AAMC Self Assesement Biology

Document # 8524010
Biological Sciences
Self-Assessment:
Biology Test
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MCAT is a program of the Association of American Medical Colleges
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
Purchased by: samuel boateng On: 1/25/2014
Document # 8524010
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Document # 8524010
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Document # 8524010
Printing Guide
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page 5 to 5
pages 6 to 7
page 8 to 8
pages 10 to 54
pages 55 to 56
pages 57 to 58
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Post-test Confidence Self-Assessment

Answer Sheet
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Document # 8524010
Commitment Self-Assessment
How committed are you to completing this test and using the results to prepare for the MCAT?
1=Not committed , 2=Somewhat committed, 3=Committed
If answer is 1, --- Completing the test requires a commitment of time and energy. If you do not feel you can
commit the time to complete it, you may be better off waiting to take the test until you can commit the time. The
test must be completed to receive the feedback to guide your study.
If answer 2,--- Its okay if you are unsure about your confidence to use the results to prepare for the MCAT. The
unknown can be daunting. However, it is important that you feel motivated to complete the test since you need
to answer all the questions to receive feedback. The Official MCAT Self- Assessment Package will show your
relative strengths and weaknesses to help you determine in what areas you should focus your preparation.
The entire test will take a few hours to complete, but you dont need to complete it all at once. It doesnt matter
how long it takes you to finish the test, but you do need to finish to receive feedback!
If answer 3,-- Youve taken an important step in preparing for the MCAT by committing your time and energy to
completing the Self-Assessments. It is okay if you dont know all the answers. This time spent on preparation
and practice will help you figure out your relative strengths and weaknesses in the content of the MCAT so that
you can plan your study most effectively.
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Document # 8524010
Pre-test Confidence Self-Assessment

One of the factors that can influence both your preparation and performance on the actual MCAT exam is your
confidence. This questionnaire will help you assess your confidence on the topics in this section of the exam so
that you can use the information to decide where you should focus your study time. You will be asked to rate
your confidence again after completing the test to help you gauge how your experience with actual MCAT
questions influences your perception of your ability in these content areas so that you can decide if you were
overconfident, under confident or on target and why this may be.
Confidence: Using the 5-point scale below in the table, how confident are you are in your ability to perform
well on this section of the MCAT exam as well as for each content category?
Test/Content
Categories
A=1-Not
Confident at
all
C=3Moderately
Confident
D=4-Very
Confident
E=5Extremely
Confident
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1. Biology Overall
2. Circulatory,
Lymphatic, and
Immune Systems
B=2Somewhat
Confident
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3. Digestive and
Excretory Systems
4. DNA and Protein
Synthesis
5. Enzymes and
Cellular Metabolism
6. Evolution
7. Generalized
Eukaryotic Cell
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Document # 8524010
8. Genetics
9. Microbiology
10. Muscle and Skeletal
Systems
11. Nervous and
Endocrine Systems
12. Respiratory System
13. Reproductive
System and
Development
14. Specialized
Eukaryotic Cells
and Tissues
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15. Skin System
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16. Eukaryotes
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Document # 8524010
Periodic Table of the Elements
He
1.0
3
Li
Be
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
4.0
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
Ca
Sc
Ti
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1
37
40.1
38
45.0
39
47.9
40
50.9
41
52.0
42
54.9
43
55.8
44
58.9
45
58.7
46
63.5
47
65.4
48
69.7
49
72.6
50
74.9
51
79.0
52
79.9
53
83.8
54
Rb
Sr
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
Xe
85.5
55
87.6
56
88.9
57
91.2
72
92.9
73
95.9
74
(98)
75
101.1
76
102.9
77
106.4
78
107.9
79
112.4
80
114.8
81
118.7
82
121.8
83
127.6
84
126.9
85
131.3
86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9
87
137.3
88
138.9
89
178.5
104
180.9
105
183.9
106
186.2
107
190.2
108
192.2
109
195.1
110
197.0
111
200.6
112
204.4
207.2
114
209.0
(209)
116
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac
Rf
Db
Sg
Bh
Hs
Mt
Ds
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262)
(266)
(264)
(277)
(268)
(281)
Uuu Uub
Uuq
Uuh
(272)
(289)
(289)
(285)
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
* Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1
90
140.9
91
144.2
92
(145)
93
150.4
94
152.0
95
157.3
96
158.9
97
162.5
98
164.9
99
167.3
100
168.9
101
173.0
102
175.0
103
Pa
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Th
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Document # 8524010
Biological Sciences Self-Assessment: Biology Test

Number of Questions: 128
Approximate Time to Complete: 3-4 hours
Welcome to the Biological Sciences Self-Assessment: Biology
Test. The goal of this test is to analyze your knowledge in the
content of the MCAT. In order to obtain an accurate assessment
of your strengths and weaknesses, you must answer every
question. Because the test is lengthy, you are encouraged to
take breaks as needed.
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Good luck!
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Document # 8524010
Passage I
Ectopic pregnancy is defined as the
development of a fertilized ovum outside the
uterine cavity. Most frequently, ectopic
development occurs in the fallopian tube (oviduct).
The first symptoms of tubal pregnancy are the same
as those of a normal early pregnancy. A positive
test result for the presence of the hormone human
chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) confirms
pregnancy, but does not indicate the location of the
pregnancy.
As the ectopic embryo begins to outgrow the
tiny fallopian tube, the woman may experience
lower abdominal discomfort and recurrent vaginal
bleeding. As rupture of the tube occurs or becomes
imminent, pain becomes severe, and the woman
may collapse due to internal hemorrhaging.
Treatment involves the immediate surgical removal
of the affected segment of the fallopian tube and
drainage of any blood that has accumulated in the
body cavity.
There are many causes of tubal pregnancy,
including abnormalities of the fallopian tube, the
zygote, and the endocrine system. For example,
diseases resulting in tubal infections (e.g.,
gonorrhea) may partially block a fallopian tube,
leading to ectopic pregnancy. The premature
breakdown of the protective acellular layer
surrounding the zygote may facilitate the
attachment of the zygote to the wall of the fallopian
tube rather than to the wall of the uterus. Finally,
altered hormone levels may delay ovulation and/or
inhibit ovum transport by decreasing the motility of
the tubal cilia.
1. The one aspect of ectopic pregnancy common to

all the causes described in the passage is that the
zygote fails to:
A) implant in the uterus.
B) leave the ovary.
C) reach the fallopian tube.
D) begin its development.
2. A drug that increases the risk of a tubal
pregnancy is most likely to inhibit which one of
the following actions?
A) Contraction of the uterus
B) Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone
C) Onset of menstruation
D) Transport of the ovum from ovary to uterus
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3. From 4% to 10% of all maternal deaths in the

United States each year result from ectopic
pregnancy. The most likely cause of death in
these cases is:
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Another factor associated with the development

of ectopic pregnancy is the use of contraceptives
such as the morning-after pill and the intrauterine
device. When these contraceptive methods fail, the
risk of developing an ectopic pregnancy increases
tenfold.
A) severe hormonal imbalance.
B) loss of blood when the fallopian tube ruptures.

C) infection in the region of the pregnancy.
D) inadequate nutrition due to fetal use of maternal

nutrients.
4. Delayed ovulation, as a cause of tubal

pregnancy, would most likely be associated with
delayed secretion of which of the following
hormones?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) HCG
D) Luteinizing hormone
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Document # 8524010
Passage II
Asthma is a disease of industrialized countries; rates
have doubled in the U.S. since 1980. The most lifethreatening asthmatic complication is lung
inflammation. This inflammatory response can be
triggered by exercise, respiratory viruses, or
environmental allergens, which stimulate
T lymphocytes to secrete cytokines that recruit B
lymphocytes and eosinophils to the airways.
Activated B lymphocytes secrete IgE, which
sensitizes mast cells to allergens. Activated mast cells
and eosinophils release histamine and small fatty
molecules called leukotrienes, respectively.
Leukotrienes function as chemoattractants for
granulocytic leukocytes and are potent constrictors of
bronchial smooth muscle, whereas histamine
functions as a vasodilator and can cause
microvascular endothelial cells to contract.
Current therapies such as steroids, antihistamines, and
bronchodilators treat the symptoms of the disease but
cannot prevent the onset and progression of an
asthmatic attack. Identifying points within the
inflammation cascade offers the opportunity to
develop more specific therapies to inhibit the process.
One therapeutic strategy would be to target a
particular subset of T lymphocytes known as T-helper
(TH) cells. TH1 cells secrete cytokines, such as
interferon-, and initiate cell-mediated responses that
eliminate cells infected with pathogens, such as
bacteria and viruses. TH2 cells secrete cytokines that
activate the inflammatory response and stimulate
antibody production. The activity of TH1 and TH2
cells are reciprocally regulated; the signal from one
cell type negatively regulates the activity of the other
cell type. Because overactivity of TH2 cells is
correlated with asthma, their inactivation would offer
a more effective treatment for this disease than is
currently available.
5. According to the passage, what is the most

probable sequence of events after activation of T
lymphocytes by an allergen?
A) IgE secretion histamine release
vasoconstriction
B) B-cell activation IgE secretion mast-cell
activation
C) IgE secretion eosinophil activation
leukotriene release
D) Mast-cell activation histamine release
bronchodilation
6. The passage suggests that the most effective way
to prevent the onset and progression of an
asthmatic attack would be treatment with:
A) a harmless bacterium that induces a strong TH1
response.
B) IgE, antibodies with neutralizing activity.
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C) Zileuton, an inhibitor of leukotriene synthesis.

D) colchicine to specifically prevent eosinophil
chemotaxis.
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7. A person suffering an asthmatic attack often has

more difficulty exhaling than inhaling; the action
of leukotrienes on bronchial smooth muscle
contributes to this difficulty. As a result, what
primary effect do leukotrienes have on lung gas
exchange?
A) No effect, because bronchial smooth muscle is not

found on alveoli
B) An increased accumulation of O2, leading to
respiratory acidosis
C) An increased accumulation of CO2, leading to
respiratory acidosis
D) A decreased intake of O2, leading to metabolic
acidosis
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Document # 8524010
8. Leukotrienes are potent chemoattractants. What

other cells, in addition to eosinophils, would
probably respond to and be recruited by
leukotrienes to the inflammatory site?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Thrombocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Myocytes
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Document # 8524010
Passage III
A healthy weight has been defined as a body mass
index (BMI) of 25 or less. BMI = w/h2, where w is
weight (kg) and h is height (m). Studies suggest that
genes account for about 40% of the factors that
determine BMI. Two genes affecting weight in mice
are related to leptin, a hormone that is released by fat
cells and required for maintaining normal weight.
One gene (designated ob) codes for leptin, and the
other gene (designated db) codes for a leptin receptor.
Stable weight is also believed to be regulated by
metabolic feedback loops linking the brain, fat cells,
the digestive tract, and muscles. Two hypotheses have
been proposed to explain the biological basis of
weight control.
Set Point Hypothesis
The brain regulates body weight just as a
thermostat maintains a constant room temperature.
The brain adjusts metabolism and behavior to
maintain a predetermined body weight. Genes also
influence the set point, which can increase with age
but only to the extent dictated by inheritance. Diet
and exercise cannot reset the set point over the long
term.
9. What type or class of chemical messenger

traveling in the blood would most probably link
the brain with the digestive tract and fat cells in the
control of body weight?
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Digestive enzymes
C) Protein receptors
D) Hormones
10. What do both the set point hypothesis and the
settling point hypothesis seek to explain?
A) How multiple, interacting factors determine body
weight
B) How individual factors acting alone influence
body weight
C) How metabolism and the environment influence
body weight
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D) How the environment and behavior influence body

weight
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Settling Point Hypothesis

Body weight is determined by the interaction of
two factorsmetabolism and geneswith the
environment. Depending on genotype, various
metabolic feedback loops may allow weight to be
stabilized at a new level. Thus, in an environment
where high-calorie food is plentiful, individuals with
a genetic predisposition to obesity will tend to
become more overweight than those without such a
predisposition.
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11. Which hypothesis implies that a person can

deliberately alter his or her own body
maintenance weight?
A) The set point hypothesis because a thermostat can

be reset
B) The set point hypothesis because the set point can
change with age
C) The settling point hypothesis because, with the
correct genotype, ones metabolism may allow
weight to stabilize at a new level
D) The settling point hypothesis because diet and
exercise cannot reset the set point
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Document # 8524010
12. One type of metabolic feedback loop that

influences weight control involves the regulation
of glucose levels in the blood. Which organ in the
digestive system participates in this regulation by
breaking down glycogen?
13. Which gene would produce a product that acts

predominately on or in the cell in which it is
synthesized, ob or db?
A) Stomach
A) db because it encodes a hormone specific to fat

cells
B) Liver
B) db because it encodes a hormone receptor
C) Pancreas
C) ob because it encodes a hormone
D) Small intestine
D) ob because it encodes a protein specific to fat cells
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Document # 8524010
Passage IV
14. In Group 3, the response of Patient A can best be

classified as a response most likely:
The runny nose associated with common colds is

related to the release of either virus-induced histamine
or acetylcholine.The nasal mucosa contain receptors
for both histamine and acetylcholine.Activation of
either of these receptor types results in increased
secretion by nasal glands, producing a runny nose.
In an attempt to treat this condition, several new
drugs have been investigated.Drug A primarily blocks
histamine receptors but also partially blocks
acetylcholine receptors.Drug B blocks histamine
receptors but has no effect on the acetylcholine
receptors.
A) not associated with the treatment.

B) associated with histamine blocking only.
C) associated with acetylcholine blocking only.
D) associated with a combination of histamine and
acetylcholine blocking.
15. Based on Table 1, the individual who benefited
most from a specific blocking effect on the
histamine receptors only is:
A) Subject B in Group 1.
B) Subject C in Group 1.
Eighteen subjects with severe common colds, whose

symptoms were judged to be identical, were randomly
assigned to three groups. Patients A-F in Group 1
received Drug A, Patients A-F in Group 2 received
Drug B, and those in Group 3 were treated with a
nondrug placebo.After 4 hours, patients reported their
own runny nose symptoms on a 5-point scale ranging
from a dry nose (1) to an excessively runny nose (5).
D) Subject C in Group 2.
16. The nasal mucosa cells responsible for the release
of excessive fluid during the common cold can
best be classified as:
A) epithelial.
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Table 1 Self-Reported Symptoms 4 Hours after

Treatment
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
(Drug A) (Drug B) (Placebo)
2
3
1
1
4
4
3
2
5
2
3
4
1
3
5
1
3
4
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Subject
A
B
C
D
E
F
C) Subject B in Group 2.
B) connective.
C) contractile.
D) neurosecretory.
17. Based on the passage, which drug treatment

would hypothetically provide the maximum
reduction in nasal secretions?
A) Antihistamine only
B) Acetylcholine only
C) Antihistamine and acetylcholine
D) Antihistamine and acetylcholinesterase
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Document # 8524010
These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other.
18. Which of the following describes a primary

function of the myelin sheath?
A) It provides nutrients to motor neurons.
B) It regulates synaptic vesicle discharge.
C) It guides dendrite growth and branching.
D) It increases the rate of conduction of action
potentials.
19. Which organ is involved in regulation of all of
the following: acid-base balance, blood pressure,
water balance, and removal of nitrogen wastes?
21. A hiker becomes lost and has no drinking water

for 2 days. At the end of this time, which of the
following changes in hormone production would
be expected to be significant in this individual?
A) Decreased glucocorticoid secretion
B) Decreased aldosterone secretion
C) Increased insulin secretion
D) Increased antidiuretic hormone secretion
22. Assuming that the vertebrates were all of
comparable size, which of the following
vertebrates would be expected to have the
strongest and heaviest bones?
A) A land-dwelling mammal
B) A water-dwelling mammal
A) Liver
C) A flying bird
B) Spleen
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D) An amphibian
C) Kidney
D) Large intestine
23. The posttranslational modification of some of the

eukaryotic cells most abundant proteins is
thought to affect the ability of those proteins to
condense DNA into 30-nm fibers. Given this,
these proteins are most likely:
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20. A sequence near the 3' end of bacterial 16S

ribosomal RNA (rRNA) base-pairs with a
sequence called the ShineDalgarno sequence in
the ribosome binding sites of prokaryotic
mRNAs. Given that the sequence in the
16S rRNA is
3' UCCUCCA 5'
what is the mRNA sequence of the Shine
Dalgarno sequence that most strongly binds the
ribosome?
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A) tubulins.
B) histones.
C) transcription activators.
D) DNA polymerase subunits.
A) 5' AGGAGGT 3'

B) 5' AGGAGGU 3'
C) 5' CUUCUUG 3'
D) 3' AGGAGGU 5'
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Document # 8524010
Passage V
24. Aging due to the production of free radicals can

occur by all of the following processes EXCEPT:
Two major theories have been advanced to explain

why organisms age and die.
A) absorption of ultraviolet radiation.
Theory I
B) production of partially reduced oxygen species

during normal metabolism.
The Genetic or Programmed Theory of Aging states

that aging is triggered by hormones and is an orderly
consequence of the genetically programmed processes
of growth, development, and differentiation.Life
spans of individuals in each species are finite,
species-specific, and vary little.Aging is thought to
improve the ability of the species to adapt to its
environment.
Evidence for Theory I:The difference in longevity
between fraternal twins is much greater than the
difference between identical twins.Also, cultured cells
of human embryonic connective tissue normally
double approximately 50 times before they die.For
example, when frozen at the 10th doubling and
thawed years later, the cells undergo 40 more
doublings before death.
C) metabolic conversion of toxic chemicals such as

carbon tetrachloride (CCl4).
D) consumption of excess quantities of vitamins E
and C.
25. Vitamin E is added to human connective tissue
cells in culture at the 30th doubling, and the
number of additional doublings before death is
counted. Theory II will be best supported if the
cells double an additional:
A) 5 times.
B) 10 times.
C) 20 times.
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D) 40 times.
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Theory II
The Damage-Accumulation Theory of Aging states

that aging is nonadaptive and not genetically
programmed.Instead, aging results from random,
accumulated damage (to DNA, RNA, and proteins)
that is caused by free radical production within the
cells.This damage in turn leads to cellular changes
resulting in aging and death.
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Evidence for Theory II:Metabolic rates of mammals

are directly proportional to the rate of generation of
free radicals.Dietary restriction, which decreases
metabolic rate, also increases the maximum life span
of rats from 125 to 185 weeks.The addition of
vitamins E and C (which react with free radicals and
render them harmless) to the feed of mice increases
the mices average life span.
Page 17 of 58
Document # 8524010
26. Specific metabolic rates are 25 cal/g/day for

humans, 150 cal/g/day for rats, and 180 cal/g/day
for mice. When urinary output of a free-radicalinduced DNA damage product is plotted as a
function of metabolic rate in these 3 species,
which of the following graphs is most consistent
with Theory II, and best depicts the urine levels
of the damage product?
27. To examine the effects on life span of

undernutrition without malnutrition, one group of
just-weaned rats was fed every day, and a second
group was fed every other day. Which of the
following survival curves for the 2 groups is
consistent with the evidence for Theory II?
A)
A)
B)
B)
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C)
C)
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D)
D)
Page 18 of 58
Document # 8524010
Passage VI
Most mammalian cells contain the Na+, K+ATPase enzyme (the sodium pump).The sodium
pump is responsible for regulating Na+ and K+
gradients across the cell membrane through the
transportation of K+ into and Na+ out of the cell.
The sodium pump has been studied by using
reconstituted erythrocytes.Reconstituted erythrocytes
are formed by bathing erythrocytes in distilled water
under controlled conditions.These cells swell,
forming pores that release cytoplasmic proteins and
ions into the distilled water.If the swollen cells are
then placed in a solution isotonic to normal cells, ions
or proteins within the isotonic solution will
equilibriate with the water inside the swollen
cells.The swollen cells will also shrink, resealing the
plasma membrane.Therefore, ions from the isotonic
solution will be trapped within the reconstituted
erythrocytes.
Experiment 1
Reconstituted erythrocytes were prepared
containing a mixture of several ions.The reconstituted
cells were then placed in solutions containing either
KCl, NaCl, NH4Cl, or RbCl.The rates of hydrolysis of
ATP were recorded.Table 1 lists the results of this
experiment.
Table 1
Extracellular environment*
Erythrocyte contents
NH4Cl RbCl KCl NaCl
N
N
L
KCl
ATP Mg2+
H
H
H
NaCl ATP Mg2+
N
N
L
NH4Cl ATP Mg2+
N
N
L
RbCl ATP Mg2+
N
N
N
KCl
ATP
no
N
N
N
NaCl ATP Mg2+
N
N
N
NH4Cl ATP
no
N
N
N
RbCl ATP Mg2+
no
Mg2+
no
Mg2+
N
N
N
KCl
no
Mg2+
N
N
N
NaCl ATP Mg2+
N
N
N
NH4Cl
Mg2+
N
N
N
RbCl
no
Mg2+
ATP
no
ATP
no
ATP
* N = no ATP hydrolysis; L = low rate of ATP

hydrolysis; H = high rate of ATP hydrolysis
ATP was contained in the extracellular contents,
rather than in the erythrocytes.
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Experiment 2
Reaction A
Several reconstituted erythrocytes were prepared,

each containing ADP, Pi, and KCl, but not NaCl.The
erythrocytes were placed in a solution containing
NaCl, but not KCl.ATP was formed inside the
erythrocytes.
Based on experiments similar to these, researchers

have proposed the following overall equation for the
sodium pump.
3 Na+(inside) + 2 K+(outside) + ATP4 + H2O 3
Na+(outside) + 2 K+(inside) + ADP3 + Pi 2 + H+
28. The sodium pump would be most active in cells

of which of the following structures?
A) Veins
B) Loop of Henle
C) Lungs
D) Bone marrow
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29. When erythrocytes are placed in distilled water,

the volume of each erythrocyte increases because
the:
30. A student postulated that the sodium pump

directly causes action potentials along neurons.
Is this hypothesis reasonable?
A) gradient of ions causes water to enter the cells.
A) No; action potentials result in an increased

permeability of the plasma membrane to sodium.
B) contractile filaments of the cytosol open pores in

the plasma membrane.
C) sodium pump transports sodium out of the
erythrocytes more rapidly than normal.
D) erythrocytes DNA produces degradative
enzymes.
B) No; the myelin sheaths of neurons prevent

movement of ions across the plasma membranes of
the neurons.
C) Yes; sodium is transported out of neurons during
action potentials.
D) Yes; action potentials are accompanied by the
hydrolysis of ATP.
31. Based on Reaction A, if all the energy produced
from glycolysis were used to remove Na+ from a
cell, how many molecules of Na+ would be
removed per molecule of glucose?
A) 3
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C) 9
D) 12
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Passage VII
Sarah, a scientist from New Orleans, takes two-week
vacations to different locations every year to
experience new sports.
One year she went to the Caribbean Sea to learn skin
diving.Although she was in excellent physical
condition from daily swimming in the ocean, she
noticed that the first time she went diving, she
experienced an elevated pulse and ventilation rate.By
the third time she went diving, her heart and breathing
rate were no longer elevated.By the end of the two
weeks, her skin had become darker.
Another year she went skiing on snow in the
mountains of Colorado.Again, she noticed that the
first time she went skiing, her heart and ventilation
rate were faster than usual.Although it was not as
elevated by the end of the first week, her heart and
breathing rates were still higher than usual.She also
noticed that her appetite and caloric intake were
considerably greater during her skiing vacation
compared with her diving vacation.However, she
noticed that her body weight did not change
significantly.
32. The prolonged increase in heart and breathing

rates during the snow skiing trip was probably a
result of:
A) activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous
system by the new experience.
B) activation of the parasympathetic autonomic
nervous system by the new experience.
C) hypoxia caused by insufficient blood hemoglobin
concentration to supply oxygen for exercise at the
low oxygen pressure found at high altitudes.
D) depressed core body temperature (hypothermia)
caused by exposure to cold temperatures at high
altitudes.
33. Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and
appetite is maintained by the:
A) hypothalamus, cerebrum, and brain stem,
respectively.
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B) brain stem, hypothalamus, and cerebrum,

respectively.
C) cerebellum, hypothalamus, and brain stem,

respectively.
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D) brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus,

respectively.
Sarah calculated the actual work that she performed

skiing and diving.There was not enough difference in
the work performed to account for the observed
difference in appetite; although the physical work of
diving and skiing was approximately equal and she
ate more calories during the skiing trip, she did not
gain any weight.
34. The initial increase in heart and breathing rates

during the skin diving trip was probably a result
of:
On a third vacation, Sarah had a serious accident

while playing sports.
B) activation of the parasympathetic autonomic

nervous system by the new experience.
N
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A) activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous

system by the new experience.
C) hypoxia caused by the inability of her blood

hemoglobin concentration to supply sufficient
oxygen for the strenuous exercise of swimming at
sea level.
D) elevated core body temperature caused by
swimming in warm tropical waters.
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35. During the initial skin diving session, when her

heart and breathing rates were increased, Sarah
noticed that she produced more urine than usual.
This was most probably a result of:
A) increased blood pressure caused by her excitement
or anxiety.
B) reduced blood pressure caused by her excitement
or anxiety.
C) absorption of water from the ocean.
D) inability to cool the skin through evaporative
water loss.
37. After Sarahs accident, her attending physician

detected the protein myoglobin in her urine.
What type of injury is consistent with this
observation?
I.
Broken bone
II.
Damaged muscle
III.
Damaged kidney
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
36. Sarah noted that her skin blood vessels were

usually constricted to conserve body heat in the
cold environment of the mountains. However,
her skin blood vessels would occasionally dilate
for short periods of time. What would be the
most probable physiological purpose for this
periodic vasodilation?
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A) Maintain normal skin tone

B) Maintain sufficient oxygenation of cells
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C) Reduce excessive blood pressure

D) Maintain normal muscle tone
N
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Passage VIII
The Ames test is often used in the initial screening
of suspected carcinogenic compounds because it
provides a good indication of the mutagenic
characteristics of many chemicals. The test uses
special strains of the bacterium Salmonella
typhimurium that are nutritional mutants; they also
lack a mechanism for DNA repair.
When grown on a medium that lacks the amino
acid histidine, the Salmonella test strains do not
survive even though wild-type Salmonella grow well
on this medium. During the Ames test, the suspected
carcinogen is added to a histidine-deficient growth
medium. If the chemical is a mutagen, some of the
bacteria will back-mutate, and a visible colony will
form. The usefulness of the Ames test can be
improved when the growth medium contains rat-liver
enzymes.
Figure 1 illustrates several Ames tests performed
on the air from 3 different cities.
38. Cancer cells most likely have an abnormality in

their:
A) DNA.
B) rRNA.
C) mitochondria.
D) lysosomes.
39. Why is the Ames test for mutagens used to test
for carcinogens?
A) Salmonella transform mutagens into carcinogens.
B) Most mutagens are also carcinogens.
C) Salmonella contain oncogenes.
D) Salmonellas RNA distinguishes between
carcinogens and mutagens.
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40. Which of the following best explains why

bacterial colonies formed on Plate IV in Figure
1?
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A) The air contained mutagens.
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B) The agar contained mutagens.

C) Spontaneous mutations occurred.
D) The DNA repair system became activated.
41. The passage indicates that when Salmonella have

back-mutated, they:
A) contain a pigment that makes them visible.
B) are capable of synthesizing histidine.
C) will metabolize the carcinogen in the presence of
light.
D) lack histidine in their proteins.
Figure 1
Figures adapted from Peter Flessel, Yi Y. Yang, Kuo-In Chang, and
Jerome J. Wesolowski, Ames Testing for Mutagens and Carcinogens in
Air. 1987 by the Division of Chemical Education, American
Chemical Society.
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Passage IX
Autoimmune diseases result when lymphocytes from
the immune system attack the bodys own tissues.
This is normally prevented by the bodys ability of
self-tolerance; that is, the immune system
recognizes the bodys own tissues and forms very
few lymphocytes that act against them. Autoimmune
diseases may affect any type of body tissue.
Two hypotheses have been advanced to explain how
autoimmunity develops.
A) never circulate in the body fluids; therefore, they

are never exposed to lymphocytes.
B) are not part of a living tissue; therefore,
development of self-tolerance is unnecessary.
C) are adequately protected by tears and other
external barriers to antigens.
D) are protected by suppressor T cells rather than by
clonal deletion.
Hypothesis 1
Most of the bodys self-tolerance is generated within
a few months of birth, when the body is processing T
and Blymphocytes. Identical groups (clones) of
circulating lymphocytes remain inactive until they
encounter their specific antigens, after which they
proliferate. During this time, the process of clonal
deletion destroys any newly formed groups of
lymphocytes that might attack the bodys own tissues.
If clonal deletion of such lymphocytes does not occur
or is hindered, these lymphocytes will incorrectly
recognize a specific body tissue as foreign or non-self,
and begin to destroy it.
Hypothesis 2
42. The human body never develops self-tolerance to

the proteins of the cornea. According to
Hypothesis 1, one reason for this might be that
the corneal proteins:
43. According to the normal mechanism of selftolerance described in the passage, the body will
respond to each antigen it encounters by
activating:
A) either B or T lymphocytes, but not both.
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B) lymphocytes against the antigen, if the antigen is

from the bodys own tissues.
C) all clones of lymphocytes that have not been
destroyed by clonal deletion.
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In addition to effector lymphocytes (such as helper T

cells and cytotoxic T cells) that selectively attack and
destroy antigens, the body contains other lymphocytes
(suppressor T cells) that prevent this destruction by
selectively limiting the action of the effector cells.
Normally, a regulatory balance is maintained between
effector and suppressor T cells. However, when this
balance is disturbed (for example, by loss or
inactivation of suppressor-cell clones), an
autoimmune disease may result.
D) a clone of lymphocytes specific for that antigen.
44. According to Hypothesis 2, the normal balance

between effector cells and suppressor cells
specific for a certain tissue will most likely be
disturbed if the tissue is injected with:
A) cells for that tissue obtained from an identical
twin.
B) cells from another tissue to which the tissue has
already been exposed.
C) a foreign substance that cross-reacts with cells of
that tissue.
D) a foreign substance that does not cross-react with
cells of that tissue.
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45. Does acceptance of the mechanism of selftolerance described in Hypothesis 1 rule out
acceptance of the mechanism described in
Hypothesis 2?
A) Yes; if clonal deletion occurs, no self-reactive
lymphocytes will be left for suppressor T cells to
act upon.
B) Yes; Hypothesis 1 deals with the formation of selftolerance and Hypothesis 2 deals with its
maintenance.
C) No; suppressor T cell formation can only occur
after clonal deletion has occurred.
D) No; clones of self-reactive lymphocytes not
destroyed by clonal deletion may be controlled by
suppressor T cells.
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46. Rates of endocytosis vary from cell type to cell

type. What cell would be predicted to have the
highest rate of endocytosis?
49. It was observed that when a mother baboon died,

her infant was cared for by the mothers sibling.
A biologist explained that this behavior would
increase the chance that the siblings genes would
be passed on to the next generation. This
conclusion is most likely based on the fact that
the:
A) infants mother was unfit to live in the
environment.
A) A macrophage
B) An erythrocyte
C) An osteoblast
B) infant would probably have survived without the

siblings help.
D) A neuron
C) sibling had many of the same genes as the infants

mother.
47. After the gall bladder is removed from a patient,

the patient will most likely have reduced ability
to digest:
D) population of baboons would increase in number.
C) sugar.
50. The antibiotic penicillin has the effect of

inhibiting the production of the chemical
peptidoglycan. Therefore, penicillin is likely to
be most effective in treating infection by:
D) fat.
A) viruses.
A) protein.
B) starch.
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B) bacteria.
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48. Which statement below most accurately describes

the roles of the proteins actin and myosin during
muscular contraction?
A) Both actin and myosin shorten, causing the muscle
tissue to which they are attached to contract.
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B) Both actin and myosin catalyze the reactions that

result in muscle contraction.
C) Actin molecules are disassembled by myosin,
leading to a shortening of muscle sarcomeres.
D) Bridges between actin and myosin form, break,
and re-form, leading to a shortening of muscle
sarcomeres.
C) fungi.
D) protozoa.
51. Actin filaments within cells can be identified

experimentally by the use of a labeled molecule
that binds specifically to actin and not to other
cell substances. Which of the following would be
best to use as the labeled molecule?
A) ATP
B) Myosin
C) Albumin
D) Myoglobin
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52. A wound that penetrates the rib cage and lets air
into the right pleural cavity stops air flow into the
right lung because the:
A) lung cannot be expanded.
B) rib cage cannot be expanded.
C) diaphragm cannot be lowered.
D) air dries and stiffens the lung.
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Passage X
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is an illness
characterized by the rapid onset of high fever,
hypotension, and a rash that results in skin
desquamation (separation of cell layers). It affects at
least three organ systems. In the early 1980s, an
increased risk of TSS was associated with use of
high-absorbency tampons. Some high-absorbency
brands of tampons were removed from the market,
and warning labels were required for all remaining
brands. Although reported cases of TSS decreased
markedly at that time, significant menstrual and
nonmenstrual cases of TSS continue to occur.
The two bacteria that cause TSS are Staphylococcus
aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. Most studies of
these pathogens have focused on the effects of the
protein toxins they produce. Chemical and
biological/immunological tests indicate that these
toxins are superantigens.
Superantigens differ from other proteins in their
antigenic nature; they do not stimulate T lymphocytes
in the immune system in the same manner that
conventional protein antigens do. Superantigens
bypass a processing step normally performed by
antigen-presenting cells, and also differ from normal
antigens by binding to T cells outside the standard
antigen binding site. Because this unique type of
binding activates approximately 20% of the T
lymphocytes, as opposed to 1 in 100,000 T cells
activated by conventional antigenic stimulation,
superantigens are considered nonspecific stimulators.
Negative effects of nonspecific stimulation by
superantigens occur because the activation of so many
T cells causes the release of massive levels of
cytokines. This increased cytokine release is probably
responsible for many of the acute problems seen in
TSS, and also in some autoimmune diseases such as
arthritis, multiple sclerosis, and rheumatic fever.
53. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus bacteria cause

problems in acute infections such as toxic shock
syndrome primarily by:
A) multiplying to produce large numbers of bacteria.
B) stimulating exaggerated immune responses.
C) causing autoimmune reactions.
D) inhibiting metabolic enzymes with toxins.
54. According to the passage, superantigens increase
the number of activated T cells over activation
levels observed with conventional antigens by a
factor of:
A) 20.
B) 5000.
C) 20000.
D) 100000.
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55. In addition to the skin and circulatory systems,

which of the following organ systems is most
likely to be affected by TSS?
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A) The musculoskeletal system

B) The digestive system
C) The lymphatic system
D) The respiratory system
56. If the dose of Streptococcus Strain A required to

cause infection is 1 x 105 bacteria and that of
Streptococcus Strain B is 5 x 104 bacteria, which
of the following statements describes the relative
potencies of these strains?
A) Strain A is five times as potent as Strain B.
B) Strain A is one-fifth as potent as Strain B.
C) Strain A is twice as potent as Strain B.
D) Strain A is half as potent as Strain B.
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Passage XI
58. Damage to the liver would most directly affect

the production of:
Joe and Steve were firefighters. Joe was an

experienced veteran in the fire department, whereas
Steve was a 23-year-old new member. Although Joe
was 60 years old, he kept his muscles in excellent
physical condition and only 8% of his weight was
body fat. However, his long firefighting career had
had serious effects on his health. At the age of 25, Joe
had been trapped in a burning house and had suffered
severe burns over 50% of his body, which resulted in
massive scarring of his skin. As a consequence of
long-term inhalation of smoke, Joe also had an earlystage emphysema a disease in which the elastic
tissue of the lungs loses its ability to recoil after it is
stretched. Although Steve weighed only half as much
as Joe, Steve had a higher percentage of body fat
(15% of his weight). However, he was in excellent
physical condition. Steve and Joe had identical vital
signs: a resting heart rate of 60 beats per minute and
blood pressure of 125/70 mmHg.
Joe and Steve were assigned to a team sent to fight a
major fire in an industrial warehouse. Fighting a big
fire is often a frightening experience. Because this
was Steves first major fire, it was especially
frightening for him. After the fire was extinguished,
an inspection of the building revealed that a chemical
storage container had ruptured, possibly exposing Joe
and Steve to a hepatotoxic agent, which could damage
the liver.
A) digestive enzymes.
B) antidiuretic hormone.
C) new blood cells.
D) bile salts.
59. Assuming the lungs are fully perfused (meaning
fully permeated with blood), which factor is least
likely to influence the oxygenation of blood in
the pulmonary circulation?
A) Rate and depth of breathing
B) Hemoglobin concentration of the blood
C) Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery
D) Surface area of the alveoli
60. If both Steve and Joe performed the same work
tasks, which of the following statements would
describe their individual energy consumption?
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A) Steves body would consume more energy

because of his lesser weight.
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57. Joes body might have a greater tendency to

overheat during strenuous work than Steves
body would, because:
B) Steves body would consume less energy because

of the greater basal metabolic rate in younger
people.
C) Joes body would consume more energy because
of his greater weight.
D) Joes body would consume the same amount of
energy as Steves because the basal metabolic
rates are equal.
A) older males have a higher basal metabolic rate.

B) Steve has a greater percentage of body fat.
C) Joes scarred skin would reduce evaporative
cooling.
D) Joe has more skin surface area relative to his body
volume.
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61. If Steves blood pressure had increased

significantly more than Joes increased (other
factors being equal) while they worked, what
difference in their urinary system function would
be expected?
A) Joes glomerular filtration rate would increase
more than Steves would.
B) Steves reabsorption rate of glomerular filtrate by
the peritubular capillaries would be lower than
Joes would be.
C) Steves reabsorption rate per milliliter of
glomerular filtrate by the peritubular capillaries
would be higher than Joes would be.
D) Steves glomerular filtration rate would increase
more than Joes would.
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Passage XII
Researchers have isolated G proteins, a new family of membrane-associated proteins. These proteins are
believed to regulate all or most of the intracellular signaling systems operating across the plasma membrane,
including those involving hormones and action potentials. Figure 1 depicts how this mechanism is hypothesized
to function.
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Figure 1 Intracellular signaling by G proteins
According to this hypothesis, extracellular signals such as some hormones bind to specific receptors on the
surface of the plasma membrane. This binding activates the receptor that then binds to a G protein embedded in
the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. This, in turn, causes the G protein to release guanosine diphosphate
(GDP) and bind guanosine triphosphate (GTP). The G protein with bound GTP interacts with various enzymes
or proteins in the plasma membrane. The end result is either activation or inactivation of the enzyme, depending
on the specific system. The G protein is then inactivated, which turns off the initial steps of the signaling
system.
Adenylate cyclase, the enzyme that synthesizes the intracellular signal cyclic AMP (cAMP), is believed to be
activated by this mechanism.
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62. According to the passage, all of the following

events must occur in order to activate a G protein
EXCEPT:
A) binding of the G protein to the receptor.
B) binding of the extracellular signal to the receptor.
C) displacement of GDP by GTP on the G protein.
D) phosphorylation of GTP.
63. Which of the following best explains the role of
GTP in controlling the function of G proteins?
A) GTP is required for binding the G protein to the
hormone receptor.
B) GTP alters the conformation of the G protein
allowing interaction with the enzyme.
C) Hydrolysis of GTP acts as a source of energy to
activate the G protein.
D) Hydrolysis of GTP is required for activation of the
membrane-bound enzyme.
64. Binding of G proteins to a membrane-bound

enzyme was observed to inactivate the signaling
system. Is this observation consistent with the
information presented in the passage?
A) No, because G proteins are believed to activate
signaling systems
B) No, because G proteins should have been activated
by binding to the signal-receptor complex
C) Yes, because the effect of G proteins is dependent
upon the specific signaling system involved
D) Yes, because binding of G proteins to the
membrane-bound enzyme results in the hydrolysis
of GDP, which inactivates the signaling system
65. Which of the following, if found to be true,
would best refute the hypothesis that a
membrane-bound enzyme is activated by a G
protein?
A) The enzyme can be activated in the absence of
bound GTP.
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B) The enzyme is activated only when hormone is

present.
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C) The enzyme cannot be activated when GDP is

bound to a G protein.
D) The enzyme is always found in the activated state.
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Passage XIII
67. Which of the following observations supports

both the deterministic and stochastic views?
Stem cells are immature cells that continually replace

cells having short life spans, such as those of the skin
and blood. When stem cells divide, one of the
daughter cells remains a stem cell and the other
differentiates to produce a mature cell. A pluripotent
stem cell can replicate often, but can only produce a
few cell types. A totipotent stem cell cannot replicate
as often as a pluripotent cell, but can differentiate into
many cell types. A committed stem cell is committed
to producing a particular specialized cell line, such as
leukocytes.
Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are located in the
bone marrow and have the potential to differentiate
into blood cells. HSCs can also be pluripotent,
totipotent, or committed; totipotent cells can replace
all the types of blood cells of the immune system.
Current investigations into the mechanism governing
HSC differentiation have revealed two properties
common to all stem cells. First, receptors on stem
cells respond to hormones that regulate the production
of different types of blood cells. Second, stem cells
grown in cultures lacking naturally occurring support
cells differentiate randomly.
A) When hormone X is presented to a culture of

HSCs, only erythrocytes are formed.
B) When stem cells initially express hormone
receptors, they do so randomly.
C) The receptors on HSCs are expressed in response
to external signals from surrounding bone marrow.
D) Genes within the HSCs are turned on according to
internal signals early in fetal development.
68. Which of the following observations supports the
deterministic view?
A) Cultured stem cells develop hormone receptors
when exposed to naturally occurring support cells.
B) When cultured stem cells are exposed to
hormones, they divide more rapidly.
C) When cultured stem cells are reintroduced into the
body, they continue random differentiation.
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D) When genes for erythrocytes are introduced into

cultured stem cells, erythrocytes are formed.
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Two hypotheses describe different mechanisms

governing differentiation. The deterministic view
holds that external signals, such as hormones, direct
stem cell differentiation. The stochastic view
maintains that differentiation into various cell types
occurs randomly.
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66. HSCs are vital to human body function because

blood cells:
A) typically have short life spans.
B) are not stored in the body.
C) constantly leave the body through the urinary and
digestive systems.
D) constantly differentiate into other types of cells.
69. Damaged or destroyed bone marrow can be

replaced with transplanted tissue. If the main goal
of such a transplant is to replace all blood cell
types, the transplanted tissue should contain
which of the following cell types?
A) Pluripotent HSCs, because they differentiate
stochastically and therefore would replicate the
fastest
B) Pluripotent HSCs, because they differentiate
stochastically and the body could therefore signal
which types of cells it needs
C) Totipotent HSCs, because they can differentiate
stochastically and the random differentiation
would therefore produce the most types of blood
cells
D) Totipotent HSCs, because they can differentiate
deterministically and the cells would therefore
have the greatest ability to differentiate in
response to the new host
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70. In almost all vertebrates, when the optic cup fails

to develop in the embryo, the lens also fails to
form. This constitutes evidence that:
A) the process of neurulation follows gastrulation.
B) the eye develops early in vertebrate
morphogenesis.
C) cells may induce neighboring cells to differentiate.
D) cell differentiation is an all or none
phenomenon.
71. When viewing an X ray of the bones of a leg, a
doctor can tell if the patient is a growing child,
because the X ray shows:
A) cartilaginous areas in the long bones.
B) bone cells that are actively dividing.
C) the presence of haversian cells.
D) shorter-than-average bones.
73. Which of the following changes would NOT

interfere with the repeated transmission of an
impulse at the vertebrate neuromuscular
junction?
A) Addition of a cholinesterase blocker
B) Addition of a toxin that blocks the release of
acetylcholine
C) An increase in acetylcholine receptor sites on the
motor end plate
D) Addition of a substance that binds to acetylcholine
receptor sites
74. During the repolarization phase of an action
potential in a neuron, which of the following is
generally true of the voltage-gated channels that
cause that action potential?
A) The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the
voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.
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B) The voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the

voltage-gated Na+ channels are open.
C) The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the

voltage-gated Na+ channels are open.
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72. The different antigenic blood types are inherited

through allelic genes. The actual molecular
difference between two blood types is in the
carbohydrate that is attached to a common
molecular backbone. The best explanation for
how genes determine blood type, therefore, is
that each gene:
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A) produces RNA that is converted to a specific

carbohydrate.
B) codes for a carbohydrate instead of a protein.
C) codes for an enzyme that attaches the type-specific
carbohydrate.
D) The voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the

voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.
75. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts to decrease

urine output by increasing the water permeability
of the walls of:
A) the glomerulus.
B) Bowmans capsule.
C) the loop of Henle.
D) the distal tubule and collecting duct.
D) contains a specific carbohydrate as part of the

nucleic-acid structure.
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Document # 8524010
Passage XIV
76. The mechanisms that regulate gene expression

are:
The study of human disease has revealed many details

and raised many questions about the genetic basis of
cellular physiology. The study of neurofibromatosis
type I (NF1) suggests that defects in a single gene
cause the various clinical features that characterize
this disease, which include skeletal abnormalities,
learning disabilities, and benign and malignant
tumors. This array of clinical features is difficult to
reconcile with the idea of defects in a single gene.
Studies of DNA mutations in NF1 patients have
revealed few mutationstoo few to explain all the
features of this genetically dominant disease.
A) simple because they are contained within the cell.

B) complex and occur at many levels within the cell.
C) complex and affect only DNA.
D) simple because all genes are regulated in the same
way.
77. Changes in the type of NF1 transcript expressed
will cause changes in the type of NF1:
A) protein synthesized by the ribosomes.
B) protein transcribed by the ribosomes.
At least four alternative mRNA transcripts are

expressed from the single NF1 gene. Each mRNA
transcript is expressed differently in different tissues
and at different developmental stages. Some
investigators propose that changes in the types of NF1
transcript may drive cellular differentiation, whereas
others propose that cellular differentiation causes
changes in the type of NF1 transcript expressed. In
either case, epigenetic (developmental) events
evidently affect the expression of the NF1 gene.
Mistakes in RNA processing might contribute to the
disease phenotype.
C) gene passed to the offspring of those affected.

D) gene within cells of those affected.
78. Epigenetic modulation of gene expression is most
likely to be important in evolutionary terms
because it allows:
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The events involved in NF1 gene expression probably

are not unique to this gene. Many genes may undergo
a similarly complex series of events, which ultimately
regulate the amount and composition of protein
expressed from a particular DNA sequence.
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B) multiple genes to encode the same protein.
C) the posttranslational modification of defective

proteins.
D) more variation at the DNA level.
79. The passage suggests that the expression of

disease genes probably is important in regulating
normal cellular physiology because:
A) altered expression of disease genes leads to
disease.
B) the expression of disease genes leads to disease.
C) disease genes are frequent targets for mutation.
D) gene mutations frequently lead to disease.
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Passage XV
Scientists have hypothesized that mitochondria evolved from aerobic heterotrophic bacteria that entered and
established symbiotic relationships with primitive eukaryotic anaerobes.Many structural and functional
similarities between mitochondria and present-day bacteria support this hypothesis.They are approximately the
same size, reproduce by similar means, and contain non-histone-bound DNA.They contain the tRNAs,
ribosomes, etc., necessary for transcription and translation, and they show some similarities in base sequences
of rRNAs.
In addition, the inner membranes of mitochondria have enzymes and transport systems similar to those on the
plasma membranes of bacteria.One similar system is the electron transport system (ETS).Electron transport in
both mitochondria and bacteria is accomplished using three large protein complexes, each composed of multiple
polypeptides (Figure 1).
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Figure 1 Electron transport across inner mitochondrial membrane
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Hydrogen atoms and electrons donated from NADH are passed between components of the electron transport
chain and eventually reduce oxygen to form water.This chain of events creates both a pH gradient and an
electrical potential across the membrane.The protons are thought to move down the pH gradient, interacting
with the enzyme ATP synthetase.This results in the production of ATP from ADP and phosphate.
80. According to the hypothesis described in the

passage, the bacteria that entered primitive
eukaryotic cells were able to carry out which of
the following functions that the primitive
eukaryotic cells could NOT?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle and electron transport
C) Cell division
D) Transcription and translation
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81. Most proteins in present-day mitochondria are

made by cytoplasmic ribosomes from mRNA
transcribed from nuclear genes. Can this fact be
reconciled with the hypothesis described in the
passage?
83. Which of the following pieces of evidence most

strongly supports the hypothesis of mitochondrial
origin described in the passage?
A) Yes; the transfer of genes from symbionts to the

eukaryotic nucleus could have occurred during the
last billion years of evolution.
B) Mitochondria contain hundreds of different

enzymes.
B) Yes; this difference from bacteria is unimportant,

because the many similarities between bacteria
and mitochondria provide sufficient evidence in
favor of the hypothesis.
C) No; the fact that mitochondrial proteins are made
in the cytoplasm is convincing evidence that
mitochondria do not have a bacterial origin.
D) No; because bacteria can make all their own
proteins and mitochondria cannot, this disproves
the hypothesis.
82. The chemical gramicidin inserts into membranes
and creates an artificial pathway for proton
movement. Based on Figure 1, if mitochondria
are treated with gramicidin, the rate of ATP
synthesis will most likely:
A) Mitochondria have fewer genes than typical

bacterial cells have.
C) The diameters of mitochondria and typical

present-day bacteria are approximately equal.
D) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria live symbiotically inside
the cells of present-day plants.
84. To support the symbiotic hypothesis presented in
the passage, mitochondria should be similar to
bacteria in which of the following ways?
A) They should use 80S ribosomes.
B) They should be incapable of binary fission.
C) They should have circular DNA.
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A) increase, because of increased proton movement

back into the mitochondria.
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B) decrease, because of a decreased rate of hydrogenatom donation by NADH.

C) decrease, because the proton gradient will rapidly
reach equilibrium.
D) not be altered, because sufficient protons will
remain between the membranes to generate ATP.
85. The chemical valinomycin inserts into

membranes and causes the movement of K+ into
the mitochondria. Based on Figure 1, if
mitochondria are treated with valinomycin, the
rate of ATP synthesis in the mitochondria will
most likely:
A) decrease, because the K+ will compete with
protons at the active site on ATP synthetase.
B) decrease, because movement of K+ into the
mitochondrial compartments will disrupt proton
movement into the intermembrane space.
C) increase, because the net positive charge in the
mitochondria will cause increased movement of
protons into the intermembrane space.
D) increase, because the additional positive charge
will further activate ATP synthetase.
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with reverse transcriptase function and to prolong the

lives of AIDS patients.
Passgage XVI
An AIDS infection is especially dangerous because
the AIDS virus attacks the cells of the immune
system.A primary target of the virus is the CD4
lymphocyte (helper T cell). Helper T cells produce
substances that trigger the maturation of B
lymphocytes and CD8 lymphocytes (killer T cells).
During the infection of a helper T cell, gp120 proteins
of the viral coat first bind to the CD4 antigens on the
cell membrane.The viral coat then fuses with the cell
membrane, and the RNA-containing core of the virus
is dumped into the cell.Viral RNA is used as a
template to produce DNA with the help of the enzyme
reverse transcriptase, several copies of which are also
contained in the viral core.The viral DNA is then
incorporated into the chromosomes of the helper T
cell.At a later time, the viral DNA will be activated
and used to make new viral particles, resulting in the
destruction of the helper T cell.
One approach to the treatment of AIDS infections is
to interfere with the binding of the virus to the helper
T cell.This can be done by producing antibodies that
bind to the gp120 protein on the viral
surface.However, there are several difficulties with
this approach.First, because of the high mutation rate
of the gp120 protein, the most antigenic region of the
protein is extremely variable in structure.Second, the
binding region of gp120 does not readily stimulate
antibody production because the region is well
shielded by sugar molecules.Third, the gp120 protein
has a very strong affinity for the CD4 antigen that
must be overcome by any antibody produced against
gp120.
86. When an AIDS virus has been incorporated into a

CD4 cell, but has NOT yet been replicated, the
viral genetic information is located in the CD4
cells:
A) mitochondria.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) nucleus.
D) ribosomes.
87. The direction of information flow in the process
catalyzed by the enzyme reverse transcriptase is
the reverse of:
A) DNA replication.
B) RNA synthesis.
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C) protein synthesis.
D) carbohydrate synthesis.
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88. Some antibiotics work by interfering with the

function of bacterial (but not eukaryotic)
ribosomes. Such antibiotics are NOT effective in
fighting viruses because:
A) viral ribosomes are too similar to eukaryotic
ribosomes.
B) viral ribosomes are protected by the viral coat.
C) viral ribosomes are too small to bind to any drug.
D) viruses ordinarily lack ribosomes.
A second approach to AIDS treatment is to interfere

with the function of reverse transcriptase by
producing nucleotides that lack the hydroxyl group on
the 3 carbon.These nucleotides will be preferentially
incorporated into a growing DNA chain by reverse
transcriptase, but not by the DNA polymerase of the
host cell, which is much more specific than the viral
enzyme.Because no subsequent nucleotides can be
added to the viral DNA chain, the chain will be
terminated.The drug AZT, which has an azide (N3)
group at the 3 carbon, has been shown to interfere
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89. Which of the following evolutionary mechanisms

most likely explains the presence in humans of
CD4 receptors on the helper T cells that bind to
the gp120 proteins of the AIDS virus?
90. AZT is effective for treating AIDS because it is

missing a hydroxyl group on the 3 carbon, a
normal site for binding between:
A) Coevolution (development of a series of reciprocal

adaptations that benefited both virus and host)
B) a sugar and a nitrogenous base.
B) Convergent evolution (development of

resemblances between virus and host after they
entered the same environment)
A) a phosphate and a sugar.

C) a phosphate and a nitrogenous base.
D) 2 complementary nitrogenous bases.
C) Natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of

the virus
D) Natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of
the host
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Passage XVII
The ability of hemoglobin (Hb) to exchange O2 is
represented by the O2 equilibrium curve, a graph
depicting the saturation of deoxygenated Hb by O2 at
different pressures of O2 (Figure 1).
heme molecule is associated with each of the 4

polypeptide subunits.The subunits can bind and
release O2 molecules separately, but the entire
tetramer cooperatively clicks into either a relaxed
or a tense conformation at a point where it has 2 or 3
O2 doublets bound to the hemes.At the P50 in a given
organism, individual Hb molecules may have 4, 3, 2,
1, or even zero O2 molecules bound to them, resulting
in a mean of 2.0 for the organism.
Several other ligands, such as carbon monoxide
(CO) and nitrous oxide (N2O), have a very high
affinity for Hb and are able to bind almost irreversibly
to Hb in place of O2.Once these ligands bind, the
molecule is fixed in the relaxed state.
Genetic variations leading to production of
different structural types of Hb in different species, or
in different life-cycle stages of the same species,
result in differences in P50 values.For example, larger
concentrations of Hb molecules with variations in the
beta chains typically cause organisms to have lower
P50 values.For this reason, the P50 of the human fetus
is lower than that of the mother (Figure 1), promoting
fetal ability to compete for O2 at the placenta.On the
other hand, some species, such as cats, mice, and
deer, have very high P50 values.
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Figure 1
O2 equilibrium curve for human fetal (F) and

maternal (M) blood.
Figure adapted from Arthur C. Guyton, M.D., Textbook of Medical

Physiology, Sixth Edition. 1981 by W.B. Saunders company.
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The P50 is the O2 pressure at which the Hb binds

to 50% of the amount of O2 to which it can bind
under buffered standard conditions; the P50 is
inversely related to O2 affinity.A probe for dissolved
O2 is used to measure the amount of O2 present in the
sample, and corrections are made for the ambient
barometric pressure and water vapor.Because a color
change occurs when Hb changes its conformation
from the relaxed (oxygenated) to the tense
(deoxygenated) state, saturation of Hb may be
measured by spectrophotometry.
The Hb molecule is composed of 4 ironcontaining heme molecules to which the O2 molecules

attach and a globin portion consisting of 4 large
polypeptide chains (2 alpha and 2 beta chains) that
determine the binding affinity of the Hb for O2.One
The P50 is also acutely sensitive to physiological

conditions.For example, O2 affinity is decreased by
decreasing pH and increasing temperature, as in
strenuous exercise; this lowered O2 affinity serves to
off-load O2 to the tissues.
91. The fetus is better able to compete for O2 at the

placenta because, compared to maternal Hb, fetal
Hb has an increased ability to:
A) off-load O2 at lower O2 concentrations.
B) off-load O2 at higher O2 concentrations.
C) bind O2 at lower O2 concentrations.
D) bind O2 at higher O2 concentrations.
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92. High P50 values, such as those of cats, mice, and

deer, are adaptive for these animals because they
enable the animals to:
93. Cats have a much higher P50 reading than

humans. This means that, compared to human
Hb, cat Hb can:
A) compete for O2 more efficiently than other animals

in the environment.
A) transport more O2.
B) be very active.
C) live under conditions of high atmospheric
pressure.
D) live under conditions of high environmental
temperature.
B) transport less O2.

C) off-load O2 more readily under the same
conditions.
D) off-load O2 at a lower partial pressure of O2.
94. Which phrase correctly describes the level of a
gas in fetal blood relative to its level in the
maternal blood in the placenta?
A) COpoisoned.
B) CO2depleted.
C) O2deprived.
D) O2enriched.
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Passage XVIII
The testes have both an endocrine and an exocrine
portion. The exocrine portion consists of the tightly
coiled seminiferous tubules. Before puberty, the
seminiferous tubules contain only spermatogonia and
Sertoli cells. Beginning at puberty, each
spermatogonium will undergo a series of mitotic and
meiotic divisions, called spermatogenesis, that result
in the production of mature spermatozoa (Figure 1).
The Sertoli, or nurse cells, provide nutrients for the
developing sperm. In addition, the Sertoli cell
membranes form tight junctions, establishing a
bloodtestis barrier that protects developing sperm
from potentially toxic bloodborne substances, such as
proteins and polar compounds.
Both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the

testes are controlled by hormones from the
hypothalamus and the pituitary (Figure 2).
Gonadotropin-releasing factor (GnRF) from the
hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to synthesize
and release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinizing hormone (LH). FSH acts directly on the
Sertoli cells to promote and maintain
spermatogenesis. LH acts on the Leydig cells to
stimulate the production of testosterone. Testosterone
in turn regulates testicular activity by inhibiting
GNRF release from the hypothalamus and LH release
from the pituitary. Inhibin, produced by the Sertoli
cells, inhibits FSH release.
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Figure 1
Figure 2
The endocrine portion of the testes consists of the

Leydig cells located between the seminiferous
tubules. The Leydig cells secrete testosterone, an
important male hormone. Testosterone acts on the
Sertoli cells to promote maturation of sperm; it also
controls the development and maintenance of male
sexual organs and secondary sexual characteristics.
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Document # 8524010
95. Which of the following hormones is(are) directly

required for spermatogenesis?
I.
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
II.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
III.
Inhibin
IV.
Testosterone
97. A male taking excess testosterone may become

infertile because of reduced spermatogenesis.
According to Figure 2, this could result directly
from:
A) an increase in inhibin concentration.
B) a reduction in inhibin concentration.
A) IV only
C) a reduction in FSH concentration.
B) I and IV only
D) a reduction in LH concentration.
C) II and IV only
D) I, II, and III only
98. The cell type in the male reproductive system that

is most analogous to the female ovum is the:
96. Which of the following statements correctly

describes the distinction between the exocrine
and endocrine portions of the testis?
A) The exocrine portion secretes only peptides; the
endocrine portion secretes only steroids.
A) spermatogonium.
B) primary spermatocyte.
C) spermatid.
D) spermatozoon.
B) The exocrine portion releases its products into

ducts; the endocrine portion releases its products
into the blood.
C) The exocrine portion secretes only cellular
elements; the endocrine portion secretes only
chemical substances.
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D) The exocrine portion is the target tissue for the

products of the endocrine portion.
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99. Of the following tissues, which is NOT derived

from embryonic mesoderm?
A) Circulatory
101. Double-stranded DNA can adopt one of three

helical conformations depending on the
nucleotide makeup of the molecule and the
amount of hydration. The nucleotide base pairs
in a DNA helix are arranged like steps in a
spiral staircase. Each one is rotated a few
degrees from the previous base pair.
B) Bone
Table 1 Average Helical Twist between

Adjacent Nucleotide Pairs (Mean and Standard
Deviation, in Degrees)
Conformation Helical twist
A
33.1 +6
B
35.9 +4
Z
29.9 +1
C) Dermal
D) Nerve
100. What is an alternative to sexual reproduction?
A) Isogamy
B) Hermaphroditism
In investigating the properties of a strand of

DNA, researchers determined that there were 12
nucleotide base pairs for every complete 360o
turn of the helix. The conformation of the DNA
strand was:
C) Pseudohermaphroditism
D) Parthenogenesis
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A) A, not B or Z.
B) B, not A or Z.
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C) Z, not A or B.
D) A or B, not Z.
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102. Which of the following correctly pairs a cellular

process with the location in which that process
occurs in a prokaryotic cell?
A) Transcription, cytoplasm
B) ATP synthesis, mitochondria
C) Degradation of macromolecules, lysosomes
D) Modification of carbohydrates on transmembrane
proteins, Golgi complex
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Document # 8524010
104. Translation of antibody proteins in eukaryotic

cells is associated with what organelle?
103.
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondrion
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus
The diagram above shows the pattern of

inheritance of a certain disease. Females are
represented by circles, males by squares.
Individuals that exhibit the disease are
represented by shaded circles or squares. What
is the most likely method of inheritance of this
disease?
A) Autosomal dominant
105. Which of the following tissues have cells that

are in direct contact with the external
environment or elements of the external
environment?
I.
The lining of the reproductive tract
II.
The lining of the respiratory tract
III.
The lining of the gastrointestinal tract
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
B) Autosomal recessive
C) II and III only
C) Sex-linked dominant
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D) I, II, and III
D) Sex-linked recessive
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Passage XIX
Several species of Drosophila have X-linked e and f
genes that affect the sex ratios of individuals
offspring. However, the genes only affect sex ratios if
they are brought close together by an inversion of one
arm of the X chromosome (Figure 1).
107. A virgin female Drosophila mates and produces

34 daughters and 38 sons. Eighteen of these
sons sire only daughters, while the remainder
sire approximately equal numbers of daughters
and sons. What are the genotypes of the original
female and the male with whom she mated?
A) XiXs and XsY
B) XiXs and XiY
C) XiXi and XsY
D) XsXs and XiY
Figure 1 Standard and inverted X chromosomes

An XsY male is standard: he sires equal numbers of
sons and daughters. An XiY male expresses the sex
ratio trait: he sires only daughters. Total reproductive
output is not affected; XsY males and XiY males sire
equal numbers of offspring.
If none of the Xi-bearing genotypes (XiY, XiXi, or
XiXs) is selected against, then the frequency of Xi is
expected to increase to 100%, unless other genes act
to suppress expression of e and f.
108. Which of the following statements best explains

why Xi has the potential to increase to 100%
frequency in gene pools that contain it?
A) XiXs flies have the highest fitness of any genotype.
B) XiXi flies tend to migrate and introduce the Xi
chromosome into new populations.
C) XiXi flies pass X chromosomes to all their
offspring, but XsXs flies pass their X chromosomes
to only half their offspring.
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D) XiY flies pass their X chromosome to all their

offspring, but XsY flies pass their X chromosome
to only half their offspring.
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Occasionally, XiY males sire viable but sterile sons of

normal appearance. Genetic analyses show that all
these sons are XO, inheriting their X chromosome
from their mother and lacking a Y chromosome.
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106. If the e and f genes are expressed, the Xi

chromosome will be prevented from reaching
100% frequency if selection pressures cause
which of the following to be true?
109. In a laboratory population of Drosophila, all the

males are XsY. Among the females, 15% are
XiXi, 50% are XiXs, and 35% are XsXs.
Assuming random mating, what proportion of
male flies in the next generation will be XiY?
A) 12%
A) XsXs flies have the lowest fitness of any genotype.
B) 30%
B) XsXs flies have the highest fitness of any genotype.
C) 40%
C) XiY flies and XsY flies have equal fitness.
D) 65%
D) XiXs flies and XsXs flies have equal fitness.
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110. If all genotypes are equally fit and if there are

no genetic modifiers of the sex ratio trait, what
will be the ultimate fate of a population in
which 50% of the X chromosomes are currently
Xi and 50% are Xs?
A) Extinction
B) Stable population size, with a predominance of
females
C) Stable population size, with all individuals
producing a 50:50 sex ratio
D) Stable population size, with some individuals
producing an excess of females and some
producing an excess of males
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Passage XX
Step 2:
Bone remodeling (involving the opposing

processes of bone deposition and resorption) is
regulated by several factors, including the
homeostasis of Ca2+ concentrations in the bone cells
and in their extracellular environment. Ca2+
concentrations in turn are partially controlled by the
levels of 2 hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH)
and calcitonin.
Different concentrations of Ca2+ were present in

the media bathing the cells. A standardized amount of
ultra-violet (UV) light was continuously transmitted
to the cell cultures at all concentrations.
Two major kinds of bone cells are involved in

bone remodeling: osteoblasts, which are responsible
for forming new bone tissue during growth and repair,
and osteoclasts, which are active during bone
resorption. Mature bone cells, or osteocytes, are
osteoblasts that have lost their ability to produce new
bone tissue, and therefore are not involved in bone
remodeling.
Experiments have shown that PTH binds to
receptors on the plasma membrane of osteoclasts,
triggering a series of reactions that lead to a transient
increase in the intracellular concentration of free Ca2+
ions. The experiments also show that the increase in
intracellular free Ca2+ concentration is strongly
correlated with stimulation of bone resorption. This
indicates that PTH release increases the rate of bone
remodeling. Conversely, calcitonin decreases the rate
of bone remodeling by inhibiting bone resorption and
promoting bone deposition.
Result:
The cells emitted light continuously, with an
intensity proportional to their intracellular free Ca2+
concentrations.
Step 3:
PTH was then added to the media.
Result:
The intensity of the light emitted by the cells
increased, even in the absence of Ca2+ in the media
bathing the cells.
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Experiment 2 was identical to Experiment 1

except that calcitonin was added instead of PTH. The
intensity of the light emitted by the cells increased
rapidly at first, then slowly decreased.
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To study the effects of PTH and calcitonin on

intracellular free Ca2+ concentrations, changes in Ca2+
concentrations in living osteoclasts were measured.
Several tetracarboxylate compounds that fluoresce
(absorb radiation from ultraviolet light and emit it at a
wavelength different from the incident light) in the
presence of free Ca2+ ions were used as Ca2+
indicators. The indicator compounds are esterified
before use, allowing them to enter cells more easily.
111. Which of the following would NOT be a reason

for continuous remodeling of bone in healthy
adults?
A) To adjust the strength of the bones in response to
stress
B) To increase the total mass of bone in the body
C) To heal bone injuries, such as fractures
D) To prevent the bones from becoming brittle
Experiment 1 proceeded as follows:

Step 1:
Osteoclasts were suspended in media containing
an esterified indicator and placed in a light-proof
chamber.
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112. In Experiment 2, the intensity of emitted light

changed when calcitonin was added because
calcitonin causes:
A) osteoclasts to absorb more UV light.
B) osteoclasts to absorb less UV light.
C) Ca2+ in the medium to emit light.
D) the intracellular concentration of free Ca2+ to
change.
113. An advantage of adding the tetracarboxylate
indicators in esterified forms to cell suspensions
is that esterification renders carboxylates:
114. In Experiment 1, how was the location of Ca2+

most likely changed by the addition of PTH?
A) It moved into the osteoclast cytoplasm from the
extracellular medium.
B) It moved into the osteoclast cytoplasm from
intracellular membranes and organelles.
C) It moved out of the osteoclast cytoplasm and into
the extracellular medium.
D) It moved out of the membranes and organelles of
the osteoclasts and into the extracellular medium.
A) more polar, so they can enter the cell membrane

more easily.
B) more polar, increasing their permeability in lipids.
C) less polar, so they can dissolve into solution more
easily.
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D) less polar, so they are more lipophilic.
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Document # 8524010
Passage XXI
Humans in hot, dry environments regulate their
body temperatures by circulatory adjustment
(vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels) and
evaporative cooling (increased sweat gland
secretions). However, during severe heat stress and
dehydration, temperature regulatory mechanisms
(particularly sweating) may upset physiological
homeostasis.
Excessive sweating may upset homeostasis by
impairing water and salt regulation. During
dehydration, the kidneys may reduce their urinary
output from the normal level of 1.0-1.5 L H2O/day to
as little as 0.5 L H2O/day, and renal salt excretion
may decline to near zero. Excessive sweating also
reduces the volume of blood available for delivering
O2 to the internal body tissues.
Vertebrates that have evolved in deserts are better
adapted than humans for maintaining homeostasis in
hot, dry environments. When severely dehydrated,
humans can produce urine that is 4 times as
concentrated as plasma. However, camels can more
than double, and kangaroo rats can more than triple,
the urine-concentrating capacity of humans. Reptiles,
which lack sweat glands, maintain homeostasis by
means of lower metabolic rates and scaly, relatively
impermeable integuments.
115. When the environmental temperature is 33 C,

vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels helps to
regulate the body temperature of a human by:
A) slowing blood flow through the skin.
B) maintaining an even distribution of heat
throughout the body.
C) radiating excess body heat into the environment.
D) preventing needed body heat from being lost to the
environment.
116. When the environmental temperature is 45 C,
which of the following organisms will have the
highest body temperature?
A) Human
B) Kangaroo rat
C) Camel
D) Lizard
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117. Kidney failure during severe dehydration is

most likely due to:
A) inadequate blood volume for effective filtration.
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B) inability to produce sufficient urine.
C) buildup of salts in the distal tubules.

D) increased body temperature.
118. People who are born without sweat glands are

likely to die of heat stroke in the tropics. This
indicates that, under tropical conditions, the
human body may:
A) gain, rather than lose, heat by evaporation.
B) gain, rather than lose, heat by radiation.
C) need to use different mechanisms than in
temperate zones to maintain body temperature.
D) be better able to regulate body temperature than
under temperate conditions.
Page 51 of 58
Document # 8524010
Passage XXII
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a unicellular fungus that has both a haploid and a diploid phase. Cells in the
haploid phase divide by mitosis. When 2 haploid cells of opposite mating type fuse, they form a diploid cell
that can also divide by mitosis. Under certain environmental conditions, a diploid cell will undergo meiosis to
produce 4 haploid cells. The following experiments were conducted to investigate 2 temperature-sensitive
mutations (M1 and M2). These mutants replicated normally at 20 C, but did not replicate at 35 C.
Experiment 1
In order to determine the effect of the mutations the researchers grew cells at 20 C and 35 C in the
presence of radioactive precursors that could be incorporated into RNA or protein. The amounts of radioactive
RNA and protein that accumulated in cells incubated at the 2 temperatures were monitored. The graphs in
Figure 1 summarize the results for the temperature-sensitive strains and the wild-type strain (+).
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Document # 8524010
Figure 1
Experiment 2
Haploid wild-type cells were fused with haploid M1 mutant cells; the phenotype of the resulting diploid
cells (M1/+) was wild-type. Similarly, the fusion of a haploid wild-type and a haploid M2 mutant cell resulted
in wild-type phenotype.
Experiment 3
Haploid cells containing the M1 mutation were fused to haploid cells containing the M2 mutation. The
resulting diploid cells (M1 +/+ M2) exhibited the wild-type phenotype. When these diploid cells were induced
to undergo meiosis, 1,000 haploid cells were produced. A random selection of 200 of these cells revealed that
152 haploid cells exhibited the mutant phenotype, and 48 haploid cells exhibited the wild-type phenotype.
119. Which of the following results could support the
hypothesis that the M1 mutation affects a
different gene product than does the M2
mutation?
A) Neither the M1 nor the M2 mutant incorporated
radioactive protein when grown at 35 C.
B) The M1 +/+ M2 diploid has a wild-type
phenotype.
121. Based on the information in Figure 1, a student

concluded that the wild-type cells synthesized
more RNA at 35 C that at 20 C. Which of the
following assumptions must be true for this
conclusion to be valid?
A) The ratio of labeled to unlabeled RNA precursors
is the same at both temperatures.
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B) The amount of protein in the cells is the same at

both temperatures.
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C) The M1 mutation reverts to + at a different rate

than the M2 mutant reverts to +.
D) The M1 mutation is found at a different frequency

in natural populations than is the M2 mutation.
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120. What information would be necessary to

determine if the M2 mutation is recessive to the
wild-type allele?
A) The frequency of the M2 mutation in an untreated
culture
C) The degradation of RNA is slower at 35 C than at

20 C.
D) The number of DNA molecules is greater at 35 C
than at 20 C.
122. If the M1 mutation is produced by a change in a

single gene, the expected phenotype ratio for the
diploids (M1/+) products of meiosis would be:
A) 4 wild-type:0 mutant.
B) The ratio of wild-type to M2 mutants in an

untreated culture
B) 3 wild-type:1 mutant.
C) The phenotype of the M2/+ diploid
D) 1 wild-type:3 mutant.
C) 2 wild-type:2 mutant.
D) The location of the M2 mutation on the

chromosomes
Page 53 of 58
Document # 8524010

123. Suppose that an extract from a muscle cell

contains only the following: all the enzymes of
the glycolytic pathway, including the enzyme
that converts pyruvate to lactate; phosphate and
other salts; NAD+and ADP. When the extract is
incubated anaerobically and glucose is
introduced, neither pyruvate nor lactate is
produced. What must be added in order for
pyruvate to be made?
A) O2
125. In the human "knee-jerk" reflex, the knee is

struck and the lower leg jerks forward. Which of
the following represents the complete pathway
that the nerve impulse travels in effecting this
response?
A) Sensory neuron, motor neuron
B) Sensory neuron, brain, motor neuron
C) Sensory neuron, associative neuron, brain,
associative neuron, motor neuron
D) Sensory neuron, associative neuron, motor neuron,
associative neuron, motor neuron
B) ATP
126. Which of the following hormones is LEAST

directly regulated by the anterior pituitary?
C) NADH
A) Cortisone
D) Acetyl-coenzyme A
B) Epinephrine
124. What is the net volume of fresh air that enters

the alveoli each minute, assuming that the
breathing rate is 10 breaths/min, the tidal
volume is 800 mL/breath, and the nonalveolar
respiratory system volume (dead space) is 150
mL?
N
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C) 6500 mL
D) 7850 mL
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D) Thyroxin
127. Which of the following structures is derived

from the same germ cell layer as the heart?
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A) 65 mL
B) 95 mL
C) Progesterone
A) Eye
B) Bone
C) Spinal cord
D) Liver
128. The mineral component of human bone is a salt

that consists primarily of all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) calcium.
B) phosphate.
C) potassium.
D) hydroxyl groups.
Page 54 of 58
Document # 8524010
Post-test Confidence Self-Assessment

Congratulations!
You have completed a test of The Official MCAT Self-Assessment Package.
Now that you have completed the test, reconsider your confidence rating of your knowledge of the content in
this test. Has your confidence level changed after answering the questions? Why might this be? Both your initial
and revised confidence ranking for each content category will be displayed in the analytic summary.
Test/Content
Categories
A=1-Not
Confident at
all
B=2Somewhat
Confident
C=3Moderately
Confident
D=4-Very
Confident
E=5Extremely
Confident
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1. Biology Overall
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2. Circulatory,
Lymphatic, and
Immune Systems
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3. Digestive and
Excretory Systems
4. DNA and Protein
Synthesis
5. Enzymes and
Cellular Metabolism
6. Evolution
7. Generalized
Eukaryotic Cell
8. Genetics
Page 55 of 58
Document # 8524010
9. Microbiology
10. Muscle and Skeletal
Systems
11. Nervous and
Endocrine Systems
12. Respiratory System
13. Reproductive
System and
Development
14. Specialized
Eukaryotic Cells
and Tissues
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15. Skin System

16. Eukaryotes
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Document # 8524010
Pre-test Confidence SelfAssessment

1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
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15 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Biology Questions
1 (A) (B) (C)
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Document # 8524010
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Post-test Confidence SelfAssessment

1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
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Page 58 of 58

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Post-test Confidence Self-Assessment

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15. Skin System

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Periodic Table of the Elements

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Biological Sciences Self-Assessment: Biology Test

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1. The one aspect of ectopic pregnancy common to

3. From 4% to 10% of all maternal deaths in the

Another factor associated with the development

A) severe hormonal imbalance.

B) loss of blood when the fallopian tube ruptures.

D) inadequate nutrition due to fetal use of maternal

4. Delayed ovulation, as a cause of tubal

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5. According to the passage, what is the most

C) Zileuton, an inhibitor of leukotriene synthesis.

7. A person suffering an asthmatic attack often has

A) No effect, because bronchial smooth muscle is not

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8. Leukotrienes are potent chemoattractants. What

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9. What type or class of chemical messenger

D) How the environment and behavior influence body

Settling Point Hypothesis

11. Which hypothesis implies that a person can

A) The set point hypothesis because a thermostat can

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12. One type of metabolic feedback loop that

13. Which gene would produce a product that acts

A) db because it encodes a hormone specific to fat

B) db because it encodes a hormone receptor

C) ob because it encodes a hormone

D) ob because it encodes a protein specific to fat cells

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14. In Group 3, the response of Patient A can best be

The runny nose associated with common colds is

A) not associated with the treatment.

Eighteen subjects with severe common colds, whose

Table 1 Self-Reported Symptoms 4 Hours after

17. Based on the passage, which drug treatment

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These questions are not based on a descriptive

18. Which of the following describes a primary

21. A hiker becomes lost and has no drinking water

23. The posttranslational modification of some of the

20. A sequence near the 3' end of bacterial 16S