve ydirection
(4) Both are moving in the ve ydirection

17/91
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10.
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CAREER INSTITUTE
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The displacement of the medium in a sound wave is given by the equation

y=A cos (ax + bt)
where A, a and b are constants. The wave is reflected by an obstacle situated at x=0. The intensity of the reflected
wave is 0.64 times that of the incident wave. What is the wave length and velocity of the incident wave?
(1)
11.
12.
13.
2p b
,
a a
(2)
2p a
,
a b
(3)
2p b
,
b a
(4)
1 b
,
b a
In question 10, the equation for the reflected wave is

(1) 0.64 A cos (axbt)
(2) 0.8A cos (axbt)
(3) 0.6A cos (axbt)
(4) 0.36A cos (axbt)
In question 10, the equation for the transmitted wave is

(1) 0.64 A cos (ax+bt)
(2) 0.8A cos (ax+bt)
(3) 0.6 A cos (ax+bt)
(4) 0.36 cos (ax+bt)
Following is given the equation of a stationary wave (all in SI units) y = (0.06) sin (2px) cos (5pt)
Column I
Column II
(Only magnitude in SI units)
(i)
Amplitude of constituent wave (in m)
(P)
0.06
(ii)
Position of node at x =...... (in m)
(Q)
0.5
(iii) Position of antinode at x =.... (in m)
(R)
0.25
(iv) Amplitude at x = 1/12 m (in m)
(S)
0.03
The correct option is

(1) (i) S, (ii) P, (iii) R, (iv) Q
(2) (i) P, (ii) S, (iii) R, (iv) Q
(3) (i) S, (ii) Q, (iii) R, (iv) S
(4) (i) Q, (ii) P, (iii) R, (iv) S
At x=0 particle oscillate by law y =
equation of wave
(1) y =
15.
16.
3
2
2 t - + 1
2
(2) y =
3
. If wave is propagating along ve x axis with velocity 2m/s. Find
2t + 1
2
3
2
2 t + + 1
(3) y =
3
2
2 t - + 1
2
(4) y =
(2) Vertically downward
(3) At Rest
(4) Cannot be determined
2 t + + 1
A triangular transvers wave is propagating in the positive X-direction

Velocity of P at this instant will be(1) Vertically upward
x
P
S1 , S2 are two coherent sources of sound located along x - axis separated by 4 l

where l is wavelength of sound emitted by them . Number of maxima located on
S1
4l
S2
the elliptical boundary around it will be :

(1) 16
17.
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4
Four tuning forks of frequencies 200,201, 204 and 206 Hz are sounded together. The beat frequency will
be(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) None of these
18/91
14.
ALLEN
Path to Success
18.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Three progressive waves A, B and C are shown in figure. With respect to wave A
(1) The wave C lags behind in phase by
p
p
and B leads by .
2
2
(2) The wave C leads in phase by p and B lags behind by p.

(3) The wave C leads in phase by
p
p
and B lags behind by .
2
2
(4) The wave C lags behind in phase by p and B leads by p.

19.
Two waves traveling in a medium in the xdirection are represented by y 1=A sin(at bx) and
y2=A cos(bx + at p/4), where y1 and y2 are the displacements of the particles of the medium, t is time, and a
and b are constants. The two waves have different
(1) speeds
20.
(2) directions of propagation
(3) wavelengths
(4) frequencies
A racing car moving towards a cliff sounds its horn. The driver observes that the sound reflected from the cliff has
a pitch one octave higher than the actual sound of the horn. If v is the velocity of sound then the velocity of the car
is
(1)
21.
v
2
(2)
v
2
(3)
v
3
(4)
v
4
An ultrasonic burglar alarm in still air transmits a signal at a frequency of 4.5 104 Hz, part of which is reflected
by the burglar to receiver along side the transmitter. The alarm is triggered by any beat frequency greater than
5 Hz. Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. The minimum velocity of approach of the burglar to activate the
alarm, will be
(1) 0.2 ms1
22.
(2) 4 cms1
(3) 2 ms1
(4) 20 mm s1
A car moves towards a hill with speed vC. It blows a horn of frequency f which is heared by an observer following
the car with speed v0. The speed of sound in air is v.
v
f
v - vC
(ii) The wavelength of sound reaching the hill is
f
(i) The wavelength of sound reaching the hill is
v + v0
(iii) The beat frequency observed by the observer is v - v f
(iv) The beat frequency observed by the observer is
2v C ( v + v 0 ) f
v 2 - v 2C
The correct option is :(1) (ii), (iv)

23.
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (iv)
A wave equation is given as y = cos(500t 70x), where y is in mm, x in m and t is in sec.
(i) The wave must be a transverse propagating wave
(ii) The speed of the wave is 50/7 m/s

(iii) The frequency of oscillations is 100p Hz
(iv) Two closest points which are in same phase have separation 20p/7 cm
The correct option is :(1) (i) & (ii)
(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

19/91
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24.
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The second overtones of an open organ pipe A and a closed pipe B have the same frequency at a given
temperature. It follows that the ratio of the
(i) length of A and B is 4 : 3
(ii) fundamental frequencies of A and B is 5 : 6
(iii) length of B to that of A is 5 : 6
(iv) frequencies of first overtone of A and B is 10 : 9
(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) (iii) & (iv)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1.
Prove that about any point the total angular momentum of two particles moving with linear momentum of
same magnitude in opposite direction remains constant.
2.
How does torque related to (i) angular momentum and (ii) angular acceleration
3.
Define (i) Steady state and (ii) Temperature gradient in conduction of heat through a conducting rod.
4.
If earth is assumed to be a sphere of uniform density then plot a graph between acceleration due to gravity
(g), and distance from the centre of earth.
5.
Are there any physical quantities out of the following which have the same dimensions? If yes, identify
them. Impulse, torque, angular momentum, energy, force, moment of inertia. [AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
6.
Show that for a monoatomic gas the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to specific heat at
constant volume is 1.67.
7.
Can it be possible to boil water without heating ? Explain.
8.
r r
r
r r r
Three vectors A, B and C are such that A = B + C and their magnitudes are in ratio 5 : 4 : 3 respectively.
( *) Marked questions are only for AIIMS

20/91
r
r
Find angle between vector A and C
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
ELECTRODYNAMICS
1.
The value of R so that same amount of heat
is dissipated in R and rest of the circuit, is :(1) 4 W

2.
(2) 8 W
(3) 3 W
(4) 5 W
Two voltameters are connected in series in which Ag and Cu deposited on respective electrodes. The deposited
mass ratio of Cu and Ag, is :(1)
3.
A Cu
2A Ag
2A Cu
(2) A
Ag
4A Cu
(3) A
Ag
A Cu
(4) 4A
Ag
For shown circuit :-
(1) Current in circuit is 10A

(2) Voltage across inductor is 100V
(3) Voltage across capacitor is 200V
(4) Voltage on capacitor is more than that
of supply voltage because the phase
difference between VL and VC is 180
4.
If bigger hollow sphere has charge Q then the charge on inner earthed sphere, is :(1)
(3)
5.
6.
R
Q
r
r
Q
R
(2)
R
Q
r
(4)
r
Q
R
The magnetic field at point P, is :-
(1)
m0 I
e
2pd
(2)
m0 I
e
4 pd
(3)
m0I
2p d
(4)
m0 I
4 pd
For the given circuit

(1) The phase difference between IL & I R1 is 0
Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\ Eng.\Class XII
(2) The phase difference between VC & VR2 is 90
(3) The phase difference between IL & I R1 is 180

(4) The phase difference between VC & VR2 is 180
7.
The electric field in a region is radially outward with magnitude E = Ar . The charge contained in a sphere of
radius a centred at the region is :- (Take A = 1000 V/m2 and a = 30 cm)
(1) 2 109 C
(2) 3 109 C
(3) 5 109 C
(4) 6 109 C
21/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
8.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Four bulbs with rating 60 W220V are connected in series to a source of EMF 220 V. The total dissipation
of power in the circuit, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
(1) 5 W
9.
(2) 10 W
(3) 15 W
(4) 20 W
The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate of 102 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic field of induction 103 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil when the induced e.m.f.
in the coil is 1mV, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
(1)
10.
2
cm
p
(2)
1
LC
(4)
5
cm
p
(2) 1.76 mm
(3) 0 mm
(4) 5 mm
(2) w >
(3) w =
LC
(4) None of these
LC
An alternating current of 40 A flows through a silver voltameter for 15 minutes. The electrochemical equivalent of silver is 1118 106 kg/C. The amount of silver which is liberated, is:[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
(1) 4 g
13.
4
cm
p
In a series L.C.R. a.c. circuit at offresonance, the value of the angular frequency for which the some voltage
leads the current in the circuit, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
(1) w <
12.
(3)
In a parallel plate air capacitor, a cathode beam comprising n = 106 electrons is emitted with a velocity
v0 = 108 m/s into the space between the plates. The potential difference between the plate is f = 400 V, the
seperation between the plates is d = 2 cm and the area of each plate is l2 = 100 cm2. The deflection of the
electron beam, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
(1) 1.6 mm
11.
3
cm
p
(2) 2 g
(3) 8 g
(4) No sliver is liberated
A cube of side 20 cm has its center at the origin and its one side
is along the x-axis, so that one end is at x=+10cm and the other is at x=
10cm. The magnitude of electric field is 100 N/C and for x>0 it is pointing in the +ve x- direction and for x<0 it is pointing in the ve x-direction
as shown. The sign and value of charges inside the box, are :(Given that 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2)
(1) Negative, 6 1011C
(2) Positive, 7.08 1011C
(3) Positive, 6 1011C
(4) Negative, 7.08 1011C
A parallel plate capacitor have distance between its plate is

d and area of each plate is A. Now half of capacitor is with
filled a subtance of dielectric constant K according to given
figure. The capacity of the condenser, is :(1)
22/91
e0 A
(K + 2)
2d
(2)
e0 A
(K + 1)
3d
(3)
e0 A
(K + 1)
2d
(4)
e0 A
(K + 3)
4d
14.
ALLEN
Path to Success
15.
17.
AIPMT MAINS - XII
A semi circular loop is given in fig. with current I and having radius R. The value of magnetic induction at D,
(1)
16.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
m0 I
R
(2)
m0 I
4R
(3)
m0 I
3R
(4)
m0 I
2R
In the series LCR circuit at resonance the applied a.c. voltage is 220V. The potential drop across R
(1) 200 V
(2) 400 V
(3) 220 V
(4) 440 V
The coercivity of a bar magnet is 2 103 A/m. It is placed lengthwise in an ideal solenoid of length
15 cm having 150 turns. The current required in the solenoid to fully demagnetise the magnet is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
18.
(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 4 A
A solid conducting sphere of radius a has charge +q. The sphere is surrounded concentrically by a conducting
shell of inner and outer radii r and R respectively. The electric potential at a point which is at a distance x,
(r < x < R), from the centre of the sphere is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
q
(1) 4pe R
0
19.
20.
21.
22.
(2)
3q
4pe 0R
(3)
8q
4pe 0R
(4)
5q
4pe 0R
A conducting sphere is placed in air of dielectric strength 3 106 volt/m. The minimum radius of the sphere
that can be raised to a potential of 9 million volts is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m
There are 10 turns in coil M and 15 turns in coil N. If a current of 2A is passed through coil M then the flux
linked with coil N is 1.8 103 Wb. If a current of 3A is passed through coil N then flux linked with coil M
3
3
5
(1) 1.7 10 Wb
(2) 2.7 10 Wb
(3) 1.7 10 Wb
(4) 2.7 105 Wb
When a current of 4 A flows within a battery from its positive to negative terminal, the potential difference
across the battery is 12 volts. The potential difference across the battery is 9 volts when a current of 2 A flows
within it from its negative to its positive terminal. The internal resistance and the e.m.f. of the battery are :(1) 0.1 W, 4V
(2) 0.2 W, 5V
(3) 0.5 W, 10V
(4) 0.7 W, 10V
The magnetic force between wires as shown in figure is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
i
(1)
23.
m 0iI2 x + l
ln
2x
2p
(2)
m 0iI2 2x + l
ln
2x
2p
(3)
m 0iI x + l
ln
x
2p
(4) None of these
A condenser of capacity 6 F is fully charged using a 6-volt battery. The battery is removed and a
resistanceless 0.2 mH inductor is connected across the condenser. The current which is flowing through the
inductor when one-third of the total energy is in the magnetic field of the inductor is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
(1) 0.1 A
(2) 0.2 A
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 0.6 A
23/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
24.
Path to Success
r
r
Two small electric dioples, one of dipole moment p1 at point A and the other of dipole moment p2 at point
r
B, are as shown in the figure. The torque experienced by the dipole p 2 is :p1
p2
x
25.
(1) Zero
(2)
(3) Can't determined
(4) None of these
A conducting coil is bent in the form of equilateral triangle of side 5 cm. Current flowing through it is 0.2 A.
The magnetic moment of the triangle is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2008]
(1)
26.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
3 102 Am2
(2) 2.2 104 Am2
(3) 2.2 102 Am2
(4)
3 104 Am2
A right circular cylinder of length 2a cm and radius r cm has its centre at the origin O and its axis along the xaxis so that one flat face is at x = +a cm and the other is at x = a cm as is shown in the figure. It is placed
r
r
in a uniform electric field E = E xi NC1 for x > 0 and E = - E xi NC1 for x < 0. Then [AIPMT MAINS - 2008]
y
E
E
O
a
27.
28.
(1)
The net outward flux through each flat surface is Eapr2 106 Nm2/C
(2)
The net outward flux through curved surface of the cylinder is zero
(3)
The net charge inside the cylinder is Ear2 5 1015 C
(4)
The net charge inside the cylinder is Ear2 25 1015 C
A circular coil of 500 turns encloses an area of 0.04 m2. A uniform magnetic field of induction
0.25 Wb/m2 is applied perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The coil is rotated by 90 in 0.1 second at a
constant angular velocity about one of its diameters. A galvanometer of resistance 25W was connected in series
with the the coil. The total charge that will pass through the galvanometer is [AIPMT MAINS - 2008]
(1) 0.4 C
(2) 1 C
(3) 0.2 C
(4) Zero
An LCR series circuit having 220 V ac source, inductance L = 25 mH and resistance R = 100W. If voltage
across inductor is just double of voltage across resistor then frequency of source is nearly :[AIPMT MAINS - 2008]
(1) 1273.88/s
29.
(2) 1473.88/s
(3) Zero
(4) None of these
A periodic voltage V varies with time t as shown in the figure. T is the time period. The r.m.s. value of the
voltage is :-
V
V0
(1)
30.
V0
8
For given circuit
V0
2
(2)
Vs
50V
P
5W
24/91
(3) V0
(4)
V0
4
0V
Q
I2
3W
I1
15W
(1) Value of VS is 20 V
(3) Value of I2 is 9 A
I3
30V
R
(2) Value of I1 is 5 A
(4) Power drawn by circuit is 640W
T/4
ALLEN
Path to Success
31.
q m + 2q n
4
(3) q m +
qn
2
(4)
q m + 2q n
2
(2) 2W
(3)
1
W
3
(4)
1
W
4
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 1.75 A
(4) 2A
Current changes in time interval 5 sec. from 4A to 2A in a coil of self inductance 0.1 H. Induced emf in coil
is [AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1) +0.04 volt
35.
qm + qn
4
Efficiency of a transformer is 80% and primary and secondary coil has 30 and 120 turns respectively. Current
in secondary coil is 0.25A. Current in primary is [AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1) 1.25 A
34.
(2)
When a 2W resistance is connected to a cell then 2A current flow in it and when 9W resistance is connected
to cell then 0.5 A current flow in it. Internal resistance of cell is [AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1) 1W
33.
AIPMT MAINS - XII
Two identical conducting spheres M and N has charges qm and qn respectively. A third identical neutral sphere
P is brought in contact with M and then seperated. Now sphere P is brought in contact with N then final charge
on sphere P is [AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1)
32.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
(2) +1.2 volt
(3) +2 volt
(4) 3.2 volt
A circuit is arranged as shown. Then, the current from A to B is

(1) +500 mA
(2) +250 mA
(3) 250 mA
(4) 500 mA
36.
In the circuit shown below, the current that flows from a to b when
the switch S is closed, is
(1) 1.5 A
(2) + 1.5A
(3) +1.0 A
(4) 1.0 A
37.
Given two different ammeters in which the deflection is proportional to current and the scales are uniform.
Information I : The ammeters are connected in series between point A and B together with R1 and R2. In
this case the reading of the ammeters are A1 and A2.
Information II : The ammeters are connected in parallel between A and B together with R1 and R2. In this
case, the reading of the ammeters are A3 and A4.
The value of R2 in terms of R1, A1,A2, A3 and A4 will be
A1 A 2
R1
(1) R 2 =
A 3 A 4
A1 A 4
R1
(2) R 2 =
A 2 A 3
A2 A3
R1
(3) R 2 =
A1 A 4
A3 A 4
R1
(4) R 2 =
A1 A 2
25/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
38.
An equilateral triangular loop of wire of side l carries a current i. The magnetic field produced at the circumcenter
of the loop is
(1)
39.
40.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
m0 3 3i
4p l
(2)
m0 9i
4p l
(3)
m 0 18i
4p l
(4)
m0 6i
4p l
Two cylindrical straight and very long non magnetic conductors A and B, insulated from
each other, carry a current I in the positive and the negative zdirection respectively.
The direction of magnetic field at origin is :
(1) -i
(2) +i
(3) j
Switch S is closed at t=0. After sufficiently long time an iron rod is inserted
into the inductor L. Then, the light bulb
(1) Glows more brightly
(4) j
(2) Gets dimmer
41.
(3) Glows with the same brightness

(4) Gets momentarily dimmer and then glows more brightly
The instantaneous magnitudes of the electric field (E) and the magnetic field (B) vectors in an electromagnetic wave
propagating in vacuum are related as
B
B
(4) E=c2B
(2) E=cB
(3) E = 2
c
c
*42. In the given circuit, the capacitor of capacitance C is charged by closing key K at t = 0. Find the time required
to charge the capacitor upto maximum charge for the given circuit, if it were to be charged with the constant
initial charging rate at t = 0 in the given circuit.
R
C
(1) E =
(1)
RC
3
(2)
2RC
(3)
3
43.
2R
R
5RC
(4)
3
A small square loop of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire L(>>l). The loops are coplanar and
their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is proportional to
(1) (l/L)
44.
2RC
5
(2) (l2/L)
(3) (L/l)
(4) (L2/l)
An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius R makes n revolution per second. The magnetic field strength at
the centre has magnitude
2m 0 ne
m ne
m ne
(2) 0
(3) 0
(4) zero
R
2R
pR
There are four arrangements of three fixed point electric charges. In each arrangement, a point labeled P is
also identified as test charge, +q, is placed at point P. All of the charges are the same magnitude, Q, but they
can be either positive or negative as indicated. The charges and point P all lie on a straight line. The distances
between adjacent items, either between two charges or between a charge and point P, are all the same.
P
P
I. +
II. +
+
+
+
(1)
III. +
IV. +
Correct order of choices in a decreasing order of magnitude of force on P is

(1) II > I > III > IV
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
*46. In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time, and then X is joined to Z.
The total heat produced in R2 is
2
(1)
Le
2R12
(2)
2
Le
(3) 2R R
1 2
26/91
Le
2R 22
Le 2 R 2
(4) 2R 3
1
(4) III > IV > I > II

R2
L
+ e
Z
Y
R1
45.
AIPMT MAINS - XII
*47. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal. The coil has an inductance of 4H and
zero resistance. F is a fuse of zero resistance and will blow when the current
through it reaches 5A. The switch is closed at t=0. The fuse will blow
(1) almost at once
(2) after 2 sec
(3) after 5 sec
(4) after 10 sec
*48. In the circuit, if no current flows through the galvanometer when the key K is
closed, the bridge is balanced. The balancing condition for bridge is
C1 R1
(1) C = R
2
2
C1 R 2
(2) C = R
2
1
2
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
+
-
L=4H
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
E=2V
ALLEN
R1
R2
G
C2
C1
(3)
C
R
=
C
R
2
1
2
2
(4)
C
R
= 2
C
R1
*49. The figure shows, two point charges q1 = 2Q (>0) and q2 = Q. The charges divide the line joining them in three
parts I, II and III
(1) Region III has a local maxima of electric field
I
II
III
(2) Region I has a local minima of electric field
+ 2Q
Q
(3) Equilibrium position for a test charge lies in region II
(4) None of these
z-axis
50. In the figure shown, the equilibrium of proton p is neutral with respect to its
y-axis
(a,0)
q
displacement along
(0,a)
(1) xaxis
O
(0,a) p
q
(2) yaxis
(a,0)
q
x-axis
(3) zaxis
(4) At 45 with xaxis in xy plane
*51. The plates of very small size of a parallel plate capacitor are charged as shown. The
Q
q
force on the charged particle of charge q at a distance l from the capacitor is :

(Assume that the distance between the plates is d<< l)
Qqd
(2) 2 p l3
0
(1) Zero
52.
Qqd
(3) p l3
0
v
B
v
z
55.
y
B
54.
Qqd
(4) 4 p l3
0
r
The figure shows three situations when an electron with velocity vr travels through a uniform magnetic field B .
In each case, what is the direction of magnetic force on the electron?
y
53.
z
2
(1) positive zaxis, negative xaxis, positive yaxis
(2) negative zaxis, negative xaxis and zero
(3) positive zaxis, positive yaxis and zero
(4) negative zaxis, positive xaxis and zero
The electric potential varies in space according to the relation V = (3x+4y +5) volts where x and y are in
meters. A particle of mass 10 g starts from point (2m, 3.2 m, 0) under the influence of this field. The charge on
the particle is 10 mC. The component of electric field in Xdirection is
(1) 3Vm1
(2) 4 Vm1
(3) 5 Vm1
(4) 7 Vm1
In question 53, the component of electric field in Ydirection is
(1) 3Vm1
(2) 4 Vm1
(3) 5 Vm1
(4) 7 Vm1
In question 53, the time taken to cross xaxis is
(1) 4s
(2) 40 s
(3) 400 s
(4) 4000 s
27/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
56.
A particle of mass m and positive charge q is projected horizontally from height h with velocity v 0 as shown in
figure. A uniform electric field is acting in +ve xdirection. When the particle reaches at points B then find out
time taken by the particle to reaches at point B
(1) v 0
57.
qE
m
2h
g
(3) v 0
m
qE
(4)
h
2g
(2)
qE 2h
m g
(3) v 0
2h qEh
+
g 2mg
(4) v 0
2h qEh
+
g mg
In question 56, work done by electric field
2h qEh
+
(1) qE v 0
g
mg
59.
2h
g
(2)
In question 56, the xcoordinate of point B

(1) v 0
58.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
h 2qEh
+
(2) qE v 0
g
mg
h 2qEh
+
(3) qE v 0
2g
mg
h qEh
+
(4) qE v 0
g 2mg
The electric dipole is a system of two charges +q and q, separated

by a certain distance l. When the dipole field is considered, it is
assumed that the dipole itself is point like i.e. the distance r from
the dipole to the point under consideration is assumed to be much
greater than l. Electric dipole moment of the dipole defined as
r
r
p = q l . Electric potential due to dipole at P is
(1)
(2)
p cos q
4p 0 r 2
(3)
p
4p 0 r 2
(4)
p sin q cos q
4p 0 r 2
In question 59, electric field due to dipole at P is

p 1 + 3sin2 q
(1)
4p 0 r 3
p 1 + 3cos 2 q
(2)
4p 0 r 3
p sin2 q + 3cos2 q
(3)
4 p 0 r 3
(4) None of these
61.
In question 59, find the force of interaction between an electric dipole of dipole moment p and a point charge
Q separated by a distance r. The charge Q lies on the dipole axis.
r
r
r
r
2Qp
2Qp
Qp
Qp
(1)
(2) 4p r 3
(3) 4p r 3
(4) 4p r 3
4p 0 r 3
0
0
0
62.
Three identical metal plates with large surface areas are kept parallel to each
other as shown in figure. The leftmost is given a charge Q, the rightmost a
charge 2Q and the middle one remains neutral. The charge appearing on
outer surface of rightmost plate is
(1) Q
28/91
(2) -
Q
2
(3)
3Q
2
(4) -
3Q
2
60.
p sin q
4p 0 r 2
ALLEN
Path to Success
63.
TM
In question 62, the charge appearing on left surface of middle plate is

(1) Q
64.
(2) -
Q
2
(3)
3Q
2
(4) -
3Q
2
(4) -
3Q
2
In question 62, the charge appearing on outer surface of leftmost plate is

(1) Q
65.
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
(2) -
Q
2
(3)
3Q
2
Five identical capacitor plates, each of area A, are arranged such that
adjacent plates are at d distance apart. Plates are connected to a source
of emf V as shown in figure. The charge on plate 1 is
0 AV
2 0 AV
(2)
d
d
In question 65, the charge on plate 4 is
(1)
66.
(1)
0 AV
d
(2)
2 0 AV
d
(3) -
0 AV
d
(4) -
2 0 AV
d
(3) -
0 AV
d
(4) -
2 0 AV
d
67.
In question 65, total electrostatic energy stored in the system is
68.
A 0 V 2
2A 0 V 2
A 0 V 2
3A 0 V 2
(2)
(3)
(4)
2d
d
10d
2d
A battery is connected across a conductor as shown in the figure. Electric current from A to B
(1)
B
r1
(1) will increase continuously

(3) remains constant
69.
70.
71.
r2
P
(2) will decrease continuously

(4) None of these
In question 68, drift velocity of electrons from A to B

(1) will increase
(2) will decrease
(3) remains constant (4) cant be predicted
In question 68, let a point P is midpoint of l if time taken by electron to travel from A to P is t1 & P to B is t2.
Then
(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) data insufficient
You are given 5 identical batteries of emf e and internal resistance r. If all the batteries are arranged in series
with same polarities then the equivalent emf and equivalent resistance of the combination will be respectively :
(1) 5e, 5r
72.
(2) e, 5r
(3) 5e, r
(4) 5e,
r
5
In question 71, if all the batteries are connected in parallel with same polarities then the equivalent emf and
equivalent resistance of the combination will be respectively :
(1) e, 5r
(2) e, r/5
(3) 5e, r
(4) 5e, 5r
29/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
73.
In question 71, if the 5 batteries are arranged as shown then the equivalent emf and resistance of the combination
will be respectively :
7r
7r
7e 7r
,
(4)
(3) 5 e,
3
3
3 3
The water in an electric kettle begins to boil in 15 minutes after being switched on. If the water is to boil in 10
minutes using the main supply, the length of the heating element be
(1) 3e, 3r
74.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
(1) Increased to
(2) 3e,
3
of its initial value
2
(2) Decreased to
2
3
5
4
(4) Decreased to
4
5
n identical bulbs, each designed to draw power P from a certain voltage supply, are joined in series across that
supply. The total power which they will draw is
(1) nP
(2) P
(3) P/n
(4) P/n2
In the circuit shown, the heat produced in 5W resistor due to current flowing in it is 10 cal/sec. The heat
generated in 4W resistor is
(3) Increased to
75.
76.
(1) 1 cal/sec
(2) 2 cal/sec
(3) 3cal/sec
(4) 4 cal/sec
*77. In given circuit, 7 resistors of resistance 2W each and 6 batteries of 2V each, are joined together. The potential
difference VD VE is
2W
2W
(1)
5
V
6
(2)
2V
6
V
7
2V
B
2W
2V
2W
2W
G 2V
2V
D
2W 2W
2V
(3) -
5
V
6
*78. In question 77, the current through branch BG is

(1) 1A
(2) 0.2A
(3) 0.6 A
*79. In question 77, the current through battery between A & B is
(1) 0.4 A
(2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 A
*80. In the circuit shown in figure, the battery is an ideal one with emf V.
(4) -
22
V
9
(4) 0.4A
(4) 1 A
S
R/2 A
R
The capacitor is initially uncharged. The switch S is closed at time t = 0.

Time constant of charging ciruit is
(1) 3RC
(2) 2RC
30/91
R/2
B
(3) RC
(4) None of these
5R/2
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*81. In question 80, the charge Q on the capacitor at time t is

CV
(1) 2 1 - e
t
RC
CV
(2) 2 1 - e
t
3RC
CV
(3) 2 1 - e
2t
5 RC
CV
(4) 2 1 - e
2t
9 RC
*82. In question 80, what is the limiting value at t of current in AB?

(1)
V
2R
(2)
V
R
(3)
2V
R
(4)
V
3R
*83. For the shown arrangement of capacitors, switch S is closed at t=0. Final charge on 6mF capacitor, is
(1) 6 mC
(2) 8 mC
(3) 12 mC
(4) 4 mC
*84. In question 83, final potential difference across the 3mF capacitor, is
(1) 5V
(2) 3V
(3) 2V
(4) Zero
*85. In question 83, the fraction of energy lost is

(1)
86.
87.
1
4
(2)
1
2
(3)
1
2
(4)
r
When a current carrying conductor dl is placed in a magnetic field B , the force experienced by it is given by
r
uur r
F = I ( dl B ) . Choose the correct statement
r
r
(1) Angle between F & B may have any value
uur
ur
r
r
r
(2) Angle between F & B must be 90 but F is in plane of dl & B
uur
ur
r
r
r
(3) Angle between F & B must be 90 but F is perpendicular to plane of dl & B
r
r
(4) Angle between F & B depends on the direction of current flow
In the figure shown semicircular wire loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B=1.0 T, r=1m and current
i=2A. Magnitude of the magnetic force is
(1) 4N
88.
(2) 8N
(3) 16N
(4) zero
In question 87, if the current flows in semicircular loop in clockwise direction but in reverse sense in straight wire
of same magnitude of 2A then the magnitude of the magnetic force is
(1) 4N
(2) 8N
(3) 16N
(4) zero
31/91
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89.
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Our earth behaves as it has a powerful magnet within it. The value of magnetic field on the surface of earth is
a few tenth of gauss (1G=104T) There are three elements of Earths magnetism
(i) Angle of declination
(ii) Angle of dip
(iii) Horizontal component of Earths magnetic field.
In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal component of Earths magnetic field is 0.6 G and
the dip angle is 53. The value of net magnetic field at this place is
90.
(1) 0.8 G
(2) 0.6 G
(3) 1.0 G
(4) 2.0 G
A magnetic needle suspended in a vertical plane at 37 from the magnetic meridian makes an angle of 45
with the horizontal. Find the true angle of dip
-1 4
(1) tan
5
91.
-1 4
(3) tan
3
-1 3
(4) tan
4
A short bar magnet is placed with its north pole pointing north. The neutral point is 10 cm away from the
centre of magnetic. If B H = 0.4 G, calcualte the magnetic moment of the magnet
(1) 0.6 A-m2
92.
-1 5
(2) tan
4
(2) 0.4 Am2
(3) 0.8 A-m2
(4) None of these
A conducting square wire frame ABCD of side l is pulled by horizontal force so

that it moves with constant velocity v. A uniform magnetic field of strength B
is existing perpendicular to the plane of wire. The resistance per unit length
of wire is l and negligible self inductance. If at t= 0, frame is just at the
boundary of magnetic field. Then the emf across AB at t =
93.
(2) zero
(3) Bvl
In question 92, potential difference across BC at time t =

(1)
94.
Bvl
4
Bvl
4
(2) Bvl
(3)
(4) None of these
l
is
2v
3Bvl
4
(4) None of these
In question 92, find the applied horizontal force on BC, (F) as a function of time 't' (t <
(1)
32/91
B2 vl
t
l
(2)
B 2 vl
2l
(3)
B 2 vl
4l
l
)
v
(4) None of these
(1)
l
is
2v
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A cylindrical space of radius R is filled with a uniform magnetic induction B parallel to the
axis of the cylinder. If
dB
= constant, the graph, showing the variation of induced
dt
electric field with distance r from the axis of cylinder, is
(1)
96.
(2)
(3)
(4)
A square conducting loop is placed in the time varying magnetic field
dB
= + ve constant . The centre of square coincides with axis of
dt
cylindrical region of magnetic field. The directions of induced electric
field at point a, b and c.
(1)
97.
(2)
(3)
(4)
A line charge l per unit length is pasted uniformly onto the rim of a wheel of
mass m and radius R. The wheel has light nonconducting spokes and is free
to rotate about a vertical axis as shown in figure.A uniform magnetic field B
exist as shown in figure. What is the angular velocity of the wheel when the
field is suddenly switched off?
(1)
98.
2pla 2 B
mR
(2)
pla 2 B
mR
(3)
3pla 2 B
mR
(4)
pla 2 B
2mR
A uniformly wound solenoidal coil of self inductance 1.8 104 H and resistance 6W is broken up into two
identical coils. These identical coils are then connected in parallel across 12V battery of negligible internal
resistance. Values of equivalent resistance and equivalent inductance are respectively
(1) 1.5 W, 4.5 105 H
(2) 3 W, 9 105 H
(3) 6W, 1.8 104 H
(4) 12W, 3.6 104 H

33/91
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In question 98, time constant for the circuit is

(1) 15 ms
(2) 45ms
(3) 30ms
(4) 60 ms
100. In question 98, steady state current through the battery is

(1) 12A
(2) 8A
(3) 2A
(4) 4A
101. The mean and rms value of an alternatic current as shown in figure are
(1)
2I0
,I0 2
p
(2)
4I0
, I0
p
(3)
I0 I0
,
p 2
(4)
2I0 I0
,
p
2
(4)
V0 V0
,
4 2
(4)
V0 V0
,
2 3
102. The mean and rms value of an alternating voltage as shown in figure then
(1) V0, V0
(2)
V0
,V
2 0
(3)
3V0 V0
,
2 2
(1)
34/91
V0 V0
,
3 2
(2)
V0 V0
,
2 3
(3)
V0 V0
,
2 3
103. The mean and rms value of an alternating voltage as shown in figure then
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104. Many ac circuits used in practical electronic systems involve resistance, inductive reactance, and capacitive
reactance. A simple example is a series circuit containing a resistor, an inductor, a capacitor, and an ac source,
as shown in figure. To analyze this and similar circuits, we will use a phasor diagram that includes the voltage
and the current phasors for each of the components. In this circuit, because of Kirchhoffs loop rule, the
instantaneous total voltage Vad across all the three components is equal to the source voltage at that instant. We
will show that the phasor representing this total voltage is the vector sum of the phasors for the individual
1
voltages. Impedance of circuit Z = R 2 + X 2 = R 2 + wL
wC
If w is small then impedance will be mainly
decided by
(1) R and wL
(2) R and
1
wC
(3) wL and
1
wC
(4) None of these
105. In question 104, if w is large then impedance will be mainly decided by

(1) R and wL
(2) R and
1
wC
(3) wL and
1
wC
(4) None of these
106. In question 104, if Vs = 200 sin 100t, R= 500 W, L = 10 H and C = 20 mF, find the value of impedance of
circuit.
(1) 500 W
(3) 1000 W
(2) 500 2W
(4) 825 W
*107. A voltage source V = V0 sin (100 t) is connected to a black box in which there can be either one element out of
L,C,R or any two of them connected in series.
V/i
Black Box
i0= 2A
V 0=100V
source voltage
current in
the circuit
~ V=V sin(100t)
t(sec.)
p
sec
400
At steady state the variation of current in the circuit and the source voltage are plotted together with time, using
an oscilloscope, as shown. The element(s) present in black box is/are :
(1) only C
(2) L and C
(3) L and R
(4) R and C
*108. In question 107, values of the parameters of the elements, present in the black box are :
(1) R = 50W, C=200 mF
(2) R = 50W, L = 2mH
(3) R = 400 W, C = 50mF
(4) None of these
*109. In question 107, if AC source is removed, the circuit is shorted and then at t=0, a battery of constant emf is
connected across the black box. The current in the circuit will
(1) Increases exponentially with time constant = 0.02 s (2) Decrease exponentially with time constant = 0.01 s
(3) Oscillate with angular frequency 20 s1
(4) First increase and then decrease.

35/91
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110. In the shown figure, all batteries are ideal
(i)
Column I
Current through 5V cell is
Column II
(P) 5A
(ii)
(Q) 10A
(iii)
(R) 15A
(iv)
(S) 20A
(v)
The correct option is :(1) (i) P, (ii) P, (iii) P, (iv) P, (v) Q

(3) (i) R, (ii) P, (iii) Q, (iv) R, (v) Q
111. Magnetic flux in a circular coil of resistance 10W
changes with time as shown in figure. direction
indicates a direction perpendicular to paper inwards.
ColumnI
(2) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) S, (iv) P, (v) Q

(4) (i) P, (ii) Q, (iii) P, (iv) Q, (v) Q
f(Wb)
10
8
2
10 14 16
10
t(s)
ColumnII
(i)
At 1 second induced current is
(P) Clockwise
(ii)
(Q) Anticlockwise
(iii)
(R) 0.5 A
(iv)
(S) 5 A
(T) None of these
(i) After sufficiently long time VR = 0

(iii) After 1 ms, VC = 6.3 volt (approximately)
The correct option is :(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) (i) & (iv)
36/91
(ii) As time passes VR decreases as (1/t)

(iv) Initially current through R is 10 mA
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
The correct option is :(1) (i) PQ, (ii) PR, (iii) RS, (iv) PT
(2) (i) QR, (ii) T, (iii) PR, (iv) QR
(3) (i) PR, (ii) P, (iii) Q, (iv) RT
(4) (i) P, (ii) Q, (iii) P, (iv) QS
112. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 W showing a fullscale deflection at 50 mA.
(i) The resistance needed to use it as a voltmeter of range 50 volt is 10 6 W.
(ii) The resistance needed to use it as a voltmeter of range 50 volt is 105 W
(iii) The resistance needed to use it as an ammeter of range 10 mA is 0.5 W
(iv) The resistance needed to use it as an ammeter of range 10 mA is 1.0 W
The correct option is :(1) (i) & (iii)
(2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
*113. A step voltage V0 is applied to a series combination of R and C as shown in the figure. Then,
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114. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V0. The charging battery is disconnected and
the capacitor is connected to a uncharged capacitor of unknown capacitance Cx. The final potential difference
across the combination is V, after the switch S is closed, then:
(i) C x =
C ( V0 - V )
V
(ii) Final energy stored is
1
CV0 V
2
(iii) Heat generated in the circuit is
S
+
C
CV0 ( V0 - V )
CX
CV0 V
(iv) Heat generated in the circuit is
2
(2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
115. In the diagram shown, in steady state
3W
2W
(i) Charge on 1 mF capacitor is 1 mC
2m F
1mF
(ii) Charge on 2 mF capacitor is 2 mC
3mF
2W
3W
(iii) Charge on 3 mF is zero

6V, 0.5W
(iv) Potential difference across 2mF capacitor is 2 volt

The correct option is :(1) (ii) & (iii)
(2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
116. In the figure shown, C1 = 11mF and C2 = 5 mF, then at steady state:
C1
(i) the potential difference across C1 is 5V
7V, 2W
C2
.
b
(ii) the potential difference across C2 is 2V

(iii) the potential difference between points a and b is 4V
3W
(iv) the potential difference between the terminals of 15 V battery is 9V
15V, 2W
(2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
117. In the potentiometer circuit of given figure the galvanometer reveals a current in the direction shown wherever
the sliding contact touches the wire. This could be caused by
E1
r
P
(i) E1 being too low
(ii) r being too high
(iii) a break in circuit between PQ

(iv) E2 being too low
(2) (i) & (iv)
E2
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
118. Rows of capacitors containing 1, 2, 4, 8, ......... capacitors each of capacitance 2mF are connected in parallel
as shown in figure. The potential difference across AB is 10V.
B
A
(i) Total capacitance across AB is 4mF.
(ii) Charge on each capacitor will be same.
(iii) Charge on the capacitor in the first row is more than that on any other capacitor.
(iv) Total energy stored in capacitors is 50 mJ.
(2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
37/91
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GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
1.
The refractive index of slab C if ray ef

is parallel to ray ab, is :-
2.
(1) 1.5
(2) 1.45
(3) 1.55
(4) 1
A convergent (biconvex) lens is placed inside a jar filled with a liquid. The lens has focal length 20 cm, when
in air and its material has a refractive index of 1.5. If the liquid has a refractive index of 1.6, the focal length
of the lens while in the jar, is :(1) 110 cm
3.
(2) 130 cm
(3) 160 cm
(4) 180 cm
A
A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels
90
as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the

B
90
90
C
refractive index of the prism, is :(1)

4.
(2)
(3)
(4)
One end of a glass rod of refractive index n = 1.5 is a spherical surface of radius of curvature R. The centre
of the spherical surface lies inside the glass. A point object placed in air on the axis of the rod at the point
P has its real image inside glass at the point Q (see fig.). A line joining the points P and Q cuts the surface at
O such that OP = 2OQ. The distance PO is :-
=1.5
P
(1) 8 R
5.
(3) 2 R
(4) None of these
A thin glass (m=1.5) lens has optical power of 10D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive
index 1.6 will be
(1) +1D
6.
(2) 7 R
(2) +2D
(3) +1.25 D
(4) +2.5 D
An unpolarized light beam is incident on a surface at an angle of incidence equal to Brewster's angle. Then
(1) the reflected and the refracted beams are both partially polarized.
(3) the reflected beam is completely polarized and the refracted beam is partially polarized and are at right angled
to each other.
(4) both the reflected and the refracted beams are completely polarized and are at right angled to each other.
7.
A vessel is quarter filled with a liquid of refractive index m. The remaining parts of the vessel is filled with an immiscible
liquid of refractive index 1.5 m. The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the actual depth. The value of m is
(1) 1
38/91
(2)
3
2
(3)
2
3
(4)
4
3
(2) the reflected beam is partially polarized and the refracted beam is completely polarized and are at right angled
to each other.
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8.
You are provided with a convex lens, a concave lens, a screen and light rays, a screen and an optical bench on
which all these components can be mounted and arranged in any order. The optical bench has a distance scale,
which allows accurate measurement of the distances between the components. If the concave lens is placed
after the convex lens, with both focii at the same points, parallel light entering the convex lens will emerge as
(1) parallel light from concave lens
(2) converging beam from the concave lens
(3) as diverging beam from the concave lens
(4) either converging or diverging from the concave lens
9.
A ray of light propagates from air to glass (shown in figure).

The ratio of magnitude of momentum of photon in air and glass is
(1)
10.
glass
(2)
(3)
2 3
5
(4)
A light ray incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism emerges out grazing at the other face. The
refractive index of the prism is
2 3
(3)
(4)
3
5
The faces of the Abbe prism ABCD made of glass of refractive index n form dihedral
(1)
12.
(2)
air
(3) 1
(4) cannot be determined
A light ray incident at an angle of incidence 60 on prism, with angle 30 deviates by 30. The refractive index
of the prism is
(1)
11.
45
(2)
angles A = 90 , B = 75 , C = 135 and D = 60 . A beam of light falls on

face AB and after complete internal reflection from face BC escapes through face
AD. Find the value of n if emergent beam is perpendicular to the incident beam.
(1) n < 2
13.
(3) n 3
(4) n 3
To obtain a real image, the object and the screen should be at a minimum separation D of four times the focal
length (f) of a convex lens. The distance between the two position of the lens and the screen-object distance can
be used to find the focal length of thelens to obtain the real image of object on the screen. As the convex lens
is moved from near the object to near the screen the image formed will diminish. However the magnification
product will be one. If d is the separation between the position of the lens of focal length f for real image and
D is the separation between object and screen, then answer the following questions.The focal length of the lens
is
(1) f =
14.
(2) n 2
D2 - d2
4d
(2) f =
D-d
4d
(3) f =
D+d
d
(4) f =
D2 - d2
4D
In question 13, the magnification produced when the lens is nearer to the object is
(1)
D+d
D-d
(2)
D+d
D-d
(3)
D + D ( D - 4f )
D - D ( D - 4f )
D + d
(4)
D - d
39/91
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15.
In question 13, the difference between the magnifications at the two different positions is
(1)
16.
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4D
D - d2
2
4Dd
(2) (
D - d)
4Dd
(3) (
D + d)
(4)
4Dd
D2 - d2
Compound microscope & refracting type astronomical telescope, both utilises two convex lens in general arranged
at the ends of a coaxial tube but one of them is used to see small objects while the other is used to see distant
large objects. For both the instruments resolving power varies inversely with wavelength of light used & magnifying
powers : M.P.Telescope=
-L
D
f0
, M.P..microscope =
1 + . You are given four convex lenses 1, 2, 3 & 4 having
f0
fe
fe
powers P1=2D, P2=5D, P3=6D & P4=1D respectively.

Choose two appropriate lens to make telescope.
(1) 1, 2
17.
(3) 3,4
(4) 4,1
In question 16, using the data given in above question choose appropriate lens for making microscope.
(1) 1,2
18.
(2) 2,3
(2) 2,3
(3) 3,4
(4) 4,1
In question 16, if the object viewed by above instruments changes color from red to blue, then
(1) resolving power of microscope increases but for telescope, it decreases
(2) resolving power of telescope increases but for microscope, it decreases
(3) resolving power for both instruments decreases
(4) resolving power for both instruments increases
ColumnI
(lens/Silvered lens placed in air)
ColumnII
(Possible nature of object and image)
(i)
(P)
Real image Real object
(ii)
(Q)
Real image Virtual object
(iii)
(R)
Virtual imageReal object
(iv)
(S)
Virtual image Virtual object
(T)
Magnified image w.r.t. object
The correct option is :(1) (i) QRST, (ii) QRST, (iii) PQRT, (iv) PQRT
(2) (i) PT, (ii) QRST, (iii) PQRT, (iv) QRT
(3) (i) PQR, (ii) QRST, (iii) PRT, (iv) QRST
(4) (i) PQRT, (ii) QRST, (iii) PQRT, (iv) QRST
40/91
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20.
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A man with normal vision uses a magnifying lens of focal length 10 cm. Then,
(i) Magnification of any value is possible
(ii) Maximum magnification possible is 3.5
(iii) Minimum magnification possible is 2.5
(iv) Magnification depends upon the distance of the lens from the eye.
The correct option is :(1) (ii), (iii)
21.
(2) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Figure, shows positions of a point image 'I' of a self luminous point object O formed by a lens. This is possible if
O
principal axis
.I
(i) a convex lens is placed to left of O.
(ii) a concave lens is placed to left of O.
(iii) a convex lens is placed between O and I
(iv) a concave lens is placed to right of I
22.
(1) (i), (iii), (iv)
(2) (ii) & (iv)
(3) (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i) & (ii)
The graph shown can correspond relationship between (quantity quoted first is plotted on y-axis.)
(i) The distance of object from the focus of a convex mirror plotted against the distance of the image from
the same point.
(ii) Pressure plotted against temperature for an ideal gas undergoing process PV = constant.
(iii) Electric field strength due to charged isolated conducting sphere plotted against distance from the centre of
the sphere.
(iv) The tension in a string plotted against its fundamental frequency.
The correct option is :(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i) & (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(1) (i) & (ii)
41/91
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MODERN PHYSCS
1.
A light of wavelength 4000 is incident on a metal having threshold frequency 5.5 1014 Hz. If light has
intensity I = 100 W/m2 then the number of incident photons per m2 per second, is :(1) 1 1020
2.
(2) 2 1020
(3) 3 1020
(4) 4 1020
For the given transitions of electron, the

relation between l1, l2 & l3, is :-
(1) l 3 = l 1l 2
3.
(2) l 3 =
l1 + l 2
2
l1 l 2
(3) l 3 = l + l
1
2
(4) l 3 = l1 + l2
The percent increase in mass of an electron accelerated by a potential difference of 500 kV, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]
(1) 48.9%
4.
(2) 97.8%
(3) 24.5%
(4) 12.2%
A hydrogen atom is in a state of ionization energy 085 eV. If it makes a transition to the ground state, the
energy of the emitted photon, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
(1) 12.75 eV
5.
(2) 10.60 eV
(3) 9.75 eV
(4) 11.8 eV
A free neutron is unstable against bdecay with a half life of about 600 seconds.
(1) The expression of this decay process is n p + e + n

(2) If there are 600 free neutrons initially, the time by which 450 of them have decayed. is 2400 sec.
(3) The decay rate of the sample is 0.593 Bq.
(4) None of these
If light of wavelength 4000 falls on a metal which has a stopping potential 14 volt against photoelectric emission
then the work function of the metal, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]
34
8
1
[Take h = 66 10 Js and c = 3 10 ms ]
6.
(1) 1.1 eV
7.
(2) 1.3 eV
(3) 1.2 eV
(4) 1.7 eV
The amount of polonium necessary to provide a radioactivity source of 5.0 mili curie strength, if the half life
of polonium is 138 days is :- (given : 1 curie = 3.7 10 10 disintregration/sec., Avogadro number = 6.02 1026
per k-mole).
(1) 1.11 106
8.
(2) 1.11 105
(3) 1.3 106
(4) 1.5 1011
9.
10.
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
The strength of magnetic field required to bend photoelectrons of maximum energy in a circle of radius 50
cm when light of wavelength 3300 is incident on a barium emitter is 6.7 106 T. The value of charge on
the photoelectrons is obtained from this data is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
(Given : Work function of barium = 2.5 eV; mass of the electron = 9 1031 kg)
(1) 0.6 1010 C
42/91
(2) 1.8 1019 C
(3) 0.6 1012 C
(4) 1.8 1020 C
A semiconductor Germanium (Ge- As) has an energy gap of 1.43 eV. The maximum wavelength emitted when
a hole and an electron recombine in such semiconductor, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]
(1) 8850
(2) 8653
(3) 8750
(4) 8780
Two nuclei have their mass numbers in ratio 1 : 3. The ratio of nuclear densities, is :-
ALLEN
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AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
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11.
The number of photons of wavelength l = 6600 nm must strike a totally reflecting screen per second at
normal incidence so as to exert a force of 1N is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]
27
28
27
(1) 5 10
(2) 5 10
(3) 6 10
(4) 6 1028
12.
If inputs A and B are inverted before entering into NAND gate as shown in diagram, then the truth table
A
(1)
(3)
13.
(2)
(4) None of these
A particle moving with velocity that is three times that of velocity of electron. If ratio of de-Broglie wave length
of particle to that of the electron is 1.8 104. The mass of particle is :- (me = 9.1 103 kg)
(1) 1.68 1027 kg

14.
(2) 1.68 1030 kg
(3) 1.68 1034 kg
The graph between the stopping potential and frequency

of the incident radiation is shown in figure. The values of Planck's
(4) 1.68 1040 kg

1.656
V0 (in volt)
constant & Work function are respectively

1
5
n (1 1014 Hz)
15.
(1) 6.624 1034 Js, 0.414 eV
(2) 6.624 1028 Js, 0.414 eV
(3) 6.624 1024 Js, 0.212 eV
(4) 6.624 1034 Js, 0.814 eV
The radionuclide
Given that
11
6
C dacays by b+ emission.
m( 11
6 C ) = 11.011434 u
m( 11
) = 11.009305 u
6 B
me = 0.000548 u, 1u = 931.5 MeV/c2
The Q-value of this decay process is :(1) 0.962 MeV
(2) 0.962 10 MeV

3
(3) 0.962 eV
(4) Zero
43/91
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For a CE amplifier, current gain is 69. If the emitter current is 7 mA then the base current and collector current
are respectively :(1) 0.1 mA, 6.9 mA
17.
19.
(3) 9.78 104
(2) 200 years
20
3
(2)
15
4
(3)
27
5
(4)
The truth table for the given logic gate is :-
(1)
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1
1
0
1
(2)
1
0
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1
1
0
1
(1) t=
33
15
FG 1 - 1 IJ
HT T K
1
(3)
0
1
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1
1
32
15
0
1
(4)
1
1
1
0
P (T1/2 = T1) and
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
33
15
0
1
1
1
P (T1/2 = T2). Initially 10% of the decays
P . How long one must wait until 90% do so ?
4ln3
ln2
5
1
A source contains two phosphorous radionuclides

come from
(B)t=
4ln3
1
1
ln2 +
T1 T2
(3) t=
2ln3
1
1
ln2
T1 T2
(4) None of these
1
mv 2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest
2
approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
An alpha nucleus of energy

(1) v2
24.
(4) 400 years
In a hydrogen atom, electron moves from second excited state to first excited state and then from first excited
state to ground state. Ratio of wavelength is [AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
23.
(4) 9.78 106
(3) 300 years
22.
(4) 6.9 mA, Zero
A sodium lamp emits 3.14 1020 photons per second. The distance from sodium lamp where flux of photon
is one photon per second per cm2, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
9
9
10
(1) 5 10 cm
(2) 10 10 cm
(3) 15 10 cm
(4) 20 109 cm
A radioactive nuclei X converts into stable nuclei Y. Half life of X is 50 years. The age of radioactive sample
when the ratio of X and Y is 1 : 15, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1)
21.
(3) 0.2 mA, 0.1 mA
(2) 9.78 104
(1) 100 years

20.
(2) 6.9 mA, 0.1 mA
An electron microscope is operated at 40 kV. The ratio of resolving power of this microscope and another one
which uses yellow light of wavelength 6 107 m, is :[AIPMT MAINS - 2009]
(1) 9.78 106
18.
(2) 1/m
(2) 1/v4
(4) 1/Ze
Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a plate of sodium. The kinetic
energy of the fastest photoelectrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The work function for sodium is 1.82 eV.
The energy of the photons causing the photoelectric emission is
(1) 1.82 eV
44/91
(2) 2.55 eV
(3) 0.73 eV
(4) 1.46 eV
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AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
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In question 24, the quantum numbers of two energy levels involved in the emission of these photon is
(1) 4 1
26.
(3) 4 2
(4) 3 1
In question 24, the change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom in above transition is
(1)
27.
(2) 4 3
2h
p
(2)
h
2p
(3)
h
4p
(4)
h
p
Proton, deutron and a particles are accelerated through the same potential difference. Then the ratio of their
wavelength as
(1) 1 : 2 : 1
28.
(2) 1:1:1
(2) 2
(3) 1/2
(4) 4
A proton and a particle have equal kinetic energies. If la and lp are the DeBrogolie wavelengths of a particle
la
and proton, then the ratio of l is
p
(1) 2
30.
(4) 2 2 : 2 : 1
When electron accelerated through the 150 volt potential difference. The wavelength associated with it
(1) 1
29.
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 2
(2) 1
+
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/4
+
In a mixture of HHe gas (He is singly ionized He atom), H atoms and He ions are excited to their respective
first excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He+ ions (by collisions).
Assume that Bohr model of atom is exactly valid. The quantum number n of the state finally populated
in He+ ions is :
(1) 2
31.
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
In question 30, the wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He+ ions after collisions with H atoms
is :
32.
(1) 6.5 107 m
(2) 5.6 107 m
(3) 4.8 107 m
(4) 4.0 107 m
In question 30, the ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2 electron for the H atoms to that of He+ ion
is :
(1) 1/4
33.
(2) 1/2
(3) 1
(4) 2
The statistical law of ratio-active decay was given by Rutherford and can be described mathematically as,
dN
dN
= -lN ( t ) , where
is the rate of radioactive decay, l is the probability per unit time for a nucleus to
dt
dt
decay & N(t) is the number of radioactive nuclei present at time t. This rule of radio-active decay follows the first
N0
order kinetics. Solving the equation gives N(t) = N0e lt =
(2) t / t1/ 2 , where t1/2 is half life and denotes the time
when the number of active nuclei falls to half the initial t1 / 2 =
ln2 0.693
=
.
l
l
The decay rate also called the activity of the sample. R(t) = lN(t)
SI unit of activity is becqural is equal to one disintegration per second.
The above law is applicable only for large number of active nuclei. For lesser number of active nuclei, the
calculated result deviates a lot from experimental results. For a given nucleus X, half life was found to be 5 min.
The number of active nuclei left after 10 min., if initially 100 active nuclei of X was present at t=0 sec is
(1) 100
34.
(2) 50
(3) 25
(4) anything between 0 to 100
In question 33, the atomic mass of X is 250 g. Find number of nuclei disintegrated after 10 min. if initially 250
g of active nuclei were present
(1) 6 1023
(2) 3 1023
(3) 1.5 1023
(4) 4.5 1023
45/91
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35.
In question 33, the fraction of nuclei disintegrated to the active nuclei left after 15 min. is
(1) 1:7
36.
(4) 1:3
(2) 4 hour
(3) 1.5 hour
(4) 7.5 hour
(2) 8.6 Bq
(3) 6.2 Bq
(4) 3.4 Bq
In question 36, number of radioactive nuclei in the sample at t = 0 is of the order

(1) 1.54 108
39.
(3) 3:1
In question 36, activity of the sample at t = 16 hour will be nearly :

(1) 11.4 Bq
38.
(2) 7:1
Number of radioactive nuclei in a sample reduces exponentially with time. The decay rate of a sample is also
called its activity. It can be shown that activity of a sample also decreases with time in an exponential manner.
SI unit of activity is Becquerel (Bq) and 1 Bq = 1 decay/sec. Activity of a radioactive sample was measured
over a period of 10 hours beginning at t = 0. Results of these observations are given below. Half life of the
given sample is
(1) 6 hour
37.
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(2) 2.72 104
(3) 1.72 105
(4) 2.06 106
When a particle is restricted to move along x-axis between x = 0 and x = a, where a is of nanometer dimension,
its energy can take only certain specific values. The allowed energies of the particle moving in such a restricted
region, correspond to the formation of standing waves with nodes at its ends x = 0 and x = a. The wavelength
of this standing wave is related to the linear momentum p of the particle according to the de Breoglie relation.
p2
The energy of the particle of mass m is related to its linear momentum as E =
. Thus, the energy of the
2m
particle can be denoted by a quantum number n taking values 1, 2, 3, .... (n = 1, called the ground state)
corresponding to the number of loops in the standing wave.
Use the model described above to answer the following three questions for a particle moving in the line x = 0 to
x = a. Take h = 6.6 1034 J s and e = 1.6 1019 C. The allowed energy for the particle for a particular value
of n is proportional to
(1) a2
(3) 80 meV
(4) 800 meV
(2) n1
(3) n1/2
(4) n
A particle with momentum of magnitude p has a wave associated with it. The wavelength of the wave is given
h
by l = . These waves are called matter waves or de-Broglie waves. For a free particle, the associated wave
p
would be a travelling wave. For the bound electrons, the associated wave would be a standing wave. Number of
antinodes and nodes in standing wave coresponding to an electron in third exicted state in hydrogen atom
(1) 8, 8
43.
(2) 8 meV
In question 39, the speed of the particle, that can take discrete values, is proportional to
(1) n3/2
42.
(4) a2
In question 39, if the mass of the particle is m = 1.0 10 30 kg and a = 6.6 nm, the energy of the particle in its
ground state is closest to
(1) 0.8 meV
41.
(3) a-1
(2) 8, 7
(3) 7, 8
(4) None of these
In question 42, if radius of 2nd orbit of an electron in hydrogen atom is r then the wavelength associated is
(1) pr
46/91
(2) 2pr
(3) 4pr
(4) none of these
40.
(2) a3/2
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AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
238
92 U
Few atomic masses are given

1
1H
= 1.007834,
237
91 Pa
46.
47.
48.
49.
4
2 He
= 4.00260u,
234
90 Th
(2) Q = 8.5 MeV
(3) Q = 3.25 MeV
In question 44, spontaneous emission of a proton from
238
92 U
238
92 U .
(4) None of therse
is
(1) possible
(2) impossible
(3) can't say
(4) none of these
The production of characteristic Xrays is due to the
(1) Continuous retardation of incident electrons
(2) Continuous acceleration of incident electrons
(3) Electronic transitions between inner shells of the target atom
(4) Electronic transitions between outer shells of the target atom
Production of continuous Xrays is due to
(1) Continuous retardation of incident electrons
(2) Continuous acceleration of incident electrons
(3) Electronic transitions between inner shells of the target atom
(4) Annihilation of the mass of incident electrons
The potential difference applied to an Xray tube is 5kV and the current through it is 3.2 mA. The number of
electrons striking the target per second is
(1) 2 1015
(2) 2 1016
(3) 5 1016
(4) 1017
Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 5l and l respectively. Initially both A and B have the
same number of nuclei. The ratio of the number of nuclei of A to that of B will be
(1)
50.
= 234.04363u
= 237.065121u. Calculate the energy released during the adecay of
(1) Q = 4.25 MeV

45.
= 238.05079u,
1
5l
(2)
1
4l
(3)
5
4l
1
after a time
e
(4)
Column I
Column II
(i)
Force between a proton and a proton inside nucleus
(P) Gravitational force
(ii)
Force between a proton and a neutron inside nucleus
(Q) Electrostatic force
(iii)
Force on an electron in an atom
(R) Strong force
(iv)
Conservative force
(S) Weak force
4
5l
The correct option is :(1) (i) PQR, (ii) PR, (iii) PQ, (iv) PQ
(2) (i) PQR, (ii) PR, (iii) PS, (iv) PS
(3) (i) PR, (ii) PS, (iii) PQ, (iv) PQ
(4) (i) PQR, (ii) P, (iii) PQ, (iv) P
51.
n versus Z graph for characteristic X-rays is as shown in figure.
Column I
(i)
Line -1
Column II
(P)
La
(ii)
Line -2
(Q)
Lb
(iii)
Line -3
(R)
Ka
(iv)
Line -4
(S)
Kb
(T)
None of these
2 3
The correct option is :(1) (i) S, (ii) R, (iii) Q, (iv) P
(2) (i) T, (ii) P, (iii) Q, (iv) P
(3) (i) S, (ii) R, (iii) T, (iv) P
(4) (i) S, (ii) T, (iii) Q, (iv) P

47/91
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Certain radioactive processes are listed in column I and some properties and processes related to them are
listed in column II.
Column I
Column II
(i)
adecay
(P)
Increase in atomic number
(ii)
bdecay
(Q)
Decrease in atomic number
(iii)
gemission
(R)
No change in atomic number
(iv)
K capture
(S)
No change in mass number
(T)
Decrease in mass number
53.
(1) (i) QT, (ii) PS, (iii) QS, (iv) PR
(2) (i) QT, (ii) PS, (iii) RS, (iv) QS
(3) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) S, (iv) Q
(4) (i) S, (ii) T, (iii) Q, (iv) P
In the experiment on photoelectric effect using light having frequency greater than the threshold frequency, the
photocurrent will certainly increase when
(i) Anode voltage is increased
(ii) Area of cathode surface is increased
(iii) Intensity of incident light is increased
(iv) Distance between anode and cathode is increased.

54.
(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (iii) & (iv)
Consider the following nuclear reactions and select the correct statements from the options that follow.
Reaction I : n p + e + n
Reaction II : p n + e+ + n
(i) Free neutron has higher mass than proton, therefore reaction I is possible
(ii) Free proton has less mass than neutron, therefore reaction II is not possible
(iii) Inside a nucleus, both decays (reaction I and II) are possible
(iv) Inside a nucleus, reaction I is not possible but reaction II is possible.
55.
(2) (ii) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
A hydrogen like atom has ground state binding energy 122.4 eV. Then
(i) its atomic number is 3
(ii) an electron of 90 eV can excite it to a higher state
(iii) an 80 eV electron cannot excite it to a higher state
(iv) an electron of 8.2 eV and a photon of 91.8 eV emitted when a 100 eV electron interacts with it.
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
The K shell ionization energies for cobalt, copper and molybdenum are 7.8, 9.0 and 20.1 keV respectively. If
an Xray tube operates at 15 kV with any of the above metals as targets, then
(i) characteristics Xrays of K series will be emitted only from cobalt
(ii) characteristic Xrays of K series will be emitted only from copper and cobalt
(iii) characteristic Xrays of K series will be emitted only from cobalt, copper and molybdenum
(iv) the shortest wavelength of continuous Xrays emitted is the same for the three metals
48/91
(2) (ii) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
56.
(2) (ii) & (iv)
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1.
How does the resistance of a semiconductor depends upon temperature ?
2.
Is it possible that at a point, potential is zero but electric field is nonzero ? Give one example if possible.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Explain nuclear fission & fusion on the basis of binding energy of nucleus.
Why the conductivity of semiconductors increases with increase in temperature ?
Draw circuits for reverse and forward bias of PN jucntion.
A
Identify the logic operation carried out by the combination of
the gates shown in the circuit and write down its truth table .
B
7.
In Faraday's law of induction, does the induced emf depend on the resistance of the circuit ?


8.
What is the value of power factor at resonance in a series LCR circuit.
9.
For the electric circuit shown here, write Kirchoff's circuital law
equations, the solution of which will give currents in the three

resistors.
10.
Why is it necessary to have a low gas pressure in a discharge tube ?
11.
What is the effective mass of a photon having wavelength l ?
12.
Show that the nucleus
238
92 U
emitting a proton through the decay process
spontaneously .
13.
14.

237
238
92 U 91 Pa
+ 11H can not proceed
Mass of uranium = 238.05079 a.m.u.

Mass of pladium = 237.05121 a.m.u.
Mass of proton = 1.00783 a.m.u.
A conducting cone is given charge Q.
(i) Is the surface of cone is equipotential surface ?
(ii) Will surface charge density be same every where ?
When a paramagnetic material at temperature T is subjected to an external magnetic field B, the magnetization
induced in it is M. How much is the magnetization if both B and T are increased by a factor of 3 ?
15.
Write three characteristic features which distinguish nuclear force from coulomb force.
16.
A thin conducting ring of radius R is uniformly charged by +Q charge. Find potential at a axial point which is
situated at distancer from centre and hence deduce electric field.
17.
For given transistor circuit, the base current is 10A and the collector current is 5.2 mA. Can this transistor
circuit be used as a voltage amplifier. Your answer must be supported with proper calculations.
RC=1kW
5.5V
VCC
VCE
VBE
( *) Marked questions are only for AIIMS

49/91
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SOLUTIONS
UNIT DIMENSION
1.
Ans. (2)
-2 -2
4
4
h = p P r \ Dimensions of h : (MLT L ) (L ) = ML1T1
3 -1
8Vl
Also v = LT
(L T ) (L)
L = vT \ Dimension of h are M (vT)1 T1 = Mv1T2
2.
Ans. (2)
3.
t cos qT x
ML-1T -2L3
Yl3
Tx =
= M0L0T0
[T]x =
3
t cos q
ML2 T -2
l
Ans. (4)
x=0
Y=
1
e2
[ A 2T2 ]
= [M1L3T4A2] 1 2 1 1 1 = M0L0T0
4p 0 hc
[M L T ] [L T ]
Dimension of
4.
Ans. (1)
a
Q 2 = [P]
V
5.
Ans. (1)
Method- I
\ [a] = [P] [V2] = ML1T2 L6 = M1L5T2
From dimensional analysis method

[h] = [f]a [q]b
[M1L2T1] = [M1L1T1]a [L1]b
Comparing dimenstion on both sides
a = 1, a + b = 2 or b = 1
\ [h] = [f1q1]
h
h = pl
l
\ dimension of planck constant = [f1q1]
Method : II Momentum of photon p =
KINEMATICS
1.
Ans. (4)
2.
ds
dv
1
= 6t2 + 6t + 2 a =
= 12t + 6 = 0 t =
which is impossible. Therefore acceleradt
dt
2
tion will not zero at any time
Ans. (3)
v =
4
2
= 2 (4)2 2 (2)2 = 32 8 = 24 m
Ans. (2)
Highest
point
Time taken from point P to point P
Time taken from point Q to point Q
TQ = 2
H
TP2 =
g =
50/91
2(h + H)
g
Q
P
TP = 2
8(h + H)
8h
TP2 = TQ2 + 8H
& TQ2 =
g
g
g
8H
- TQ2
TP2
2h
g
Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\Solution\Class XI
3.
z z
dx
= v \ x = vdt = 4t dt = 2t2
dt
2
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TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (4)
Let t be the time taken by bomb to hit the target.
h = 2000 =
1 2
gt t = 20 sec
2
R = ut = (100) (20) = 2000 m

Q tan q =
5.
R 2000
=
= 1 q = 45
h 2000
Ans. (1)
Let both particles reach at same position in same time t then from s = ut +
For 1st particle :
s = 4(t)+
1 2
at
2
1
1
t2
(1) t2 = 4t +
, For 2nd particle : s = 2(t)+ (2)t2 = 2t + t2
2
2
2
t2
= 2t + t2
2
Equating above equation we get 4t +
t = 4 sec
Subsituting value of t in above equation

s = 4(4)+
1
(1) (4)2 = 16 + 8 = 24 m
2
6.
Ans. (2)
Speed changes due to tangential acceleration. Tangential acceleration is the component of acceleration along
rr
- j + 2k)
-6
a.v
(i + 6j - k).(2i
=
= -2m / s2 . Therefore speed decreases at 2m/s2.
velocity vector a T = | vr | =
2
2
2
3
(2) + ( -1) + (2)
7.
Ans. (4)
Here average acceleration =
16 - 0 48 - 16 88 - 48
=
=
=4
4-0
12 - 4
22 - 12
But we can't say certainly that body have uniform acceleration.

8.
Ans. (3)
r
r
Relative velocity , v r = v1 - v 2 where v1 = v2 = v
If angle between them be q, then v r =
v 2 + v 2 - 2v 2 cos q =
2p
r
Hence, average relative velocity v r =
9.
2v sin 2 dq
0
2v 2 (1 - cos q ) = 2v sin( q / 2)
2p
dq
4v
p
Ans. (1)
r
r
Given A = B A=B.
r r r
r
Sum : R = A + B R = A2 + B 2 = 2A
r r r
r
Difference : S = A - B S = A2 + B2 = 2A ; a1 = 45 , a2 = 45
r
r
Hence R and S will be perpendicular and also of equal lengths.
51/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
Ans. (2)
Let retardation of particle be b then b =
v0
8
v0
v0 = 16ms1 b=2 ms2
4
1
v (12) v 0
Distance travelled
= 2 0
=
= 8ms -1
Average speed =
time taken
12
2
Ans. (1)
1
(4)(v 0 ) + x
Displacement
Average velocity =
= 2
time taken
8
But a = 4 =
11.
v0
Where x = Displacement of particle in a time interval from t=4 s to t=8 s = 16 ( 4 ) Average velocity =
12.
Ans. (2)
1
(2) ( 4 )2 = 48m
2
1
2
t + 20t = D 40t=D ..(i)
1 2
1 2
300 ( u sin q ) t + gt = 200 - gt

2
2
300 - 20 2
t-
1 2
1
gt = 200 - gt 2 100 = 20 t t = 5 ..(ii)
2
2
On using in equation (i) D = 200 m.

Ans. (1)
Co-ordinate x = ucosqt x = 20 2
and
y = 300 - 20 2
1
2
1
2
5 x = 100
- 5 25 = 300 100 125 = 75 Co-ordinate (100, 75)
Ans. (3)
If air blow in there then
16.
v 2 - v1 8 - 0
=
= 1 ms -2 as at t=8s, v=v0b(4)=162(4)=8ms1
t2 - t1
8-0
For y-co-ordinate
15.
12
Ans. (1)
x1 + x2 = D ucosqt + u't=D 20 2
14.
(2)(16) + 48 80
=
= 10 ms1
8
8
Average acceleration =
13.
1
1
x = u cos qt + a x t 2 = 20 2
5 + 2 25 =100+5=125
2
2
2
y-coordinate will be same.

Ans. (1)
Comparing with y = x tan q
10
1
2u2
2
gx 2
10
1
tan q = 1 q = 45 0 and
=
2u cos2 q
2u 2 cos2 q 80
2
1
u2 = 800 u = 20 2 ms1
80
1
800
u 2 sin 2q
800 1
u 2 sin2 q
2
=
=
= 80 m
Maximum height =
= 20 m. Horizontal range =
g
2
10
10
2g
1
20 2
- 10 4
u sin q - gt
-20
2
= -1
Angle of velocity with horizontal after 4 sec tan q =
=
=
1
u cos q
20
20 2
2
52/91
10.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
NLM & FRICTION

1.
Ans. (4)
All block will move with same acceleration
asystem =
60
= 1 ms2
10 + 20 + 30
For 10 kg block
asystem
10kg
T1 = (10) asystem = (10)(1) = 10N
T1
For 20 kg block
asystem
20kg
T1
2.
T1
T2 T1 = (20)(1) T2 = 20 + 10 = 30N
Ans. (3)
For block B
For block A
The net force on block A = 5 mAg = 5 0.2 1 10 = 3N
aA =
3
= 3ms2
1
FB
mmA g
0.2 1 10
2
& aB = m = m
= 1 ms2
=
=
2
2
B
B
Acceleration of block A w.r.t. block B,

by using s = ut +
1 2
at , Here initial relative velocity u = 0, s = 4 cm & a = 2 ms2
2
2s
=
a
t=
a = aA aB = 2 ms2
2 4 10-2
= 0.25 s
2
3.
Ans. (3)
For hanging mass Mg T = Ma
For mass placed of floor T 0.2 Mg = Ma
0.8 Mg = 2Ma a = 0.4g = 3.92 ms2
4.
Ans. (4)
N
20sin45
( 20cos45
45
20
N = 5g + 20 sin 45 = (50 + 10 2 ) newton
5g
Maximum frictional force fL = N = 0.2 [5g + 10 2 ] = (10 + 2 2 ) newton

as applied force in Horizontal direction 10 2 > fL, so block starts motion
therefore frictional force on block fk = N = (10 + 2 2 ) newton
From Newton's 2nd law of motion for block
10 2 fk = 5a
53/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
Path to Success
5a = 10 2 12.828 = 1.312 a =
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
1.312
ms2
5
speed of block after 15 sec from first equation of motion

v = u + at =
5.
1.312
5
Ans. (1)
Acceleration of weights =
6.
15 = 3.94 ms1
(m - m1 )g - f
Net force
= 2
m1 + m2
total mass
Ans.(1)
Car moves at speed greater than the optimum speed so it has outward sliding tendency.
7.
Ans.(2)
Car moves at speed lower than the optimum speed, so it has inward sliding tendency.
8.
Ans.(1)
To retard the car it needs a tangential force in backward direction and to compensate outward sliping tendency
it need a tangential force down the plane.
These two are components of the force of static friction.
9.
Ans. (2)
am=0, a M =
F
F
1
1 F
2lM
a mM = - . Now s = ut + at 2 l = t2 t =
M
M
2
2 M
F
WPE & COM, COLLISION

Ans. (1)
M
Speed of particle just before collision v =
h
M
d
SAND
2gh
Combined speed of both particles just after collision
v' =
v
=
2
gh
2
[Q Mv = (M + M)v']
Now by using work energy theorem [DKE = W]

0
1
(2M) v'2 = Wgravitational + Wretarding force
2
Mgh
= (2Mg)d + Wretarding force Wretarding force =
2
Wagainst retarding force =
Mgh
+ 2Mgd
2
(Note :- If h >> d then Wagainst retarding force

54/91
Mgh
)
2
FG Mgh + 2MgdIJ
H 2
K
1.
ALLEN
Path to Success
2.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
Since the floor exerts the force on the ball along the normal during collision so horizontal component of velocity
remain same and only vertical component will change.
Therefore,
v'sinq' = vsinq =
and v'cosq' = evcosq =
v'2 =
2
v
1
2
v
2
3 2
v2
v2
v v' =
+
=
4
2
4
and tanq' =
3.
3
v
2
1
2 q' = tan 2
Ans. (1)
According to question
K
1
K
mv 2
= 2 K.E. =
mv2 =
2
2r
r
r
FG - K r$IJ .drr = K dr
H r K
r
F KI K
K
T.E. = K.E. + P.E. =
+ G- J = H r K 2r
2r
r r
P.E. = F. dr =
r
4.
K
r
Ans. (2)
Fractional loss in kinetic energy =
5.
1
2
loss in potential energy
loss in kinetic energy
mg(8 - 6)
=
=
=
=
4
8
initial potential energy
initial kinetic energy
mg(8)
Ans. (4)
Change in kinetic energy
DK.E. =
=
1
1
mv 2f - mv 2i where vf = 62 + 22 =
2
2
1
08
2
FG e 40 j e 25 j IJ
H
K
2
40 and vi = 32 + 4 2 = 25
= 04 [40 25] = 04 (15) = 6 joule

OR
r
r r
v 0 = 3$i - 4 $j & v 20 = v 0 . v 0 v 20 = 3$i - 4$j . 3$i - 4$j = 9 + 16 = 25
e j
r
r
v = e -6$j + 2 k$ j & v
f
change in K.E. =
6.
2
f
r r
= v f . v f v 2f
e je j
$
= e -6$j + 2k$ j . e -6$j + 2k j = 36 + 4 = 40
U|
V|
W
1
1
m (v 2f - v 20 ) =
0.8 (40 25) = 6 J
2
2
Ans. (3)
1
mv2 0
2
= 1500 J
According to work energy theorem Wgravity + Wair = DKE mgh + Wair =
10[10] [20] + Wair = 500 Work done by air on object Wair
55/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
7.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (4)
Required work done = change in potential energy of chain
Now let Potential energy (U) = 0 at table level
L
n
so potential energies of chain

MgL
L
M L L
Ui = mg = g = , Uf = 0
2n
L n 2n
2n2
MgL
MgL
Work done = Uf Ui = 0 =
2
2n2
2n
8.
Ans. (1)
lcosq 1
lcosq 2
h = l(cosq2 cosq1)
q2
q1
Applying conservation of mechanical energy at point A & B

1
mv 2 = mgh v= 2gh = 2gl(cos q2 - cos q1 )
2
T
h
q2
mg mgcosq 2
At B, T mgcosq2 =
T = mgcosq2 +
9.
mv 2
Where v =
l
2gl(cos q2 - cos q1 )
m
[2gl(cosq2 cosq1)] = mg(3cosq2 2 cosq1)
l
Ans. (2)
Velocity of jumping vi = 2gh =
10.
2 9.8 0.8 =
ds
15.68 = 3.96 ms1 () upwards
Impulse from ground = change in momentum of person.

I =Dp = m [vf vi] = 70 [3.96 0] = 277.2 kgm/s
Ans. (2)
1 2
By using work energy theorem W = DKE kx - 0 - Wf = 0
2
1 kx2
1 (100) (0.5 )
1 2
=
= 25m
kx = mmgd d =
2 mmg 2 ( 0.05) (1) (10)
2
2
Ans. (3)
N=0 mg cosq =
mv 2
and
R
RRcosq
1
1
2
2
by using energy conservation law mv - mv 0 = mg R(1 cos q)
2
2
cos q =
12.
13.
2
0
2
v
2 Rg / 2 2 1 5
5
+
= +
= + = q = cos -1
6
3 3Rg 3
3Rg
3 6 6
Rcosq
v0
N=0
v
q0 q
0
mg
Ans. (2)
5
Rg
v2 6
5
=
= g
Radial acceleration at q0 =
R
R
6
Ans. (1)
In presence of friction by using work energy theorem
1
1
1
1
mgh - Wf = mv 2 - mv 20 mv02 + mgR (1 cos q) = mv2 + Wf
2
2
2
2
where Wf = work done against friction cos q =

56/91
2
v2
Wf
+ 0 cos q < cos q0 q > q0
3 3Rg mgR
11.
ALLEN
Path to Success
14.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
(i) As Fext = 0, the centre of mass of the system remain fixed. Also initial velocity of centre of mass is zero.
(ii) Let d be displacement of plank (right) in this process m1(2+d) + Md m2(2d) = 0 \ d = 0.2m = 20 cm
(iii) Displacement of A = 2 + 0.2 = 2.2 m
(iv) Displacement of B = 2 0.2 = 1.8 m
15.
Ans. (4)
For (i) v 2B = v 2A 2gR = 9gR 2gR = 7gR v B = 7gR For (ii) v 2C = v 2A 2g(2R) = 5gR v C = 5gR
vB
TB =
For (iii) T
mg
16.
mv 2B
= 7mg
R
For (iv)
vC
T + mg =
T C
mg
mv 2C
TC = 4mg
R
Ans. (3)
Component of velocity of A along common normal is v cos 60 and this velocity
of A after collision with B is interchanged. Hence A moves along v sin 60 which
B
vcos60
A
is normal to common normal.

17.
60
vsin60
Ans. (2)
For equilibrium points,
dU
= 0 x3 6x2 + 11x 6 = 0 x = 1, x = 2 and x = 3
F=
dx
d2U
> 0 x = 1 and x = 3 are stable while x = 2 is unstable.
In stable equilibrium,
dx2
In neutral equilibrium,
dU
d2U
= 0 and
=0
dx
dx2
ROTATIONAL
1.
Ans. (1)
90 or
2.
3.
r r r
r
p
r
radian Q L = r p \ L is perpendicular to p
2
Ans. (2)
Q
Moment of inertia about an axis passing through an end =
Igiven system =
ML2
3
ML2
ML2
2ML2
+
=
3
3
3
Ans. (2)
5
=10 rad/sec
p
& moment of inertia I = mr2 = (0.2) (0.1)2 = 2 103 kg-m2
Angular velocity w = 2p
U|
V|
W
Angular momentum= Iw =2 103 10 = 2 102 J-s or 2 102 kgm2s1

Kinetic energy =
1 2 1
Iw = 2 103 (10)2 = 0.1 J
2
2
57/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
4.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
p
Mass of the disk C

=
Mass of the full disk
FG R IJ
H 3K
pR
M
1
Mass of disk C =
9
9
By negative mass concept disk K may be assumed to have two parts one is full disk of mass M having centre
FG - M IJ having centre at O
H 9K
F M I F 2R IJ
M(0) + G - J G
H 9 K H 3 K = R Hence OO
12
F MI
M + G- J
H 9K
at O and the disk C of mass
rcm =
m1r1 + m2r2
=
m1 + m2
R
12
MI of disk K about axis pasing through O2

IO
FG IJ + FG - M IJ LM 1 FG R IJ + FG 2R + R IJ OP
H K H 9 K MN 2 H 3 K H 3 12K PQ
F 1 1 - 1 - 1 IJ = MR FG 4 - 1 IJ = 71 MR
= MR G +
H 9 162K 162
H 2 144 162 16K
2
R
MR 2
=
+ M
12
2
OR
p
Mass of the discC

=
Mass of the full disc
then OO2
FG R IJ
H 3K
pR
2R
8M
=
3
9
M
1
i.e. Mass of the disc C=
9
9
Hence mass of K = M
M 8M
=
9
9
M
R
Hence OO2 =
9
12
Now the moment of inertia of C about an axis

Perpendicular to its plane and passing through O2,
I CO2 =
1 M
2 9
FG R IJ
H 3K
FG R IJ FG 2R + R IJ
H 3 K H 3 12K
2
FG 89 IJ
H 144 9K
MR2
and moment of inertia of full disc (D) about the same axis
IDO2 =
1
MR2 + M
2
FG R IJ
H 12K
FG 73 IJ
H 144 K
MR2
So moment of inertia of disc K about O2 is
5.
568
71
MR2
MR2 =
144 9
162
Ans. (2)
Q w2 = w1 + at \ 40p = 20p + 10a a = 2p rad/s2
angular displacement q =
1200p2
w22 - w12
(40p)2 - (20p)2
= 300 p
=
=
4p
2a
2 2p
Therefore number of rotations =
58/91
q
300p
=
= 150
2p
2p
I KO2 = I DO2 I CO2 =
ALLEN
Path to Success
6.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
Torque acting about the point B = (mg)
l
2
If I is the moment of inertia of the stick about B and a is the

angular acceleration then
I a = (mg)
Acceleration of centre of mass a = a
FG l IJ
H 2K
mgl
l
a =
2I
2
mgl2
4I
ml2
3
Moment of inertia of this stick about its edge I =
mgl2
a =
4
F ml I
GH 3 JK
2
3
g
4
OR
For angular motion of the stick
t = mg
moment of intertia of stick about B is I =
FG l IJ = I a
H 2K
ml2
3
FG l IJ = FG ml IJ a a = 3g
2l
H 2K H 3 K
F l I F 3gI F l I 3
Acceleration of centre of mass = a G J = G J G J = g
H 2K H 2l K H 2K 4
2
mg
7.
Ans. (3)
For motion of block 2g T=2a
a
R
T
For motion of pulley t = TR = Ia
Q a = aR \ T =
8.
2kg
a=
UV
W
g
Ia
Ia
2g 2 = 2a a=
2
I
R
R
1+
2R2
10
10 10
=
=2 ms2
0.32
1
+
4
5
1+
2 0.2 0.2
Ans. (2)
X
Ixx' = 3ICM + 2MR2= 3
7
MR 2
2
+ 2MR 2 = MR
2
2
X'
59/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
9.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
A
R/2
10.
vA = +
wR
(i.e. Towards right)
2
vB = wR (i.e. Towards left)
Ans. (3)
By conservation of linear momentum mv0 = 4mvc v c =
11.
v0
4
Ans. (2)
3v
L ( 4m ) L2
ww = 0
By conservation of angular momentum mv 0 =
2
12
2L
12.
Ans. (4)
2p 4pL
Time taken by rod in completing one revolution = w = 3v
0
4pL v 0 4pL pL
Distance travelled by centre = ( v c ) 3v = 4 3v = 3
0
0
13.
Ans.(2)
a=
f
mmg
t
fR
5mg
=
= mg, a = = 2
=
2
m
m
I 5 mR
R
2Rw 0
5mg
t t =
Slipping is ceased when v=Rw mgt = R w 0 R
7mg
14.
Ans. (2)
5
2
5mg 2Rw 0
w = w0 -
= w0 - w0 = w0
2R 7mg
7
7
15.
Ans. (1)
Net torque about the bottommost point is zero so angular momentum about that point is conserved.
2
mR 2w 0
5
Ans. (2)
So L =
a=
g sin q (10) ( 3 / 5) 18 -2
ms
=
=
2
K2
5
1
+
1+ 2
3
R
17.
Ans. (4)
Speed of point of contact in pure rolling is always zero
18.
Ans. (2)
19.
1 2
3
1 18
5
at
= ( t2 ) t = s
2
sin 37 2 5
3
Ans. (2)
s = ut +
L = Lcm + mVR = Icmw + mV0R =

60/91
V0
2
7
mR2 + mV0R = mV0R
R
5
5
16.
ALLEN
Path to Success
20.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (3)
By taking torque about hinged point
(16g)l1 = (mg)l2 and (mg)l1 = (4g)l2
21.
16 m
=
m2 = 64 m = 8 kg
m 4
Ans. (4)
By COME
2
mgh =
12
1
1 2 1
2 v
Iw + mv2 = mR + mv2
R
25
2
2
2
mgh =
7
mv2
10
Therefore rotational kinetic energy =
1
2
mv2 = mgh
5
7
SHM
1.
Ans. (3)
According to question F1 = K1 x
so
n1 =
1
2p
&
1
K1
= 6Hz ; n2 =
2p
m
F2 = K2x
K 2 = 8 Hz
m
Now F = F1 + F2 = (K1 + K2)x Therefore n =
n =
1
2p
4 p2 n12 m + 4p2 n22 m =

m
2.
Ans. (2) Do yourself
3.
Ans. (1)
Resultant amplitude =
1
2p
n12 + n22 =
82 + 62 = 10 Hz
a12 + a 22 + 2a1a 2 cos Df
a2 = 2a2 + 2a2cos(f1 f2) cos(f1 f2) = f1 f2 = 120 or
K1 + K 2
m
1
2
2p
rad
3
OR
For superposition of two oscillations

a sin(wt + f) = a sin (wt + f1) + a sin (wt + f2)
sinwt cosf + coswt sinf = sinwt cosf1 + coswt sinf1 + sinwt cosf2 + coswt sinf2
cosf = cosf1 + cosf2 & sinf = sinf1 + sinf2
cos2f + sin2f = 1 = cos2f1 + cos2f2 + 2cosf1 cosf2 + sin2f1 +sin2f2 + 2sinf1sinf2

cos (f1 f2) =
1
2p
rad
f1 f2 = 120 or
2
3
61/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
4.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
The amplitude, a, at time t is given by a = a0 exp( at)
a50 = a0 exp( a 50T) = 0.80 a0 where T is the period of oscillation
a150 = a0 exp ( a 150T) = a0 (0.8)3 = 0.512 a0
5.
Ans. (4)
Angular frequency w =
6.
K
1200
=
= 20rad / sec
m
3
Ans. (2)
Time period for half part : T = 2p
T
l
1 2p
= 2p
=
= 2sec. So 2 part will be covered in a time t = = 1 sec.
2
p
g
g
1
2p
2p
p
t = sin
t = p t t = 1/6 sec.
For the left 1 part : q = q0 sin (wt) 1 = 2 sin
T
2
6
Total time =
7.
T
1
1 4
+ 2t 1+2 =1+ = sec.
2
6
3 3
Ans. (3)
Do yourself
8.
Ans. (4)
In SHM a = w2k
9.
so 16 = w2(4) w = 2
Time period T =
2p
2p
=
=p
w
2
Ans. (1)
Let they will be in phase after time 't' then
10.
Ans. (3)
At mean position KE =
11.
1
m(wa)2 = 8 103
2
Ans. (2)
ml 2
I
2l
3
= 2p
= 2p
T A = 2p
mgl
mg( l / 2)
3g
12.
t
t
1
21
=
t=
s
7
3
2
8
& TB = 2p
l
g
Ans. (1)
F=
dU
= 2(x 4) motion is SHM and particle osaltates about x = 4 m
dx
Maximum kinetic energy = 36 Umin = 36 20 = 16 J

At x = 2m, U = 24 K.E. = 36 24 = 12 J
13.
Ans. (1)
z 5 = 12cos 2pt + SHM with mean position at z = 5 cm
2
Q 12 z 5 12 \ 7 z 17
62/91
U = 20 + (x 4)2 Umin = 20J
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
THERMAL PHYSICS
1.
Ans. (1)
From first law of thermodynamics Q = W + DU = 0
Energy supplied to given system = W = DU = nCVDT DT=
Also
CP CV = R
Therefore DT =
2.
CV = CP R =
Energy supplied
n CV
5
3
R R =
R
2
2
100
300
kelvin
=
3
R
2 R
2
Ans. (2)
For process AB
For process BC
T2 = 2T1 = 600K( Q V2= 2V1)

Therefore (2T1) (V2)5/31 = (T1) (V3)5/31
(P = constant)
TVg1 = constant
V3 = (V2) (2)3/2 = 2 2 V2 = 80 2 103 m3 = 80 2 litres
(2) (8.3) (300)

mRT3
= 0.44 105 N/m2
=
80 2 10-3
V3
Work done under isobaric process = PDV = P1(V2 V1)
P3 =
mRT1
2 8.3 300
(V2 - V1 ) =
(40 10-3 - 20 10-3 ) = 4980J
-3
V1
20 10
Work done under adiabatic process =

3.
mR(T2 - T3 )
2 8.3 (300)
=
= 7470J
5 3 -1
(g - 1)
Ans. (4)
FG
H
IJ
K
q1 + q2
q2 q1
q2
=K
2
t
Since the temperature decreases from 60C to 40C in 7 minutes
According to Newton's law of cooling
60 40
=K
7
FG 60 + 40 10IJ
H 2
K
1
20
= K (50 10) K =
14
7
If the temp. of object becoms q' in next 7 minutes then
1
40 q'
=
14
7
FG 40 + q' 10IJ
H 2
K
1
(40 + q' 20) 160 4q' = 20 + q'
4
5q' = 140 q' = 28C
OR
According to Newton's law of cooling
40 q' =
dq
= K (q q0) or
dt
dt =
dq
1
K (q - q0 )
63/91
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PHYSICS
z
t
dt =
1
K
q2
q1
Path to Success
RS
T
1
(q1 - q0 )
dq
t=
loge
K
(q - q 0 )
(q2 - q0 )
As per the question 7 =
UV
W
RS
T
UV also 7 = 1 log RS 40 - 10 UV
K
W
T q - 10 W
F 30 IJ
F 50I
log G J = log G
H q - 10 K
H 30K
60 - 10
1
loge
40 - 10
K
from above equations we have
30
5
=
5 50 = 90
q - 10
3
Ans. (1)
4.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
q=
100
= 28C
5
Let density of liquid at 20C be r1 and at 70C be r2 & Wapparent = Wair Vrg
then at 20C : 40 = 50 Vr1g Vr1g = 10 and
at 70C : 45 = 50 Vr2g Vr2g = 5
5.
So density ratio
r1 2
=
r2 1
Ans. (4)
Given an ideal gas whose n = 2.0 moles
In the cyclic proces DU = 0
c 300K
Here Q = DU + W. As DU = 0,
V0
500K
2V0
2V0
V0
the amount of heat absorbed, Q = W = Wab + Wcd = RT1 ln
+ RT2 ln
V0
2V0
= 2 8.3 0.69(500 300) = 2291 J
6.
Ans. (1)
In adiabatic process, TVg1 = constant
V
T2 = 1
V
2
g -1
V 3
T1 =
2 2V
300 = 150 K or 123C
Change in internal energy DU = mCVdt

DU = 2
Ans. (3)
Given T1 = 800 K and T2 =- 400 K, W = Q1 Q2 = 750 W
Amount of heat absorbed is given by
800 - 400
1
T -T
W
= 1 2 =
=
800
2
T1
Q1
Q1 =
1500
= 357.14 cal/sec
4.2
Efficiency h =
64/91
T1 - T2 800 - 400 1
=
= or 50%
T1
800
2
750
1
Q1 = 2
Q1 = 1500 Watt. or J/sec
7.
3
R (150 300) = 3 8.3 (150) = 3735 joule
2
ALLEN
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
8.
Ans. (1)
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
For simple pendulum T = 2p
l
DT 1 Dl 1
1/ 2
=
= aDq
g T l
T
2 l
2
Assuming clock gives correct time at temperature q0

and
9.
1
6
= a ( q0 - 20)
24 3600
2
6
1
= a ( 40 - q0 ) q0 = 30C a = 1.4 10-5 C-1
24 3600 2
Ans. (3)
For adiabatic process TVg1 = constant.
5
3
log T + (g1) log V = constant slope = (g1) = g =
10
2
5
7
7
3 5
;
For diatomic gas g =
As < g = <
3
5
5
2 3
Hence, the gas must be a mixture of monoatomic & diatomic gas.
For monoatomic gas g =
10.
Ans. (2)
11.
1
gas can expand only if it cools .
T
As tempeature decreases during expansion so internal energy will decrease.
Ans. (3)
PV = nRT & PV 2 = constant V
l m T = b lnT = -lnl m + lnb slope = -1

12.
Ans. (2)
E = sAT 4 lnE = 4 lnT + ln ( sA ) slope = +4
13.
Ans. (1)
lnT = -lnl m + l b when lnb=A b=e A

14.
15.
Ans. (3)
Q1= msDT = 10 (0.53) (40) = 212 cal
Q2 = mL = (10) (80) = 800 cal
Q3 = msDT = (10)(1)(100) = 1000 cal
Q4 = mL = (10)(540) = 5400 cal

P
Ans. (1)
For (i) : W =0 & DT < 0 Q < 0 & DU < 0
For (ii) : Q = 0, W > 0 DU < 0
For (iii) : DT =0, DU = 0 Q = W > 0
P2
C
A
P1
For (iv) : V T W > 0 & DU > 0 Q > 0

16.
Ans. (1)
Rate of heat flow=
V1
K i A (1000 - q) K 0 A ( q - 100)
q - 100
=
=
li
l0
900
V2
1
K l
1+ 0 i
Kil0
Now, we can see that q can be decreased by increasing thermal conductivity of outer layer (Ko) and thickness of
inner layer (li).
65/91
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Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
GRAVITATION
1.
Ans. (2) Do youself
2.
Ans. (3) From keplar's law T2 R3
3.
Ans. (1) By COME 0 + 0 =

2
But v e =
4.
Q Area R2 \ Area T4/3
1
3 GMm
mv2
2
2 R
2GM
so v =
R
1.5 v e
Ans. (2)
2
By COME
5.
1 ve
GMm
GMm
Re
= 0m h=
2 4
R
R+h
15
Ans. (4)
GMm
Potential energy = (
R + h)
Orbital velocity =
6.
Kinetic energy = +
GM
R+h
Total energy =
GMm
2 ( R + h)
GMm
2 ( R + h)
Ans. (1)
For (i) : By COME total mechanical energy of the two objects
For (ii) : By using reduced mass concept
1 2
G(4m)(m)
4
(m) (4m)
v rel
= m vrel =
= 0 where =
2
r
5
m + 4m
For (iii) total KE = PE =
10 Gm
r
G(m) (4m)
4Gm 2
=
r
r
SOUND WAVES
Ans. (2)
Velocity of sound in rod v =
Y
Y = rv2
r
Stress = (Y) (Strain) = (rv2) (strain) = 4 103 (5000)2

2.
1
= 109 N/m2
100
Ans. (1)
For tuning fork 'A'
For tuning fork 'B'
\
so n1 =
v
v
=
4
37.5
l1
v
l2
v
= 38.5 \ n2 =
=
4
38.5
4
l2
n1 n2 = 8
n1 =
66/91
l1
= 37.5
4
v
v
= 8 \ v = (8 4 37.5 38.5)
4 37.5
4 38.5
8 4 37.5 38.5
= 308 Hz and n2 = 308 8 = 300 Hz
4 37.5
1.
ALLEN
Path to Success
3.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2)
Let n1 be the frequency of the wire having tension T + DT and n2 be the frequency of the wire having tension
T, then
n1
=
n2
500 + 5
505
T + DT
=
=
500
500
T
FG
H
5
T + DT
= 1+
500
T
IJ
K
1+
OR
Dn 1 DT
T n =2 T
For stretched wire frequency n
4.
Ans. (4)
FG Dn IJ
HnK
DT
= 2
T
n1 = 375 =
p
2l
= 2
2
DT
1.02
= 0.02
100
T
FG 5 IJ
H 500K
= 0.02
T
p +1 T
and n2 = 450 =
where p is number of loops
m
2l m
450 p + 1
=
p = 5
375
p
so
l=
Mass of wire = (m) (l) = (4 103) (2) = 8 103 kg
p
2 n1
T
5
=
m 2 375
360
4 10-3
= 2m
OR
Difference between two consecutive resonating frequency n2 n1 =
450 375 =
l=
1
2l
1
2l
T
m
360
4 10 -3
1
360
1
6 102
=
=2m
-3
2 75 4 10
150
2
Mass of wire = (m) (l) = (4 103) (2) = 8 103 kg

5.
Ans. (2)
v + v0
v
When driver approaches to the policeman then observed frequency n' = n
v - v0
v where n = 400 Hz, v0 = 54 km/hr = 15 m/s
after crossing n'' = n
v + v0
v - v0
2nv0
2 400 15
= 34.2 Hz
v n v = v =
350
their difference Dn = n' n'' = n
6.
Ans. (2)
Here y1 = 4sin(500 pt) and y2 = 2 sin(506 pt). No. of beats =
Imax
As I1 (16) and I2 4 I =
min
7.
(
(
I1 + I2
I1 - I 2
)
)
2
2
n1 - n2 w1 - w2 506 - 500
=
=
= 3 beat/sec.
2
2p
2
2
4 + 2
6
=
= =9
4 - 2
2
Ans. (3) The sign of x & t are ve and +ve respectively. Hence wave is travelling in +ve x-direction.
67/91
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8.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (3)
y ( x, t ) = A sin kx - wt + + B sin ( kx - wt )
9.
p
. \ Resultant amplitude =
2
Compare with the wave y (x, t) = D sin(kxwt +f) \ D2 = A2 + B2
Ans. (1)
10.
vParticle = (slope) (vwave)

At A : slope +ve so vP is ve.
At B : slope ve so vP is +ve.
Ans. (1)
It is combination of two wave of phase difference
A2 + B2
OR
2p
2p
2p
w
b
=k
=a l =
, v= v=
l
l
a
k
a
11.
Ans. (2)
yr = Ar cos (btax) where Ar = 0.64A = 0.8A y r = -0.8A cos ( bt - ax )
12.
Ans. (3)
y t = A t cos ( ax + bt ) where A t = 0.36A = 0.6A
13.
Ans. (3)
For (i) : 2A = 0.06 Amplitude of constituent wave A = 0.03 m
For (ii) : Position of node when y=0 sin (2px)=0 2px = np where n=1,2,3... x =
For (iii) : Position of antinode 0.06 = 0.06 sin (2px) 2px = (2n1)
For (iv) : Amplitude at x=

14.
n 1
= = 0.5m
2 2
p
1
where n=1,2,3... x= =0.25 m
2
4
1
1
p
1
m A =0.06 sin 2p = 0.06 sin = 0.06 = 0.03 m
12
12
6
2
Ans. (2)
x
General equation y = f t +
15.
Ans. (1)
Particle velocity = (wave velocity) slope
Q Slope = ve
Particle velocity = vertical upward
Ans. (1)
Dx=0
D x=l D x=2l
D x=4 l
S1
S2
4l
Dx=0
68/91
D x=3l
D x=4l
16.
so
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Path to Success
17.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XI
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2)
Refer physics gutka
18.
19.
20.
Ans. (3)
v + v0
2f = f
v - v 0
21.
v0 =
v
3
Ans. (4)
2v 0
n
Beat frequency
v
According to question
2v 0
v n 5
v0
22.
5v
2n
Ans. (1)
v v - vC
v
f & l = =
Frequency observed by hill f =
f
f
v - vC
v + v0 v + v0 f ( v + v0 )
2v
v + vC - v + vC ) = 2 C 2 f ( v + v0 )
Beat frequency observed by observer = f v - v - v + v = 2
2 (
v - vC
v - vC
C
C
23.
Ans. (3)
Speed of wave =
Wavelength l =
24.
w 500 50 1
w
500
=
=
=
ms ; Frequency =
= 79.61 Hz
k
70
7
2p
2p
2p 2p
20p
=
m=
cm
k
70
7
Ans. (4)
v
3v
5v
l O 6 n A 2l O 2l C 5
=
=
=
=
=
v
2l O 4l C l C 5 ; nB
lO
3
4l C
2v
n A 2l O 4 l C 10
=
=
=
For first overtone nB
3v
3 lO
9
4l C
69/91
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TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)

p1=p
q
r
r1
p2=-p q
1.
2.
3.
(ii)
rsinq =d
r2
(any point) P
r
r dJ
t=
(i)
dt
(i)
r r r r r
r r r r
r r
r
L = r1 p1 + r2 p2 = r1 p - r2 p = ( r1 - r2 ) p
r
r r
r r r
Q r2 + r = r1 \ L = r p = rpsinq n$ = pd n$ = const.
r
r
r
r
dw
(ii)
t = I a or t = I
dt
When one end of a rod is heated, the temperature of various points of the rod changes continuously
but after some time a state is reached, when the temperature of each crosssection becomes steady
which is called steady state. In this state the heat received by any section will be totally transfered to
the next section so no heat is absorbed by any cross section.
Temperature gradient is defined as the rate of change of temperature with distance in the direction
of flow of heat.
4.
5.
Yes, torque and energy have same dimention
6.
For a monoatomic gas there are 3 degrees of freedom so Cv =

At constant pressure specific heat CP = CV + R =
dU 3
= R
dT 2
3
5
R+R= R
2
2
5
R
5
CP
= 2 =
Required ratio C V 3
3 = 1.67
R
2
7.
Yes, by reducing pressure of water, boiling point of water can be brought down to room temperature
8.
r r r
r r r
Given that : A = B + C A C = B
2
2
2
3
18 3
A2 + C2 - B2 (5) + (3) - (4)
cos q =
=
= q = cos1 = 53
=
2 (5) (3)
5
30 5
2AC
Since
52
OR
=
42
32
+
r r
r
r
r
r r r
the vectors A, B and C with A = B + C make a triangle with angle between B and C as 90.
r
r
3
If q is the angle between A and C , then cosq =
= 0.6 = cos(53) \ q = 53
5
70/91
r r
r r
r r
r r
By taking self dot product on both sides (A - C) . (A - C) = B.B A2 + C2 2A.C = B2
r
r
Now let angle between A and C be q then A2 + C2 2AC cosq = B2
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
ELECTRODYNAMICS
1.
SOLUTIONS
Ans. (1)
Given circuit can be reduced to
Q Heat loss in R = Heat loss in 4W
I2R = I2(4) R = 4W
2.
Ans. (1)
Mass of Cu deposited =
FG A IJ It
HVK
Cu
& Mass of Ag deposited =
F A I It
GH V JK
Ag
2
where Acu & AAg denotes atomic weights and V1 & V2 denotes valencies of Cu and Ag respectively
\
3.
M Cu
A Cu
A Cu
V
=
2 =
M Ag
A Ag
2A Ag
V1
(Q V1 = 2, V2 = 1)
Ans. (4)
V
250
250
=
=
= 5A
X (75 - 25)
50
VL = I XL = 5 25 = 125V & VC = I XC = 5 75 = 375V
Current in circuit : I =
voltage on capacitor is more than that of supply voltage because the phase difference
between VL and VC is 180 (i.e. out of phase)
4.
Ans. (4)
Let q be the charge on inner sphere then potential at the surface of inner surface
Vinner =
5.
KQ Kq
+
=0
R
r
(Q Earthed) q =
r
Q
R
Ans. (2)
By using formula for finite length wire B =
m 0I
(sinq1 + sinq2)
4 pd
At point P, due to horizontal part B = 0 & due to vertical part B =
m 0I
4 pd
r
The direction of B at P is perpendicular to the plane of the page and coming out of the page.
OR
From Biot-Savart's law, B at P due to horizontal part of the current is zero.
Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\Solution\Class XII
Due to vertical part, B is half of that due to an infinitely long current carrying wire.
FG
H
IJ
K
1 m 0I
m 0I
=
2 2p d
4p d
r
The direction of B at P perpendicular to the plane of the page and coming out of the page
Therefore B =
6.
Ans. (2)
The phase difference between VC and VR is
2
p
rad or 90
2
71/91
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7.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2)
By using gauss theorem E 4 pa 2 =

8.
q
q
(Aa) (4pa2) =
0
0
q = 0(4pa2) (Aa) = 3 109 C
Ans. (3)
Power dissipation in series connection
Q P1 = P2 = P3 = P4 = 60 W
1
1
1
1
1
+
=
+
+
P1
P4
P
P2
P3
4
1
=
60
P
therefore P = 15 W
OR
Resistance of each bulb R =
V2
P1
Power dissipated in circuit P =
therefore P =
V2
where Req = 4R
R eq
P1 60
=
= 15W
4
4
Ans. (4)
e=
10.
dr
df
d
=
(pr2B) = 2prB
r=
dt
dt
dt
FG 2pB dr IJ
H dt K
r=
Ans. (2)
1 2 1
at =
deflection Dy =
2
2
1
Dy =
2
11.
5
10-6
=
cm
-3
-2
p
2p 10 10
FG ef IJ FG l IJ
H md K H v K
0
FG eE IJ FG l IJ
H mK Hv K
400 16
. 10-19 100 10-4
= 1.76 mm
2 2 10-2 91
. 10-31 1016
Ans. (2)
Voltage will lead the current if i0XL > i0XC XL > XC w >
1
LC
12.
Ans. (4)
No silver will be liberated because with AC, anode and cathode are interchanged in each half cycle.
13.
Ans. (2)
By using Gauss theorem fE =
r r
q
E . ds = in
0
Here net flux fE = 100 (0.2 0.2) + (100) (0.2 0.2) = 8Nm2/C
qin = 0 fE = (8.85 1012) (8) = 7.08 1011 C
The lines of electric field are outwards from the faces, hence the charge should the positive
72/91
9.
F I
GH JK
V2
1 V2
=
4R
4 R
where V = 220V, P1` = 60W
ALLEN
Path to Success
14.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (3)
The system is equivalent to two condensers in parallel
\
15.
C = C1 + C2 =
Ke 0 (A / 2)
e 0 (A / 2)
e0A
(K + 1)
+
=
2d
d
d
Ans. (2)
KA = CL = R
Magnetic field (2) at D due to straight current KA & CL is zero
and magnetic field due to a semi circular current at the centre is B =
16.
m 0 Ia m 0 Ip m 0 I
=
=
4 pR 4pR 4R
Ans. (3)
At resonance the net potential drop across L and C is zero. Hence whole of the potential drop of 220 V is
across the resistance.
17.
Ans. (2)
Q B =m0 n i = m0H \ coercive force H = n i where n =
2 103
H
= 2A
=
1000
n
therefore i =
18.
Ans. (1)
R
Applying Gauss's law to the surface S. Charge q and +q are in

duced on the inner & outer surfaces of the shell.
S
x
r
q
O
a
q
Vp =
+q
19.
kQ
kQ
V
E=
2 & V =
r
r
r
V
9 106
=
rmin = E
= 3m
max
3 106
Ans. (2)
Mutual inductance M =
21.
1 q q q
q
- + =
4p 0 x x R
4p 0 R
Ans. (3)
E=
20.
150
= 1000
15 10-2
fN
IM
fM
IN
IN
3
fN =
1.8 10 -3 = 2.7 103 Wb
IM
2
fM=
Ans. (3)
4A
E + 4r = 12
2A
E 2r = 9
E = 10 V & r = 0.5W
73/91
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22.
Path to Success
Ans. (3)
Magnetic field at dr, B =
i
r
dr
FG m I IJ
H 2p r K
dr m i I F x + L I
=
lnG
J
r
2p H x K
of length L is dF = i(dr)
F=
m 0i I
2p
x +L
1 2 1 1
CV2 I =
LI =
2
3 2
1
1 2
CV2, Magnetic field energy =
LI
2
2
CV 2
6 10-6 6 6
=
= 0.6 A
3L
3 2.0 10-3
Ans. (1)
r
r
r
r
r
r r r
Torque t = p E then torque on p2 due to p1 = p2 E1 but p2
25.
Ans. (4)
Total energy = Indial energy on capacitor =
24.
m 0I
2pr
Force on small element at a distance r of wire
23.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
r
r
r
E1 so t21 = 0
Ans. (2)
Magnetic moment of current carrying triangular loop M = IA
1
3 5 10-2
-2
5
10
= 2.2 104 A-m2
M = 0.2 2
2
Ans. (2)
r r
Electric flux f = E.A = EA cosq,
For each flat surface q = 0
\ f = EA =Ea (pr2) 104
r
r
For curved surface E and A are perpendicular so f = 0
Q
27.
Nm2
C
Q
f = \ Q = 0 f = 8.85 1012 2Ea (pr2) 104 = [5.5 1015 Ear2]C
0
Ans. (3)
Induced current I =
Total charge
q =
dq e
e
=
R
dt R
df 1
Df NBA
=
=
q =
dt R
R
R
500 0.25 0.04

= 0.2 C
25
OR
Induced emf, e =
df
dt
q = it =
74/91
=
e
R
nAB
Dt
Dt
=
\
500 0.04 0.25

0.1
q=
50
25
= 50 volt
0.1 = 0.2 C
26.
ALLEN
Path to Success
28.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
According to question VL = 2VR
Frequency f =
29.
Ans. (2)
So IXL = 2IR wL = 2R
2R
w
8000
=
=
= 1273.88 /s
2p
2p
2 pL
T/4
Root mean square value <V> =
V02 dt
dt
T
V02
4
=
T
V
V02
= 0
2
4
30.
Ans. (1)
Apply Kirchhoff's current law at juction I1 = I2 + I3
50 Vs Vs - 0 Vs - 30
=
+
Vs = 20 V
15
5
3
I1 =
50 20
= 6A,
5
I2 =
20 0 20
=
A,
3
3
I3 =
Total Power = I12R1 + I22R2 + I32R3 = 36 5 +

31.
20 30 2
=
A
15
3
400
4
3 +
15 = 320 W
9
9
Ans. (1)
When P and M are come in contact then charge of sphere P =
q m + 0 qm
=
2
2
qm
+ qn
q + 2q n
When P and N are come in contact then charge of sphere P = 2
= m
2
4
R
32.
Ans. (3)
here I =
E r
According to question 2 =
33.
Vs . I s
Output power
100 0.8 = V . I
p
p
Input power
...... (ii) From (i) and (ii) r =
1
W
3
Vs
Ns
120 0.25
Q V = N \ 0.8 = 30 I Ip = 1.25 A
p
p
p
0.1 (2 - 4)
DI -L ( I2 - I2 )
==
= + 0.04 volt
Dt
t
5
here induced emf is positive so direction of induced current is in the direction of main current
Ans. (2)
15W
10W
E
9+r
Ans. (1)
e = -L
35.
...... (i) and 0.5 =
Ans. (1)
% Efficiency =
34.
E
2+r
E
R+r
-5
IAB
10V
By using nodal analysis
10W
V - 10 V - 0 V - ( -5 )
+
+
=0
10
10
15
5V
V = 2.5V I AB =
2.5
= 0.25A = 250mA
10
75/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
36.
Path to Success
Ans. (4)
Current through ab = -
37.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
10
= -1A
10
Ans (3)
In case I : I1 = I2 where I1 = a1A1, I2 = a2A2 a1A1 = a2A2
a1 A 3
A A
R1 = 2 3 R1
In case II : I1'R1 = I2' R2 and I1' = a1A3, I2' = a2A4 a1A3R1 = a2A4R2 R2 =
a 2 A 4
A1 A 4
38.
Ans. (3)
B=3
60 60
30
m0i
[ sin 60 + sin 60] = m 0 18i
l
4p l
4p tan 30
2
30
y
A
BA
BB
39.
Ans. (3)
40.
Ans. (2)
41.
The light bulb gets dimmer as impedance Z =

Ans. (2)
R 2 + ( wL )
increases.
43.
1
1 2
B
B E=
= cB
As electric and magnetic energy densities are equal in an em wave so 0 E 2 =
2
2m 0
m 0 0
Ans. (4)
2E
Initial charging rate = initial current in the line of capacitor =
5R
q 0 2 3 EC 5
2
2
= 2E
= RC
Steady state p.d. across capacitor V0 = E q0 =CV0= EC t =
i
3
3
3
5R
Ans. (2)
44.
f BA
1
l2
=
where B
and A=l2 so M
i
i
L
L
Ans. (2)
42.
M=
45.
46.
Here i =
q
e
m i m ne
=
= ne , so B = 0 = 0
t 1/ n
2R
2R
Ans. (1)
Do yourself
Ans. (1)
e
1 2 1 e2
L
=
Li = L
L
=
i
=
0
Steady-state current in
2 0 2 R12 = heat produced in R2 during
R1 .Energy stored in
47.
discharge.
Ans. (4)
E =L
76/91
dI
E
2
dI = dt I = t = 0.5t If I = 5A then t = 10s
dt
L
4
ALLEN
Path to Success
48.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2)
R1
I
C
Q
Q
as VAVB =0, VCVA = IR1, VAVD=IR2, VCVB= C , VBVA= C
R2
D
C2
C1
B
\ IR1 =
Q
C1 ....(i)
IR 2 =
Q
C2 ...(ii)
R1 C 2
=
R 2 C1
49.
Ans. (1)
50.
Ans. (3)
Restoring force is zero on zaxis so the equilibrium of proton is neutral w.r.t. its displacement along zaxis.
2kP
Ans. (2) Assume capacitor as dipole and use F = q E , E = 3 , p = Qd
r
r
r r
r
Ans. (2) Force on electron = q ( v B ) = e ( B v )
51.
52.
+ 2Q
54.
V
= -3Vm -1
x
V
= -4Vm -1
Ans. (2) E y = y
55.
Ans. (2) a y =
53.
Ans. (1) E x = -
qE y
m
s = ut +
56.
Ans. (2)
(10 10-6 ) ( -4)

10 10-3
= -4 10-3 ms -2
1 2
1
at 0 - 3.2 = ( -4 10-3 ) ( t 2 ) t = 40s
2
2
We can break the motion along x & ydirection. Consider motion in ydirection, we have h =
57.
Ans. (4)
Motion along xdirection s= ut +
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
2h
1 2
gt t =
g
2
2h 1 qE 2h
1 2
+
at s = v 0
g 2 m g
2
2h qEh
+
Work done by electric field = Fd = qE v 0
g
mg

Ans. (2)
Distribution of charge on different surfaces of the plates
Q - q -2Q + q
3Q
Take a point P on right most plate E P = 2A - 2A = 0 q = 2
0
0
Ans. (1)
Therefore
Note : Charge on outer surface =
Net charge on plates Q - 2Q

Q
==
2
2
2
77/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
Path to Success
63.
64.
Ans. (4) See solution of Q. 62

Ans. (2) See solution of Q. 62
65.
Ans. (1)
These five plates constitute four identical capacitor in parallel, each of capacity
Ans. (4)
q4 = -
67.
Ans. (2)
Total energy stored = 4
68.
Ans. (3) I = constant
69.
Ans. (2) I = neAv d = constant v d
70.
l
Ans. (1) Time taken= v A
d
71.
Ans. (1)
72.
Ans. (2)
73.
Ans. (2)
2A 0 V 2
1
CV 2 =
2
d
1
A
e eq = 5 e & req = 5r
eeq = 3e, req = r + r +
76.
r 7r
=
3 3
Q V2
rl
=
R t and R=
t
R
A
1
1
Ans. (3) In parallel combination P = S P
i
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
2
4
V
2
10
V
= 2 cal/sec
= 10cal / sec , Heat generated 4W =
Heat generated in 5 W=
4
5
78/91
75.
0 A
0 AV
q1 =
d
d
2 0 AV
d
66.
74.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
ALLEN
Path to Success
77.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2)
(x+6)V
A
(x+4)V
B
2W
I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 + I5 + I6 = I7
78.
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
5R/2
R/2
x
6
=
= 0.4A
2 14
x
= 0.4 A
2
Ans. (2)
In steady state VC = VAB = capacitor voltage = V/2
q = q0 1 - e
Ans. (1)
t
tc
At t VAB =
83.
I1+ I2+I3+ I4+I5+I6
I7
0V
effective resistance across C = 3R t=3RC
R/2
82.
I1+ I2 +I3+ I4
I5
I6
F 2V
2W
81.
I4
2W
Ans. (4)
Current through branch AB = I1 =

80.
I3
G 4V
2W
2W
xV
D
6
x x -2 x x -2 x x -2
x
+
+ +
+ +
=- x= V
7
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
Current through branch BG : I3 =

79.
2W
2W
I1
I2
H
6V I + I
(x+2)V
C
CV
V
1- e
where q0 = C 2 q = 2
t
3RC
V
V
, i AB =
2
2R
Ans. (1)
q0 - q q
q
26
= q= 0 =
= 6mC . Final charge on 6 mF capacitor =q=6mC
2
2
2
2
84.
Ans. (3)
Final potential difference across 3mF capacitor =

85.
86.
87.
Ans. (3)
6mC
= 2V
3mF
1 C1 C2 2
V
2 C1 + C2 1
C2
2
1
=
=
=
Fraction of energy lost =
1
C1 + C2 2 + 2 2
C V2
2 1 1
r uur
r r
Ans. (3) F ^ dl and F ^ B
Ans. (4) Magnetic force in a uniform magnetic field on a loop is always zero.
79/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
Path to Success
88.
Ans. (2) F = 2 ( IlB) = 2 (2) (2) (1) = 8N
89.
Ans. (3 ) B cos q = B H B =
90.
Ans. (1)
91.
Ans. (2) At neutral point B H =
92.
r r r
r r
Ans. (2) e = B . ( l v) as l v Q q = 0 e = 0
tan q =
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
BH
0.6
=
= 1G
cos q 3 / 5
4
B V
BV
tan q
tan q = ( cos a ) tan q = ( cos 37) ( tan 45 ) =
=
=
5
B H
B H cos a cos a
( 0.4 10-4 )(10 10-2 )

m0 M
BH r 3
M
=
=
= 0.4Am2
4p r 3
10-7
( m 0 / 4p )
3
93.
Ans. (3)
V = E ir = Blv
D
94.
Ans. (3) F = Bil =
95.
Ans. (2)
Bl(Blv) B2 l2 v B2 lv
=
=
4l(l )
4l (l)
4l
E (2pr ) = pr 2
For r R;
96.
97.
Ans. (2)
t=
Blv
3Blv
l[l] =
4l (l)
4
dB
E r;
dt
E (2pr ) = pR 2
For r R;
dB
1
E
dt
r
lpa2 BR
2 DB
DL Iw mR 2 w
mR 2 w lpa 2 BR
lpa 2 B
=
w=
=
=
but t = l (2pR ) ER = l pa
R =
Dt
Dt
Dt
Dt
Dt
Dt
Dt
mR
98.
Ans. (1) R eq =
99.
Ans. (3) t =
L L L 1.8 10-4
R R R 6
= =
= 4.5 10-5 H
= = = 1.5W ; L eq =
2 2 4 4
2 2 4
4
L / 4 L 1.8 10-4
= =
= 3 10-5 s = 30ms
R/4 R
6
100. Ans. (2) Steady state current I=
E
12
=
= 8A
R / 4 1.5
101. Ans. (4)

T/2
2I
= 0 , Irms =
p
T /2
dt
dt
dt
or I rms = < I2 > = < I 02 cos2 wt > = I0
I
1
= 0
2
2
dt
dt
= V0
Vdt
0
T/2
2
0
= V0 , Vrms =
0
T /2
T/2
80/91
I0
V0 dt
103. Ans. (4) Vmean =
T /2
T /2
Vmean =
102. Ans. (1)
I20 cos2 wtdt
dt
1
T
V0 )
(
2 V0
2
=
=
V =
T /2
2 ; rms
T/4
T/4
V 2 dt
=
0
T/4
dt
4V0
t dt
T
T/4
64V02 3 T / 4
( t )0 = V0
3
3T
3
Imean =
T/2
I0 cos wtdt
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
1
2
104. Ans. (2) At low frequencies Z R +
wC
105. Ans. (1) At high frequencies Z R 2 + ( wL )2

106. Ans. (2)
1
Z = R 2 + wL
wC
( 500)2 + 100 10
=
100 20 10 -6
5002 + (1000 - 500) = 500 2W

2
107. Ans. (4)

As current is leading the source voltage, so circuit should be capacitive in nature and as phase difference is not
p
, it must contain resistor also.
2
108. Ans. (1)
Time delay =
i0 =
1 p
1
f
p
p
-1
=
f = tan
= 4 wC = R
w
R
C
w 400
4
V0
1
R2 +
wC
2=
100
2
R +R
109. Ans. (2)
For DC circuit i = i 0 e
110. Ans. (1)

111. Ans. (2)
Do yourself
For (i)
t
RC
R = 50W and C =
and RC = 0.01 sec.
5
1
df
= A, Anticlockwise
=5 i =
dt
10 2
For (iii)
1
= 200mF
50 100
df
5
1
= - A, Clockwise
= 5 i = dt
10
2
For (ii)
df
=0 i=0 = zero
dt
For (iv)
5 1
df
= A , Anticlockwise
=5 i =
dt
10 2
112. Ans. (1)
We add a resistance R in series to achieve a voltmeter of range 50V 50 106 =
50
R = 106 W
100 + R
Now, when a current of 10 mA is passed through the ammeter, 50 mA should go through the coil. We add a
resistance S in parallel to the ammeter, 50 mA should go through the galvanometer is :
S
50 106 = (10 103)
S = 0.5 W
S + 100
113. Ans. (4)
For (1) : After a sufficiently long time VC = V0 VR = 0
For (2) : As time passes VR decreases exponentially.
For (3) : Time constant = RC = (1103) ( 1 106) = 103 s = 1 ms
- t / RC
) = 10 (1 - e -1 ) = 1 - 10 = 6.3volt
Therefore VC = V0 (1 - e
e
10
= 0.01A = 10mA
For (4) : Initial current through R =
1 103
114. Ans. (1)
C ( V0 - V )
By charge conservation (C+CX)V = CV0 CX =
V
1
1 CV0 2 1
2
V = CV0 V
Final energy stored = ( C + C X ) V =
2
2 V
2
1
1
1
2
Heat generated in circuit = CV0 - CV0 V = CV0 ( V0 - V )
2
2
2
81/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
115. Ans. (1)

3W
2W
I/2
2m F
1mF
I/2
3mF
2W
3W
In steady state I =
6
5 1
+
2 2
= 2A
Potential difference across 2mF capacitor = 1V

Charge on 2mF capacitor = 2mC
Charge on mF = Charge on 3mC= 0
6V, 0.5W
116. Ans. (4)

At steady state I(3) + I(2) = 15 I = 3
C1
q +q
7V
2W
C2
3W
KVL C D E a b C
+q
I
2W
15V
VC I (3) +
q
q
7 + =VC
11
5
q
q
+ = 7 + 3 3 = 16 q = 55 mC.
11
5
Now KVL for a b

Va 7 +
q
q
55 55
= Vb Va Vb = 7 = 7
=
= 4V
5
5
5
5
Potential difference across C1 :
q 55
q
=
= 5V P.d. across C2 :
= 11V
11 11
5
Potential difference across terminal = 15 I(2) = 15 3 2 = 9V

117. Ans. (1)
Let us assume, the resistance of external resistor is R and its length is l0; i =
When current flows through galvanometer VQX < E2 or
E
R+r
E1
Rx
< E2
(R + r) l
For the above condition to hold, (A, B or C) may be correct.
E1
x
E2
118. Ans. (1)

Ceq = C +
C C C
1 1 1
+ + + ...... = C 1 + + + + ...... = 4 mF
2 4 8
2 4 8
Capacitance of 1st row is maximum, hence charge stored will be also maximum.
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
Ans. (4)
sin i
= 1.45
sin r1
155
.
sin r1
=
145
.
sin r2
m
sin r2
=
155
.
sin r3
Multiplying all the three equations

82/91
U|
||
|V
||
||
W
sin i
= m since i = r3 therefore m = 1
sin r3
1.
ALLEN
Path to Success
2.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (3)
Use the formula
1
=
fair
F
GH m
FG 1 - 1 IJ
HR R K
IF1 - 1I & 1
- 1J G
K H R R JK f
1
= ( 1)
f
m glass
air
Fm
GH m
Fm
GH m
glass
3.
fliquid
fair
Ans. (1)
air
glass
liquid
I
JK
I
- 1J
K
-1
fliquid
20
Fm
GH m
liquid
glass
liquid
(15
. - 1)
15
.
-1
16
.
FG
H
IJ
K
IF1 - 1I
JK GH R R JK
-1
fliquid = 160 cm
1
1
1
m
m
2
sinq1 sinqC sin45

4.
5.
Ans. (1)
Light
v = OQ, u = OP = 2OQ
Equation of refraction at curved surface with OP = 2OQ
P
O
1.5
1
1.5 - 1
m 2 m1 m 2 - m1
=
=
OQ -2OQ
R
v
u
R
2
1
=
OQ = 4R therefore OP = 2OQ = 2 4R = 8R
OQ 2R
S = shifting =
9.
Ans. (1)
Since along the surface, conservation
principle of momentum is applicable.
p1 sin 45 = p2 sin 30
p1 sin 30
=
=
p2 sin 45
1
1
2
2
3h/4
3h
2 h
1 h
1+ 1 - =
m 2
4
3m 4
8.
10.
1
1
In air : -10 = (1.5 - 1)
R1 R 2
In medium : P = (1.5 - 1.6 ) 1 - 1 = ( 0.1) (20) = +2D

R
R 2
1
Ans. (3)
When light is incident at Brewster's angle, the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. In
addition, the reflected light is completely polarized.
Ans. (2)
h/4
7.
=1.5
Ans. (2)
1
1
Power of a lens in medium P = ( m L - m m )
R1 R 2
6.
(3/2)m
Solving m =
3
2
p1
45
air
1
2
glass
p2
Ans. (1)
d = i + e - A 30 = 60 + e - 30 e = 0 r2 = 0 r1 = 30 m sin r1 = sin i m = 3
83/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
11.
Path to Success
Ans. (2)
r1=0, A = 60, e= 90 r2 = 60 msin60 = sin90 m=
12.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
2
3
Ans. (2)
In quadilateral ECDF
15 + r + 135 + 60 + 90 + r = 360 r = 30
For TIR
1
1
1
75 - r qC 45 sin -1 sin 45 n
n 2
n
n
sin 45
13.
14.
15.
16.

Ans. (3)
As for telescope lenses having highest focal length & lowest focal length should be used to get highest magnification
as M =
17.
f0
fe
Ans. (2)
As for microscope lenses having shortest focal length i.e. high powers should be used to get highest magnification,
L
D
as M = - f 1 + f
0
e
18.
19.
Ans. (4)
For blue, wavelength is less than red so resolution increases.
Ans. (4)
1 1 1 1 1 1
Lens equation - = = +
v u f
v u f
For (i) and (iii) :
Converging lens f = ve
For real object u is negative v is either positive or negative image is either real or virtual
For virtual object u is positive v is positive image is real.
For (ii) :
Diverging lens f = ve for real object u is negative v is negative Image is virtual
For virtual object u is positive v is either positive or negative image is either real or virtual.
For (iv) :
1 1 1 1
1 1
Mirror equation + = = - +
v u f
v
u f
System behave as a convex mirror f = ve
20.
For virtual object u is positive v is either positive or negative image is either real or virtual
Ans. (4)
For a magnifying lens
D
D
25
25
m 1+
m 1+
2.5 m 3.5
f
f
10
10
21.
Ans. (1)
Do yourself
22.
Ans. (1)
xy = C P2V= C PPV = C2 PnRT = C2 PT = constant
84/91
For real object u is negative v is positive image is virtual.
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
MODERN PHYSICS
1.
Ans. (2)
hn f0 =
n=
1
mv 2max. = KEmax but f0 = hn0 so KEmax = h (n n0)
2
c
3 108
=
= 7.5 1014 Hz
l
4000 10-10
\ KEmax = 6.63 1034 [7.5 1014 5.5 1014] = 13.26 1020 J

No. of photons per m2 per sec =
2.
Ans. (3)
For given condition
3.
100
I
= 21020
=
hn
6.63 10-34 7.5 1014
E3 E1 = (E3 E2) + (E2 E1)
1
hc
hc
hc
1
1
=
+
+
=
l2
l3
l2
l1
l1
l3
Therefore l3 =
l 2 l1
l 2 + l1
Ans. (2)
Kinetic energy of electron = 500 keV & Rest mass energy of electron = 511 keV
Total energy = mc2 = m0c2 + KE = (511 + 500) keV
Percent increase in mass =
4.
500
m - m0
100 =
100 = 97.8 %
511
m0
Ans. (1)
Energy of emitted photon = 13.6 0.85 = 12.75 eV
5.
Ans. (1)
The expression of decay n p + e + n
The number of undecayed neutron would be 150 by using N = N0elt
150 = 600elt t = 2T1/2 = 1200 sec
Decay rate (initial) R = lN0 = 0.693 Bq
6.
Ans. (4)
Energy of photon = hn =
hc
6.6 10-34 3 108
=
J = 3.1 eV
l
4000 10-10
By using Einstein's photo electric effect equation hn = f0 + eV0 where V0 = 1.4V
7.
Ans. (1)
3.1eV = f0 + 1.4eV f0 = 1.7 eV
1 dN
dN
= lN
N=
l dt
dt
dN
Given :
= 5 103 3.7 1010 disint./sec. & T1/2 = 138 24 3600 sec.
dt
138 24 3600 5 37
. 107
= 3.18 1015 atoms
0.693
210
But mass of one 84Po210 atoms =
6.02 1023
210 318
. 1015
Amount of 84Po210 in grams required =
= 1.11 106
6.02 1023
N=
85/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
8.
Path to Success
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2)
When an electron and hole recombine, the minimum
energy released is equal to Eg . Hence for the radiation
carried.
hn=Eg=1.43 eV eV = 1.43 1.6 1019 J
The wavelength of emitted photon l =
l=
6.6 10-34 3 108

= 8.653 107 m = 8653
. 16
. 10-19
143
9.
Ans. (1)
10.
M
A1
3
3
A2
and r2
\ r1
=
=
3
3
4p 3
4p 3
4
p
3
4p R 0
R0 A
R 0 A1
R 0 A 2 4 pR 0
3
3
3
therefore r1 : r2 = 1 : 1
Ans. (2)
r=
Maximum KE of photoelectron
hc
Eg
vmax =
=
2 hc
- f =
m l
1
hc
mv 2max =
f
2
l
6.6 10 -34 3 108
2
- 2.5 1.6 10-19
-31
-10
9 10
3300 10
2
4
6
1012 = 10 ms1
3
9
2
9 10-31 106
Mv 2max
Mv max
3
Now Bevmax =
e=
= 1.8 1019C
=
R max
BR max
6.7 10 -6 0.5
11.
Ans. (1)
Momentum of the incident photon p =

Change in momentum = Dp =
h
,
l
Momentum after reflection =
h
l
2h
l
If n is the number of photons falling per second on the screen then force
F=
Ans. (1)
Y = A. B = A + B so logical symbol A
B
86/91
Truth table
12.
Fl 1 6600 10-9
Dp
2h
2nh
=
= 5 1027 photons s1
=
=
n=
1
2h 2 6.6 10 -34
Dt
l
l
n
ALLEN
Path to Success
13.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (1)
lP
me v e
lP
4
l e = m P v P but vP = 3ve & l e = 1.8 10
mv
de-Broglie wavelength l =
m el e
9.1 10-31
= 1.68 1027 kg
mP = 3l =
1.8 3 10-4
p
14.
Ans. (1)
(i)
According to Einstein's equation of photo electric effect eV0 = hn hn0

h=
( n - n0 )
1.6 10-19 1.656
( 5 - 1) 1014
1.6 1.656
10-33 = 6.624 10-34 J-s
Work function f0 = hn0 = 6.624 1034 1 1014 = 6.624 1020 J =
(ii)
15.
eV0
6.624 10-20
1.6 10-19
eV = 0.414eV
Ans. (1)
Equation of b+-decay of 6C11
Q-value of reaction =
= m
11
6C
5B11 +
+1b
+n+Q
Dmc2
( 6 C11 ) - 6me - m ( 5 B11 ) + 5me - me c2
= m
( 6 C11 ) - m ( 5 B11 ) - 2me c2
= [11.011434 - 11.009305 - 2 0.000548 ] uc2 = [0.001033] uc2 = 0.001033 931.5 MeV = 0.962 MeV
16.
Ans. (1)
CE amplifier,
17.
IC
7mA - IC
Current gain =
IB
= 69 and IE = IB + IC = 7 mA
70 IC = 69 7
= 69
Collector current IC = 6.9 mA
Base current IB =IE IC = 0.1 mA

Ans. (2)
l=
12.27
=
V
12.27
40 103
Resolving power R
18.
IC
1
l
1010 = 6.13 1012 m
6 10-7
R1
l
= 2 =
= 9.78 104
R2
6.13 10-12
l1
Ans. (1)
Flux of photon at distance d from sodium lamp f =
1=
number of photon per sec ond

Area
3.14 1020
1020
2
d
=
d = 5 109 cm
4 3.14 d2
4
19.
Ans. (2)
20.
N
1
1
1
1
Active fraction N = 1 + 15 = 16 t / T1/ 2 = 4 age of sample = 4 T1/2 = 200 years.
2
2
0
Ans. (3)
From Bohr model 1 = R 12 - 12
l
n1 n2
1
1
5
1
1 3
1
1
= R 2 - 2 =
R ...... (i) and
= R 2 - 2 = R ...... (ii)
2
1
l1
l2
3 36
2 4
Dividing eq. (i) and (ii), we get
l1 27
=
l2
5
87/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
21.
22.
Path to Success

Ans. (1)
Let initially the number of nuclei of
so
90
R 1 l 1N1
=
=
10
R 2 l 2N2
32
15 P
&
33
15 P
( Q 90% from
Now let at time t 90% decays come from
are N1 & N2 respectively
32
15 P
33
15 P
& 10% from
33
15 P )
then ratio of activity.

-l t
-l t
'
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
90 e 1
R1
l1N1e 1
R1' l1N1'
10
10
=
=
- l 2t
'
- l 2t =
'
'
R2
90
90
l 2 N2 e
10 e
R 2 l2 N2
e (l1 - l2 )t = 81
lne (l1 - l2 )t = ln34 (l1 l2)t = 4ln3 t =
23.
( Ze ) ( Ze )
1
Ze2
2
Ans. (2) At closest approach 2 mv = 4 p d d min mvZ
0
min
24.
Ans. (2) hn = f0 + K max = 1.82 + 0.73 = 2.55 eV
25.
Ans. (3)
4ln3
FG 1 - 1 IJ
HT T K
ln2
13.6 Z2
eV E1= 13.6 eV, E2 = 3.4 eV, E3 = 1.51 eV, E4 = 0.85 eV..
n2
Here E4E2= 0.85 (3.4) = 2.55 eV
As E n = -
26.
Ans. (4) L 4 - L 2 =
27.
Ans. (4) l =
28.
Ans. (1) l =
29.
Ans. (3) l =
h
=
p
4h 2h h
=
2 p 2p p
h
2mE
h
2mqV
where E=kinetic energy
150
150
= 1
=
V
150
h
2mE
3.4eV
Ans. (3)
3.4eV
10.2eV
10.2eV
6.0eV
13.6eV
13.6eV
H
He
31.
54.4eV
For H atom DE = 10.2 eV, This goes to excite He+ ion from n = 2 to n = 4
Ans. (3)
For visible region DE < 10.2 eV and in this case DE = 3.4 (6) = 2.6 eV
l =
hc
12400eV -
; 4800 ; 4.8 107 m
=
DE
2.6eV
K1 ( Z1 n1 )
=
Ans. (1) Ratio of kinetic energy
K 2 ( Z2 n )2
2
2
32.
Since n1 = n2 = 2 & Z1 = 1 for H, Z2 = 2 for He+

33.
Ans. (4) The law cant be applied if number of active nuclei is less.
88/91
K1 1
=
K2 4
30.
ALLEN
Path to Success
34.
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (4)
250 g 1 mole of X = 6 1023 = N0.
Nuclei disintegrated =
35.
36.
37.
t
N
N
= 3 ; N (15 min ) = 03 = 0 , (N N) = 7N 0 , N 0 - N = 7
Ans. (2) t = 15 min t
0
8
(2)
8
N
1
1/ 2
Ans. (2)
It is easy to observe that activity has halved from t = 2 to t = 6, t = 4 to t = 8 and t = 6 to t = 10.
Ans. (3)
We observe that at t = 8 hr Decays/minute = 1487
Ans. (4)
Activity A0 = lN0 N0 =
39.
1
1487 1
= 6.2Bq
th. \ activity =
4
4
60
A 0 2 4 A16 (16)(6.2)
=
=
= 2.06 106
0.693
l
l
4 3600
Ans. (1)
E=
p2
2m
..... (1)
p=
By eq. (1) and (2) E =

40.
Ans. (2) E =
41.
Ans. (4)
mv =
h
..... (2)
l
nl
h2 (n2 )
h2
=
[Q
= a for stationary wave on string fixed at both end] E a2
2
2
2
2m(4a )
2ml
h2
(6.6 10 34 )2
=
= 8meV
2m4a2 2(1.0 10-30 ) (6.6 10-9 )2
h
h
hn
v=
=
vn
ml
l
m(2a)
42.
Ans. (1)
43.
Ans. (1) 2pr = nl l =
44. Ans. (1)

10
N0 t
N
=
= 2 = 0
2
t
5
(2) 1/ 2
4
3
3
N 0 = 6 1023 = 4.5 1023
4
4
\ at t = 16 hr, this number will become

38.
N (10 min) =
For third excited state n=4 2pr = 4l
2 pr
= pr
2
4
. Here Dm= (238.05079 4.00260 234.0 4363) u
U 234
90 Th +2 He
E = Dmc2 = 4.24764 MeV
238
92
45. Ans. (2)

If it emits proton spontaneously, the equation is not balanced in terms of atoms & mass number.
238
92
46.
47.
4
U 237
91 Pa +1 H
Dm =(238.05079237.0651211.007834)u = 0.022165 u
Q Dm is negative, so reaction is not spontaneous.
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
89/91
ALLEN
PHYSICS
Path to Success
49.
N I
3.2 10-3
Dq Ne
=
= =
= 2 1016
Dt
Dt
Dt e 1.6 10-19
50.
51.
Ans. (1)
48.
TM
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
Ans. (2) I =
n = a (zb) (Mosley's law)
b is less for K so compared to L due to less shielding effect in K.

Energykb > Energy ka nkb > nka
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.

Ans. (2) Photocurrent depends upon number of electrons emitted per second which depends upon intensity of
light and area of cathode surface.
Ans. (4) Q Binding energy of a hydrogen like atom = 13.6 Z2 \ 13.6 Z2 = 122.4 Z=3
1
2 1
Minimum excitation energy = (13.6 ) ( 3) 2 - 2 = 91.8 eV
1 2
Ans. (2)
As X-ray tube operates at 15 kV so characteristics X-rays of K series will be emitted only for cobalt & copper.
hc
For continuous X-ray, l min = eV
0

1.
Resistance of a semiconductor decreases as we increase temperature due to the increase in number of charge
carriers and resistance increases when we decrease temperature due to decrease in number of charge carriers.
Yes, Ex. :
Yes, Ex. :
3.
4.
VA = 0 but EA 0
or
At equatorial (broad on) position of dipole V = 0, E 0
In fission : nucleus A breaks into B & C

In fussion : P & Q fuse to result in nucleus R
In both cases the net B.E. increases resulting in energy release.
Increase in temperature increases the transfer of electrons from valence to conduction band. This increases
the number of charge carriers (electrons & holes) & hence the conductivity
5.
Forward bias
6.
Reverse bias
Y = A. B = A + B = A + B OR gate
90/91
Truth table
2.
ALLEN
Path to Success
TM
AIPMT MAINS - XII
CAREER INSTITUTE
KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
7.
No
8.
For resonance condition in an LCR circuit, the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal and the phase difference
is 0 so power factor = cos0= 1
9.
Kirchhoff's Laws :
i1 = i2 + i3
2i1 10 + 4 i3 = 0
8i2 12 4i3 = 0
10.
At low gas pressure the distance between the molecules of the gas increases and the negative ion
once
formed gets enough time to acquire kinetic energy such that it can ionize the atom with which it strikes.
11.
m=
12.
Here Q = (238.05079 237.05121 1.00783)c2 = ( 0.00825u)c2
13.
As the Q for this process is negative, the decay can not proceed spontaneously
(i)
Yes, surface of a conductor is always equipotential surface.
(ii)
No, as charge density depends upon curvature of surface.
14.
15.
16.
h
E
hc
=
=
2
2
lc
c
lc
Magnetisation M B
T
dq
1
dV = 4p
0
Potential due to this element at point P,

Q
17.
E= -
dV =
=1
Coulomb force (Write any three)

Long range
Central force
Spin independent
Charge dependent
Comparitively weak force
Consider small element of charge dq
V=
FG IJ FG T IJ
H K H BK
M'
3B
=
M
3T
M' = M M does not change

Nuclear force
(i)
Short range
(ii)
Not a central force
(iii) Spin dependent
(iv) Charge independent
(v)
Strong force
Potential due to ring
UV
W
4p
dV
Q d 1
=
dr
4p 0 dr R 2 + r2
dq
R2 + r 2
1/ 2
= -
Q
4p 0
dq
R
O
r2 + R 2
1
= 4p
0
Q
2
R + r2
1
Qr
1 2
2 -3 / 2
(2r) =
2
- 2 (R + r )
4p 0 (R + r2 )3 / 2
No, it can't be used as an amplifier

Explaination
VBE = 5.5 IBRB = 5.5 10 106 500 103 = 0.5 V
VCE = 5.5 ICRC = 5.5 5.2 103 1 103 = 0.3 V
It can't be used as an amplifier as both the emitter-base function and collector function are forward
bias.
91/91

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Raghav Bansal

Pleasenotethatallmaterialsonthis blog areforinformationaland

AIPMT MAINS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

fundamental units, are :-

[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]

In an imaginary experiment, the Youngs modulus Y of a material is given by Y =

[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]

The dimensions of the quantity

[AIPMT MAINS - 2006]

Find the dimensions of the constant a in vander wall's gas equation P + 2 [V b] = RT

[AIPMT MAINS - 2008]

If s = 2t3 + 3t2 + 2t + 8 then the time at which acceleration is zero, is :-

Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\ Eng.\Class XI

[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]

An aeroplane is travelling horizontally at a height of 2000 m from the ground.

[AIPMT MAINS - 2007]

(4) Data insufficient

(1) Uniform velocity

(2) Uniform speed

(3) Uniform acceleration

(4) Data insufficient for generalization

(4) None of these

(4) None of these

Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\ Eng.\Class XI

(4) None of these

In question 13, coordinate of the particles at point P

(2) (75, 100)

(3) (125, 75)

Trajectory of particle in a projectile motion is given as y=x

(4) (100, 125)

Here, x and y are in meters. g=10 m/s2.

Angle of projection (in degrees)

Angle of velocity with horizontal after 4s (in degrees)

(iii) Maximum height (in metres)

(iv) Horizontal range (in metres)

(2) (i) P, (ii) R, (iii) S, (iv) Q

(3) (i) R, (ii) R, (iii) Q, (iv) S

(4) (i) R, (ii) S, (iii) P, (iv) R

Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\ Eng.\Class XI

NLM AND FRICTION

For the following system

[AIPMT MAINS - 2004]

(1) Acceleration of the system = 2 m/s2

For shown situation in figure (Assume : g=10 ms2)

[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]

The acceleration of the block A is

The acceleration of the block B is 3m/s2

is negligible. If coefficient of sliding friction of the mass on the horizontal surface

acceleration of the system, is:(1) 1 m/s2

[AIPMT MAINS - 2005]

(3) 3.92 m/s2

(1) (5 + 2 2 )N, 3.25 ms1

(2) (10 + 2 2 )N, 3.25 ms1

(4) (10 + 2 2 )N, 3.94 ms1

At a turn a track is banked for optimum speed of 40 km/h. At the instant

Data2\2011\AIPMT Mains Que\Phy\B.M. Sir\ Eng.\Class XI

For shown situation tick incorrect alternative(s)

(i) The aceleation of m w.r.t. ground is

(ii) The aceleation of M w.r.t. ground is

(iii) The acceleration of M w.r.t. ground is zero

(iv) The time taken by m to separate from M is

The correct option is :(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv)