COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING MASTERY TEST 1

Name: __________________________________________
______________

Section: _______________________ Score:

INSTRUCTION: Select the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by shading the box the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice. Strictly no erasures allowed.
1. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body
and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent

C. Environment
D. Carrier

2. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

A. Carrier
B. Contact

C. Agent
D. Host

3. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not
the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant

C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave

4. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving

C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis

5. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and
symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period

C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

6. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another
child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period

C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

7. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he
still hasnt developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious
process does this man belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period

C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

8. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to
prevent spread of infection and diseases

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A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry

C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission

9. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1

C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

10. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of
primary Encephalitis. You correctly answered him that primary Encephalitis is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission

C. Air borne transmission

D. Vector borne transmission

11. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to the other
clients or health care providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the
following?
A. Eliminate the reservoir
C. Block the portal of entry in the host
B. Block the portal of exit form the
D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host
reservoir
12. the most effective nursing action for controlling the spread of infection includes which of the
following:
A. Thorough handwashing
B. Wearing gloves and mask when providing direct care
C. Implementing the appropriate isolation technique
D. Administering broad spectrum prophylactic antibiotics
13. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually
projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission

C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

14. When caring for a single client during one shift, it is appropriate for the nurse to reuse which
of the following personal protective equipments?
A. Goggles
C. Surgical mask
B. Gown
D. Clean Gloves
15. As a nurse, you are aware that apatient with leprosy can transmit the disease through:
A. Prolonged skin to skin contact
B. Droplet
C. A only
D. Both A and B
16. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked
you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus
toxoid immunization is a/an

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A. Natural active immunity

B. Natural passive immunity

C. Artificial active immunity

D. Artificial passive immunity

17. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She
suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you,
What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity

C. Artificial active immunity

D. Artificial passive immunity

18. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting

C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing

19. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. Time
B. Friction

C. Water
D. Soap

20. To decrease the prevalence rate of leprosy, nationwide implementation of this program is
emphasized in our country. Since then, the treatment of leprosy has shifted from institutional
care to that of home treatment.
A. Anti-drug therapy
B. Leprosy anti therapy
C. Continual Drug therapy
D. Multi-Drug therapy
21. Aling Janine was diagnosed of Paucibacillary leprosy. What is drug of choice for day 2-28?
A. Rifampicin
B. Dapsone
C. Stretomycin
D. INH
22. Aling Janine is asking for the causative agent for leprosy. The nurse is correct when she
replied:
A. Mycobacterium leprosarium
B. Clostridium leprae
C. Neisseria leprae
D. Mycobacterium leprae
23. All are early signs of leprosy, except:
A. Change in skin color
B. Loss of sensation
C. Madarosis
D. Anhidrosis
MALARIA is a mosquito-borne infection which continues to be a major health in our
country.
24. Malaria is produced by the intraerythrocytic parasites of the genus plasmodium. The
following are the plasmodia which produce malaria in humans, EXCEPT.
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
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C. P. anchylostoma
D. P. ovale
E.
25.Preventive measures ideal for malaria control are the ff.:
1. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
2. Mosquito repellant especially at 9p-3a
3. Destruction of breeding places
4. Zooprophylaxis
F.
A. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above
E.
F. 26. The triad symptoms of malaria are the following, except:
A. Fever
C. Headache
B. Sweating
D. Chills
E.
F. 27. Malaria is endemic in the following areas, except:
G. A. Quezon city
I. C. Tawi-tawi
H. B. Palawan
J. D. Kalinga Apayao
K.
L. 28. To confirm the presence of the disease in a victim, she should be subjected to:
A. Urine exam
C. Blood smear
B. Stool analysis
D. Sputum culture
E.
F. 29. Part of malaria control in an endemic area are the following except:
A. Use of mosquito repellant
B. Propagating tilapia in fish ponds
C. Planting eucalyptus tree
D. Destroy fishes in ponds
G.
H. Schistosomiasis is a tropical disease with high prevalence in
Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte and Davao. This is not only a public health
problem; it also has socio-economic effects in supposedly high
productive areas.
I.
J. 30. The parasite, a tiny blood fluke is transmitted by which of the following
hosts?
K. A. Rat
M. C. Snail
L. B. Dog
N. D. Humans
O.
P. 31. The diagnostic examination done to detect this disease is?
A. CBC
C. Bladder ultrasound
B. Urine test
D. Fecalysis
E.
F. 32. The PHN should watch for signs and symptoms of Schistosomiasis. The following
should be observed in an infected client, except:
A. Anemia
C. Abdominal enlargement
B. Diarrhea
D. Body weakness
E.
F. 33. Schistosomiasis can be controlled by observing the following:
1. Building of foot bridges
2. Wearing of boots by farmers and fishermen
3. Using of sanitary toilets
4. Clearing investigation
A. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
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E.
F. 34. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he
stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
G. A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection

C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection

H.
I. 35. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
J.
K. 36. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and
every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as small as 1 micro millimeter
L.
M. 37. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
N. A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan

C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan

O.
P. 38. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
Q.
R. 39. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
S. A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution

C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

T.
U. 40. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
V. A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution

C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

W.
X. 41. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
Y. A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
Z.
AA.

C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

42. Largest worm that can cause obstruction of the GI Tract?

AB.
A. Ascaris
D. Schistosoma
B. Pinworm
C. Hookworm
AC.
AD.
43. Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB?

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AE.
A. Hematemesis
B. Fever for 1 week

C. Cough for 3 weeks

D. Chest pain for 1 week

AF.
AG.
44. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS Category I?
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after a default
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam
AH.
AI. 45. If tetanus remains localized, signs of onset are:
AJ. A. Decreased muscle tone in the wound and spasm
AK.
B. Decreased muscle tone around the wound and spasm
AL.C. Increased muscle tone and spasm around the wound
AM.
D. Increased muscle tone in the wound
AN.
AO.
46. Arching and rigidity of the tetanus is:
AP. A. Opisthotonus
AQ.
B. Risus Sardonicus
AR.
C. Trismus
AS.
D. Bells Palsy
AT.
AU.
47. Diazepam is given to the patient with tetanus which acts by:
AV. A. Muscle relaxant
AW.
B. Antibiotic
AX.
C. Antitoxin
AY. D. All of the above
AZ.
48. Mode of transmission of Tetanus is:
BA.
A. Droplet
BB.
B. Sexual Contact
BC.
C. Wound Puncture
BD.
D. All of the above
BE.
BF. 49. What is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
A. Use of molluscicides
B. Building of foot bridges
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
BG.
50. When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the neighborhood, the level of
this approved type of water facility is
BH.
B. II
C. III

A. I

D. IV

BI.
BJ. 51. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education activities. Which of
the following is IRRELEVANT?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections

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BK.
52. Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be
stored in the freezer?
BL.A. DPT
D. MMR
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Measles vaccine
BM.
BN.
53. Measles are spread and enters the body through the:
BO.
A. Upper Genitourinary tract
BP.
B. Lower Respiratory tract
BQ.
C. Upper Respiratory tract
BR.
D. Wound Puncture
BS.
BT. 54. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, severe conditions generally require urgent
referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require
urgent referral to a hospital?
BU.
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia

D. Severe febrile disease

BV.
BW. 55. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary
refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many
seconds?
BX.
B. 5
C. 8

A. 3

D. 10

BY.
BZ.
56. The Department of Health advocates the CLEAN Program. Which is not included in the
program?
CA.
A. Chemically treated mosquito net using Penicillin
CB.
B. Larvivarous fishes
CC.
C. Environmental Sanitation
CD.
D. Anti-mosquito soap with Basil
CE.
57. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Kopliks spot. You may see Kopliks spot by
inspecting the _____.
CF. A. Nasal mucosa
D. Skin on the antecubital surface
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Skin on the abdomen
CG.
CH.
58. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
CI. A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria

D. Measles

CJ.
CK.
59. In the Philippines, the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which
microorganism?
CL.A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Mycobacterium tubeculosis
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C. Steptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
CM.
CN.
60. In the Philippines, the most severe form of meningitis is caused by which
microorganism?
CO.
A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Mycobacterium tubeculosis
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae

D. Neisseria meningitidis

CP.
CQ. 61. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis for which strategy of malaria
control?
CR.
A. Stream seeding
D. Zooprophylaxis
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
CS.
CT. 62. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito control
measures. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control?
A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector
D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or citronella
CU.
63. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe
diarrhea and the passage of rice water stools. The client is most probably suffering from
which condition?
CV.A. Giardiasis
D. Dysentery
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis
CW.
CX.
64. In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma is endemic in certain regions?
CY. A. S. mansoni
D. S. haematobium
B. S. japonicum
C. S. malayensis
CZ.
DA.
65. A 32-year old client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint
of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week
after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed
that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on his
history, which disease condition will you suspect?
DB.
A. Hepatitis A
D. Leptospirosis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
DC.
DD. 66. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro Manila. This is an example of
which level of water facility?
DE.
B. II
C. III

A. I

D. IV

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DF.
DG. 67. You are the PHN in the city health center. A client underwent screening for AIDS using
ELISA. His result was positive. What is the best course of action that you may take?
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the practice of high risk behaviors.
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant person before revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best person to reveal the result to the
client.
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot, since the ELISA result may
be false.
DH. 68. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using of spermicidal during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that ones sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS
DI. 69. The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases.
This of the following is the causative organism for AIDS-related pneumonia.
DJ. A. Respiratory candidiasis
D. Pneumocystis carinii
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus
DK.
DL.
70. To determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST
method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
DM.
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview of suspects
DN. 71. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in the management of AIDS. Which of the
following is NOT an action expected of these drugs.
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS.
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease.
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition.
DO. 72. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is
the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the
barangay?
A. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
DP. 73. You were invited to be the resource person in a training class for food handlers. Which of
the following would you emphasize regarding prevention of food-borne infections?
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly washed.
B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy staphylococcal microorganisms.
C. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative stool examination result.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition.
DQ. 74. In a mothers class, you discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of
the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
A. Chicken pox is caused by a bacteria
DR.
B. Treatment for chicken pox is Nystatin
DS.
C. Treatment includes Zovirax
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A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
A.
B.

DT.
D. Chicken pox is caused by protozoan
DU. 75. Complications to infectious parotitis (mumps) may be serious in which type of clients?
A. Pregnant women
B. Elderly clients
C. Young adult males
D. Young infants
DV.76. Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever primarily affects;
DW.
A. capillaries
DX.
B. Lymph nodes
DY. C. Lymph Vessels
DZ.
D. RBC
EA.
EB.
77. Before discontinuing airborne precautions for a client with
pulmonary tuberculosis, the nurse must determine that:
A. The tuberculin skin test is negative
B. The client no longer has a disease
C. No acid-fast bacteria are in the sputum
D. The clients temperature has returned to normal
EC.
ED.
78. A client should be referred to the pulmonary clinic for suspected
tuberculosis when the nurse takes a medical history that includes
complaints of:
Chest pain, increased cough, and weight gain
Weight gain, increased cough and Hemoptysis
Unexplained weight loss, nausea and vomiting
Increased cough, Hemoptysis, and night sweats
EE.
EF. 79. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes:
Preventing constipation
Screening of blood donors
Avoiding shellfish in the diet
Limiting hepatotoxic drug therapy
EG.
EH.
80. When caring for a client with hepatitis A, the nurse should take
special precautions to:
Prevent droplets spread of infection
Use caution when bringing food to the client
Use gloves when removing the clients bed pan
Wear mask and gown before entering the room
EI.
EJ. 81. The oral drug that is most likely to be prescribed for treatment of
Trichomonas vaglnalia is:
Penicillin
Nystatin (Mycostatin)
Gentian violet
D.
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
E.
F. 82. Syphilis is not considered contagious in the:
tertiary stage
incubation stage
primary stage
D.
secondary stage
E.
F. 83. A viral disease caused by one of the smallest human viruses that infect the
motor cells of the interior horn of the spinal cord is:
A. rubella
C. chickenpox
B. rubeola
D. poliomyelitis
E.
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A.
B.

A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.

A.
B.

A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
E.

A.
B.

A.
B.

A.
B.

A.

F. 84. When teaching parents at the school communicable diseases, the nurse
reminds them that these diseases are serious and that encephalitis can be a
complication of:
pertussis
tetanus
chickenpox
D.
tuberculosis
E.
F. 85. A mother asks the nurse how to tell the difference between measles (rubeola)
and German measles (rubella). The nurse tells the mother that with rubeola, the
child has:
A high fever and Kopliks spot
A rash on the trunk with pruritus
Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps
Symptoms similar to a cold, followed by a rash
G.
H. 86. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving:
Insulin
Antibiotics
Steroids
D.
Anticonvulsant
E.
F. 87. A viral infection characterized by red, blotchy rash and Kopliks spots in the
mouth is:
Mumps
Rubeola
Rubella
D.
Chickenpox
E.
F. 88. A viral disease that begins with respiratory inflammation and skin rash and may
progress to shingles is:
Rubella
Yellow fever
Rubeola
D.
Chickenpox
E.
F. 89. Under certain circumstances that virus that causes chickenpox can also cause:
Athletes foot
German measles
Herpes zoster
D.
Infectious hepatitis
E.
F. 90. Which of the following symptoms is common in client with active tuberculosis?
Weight loss
Anemia
Increased appetite
D.
Mental status changes
F. 91. The nurse obtains a sputum specimen from a client with suspected tuberculosis
for laboratory study. Which of the following laboratory techniques is most
commonly used to identify tubercle bacilli sputum?
Acid-fast staining
Agglutination testing
Sensitivity testing
D.
Dark-field illumination
E.
F. 92. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis drugs can cause damage to the eight
cranial nerves?
Streptomycin
Para-aminosalicylic acid (PAS)
Isoniazid (INH)
D.
Ethambutol HCL (Myambutol)
E.
F. 93. The client who experiences eight cranial nerves damage will most likely report
which of the following symptoms?
Vertigo
Impaired vision
Facial paralysis
D.
Eating utensils
E.
F. 94. When caring for a client with an impaired immune system, the nurse recognizes
that the blood protein involved is:
Albumin
Globulin
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C.
A.
B.

A.
B.

Thrombin

D.
Hemoglobin
E.
F. 95. Antibodies are produced by:
Eosinophils
Erythrocytes
Plasmacells
D.
Lymphocytes
E.
F. 96. The pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever is:
G.
A. Risus Sardonicus
H.
B. Rose spots
I.
C. Forscchiemers spots
J.
D. Koplicks spots
K.
L. 97. Black water fever occurs in some clients with malaria, therefore, the nurse
should observe a client with chronic malaria for:
Diarrhea
Low-grade fever
Dark red urine
D.
Coffee ground emesis

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A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.
F. 98. When a trauma victim expresses fear that AIDS may develop as a result of a
blood transfusion, the nurse should explain that:
Blood is treated with radiation to kill the virus
Screening for HIV antibodies has minimized this risk
The ability to directly identify HIV has eliminated this concern
Consideration should be given to donating own blood for transfusion
G.
H. 99. The PHNs assessment revealed that L.Q.s illness begun with body malaise,
followed by chills and rapidly rising temperature. This is a case of:
dengue fever
influenza
malaria
mud fever
I. 100. Risus sardonicus, trismus and rigidity of the abdominal muscles is pathogenic
of:
mumps
influenza
poliomyelitis
tetanus