ft::i

{
I

Contenfs
ANATOMY

1-9

Questions.

10-49

"

Answets ruith ExPlanations "

PHYSIOLOGY
Questions.
Answers with ExPlanations "

'

50-60
6L-95

"

BIOCHEMISTRY

PATHOLOGY

1'17

- 126

"""'727

-1'75

""

Questtotrs..
AnswerswithExplanations"
MICROBIOLOGY

I/b :.- r6t

Questions..
Answers with ExPlanations ..

PARASITOLOGY
AnswerstoithExplanations

"'

"'"'';'-

PHARMACOLOGY

Questions.
AnswerswithExplanations

""""'

Questions...
Ansuters with ExPlanations''

PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE

Questions....

........

EA& NOSE AND THROAT (ENT)

Questions...
Answers utith Exqlanations

OPHTHALMOLOGY
Questians ".

Answerc...

"

""""""':"

183

214

- 21'5

21.3

""""2L6 - 22L
- 233
"'234 - 286

""'

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

Answers with Erplanations

'

I lt)

1,01"

Answers with ErPlanattons ..

Questions...

1.00

96

Questions. . '

222

287
290

302
31.5

- 314
- 367

368

369

370

377

289

- 301.

378

387

3SS'- 432

Contents

GENERAL MEDICINE

.-.:

Questions.
..

AnstpersrcithExplanatiotts

....,..

_ 446 ,
447 _ S0g
433

GENERAL SURGERY

Questions.
..

Atrsuters with Explanations

570

..........-S2S

_
_

524
605

ORTHOPAEDICS

Questions..
..

.......606 _
...... 677 -

..

.......
.......

650

..

.....:. 651 _
.....657 _

679

..

.....
......

_
_
6g3

696

Anszpers with Explanations

670
634

PAEDIATRICS

Questions.
Answers with Explanations

635
63g

637

OBSTETRICS

euestions.
AnswerswithExplanatiotts

656

GYNAECOLOGY

Questions.
Ansuters utith Explanations

680

6g2

DERMATOLOGY
Questions....
Ansuters with Exptlanations ...

697
700

699
772

ANAESTHESIA
Questions....
Answers with Explanations ..

/rJ - /t+
/tJ

- /ll

722

- 723
- 732

PSYCHIATRY
Questions..
Answers rnith Erplanations ...

"

724

RADIODIAGNOSIS
Questions..
Anszuers with

733

E*lanations

..

RADIOTHERAPY

Questions..
Answers zuith Explanations ..

SEPTEMBER

735

"....742

- 734
- 747
_

743

742

748

2O1O

Questiorts...

749

Answ ers utith Explanations

764

763
796

AN,ATOMY (Questions)
EMBRYOLOCY

1. Umbilical cord contains:

a. 2 arteries and 2 veins

Septenfuer 2AA5

b. 1 artery and 2 .reins

c. 1 artery and 1 vein
d. 2 arteries and I vein
2. Ligamentum arteriosum is derived from: March 2005
a. Ducfus arteriosus
b. Ducfus venoslls
c. Ducfus utriculosaccularis
d. Ductr.rs reunions
3. Arch of aorta develops from:
SeTttemher 2006
a. Itight fr>r,rrth aortic arch arterv
b. Left thirci aortic arch artery
c. Left fourth aortic arch artery
d. Right third aortic arch arterv
4. Lens is derived from:
March 2007. Septenber2}11
a. Endoderm
b. Surface ectoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. None of the above
5. Fate of notochord is:
Septentber 2008
a. Annulus fibrosis
b. Nucieus pulposus
c. Vertebral foramen
d. Spinous process
5. Trigone of urinary bladder develops from: March 2009
a. Mesoderm
b. Ectoderm

c.
d"

Endoderm of urachus
None of the above

7. In the adult

9. True diverticulum is:

a. Zenker's diverticr.rlum
b. Meckel's diverticr-rlum
c. Duodenal diverticulum
d. Bladder diverticulum
HISTOLOGY
10.

8. Which part of the

a. Auricle
b. Tvmpanic membrane
c" C)ssicles
d. Middle ear car.ity

Septenfuer 2005

Nonkeratinizecl Stratilied Squamous epiti-relirrm

Kr..r.rtin i zcd Strirti fied bquamous epithetium

c. Columnar ceils

d. Cuboidal cpitheliutt
11. Gland of Brunrrer's is

a. Jejunum
b. Duodenum

c. Iieum

found in:

Seytttmber 2005

d. All
12.

Not a layer of retina:

a.
b.
c.
d.
13.

September 2007

Outer limiting membrane

Retinal pigment epithelium
Bowman's membrane
Ganglion cell layer

True about cardiac muscles are all except:

Septenfuer 2007, Septtemlter 20L0

a. Propertl'of spontaneons and rhythmic contraction

b. Cardiac mnscle exhibits cross striations
c. Cardiac r.uscle celis are linear and longitudinal.
d. Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nen.e
fibers
14. Simple cuboidal

a.
b.

epithelium is seen in:

Septenrber 2006

Skin
Trachea

c. Oesophagus

March 2009

d. Thyroifl

15.

g|6p4
Hassal's corpuscles are seen in:
a. Thymus

Septenber 2009

b. Spleen
c. Bone marrow
d. Lymph node

ear has origin from all the three

layers of germ layer:

Mucous membrane of vagina is lined by:

a,
b.

heart, floor of fossa ovalis represents:

a. Septum intermedium
b. Septum primum
c. Septum spurium
d. Septum secundum

March 2010

Mnrch 2070
16.

Blood testes barrier is formed by

a. Levdig cells

b. Sertoli cells
c. Cerm ceils
d. A11 of the iibtnre'

the:

ScTttember 2009

Anatomy

.::1 :':4:

'1.:

i. i
,

t,,tij,f:l::r:d:iri
: r :L:

17"

Fenestrated capillaries are found in all except

:l;li'i':i::i

a.
b.
c.
d.

,,

'-:.'

.- ,l;-.:'
.

25. Structures piercing clavipectoral fascia are all except:

Septenfuer 2007

September 2009

:r,.lnlii;.:.'';..!.11

,l

18.

Intestinal

villi

Pancreas

Muscle

Goblet cells are not seen in:

a.
b.

i.r

Renal glomeruli

September 2009

a. Cephalic vein
b. Thoracoacromial artery
c. Lateral pectoral nerve
d. Basilic vein
26. All of the following muscles of the pectoral girdle are
innervated by branches from the brachial plexus:

Colon

except:

Trachea

a.
b.
c.
d.

c. Conjunctiva

d.

Esophagus

SUPERIOR EXTREMITY
19.

Root value of the Radial nerve

a.

is:

Septentbu 2005

20.

27. Nerwe

Which of the following is an artery of the forearm:

=
o

21.

d.
22.

Clavicle

Labourers nerve is another name for which nerve:

a. Median nerve
b. Iladial nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Axillarv nerve
Nerve roots involved in Erb's

palsy:

September 2009

C5,C6,C7,C8,T1

Partial Claw hand is due to:

Mnrch 2009

a. Costoclavicularligament
b. Coracoclavicular ligament
c. Coracoacromial ligament
d. Coracohumeral ligament
30. Nerve lying in the spiral groove of humerus is:
a. Musculocutaneous nerve
September 2009
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Median nerve
31. The order of neurovascular bundle

c. C7,C8,T1
24.

The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the

THORAX

a. C5, C6
b. c6,c7
d.

Septentber 2009

trunk:

March 2007

23.

n*lrve

a. Ulnar nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar artery
29.

Insertion of pectoralis major is at:

September 2006
a. Lateral lip of bicipital groove of humerus
b. Medial lip of bicipital groove of humerus
c. In the bicipital groove of humerus

March 20A9

28. Structure passing deep to .lexor retinaculum at wrist:

September 2006

a. Brachial artery
b. Axillary artery
c. Uhar artery
d. Femoral artery

supply to hypothenar muscles is from

a. Ulnar nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Musculocutaneous

C5,C6

b. c5,c6,c7
c. C5,C6,C7,C8
d. c5,c6,c7,c9,T1,

March 2008

Subclavius
Serratus anterior
Rhomboid major
Trapezius

in the intercostal

space from above downwards is:-

March 2005

a. VAN
b. ANV
c. AVN
d. VNA
32. Inhaled forgein body usually lodges

September 2007

in the:
September 2007

a. Radial nerve injury

b. Ulnar nerve injury

a.
b.

c. Median nerve injury

d. Axillarv rrerve injurl'

c.
d.

Apex of right lung

Lorver lobe of right lung
Apex of left lung
Lower lobe of left lung

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

33. Normal

September 2005

a. 50 ml
b. 100 ml

c.

l5u nu

d.

200

ml

34. Right common carotid artery arises from:

SePtertuer 2005

a. Right axillary artery

b. Arch of aorta
c. Brachioceplralic arterl'
d. Left subclavian arterv
35. Bifurcation of trachea is at

which level:
Septenfuet 2006

a. Opposite
b. Opposite
c. Opposite
d. Opposite
36. Branches of

tirer disc betr,r,een the T3-T4

'rettebrae

the disc betr.r'een the T5-T6 r,ertebrae

the disc betu'een the T6-T7 vertebrae
the disc betrveen the T7-T8 r'ertebrae
Septenrber 2006

a. Anterior interventricularbranch
b. Left diagonal artery
c. Left atrial artery
d. Posterior interventricularbranch
37. True about arch of aorta are

March 2007

a.
b.

Retrosternal
Posterior and left
c. Posterior and right
d. Ct:ntral
42. lVhich of the following does not drain into coronary
,\hrclt 2009
slnus:
a. .Antclit'r cartiiac vr'irr
b. Small cardiac vein

c.
d.

Middle cardiac vein

Great cardiac vein
43. True about Thoracic part ol syrnpathetic trunk:

all of the following

stemi
Right common carotid artery arises from the arch of
aorta

c. It

ends at the sternal end of the left second costal

cartilage
Begining and end of the arch lies at same levei

38. Structures passing through diaphragm through aortic

March 2007
hiatus are all except:
a. Aorta
b. Azygous vein
c. Thoracic duct
d. Hemiazygous vein
39. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior
interventricular artery,then the arterial supply is

called:

a. llight dominance
b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominanace
d. None of the above

September 2007

a.
b.

The first five ganglia give preganglionic fibers

The sympathetic trunk l.ras 13 segmentally arranged

ganglia

c. It is the most medially placed structure in

March 2007
except:
a. Situated behind the lower half of the manubrium

d.

hernia in childrens is:

left coronary artery are all of the

following except:

b.

in esophagus are seen at all the

March 2007
leveis except:
a. At ihe begining of esophagus
b. At the site of crossing of esopiragus by aortic arch
c. Where esophagus pierces the diaphragrn
d. At the point of crossing of thoracic duct
41. Commonest location of diaphragmatic (bochdalek)

40. Constrictions

Fluid level in the pericardial cavity:

March 2007

the

mediastinum
d. The first ganglion is often fused witir the inferior
cervical ganglion to form the stellate ganglion.
Septentuer 2005
44. Length of esophagus in adults is:

.D
:=
.!
:{

'o

.3
,(

a. 25 cm
h. l0 cm

c.

15 cnr

d.

20 cm

45. Base of the heart is formed

mainly by:

Septanber 2008

a. Right.rtrium
b. Left atrium
c. l{ight vcntriclt'
d. Left ventricle

r,

46" In mid clavicular plane, lower border of lung lies

level

of:

at

lt::''

,;i:it.,,i,;,.,

SeTttenfucr 2008

a. {th rib
b. oth rib

c. 8th rib
d. l0th rib
47. Shape of tracheal

a. W shaped
b. O shaped

c. C shaped
d"

Dshaped

'

cartilage:

..
Se1ttentber 2008
' '
,,: "..
'.,,.; ;
'

:',i.,,

,l';"

Anatomy

48.

rl

lr'-...

c. Left coronary

j.:,::ii:,:,.:: ::1,:i,
,'..t- l,.i.-i.ll., l
.

March 2009

55.

a. Left anterior descending coronarv ar.tery

b. Posterior inten entricular (descending) artery

'

:!:*ll:i: ri;.:.ilr

Arterial supply to SA node is by:

fascia of the thigh are true except:

a. It splits in the gluteal region to

artery

,'

b. Iliotibial

involved in quiet expiation:

49. Muscles

Septentber 200g

muscie

a. Diaphragm
b. Intercostai muscres

c. medially the

c. Boih

d. It is also known as fascia lata

d.

57. True regarding relationship of sac in femoral hernia

into:

Septentber 2009

a. Right srrbcostal vein

b. Superior vena ca\.a

with the pubic tubercle :

a. Above and lateral

b. Belorv and lateral
c. Abor,e and medial
d. Belo.rv and medial

c. Braciocephalic
c1. Riglit ascending lumbar r.ein
51. Cardiac dorninance is determined by coronary

artery:

Sc1ttunber 2009

a. Suppl_ving circulation to the SA nocie

b. Supplying circulation to the inferior portion of the

=
o
F

interrrentricuiar septum
c. Supplying circulation to the interairial septum
d. Supplying circulation to the anterior portion of the
interventricular septum
52. SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with:

58.

Vein used in bypass Surgery:

a.
b.
c.
d.

59. Which of the

following doesn't prevent prolapse

of uterus:

Mnrch 2005

60. Superficial
at:

inguinal lymph nodes drain from all of

the following except:
September 2005

March 2005

September 2005

taking origin from ischial tuberosity are all

except :
a. AddLrctor longus
b. Semimembranosus
c. Semitendinosus
d" Adductor magnus

Marclt 2005

a. Ovarian artery
b. Superior vesical artery
c. Middle rectal artery
d. Inferior vesical artery

a. Urethra
b Anal canal belor,r. the pectinate line
c. Clans penis
d. Perineum
61. Cerota's fascia is:

a. Renal fascia
b. Fibrous capsule
c. l,aycr of perirenal fat
d. Layer of pararenal {at

Cre.rt saphcnous vein

Short saphcnous vein
Femoral vein
Brachial vein

55. Muscles

are branches of Intemal Iliac artery except:

3

a. Subtalor joints
b. Ankle loir-rt
c. lnferior Tibiofibular joint
d. A11 of the above
54.

All

a. Perineal body
b. Pubocervical ligament
c. Broad ligament
d. Transverse cervical ligament

INFERIOR EXTREMITY

Inversion and eversion occurs

Septenfuer 2009

ABDOMEN

Septentber 2009

a. Mediastinal fibrosis
b. Lrnnphoma
c. Lung cancer
d. TB mediastinitis
53.

is thickened to fonn itiotibial

fascia

tract

of the above
None of the above

50. Azygous vein drains

Mnrch 2008

enclose gluteus

marimus muscle
tract forms a sl-reath for tensor fasciae laiae

c1. Right coronary artery

.:;ii.,t,:;,i'I

All of the following statements regarding the deep

Marclt 2005

62"

Septembcr 2005

Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the:

Septentber 2005

a. Inlernal oblique aponeurosis

b. External oblique aponeurosis
c. Transverse abdominis aponeurosis
d. !-iterna] oblique muscle

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE

53. Pouch of Douglas is between:

Scptentutr 2006

c.
d.
65.

kidney, all of the following statements are

September 2007

72.True about fallopian tubes are all except

Marclt 2007

ii:i
a. Lined by cuboidal epithelium
b isthmus is the narror,r'e'r p<-rrt of the fube that links to '
the uterus
Tubal ostium is the point rr'here the tubal canal
meets the peritr'rneal cavity

a. Jejunum

Miillerian ducts develops

b.
c.
d.

Fallopian tubes

Appendix

a.

Descending colon
March

2007

Celiac artery
Splenic artery

Marclt 2007

Septeniltcr 2007

c.

Left gastroepiploic artery

Left gastroepiploic artery
74. Ovarian artery is a branch of:

September 2007

artery
part of the aorta
d. External iliac arterl,
75. Commonest position of appendix:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pelvic
Retrocaecal
Subcaecal

Promontoric

draining into portal vein

are all except:

September 2007

Renal fascia

c. Pararenal fat
Fibrous capsule

69. Uterine artery is a branch of:

March 2007

aorta

inguinal ring in the fernale transmits:

March 2007

Broad ligament of uterus

c.

Cardinal ligament

d.

None of the above

Round ligament of the uterus

March 2008

except:

iliac artery

a.
b.

a. Renalvein
b. Splenic vein
c. Left gastric vein
d. Superior mesenteric vein
77. All of the following structures forms the stomach bed

b. External iliac artery

c. Femoral artery

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hepatic flexure of colon

The left kidney
The pancreas
Transverse mesocolcin

78. Lymphatic drainage of ovary is

a.
b.
c.
d.

through:

Irreaortic and para-aortic lymph nodes

Superficial inguinal l,vrnph nodes
Deep inguinal lymph nodes
Internal iliac lymph nodes

z
{

c. Abdominal

76. Veins

Perirenal fat

70. Superficial

the

September 2007, September 2010

March 2007

d. Intemal

of:

into

a. Renai artery
b. Internal iliac

Kidney is supported by all of the following except:

a. Abdominal

females

a. Ischial spine
b. Sacral prornontory
c. Iliac crest
d. Ischial tuberosity

d.

in

73. Short gastric arteries are branches

Ascending colon

a. Ovarian artery
b. Uetrine artery
c. Both
d. None of the above

a.
b.

September 2007

Which of the foliowing is not supplied by Superior

67. Pudendal nerve is related to:

the

September 2006

Sr.rperior vena cava

66. Blood supply of the uterus is by:

68.

71. Regarding

a. Tl'rey lie at the vgltgl-rral level T12 to L3

b. Retroperitoneal organ
c. Left kidney is situated lorver than the right
d. Left kidney is located siightliz more medial than

Portal vein

mesenteric artery:

lvlOl Screening Examination

true except:

a. Rectum and Sacrum

b. Uterus and Urinary bladder
c. Bladder and pubis syrnphysis
d. Rectum and Uterus
64.Left testicular vein drains into:
a. Inferior vena cava
b. Left renal vein

March 2008

Anatomy

79. Source of arterial supply to

testis:

March 200g

a. Internal pudendal artery

b. Deep external pudendal artery
external pudendal artery
Testicular artery
80. True about uterus are all except.
September 2009
a. Normaliy the uterus is retroverted
b. Angle of anteflexion is 125 degree
c. Long axis of uterus corresponds to the axis of pelvic

d.

inlet
Posterior surface is related to the sigmoid colon

81. Spleen is supported by all of the

following except:
Septenrhcr 2008

a. Phrenicocolic iigament
Lr. Gastrospie'nic ligament
c. Lineorenal lieament
True about ureters are all except:

March 2009

a. Constricted at three places

b. It is 25cm long
c. Testicular vessels lie anteriorly to the ureters
d. It is lined by cuboidal epithelium

=
o
F

83. Not present at the transpyloric level

a.
b.

c.
d.

March 200g

all of the

following muscles except:

Septenfuer 2005

a. Cricothyroid
b. Lateral cricoarytenoid

c. Posterior cricoarytenoid
d. Thvroepiglotticus
89. True about pharyngeal diverticula are all except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Results due to neuromuscular incoordination

Lies in the anterior rvali of pharynx

They are normal in pig

Food may get accumulated

in human:

b.3
c.2

in:

a. The mouth opposite upper

b. Middle meatus of nose
2009

c. Superior

September 2005

2nd molar

meatus of nose

meatus of nose

92. Not a branch of external carotid

except
September 2009

Femoral vein
D" Portal vein
IVC
d. Dural venous sinuses

artery:

a.
b.

c.
d.

86. Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube

while

September 2006

a. InJerior thyroid artery

b. Facial artery
c. Superior thyroid artery
d. Maxillary artery
93. False about facial muscles:

HEAD AND NECK

a. Tensor veli palatini

b. Levator veli palatini
c. None of the above
d. Both A and B

88. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies

d. Inferior

d" The stomach

All of the following veins lack valves

sneezing:

artery

9L. Nasolacrimal duct opens

a. 11th rib
b. Left lung
c. The diaphragm

'c.

d. Maxillary

September 2005

Neck of pancreas
Fundus of stomach
Left and right colic flexure
L1 vertebra

lying posterior to spleen are all of the

following except-:
September

.:l

c. Facial artery

90. Number of parathyroid glands

84. Structures

85.

a. Internal carotid artery

b. External carotid arterv

September 2005

d. Ligamentum teres
82.

thyroid artery originates from:

September 2005

c. Superficial

d.

87. Superior

March 2007

Dilates and constrict facial orifices

Supplied by facial nerve
Develops from 3rd pharyngeal arch
They develop from mesoderm

94. Motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is by:

March 2007

Mnrch 2005, September 20L0

Hypoglossal nerve
h Facial nerve
c. Lingual nerve
u. Glossopharyngeal nerve
a.

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

95. Name of the parotid duct:

March 20a7

L03. Branches of external carotid artery are

96. Parotid duct passes through all the

a.
b.
c.
d.

following
March 2007

structures except:
a. Buccopharyngealfascia
b. Buccinator
c. Buccal fat pad

March 2008
functions except:
reachirg
the
ear
the
sound
Intensity
of
a.
b. Lacrimation

c.
d.

97. Thinnest part of scelra is:

Mcrch 20()7

105.

of optic nerve'
of ciliary nerves

like position of vocal cords is seen in:

March 2407

superior larymgeal nerve palsy

recurrent laqmgeal nerve palsy
c.
external laryngeai nerve palsv
d.
internai laryngeal nerve palsy
99. Which of the following extraocular muscles does
Both
Both
Both
Both

not arise from annulus:

a. Inferior rectus
b" Medial rectus

September 2007

c. Lateral rectus
d.

Superior oblique

100. Elevation of iaw is done by

all except:
SePtember 2007

a.

Temporalis

b.

Masseter

101. Structure not passing through the superior

orbital

Septenfuer 2007

a. Superior ophthalmic vein

b. Trochlear nerve
c. Abducent nerve
d. Zygomatic nerve
102. All of the folowing opens into middle meatus
except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Middle ethmoidal air sinuses

Maxillary sinus
losterior ethmoid sinuses
Frontal air sinus

are

within the
lt4trclt 2008

106.

Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic

secretomotor fibres to the submandibular salivary
March 2008
gland:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Vagus

Trigeminal

facial
Glossopharvngeai
107. All of the following are contents of the posterior
March 2008
triangle of the neck except:
a. Spinal part of accesory nerve
b. Trunks of brachial plexus
c. Internal jugular vein
d. Transverse cervical arterv
108. Muscle responsible for intorsion of the eye:
SEttunher 2008

c. Lateral pterygoids
d. Medial pterygoids
fissure:

Srvallorvir-'g

All of tire following structures

a. Facial arterv
b. facial nerve
c. Extemal carotid arrterrr
d. Rctronrandibul;rvein

d. At the insertion of lecti muscles

a.
b.

Salivation

parotid gland except:

c. Corneoscleraljunction
98. Cadaver

\{axillary artet:y

Ascending pharyngeal artery

Superior thyroid artery
Ophthalmic artery
104. The facial nerve controls all of the following

cl. Masesster

a. At the entrance
b. Site of entrance

all except:
September 2007

a. Stensons duct
b. Nasolacrimal du.ct
c. Whartons duct
d. None of the above

Septenrber 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

Superior oblique
Superior rechrs
Both of the above
None of the above
109. Length of the cartilaginous part of external auditory
Seyttcmber 2048

canal:

a.
b.
c.
d.

15 mm
20 mm
25 mm

30 mm
110. The nerve that may get

injured during removal of

tlrird molar is :
a. lllrprgiossal nerve

b.
c.
d.

Facial nt'rve

Lingual nerve
Glossopirart'ngeal nerve

March 2009

:'>

,Z
r>
.{

'o

,l=

'<

Anatomy

'., 111.

Parotid duct opens opposite to:

a. Upper 1st molar

March 2009

Innpr ?nrl mnl41

Upper 2nd premolar
I

c.
d.

Upper 1st premolar

112. Function of superior oblique muscle

a.
b"
c.
d.

is:

March 2009

IntortiorL adduction and depression

Intortion, abduction and elevation
Intortion, abduction and depression

a.
b.
c.
cl.

is:

Arterial supplv to dura mater is from all of the

following except:
September

a.
b.
c.
d.

Internal carotid arterv

Ascending pharyngeal artery
Basilar artery

supplying major part of superolateral surface

of brain is:

ltIctch2009, Septmtba.2010

Styloglossus

a.
b.
c.
d.

Middle cerebral artery

Anterior cerebral arter.y

a.

L2

115.

Ht.oglossus

=
o
F

Mnrch 2009

Creat auricular ner\re

Buccai branches of facial nerve
Lesser petrosal nerve

116.

March 2009,2010;
September 2009

Lateralcricoarytenoid
Irosteriorcricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
Thyroarytenoid
The muscle which is not supplied by recurrenl
Iaryngeal nerve is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
117.

118.

Cricothl'1616[

Lateralcricoarytenoid
Facial nerve does not supply which structure of the

$tii
:,{;,'

ji,
rii,'l

ir'
.14'

,)

Marclt 2010

a.
b"

Auricular muscle
Posterior belly of diagastric muscle

c.
d.

Parotid gland
Submandibular gland

Muscle involved in congenital torticollis: It4arclt2010

a. Deltoid

b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Digastric
d. Mylohyoid

,iit

si

September 2009

Thyroarytenoid
Posteriorcricoarytenoid

face:

it.

1.19.

Tendon of which muscle passes through the

pyramid in middle ear:
Msrclt 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Incus
Stapedius
Malleus
Tensor veli palatine

r-4

c. Li
d. L3

a.
b.
c.
d.

Seylember 2005

b.

Auriculotemporalnerve

Vocal cord abductors is:

September 2005

Posterior cerebral artery

Vertebral artery
L22. ln adults, spinal cord ends at the lower end of:

Genioglossus
Palatoglossus

114. Ser.rsory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through:

a.
b.
c.
d.

2005

Middie meningeal artery

121. Artery

Extortiory abduction and depression

113. Safety muscle of tongue

BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD

120.

123. Hypoglossal nerve is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

SEttcmber 2005

6th nerve
7th nerve
12th nerve

9th nerve

ball movements are controlled by all of the

following cranial nerves except:
September

124. Eye

2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Optic nerve
Abducens nerve
Trochlear nerve
Oculornotor nerve
125. Largest cranial nerve is:
a. Trochlear

b.
c.
d.

Trigeminal
Oculomotor
Vagus

tributary of cavernous sinus:

Superior petrosal sinus
Sphenoparietalsinus

126. Not a

a.
b,
c.
d.

September 2006

March 2007

Inferior ophthalmic vein

Superficial middle cerebral veins
127. Nuclei deep within the medial temporal lobes of the
brain:
Septenfuer 2007
a. Amygdala

b.
c.
d.

Raphae nucleus
Dentate nucleus
Red nucleus.

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

L28. Cross

section of midbrain at the level of superior

colliculus shows

a.
b.
c.
d.

Red nucleus and trochlear nerve nucleus

Rednucleus and abducent nenre nucleus
Red rrucleus and optic nerve nucleus
Red nucleus and occulomotor nerve nucleus

1?9. Spinal part of accesory nerve

a.
b.
c.
d.
130.

September 2009

supplies:

Pectoralis major

r
h

Inierior fpmnnr.rl ulrrrc

(lrrirrt>l rnrler

c.
C.

Superior temporal gyrus

Frontai cortex

131. A lesion

Mu'clt 2009

March 2009

a.X
b" xi
c. IX
d. XII
a.
b.

L1

L2

^
L.

TLJ

d.

L4

2010

Posfure
un,,iil-.i,.Asthenia
Tone

JOINTS

135. Abduction of the thigh is limited

a.
b.
c.
d

by:

Ischiofemoralligarnents
Pubofemoralligaments

Iliofemoralligarlents
Sacroiii.lc- --b".lig.rnrt'nt
"'--'.'-"..

except:

Upper half of the face is affected, lorver half

ln neonates, spinal cord ends at:

c.
d.

'r

normal
b. Left half of the face
c. Right half of the face
d. Upper half of the face normal, lorver haif affected
132. Nucleus ambiguus is not associated with which
cranial nerve:
March 2010

133.

l-,

involved in damage to cerebellum: March

136. Ligament resisting hyperextension of

invoiving upper motor neuron of facial

nerve manifests as:

a.

Septcmber 2009

pectoralis minor
sternocleidomastoid

deltoid
Primary auditory area is:

a.

March 2009

134. Not

a.
b.
c.
d.

hip are all

Septenrbcr 2009

Ischiofemoralligament
Pubofemoralligament
Iliofemoral ligament *
Sacroiliac ligament

137. Unlocking of knee is done by which muscle:

sePtembet 2oo9

a.
b.
c.
d.

Adductor

magnus

Biceps femoris

Popliteus
Sartorius

MISCELLANEOUS

March 2010

138. Auricle of the ear is made of:

a. H1'aline cartilage
b. Fibrocartilage
c. Eiastic cartilage
d. None of the abor.e

March 2007

'*

-.:i.:t. l:a:'..'.1..::j

::.t.:.

,l:

: r.t;:,.4

1..;.,,. t.,

:;;.;...iii

. :,:

.:

s i.r. I t:t:.:tt:::
ttr:,i:,;,;
':.:,:: r.rr;:t::r:i,
..ir ,,.r.i-..,

r :;;tilill

ASSESSIfENT
GElMCr SCREENTN

PHYSIOLOGY (euestions)
HAEMATOLOCY

1. Normal pH of blood

is:

Septentber 20A7

a.7.30
b.7.20
c.7.70

d.
2.

b.
c.
d.

7.40

Monocytes remains in the circulation

a. 1-3 days
b. 24 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 6 hours

for:

March 2005

September 2007

10.

September 2007

c. VIII

d.x

September 2005

11.

c. Bicarbonate
5. Most useful

d.

method of estimating total iron content

of blood:

1.2.

Erythropoietin

except:

13.

March 2007

14.

disease:

September 2007

a. Glutamtic acid, at position No.5 of beta-globin chain

of haemoglobin is replaced by valine.
b. Glutamtic acid, at position No.6 of beta-globin chain

March 2009

of beta-globin chain

of

haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid

at position No.5 of beta-globin chain

haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid

of

Erythropoietin is secreted by:

a. Interstitial cells of kidney

March 2009

b. Extraglomerular mesangial cells

c. Macula densa
d. Renal tubular epithelial cells

of haemoglobin is replaced by valine.

c. Vaiine at position No.6

:t:,

Hagemann factor is involved in:

a. Extrinsic pathway

b. Intrinsic pathway
c. Fibrinolysis
d. None

d.x

74,

September 2008

d. Thrombin

all of the following

7. In sickle cell

AB

Extrinsic system (blood coagulation) is triggered by

c. Fibrinogen

6. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors of hepatic

ti

March 200g

a. Prothrombin
b. Thromboplastin

d. Lactoferrin

d. Valine

group:

the release of:

March 2007

a. Ferritin
b. Transferrin

a. II
b. VII
c. VIII

Universal recipients have blood

b.B
c.O

d. All of the above

are

Hemophilia B is deficiency of which factor:

a. IX
b. XII

Dissolved form
Carbamino compounds

origin

ml O,
1.55 ml 02
1.44

9. Substance present in both serum and plasma:

Carbon di oxide is transported in plasma as:

c.

1.33 ml 02

cl. Factor V

is:

March 2005

a. FIbA
b. FIbF
c. FIbS
d. HbA2

a.
b.

September 2007

a. Fibrinogen
b. Factor II
c. Factor VII

3. Most common Hemoglobin in normal adult

4.

8. 1 gm hemoglobin binds with:

a. 7.22m1C.2

1.5,

Plasma makes

a. 20% of Body Weight

b. 15%ofBodyWeight

c.
d.

of Body Weight
5% of Body Weight
1.0"/"

March 2009

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

16.

Heparin inhibits the active form of the following

factors excePt:

25.

September 2a09

except:

a.V

a.
b.

b.x
c.

XI
d. XII
17. Autoregulation is seen in:
a. kidney

Factor required for ervthrocyte

Mnrch 2010

stability:

llarch 20lA

c.
d.
20.

Reticulocytosis is not seen in:

a. Chronic renal failure anemia

Mnrch 2010

d.
29.

25 mm

Hg

pressure)

Systolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure- diastolic

pressure)

c.
d.

subendocardial portion

of left ventricle

during:

occurs

September 20A9

a. Systole
b. Diastole
c. Throughout the cycle
d. Diastole and mid half of systole

March 2009

Coronary vasodilation is caused by: September 2009

a. Adenosine
b. Noradrenergic stimulation
c. Hypocarbia
d. All of the above
32. True statement regarding purkinje fibres:
31-.

CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

24.

Septenfuer 2007

Mean arterial pressure is calculated as: March 2009

a. Diastolic pressure +1i3 (Systolic pressure- diastolic

b.

Raised aPTT is seen in which of the following

CVP denotes pressure of:

a. Left ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Right atrium

is:

b. 15 mm Hg
c. 20 mm Hg

d. Integrin

23.

IX
Mean pulmonary artery pressure
a. 10 mm Hg
*.

Diastolic + 1l3rd of systolic pressure

Arithmetic mean of systolic and diastolic pressures
30. Blood flow in the vessels supplying the

Spectrin
Pyruvate kinase
Cytokeratin

bleeding disorder:
a. Hemophilia A
b. Hemophilia B
c. Von-Willebrand disease
d. Henoch - Schonlein purpura

2006

d.
28.

September 2007

22.

Vitanrin K causes carborylation of all of the

following clotting faclors except: S':ptentber

c. VIII

SeptenLber 2005

Hemorrhage
Hereditary spherorytosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
21. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of:

c.

Conduction through AV node

a. Il
b. VII

b.
c.
d.

a.
b.

Selttember 2008

d. Ventricular depolarization
27.

Al1 of ti-re above

aPTT
PT
BT
PTT

Cardiac contractili['
QRS cornplex is due to:

c.

Extrinsic system of coagulation is checked by:

a.
b.

Bocly surface area

d.
26.

b. Spet--trin
c. NADPII
d.

Cardiac rate

a. Ventricular repolarization
b. Atrial depolarization

a. Ank,vrin

L9.

September 2005

c. Stroke volume

b. Brain
c. Muscles
d. All of the above
18.

Cardiac output depends on all of the following

September 2005

The first heart sound is due to:

September 2005
a. AV valves closure
b. Closing of aortic and pulmonary valves
c. Opening of AV valves
d. Opening of aortic and pulmonary valves

September 2009

a. Are myelinated fibres

b. Have action potential about a tenth

c.

as long as those
in the heart muscle
Have conduction velocify of four times than that of

the heart muscle

of the above

d. All

I
a
o
ro

Physiology

Negative waves in jugular venous pulse: March 2010

a. A wave
b. V wave
c. C wave
d. X wave
34. ECG changes seen in hypocalcemia:
March 2010
a. ST segment depression
b. Prolongation of ST segment
c. Inversion of T wave
d. Prolongation of PR segment
35. Left ventricular failure is said to be present if
pulmonary capillary wedge pressure exceeds:
33.

;-

a. 5mmHg
b. 10 mm Hg

c.

15

d.

20 mm Hg

41.

September 2007

a. Can be done in fasting as well as post prandial state

b. 1 gram of glucose/kg body weight is administered
c. Glucose levels are checked after 2 hours
d. Diagnosis of diabets mellitus can be established
42.

tolerance test

Septenfuer 2009

50 mg/100 ml

d. AII of the above

mm I{g

43.

44.

d.

GnRH

TSH is normal in:

September 2006

a. Hyperthyroid
b. Euthyroid

c. Hypothyroid
d.
38.

Graves

are associated

At what time of the day GH levels

46.

a.
b.

Septenfuer 2008

FIbA
Serial measurement of FBS
tolerance test

c. Oral glucose
d. HbAlc

47. Suprarenal medulla secretes which hormones:

September 2007

b. 100 -120 mg/100 rnl

c. I20 -140 mg/100 ml
d. 140-160 mg/100 ml

d. Copper
Long term status of blood sugar is explained by:

are highest:

Fasting blood sugar in normal individuals is:

80-100 mg/100 ml

September 2008

c. Iodine

a. 2 hrs after sleep

b. 2 hours before sleep
c" Evening
d. Early moming

a.

with deficiencv of:

a. Iron
b. Zinc

March 2007

September 2007

40.

a. Oxytocin
b. Grorvth hormone
c. FSH
d. Prolactin
45. Features like hypogonadism, dwarfism, loss of hair,
pigmentation and ulcets of skin and decreased
immunity

a. Calcitonin
b. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
c. Vitamin D
d. Thyroxine
39.

The hormone which helps in milk secretion:

Which of the following is not related to the calcium

metabolism:

September 2008, September 2010

c. FSH
37.

September 2008

c. Calcitonin
d. 1, 2S-dihydroxycholecalciferol

March 2005

a. GH
b. TSH

Which of the following causes hypocalcemia:

a. Parathormone
b. Thyroid hormones

Anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following

except:

Which one of the following statements describes

diabetes mellitus:
September 2007
a. Rise of blood sugar of 50 mg/100 ml in oral glucose

b. Fasting blood sugar value more than 200 mg/100m1

c. Post prandial rise of blood sugar more than

ENDOCRINOLOCY
36.

True regarding glucose tolerance test are all except:

Septentber 2009

a. Glucocorticosteroids
b. Catecholamines
c. Androgens
d. Mineralocorticoids

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

48.

Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland

hormone deficiencY:

will result in which

a.
b.

a. CRI{
b. ACTH

c.
d.
49.

Glomular filtration rate increases

56.

September 2009

c.

Cortisol
MSH

57.

is:

March 2007

glucose after 2 hours

Glucose load in fasting state, measurement of blood
glucose after 2 hours
c. Glucose load in fasting state, measurement oI
urinary glucose after 2 hours
d. Glucose load in fed state, measuren-rent of urinarv
glucose after 2 hours
Septtnber 2009
50. Corticosteroids suppress:

a. Inulin
LU. DAU
I AII.

b.

c.
58.

of

facultative reabsorption occurs in

prox.imai tubule

of water reabsorption occurs secondary to

sodium absorption
c. 25"/" of 'lvater is reabsorbed irrespective
of r,r'ater
-

b. Bulk

FSH

balance

Thyroxine levels are raised in:

59.

except:
March 2010
a. Denotes neuromuscular hyperexcitability

Normal glomerular capillary

Vasa recta

,;o

Collecting ducts
60. What is glomerular filtration

o.

z3

c.
d.

a. Ascending loop of henle

b" Early distal tubule

35

c. Proximal tubule
March 2005

September 2408

b. Amino acids
c. Glucose
d. Hydrogen

Reabsorption of Water is maximum in:

September 2009

a. PCT
b. DCT
d.

PCT absorbs all except:

a. Sodium

duct

I.oop of henle

63.

ions
Glucose is reabsotbed at:

a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Collecting duct
d. All of the above

-Q
1o

,<

d. All of the above

62.

a. K*
b. Urea
c. Cl
d. Na*

c. Collecting

Morch 2008

March 2008

15

Henle:

rate?

Active resorption of sodium ion occurs in:

March 2005

which is not absorbed in the loop of

;r

a. 100 ml/min
b. 125 ml/min
c. 150 ml/min
d. 775 ml/min

45

i<

';,(n

a.

54. Substance

March 2008

d.

61.

pressure:

is:

.T

'-

PCT

c. Loop ofhenle

by tapping

EXCRETORY SYSTEM

reabsorption is ADH dependent

Site of action of ADH

a.
b.

True about Chvostek's sign are all of the following

b. Elicited over face

c. Raised calcium level
d. Facial nerve is stimulated

d. Obligatory

March 2010

a. Myxedema
b. Endemic goitre
c. Idiopathic nontoxic colloid goitre
d. Grave's disease

55.

d. Mannitoi
True regarding water absorption in tubules:
Septentber 2007

d. LH

53.

Creatinine

a. N{ajoritv

a. CH
b. ACTH

52.

Increased hrbular hydrostatic pressure

Substance used to measure renal perfusion:

September 2009

a. Giucose load in fed state, measurement of blood

51.

Septentber 2005

d.

Procedure of glucose tolerance test

c.

if:

Increased plasma oncotic pressure

Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Increased renal blood flo'l,v

SEttember 2a08

Physiology

64.

Maximum absorption of NaCl in proximal

convoluted tubule ociurs due to the effect of:

72.

March 2009

73.

d. Angiotensin II
65.

:.{

ANP acts at the:

a. Proximal tubule
b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting tubule
d. Henle loop

66. GFR decreases

a. Trypsin
b. Pepsin

c. Renin

with the following:

Sc1ttembcr 2009

74.

Jt.

o;
(r)

:,

>,
I,'

Urinary concentrating ability of kidney increases

if

September 2008

GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT

is mainly derived
Undigested food
Digested food
Intestinal secretions
intestinal flora

68. Faecal mass

75.

a.
b.
c.
d.

O- '
69.

March 2005

Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is:

September 2005

a.
b.

70.

c.

Gastrin
Bile acid
Bile salt

d.

Secretin

Rapidly absorbed in the stomach

a.
b.

is:

September 2006

d.

None

Which of the following is not produced by

hepatocytes:
a. Gamma globulin

b. Albumin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Prothrombin

Kupffer cells in the liver

September 2007

lipase

are:

March 2008

a. Endothelial celis
b. Secretory cells
c. Phagocytic cells
d. Excretory cells
77.True about active absorption of iron
a. Absorbed in distal ileum

b.
c.
d.

is:

March 2009

Absorbed in stomach

Not absorbed in duodenum and proximal lejunum

Decreases follou'ing gastrectomv
78. Mechanism involved in the absorption of glucose
frorn small intestine is which of the following:
March 2005

Protein
Carbohydrate

c. Fat
71.

ADEK deficiency is seen in:

a. Malabsorptionsyndrome

b. Obstructive jaundice
c. Deficiency of pancreatic
d. All of the above
76.

from:

Se1:tenfuo 2007

a. Cl
b. K.
c. Na*
d. Ca2*

a. Increase in renal blood flow

b. Increase in GFR
c. Decrease in medullary hyperosmolarity
d. Contraction in extracellular fluid volume

O'i

cl. HCI
Ion which promotes glucose absorption in the gut
rep;ion:

there is:

!',
(9.i

Chymotrypsinogen is activated into chymotrypsin by:

March 2007

September 2009

a. Hypoproteinemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hvpertension
d. A1l of the above
67.

September 2006

a. I-iver
b. Kidney
c. Intestine
d. Spieen

a. ADH
b. Aldosterone

c. Atrial natriuretic peptide

Urobilinogen is formed in the:

September 2006

a. Active co-transport with sodium

b. Passive diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Active co-transport with potassium
79. Causes of vitamin 812 deficiency is:
a. Lack of intrinsic factor
b. Diseases affecting terminal ileum
c. Fish tapeworm infestation
d. All of the above

September 2006

Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCr screening Examination

80.

Salivary amylase is activated by:

March 20A7

a. Sodium Ion
b. Chiorine Ion
c. Potassium Ion
d. Bicarbonate Ion
Bipolar cells is seen in:
a. Sympathetic ganglion

March 2005

82.All are carried through anterolateral system except:

trIarclr 2005

Lumbar portion of spinal cord

gelatinosa
d. Sympathetic plexus
90. Function of neocerebellum is:
SEtentber 2007
a. Maintaining posture and equilibriurn
b. Planning and programming of voiuntary
movements
c. Maintenance of muscle tone
d. Propior:eption
91.

92.

Action potential
d. Spike potential
Sensory fiber

with least conduction velocify:

a. C- fiber
b. Alpha fiber

Septentber 2005

AII

are primary colours except:

a. green
b. Blue
c. Red
d. White
86.

a
o
to
o

loss of pain and temperature

Contralateral loss of vibration and joint position

Which lies in the dorsal column of spinal cord:

Selttenber 2007

a. Fasciculus gracilis
b. Anterior spinothalmic

September 2005

tract
tract
d. \rentral spinocerebellar tract
94. Phantom limb is explained by:

c. Dorsal spinocerebellar

September 2007

a. Webers law
b. Law of projection

c. Fechners law of degeneration

c.
d.

Trichromats are unable to appreciate blue colour

Defect in 1 or more prime colours
87. True about semicircular canals is:
September 2005
a. Submerged in a fluid called endolymph
b. Base of cupula is in close contact with afferent fibres
of cochlear division of the eight cranial nerve
c. Arranged at right angles to each other
d. Associated with hearing
88. Blind spot of mariotte:
March 20A7
a. Fovea centralis
b. Optic disc
c. Macula lutea
d. Ors serrata

T
T

c. Ipsilateral
93.

True about colour blindness:

September 2005
a. Autosomal dominant inheritance
b. Tritanopia is the commonest disorder

capsule

A cut /lesion above the pyramidal tract decussation

results in:
Septenfuer 20a7
a. Paralysis of the opposite half of the body
b. Contralateral loss of propioception

d.

c. beta fiber
d. Gamma fiber
85.

All of the following are concerned vvith spatial

orientation:
Septesltr, 2;t1,,

a. \rc'stibuiar receptors
b. Eyes
c. Proprioceptors in joint
d. All of the above

Marclr 2005

c.
84.

March 2007
Sacral portion of spinal cord

c. Substantia

b. Retina
c. Cochlear ganglion
d. Parasympathetic ganglion
a. Propric'rceptittn
b. Ternperafure
c. I'ain
d. Crude touch
83. All or none law is obeyed by:
a. Post synaptic potential
b. Non propagated potential

Stretch reflex of urinary bladder is integrated at:

a.
b.

NERVOUS SYSTEM
81.

89.

d.
95.

Pascals law

Clasp knife rigitidy is also known

a. Inverse stretch reflex

b. Withdrawl reflex

c. Lengthening
d.

as:

September 2A07

reaction

Crossed extensor reflex

96.NeurotransmitterdepletedinParkinson,sdisease:
Septentber

a.
b.

c.
d.

Dopamine
Acetylcholine
Clutarnate
GABA

2007

Physiology

97.
Jiil::a'
;:;i:riitll

.'. t*irri

Function of floccunodular lobe of cerebellum is:

104. True regarding movements of the cilia

h4arch 2008

_l

a. Co-ordination of movements
b. Equilibrium

i:.i,;;:ii;.ri:

a.
b.
c.
d.

c. Chemoreception
d.
98.

Planning of movements

Limbic system is concerned with all except:

Higher function

a.
b.
c.
d.

>:
O,'
o:
J:,'

March

Memory

a.
b.
c.
d.

Planned motor activity

in EEG are seen in:

March 2008

Mental w.ork
Au'ake state

Visuai cortex lies in relation to calcarine fissure

Brodmann's area\7 corresponds to visual cortex

d.

Its the only area in the brain activated by

Geniculocalcarine fibres from the medial half of

the lateral geniculate terminate on the superior
lip of the calcarine fissure
r,'isual

stimuli
10L. Dreaming is common

in which stage of sleep:

;a.

Septenfuer 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

REM

NREMl
NREM 2

NREM3
102. White colour vision/Perception of white light is due

to:
September 2008
a. Stimulation of red cones more than blue or green
b. Stimulation of blue cones more than red or green
c. Stimulation of green cones more than blue or red
d. Stimulation of red, blue and green cones equally
103.

All

are

Depolarisationoccurs
Spike potential is generated

None of the above

micrometer, is prespnt in:

a. Cell body
b. Axon terminal

REM sleep
March 2008

>:
I..
L,,

Neuroglial cells in the CNS except:

c.
d.
1.07.

Oligodendrocytes

Microglia
Astrocytes

Kunffer cells

March

2009

Surface of myelin

Nodes of Ranv ier

Sweating is mediated by:. March 2009, September 20L0

a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity

b.
c.
d.

Noradrenergic mediated sympatheticactivity

Noradrenergicmediatedparasympatheticactivity
Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activity

108. Function of a muscle spindle is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Regulates withdrawl reflex

a.
b.
c.
d.

Meissner corpuscles

Septenfuer 2009

Maintains muscle tone

Feedback device to maintain muscle length

Ileceptor for inverse stretch reflex

109. Sensory organ for responding to texture is:
September 2009

Merkel cells
Ruffini corpuscles
Pacician corpuscles

110. Acetylcholine receptors are decreased in:

SePtember 2009

Septentuer 2008

a"
b.
c.
d.

2009

Hyperpolarisationcrccur.s

106. N{aximum number of sodium channels per square

Sleep

a.
b.
c.

cI)'..

of

photosensitive compounds of rods and cones:

100. Features of occipital lobe of brain are all except:

o.r

2A09

105. Electrical response, due to the effect of light on

Emotion

99. Alpha wave

March

It moves lr.'hen head is rotated

It moves rt'hen moving person suddenlv stops
It moves r.vhen perilymph moves
Its movement is guided by the inertia
endolymph

March 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

in the inner

ear are all except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lambert-Eaton st ndrome
Parkinson disease

Alzheimer disease
Myasthcnia gravis

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

111.

Alt of the following are cholinergic effects except:

119. Optic nerve is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Taclrycardia
Salivation
Miosis
Bronchoconstriction
112. Properties of alpha waves are all of the following
September 2009
except:
a. It is most marked in the parieto-occipital area
b. It has a frequenq' of 8-12}12
c. Frequency is decreased by low glucose level
d. Seen in REM sleep

i.l3. Melatonin is associated with all of the following

Mnrch 2010

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Intestinalmusculatureconstriction
Bronchialmusculature relaxation
115. Influx of which of the following ion is responsible
for IPSP:
March 2005
a. Potassium ion
b. Chloride ion
c. Calcium ion
d. Sodium ion
1,1.6. Delta waves on EEG are recorded in: September 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

REM
01 NREM
02 NREM

Deep sleep

117. Temperature regulation is

chiefly under the control

of:

a.
b.
c"
d.
1.18.

September 2007

Midbrain
Pons

Medulla
Hypothalamus

Vomiting centre is situated in

a.
b.
c.
d.

L20. Correct statement regarding high altitude:

Septernber 2006

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hypothalamus

Midbarin
Pons

Medulla

Po2 is less
Pco2 is more
In the ait percentage of oxygen is iess
Decrease in number of RBC's
SeTttenfucr 2006

a.
b.
c.
d.
122.

R-L shunt

LV obstruction
RV obstruction

L-V

shunt

1i

Shift to right in Orygen dissociation curve is seen in n

all except:
March 2007 .rtf

a.
b.
c.
d.

tir
r.:<
':aa

lncreased PaCO2
Decreased PaCO2
Increase in 2,3 DPG
Decreased pH

123. Which is responsible for respiratory drive:

SePtembcr 2()07

a.

b.
c.
d.

02

co
CO2

Bicarbonate ions
124. Regarding lung volumes, which of the following is
Marclt 2009
true:
a. Functional residual capacity accounts for 75o/o of
total lung capacity
b. Residual volume keeps alveoli inflated between
breaths
c. Vital capacity increases in elderly
d. Residual volume is about 500 ml
125. Bohr effect is described as:
Septen*er 2009
a. Decrease in CO2 affinity of hemoglobin when the

pH of blood rises

the:

Septenfuer 2008

lii

121. Less 02 saturation in blood is seen in:

Sleep mechanism

Reduction in blood pressure

lncrease in secretions of the intestine

2nd order neuron

3rd order neuroon
4th order neuron

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

Vomiting
Pituitary giand secretion

]etlag
114. All of the following effects c,rn occur if vagus is
stimulated, except:
March 2009

September 2009

1st order neuron

b.
c.
d.

Decrease in COt affinity of hemogiobin when the

pH of blood falls
Decrease in O, affinity of hemoglobin n'hen the
pH of blood rises
Decrease in 02 affinity of hemoglobin n'hen the

pH of blood falls

l6
':r
,;o

':o

i<

Physiology

126" Vagal

a.
h.
c.
d.
1.27.

stimulation

causes:

September 2009

Increase in rate of respiration

Incrcase in depth of respiration

Bronchodilation

Decreased depth of respiration

Surfactant is produced by:

a.
b.
c.
d,

March 2UA

Alveolarmacrophages
Lymphocytes in the alveoli
Type I alveolar cells

a.
b"
c.
d.

REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
128. Which of the following describes In vitro

a. Method to judge the time of ovulation

so that

cortus can result in fertilization

Ol
Oi
),r

in

Removing mafure ova,fertilizing

sperrrr

it u,ith

the

and implanting back in uterus

d. Artificalinsemination
129. Ovulation is due to surge
a. FSH

b.
c.
d.

J..r

9;
A'.

Use of hormones to prom()te fertilizafion

tubcs

130.

Iti

September 2006,2A10

LH
Prolactin
TSH
March 2007

Oxytocin
Growth hormone
FSH

132.

September 2007

Fertilization
Ovulafion
Implantation
Menstruation

All of the following

are indicators of ovulation

March 2008

Fall in body temperature

133. Fertilization occurs in which part of the fallopian

tube:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fimbrial
Isthmus

Ampuila
Interstitial

September 2005

14

occurs:

Sqttember 2005

days after menstruation

days prior to next menstruation

On 14th day of the cycle
1,4

period:

Septenrber 20a6

0-14 days of gqstation

74 days to 9 weeks of gestation

9 weeks to birth
22 weeks intrauterine to 7 days after

a. Mumps orchitis
b. Testosetronedeficiency
c. Prolactinoma
d. All of the above

birth

September 2007

139. Charecteristic of smooth muscle cells in intestine

March 2005

a. Does not have actin and myosin

b. Cannot do sustained contraction
c" It contracts when stretched in the absence of any
extrinsic innervation

except:
a. Increase in cervical mucus
b. Abdominal cramps
c. LH surge

d.

means:

MISCELLANEOUS

LH

L31. Separation of first polar body occurs at the time of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

200g

Reduction in number of sperms

Reduction in motility of sperms
Absence of sperms
Absence of semen

None of the above

137. Term period for embryonic

a.
b.
c.
d.

March

Epididymis

L38. Impotency may be seen in:

Milk ejection is facilitated by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

o.,

of:

a.
b.
c.
ii.

in:

Prostatic urethra
I'estis

136. Ovulation

Septentber 2005

>l

b.
c.
d.

135. Asthenospermia

Type II alveolar cells

c.

134. Sperm becomes mobile

a. Vas deferens

September 2007

d.

Does not require calcium for contraction

140. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2005

320-330

mOsmll

300-310 mOsmA
280-290 mOsm/L
260-270 mOsm/L

141. Hydrogen ion is eliminated by:

a.
b.
c.
cl.

Kidney
Lungs

Liver
Stomach

September 2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screerring Exarnination

142.

Which ion helps is resting membrane potential in

Scptenbu 2005

neurons:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Calcium

Chloride
Sodium

in all except:
SePtember 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Aspirin overdose
Uremia

starvation

SePtentber 2007

Neuromuscularjunction
Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous svstem
Bronchial smooth muscle

Brain
L47. Normal limit for postprandial (after
glucose level (in mg/dl-):

a.
b.
c.
d.
148.

149.

hours) blood
March 2008

80-110
1.40-770

170-200
March 2008

Less than 18.5

18.5-24.9
25-29.9

More than 30

Most abundant ion in intracellular fluid is:

SePtember 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

Protein
Bicarbonate
Potassium
Sodium

a.
b.
c.
d.

following changes are seen in chronic

except:

Septtittber 2009

A11 fat stores have been useo up

Se'u'ere fat and muscle rvasting

Brain uses ketoacids as fuel

Le','el of serum proteins less than 2.8 g/di153. Repolarization of a nerve ts due to: Septutrber 2t)09

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hydrogen ions
Potassium ions
Sodium ions

Calcium ions
154. Which interleukin is needed for differentiation of
eosinophils:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Scptr:nrber

2009

IL1

IL4

a.
b.
c.
d.

Kidney
Lung

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lower extracellular sodium

.o
'

rl-

o
,o

<

IL,2

IL5
155. Bicarbonate exchange occurs in:

,T
.I
r<
:a

Septembt:r 2009

None of the above

Both of the above
156, Size of action potential is decreased as a result of;

110-140

BMI of underweight individual:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Calcium

ScYtenfuer 2005

Scptunber 2005
strength:
isotonic
Aerobic
a.
b. Isometric
c. Isotonic
d. All of the above
146. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Clucose

152, A11 of the

Hvdrogen ion
Sodium ion
Potassium ion
145. Type of exercise done to increase the muscle

2009

Sodium
Potassium

mainly affected by:

Calcium ion

Mrch

which ion:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Diabeticketaacidosis
Emphysema

144. Magnitude of action potential is

:r.
b.
c.
d.

September 2008
the site of wound is gained after:
1 rn'eek o{ rvound healing
2 u,eeks of r,vound healing
3 weeks of n'ound healing
4 weeks of rvound healing
151. Major contribution to plasma osmolality is by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Potassium

143. Metabolic acidosis is seen

150. Nearly 20"/o of normal tensile strength of tissue at

Nlarch 2010

Raised extracellular calcium

Lorver extracellular calcium

Raised extraceliular sodium
157" With glucose which of the following is transported:

l::i il irl-:i:iirrl

...'..

March 2010 ,

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hydrogen ions
Potassium ions
Calcium ions
Sodium ions

1:r,.':

,.', . .
',t*i

'

Physiology

158. During pregnancy/ deficiency

of which vitamin in

women causes neural tube defect in the

newborn:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Thiamine

Pyridoxine
Folic acid

C1'anocobalamin
159. What is the BMI for obese person:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mnrch 2010

Less than 19.5

March 2010

18.5_24.9

25-29.9

More than 30

160. A disease occurring before 65 yr

of age is termed as:

a.
b.

(,

o
J
o

i..

U) lt,

o.

,:.1, .'

l , :,.
,.
,

Senile
Pre senile

September 2007

c.
d.

Post adolescent
Post senile

161. Main content of bilayer cell membrane

is:

March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Glycerol
Cholesterol
Cholesterol ester
Triacyl glycerol
162. Oily substance secreting gland
a. Sweat gland
b. Meibomian gland
c. Salivary gland
d. Lacrimal gland

is:

September 2009

SIELF ASSESSlvfgN"g
Gn/McI SCRFEwING

,I

BIOCHEMISTRY (euestions)
ENZYMES

1. Which of the following

myocardial infarction:

is an important marker for

a. LDH
b. CK-MB

September 2005

9. Tme regarding glutamine is:

a. NH3 transporter
b. Cannot cross the blood brain

c. 'Ioxic substance in tlre body

c. Troponins

d.

d. All

2.

of the above
Enzymes are usually:

a. Lipid
b. Nucleic acirls
c. Carbohvdrates
d. Protein

3.

a.
b.

c. Arginine

Other name of AST:

St:ptf

c117lg7'tggg

peptide is part
a, Pro-insulin

12. Glutathione

March 2005

13.

porphyria, what is present in the

Fr,

8,.

ft:
F.

$i

H
$;
Eg

p;
Er
F":

5;:
F,.
Eii
C1i

tr
E

&
a;
i):
j..:l

:..:

i.
,,,

8. Niacin is synthesized
a. Phenylalanine
b. Tryptophan
c. Tyrosine
"d. Methionine

Septenfuer 20a5

September 2009

is:

March

2005

are:

Marclt

2005

indicator of protein quality

d. Amino

from:

is:

2009

a. Net protein utilization

b. Digestibility coefficienr

c. Biological

Essential amino acids are named so: Septenther 2005

a. Because they are produced in the body
b. Because they are not produced in the body
c. They are not important for life
d. Every food stuff essentially c<lntains them

March

Product of purine metabolisrn

Protein destructions

14. Best

September 2005

d. Bilirubin

7.

is:

c. Present in prokarvotes
d. Protein synthesis

c. Porphobiiinogens

s'

True regarding ubiquitin

a.
b.

urine:

h;

Septenfuer 2007

a. Dipeptide
b. Oligopeptide
c. Tripeptide
d. Poll'peptide

None of the above

a. Biliverdin
b" Uroporphl'rin

of:

cl. Gror.vth hormone

c. Tyrosine
6. In intermittent

and aspartaite

11. C

a. Creatinine
b. Uric acid
c. Glutamine
d. Urea

d.

Septenfuer 200g

and aspartate

b. Insulin
c. ACTH

AMINO ACIDS AND PROTEINS METABOLISM

4. Ammonia is detoxified in brain by:
March 2005

5. Thyroxine is synthesized from:

a. Phenylalanine
b. Tryptophan

is:

in urea cycle

Glutamate and aspartate

Glutamate and NH3

d. I\l{3

a. SGOT
b. SGPT
c. Alkalinephosphatase
d. Acid phosphatase

barrier

Stored in smooth muscle

10. Sotrrce of nitrogen

Septentbt 2()05

March 20a7

15.

value

acid score

Limiting amino acid in wheat

a. Lysine, arginine
b. Threonine, methionine
c. Lysine, threonine
d. Lysine, methionine
L6.

Secretory proteins are synthesized

a. Cytoplasm
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c" Both of the above
d. None of the above

in:

Mnrch 2005

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

1.7.

Pulses are deficient

3.
b.
c.
d.

in:

Septentber 2005,2010

26.

September 2009

Methionine

a. Pyruvate
b. Lactate
c. Fats
d" Cholesterol

Both
None of the above
becomes essential in which of the following
Tyrosine
18.

condition:
a.
b.
c.
d.
L9.

What is the end product of anearobic glycolysis:

Lysine

September 2005
27.

Wilsons disease

Alkaptonuria
Thyrosinosis
Phenylketonuria

March 2010

Mousy odour urine is present in:

a. Phenvlketonnria
b. Maple svrup urine

c.

Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing

conversion of aldose sugars to ketose sugars:

a. Oxidoreductase
lr. Phosnhol riose isonrerase
c. Decarboxvlase
d. Aldolase

Septemher 2409

disease

Tyrosinemia

d. Homocystinuria
28.

CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM
20. Hexose sugar is not present in:
a. Ribose
b. Glucose
c. Fructose
d. Galactose
21.

Septemher 2005

March 2005

a. 1
b.2

March 2007

29.

involves:

30.

March 2007

d.

March 2007

31.

Acid maltase

25.

RBC
Skeletal muscles
Adipose tissue
Heart muscles

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

a. Lysosolic enzyme
b. Cytosolic enzyme

c.
d.

Mitochondrialenzyme
A1l of the above

32.

is:

Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism occurs rn

September 2008

Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver

is found in:
Mnrch 2005

Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the

following:
March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Sunflower oil
Coconut oil
Soyabean

Safflorver oil

,=

a. Gauchers disease
b. Obstructive jaundice
c. Von gierkes disease
d. Nieman pick disease

Insulin is required for glucose transport in all of the

following except:
March 2009

,m

'a
:{

LIPIDS METABOLISM

d. Myophosphorylase
a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2005

a. Glycolysis
b. Malate shuttle
c. Urea cycle
d. Citric acid cycls

c.

24.

First substrate of Kreb's cycle is:

which cycle:

a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
b. Fumarase
Malatedehydrogenase
Succinate thiokinase
23" Andersen disease is due to lack of:
a. Branching enzyme
b. Debranching enzyme

.o
.c)
,x

a. Glycine
b. Lipoprotein
c. Pyruvate
d. HCI

a.
b.
c.
d.

Phosphofructokinase
Hexokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Glucose-l,6,diphosphatase
22. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle

TD

c.3
d.4

Key glycolytic enzymes in glycolysis are all except:

c.

How many molecules of pyruvate are formed from

complete metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose:

March 2005

Biochemistry

33.

Ail of the following

are essential fatty acids except:

a. Linolenic acid
b. Linoleic acid

c.

41'

September 2A0S

Lysergic acid

AII are bad cholesterol except:

a. HDL
b. LDL

, 35.

c.

\/LDL

(-1.

IDL

Cholesterol is:

a. t ocopherol
O Lipoprotein
c. Steroid

;
. d. Lipopolysacchricle
& j 36. Apoprotein of cholesterol is:
F , a. Apo .A1
ii b. ApoA2
i c. Apo C1
I=
JJ
?' r ct. ApoE

o
o,

37. Carrier of cholesterol:

a. VLDL
b. LDL
c. HDL
d. Chylomicrons

dl
, 38.

L-CAT activator lipoprotein is:

. a. ApoAl
, U. ApoC2
., .. ApoC3
d.

March 2009

Ketone bodies are synthesised

in:
a. Muscle

Marclt 2009

c-i. Arachidonic acid

43.

September 2005

b. lil'sy
c. Kidney
d. Brain
44. Free

1n

fatty acids are transported by

a. Ceruloplasmin
b. Pre-albumin
c. Aibumin
d. Transthyretin

September 2005

45.

h4arch 2009

Building block for fatty acid biosynthesis

is:

a. NADH
b. Acetyi-CoA
c. Acyl-CoA

March 2007

March 2o1o

d. Acetate
limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
is:
a. HMG -CoA reductase
March 2010
b. HMG -CoA slmthetase

46. Rate

March 2007

c. HMG
d.

ApoE

Final product of purine metabolism

is:

a. Uric acid
b. Creatinine
c. Xanthine
d. Phoshphates

lrue regarding familial hypercholesterolemia

is:
March 2007

CoA lyase
Mevalonate synthetase

NUCLEOTIDE METABOLISM
47.

Marfan,s syndrome

a. Deficient VLDL receptors

b. Deficient HDL receptors
c. HMG CoA reductase deficiency
d. Deficient LDL receptors

a. Corticosteroids
b. Oleic acid
c. I_inoleic acid

t c. Gaucher,s disease
1; d. Von-Gierke,s drsease
4lu.

Prostaglandins are derived from

42.

September 2005

' 39' Deficiency

of sphingomyerinease causes:
March 2007
': a. Niemann-pick clisease

b.

March 2009

a. Pentose phosphate pathrvay

b. Glycoll,sis
c. TCA cycle
d. Cluconeogenesis

d. Arachidonic acid
34.

Reduci'g agent used in lipogenesis

is derived fronr

48.

Mqrch 2010, Septermber 2010

Production of uric acid is by:

a.

Protein metabolisrn
Lipid metabolism

b.
c. Pyrimidinemetabolism
d.

Purine metabolism

September 2005

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

March 2007

MISCELLANEOUS
49. Chitin is a:
a. Polypeptide
b. Fatty ester
c. Polysacchride

d.
50.

Mnrch 2005

None

Watson's DNA model is

March 2005

a. Right handed,parallel
b. l,eft handed,anti parallel

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypercholcsterolemia
c. Lipolyiss
d. Ketoacidosis

c. Lefthanded,parallel
d. Right handed,anti parallel
51.

Northern blotting technique is used for the

separation

of:

58.

relation to:

Mnrch 2005, Septtcnrber 2010

Mnrch 2009

a. Fructose
b. Glycogen
c. Glyceraldehyde
d. Glucose

a. DNA
b. Protein
c. RNA
d. Protein DNA interaction
52.

The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its

Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:

59.

1w

Western blotting is done for

a. Adenosine

c. RNA

b. Guanine
c. Uracil

d. DNA
60"

i=

':'.U,

54.

r(Dose sugar
Deoxyribose sugar

c. Glucose-6-phosphatase
d.

Both
61.

None

Type of collagen found in cartilage:

March 2047

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
55.

Hexokinase

Enolase

Which of the following statement if false regarding

mitochondria:
September 2009 ,:
a. Guanine rich strand is referred to as the heavy.,,

b.

''ll '
::. ,r.: i

Each DNA molecule consists of 15,000-17,000 base ',

pairs

c. Single
d.

March 2007

post-translational

protein complexes

b. Antigen presenting cells

c. Purine metabolism mediators
d. None of the above

assembly of

62.

.v
i<

Glucokinase

strand

Chaperones are:

a. Mediators of the

.:,{

Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibit:

a.
b.

September 2005

..o

.irfl

NIarch 2010, September 2010

DNA has:

;o
lr-

d" Thvmine

a.
b.
c.
d.

Marclt 2009

a. Protein
b. Lipids

September 2405

53.

identifying

stranded straight

DNA

Transmitted by maternai nonmendelian

Palindrome is associated

with:

a. Synthesis of DNA
b. Extrachromosomal molecule of DNA
c. Sequence of DNA
d. Small nuclear RNA

,,r,'

,i r
inheritan* ,

Septcnfucr

2009
i

,
.

':ii

.i'

Biochemistry

c. Disulfide

iinkage

d. Covalentbond
66.

Anticoagulant added to blood for estimation of

prothrombin time is:

a. Heparin
b. Oxalate

c. Sodium

DNA double helix is rnaintained by:

a. Hydrogen bond
b. Vanderrt'aal forces

a
lU
=

I
C)
o.
dI"

citrate

d. EDTA

a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Telophase
d. Interphase
65.

March 2009

67.

Which of the following is the radiosensitive stage

of
cell cycle:
Septenfuer 2()09

a.
b.
Mnrch 20(t9

G0
G1

c. G2
d.s

PATHOLOGY (Questions)
PATHOLOCY
1, Invasive carcinoma differs from carcinoma in situ by:
CENERAL

9. Following

Scptemher 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2005

a. Abnormal nuclear morphology

b. Pleomorphism
c. Breached basement rnembrane
d. Mitoses
2. All of the following responses are seen in acute
inflammation except:

10.

cells:

March 2005

Leprosv
11. Stain used to diagnose amyloidosis: Scptember 2008
a. Methylene blue
b. Acid fast stain
c. Rose bengal
d. Congo red
*
12. Call-exner bodies are seen in:
March 2009

a. Theca cell tumour

b. Yolk sac tumour

13.

d.
1"5.

SMAD1

d.

p53

Infarcts

Myositis ossificans is differentiated from other

reactive fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of:
September 2009

September 2007

a. Silverbirefringence
b. Goidenbirefringence
c. Blue birefringence
d. Green birefringence
8. All of the following are tumor suppressor

a.
b.

c.

Dysplastic bone
Dystrophic bone
Metapiastic bone

d. Hypertrophic
genes

Septentuer 2009

c. Normal tissues

7. Congo red staining for amyloid under polarized light

c.

Metastatic calcification is seen in:

a. Cysts
b. Atheroma

2007

c. Lungs alveoli
d. Blood vessels

Septembcr 2009

a. Metastatic
b. Dystrophic
c. Dyspiastic
d. Metaplastic
14.

5. Metastatic calcification does not occurs in; March

a. Fundal glands of intestine
b. Renal tubules

NF1
pRb

d. Fibroma of ovary
If calcium levels are normal, which type of
calcification is seen:

March 2007

a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Smali intestine

a.
b.

2008

c. Granulosa cell tumour

5. Red infarct is seen in:

except:

Tumour necrosis

Hyaline arteriosclerosis is seen in which of the

following conditions:
September

September 2005

c. Programmed internal cell death

d. Uncontrolled multiplication of cells

shows:

Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction

d.

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Monocytes
d. Macrophages
4. Apoptosis means:
a. Regeneration of cells after injury
b. Reperfusion injury of the cells

Menstrual cycle

c. Syphilis

3. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of which type

of

Graft versus host disease

a. Tuberculosis
b. Hypertension

March 2005

a. Vasodilatation
b. Neutrophil migration
c. Granuloma formation
d. Increased vascular permeabilit-v

are the examples of apoptosis except:

15"

bone

Extracellular hyaline change is seen in:

September 2007

September 2A09

a. Arteriosclerosis
b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
c. Leiomyoma
d. Alcoholic hyaline

Pathology

L7.

;,

First change seen in acute inflammation is:

a.

26.

September 2009

Increased permeability

All of the following

are true regarding G6FD

deficiency except:
March
a. A recessive Xlinked trait

b. Females are commonly affected

c. Oxidatir,.e stress causes ltemolvsis
d. Protective against plasmodium falciparum malaria

27.CD-II helps in assessment of which of the followino

t::

a.
b.

ifi
'rL,
l.
:

d.

19.

March 2009

Warihin-Finkeldey cells
N4arked follicular hyperplasia
'\4oih-eaten appearance,
Ali of the above

Arnyloid is stained with:

ScTtttttbt

a. Lugol's iodine
b. h{ethyl violet
c. Cor.rgo red
d. Sucian black

o
o
J
o
I
F
o-

..
,,
i:
,

20. Reactionary hemorrhage occur

a. 24 hours

o
c.
d.

within:

a. Adult T-cell leukemia

b. Hodgkin,s disease
c. M-yc-osis fungoides
d. Larger granular lvmphocl,tic leukemia
2009

23.

ABDOMINAL PATHbIOCY
29. Hydatid cyst is commonly found
a. Lungs

7-2 d'ays

2-4 days
4-6 davs

22. Marker

a. AFII
b. cA-125
c" CEA
d. HCG

,,
I
,
.

23.

for carcinoma colon is:

AFP (alpha feta protein) is raised in:

a. Renal carcinoma
b. Pancreaticcarcinoma
c" Prosiatic carcinoma
d. Hepatic carcinoma

,
.

24. CA-125 is marker for:

a. Breast cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Pancreatic cancer
d" Colon cancer
25.

March 2005
30.

in:

Septerfter 2005

Most common site of abscess formation due to

amoeba is:

a.

Septenrber 2005

Lungs

b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Brain

September 2005
31.

All of the following

are features of non-alcoholic

steatohepatitis except:
September
a. Hepatocyte ballooning

b.

SeTttenrber 2005

2005

Steatosis

c. Histological

features are different from alcoholic

steatohepatitis
d. Mallory bodies
32. Serum marker indicating active viral replication
in

hepatitis-B

Septentuer 2007

Tumor marker related to both colon carcinoma and

pancreatic carcinoma:
September 2008

a. CA-125
b. cA-19-9
c. CD-i5-3
d. All of the above

Mnrclr

b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Brain

:ii

CLINICAL PATHOLOCY
:: 21. Bence Jone's protein is:
., u Monoclonal heavy chains
D. Monoclonal light chains
, .. Both of above
,' d. None o{ the above

CEA is eievated in all of the follorving except:

a. Alcoholic cirrhosrs
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Carcinoma colon
d. Prostatic carcinoma

March 2010

Itiarch

is:

a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
c. HBcAg
d. HBVDNA
33.

Septenfuer 20A6

Which of the following is also known as australia

antigen:

a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
c. HBcAg
d. HBVDNA

Septenfucr 2006

t'

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

34.

Hepatitis which spreads by feco-oral route is:

42.

September 2007

Hepatitis A
Hepatifis B
HePatitis C
HePatitis D
35. Mallory bodies are seen in all of the following except:

3.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Peritoneal
Pleural
Pericardial
None of the above
43. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in all of the

September 2008

except:

a. Hepatocelluiarcarcinoma
b. Non-alcoholichepatitis
c. Secondary biliary cirrhosis
d. Alcohoiic hepatitis

a.
b.
d.

Massive splenomegaly is not seen in: September 2008

a. Malaria
b. Chronic rnyelogenous leukemia
c. Syphilis
d. Sickle celi anemia
37. True regarding infectivity period of hepatitis A:
Septnfuer 2009

b.
c.

before and

before

and 1 week after the onset of

jaundice
38. Presence

of HBeAg in serum of

patient of hepatitis-

B indicates:

September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Acute, non-infectious stage

Acute, infectious stage
Chronic, non-infectious stage
Chronic, infectious stage
39. Lardaceous spleen is a feature of:

a. Thalassemia
b. Amyloidosis
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Malaria
40.

44.

Skeletal tumor

Follwing

are the predisposing factors for hepatic

encephalopathy except:
Septtnrher 20A7
a. Gi bleeding

45.

Kupffer cells in liver

are responsible for:

a. Lytic functions
b. Excretory functions

False about hydatid cyst is which of the following:

Ideally should be managed by

September 2009

pre-operative

albendazole followed by surgery

20% saline is scolicidal

Most commonly involves lung

d. PAIR is employed for hepatic hydatid cysts

,!

,P
-t
!i f
d. Phagocytic fr-rnctions
46. Portal hypertension is said to be present if portal
I!
venous pressure is more
.,re than:
rnan:
lvnrcn lulu
I
a. 3-5 mm Hg
:Gl
b. 5-8 mm Hg
'<
c. 10-72mm Hg
15-20 nrm Hg

NERVOUS SYSTEM

March 2010

Scptcttfutr 2007

c. Absorptive functions

d.

Which of the following is associated with primary

hepatic malignancy:
March 2010
a. Cadmium

c.

Placental hrmor

b. Hypol;1lgP1;6
c. Metaboiic acidosis
d. Alcohol

PATHOLOCY

:I

47. All of the following are true regarding Guillain-Barre

syndrome except:
Mnrch 2008
a. Peripheral nervous system is affected
b. Histologically there is inflammation of peripheral
nerve
c. Descendingparalysis
d. Eievated CSF proteins
48. Negri bodies are characteristic of:
Septentber 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

b. Vinyl chloride
c. Chromium compounds
d. Asbestos
41.

"",

Obstructive jaundice

2 weeks after the onset of

jaundice
1-2 rveeks before and 1 week after the onset of
jaundice
2-3 rveeks before and 2 weeks after the onset o{
jaundice

d. 2-3 weeks

following :fili

Septnfuer 2009

c. Prostatic tumor

36.

a. 1-2 weeks

Amoebic liver abscess ruptures most commonly into

which cavity:
September 2009

Tetanus
Rabies

Polio
AIDS

CARDIOVASCU LAR SYSTEM PATHOLOCY

Rheumatic fever is commonly associated

49.

affection of:
a. Tricuspid valve

b. Mitral valve
c. Aortic valve
d. Pulmonary valve

with

September 2005

Pathology

50 Lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment

is seen in
heart muscles in:

''

51.

.:,'li

::

the.

53.

,.'
'
,

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM PATHOLOCY

59.

following are true regarding marantic

except:
Ninrtlt

a. Vegetation may emi,.oiize

b. Vegetations along the line of closure of leaf.lets
c. Affects damageci valves
d. May be associated rvith hypercoaguiable
states

All of the following are true regarding Wegener,s

gt"lYl"matosis except:
September

a. Affects large size biood vessels

b. May affect lungs and kidneys

,r,ui.b*

excePt:

2008

seen on mrcroscop).

a. Pancreatic exocrine
b. Astrocvtoma
c. Neurofibromatosis
d. Neuroblastoma

57.

c. Myoglobin
d. Troponin-T

with:

Se1ttember 2007

carcinoma

a. smalr cet carcinoma of the luncs

b. Pancreatic carcinoma
c. Gall bladder malignancy
d. Meduliary carcinoma of thyroid

september 2()07

52. Best for diagnosing pheochromocytoma

is:

a. Urinary catecholamines and .n",,

-"rifl"ti:"!*'oot
b. Serum catecholamines and their metabolites
c. CT scan
d. Surgery
63. All of the following are associated
with
pheochromocytoma except:

a. Ventricular arrhythmias
b. Interstitialfibrosis
c. Hypotension
d. Ectopic ACTH production

Fever

a. Troponin-I
b. Creatine kinase_MB

syndrorng

61. Ectopic ACTH is commonly

secreted by:

September 2008

Biomarker to rise earliest in myocardial

infarction is:

September 2007

50. Pheochromocytoma is usually

associated

c. Emboli
d.

are features of MEN

a. Pancreatic hunor
b. Pituitary tumor
c. Hvperparathyroidisrn
d. lvledullary carcinoma of tf,t,xrid

200g

d. PR3-ANCAs are present in upto 95% of cases

56. All of the following are features
of atrial myxoma
a- Ciubbing
b. Hypertension

All of the following

except:

Which of the following is not u .o*porrert

of Jones
criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic

c. N_ecrotizing granulomu

d. Mitral regurgitation

Marclr 2007

',
fever:
) :
March 2008
a. Pancarditis
O
b. Migrarory polyarrhritis
q
c.
Erythema nodosum
{
d
SYdenham chorea
V
of the following are true regarding
tetralogy of
t , Un.All
"
fallot except:
,arch 200g
Z
a. Boot shaped heart
i,,
t : b. Most common cyanotic
disease
. c. Clinicai consequencesheart
depends on severity of
subpulmonic sterrosis
, d- Left ventricular hypertrophy
'i 55.

September

c. Systemichypcrtension

endocarditis

'

Concentric hypertrophy of heart is

caused by:

a. Hypertrophic cardiornyopathy
b. Congestive heart lailure

Heart failure cells are:

a. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
b. Pigmented hepatocytes
c. Pigmented alveolar macrophages
d. Pigmented cells in paitcreas

Ail.of

52.

58.

Marclr 2007

a. Atrophy
b. Hypertrophl,
c. Infarction
d. Hyperplasia

64.

Nlarch 2010

Hypocalcemia is seen with which o{

the following:

March 2010

a. Thyrotoxicosis
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c" Acute pancreatitis
d. Addison disease

September 2008

'

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT

PATHOLOCY

73.

Which of the following is true about celiac sprue:

65. Longitudinal ulcers in the intestine are seen in:

September 2009

a. Associated with HLA-DII4

b. Antiendornvsial antibodies are highly

September 2008

6. Tuberculosis
b. Typhoid
c. Amoebiasis
d. Yersinia
65.

Characteristic of amebiasis is:

March 2005
74.

a. Skip lesion
b. Longitudinal ulcer
c. Flask shaped ulcer
d. Ulcers r'vith raised marp5ins
67.

c.
d.

following except:

a. Aclenocarcinoma
b. Squamous carcinorna
c. Anaplasticcarcinoma
d. Lymphoma

d.

69.

75.

Size and location helps to differentiate between

benign and malignant ulcer
All of the following are true regarding Crohn disease
except:

70.

Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in:

b. Jejunum
c. Terrninal colon
d. Transverse colon
77"Most common location of gastrinoma is:

September 2008

Se1stenfuer 2007

a. Tropical sprue
b. Ulcerative colitis

c.
d.
71.

Ceeliac disease

Which of the following antibody is highly specific

for celiac disease:
Seyttemher 2008

Crohn disease
Celiac sprue

MALToma

Intestinal angina symptom complex includes:

March 2009
acute

mesenteric vessel occlusion

b. Post-prandial abdominal pain, r.l'eight loss, chronic

March 2009

a. Ulcerative colitis

78.

a. Post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss,

Which of the following is associated with H.pylori:

b.
c.
d.

a. Pancreas
b. Duodenum
c. Jejunurn
d. Gall bladder

Crohn disease

a. Anti-gliadin antibodies
b. IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminase
c. Anti-endomysial antibody
d. All of the above
72.

Which of the following is not tme regarding

hyperplastic tuberculosis:
Mnrch 2005
a. Mass in right iliac fossa mav be the presenting

involved segment
76. Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the
intestine:
SeTttenfuer 2005
a. Ileum

Mnrch 2008

a. Skip lesions
b. Inflammation limited to mucosa
c. Recurrence common after surgery
d. Fisfulae formation is seen

atrnormalities
Tnmors of the CNS

:
b. Barium studies are helpful in diagrrosis
,Tl
c. Ileo-caecal junction is common site of invoivement D
d. Should be managed by surgical resection of the i{

Usuaily multiple
More common in the stomach
Round to oval, sharply punched out defect

Osteornas

fe,rttrre

True regarding morphological feature of peptic ulcer

1S:
March 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2010

Intestinal polyps

c. Dcntal

Septenrbcr 2007

68.

Gardner syndrome is associated with all of the

a.
b.

Most common type of malignancy of stomach is:

specific and

sensitive than other antibodies

Anti-gliadin antibodies are IgA/IgG
No pre'disposition to malignancv

mesenteric vessei occlusion

c.

Pre-prandial abdominai

pair;

r,veight gain, acute

mesenteric vesscl occlusion

d" Pre-prandial abdominal pain, rveight gain, chronic

mesenteric vessel occlusion

.I

.o
l-

ro

,O
,'<

Pathotogy

87.

All of the following

are causes of aplastic anemia

except:

a. Heparitis
b. Gold salts
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. Fanconi anemia

March

2A0B

True regarding philadelphia chromosome

are all of
the following except;
March2\\g
a. Present in 95% of CML patients
b. lt is the result of a reciprocai trar_rslttcation
c. Specific for CI\{L
d. Desigriated as t(9;22)(q34;q1i)
89. Thalassemia is inherited as:
88.

:
:

c.
d.

Both of the above

None of the above
81. Heinz bodies are seen in:

a. G-6-PD dc-ficienc;,
b. Sickle cell disease
c. Herediiary spherocytosis
d. PNH

82.

O..

a. HAV
b. HBV

Ol
J.

d.

J:

Fti

90.

Seplentl,cr 2006

<,j
(L,

c.

translocation is commonly associated

r.r,cessivt,

Trisomy 21 is associated with:

92.

i$
..--'

...,
t:r;ii:i.i.}
?r.,.ii!:,$:

i4,::;:::i:

"I

ii.tif:

85.

a. Chronic blood loss

b. Achlorlrydria
c. Extensit.e surgical

Septentber 2007

BT

CT

All of the following

are true regarding hemolytic

arrcuu4 reePt:
anemla
except:
Raised haptoglobin levels
b. Raised unconjugated bilirubin

a"

d. Hemosiderinuria

,.., tU.AIl of the following

a.
b.

c.
d"

2008

removal of the

bowel

|i,i,f
I
il, c. Reticulocytosis
i

Septemher 2008

Iron deficiency anaemia is seen with all

of the
following except:
Septenfuer

d rPT"F
i:.l.

Septenrlter 200g

c. Both of the abor.e

d. None of the above

c. PT
,ri

recessive

Auer rods are seenrjn:

a. ALL

a. ALL
b. AML

CML

In hemophilia, which of the following is raised:

a.
b.

91.

September 2007

d" CLL
84.

b'. Autosomal

b. AML
c. CLL
d. CML

None of the above

with:
a. AML
b. ALL

domLnant

d. Xlinked

c. HCV
83. t(9;22Xq34;q11)

Septcntbcr 2(t0g

a. Alttosomal

c. Xlinked dominant

Persistent marrow aplasia is caused

by which

hepatitis virus:

(9i

Sr'1ttcnilrt,r

March 20A8

93.

a. AML
b. CML
c. ALL
d. CLL

indicates intravascular hemolvsis

are true regarding CLL excepi:

Most common type of leukemia in aclults

Males are commonly affected
ZAP,70 has prognostic importance
Affects T-cells

March

2oog

d. Excess of meat in the diet

Gum hyperplasia is seen with:

94.

March 2u09

In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are

numerous

in:

a.
b.

c.

Septentber 2009

M2
M3
M4

d. M5

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination

95.

Increased osmotic

fragility is characteristic of:

102. A patient

September 2009

Septenfuer 2009

a. Hereditary spherocytosis.
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
96. All of the following are true regarding the findings
of peripheral smear in vitamin 812 deficiency except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hypersegmented neutrophils
Septenfuer 2007

March 2005

a. X-linked dominant
b" X{inked recessive
d. Autosomal dominant
99. All of the following are true regarding minimal
change glomerulonephritis except:

March 2005

a" Poor response to steroids

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2008

Diabeticnephropathy
Polycystic kidney

Both of the above

None of the above

i:|-

io
io
;.{

March 2010

Pyelonephritis
Renal artery stenosis
Polycystic kidney disease

Bilateralhydronephrosis

108. Exudative pleural effusion is seen

Chronicglomerulonephritis
March 2009

of:

,io

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY

AIDS related nephropathy

Acute tubular necrosis

Acute papillary necrosis

:.7
;l>
1i{
jlI

DM

Henoch-Schonleinpurpura
Hemolytic uremic s)'ndrome
Hypertension
Diabetes Mellitus
107. Spider-leg sign on IVP is suggestive

a.
b"
c.
d.

Following circulatory shock, which of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

Malignanthypertension
Henoch-Schonleinpurpura

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Normal to increased kidney size is seen in all of the

occurs:

Septentuer 2007

Polyarteritisnodosa
105. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated with:

than adults

following except:

101.

Renal carcinorna

September 2009

Autosomal recessive

a.
b.
c.
d.

Urinary bladder Carcinoma

Edema

Hypertension

except:

Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited:

100.

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 20L0

Hepatic carcinoma
Lung carcinorna
105. Flea bitten kidney is seenin all of the following

PATHOLOCY

b. Normal glomerulus
c. More common in childrens
d. Absence of podocytes

Hematuria

Septentber 20()5

Microcvtic red cells

b. Fat embolism
c. Amniotic fluid embolism
d. All of the above

c.

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Massive proteinuria
L04. Beta-naphthyl amine dyes predisposes to:

Poikilocl'tosis

97,DIC may be caused by:

a. Proionged pregnancy

98.

Mild to moderate proteinuria

following

Hypercellular marrow

EXCRETORY SYSTEM

Hematuria

Hypertension
Normal RBC
103. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of the

March 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

with nephritic syndrome will not have

109.

in:

March 2005

Pneumonia
Nephrotic syndrome
Congestive cardiac failure
Cirrhosis

Few RBCs, raisede neutrophils with some

hemorrhage in alveoli is seen in:
Marc:h 2005
a. Cray hepatization
b. Red hepatization
c. Viral pneumonia
d. Resolving phase of lobar pneumonia

l.

Pathology

110. Community acquired

pneumonia is most commonly
caused
Scptenber 2005 and hlarch 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

.'

(9

o
J
o

r
F

Klebsiella

o-

following is an obstructive lung

Bronchiar asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchoectasis

Si:Ttterriltt'r 2()05

Bl,sinosis

Bronchial asthma

ir.
c.
in:

March

Bronchiectasrs

March 2007

Sifus inversus
Chronic sinusitis

a.
b
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2008

Nephrotic syndrome
Bacterial pneumonia
125.

#
$i

fi

tr
F

a.
b"
c.
d"

preural

effusion

Pericardialinvolvement
l{omer,s syndrome
Tumour obstruction of the airway
118. Bysinnosis is caused
by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Bagasse

Mold hay
Cotton
Bird droppings

Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinonra
Large cell carcinorna

Ebstein anomaly

2010

September 2009

\/SD
Tota] anon-raious pulmonary venous
connection
ASD

All of the following

are seen

a. Fever
b. l\Iental confusron
c. Diarrhoea
d. Unilateralpneumonitis
126.

hlarclt

are seen in the all of the

except:

Septentber 2009

March 2t)05

Srnall cell carcinoma

fields
following except:

117. Apical

ffi

Axial

124. Plethoric lung

Hepatic failure
lung carcinoma commonly manifests
as:

2005

Left lateral decubitus

Right lateral decubitus
123. Most common type of
lung carcinoma in non
smokers is:

March 2007

Bronchiectasis

which
March

Supine

c.
cl.

syndrome:

Cardiomegalv
116. Exudative pleural
effusion is seen in:
a. Left ventricular failure

t.i

..1. Fibrosing ajveolitjs

722. Left pleural effusion
is detected best in

a.
b.

Bronchiectasis

Chronic bronchits
Emphysema
115. Which is not a part of
Kartageners

Tropical eositropirili.r
Bronchiectasis

position:

Chronic bronchitis
,,
Pneumonia
.
' 114. Curschmann,s spiral are seen in:
a. Bronchial asthma

b.
c.
d.

2007

207A

March 2()fi

Nttesoihelioma

Fanner:,s lung

2070

Clubbing is cornmonly seen in

all of ihe following

except:

Asthma

a.
b.
c
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

121.

Bag.rssosis

113. F{eids index is increased

March

a^ Bronchiectasis
b. Apical lung carcinoma
c. Chronic bronchitis
,1. Bronchial asthrna

All of the abovt

a.
b.
a.
d.

Mnrclt

Kidney and intestrne

Kidney and heart
Kidney and ]ungs
Kidney ancl liver

Horner,s syndrome is associated

with:

120.

septttnber 2005

112. Disease causecl by cotton

is:

b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

H.influenza

disease:

'

syndrome:

Staphylococcusaureus
Streptococcuspneumonrae

111. Which is of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

119. Which pair of organs

is involved in Goodpasture'g

by:

in legionnaire,s

disease

SePtember 2009

Miliary shadow on chest X_ray is not

seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pneumoconiosis
Sarcoidosis

Tuberculosis
COPD

March 2010

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination

fi7. All of the following produces cavitating lesion in

the chest radiograph

a.
b.
c.
d.

except:

Caplan's syndrome
Hematoma
Squamous cell carcinoma lung
Hamartoma
1"36,

lVhich is the following is not inherited

as

b.
c.
d.

X-linked

137.

131.

Duchenne muscular dvstropl'ry

C,vstic fibrosis

Hemophilia
138.

b.
c.
d.

139.

Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
133. Organ which undergoes involution:
a. Parathyroid gland

HIV

a.
b.
c.
d.

Marclr 2008

Usually of the four types

Skin lesion are sparse in African type
Lymphadenopathy is an essential feature in the
AlDS-associated is commoner in homosexual

All of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2005

134.

2t;1r,

are true for sarcoidosis except:

Septentber 2008

which type of hypersensitivity reaction:

rrrlruru

St1ttg111b.,

ciassical tvpe

d.

March 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

c.
d.

are true for lupus anticoagulant

Kaposi sarcoma is characterized by all of the

a.
b.
c.

Iatrogenic diseases
Auto-immunediseases
Tumours

132. SLE is

All of tire follorving

following except:

Mediates type IV hypersensitivity

Kill viruses
They are iarge granular lymphocvtes
Reieases small rytoplasmic granules of proteins
called perforin and granzyme

MHC is important in pathogenesis of:

a. Idiopathic disease

Cytomegalovirus
Hunran papilloma virus
Flepaiitis B virus
Epstein-Barr virus

syndrome except:
a. Recurrent abortions
b. Arteriai thrombosis
c. flrrombtrcvtosis
d. Cardiac valve vegetatio?rs

Nlarch 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

lron
Zinc
Nickel

Common warts are caused by which virus:

a.
b.
c.
d.

N4nrclt 2005

True about NK cells are all of the following except:

Copper

September 2006

Surface epithelium
germ cell
Stroma of the ovary
None of the above

recesslve:
a. G-6-PD deficiencv

130.

September 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ovarian fumours commonly arises from: Mnrch 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.
129.

Wilson disease is due to accumulation of:

March 20L0

MISCELLANEOUS
128.

135.

140.

Kveim test is the most specific test for sarcoidosis

Caseatingepithelioidgranulomas
Most commonly involves lungs

Unknolvn etiology

Amyloid deposits in liver are initially seen in:

March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mttrch 2005

Space of disse

Hepatic parenchvma
Intrahepatic ducts
Portai tract

brilru

Pineal gland

141"

Thymus

affects:
CD4 cells
CD8 cells

Natural killer cells

Helper cells

All of the following

are true

Mnrch 2005,2008

a. Ma1, be

for Sjogren syndrome

September 2009

except:

associated

with other

autoimmune

dise-ases

b.
c.
d.

Excesssivesalivation

immunologicallymediateddisease
Commonlv associated rvith rheumatoid arthritis

!
{..F

o
ro
o

Pathology

142.

Multiple sinuses from infection o{ great toe is

mainly caused by:
a.

Tuberculosis

b.

Actinomycetes

c.
d.

Trichosporum

hands and feet bones:

a.
b.
c.
d.
144.

>i
(9r,

o,i
Jii

of
Ei:
Fi:

<r

o.:'

:tj

:i

;:i

i
r
]:

"ti

:i

:t

a.
b.
c.
d.
146.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mnrch 20C7

Bronchus
147.

Pelvis
Breast

Syringomyelia
Varicose veins
Leprosy
Prolongedrecumbency

Septenber 2007
148.

Seyttenfuer 200g

Affects immuocompromised patients

Grown on sabouraud,s agar
Capsular antigen can be cletected in the CSF
Anticapsular antibody is protective
of the following helps in the diagnosis of
Septentber 200g

Blood smear

Immobilisation test
Examination of the bone marrow

Malignant transformation to melanoma is common

in:
Marth 2C09

a.
b.
c.
d.

Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the follorvine

a.
b.
c.
d.

All

are true regarding Cryptococcus

except:

leishmaniasis except:
Aldehyde test

for metastasis to

Prostate

except:

All of the following

neoformans

Stytentber 2AA7

Histoplasmosis

L43. Carcinoma, which has predilection

145.

Dermal nevus

]unctional nevus
Congenital nevus
Lentigo nevus

True regarding ubiquitin is:

a. Required for apoptosis
b. It is found throughout the cell
c. Found only in eukaryotes

d.

All of the above

September 2009

]#

MICROBIOLOGY (euestions)
GENERAL MICROBIOLOCY

1.

8.

Best laboratorv test to diagnose

a.
b.

March 2007

a. ELISA
b. Western blot
c. Complement fixation
d. RIA
2.

c.
test

1S:

March 2008

a. Blood agar
b. Robertson's cooked meat medium
c. Thioglycollatemedium
d. Sabouraud Dextrose agar

9. True about autoclaving is:

a. 115 degree C at for 20 min
b. l2l degree C at for 15 min

c.
d.
10.

Septenfuer 2009

a. Alkaline peptone water

b. Moruour's taurocholate Tellurite peptone water
c. Selenite F broth
d. All of the above
4. Blood agar is an example of:
a. Enrichment media
b. Enriched media
c. Selective media
d. Transport media

d.

13.

d" Resazurin test

September 2007

Formaldehyde

Cold sterilization is done by:

September 2007

Incineration is done for which of the following:

September 2008

STERILIZATION

test

20CZ

a. Liquid waste
b. Anatomy waste
c. Sharp r.r'aste
d. All of the above

species are taken into account

&

Mnrch

a. Steam
b. Inionizing radiation
c" Infra red
d. uv

stream urine

September 20A5,2007

by:

c. Hot air oven

March 2007

6. Effective mode of sterilization is:

September
a. Hot water
b. Stearn under pressure
c. Steam at abmospheric pressure
d. Dryheat
7. Pasteurization of milk is determined by:

2007

way to sterilize all-glass syringes is:

a. Boiling
b" Autoclave

12.

a. Usually gram positive bacteria in urine

b. Bacterial culture is non specific
c. More than 1 lac colony forming units/ml of mid

Operation theatres are sterilized

11. Best

March 2010

5" True about bacteriuria is:

March

118 degree C at for 15 min

124 degree C at for 15 min

a. Ethylene oxiCe gas

b. Formaldehydefumigation
c. Washing r,vith soap water
d. Carbolic acid sprpying

3. Which of the following is an enrichment media:

a. Methylene blue reduction

b. Phosphatase test
c. Turbidity test

September 2005

Blue bag
Red bag
Black beg

d. Yellow bag

Best medium to grow anaerobic bacteria exclusively

d. Multiple bacterial

Sharp instrument should be disposed in:

HIV infection

14.

2005

Biological indicator for determining efficacy of

autoclaving is:
Septenfuer

2009

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Clostridium Perfringenes

c. Bacillus stearothermophilus
d. Salmonella typhi
15.

2009

Autoclaving is done at what temperature for 15

minutes:
March

a. 118 degree C
b. l21degreeC
c" 126 degree C
d. 134 degree C

20L0

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

15.

Endoscopes are best sterilized

by:

September 2aA7

24.

True about Chediak Higashi syndrome is: March 2007

a. Boiling

September 2009

a. Neutrophilia
b. Impaired bacteriolysis

b" Autoclave

c. Lysol solution 20"uo

d. Cidex solution
17.

c. Autosomal dominant

Moist heat kills all of the following except:

September 2009

25.

a. Coxiella bumetti
b. Brucella
c. Salmonella
d. Mycobacteriurn
IMMUNIT}'
18. Complement Fixation test is:

March 2007

a. IgA

b. IgE
C, IgG

d. Iglvl
26. All are type II hypersensitivily

20.

Wheal and flare reaction is:

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

Septenber 2A07

a. Steven johnson's s)'ndrorne

b. Drug induced hemolytic anemia
c. Drug induced thrombocytopenia
d. Hemolytic disease of newbom
September 2005

d. IgC
28.

IgA
IgE
IgD

September 2007

IgM

c. C3
d. c4
29.

True regarding agglutination reaction are all except:

September 2007

a. It is less sensitive than precipitation reaction for

Cells associated with humoral immunitv is:

a. NK cells
b. B cells
c. T cells
d. Null cells

b.

c.

detecting antibodies.
Works on the same principle as that of precipitation
reaction
It is the method used for cross matching and blood

grouping

d. Agglutination occurs optimally when

Which of the following is type III hypersensitivity

a. Prausnitz-kustner reaction
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Arthus reaction
d. Rh incompatibility

Which one of the following is a major component in

activation of the complement via altemative pathway:

a. C1
b. c2

True about IgM is:

September 2005
a. Mediates Prausnitz-kusbrer reaction

reaction:

-)
c=

c. IgE

September 2005

23.

September 2007

b. Primary response
c. Transported across placenta
d. Secondary response
22.

;{

a. IgA
b. IgD

September 2005

21.

:'il

27. Intravascular hernolysis is mediated by:

Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk:

a.
b.
c.
d.

reaction except:

September 2045

a. WIDAL
b. Coombs test
c. Wassermann reaction
d. VDRL
19.

d. Associated with polyrythemia

Which Immunoglobulin is involved in anaphylaxis:

September 2006

antigens and

antibody react in equivalent proportions.

in Di George syndrome:
a. Humoral immunity
b. Cell mediated immunity
c. Thyrnic hyperplasia
d. Autoimmune hemolvtic anaemia

30. Defect seen

September 2009

o
w
o
lo
o

Microbiology

31. Erythroblastosis foetalis is

hypersensitivity:

which type of

BACTERIOLOCY

Scptember 2007, 2009

38.

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
32.

Half life of IgG:

Mnrch 201.0

39. Urease

d.

Salmonella
40. Staphylococcus aureus is
March 2010

tt'a .s

b. Nose
c. Skin
March

Hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is which type

a.
b.

*s
$

36.

::1""'
D. I(rdney

March 2005

c.

September 2005,2010

c.
d.

immunity that are active

B cell

d" AII of the above

March

2009

is:

September 2005

a. VDRL
b. Widal test
c. Urine culture
d. Cram's staining

of the above

against viral cells include:

Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae

44. Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever

histamine is released.

c. NK cells

tetani

a. Pneumocystiscarinii
b. Clostridiumdifficile

a. It is mediated by allergen specific IgE

b. lype-I hypersensitivity reaction
c. Cytokines like Il-4, ILs and IL6 along with

Cytotoxic T cells

Sterptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio cholerae

d. Clostridium

September 2007

a.
b.

Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly caused by:

a.
b.

Which of the following is true about anaphylaxis:

37. Components of innate

tetani

43. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:

Lung
Heart

d. All

cholerae

d. Clostridium
42.

2005

Sterptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus

c. Vibrio

r_i

c.
d.

41. Venkataraman-Ramakrishnan media is used for:

!;1

= !
$

normal inhabitant of:

Throat

d. GIT

March 20A7
> f of hypersensitivity reaction:
I t a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
\f
^ t:::l b. Tvpe Il hypersensitivity reaction
F ,i c. Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction
(IlFt d. Typ" IV hypersensitivity reaction
= H 35.Hyperacute rejection occurs most commonly in which
v
March 2007
^C $ organ:

9i3

March 2005

a.

a.3
.ti b. 4

S+.

March 2005

c. Corynebacterium

test is done for:

a. H.pylori
b. Proteus

IgM have how many four-peptide subunits:

o.

2005

b. Bacteroides
c. Fusobacterium
d. Actinomyces

a. 5 days
b. 6 days
c. 8 davs
d. 23 days
33.

Which of the following is Gram positive: March

a. Veillonella

45.

Enteric fever is caused by:

a. Salmonella typhi
b. Salmonella paratyphi A
c. Salmonella paratyphi B
d. All of the above

September 2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCi screenincr Examination

4f, Causative agent of sore throat is:

September 2005

!.

lefter arangement is seen in:

March 2009
M.tuberculosis
Co4mebnacterium diphtheria
c. Chlarnydia trachomatis
d. M. leprae
55. Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell
wall of:
March 2009
54. Chinese

a.
b.

3. Staphylococcusaureus
Sffeptococcus pyogenes

g. H. Intluenzae
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
47. Culture medium for cultivation of mycobacterium is:
September 2005

a. Virus
b. Gram positive bacteria
c. Gram negative bacteria
d. All of the above

a. Ludlam's medium
b. Loeffler's serum
s. Thayer-Martinmedium
d. LJ medium
48.

Type of light used in dark ground microscopy:

56.

nucroscoPy:

Scptenrber 2005

49.

Confirmatory test for tuberculosis

a. Gram's staining

d. All of the above

is:

57.

a.
b.

September 2006

EPEC

EHEC
58 Most common cause of gas gangrene

b.
c.
d.

True about Borrelia recurrentis are all except:

March 2007
60.

exists

d. It infeets the person via mucous membranes

52. All are gram negative anaerobic exceph September 2ff7
a. Streptococci
b. Bacteroides

Scotochromogens

Photocfuomogens
Rapid grolvers

Swimming pool granuloma is caused

a. Mycobacterium
b. My'cobacterium

chelone
kansasii

c. Mycobacterium

marinum

Mycobacterium ulcerans
61. Ghon's focus reflecl
a. Mitiary t rbe.c,rtotsis
b" Primary complex

Actinomyces

c.
d.

c.

62"

September 2005

September 2005

a.

Decrease in

b. E. coli
c. Proteus

c-AMp

Itlarch 20L0

Organism responsible for catheter predisposed UTI is:

Increase in c-AMP

Activates Na+ K+ ATpase

d" Inhibit Na+K+ ATpase

by:

Tuberculouslymphadenitis
Post primary tuberculosis

September 2007, 2009

a.
b.

Septentber 2009

d.

d. Clostridium welchii
Mechanism of action of cholera toxin:

September 2009

c.
d.

Clostridium fallax
Clostridium perfringens
59. M. avium intracellulare is:
a. Non photochromogens

a. Causes epidemic relapsing fever

b. It is transmitted by ixodes tick
c. No other known animal reservoir of B. recurrentis

is:

a. Clostridium histolyticum
b. Clostridiumbifermentans

March 2007

a. L| media
b. Potassium tellurite media
c. Loeffler's serum slope
d. McConkey

53.

t;tl

EIEC

d.

Culture media used for corynebacterium diphtheria

c.

$
,{

Travellels diarrhea is caused due to:

c. ETEC

rs:

51.

nOS t1j:"!

c. Chlamydia

b. AFB
c. Guinea-piginoculation
d. Tuberculin testing
50.

Septentuer

a. Vibrio
b. Spirochaetes

Dark light

b. Reflected light
c. Polarized light
d. Transmitted light

Which of the following is seen in dark field

Pseudomonas

d. All of the above

=
o
v
o
@
o
r
o
o

Microbiology

63. Pneumatocoele is most commonly

caused by:

a.
b.

70. Swarming growth is shown by which

gram positive

bacilli:

September 2005,2010

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Klebsiella

c. Hemophilusinfluenzae
64.

c. Proteus
d. All

d. Staphylococcus aureus
Mycobacterium leprae can be cultured
in:
a. Testes of guinea pig
b. L] medium
c. Footpad of mice
d. Testes of albino rats

September 20a6

a"

72.

Staphylococcus epidermidis
Enterococci

73.

tr

67.

C)

2N7
74.

Which of the following is commonlyresponsible

for
toxic shock s;mdrome in female patienb September
2Mg
a. Streptococcus-group B

b. Pseudomonas
c. H.influenzae
d. Staphylococcus
68.

September

a. Incubation period of over 20 hours

b. Immediate antibiotic therapy is required
c. Heat labile enterotoxin is responsible
d. Common with dairy products
69.

September 2009

Streptococcus intermedius

Candida albicans

Which has an incubation period of less than

c.

Filaria

d.

Kala-azar

ffust

March2t

weelc

March

sePtembu

a. Glandular fever
b. Burkitfs lymphoma

c. Pancreatic

carcinoma
Nasophar;mgeal carcinoma
76. Most serious complication of measles
is:

d.

SePtember

a. Croup
b. Meningo-encephalitis
c. Otitis media
d. Pneumonia

Most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis

is:
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

d. Altering cyclic GMp levels

After initiation oI DOTS therapy for category_I,
sputum examination is done at

VIROLOCY
75. EBV(ebstein barr virus) causes
all except:

Which of the following is true for staphylococcus

September 2Cf.8

protein synthesis

a. Cholera
b. Measles

aureus

aurus food poisoning:

september

synthesis

a. 1 month of treatment
b. 2 months of treatment
c. 4 months of treatment
d. 6 months of treatment

Complications of cholera ale all of the following

a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Acute renal failure
d. Hypovolemicshock

glucose

c. Promotingacetylcholinerelease

d. Hemophilus
exceph

Diphtheria toxin,s mechanism of action is:

a. Inhibiting
b. Inhibiting

March 2007

c. Streptococcusviridans

o
o
J
o
o
o

September

Pneumococcus
Gonococci
Pseudomonas

b.
c.
d. Staphylococci

most commonly involved in prosthetic

vall'ular heart disease within 2 months of
surgery is:

66.

of the above

Which olganism can penetrate intact comea:

71.

65. Bacteria

a.
b.

september

a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium welchii

Z.

Carriers for Herpes simplex virus

a. Man
b. Monkey

c.
d.

Both
None

is:

Mnrch

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

ft. Nl of the following belong to arboviruses group

except:

86.

c. Blastomyces

ParamYxovirus

d.
is true regarding HIV virus except:

87.

of reverse
transcriptase enzyme
d. Acts on Cf)4 cells
80. SSPE (Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) is
associated with:
Mnrch 2010
a. Tetanus
b. Meningitis
c. Choiera
d. Measles

c.
d.
E8.

by:

Nlarclt 2009

Cryptococcus neoformans
Histoplasma
d. Coccidioidomycosis
89. Which of the following is not a fungal infection:

a. Blastomycosis
b. Cryptococcus
c. Actinomycosis
d. Histoplasmosis

route is:

September 2007

a. Rabies virus
b. Polio virus
c. EB virus
d. Enterovirus
that encodes the toxin for cholera is transmitted

byt

Septembu 2007

Sclerotic bodies are seen in:

September 2009
Sporotrichosis
Histoplasmosis
c. Chromoblastomycosis
d. Rhinosporodiosis
91. Amongst the following which is the rarest
opportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS patient:
90.

a.
b.

September 2008

a. Protozoa
b. Bacteria
c. Bacteriophage
d. Fungus

a. Cryptococcosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Aspergillosis

MYCOLOCY
are dimorphic

c.

fungi except:

March 2005

Histoplasma

Paracoccidia
True about Cryptococcus neofor:rrans are all except:

a. Possess a prominent polysaccharide

b. Abundant in pigeon droppings
c. Dimorphic fungr

d'

MISCELLANEOUS

True about prions are all except:

September 2009
a. Associated with Cruetzfeldt-|acob disease
b. Heat labile
c. Sensitive to proteases
d. Infectious proteinaceous particles
93. Southern blot test is for detection of:
September 2005
a. Antibodies against viral proteins
92.

d.
85.

Blastomyces

March 2aL0

Virus that spreads by both hematogenous and neural

a. Blastomycoses
b. Cryptococcus

SEtember 2007

Blastomycosis
Sporotrichosis
Maduram'gcosis
Rhinosporodiosis

c.

Dengue hemorhagic fever is caused

All

causes subcutaneous fungal

N{ost common fungus causing chronic meningitis is:

a.
b.

a. Alphavirus
b. Flavivirus
c. Bunyavirus
d. Orbivirus

83. Gene

Histoplasma

All of the following

a.
b.

Septembu 2007

Cryptococcus
Candida

infections except:

a. Belongs to the subgroup lentivirus

b. Double stranded DNA virus
c. Characterised by the presence

84.

yeast like fungi:

3. Bunyavirus

March 2010

82"

!.

c. Reovirus
d. Alphavints
79. Nl of the following

81,

Which is

a.
b.

September 2009

September 20aS

capsule

Causes meningitis in the immunocompromised

b.

DNA

c.

RNA

d. Carbohydrate epitopes

Microbiology

94.

AII of the following

excePl

are arthropod borne d.iseases

a. Malaria
b. Filariasis

trimester, leads to maximum incidence of congenital

d.

Dracunculosis

a. Adhesion
b. Arrest

o
E

Transmigration of cells

Which of the following infection, if occurs in the

first
malformations:

except:

Io

d.
96.

c. Dengue
95. Integrins are associated

o
o
J

c. Rolling

September 2007

with all of the following

Septembu 2009

a.
b.

Rubella
Toxoplasmosis

c. CMV
d. All

of the above

March

.i1r-1,':

g,-f,l.f,ASSESSIWEN"

GEIMCI SCKEf;NTNG.

PARASITOLOGY (Questions)
L.

Promastigote form of Leishmania is found in which

part of

sandfly:

8.

March 2005

Septentber

a. Lvmphnode
b. GIT
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow

2.

Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of:

a. Cryptosporidiurn
b. Babesia
c. Irr-reurnocYstis

9.

Crescentic macrogametocyte
Large schizonts

10.

a. Pigs
b. Rats
c. Sand fh'
d. Ticks

12"

of:

Stprerrroer

Dracunculosis

Nor.y-McNeal-Nicolle INNNI medium is used for:

Most common parasitic infection in AIDS:

Septenther

Mnrch 2005

13.

Non bile stained eggs is found in:

a. Ancvlostomaduodenale
b. Trichuris trichura
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d" All of the above

March 2005

a. [.ung fluke
b. Tapeworms
c. Intestinal flukes
d. Liver flukes

14. LD bodies are associated

7. Iron Deficiency anemia is eommonly

with:

Septembe.r 2009

a. Larva migrans
b. Kala azar
c. Malaria
d" Loa loa

caused by:

SeTttentber 2005,

Ancvlostoma duodenale

Cyclops is a part of life cycle

Toxoplasmosis

a. Ancylostorna duode'nale
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis

Paragonismus westermani is commonly called:

All of the above

Tsetse f11'

a. Giardia lamblia
b. Leishmania dor-rovani
c. Echinococus
d. Toxoplasma gondii

A4arch 2005

Megaloblastic anemia caused by:

d.

Marclt

September

a. Taenia saginata
b. Diphyllobotrum latum
c. Taenia solium
d. Echinococcus granulosus

c.

by:

fly

b. Echinococcus
c. Leishmaniasis+
11.

Q-fever is caused by:

solium

Sand

a.

d.

a. Rochaemeiia quintana
b. Mvcoplasma bovis
c. Coxiella bumetti
d. lvlycoplasma hominis

Enterobius vermicularis

Kala azar is transmitted

cl. Hard tick

Babesiosis is most commonly transmitted by:

b. Taenia

c.
a.
b.

lv4arch 2005

5.

Preferentially infects old erythrocytes only

Schuffner's dots is characteristic

c. Flea

cl. Joaoplasma

4.

a.
b.
d.
NIarch 20A5,2r-tOg A Scptember 2007

3.

True about plasmodium falciparum is:

Mnrch 2009
15.

Black malarial pigment is seen in:

a. P.vivax
b. P.falciparurn
c" P.malariae

o. l'.ovlae

Scptenrber 20N

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

15.

[,licrofilaria is not seen in:

6. LYmPnancs
6. Hydrocoele fluid

c. Chopra's

September 2009

Imrnunofluorescent antibody test

19. Interrnediate host for hydatid disease is:

g. ChYlcus urine
d. Blood
nuclei at the tail tip is seen in:
lZ. Two
3. Brugian malaYi

March 2010

a. Cort'
b" Man

c. Dog

September 2009

d.

b. Wucheria bancrofti

20.

g. Onchocerca volvuius
d. Mansonella ozzardt
specific and sensitive test for diagnosing kala1S. Highly

azari

antimony test

d.

March 2070

a. Complfll'nt fixation test rvith \VKK antigcn

b. Napier's aldehyde test

Pig

Investigation for definitive identification of

cryptosporodium:
March 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

ELISA
lmmunofluorescence test
Demonstration of oocyte in feces
Fluoroscent staining rvith auramine

n
CN

o
ro
o

- a i'

s H$sFf

i:;n=,,,

is a pro_drug:

8.
Septentber 2005

Pharmocodynamics deals
with:
September 2005
a. I\4ode of excretion of a drug
b. Mechanism of action of a drng
c. Transport of drug across the b--iological
membranes
d. Latency of onset
Therapeutic index of a drug

signifies: Septonber
a. Dose n'hich produces maximum
effect
b. Safety margin
c. Efficacy
d. Maximum response that can be
elicited

9. Orphan drugs are:

a. Commercially eas1, to obtain.
b. Drugs to treat rare diseases u-"ually

c. Developed with an intention

d. AII of ihe above

2005

10.

a. Oral
b. Subcutaneous

September 2005

11.

5.

Administration of which of the

following drug
requires monitoring:

a.

Lithium

March 2007

12.

c. Diazepam
Acetazolamide
Area under time and plasma
concentration curve

signifies

i .5:

ig
rffi
ffi

c.

Extent of absorption ofdrug

Efficacy

d.

Plasma clearance of a dmg

rF

H
ffi,
ffi
F3

*
ilt

i*
3"
,"4

r:i

September 2005
13.

Depot progestins is administered

by which route

AII of the following drug

March

2A1a

route

act on the dopaminergic

Which of the following is not

rnetabolized by

acetYlation:
a. Hydralazine
b. Phenytoin
c. Isoniazid
d. Procainamide

7. First order kinetics is:

Se2ttentber 2005
a. Absorptior-r of the drug is independent
of the serum

septenfuer 2oo|

concentration.

b.
ffi

Potency

2010

a. Domperidone
b. Dobutamine
c. Fenoldopam
d. Metclopramide

d.

a.
b.

Mnrch

:.

receptors except:

b. Haloperidol

6.

ol,monetary gain

a. Subcutaneous route
b. Intravenous route
c. Intramuscular route
d. Both subcutaneous and intramuscular

Sublingual

2010

Therapeutic drug monitoring

is required for all of the

a. Sulfonamides
b. Metformin
c. Cycloserine
d. Gentamycin

c. Rectal
d.

March

following drugs except:

by a drug
First pass metabolism is maximum
with which route:

n
:.

Septetnber )Qg7

2-3 half lives

3-4 half lives

c. 4-5 half lives

d. 5-6 half lives

d. Morphine

3.

-'..

Steady state concentration

of a drug is achieved in:

a.
b.

c. Streptomycin
2.

;,lC,r-fi"

PHARN,IACO LO Gy (euestions)

CENERAL PRINCIPLES

1. Which of the following

a. Clonidine
b. Enalapril

EJv? 4
FFII'as
^
E/IvrcI sc*Er*r*ol

Elimination of the drug is independent

of the serum

concentration.

c.

Elimination of the drug is proportional

to the serum

concentration.

d. Absorption of the drug is proportional

to the serum
concentration.

DRUCS ACTING ON CVS

14.

Beta-blockers are used in all

of the following except:

a. Essential tremors
b. AV block

c. Angina pectoris
d. Migraine prophylaxrs

NIarch 2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

15.

In a patient with concomitant diabetes, antiSeptember 2005

hypertensive agent of choice is:
a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta adrenergic blocker

c. ACE inhibitor
d. Plasrr.a kinins
16.

a. Drugs affecting

Which of the following is the shortest acting betaSeptember 2006

a. Acebutolol
b. Sotalol
c. BisoProlol
d. Esmolol

March 20L0

Chronotrophic means:
the contractility of heart

b. Drugs affecting heart rate

c. Drugs affecting the myocardial blood flow
d. Drugs affecting diastolic relaxation.
23.

blocker:

17.

22.

Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a

September 2006
predominant peripheral action:

a. Verapamii
b. Diltiazem
c. Nifidepine
d. Depranil
24.

Recommended step in salicvlate toxicity is:

Calcium channel blocker causing cerebral

SePtentbl 2006

Scptember 2006

vasodilatation is:
a. Nimodipine

b. Felodipine
c. Amlodipine
d. Nitrendipine
18. ACE

d.

Observation
25. Drug of choice for acute lefiventricular failure:

in:

SePtenrber 2006

March 2007

a. Rapiddigitalization
b. I/V AminophYlline
c. I/V Morphine
d. I/V Furosemide

a. Hypertension
b. Myocardialinfarction
c. Renal artery stenosis

d.

agents

c. Alkaline diuresis

inhibitors are contraindicated

Left ventricular dysfunction

19. Viagra

a. Chleating
b. Atropine

like medicine is given in which condition:

SePtenfuer 2007

March 2007

20.

Which of the following is not

a. Hydralazine
b. Sodium nitroprusside
c. Minoxidil
d. CaptoPril

agent:

positive ionotropic

Allof the following drug

crisis excepta. Labetalol

September 2007

a. Dobutamine
b. Dopamine
c. Diltiazem
d. Amrinone
21.

27.

a. Digoxin
b. Propranolol
c" Adenosine
d. Diltiazem

in hypertensive
September 2007

c. Nitroprusside
d. Nifedipine
Drug used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism is:

Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular

tachycardia is:

can be used

b. Pindolol

28.

March 20L0, September 20078 2010

SePtenfuer 2008

a. Adrenaline
b" Propranolol

c. Noradrenaline
d. Dopamine

7
=

26. Both arteriolar and venodilator drug is:

a. Pulmonaryhypertension
b. Essenfial hypertension
c. Malignanthypertension
d. Hypertension in pregnancy

T
.T

o
o
r
o
o

Pharmacology

29.

A patient with hypertension

is also having aortic

35. Drug of choice

dissection. Anti-hypertensive
agent of choice is

SeptenLber 20Ag

a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Reserpine

b. Propranoiol

c. Pindolol

d. Amlodipine

in renal doses, in shock leads

to:

a. Reduction in peripheral resistance

n. Lonstriction of renal vasculafut.e
c. Dilatation of renal vasculafure
d. Increase in cardiac oufput

sePtembcr 2oo9

a Digitalis

b
o. Adenosine
O
(.
ursop,Vrantide
J
d.
euinidine
Oi
(;) : 92. Which of the following drug
is commonly responsible
hypotension
S , for orthostatic- --r
rvlLrrrru"
March 2010
E i a. Clonidine
y!
b. H,r'dralazine
c. Captoprils
d. prazosin

+i
ti 33. Which
g

March 2o1o

". Carvedilol
u
Bisoprolol

34. Mechanism of action

of corticosteroids

inflammatory response

d. Leukotriene antagonist

Short acting beta 2 agorusts

Long actrng beta 2 agonists
c. Oral theophylline
cl. Inhaied ipratropium
bromide

37. All of the following

are true regarding sodium
cromoglycate except:
Mo.rch 20i.a
a. Given in acute bronchiar asthma

b. Inhibits

degranulation of mast cells

c. It is not a bronchodiiator

d. It is not

absorbed orally

38. Which of the

following is tne most potent

glucocorticoid:

a. Hydrocortisone
b. Prednisolone

c.

Betamethasone

d.

Triamcinolone

a. Nicordanil

Zileuton

c.

Sodium chromoglycate

March 2o1a

Nfarch 2009

cl. Montelukast

i"ii"*i.g,

DRUCS ACTINC ON
RESPTMTORY SYSTEM

b. Mast cell stabilization

c. Causes bronchodilatafion

September

a.
b.

ANTIDIABETIC DRUCS
40' In the management
of diabetes mellitus, Iactic
acidosis
is commonly caused by
which .f t},"

Esmolol

c. Celiprolol

Decreases mucosal edema

for acute severe asthma is:

39. Leukotriene antagonists

is:

of the following short-acting

selective betablocker drug is used in
the managelrrent of arrythmia:

d.

36. Drug of choice

lv4arch 2009

3L. Supraventicular
tachycardia can be managed
best by:

.+.

March

c. Metoprolol

d. Nifedipine
30. Dopamine,

fot rt"t"*ingasthmaticpatientwith

hypertension,
a. Timolol

in asthma is:

bv

March 20a9
suppressing

a. Tolbutamide
b. Glipizide
c" Pioglitazone
d. Metformin

March

2005

41. Which of the following

is rapidly acting insulin:

a" Lente
b. Insulin glargine

c.

Ultralente

d" Insulin lispro

September 2007

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examindtion

42.Truestatement

regarding mechanism of action of

49. Which of the

March 2008, Septembet 2010

sulfonylureas is:
of glucose
utilization
peripheral
a. Lrcreased
b. Reduce trePatic glucose outPut
c. Act on SURI receptors on pancreatic beta cell
membrane

d. TranscriPtion

of

genes

regulating

glucose

blocking

50.

Drug of choice for petit mal seizures is:

a. Ethosuximide
b. Carbamazepine
c. Phenytoin
d. Valproate

September 2008

51.

a. Tolbutamide
b. Glipizide
c. Gliclazide
d. Metformin
Type I diabetes mellitus is

a. Antidepressants
b. Anxiolytics

c. Antipsychotics
52.

True regarding buProPion is:

a.
b.
d.
53.

are true regarding adverse effects

March 2010
of chlorpropamide except:

True about Imipramine is:

a. Antiepileptic
b. Antidepressant
c. Anxiolytic
d. Antipsychotic

March 2410

i
e

warfarin interaction results in:

March 2005

a. Increased absorption of warfarin

b. Increased metabolism of warfarin
c. Displacement of warfarin from the binding
d. Ali of the above

March 2007

September 2007

55.

site

An anxiolytic benzodiazepine which is also

antidepressant
a. Lorazepam
b. Oxazepam

c. Alprazolam
d.

*o
a:

d. BAL
54. Phenobarbitone and

is:

i5o

f,<

c. EDTA

a. Is highly protein bound

b. Half life decreases with decreasing dose
c" Microsomal enzyme inducer
d. Follows zero order kinetics at lower doses
48.

fo
,$r

a. Protamine sulPhate
b. Flumazenil

DRUCS ACTINC ON NERVOUS SYSTEM

statement regarding phenytoin

*>
iio

Dopamine reuPtake stimulator

It is an antianxietY drug
No precipitation of seizures
Nicotinic recePtor antagonist

Antidote for Restyl/Alprazolam is:

Sensitizes the kidney to ADH action

b" Less incidence of hypoglycemia

c" More incidence of weight gain
d. Disulfiram like reaction may occur

:1>
HN

*=

c.

All of the following

47. False

September 20A9

initially rnanaged by:

a. Metformin
b. Sulfonylureas
c. Meglitinide
d. None of them

a.

irT

fi-

d. Antiepileptics

March 2010

45.

Malignant neuroleptic syndrome is caused by:

March 2009

An oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat obesity is:

SePtember 2008

45.

SePtember 2007

SePtembet 2007

c. Metformin
d. ChlorproPamide
44.

agenL

a. Pancuronium
b. Doxacurium
c. Mivacurium
d. Vecuronium

metabolism
cause
4i!.Which of the following drug does not
hypoglYcemia:
a. Tolbutamide
b. Glibenclamide

following is short acting neuromuscular

Chlordiazepoxide

September 2007

g
:!.

56.

Which of the following

drug is contraindicated
itna
patient of myasthenia
gravis:

63. Treatment for

September 200g

a. Succinylcholine
b. Tubocurare
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Halothane
57.

March

a. Amineptin
b. Carbamazepine

d" aluminium hydroxide

64"

2_a09

Trazodone

rnania:

o
o
J
o
(J

c.
d.

a" Methysergide
b. Sumatriptan

c.
d.

8
=,,:

<:
ri'
L,.

September 2009

March 2010

0e.fllti-Heticobacter pylori
drugs are all of the following:

a. Crarithromycin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Metronidazole
d. Tetracycline

March 2oo;

67. Drug of choice

for

c. Carboprost
,rrch 2oo|

c. Azifhromycin
following is a prokinetic
drug with no

dopamine antagonism:
"""
a' Chlorpromolitr"

b.

c.

Metaciopramide
Domperidone

d.

lV{osapride

is:

Septentber 2008

d. Mirtazapine

d. Ranifidine
62. Which of the

March 2o1o

NSAID induced gastric

ulcer

a. Miprinone
b. Misoprostol

Drug that does not interferes

with antacid:

a. Tetracycii n
b. Norfloxacin

Morch

c. Meh.onidazole

c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Calcium carbonate
61.

or

d. Cimetidine

DRUCS ACTING ON
CASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
60. Which of the following
is not an antacid drug:

,
:

rh",.";;'rlTffi:il: ffiponenr

a. Lansoprazole
b. Clarithromycin

Ergotamine
Propranolol

a. Aruminium hydroxide
b. Magnesium sulphate

Which of the follolr

rripr e,rrug

Valproate
Oianzapine

59. Drug of choice f,or

acute migraine is:

(.

65.

follow,ing drug is not given

in acute

a. Lithium
b. Lamotrigine

True about concen tration

of Oral Rehydration
Solution is:
March
a. sodium 7o mEq/iit

b. potassium 20 mEq/iit
c. Bicarbonate g0 mEq/lit
tl. Chtoride 30 nrEqitii

c. Amoxapine
58. Which of the

September

a. Cimetidine
b. Omeprazole
c. Misoprostol

Antidepressant drug that

can cause neuroleptic
malignant syndrome and
tardive ayrtilJri" i*

d.

Zollinger-ellison sJmdrome
is:

March 20a5

DRUCS ACTINC ON
HAEMATOPOIETIC
SYSTEM
68. Warfarin acts by
inhibiting all of the following
factors
except:
March zoo,
a. Factor III
b. Factor VII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor X
69.

Warfarin effect may be

enhanced by:

a. phenobarbitone
b. Ketoconazole
c. Rifampicin
d. Chronic alcoholism

March 2005

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

fO.

Which of the following drug inhibits aggregation of

platelets:
4. Ttanexaemic acid

77.Tnte about heparin are all of the following except:

September 2005

September 2009

a. Powerful anticoagulant only in vivo

b. Protamine sulfate is the antidote

b.
s. Aprotinin
d. Aspirin
EACA

21.

c. Not given by intramuscular route

d.

Anticoagulants are indicated in all of the following

September 2005
conditions excePt:
embolism
a. Pulmonary
b. DVT
c. Pericarditis
d. Myocardial in-farction

78.

Septenfuer 2006

73.

d. Vitamin K

Dose of Warfarin is managed by:

74.

80.

All of the following

*'

81.

are true regarding diuretics

March 2008

Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme

Acetazolamide
Spironolactone
acid

ANTIMICROEIAL DRUGS

Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits whieh

82. Pancreatitis may be seen

c. Ethacrynic
d.

Sept ember

2009

Furosemide

with all of the following

antiretroviral agent except:

Factor VIIIa

a. Lamivudine
b. Stavudine

Factor Xa

c. Zidovudine

Factor XIIa

d" Didanosine

Factor IIla

Which of the following diuretic causes maximum loss

of potassium in urine:
March 20L0

a.
b.

a. Aspirin
b. Tranexaemic acid
c. Alteplase
d. Streptokinase

a.
b.
c.
d.

tePtenrber 2oo5

chloride cotransport

d.

Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen

potassium sparing drug:

a. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing drug

b. Manrritol is an osmotic diuretic
c. Thiazides act by inhibiting Sodium-potassium-

Which of the following drug causes does not causes

thrombocytopenia:
March 2009
a. Methotrexate

factor:

except:

March 2009

76.

Which of the following is

a. Indapamide
b. Frusemide
c. Spironolactone
d. Mannitol

March 2407

b. Aspirin
c. Ticlopidine
d. Heparin
75.

DRUCS ACTINC ON EXCRETORY SYSTEM

79.

a. INR
b. ESR
c. MAC
d. PAH

Which of the following is advocated in dicournarol

poisoning:
March 2005
a. Warfarin
b. Heparin

c, LMWH

72. Aspirin in very low doses inhibits the formation of

a. Cyclooxygenase L
b. Thromboxane .A2
c. Prostaglandin 12
d. None of the above

Acts by inhibiting factor IIa and Xa

March 2005

o
o
ro
o

Pharmacology

il

83. Drug of choice for lymphogranuloma

venerum:

March 2C0S

a. Teiracycline
b. Chloramphenicoj
c. Erythromycin
d. Ampicillin
All of the following

84.

except:

a" Clavulanic

b. Aztreonam
c. Sulbactam
d. Tazobactarn
85.

c.
are Beta_lactamase inhibitors

!r

of
<;

(r
=$

c.

94.

d.

Pyrazinamide
87. What is the most serious
side effect of streptomycin:

1l

a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Ototoxicitl,
c. Ocular to*i.ity
d. Hematoiogicil disturbances

September 2A0S

september 2005

Adverse effects on gastric mucosa

Interfercs with absorption of other
drug,s
c.. Rapidly destroyed by gastric acid oct. l,oor absorption
89. Drug of choice for plasmodium
vivax is:

a. Mefloquine
b. Chloroquine
c. Artesunate
d. Quinine
90"

Drug which is never given by oral

route:
a. Erythromycin
b. Ciprofloxacin

c. Streptomycin
d.

Albendazole

following drug belongs to antifolate

All pencillins act by:

a. Inhibiting protein synthesis
b. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
c. Antifolate
d. Inhibitis DNA p;yrase

Septentber

2af,?

SeTttember 2007

95. Drug used for prophylaxis

of meningococcal

88. Gentamycin is not given

5
orally because:

a.
b.

Marcl

a. Erythromycin
b. Doxycycline ::
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Gentamicin

NIarch 2005

c. Rifampicin

Ef

O-

93. Which of the

grouPr

Antitubercular drug causing gout

is:

for chylamydial trachomatis

is:

a. Penicilin
b. Erytirromycin
c. Vancomycin
d. Azithromycin

March 2005

Stre;rtomycin+Isoniazicl
Streptomycin+Eth6m6u1r1
Ethambutol+I56niuri6

a. >treptomycin
b. Ethambutoi

<ii

March

Erythromycin

92. Drug of choice

d. Ethambutol+Rilu-ot.t
86.

inhibit protein synthesis are all

of the

except:

d. Penicillin

March 2005

acid

wnite on aff:

oi
oi
Ji:
oi

following

a. Tetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol

Which antitubercular drug combination

is safer in
patient who develops hepititis

a.
b.

91. Drug which

meningitis:
a. Chroramphenicol
b. Erythromycin
c. Tetraryclin

d.

2aat

a. levamisole
b. Ivermectin

for treating scabies:

March 2009

c. Lindane
d" Chloroquine
97. Drug acting on cell

March 2007

a. Gentamycin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Tetracycline
d. Vancomycin

Rifampicin

95. Drug used orally

Septentber 2006

c^.
september

wall of gram positive bacteria:

March 2009

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE

qg.

Which of the following is not an antiretroviral drug:

i MCI Screenino Examination

105. Which drug is effective against both pseudomonas

and proteus:

March 2009

a. Lamivudine
b. Zidovudine
c. Ganciclovir
d. NeviraPine
99.

Dose and duration of benzathine

a.
b.
c.
d.

penicillin for

102.

Doxycycline
Primaquine
Fluoroquinolones

a.
b.
c.
d"

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ganciclovir

104.

c.
d.

Amiodarone

T
rF

eptenfuer 2007

Procainamide
Sulfonamide

Chloroquine

o
o
to
o

March 2008

Sulbactam

Imipenem

,:ii:
.11,

a.
b.
c.
d.

Rifampicin

orgamsms
Splits into 6-amino penicillanic acid by amidase
Acts by inhibiting cell wall slmthesis

".

March 2009

Isoniazid

except:
March 2005
a. Probenecid decreases it duration of action
b. All penicillin are active against gram positive

September 2007

Vancomycin
Cephalexin
1L0. A patient on antitubercular treatment lunder DOTS]
shows sputum positivity at the end of intensive
phase under category I. Next step would be :

March 201,0

Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
All of the following are true regarding penicillin

by:

Oxidation
Acetylation
Glucoronideconjugation

Beta-lactam ring is present in all of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

Aryclovir
Idoxuridine

March 2007

except:

2010

Valaciclovir
103. Which antitubercular agent is associated with side
effects as respiratory syndrome,cutaneous
syndrome, Flu syndrome and abdominal syndrome:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ampicillin

All of the above

108. Drug which is both phototoxic and photoallergic:

109.

March

Carbenicillin

107. Chromaphenicol is metabolized

Drug of choice for herpes zoster is:

Amoxycillin

streptococci:
a" Penicilin
b Erythromycin
c. Vancomycin
d. Clindamycin

Septernber 2009

mg/ml
8 mg/ml
10 mg/ml
13 mg/ml
101. Drug used for chloroquine-resistant vivax malaria
are all of the following except:
September 2009
a. Quinine

b.
c.
d.

September 2005

Cloxacillin

L06. Drug that can be used against anaerobic

September 2009
prophylaxis of rheumatic fever is:
2
every
weeks
a. 1.2 MU
b. 1.2 MU every 4 weeks
c. 2.4MU every 2 weeks
d. 2.4 MU every 4 weeks
100. Strength of topical ophthalmic preparations of

tobramycin is

a.
b.
c.
d.

111.

Continue treatment of IP for one more month

Switch to category II treatment
Restart category I treatment
Start continuation phase under category I

All of the following

except:
a. Excreted

are true regarding vancomycin

September 2009

unchanged mainly by glomerular

filtration

b.
c.
d.

Poorly distributed in the body fluids

May cause red man syndrome

Not absorbed oraliy

!::

:a

Pharmacology

112. True statements

regarding vancomycin uses
are

all

of the following except:

September 2009
Surgical prophylaxis in
MRSA pr"rrutu.,t u."u,
:

b. D*g of choice for

enterocolitis

c. Effective in

Methicillin_resistant

infection

f13. Drug of choice for

cerebral malaria is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

>i

March 2010

Chloroquine
Quinine
primaquine

Sulfadoxine

114. Hemorrhagic cystitis

is caused

DRUGS

by:

September

2005
a. Methotrexate
o$ b.
Melphalan
o$ c. Cyclophosphamide
J3l
o$ 115. d. Busulfan
Which of the following anticancer
OF
drug causes
peripheral
<$
neuropathy:
September 2A09
a. Methotreaxate
E
=$ b. Vincristine

o.

Cytarabine
Etoposide

116. Anticancer drug

causing nephrotoxicity:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2009

Imitanib
Irinotecan
fosfestrol

Cisplatin
117. Busulfan may cause:
a. Cystitis
b. pulmonary

c.
d.

September 2007

ofhair

peripheralneuropathy

MEDICATIONS IN PREGNANCY
& LACTATION

118. Anti-hypertensive
drug

pregnancy is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hydralazine
Methyldopa
Enalapril
Amlodopine

Antimalarial drug safe in pregnancy

is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2006, March

Quinine
primaquine
Artesunate

Chloroquine

that is contraindicated
rrlq rD'|
is:

contraindicatej in

Septentber 2005,2010 March

2007

March

a. Omeprazole

b.
c.
d.

Ranitidine
Misoprostdi
Famotidine

122. Ergot derivatives

are used

except

a.
b.
c.
d.

in all of the following

March

Uterine contraction
Vasoconstrictivedisorders

Migraine
Dementia

123. Use of magnesium

sulfate

associated
except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

in pregnancy are
with all of the following side_effects
March2010',

Muscular paralysis
Bradycardia
Cardiac arryhthmias
Respiratorydepression

124. All of the

saf er

fibrosis

Loss

120.

september

121. A pregnant lady

is suffering from peptic
ulcer. D

ANTICANCER AND ANTI.INFTAMMATORY

c.
d.

a. prophyrtiouracil
b. Carbimazole
c. Iodide
d. Radioactive iodine

pseudomembranous

Staphylococcus aureus

during

Pregnancy:

penicillin_resistant pneumococcal

infection

d.

119. Drug indicated for

hyperthyroidism

followin tul';1to n""

in o."rr,ur,.r

"

a. Enalapril
b. Labetalol
c. Hydralazine
d. Alpha-methytdopa
Hypertension:
a. sodium nitroprusside
b. Hydralazine
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Indapamide

"'" "

"rtli ))ri

r or o

dytor
March2M9

i
i

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

is used in:
fb. Morphine

March 20AS

a.
b.
c.
d.

HYPertension
Cardiac arrythmias
Acute left ventricular failure
A-V block
l1T,Prolactin secretion is stimulated
a. TRH

b.
c.
d.

128.

129.

a.
b.
c.
d.
by:

March 2005

ACTH

GnRH
Dopamine
GtI secetion is inhibited
a. Bromocriptine

b.
c.
d.

by:

March 2045

Hyperglycemia
Vigorous exercise
Deep sleeP

Scptentber 2005
True about hypnotic drugs is:
a. Slower onset and longer duration
b. Slower onset and shorter duration
c. Quicker onset and longer duration
d. Quicker onset and shorter duration

130. Oral contraceptive

pills

are contraindicated

in:

SePtember 2005

a.
b.
c.
d"
131.

132.

Premenstrualtension

Endometriosis
Hepatadenoma
Pelvic inJlammatory disease
Mechanism of action of allopurinol: September 2005
a. Inhibits the slmthesis of uric acid
b. Inhibits tubular resorption of uric acid

c.
d.

Antinflammatoryaction
Increases phagocytosis of urate crystals

Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:

SePt ember 2005

a.
b"
c.
d.

Adrenaline

mast cell stabilizen

SePtember 2005

Montelukast
Sodiumchromoglycate
Cetrizine

Theophylline

Thioradizine
haloperidol
Clozapine

Ziprasidone

135. Danazol is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septenfuer 2006

Anabolic steroid
Androgens agonist
Antiandrogens

5-alpha-reductaseinhibitor

136. Hypercalcemia is decreased by all of the

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Etidronate

a.
b.
c.
d.

Indomethacin

following
Mnrch 2007

Calcitonin

Lithium

Glucocorticoids
March 2007
137. Thalidomide is useful in:
a. Treatment of leprosy
b. Treatment of type II l8pra reaction
c. Treatment of type I lepra reaction
d. Treatment of neuritic leprosy
138. Co-administartion of which of the following drug
March 2007
with Zidovudine is not preferred:

Aspirin
Trimethoprim

All of the above

139. Adrenaline is added to Lignocaine injection for:

March 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

Less bleeding at the site

Higher doses can be given

Prolonged duration of action

All of the above
140. Which of the following does not cause

hyperprolactinemia:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Steroids

Antibiotics
Antihistamine
133. Which of the following is

a.
b.
c.
d.

following, extrapyramidal side effect

Septenber 2006
is commonest with which drug:

134. Amongst the

il4ISCELLANEOUS

September 2007

Levodopa

Bromocriptine
Chlordiazepoxide

Pituitary tumour
141. Withdrawl syndrome is associated u'ith all of the

following except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Alcohol
Methadone

Morphine

All of the above

September 2007

Pharmacology

142. Which of

a.
b.
c.
d.
143.

following drug inhibits xanthine oxidase:

Quiniarcine

Allopurinol
Sulfinpyrazone
causes hemolysis in G-6

150.

Nitrofurantin
Su,lfonamide

Erythromycin

following lipid lowering drug acts by

inhibitingHMG-CoAreductase: March200g,2010

o
J
o
(J
E
=
E

Resins

a.
b.
c.
d.

Bile acid sequestrants

March 2008

Thiocayanates
Perchlorates

152.

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 200g

Pancuronium

148.

Piperacuronium

a bee-sting, a boy develops angioedema

and dyspnea. Treatment of choice in such
a case

Antihistamine

General anesthesia
Nasal decongestant

March 2009

September 20A9

Adrenaline
Timolol
Atropine
Pilocarpine

True statements regarding octreotide are all

of the

following except:

Omeprazole
Famotidine

would be:
I,M adrenaline
I/V adrenaline
I/V corticosteroid

154.

September 2009

Which of the following drug is contraindicated

in

a.
b.
c.
d.

Curare

Following

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hypotension
Hypertension

glaucoma:

Atracurium
147. Which of the following drug
causes gynecomastia:
a. Cimetidine
Septentber 2008, 2010
b. Ranitidine

c.
d.

153.

2a09

except:

Propylthiouracil

March

Alpha agonist has all of the following actions

a.
b.
c.
d.

Radioactive iodine
146. Muscle relaxant safe in renal
failure patient is:

o-

Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is:

a. Pyrazinamide
b. Chloroquine
c. Ethambutol
d. Tetracycile

Statins

thyroid storm is:

Which of the {ollowing is true regarding

S_HT
derivatives:
March 200g
a. Cisapride is selective 5_HT4 antagonist
b. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 agonist
c. Cyproheptadine is 5_HT2A asonist
d. Sumatriptan action is agonlsticatty, 5_HT. lBnD
receptor mediated

151..

Fibric acid deravatives

145. Drug of choice for

2009

September 2001

144. Which of the

(^9

reductase

March

a. Arcohol
b. methotrexate
c. Cimetidine
d. Erythromych

PD deficiency except:
a. Primaquine

a.
b.
c.
d"

following is a dihydrofolate

inhibitor:

Probenicid

All of the following drugs

b.
c.
d.

149. Which of the

September 20A7

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septentber 2009

Syntheticoctapeptide
Used in variceal bleeding

Contraindicated in acromegaly
Useful in secretory diarrhea
L55. Sibutramine is used for:
a" Hemorrhage
b. Nasal decongestant
c. l)iabetes
d. Obesity

September 2009

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI screening Examination

tSO.

Which of the following is used for medical

adrenalectomY:

a.
b.
6.
d.

September 2009

ketoconazole

Aminoglutethimide

excePt:

158.

Contraindicated in coronary artery disease

Constricts cranial vessels
163.

March 20L0

a.
b.
c.
d.
159.

Diclofenac soclium
Acetaminophen
lndomethacin
Piroxicam

True regarding ondansetron are all of the following

except:
March 201.0
a. Antiemetic of choice for chemotherapy induced
vomiting

b.
c.
d.
160.

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

Significant drug interactions
May have 5-HT4 antagonism

Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to the

formation of:
March 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2009

Zonal hepatic necrosis is associated with:

Formic acid
Formaldehyde
Lactic acid

Pyruvic acid

Penicillin
metronidazole

Tetrarycline
erythromycin
162. Sterile pyuria may occur due to:

99"k oralbioavailability

Selective s-HT 1B/1D receptor agonist

Disulfiram like reaction is commonlv caused bv

which of the following:
March 2005

a.
b.
c.
d"

Metyrapone

All of the above

lS7. All of the following are true regarding sumatriptan

a.
b.
c.
d.

161.

Paracetamol

Phenytoin
Cocaine

r:

l:

Thalidomide is useful in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2007

Lignocaine

Artn!.h'rnn7

following except:

Potentiates competitiveneuromuscularblockers

Hepatitis may occur

Contraindicated

in patients with

Cardiac

SEtember 2009

5 days

j,Tl
,-F
:-

;;>

iiu
ii=
$>
ilo
$;o

$|*.O

10 days

1io

r<

20 days
40 days

165. Which of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2007

Unsuitable for pediatric population

arrythmia
165. Half life of albumin is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

::

Treatment
Treatment
Treatment
Treatment

of leprosy
of type lI lepra reaction
of type I lepra reaction
of neuritic leprosy
164. True statements regarding halothane are all of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

::

it
following is false about salmeterol:
March 2010

Regular use may worsen asthma

First long acting selective beta-2 agonist
Effective for acute asthmatic attacks
More beta-2 selective agonist than salbutamol

*
ii

f
ii

.F ASSESSIUENT

r- ;s'i:

EIMCI SCREENIN

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY (Questions)

NJURIES

skin
1. Lesion with intact
rs:
tissue
a. Scalds

f.

but tearing of subcutaneous

March 2005

Laceration

c. Contusion
d. Abrasion

iniury:

September 2005

10.

September 2005

Marclt 2005

3. Abrasion collar is seen in:

a. Abrasions over neck
b. Bullet injury
c. Punctured wounds

a. HLA
b. Parental likeness
c. Deveiopmentaldefects
d. DNA finger printing

Sryten*cr 2006

a. Incised wound
b. Abrasions
c. Lacerated u.'ound
d. Contusion

1,2.

LAW

except

September 2007

a. Sucide
b. Accidental death
c. Dowry death
d. Murder

13. Test

a. Benzidine test
b. Takayama test
c" Luminol test
d. Absorption elution test
14.

10 years

c. 20 years
d. No limit

DNA can be taken

except

by:

September 2009

a. Police
b. Magistrate
c. Coroner
d. Medical examiner
8. In India, for exhumation maximum permissible time
a. 5 years

used to detect blood group of blood stain:

March 2007

a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 12 years

Marth 2005

True about hydrocution are all except; September 2006

a. Electrocution in water
b. Death results from cardiac arrest
c. Results from falling in the water with feet first
d. Emotionally tense individuals are prone for this

6. A child can not be considered responsible for a crime

before the age of :
September 2007

7. Inquest of Dowry death is done

a. Putrefaction
b. Rigor mortis
c. Livor mortis
d. Mummificafion

SePtember 2010

AND FORENSIC MEDICINE

5. Police inquest is required in all

mortem stiffening is called

11. Post

d. Lacerated wounds
4. Rupture of the skin and subcutaneous tissue is called:

b"

by:

Most informative test in parental identification:

scars of face

b. Fracture of femur
c. Emasculation
d. Contusion of breast

period is

death is held

MEDICOLECAL ASPECT OF DEATH

2" Not a grievous

a. N{ultiple

9. Inquest for custodial

a. Doctor
b. Magistrate
c. Sub-inspector
d. District attorney

as

sample from all of the following

Septenfttr 2007

a. Hair roots
b. Semen

c. CSF
d.
15.

Buccal mucosa

Total number of deciduous teeth in al4yr old child:

SePtember 2007

March 20L0

a.0
b.5
c. L0
d.

20

Forensic Medicine and Toxicology

Regarding medical termination

of pregnany, all of the

16.

following are true except_:

22.

September 2007

a. Professional secrecy has to be maintained

b. trVoman has the right to abort his
fetus

without

c.

consent of husband

c. In an emergency-,termination of pregnanry
done by a single doctor

':i

Oo":

.Ot

can be

medical practirioner withour consutting

Alrc^-^^ of
Absence
^rr--:
brainstem reflexes

= I d. Core temperature of the body is betorv 35 degree C

rr4.r/Erurcrrnr
permanent reern
-- rFirst
teeth to erupt is:
. tS.
is:
September 200g
li.f
tr
A'.
P

I,

=
o

6,*
2i

E
!J
E i;
X
!,

E "

25.

d'

Second moiar

tissues

c.

Edges of the rt ound cloes not

gape
Increased activity of enzymes
26. CSF test is required in:

d.

a. Morphirre poisoning
b. Organophosphorous
c. Alcohol poisoning
d. Arsenic poisoning

March

201A

poisoning

Pugilistic attitude in fireburns is due

to:

a. Coagulation of blood in the vascular

b. Splitting of sofr parts

h4arch 2010

char-rnels

c. Tight clothing

dependent

d.

Coagulation of protein of the muscles

28. For autopsy, vitreous is preserved
in: September
a. Phenol

c. Muscle of the body began to stiffen

d. Mummificalion of the body tissues

200g

b. Sulphuric acid
c. Fluoride
d. Xylol

in drowning are aII except:

a. Vagal hyperactivity
b. Asphyxia
c. Ventricuiarfibrillation
d. Laryngospasm

and

present

September 200g

body parts

21. Causes of death

True statement regarding postmortem

wounds is:
sisns

27.

a Muscle
\irr,.-l^ of
r ,began
a.
^r,L^
the Lbody
to relax
h
.-^^:rr^
-.^
b. Capjllo-venous
distension in the most

St:ptenber 2(fig

of spurting of arrerial btoocl on ,iffi"'o*

.a
b. Firmly coagulated blood in the ltounds

a. First premolar
b. Second premolar
c. First moiar

zO. Rigor
mortis uccurs
^u6v^ rrrurrrD
occurs que
rr
due to:
, __.
to:

September

cl. Below the cheek

Arborescent burns are seen in:
a. Flame burns
b. Lightning stroke
c. Ifeat stroke
11. Electrocution

24.

Discolourarron

as a result of capillo-venous
X
distension in the dependent parts
of the body
tr
d. Putrefaction of the body tissues
,.
O
fi tS. Brain death is said to occur if there is:
March 200g
{ I a. Absent spinal reflexes
IIJ i, b. Cortical death following widespread brain
injury

c
c.

Choking

a. Occiput
b. Chin
c. Angie of mandible

be

ttt
tt.After death, Livor mortis is caused
because of:
X
tt,
J
March 200g
O . a. Ir4uscle of the body began to relax
g
b. N{uscle of the body began to stiffen

Zl;

Ma

In simple hanging,the knot comes

to rest at the:

23.

specialist

c.

d. Hanging

Termination of pregnancy up to
20 rveeks can

Jil

Fracture of hyoid bone is indicative

of

a. Throttling
b. Suffocation

March 2009
29.

Corpus delicti means:

Inquest of death
b. Postmortem findings
c, Death by asphyxia

a.

d.

Essence of crirne

March

2A0g

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

Msrclt 2009

-^ r;16
v*- coronary is due to:

37.

Ju.

3. Strangulation
.
r -,^tr .''ir
b. A>vrL;l ^'"
r^*.-{i:n
erroct
c. Ldru'('L q"t"'

38.

SEXUAL OFFENCES

consent for sex

31.Female can give

if

Most cornmon feature of alcohol withdrawl is:

March 2007

she is above:

a. Violent attitude
b. Hypertension
c. Tretnors
d. I{yperventilatiorr

Mnrch 2005

a. 12 1'ears
b. 16 vears
c. 19 r'ears
d. 21 Years
Female

39.

Patient with loss of interest in

sex is

known

a. Vaginismus
b. Impotencv
c. SterilitY
d. frigiditY

Antidote for copper poisoning

,10.

c. Magnesium

TOXICOLOGY
41.

Hairs are preserved in which

a. Arsenic

b. Manganese
c. Phosphorous
d. Alcohol
35. All of the following
except:

poisoning:

March 2007

Antidote for organophosphates poisoning

are

all

Septenfuer 2009

a. Physostigmine
b. Activated charcoal
c. Pralidoxime
d. Atropine
42.

Fomepizole as a antidote is used in the poisoning of:

SePtember 2009

a" OrganophosPhrous
b" Methyl alcohol
are features of Datura poisoning
March 2007

c. Aiuminium
d. Copper
43.

a. Dryness of mouth
b. Delirium
c. Dilated pupil
d. Bradycardia
35. Best

A,Iarclt 2009

hYdroxide

except:

a. Organophosphrous Poisoning
b. Opiod poisoning
c. Cerebello pontine hemarroge
d. Datura poisoning
34.

-.

d. Hemodialysis

following
September 2405

Ivlatcli 2(')09

Not used for treating acute iron poisoning

a. Desferrioxamine
b. BAL

Pin point pupils are seen in all of the

conditions excePt:

is:

a. D-peniciliamine
b. Potassiurn ferrocvanide
c. BAL
d. Desferrioxamine

as:

SePtentber 2006

33.

Marcir 2007

b. StagnanthyPoxia
c. Alaemic l'rYPoxia
d. Histotoxic hyPoxia

d. Myocardial infarction

82.

If the hemoglobin is saturated with carbon

mcnoxide, the hypoxia involved will be:
a. Hypoxic hyPoxia

Pin point pupils ate seen in:

a. Opium Poisoning

March 2010

b. Acute alcohol Poisoning

c. Barhiturate Poisoning
d. Epileptic coma

method for methanol poisoning treatment:

March 2007

a. Ethanol
b. Calcium gluconate
c" Desferroxamine
d. BAL

PhosPhide

44.

Patient presented with anemia, blue line in gums,

constipation, abdominal colic and basophilic
March 2009
stippling. Poisoning maY be due to:
a" Arsenic

b. Mercury
c. Copper
d. Lead

F ASSESSMEN1;E/IT{CI SCREENIN

1. A new drug

1gg..r'

does nort prevents

a disease
-_ *'osq>t from
rrorr
occurring but reduce;
eath due to that disease.
Whieh nr
r^rr
of rhe
'.^ following is

Inl"n

true:

March 2005

2.

the ilcidcrrce dru

_o prevalence
L
,.
p,"uur"luJl
il:]ijl:::,"
w. rr
wlll decrease the itncidence
and prevalence
.
c. rrre-,or^_-.^ is, increased
_Prevalence
d. Incidence
is increased

Test which detects

true negative is said
to have:

a. Relative risk
b. Odd,s ratio
c. Sensitivihy
d. Specificity

,?;,j:T;::1'l

""_

10.

March 2005

i:tfiililon

monil':ormg of

occurrence

a. Rate
b. Ratio
c. proportion
d. percentage

and

:. Related
:4:nit:ring of trends of a disease
d.
to ihe vtute rnce

tt'"16;"t"rding

A Patient
rr-+:^-. is
! made
- to wrrlk of the organism
early after Surgery.

for:
for:

a.

March 2005

Treating the padent

o. Reducing disability
c. specific protection
d. Rehabilitation

-_
13.

Which of the follow'ing

is secondary level
of

prevention:

i Admiting
l':ol"]"ctic drug adminisrartion
b.
disabted .hild;
r;;d

_
7. Sensitivity

of

c.
d.

True negative
True positive

"eptember2007
of showing an
association
disease

rano can be calculated

EXposure rates can

be calculated

Prevention of devel<
rping risk factors in
CAD comes
under:
September 2007
a. primary prevention

q.

schoots
14.

screening test indicates:

a. False positive
b. False negative

o. Secondary prevention
c. rrrmordja.l prevention

March 2005

d" C"r,ui.al pap smear

checking

September 2007

:q. :,Tt
T j:,1$::lfi lHpl;;3sequen'l
;.
:*,
s

heal&r

cohort's study are

au of rhe foilowing

a. Most reliable ,
t"tw"enl s,ls};T-

This is

I ertiary prevention.
Relative risk is associated
with:
a. Cohort sfudies

b"

c.

September 2006
15"

20102

reqarding trends
of hearrh status or,

11. Prevalence is
a:

Surveillance is:
March 2005
a' Monitoring of activir
ry of
rrLqrf,rt
health workers
-wurKers
h
.^-s__
b. Continuous

c. Vaccination

Selttetnber

d. Providing timelv
disasters . wamings of public

,iqrri'.,,*^- of a
distribution
disease

6.

Associated with
surveillance are all
of the forlor.ring

except:
a. Sentinej search
b. Randomisation

seen in a country
bur broughr

a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Zoonotic
d. Exotic
4.

b. Quarantine
c. Detecting sourc(,ol infection
(r. \,aCcrnatjon

March 2005

_Cross

sectional sfudies

Envoimmental sfudies

o. Lase control studies

First noticed case
of a disease is known
a. Reference
b.

case

Secondary case

c. Tertiary
d.

September 2007

case

Index case

as: March 200g

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination

g.Hefi Immunity is a feature of all of the following

SEtentuer 2008

diseases excePt:

VACCINES
24.

c. Tetanus
d. Measles
September 2008
lT.Relative risk can be calculated by:
a. Incidence of disease amongst exposed/incidence of

25.

of

disease amongst

d. Incidence

of

discase amongst non-erposed/total

population of that area

18. Sentinel surveillance is used to
a. New cases

ltlarch 2409

19.

lri

Specificity of a diagnostic test denotes:

September 2009

20.

Cohort study is associated with:

a. Prevalence
b. Odd's ratio
c. Relative risk
d. Exposure rates
21. Ability of a screening
refers tol

March 2010

a. Relative risk
b. Sensitivity

True regarding case control study are all of the

following except:

March 20L0

a. Possibilty of bias
b. Odd's ratio can be derived
c. Relativelyinexpensive
d. Attributable risk can be known
23.

Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as per which

schedule:

a.
b.

SeTttenfuer 2045

0,1,6 days
0,1,6 rveeks

,,.7

F
ITI

c. 0,l,6months

,m
':,2

0,1,6 years

a. Immediately after birth

b. At the age of 1 month

September 2005
*'

ageof 6months
d. At the age of 1 year
28. Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at:. September 2005
a. Medial part of thigh
b. Deltoid muscle
c. Anterior Abdomen
d. Lateral part of thigh

diluted with:

September 2405

a. Normal saline
b. Distilled water
c. Dextrose
d. Colloids

t<

im
i>
'*z

t(]

9s,

:,o

io

iF
l|.
{=
3.m

a. 10IU/kg
b. 20IU,4<g
c. 30IU/kg
d. 40IU/kg
31. How many doses of

,{
-a:

c. Atthe

30. For post-exposure prophylaxis, dose of human rabies

September 2407
immunoglobulin is:

c. Specificity
d. Attdbutable risk
22.

26.

29. BCG vaccine is

test to diagnose true positive

March 2010

September 2005

3 years

27. BCG should tre given:

a. True negative
b. False positive
c. False negative
d. True positive

1;

d.

d.

b. Missed cases
c. Old cases
d. Reference cases

it:

*:

detect:

for:

months
12 months

b.
c. 2 years

non-

exposed/incidence of disease amongst exposed

Incidence of disease amongst exposed/total
population of that area

Oral cholera vaccine is effective

a.

disease amongst non-exposed

b. Incidence

March 2005

a. DPT
b. Measles
c. OPV
d. AII of the above

b. Polio

c.

Which of the follow'ing vaccine should not be kept in

freezer:

6. Diphtheria

TU
5-

;o
F-

?z
ira
,;'

MMR

are

given:

September 2007

a. 1
b.2

c.3

Correct statement regarding longitudinal studies is:

March 2010

o.4
32. MMR vaccine is a type of:

a" Short duration study

b. lnferior to cross-sectional studies

a. Killed vaccine
b. Toxoid

c. Observation is taken only once

d. Helps in identifying risk factors of a disease

c.

Live attenuated vaccine

d. Immunoglobulin

September 2009

.,';

Preventive and Social Medicine

33. Post

exposure vaccination for measles

should be done

41. As per WHO, anemia is

considered to exist

SeTttember 2009

day ofexposure
2 day of exposure
3 day of exposure
7 day of exposure
1

pregnancy/

March

NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
34. Virus causing rabies
in man is:
a. Wilcl virus

42. Disease spread by hard

tick is:

Mnrch

(J

35.

2005

6,
o,
a;
o:

Quarantine period for yellow fever is:

Septembcr

2005

September 2005

z', 37. True regarding elimination of neonatal tetanus in

village:

IIJ.'

a. Rate more than 1/1000 live births

b. Attended deliveries less than 50%

zi
IIJ i

>{
lI|;

38.

Chandler,s index is associated

E',

o-''

39.

Vector for dengue fever is:

a. Culex
b. Aedes
c. Male Anopheles
d. Female Anopheles
40.

a"

f& oriental sore is:

Onchocerca volvulus

Septentuer 2A07

with:

September 2006

September 2006

Anophele,

teptember 2oo7

b. Culex
c. Aedes
d. Sandfly
46. After the appearance of
rash, prophylactic isolation of
measles case is necessary for
a minimum of:

September 2007

a. 2days
b. 5 days
c" 7 days
d. 9 days
47.

All of the following diseases

except:

a"

are reported to WHO

SePtentber 2007

Plague

b. Yellow fever
c. Polio

Natural reservoir of Chikungunya

virus in India is:

a. Monkey
b. Guinea pig
c. Aedes
d. Dog

Dengue
Japanese encephalitis

Brugya malayi
45. Larvae of which of the
following lies parallel to
surface of water:

september 2006

more than 50%

Rate less than 0.1/1000 live
births

a. Round worm
b. Hook worm
c. Pin worm
d. Tape worm

Seplentbcr 2007

c.

Causative agent

aedes

b. Leishmania donovanr
c. Leishmania tropica

c. Attended deliveries
d.

following is spread by

d.

<..

>:

typhus

d.

a.

Septenber

typhus

mosquitoes:
a. Loa L.oa
b. Malaria

44.

Plaque is transmitted by:

a. Flea
b. Soft tick
c. Mites
d. Hard tick

F,,

Scrr-rb

43. Which of the

c. 6 days
d. t0 days
36.

Rocky mountain spotted fever

Epidemic typhus

c. Murine
d.

a. 1 dav
b. 2 day's

IIJ

J=,
{.

a.
b.

b. Street virus
c. Fixed virus
d. All of the above

IJJ

20A7.

i: il^r;::;
c. 12 grr,To
d. 13 gm%

COMMUNICABLE AND

in

if the hemoglobin level is below:

d.

March 2007
48.

Cholera
Scrub typhus is spread by:
a. Ticks

b. Fleas
c. Trombiculid
d.

Louse

mite

September 2007

Self ,Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination

49.

Immunoglobulin is used for all of the following

diseases excePt:

S0.

March

56.

2008

a. Orchitis
b. Oophoritis

c. Typhoid
d. Chickenpox

c.

Culex mosquito spreads all of the following disease

Measles is infective for:

a. hepatitis B
b. HIV
c. Yeiioll'fer.er
d. Ali of the above

It4nrdt 2409
58.

Which of the following is not a part of management

III

dog bite infected with rabies: March 2009

Vaccination

A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs after

consuming milk. Organism responsible for this may

March 2009

a. Clostridiumperfringenes
b. Bacillus cereus
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Staphylococcus
55.Infectivity period of chickenpox is:

fii.i':l

59.

;.U
l,v

Inflrrenza shows which type of

trend:

Stlttctrrber 2009

iirTl
Marclt2010

Anopheles

Aedes

ta
FO
fo
i>
al

60.

Which of the following disease has an incubation

period of less than

a.
b.

week:

March 2010

Cholera

61.

i0
;iz

Pertussis

Which of the following diseases is under

international

surveillance:

March 20L0

a. Influenza
b. Malaria

62. False

al]-

*g

c. Mumps
d.

{=
{m

Measles

d. All of the above

a. 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash

b. 4 days before and L day after appearance of rash
c. Only when scab falls
d. Entire incubation period

*>
'tz
IE]

c. Polio
March 2009

i,111

:z
i<

b. Culex
c. Mansonia
d.

,ffi
,,(

l{

Dengue is transmitted by;

a.

i iir'

rli'

a. Secular
b. Cyclicai
c. Seasonal
d. None of the above

a.
b. Stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage
c. Wash with soap and water
d. Administration of antirabies serum and vaccination

be..

Encephalitis

notification under intemational health

regulations is done for which of the following:

b. Immunofluorescence of comeal impressions

c. Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy
d. Isolation of virus from saliva

54.

tl

September 2009

Which of the following is best for ante-mortem

diagnosis of rabies:
March 2009
a. Antirabies antibodies in blood

in grade

Nlnrch 20A9

57. Case

March 2048

a. One da,v before and 4 davs after rash

b. Four clays before and five days after rash
c. Entire incubation period
d. Only during scabs falling

53.

complication of

d. Hepatitis

a. Viral arthritis
b. West Nile fever
c. Yellort' fever
d. Bancroftian filariasis

52.

mumps:

a. Measles
b. Rabies

excePt:

51.

Which of the following is not

statement regarding japanese encephalitis is:

March 2010

a. lt is caused by flavivirus
b. Transmitted by aedes mosquito
c. Not endemic in India
d. Man is dead-end host

tltl
*;

,tl

Preventive and Social Medicine

KFD is transmitted by:

63.

March 2010

a. Tick
b. Sandfli'
c. Mosquito
d. Mite

ii
iiiii

64. Tru_e

statement regarding poliomyeliti s is:

March 2010

subclinical cases in adults.

c. Commonly

z
o

66.

Ji

<.
ot

oi
oi:
oi
z.i

<:
lUi
>;

IJJ

March 2010

73.

WHO notifiable disease are all of the

following
except:
March 2010

a. Married

74.

75.

d. Just married
PQLI includes all of the following except
March 2005

c.
70"

Per capita income

Literacy rate
Life expectanry at

76.

age

None of the above

Denominator for maternal mortality

rate is:
September 2005,2010

Sullivan index denotes:

September 2006

Infant Mortality Rate for

Japan

is:

March

2007

d.L

c.4

year

d. Infant Mortality
Denominator for calculating infant mortality
rate is:

a. 1000 popularion
b. 1000 births
c. 1000 live births
d. 1000 pregnancies

wife in reproductive
group
Married couple irrespective of the age
group

age

a. Life expectancy at birth

b. Life expectanry excluding disabilty free period
c" Contraceptive failure rate
d. Hookworm density in stool

is defined as:
March 2005
a. Married couple with husband age 20_40
b. Married couple with wife uge tS_+S
c-. Married couple irrespective of the
age group

a.
b.

September 2005

a. 100,000 pregnancies
b. 100,000 live births
c. 100,000 births
d. 100,000 population

March 2005

i 68. Eligible couple

69.

as:

couple vrtth husband inn reproductive

group

d.

To achieve a NRR of 1, Couple protection

rate should

a. More than 30%

b. More than4}"/o
c- More than 50%
d. More than 60%

ui

Eligible couple is defined

c.

be:

o-1

September 2005

b. Married couple rvith

DEMOCRAPHY AND PREVENTIVE

HEALTH

>;
IIJ;

as:

to woman over her

lifetime
c. Nurnber of bov children bom to r{roman over
her
lifetime
d. Number of girl children born to married
woman in
reproductive age group.

d. Yellow fever

Fi

21 days after delivery

b. Number of girl children bom

c. Tetanus

Z':

d.

a. Number of childrens born to woman

over her

a. Cholera
b. Plague

67.

42 days after delivery

7 da7,s after delivery

lifetime

c1. Obesity

c.

72.Total fertility rate is defined

1000

d. Most outbreaks of polio are due to type_3 poliovirus

Hypertension is associated with all of the
following

except:

tg

be

spreads by faeco_oral rorrte

a. Excess salt
b. Excess exercise
c. Phaeochromocytoma

o)

Maternal mortality rate is calculated

as death of a
woman upto a period of:
Septemher 20Cs
a. Immediately after delir.ery

b.

a. Poliovirus is resistant to pasteurization

b. For every clinical case, there may

65.

71.

September 2005

o.5
77.

According to 2001. census the male:female

ratio [sex
ratiol in India was:
September 2007

a.
b.

890
933

c. 957
d. 978

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

g,ccording to 2001 census, what was the growth rate

76.

of India:

85.

c. 1000 still births

d. 1000 population

lndia is at which stage of Demographic cycle:

86. Percentage

SEtember 2008, March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d,
80.

d.

t{uman Development Index includes all of the

at

March 2a09, September 2009

87.

birth

88.

True statement regarding'at risk babt':

September 2009

b. Life expectancy at the age ofone

c. Per capita income
d. Numbers of years lived without disability

a. Birth weight less than 2J5kg

b. Weight less than 70% of the expected weight

Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate

following a person with a primary disease is:
March 2009

c. Birth order

Kuppuswamy's scale except:

affected

a.
b.
c.
d.

b. AII the people in his home

c. All the people in his family
d. All the people in his city
Child-Women ratio is the number of child per:

more than 3

d. Ist degree maL:rutrition

89. All of the following are components of the

person

83.

According to WHO guidelines, number of checkups/antenatal visits for a woman having nonnal
uncomplicated pregnancy is:
Septenrber 2009

O- lf)

March 2009

a. All the contacts who are exposed to the

25o/"

a.8
b. 10
c. 14

Which of the following better correlates with

Sullivan's index:
a. InJant mortality rate

82.

September 2009

a. 1,0"/o
b. 15%
c. 20%

Early stationary
Late expanding
Low stationary

following except:
a. Infant mortality

81.

of children of under 4 years of age in

India is:

High stationary

b. Income
c. literacy rate
d. Life expectancy

September 2009

a. 1000 births
b" i000 live births

a.
b. 1,.33%
c. 1.63%
d. r.%%
1.03%

79.

Denominatot for calculating perinatal mortality rate

is:

September 2007

90.

March2070

Education
Maternal mortality
Occupation
Family income

Infant Mortality Rate of India

as per 2007 census is:

March 2049

a.
b.

women
1000 married women
c. 1000 women in reproductive age
d. 1000 married women in reproductive age
84' The number of girls a woman would bear if she
Passes through her reproductive age with the same
1000

fertility rate gives:

a. Total fertility rate

b. Fertility rate
c. Gross reproductive rate
d. Net reprocluctive rate

March 2009

March 2010

a. 34
b. 44
c. 54
d. 54
91. As per census 2001, most populous state
2001 was:

a. Tripura

b.
c.
d.

Rajasthan

Uttar pradesh
Orissa

during

199L-

March 2005

Preventive and Social Medicine

NUTRITION
92.

93.

The upper line in growth chart

denotes what
percentile of WHO reference standard:
Marclr 2005
a. 50ft percentile
b. 60th percentile
c. 70th percentile
d. 80th percentile
Exclusive breast feeding is recommended
bv WHO

upto:

99.

except:
a. Cow milk has comparatively
b. Con, milk has comparatively
c. Cow milk has comparatively
d. Cow milk is iron deficient
100. Meals supplied

a.
b.
c.
d.

UJ; . u;";;;

Z:

d.

9 monrhs

are rrLrr
rich rn:
in:
9 ,n. Dietary fibresJ arE
c.,;;
6 , "'
b. proreogl-vcan
E
e . c. pectin

It4arch 2005

i- 1
6 "
ai

a. ru

zi
<i

c. 30
d. 40

less

than:

llJ { 96.Daily required dose

>i

of iron in
i an adult man is:

2ii :11-'
D'

1g

a.
b.
c.
d.

u.d mg

c. 0.9mg
d. 1.0 mg

>i

UI

104.

a" 3 months

September 2a0S

b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
98.

Toxin responsible for epidemic dropsy

is:
a.

BOAA

b. Sanguinarine
c.

Pyrrolizidine

d" Ergots

l/3 calories and ll2 proteins

September 2005

105.

of:

September 2006.200g

Riboflavin
thiamine
Niacin
pyridoxine

oil is the richest source

Vitamin K
Vitamin E

of:

September 2006

Vitamin D
Vitamin A

103. Number of calories

a.
b.
c.
d.

2Mj

1/3 calories and 1/3 proteins

102. Fish Iiver

March 2005

-.a

September

1/2 calories and U2 proteins

1/2 calories and 1/3 proterns

a.
b.
c.
d.

of energy from fats should be

March 2005,2010

more protein
more calcium

in mid day meals programme

101. Pellagra is due to deficiency

d.

starch
<,, nU.In India,
percentage

,-:::rf;
more fat

should provide:

March 2005

a. 3 months
b. 4 months

Differences between human milk

and cow
all of the following

in

100 grams of breast

milk

is:

September

2007

45 Kcal
65 Kcal
85 Kcal
105

Kcal

Amount of proteins in human milk (in

gms):
September 2007

a"
b.

2.2

^
L.

aa
J.J

d.

4.4

1.1

Vitamin A prophylaxis is given to

children every:

a"
b.
c.
d"

Septetnber 2007

3 months
6 months
12

months

lB months

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

BMI of the malnourished

10f. WHO defines

as:

113. When

a.
b.
c.
d.
107.

Berow

kgm2

March 2009

'g
Below 18.5 kglm2
Below 19kglm2
below 19.5 kglm2

a.
b.
c.
d.

Folic acid requirement during lactation is:

September 2A08

a.
b.
c.
d.
108.

109.

1"14.

Calciurn

Iron
Phosphorous
Magnesium

Best indicator for monitoring the effectiveness of

iodine deficiency controi programme is:

100 microgram/day

September 2C09

microgramlday
200 microgram/day
250 microgramlday
150

Recommended initial dose of Vitamin

"

prophylaxis in a 9 month old child is:

September 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

milk is taken before meal which of the

following element's absorption is decreased:

March 2oo8

A" fot

4,00,000I.U

5.00.000I.u
1,00.000 LU

2.00.000I.u.

A patient of total parenteral nutrition develops

delayed wound healing loss of taste, deficient

a.
b.
c.
cl.

Neonatalirypoti'ryroidism
Hy'pothyroidism in male population
Hypothyroidism in female populatior.r

Tt
N
'Il'!
Size of goitror-rs lesion
115. How many gram of protein is given in mid day meal
f;
scheme:
March 2410 ';,f
a. 4-8 gram
t.{
b. 8-12 gram
l'1
c. 72-L6 gram
xm

d. r6-20gtam

115. Extra calories required

during pregnancy state

a.
b.
c.
d.
1.10.

September 2008

Selenium
Copper

Zinc

Calories required by one year old child is:

September 2A08

a.
b"
c.
d.

92kcallkglday
102

kcafkg/day

ll2kcallkglday
l,22kcallkglday

symptom of vitamin A
a. Conjunctivalxerosis

111. 1st

b.
c.
d.
1L2.

deficiency:

March 20A9

Bitot's spots

Night blindness
Corneal ulcer

Vitamin B
Vitamin C

VitaminD

lra

100 kcal/day
200 kcal/day
300 kcal/day
400 kcal/day

follon'ing except:
NIarch 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Growth retardation
SexuaI infantilism
Alopecia
Immunologicaldisturbances
118. Vitamin K is required for-

a.
b.
c.
d.

to
t:O
iF
lr
i=
im
lu
:lr.-

{o

March 2005

Chelation
Transamination

irZ

1m
:'a.

Carboxylation
none ofthe above

National Programme for Prevention of

Nutritional Blindness, a child in the age group of
1.1 months is given a single dose of vitamin A is:

119, Under

Vitamin not present in breast milk:

a. Vitamin A

b"
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

117. Deficiency of zinc causes all of the

Iron

t>
y,Z

is:

,orrP 2g1g{Et

immunity and diarrhoea. Most probably it could be

due to deficiency of:

'

March 2009

6-

March 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

50,000

IU

1.00.000IU
1,50,000
2,00.000

IU
ru

.'...''
:--*
-

Preventive and Social Medicine

120.

Which of the following vitamin may have an anti

infective action:
StVtember 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.
121.

UJ

q
o
IJJ
C)

are antioxidant except:

September 2005

Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin C

\/itamin

in all of the
March 2009

Homocystinemia
Chronic alcoholism
Heart failure patients on diureiics
Starvation

following is false regarding

None of the above

of:

a"
b.
c.
d"

uJ

ul

March 2a10, September 2010

40 mm

128. Amount of free residual chlorine

a.
b.
c.
d.

1.0 mg,41.5

Decrease in sodium absorption

Variable effect on sodium absorption

No effect on sodium absorption

126. Sodium content

mg/L

129. Amount of chlorine needed to

in reduced osmolarity ORS is:

a. 1.5 gramslliire b" 2.5 grams/litre

c" 3.5 grams/litre

september 2006

kill

cyclops in

is:

a. 3 ppm
b. 4pp*
c. 5 ppd. 6pp*
L30. Guideline value

Selttenrber 2007

for drinking water is:

September 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

coliforms per 100 ml

10 coliforms per 1000 ml
1

Zero coliforms per 100 ml

100 coliforms in 10,000 ml

a.

September 2005

September 2007, March 2010

0.5 mg/L

Pantothenic acid
Cyanocobalamin

Increase in sodium absorption

in

0.1 mg,{-

dust;

In ORS, the effect of glucose on sodium absorption

a.
b.
c.
d.

30 mm

Niacin

ls:

20A7

mm
20 mm
10

131. Which of the

Thiamine

ENVIRONMENT AND SANITATION

125.

a.
b.
c.
d.

drinking water

124. Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency

in I{CA sanitary latrine of India

drinking water:

acrodermatitis enteropathica:
Low serum zinc levels
Triad of diarrhea, dementia and dermatitis
Autosomal recessive condition

a.
b.
c.
d.

to-

Vitamin

123. Which of the

o
U'
o
IIJ

VitaminA

following except:

=
J

127. Depth of water seal

March

Vitamin D

122. Thiamine deficiency may be seen

a.
b.
c.
d.

4.5 gramsilitre

VitaminK

All of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

d.

following is false regarding respirable

March2010

May lead to pneumoconiosis

b.
c.
d.

Smaller than 5 microns is respirable

Silicosis is the most common dust disease
Soluble dust remains in the lungs for a long time
132. Recommended flouride concentration in water to
prevent caries is:

March 20L0

a.0
b. 0.5 ppm
c. lppm
d. 1.5 ppm
133. Nitrates

a"
b.
c.
d.

in drinking water indicates:

Remote faecal pollution
Recent faecal pollution

Unpolluted water
Water fit for drinking

September 2005

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

f4. The acceptable noise level that can be tolerated

wiihout any damage to hearing is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

141.

except:

Mnrch 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

85 dB
90 dB
95 dB
100 dB
L42.

NATIONAL POLICIES AND HEALTH CARE

135. Who should be trained in a community for house to
house surveys:

a.
b.
c.
d.
136.

Volunteer

a.
b.
c.
d.

60,000-80,000
80,000-1,20,000

2004
2005
2006

A primary health care center should provide all

a.
b.
c.
d.
139.

September 2007

Treatment of common diseases

Specialisedsurgeries

Immunization
Family planning services
Which of the following is posted at a subcentre:
March 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.
140.

SEtember 2049

10,000

20,000
30,000

Minimum development goals is:

Trained dai
Health guide

March 2008

Mukerji committee
Bhore committee
Kartar singh committee
Mudaliar committee

15 goals harre to be acl-rieved

:.2

i<
Concerned only rvith the provision of primary im
Policy of Indian govemirent

r>

are present in a subcentre

September 2009

Multipurpose worker male

Multipurpose worker female
Medical officer
September 2009

ig
':ut
io
,Q
t=
im

Each village level

i9
te
i:Z

Sub centre level

PHC level
CHC ievel

146. Which of the

i.z

:F
;r

Volunteer worker

L45. A health guide works at:

a"
b.
c.
d.

''<
,'m

;l

Targets to be achieved by 2015

All of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

fim

following is incorrect about ASHA:

am

September 2009 lt''.

Voluntary worker
Anganwadi workers

Which of the following committee proposed the

concept of primary health centre in India:

a.
b.
c.
d.

'fotal of

.ii

rT

1,20,000

except:

2003

except:

144.

j.i

.,--.:-:

health care

National rural health mission is staded by prime

minister in:
September 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.
138.

30.000-60.000

,, .i:

SeptenLter 2009

10,000-30,000

'.: ::.':

Community health centre covers a population of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

;.,1;:;i,aa
:r]ri'.it::.:.5

Eliminate Kala-azar by 2010

Eliminate HIV by 2015
Eliminate leprosy by 2005

143. True about

March 2005, St'ptenfuer 2009

137.

Septemher 2009

Rural population under one primary health centre

a.
b.
c.
d.

Multipurpose worker

2002

F-,lirninate lymphatic filariasis b1, 2015

in plain areas in India is:

March 2005

Flealth educator
Health guide

All were the goals for National health policy

a.
b.
c"
d.

ASHA worker per 1000 popuiation

Resident of local community

She must be educated

till 4th

25-45 years of age

147. Death needs to be registered

a.
b.
c.
d.

class

4 days
7 d,ays
10

days

14 days

within:

September 2009

iiri*1:.

Preventive and Social Medicine

148.

''.

":.

Which of the following is not

anganwadi worker:
a. Immunization
b. Health check-ups
c. Conductingdeliveries
d. Supplementarynutrition

149. Number of beds

a.
b.
c.
d.

zuJ

150.

,'

c.
d.

J=r

{i

o;
o:
U):
o:
2,,
(i
rJi

F;

March 2070

March 2010

20

154. Weight of 9 students of a class is as

follows _ 22,24,
76,72,76,78,80,73 and.72. What is the mode:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.

b.
c.
ct.

50

March 2()10

No private practice
Measrrres to improve effectiveness of National
Malaria Eradication programme

following is a duty of multipurpose

male:

a.
b.

157.

UJ:

E,:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2009

Primary health centre

Community health centre
159.

201A

0.02

i
are measures of dispersion
September

Mean Deviation
Mode
Range

Standard deviation

September 20ffi

Pie chart
Bar diagram

Histogram
Graph

A continuous quantitative data can be depicted with

the help of-

a.
b.
c.
d.

Considering the table given below, odds ratio can

be calculated as:

Nlarch

158. Percentage of a data can be depicted

on a:

Subcentre

Medical college hospital

"p,' is:

Except:

BIOSTATISTICS
153"

data

0.01

All of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

He will visit schools at regular intervai in the

referral unit:

UJr

March

when

Arithmetic mean

c. 0.04
d. 0.05

March 2010

Organizes staff meetings

Regularly visit to every house in his area
Attends patients in the OpD
152. As per RCH, which of the following
is the first

)i

observation

Dispersion of values about the mean

Most frequently occtrrring value

156. Significant value of

Framework of health services at peripheral level

Concept of primary health care

b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

78

arranged in ascending order.

PHC

zt;

74
76

a. Value of middle

40

worker

March
72

155. Standard deviation is defined as:

30

151. Which of the

!.

)i

part of duties of

Kartar singh committee recommendations are

a.
b.

o
llJ

;j

a CHC is:

related to:

()

O-i

in

September 2008

Sept 2009

Bar diagram
Pie chart

Histogram
Pictogram

MISCELLANEOUS
160"

a.
b.
c.
d,

AB/CD

ACEO
AD/BC

BDiAC

Most important factor which decides the results of a

randomized controlled trial is:
March 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Inclusion of all age groups

50% treated with placebo and 50%
100% follorv up

Effectiverandomization

witll drugs

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screenino Examination

161.

169. To facilitate the screening of visual-acuity, WHO

Socially acquired behavior is known as:

March 2005, Septentber 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

L63.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Socialization

Internalization
Custom

Diaphragm
IUCD
N{ala-D

Mala-N
Best protection from STD and Syphilis is bv:
Mnrch 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.
164.

IUCD
Condom
OCP

March 2005
Cost accounting
Cost benefit
System analysis

156.

c.
d.
167.

September 2005

Easily available

is:

September 2005

Breast feeding
A1l of the above
Septenfuer 2005

168.

3 rnetres
6 metres
9 metres

170. Human anatomical waste is put

a.
b.
c.
d.

in:

March 2007

Yellow
Red

Blue
Biack

171. True regarding

Df)T is:

a
b.

Svntlielicinst'cticiclc
Natural insecticide

c.
d.

Organophosphateirrsecticide
No incidence of resistance

Sclttt'trt|ttr

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

.'2

Working environment
Managerial control

Air pressure
Degree of hotness in air

Air cooling power

Confirmation of the diagnosis

Isolation
Mass immunization
Verification of the diagnosis

Triage in casuality is done for:

September 2006
a. Prevention of such casualities
b. Treating patients
c. Case segregation
d. Predicting after effects of casuality

71 days

March 2008

Can be used as an altemative to DDT

Most toxic of all members of the group
Belongs to organophosphorous insecticides
175. Sickness benefit under ESI Act is payable for how
many days in a year:
March &. Septcmber 2008
81 days
91 days
101 days

176.Target forwater supply in rural areas of India is:

Septentber 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

30 litres per capita per day

40 litres per capita per dav
50 litres per capita per day
60 litres per capita per day

im

i>
a:z
itcn

;o
|'O
i>
li=
r:

Air density

a.
b.
c.
d.

i=

'.:<

is

State of health of workers

Used as a spray

Relationship between employee and employer

a.
b.
c.
d.

21t07

Septetnber 2007

except:

First step in investigating an epidemic is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

metre

174.Trse regarding malathion are all of the following

Reduced side efffects

Easy to use

Natural method of contraception

a. Rhythm method
b. Coitus interruptus

S4ttembcr 2006A Septeruber 20L0

1

173.Kata thermometer is used to measure: September 2A07

Netn'ork analysis
165. Condoms are more preferred because:
a. Reduced failure rates

b.
c.
d.

counting fingers at a distance

172,ln a faclory, sickness absenteeism predicts:

Tubectomy

Comparing cost of 2 sfudies and choosing the one

which is economically superior to others is done by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

as

of:

Culture

162. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a37 yr

March 2005
well educated, normal woman is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

defines blindness

im
lEl

i6
i=

..lrl

Preventive and Social Medicine

777' Agroup of experts discussing

a topic in front of the
audience without any specific
order. This mode of
communication is known as:
St1rtt,,,Lr, ,OOt
a. Panel discussion
b. Group discussion

d.

HIV drug trial

iltegally harms property., body
someone,s reputation, it is
known as:

185. When someone

a.
b.
c.
d.

c.
d.

Team presentation
Symposium
1.78. Benefits of cost benefit
analysis of
measured in terms of:

a"
b.
c.
d.

rii

Number of lives saved

programme are
Septenfuer 200g

a.
b.
c.
d.

Compariscn of alternati_res
Sequence of actrons
179. As per the school health
committee

UJ

z
E

recommendation, medical examination

of school
children should be done every:
March 2009

a
b.
c.
d.

IIJ

J=

1 Year

ol

Zt
(,

181.

3 year

a.
b.
c.
d.

4year

ltJ;

>.:
Fi

zl
UI:

)r

lIJ.

t',
[]

March 2009
188.

In disaster situation, how many

colour codes

used for

a. 1
b.2

triage:

Wound

are

Essential heaiTh care

Primary health care

Social rnedicine

15

May

31May

culture and becomes

d.

known

183. Bhopal gas tragedy of

-"
b.
c.
d.

individual gradually acquires

a

member of a social group is

as:

a. Intemalisatio.,
b. Acculturation
c. Socialization
d. Custom

September 2009

25%
30%
35%

September 2009

25May

189. Process by which an

None of the above

182. Ratio of doors and windows
to the floor for a
classroom should be at least:

September 200g

Community health care

Anti tobacco day is:

lMay

a.
b.
c.
d.

september 2oog

20%

SeTttentber 2007

million/ml
20 miltion/ml
50 million/ml
60 million/ml
10

L.J

a.
b.
c.
d.

minimal sperm count is:

individuals and acceptable to them

is called:

2vear

blinding:
a. Berkensonian bias
b. Recall bias
c. Interviewer,s bias
d. Selection bias

o:
v),:,

Civil Injury
Hurt

187. Essential health care

made universally accessible
to

S, 180. Which of the following can be eliminated by double

Oi

Septentber

Assault

186. WHO guidelines for

lr4onetary gains

or

teptenrber 20a9

190. The critical path method

in health planning and

management is:
March2010
a. Shortest time taken to complete the project
b. Longest path taken to complete the
c. Mid-point for reviewing the proiect iroyect
d. None of the above

India is an example of

Multiple exposure epidemic

March2010

Propagated epidemic
Point source epidemic
Slow epidemic
184. Which of the following is
not included in phase I
clinical trial of medicine:
March 2007
a. Healthy volunteers
b. Patient with end stage disease
c. Epilepsy patients

191.

Which phase of clinical trial involves

normal human

Volunteers:
a. phase 0
b. Phase I
L. rnase ll
Phase III

d.

March

2010

**o.*,ffiXffi***

EAR

EAR, NOSE AND THROAT (ENT)

1. Hyperacusis is seen in all of the following

8.
except:
March 2007

a. Exposr-rre to loud sounds

b. Otosclerosis
c. Meniere's disease
d. Severe head injury

MLtrclt 2()08

a. Lleafness, nvstagmus, tremors

b. Deafness, vertigo, nysragmus
c. Deafiress, tinnitus, t ertigo
d. Deafness, tremors, tinnifus

The first clinical presentation

of acoustic neuroma is
feature of:

4. Most

common cause of conductive

deafness in
children less than 12yrs:
March 2009

a. CSOM
b. Otosclerosis
c. furous otitis media
d. Atresia of auditory canals on both

si

.*

#
,sj

ffi
i.2.7

VE
ae.

trr

{i

F]:;

t1:
t:'-'.
z::a
a.:a:

,',,
.::

a"

Hemophilus

b. Staphyiococcus
c.

Streptococcus

u- Pseudomonas

a. Svphilitic otitis media

b. TB otitis media
c. CSOM
d. Fungal otitis merdia

is:

Referred pain in the ear is commonly

from:

10.

a. Maxillary carcinom;
b. Nasopharyng"ul
c. Carcinoma tongue"uJ.i.,o*u
d. Malignant otitis externa
11.

in India

Septentlter 2a09

Septentber 200g

Tuning fork frequency used for

testing is:
Septentber 2009

a. 572H2
b. 1048 Hz
c^ 248H2

sides

a. 1OdB
b. 15dB
c. 20dB
d. 25dB
Fll

9. Most comtnon cause of chronic ear

infection

d. All of the above

test for 256 Hztuning fork

indicates a minimum air_bone
gap of
Marclt 2009

6. Cauliflower ear seen in:

a. Hematoma of the auricle
b. Carcinoma of the auricle
c. Fungal infection of the auricle
d. Congenital cleformity
7. Causative organism for malignant

a. Collection of fluid in the middle ear

b. Otosclerosis
c. Dislocation of the incudostapediai joint
d. ASOM

Septenfuer 200g

a. Brainstem involvement
b. Cerebellar involvement
c. Faciai nerve! involvement
d. Cochleovestibular symptoms

5. Negative Rhinne,s

Unilateral conductive hearing loss

in a patient with
history of head injury. On examinatlo.r,
ty*pur.i.
membrane is normal and mobile.The
cause for
deafness could be:

septenber 20ag

2. Menieres disease is characterized

by the triad of

3'

(euestiorJ

12. Calorie test based on thermal

part of the semi circular

a. Lateral
b" Posterior
c" Anterior
d. AII of the above
13.

March 2009

Septentber 2009

Scptenfuer 2009,2A10

AII of the following

are true about glomus_jugulare

tumor except:
March)010, Septerfuer 2010
a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodes
b. Pulsatile tinnifus and conductiro d"uf.,er,
,"".,
c. Most commoniv affects male

d.
otitis externa is:

stimulation of which

canals:

Paraganglioma,s

NOSE
14. CSF

rhinorrhoea is due to the fracture

of which of

following

a. Nasal bones
b. Cribriform plaie

c.

Temporal trone

d. Maxiliary

bone

March

the
2aog

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

is done
6.Youn8's
rnrruns
a. AiroPhtc

:l"t:ltii

for:

March 2009

b. Vasomotor rhinitis
c. Antrachonal PoIYP
' Allergic rhinitis
d.

16.

polyp:
Treatment of choice for antrochoanal
SePtenfuer 2009

One of the most important complication of

li$i
SePf ember 2008 i;;l;
tracheostomy is:
a. Surgical emPhYsema
b. Hemorrhage
c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
d. Displacement of tube
20. Stridor in an infant is most commonly due to:

19.

March 20L0

a. IntranasalPolYPectomY

a. Diphtheria
b. Acute ePiglottitis
c. Foreign bodY asPiration
d. Laryngomalacia

b. Caldwell-Luc oPeration
c. EndoscoPic sinus surgery
d. Intranasal ethmoidectomY
following is associated with olfactory
17. Which of the
nerve

dysfunction:

Mnrch 2010

a. Dorvn syndrome
b. Tumer s)'ndrome
c. Parkinst tn disease
d. Marfan sYndrome

21.

lHROAT

18.All of the following are true regarding tracheostomy

September 2008

fube excePt:

a. Double lumen tube

b. Made of titanium silver alloY
c. Cuffed tube prevents aspiration

of

secretions

d. Ideally should

be changed every 3'd day

pharyngeal

:m

MISCELLANEOUS

22.

Paralysis of which muscle lead to hyperacusis in Bell's

Septcmber 2008
palsy:

.,2

a. Tensor veli Palatini

b. Levator Palatini

10

c. Stapedius
d. Stemocleidomastoid

:.m

florner's syndrome is caused by:

;CN
March 2009

a. Facial injurY
b. Nasopha4mgeal carcinoma with metastasis
c. Meniere's disease
d. All of the above

i>
i:Z
i(]
i+
i-

?n

:o
:>
l{
:;.

:rn

tz
l-l
i

:::i|:

s6,!f AssEsslvrErv"g
irurcEzMcr SCRE.rNTNG

OPHTHALMOLO Gy (euestions)
OPHTHALMOLOGY ANATOMY
-1.

Maximum cones arc secn in:

a. Limbus

March 2005

c.7.0

2. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by:

a. Third cranial nerve
b. Fourth cranial nerve
c. Fifth cranial nerve
d. Sixth cranial nerve
3. Axial length of eye ball is:

a. 16 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 24 mm
4.

10.

March 2005

Mnrclt 2005

b. 10 times
c. i 5 times
d. 20 times
12. All are true regarding direct ophthalmoscopy

is also known

as:

Image is erect

c.

Wide area of fundus with least magnification ca"Ui

seen in hypermetropics
.
It has a large field of view.
,j

13.

Eye structure

Isochromatic charts are used

a. Contrast sensitivity
b. Testing colour vision

c. Visual
14.

with maximum refractive power:

March 20a7

Anterior surface of lens

b. Posterior surface of lens

Anterior surface of cornea

Posterior surface of cornea

March

2Mg,:.
:

fields charting
testing

True regarding retinoscopy are all of the following

except:

September21N;

a. Helps in estimating the condition of the refraction

b. Usually performed at 1 m distance

"l
l

c. Consists

d.
of 3D

fon

d. Visual acuity

of 3D

d. Hypermetropia

Magnification is more than indirect

ophthalmoscopy

d.

Fovea

6. Depth of anterior chamber of the eye: March 2007

a. 2-3 mm
b. 3-4 mm
c. 4-5 mm
d. 5-6 mm
7. If the length of eyeball increases by I mm. The net
effect will be:
September 2007
a. Myopia of 6D
b. Hypermetropia of 6D

except :

a.
b.
March 2007

c. Macula

c.

March2ffiS
5 times

March

5. Blind spot of Mariotte

a. Optic disc
b. Ora serrata

8.

In direct ophthalmoscopy, image is magnified by:

a.

a. 1D
b. 2D
c. 3D
d. 4D

September

OPHTHALMOLOCY PROCEDURES

28 mm

c. Myopia

Power of normal eye is:

a. +6D
b. +10D
c. +16D
d. +60 D
11.

1mm change in the axial length of the eyeball

prodtrces a change in refractive index by: March 2a0S

d.

is:

D. b.5

b. Fovea centralis
c. Macula lutea
d. Blind spot

d.

9. The normal pH of tears

a. 6.0

15.

of a plane and a concave mirror

Hyperopes display an,,against,, movement

Which of the following is the most reliable

provocative test for angle closure glaucoma:

.:

SePtember 20il5

a. Water drinking test

b. Mydriatic-miotic test

c. Homatropine mydriatic

d.

Dark room test

test

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

15.

Initial manoeuver done in congenital dacryocystitis:

22.

a.
b.
c.
d.

All of the following drugs are associated with corneal

deposition except:

Saptember 2007

September 2009

a. Chloroquine
b. Amiodarone

Probing
Massaging

c. Quinacrine

Ointments

d. Antimony

Observation

CONJUNCTIVA
OPHTHALMOLOGY PHARMACOLOGY
17.

23.

Which of the following is not an antiglaucoma drug:

September 2006

c. Gonococcal

a. Brimonidine
b. Prednisolone

c.

24.

Dorzolamide

HIV patients:

19.

Marclt 2007

Aryclovir

25.

Ribavarin

D deficiency

Arlt's line is seen in:

Marclr 2007

except:

September 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ganciclovir

Clindamycin
Tetracyclines

1% atropine is given

in uveitis to:
March 2010
a. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of anterior

27.

b. Cause miosis and prevent formation

of

28.

c. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of posterior

slmechiae

and prevent formation of posterior

synechiae

Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except:

Steven-Johnson syndrome

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Vitamin A deficiency

d" Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma

March 2010

March 2010

a. CMV
b. Adenovirus

c. Herpes simplex

virus

d.

Picornavirus
29. Trachoma can cause all of the following except:

September 2006

a. Primary, Open Angle Glaucoma

b" Malignant Glaucoma
c. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma

by:

Which of the following virus does not cause

conjunctivitis:

March 2005

a. Loss of vision
b. Clouding of the cornea
c. Trichiasis
d. Enopthalmos

,,I
;>

.l;=
o
:l-

io
rO

Sarcoidosis

a. Steven-Johnsons).ndrome
b. Vitamin A deficiency
c. Suifa drugs
d. All of the above

posterior

synechiae

March 2008

Xerophthalmia can be caused

,Tl
!!{

Vernal catarrh
26. Conjunctival xerosis is seen in all of the following

slmecnlae

21.

B deficiency
C deficiency

d.

Erythromycin

d. Cause miosis

Septentbcr 2006

A dc'ficiency

c. Angular conjunctivitis

Vidarabine

eye:

20.

Vitamin
Vitamin
Vitamin
Vitamin

a. Ophthalmia neonarorum
b. Trachoma

Ganciclovir

Which of the following drug can be used topically in

a.
b.
c.
d.

conjunctir,'itis

Xerosis is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

The drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis in

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2006

d. Chlamydial conjunctivitis

cl. Timolol
18.

Herbert's pit is seen in:

a. Vernal conjunctivitis
b. Atopic conjunctivitis

.<

Ophthalmotogy

30.

Epithelial lining of conjunctiva is:

a.

b.
c.
d.

It4arch 2009

Squamouskeratinized
Pseudo-stratified
Cuboidai
Stratified non-keratinized

38. Normal endothelial cell density

fper mm squarej in

cornea to maintain transparency

CORNEA
31. Diagnostic test for corneal ulcer:

a.
b.

32.

J,
='

1.38

Rose Bengal

Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in:

o-

a. Anttrior siaplll,ie*o has iris

2|0(t7

tissr_rc

n'ithin tire scar tissue

b. Healing of a perforated corneal

Mnrclt 2005, 2()07

c.
d.

Septenfuer 2005

formation of aclhe?ent leucoma

A strictly ktcalized dense leucorna interferes

mcre

than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area.

Some opacities may persists despite destruction
of
Bowman's membrane

41. Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nerve:

c.
d.

Phylectenular keratitis
Mooren ulcer
36. True about Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
are all except:

September 20A8

Trochlear

Trigeminai
c

Abducens

d Facial
42.

Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except:

Mnrch 2aA9

Penetrati ng kera toplastl'

Septenfuer 2006

a. Cornmonly seen in the elderly female

b. Svmmetrical and unilateral condition
c. Comea guttatae is characteristic
d. Iratient tl,picallv complains of seeing

b. Affects cornea
c. Sudden loss of vision
d. Bilateral in majoritv of cases

Septentber

1.58

True about keratoconus are all of the following except:

morning
True about Moorens ulcer:
a. Painless condition

2gg7r,,,i

40. True about corneal opacity are all except:

in severc. cases.
35. Corneal lesion seen in Hutchinson triad
associated
with congenital syphilis is:
Septentber 2006
a. Disciform keratitis
b. Interstitial keratitis

37"

Septenilter

1.48

hla,-ctt 20()5

Fuirgal keratitis
Congeniial svphilis
I)irlyctc.nular keratitis

a. Can be seen in Dortn,s syndrome

b. It manifests just after birih
c. Munson sign is characteristic
d. Corneal transplantation is needed

600

d.

a. Fung;-rl keratitis
b. Clilamydial keratitis
c. Herpes zoster keratitis
d. Herpes simplex keratitis

34.

cl.

Refractive index of cornea is:

39"

Sodium fluorescein dye

d" Trachorna
33. Dendritic ulcer is seen in:

o
J,
o

500

c. Alcian l,.lue

c.

C,

March 2005

rnethlzlgns blgg

c.

7.28

a.
b.

is:

a. -100
b. 400

b
c.

halos

in

Debridement of the edges of the uicer

43. Acute corneal hydrops is seen in:
Selttentber
Cornael dystrophy
A

the

Mnrch 2007

Anterior staphyloma
Interstitial keartitis
Keratoconus

200g

:,!.,.

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

Most serious complication seen in other eye after

traumatic iniurY to one eYe:

51.

Nerve involved in exposure keratopathy:

44.

SePtenfuer 2009

Marclt 2005, SePtember 2008

a. Third cranial nerve

b. Fifth cranial nerve

a.
b.
c.
d.

c. Seventh cranial nerve

d. Ninth cranial nerve
45.

Cornea gets its nourishment mainly from:

52.

SePtentber 2009

a. AtmosPhere
b. Aqueous humour
c. Vitrcous humotrr
d. Corneal vessels
46.

c. Astigtratrsm
d.
53.

Sclttenrber 2407

a.
b. Cataract
c. H;'Pertonia
d. Low IQ

Follorving anatomical changes predisposes to angle

54.

47. Initial treatment for perforated corneal ulcer is:

c. Optic nerve
d. Iris and ciliary

Which of the following is not true regarding fungal

March 2009
corneal ulcen
a. ConvexhypoPyon

b. Commonly perforates
c. Hyphate margins
d. Satellite lesions are seen
UVEAL TRACT AND CLAUCOMA
49.

Structure commonly involved in

Anterior uveitis is most commonly associated with:

55.

uveities
uveities
b.
c. Posterior uveitis
d" IridocYclitis

glaucoma:
a. Trabeculectomy
b. Surgical iridectomY

c.

Laser iridotomy

cl. Pilocarpine

j
=
,>
i:l-

i=
io

condition:
F
$nttmbt
- Y
r" " "- -"2007'
O
i<
l
i

of
56. In angle closure glaucoma, obstruction to outflow
of:
involvement
the
to
due
aqueous humour mainly
Seulenfuer 2007

a. Canal of schlemm
b. Trabecular meshwork
c. Iris
d. Scleral venous Plexus

a. HLA DR4
b. HLA D27
c. HLA 84
d. HLA B 27
Definitive managenment in primary angle closure

diffuse

O
3

2007

bodY

Anterior nodular

March 2005

50.

2A()7

,
Mnrch

Which of the following is painless

a. Anterior

Nlnrdt

sympathetic

ophthalmia:
a. Cornea
b. Lens

March 2009

a. Conjuctival flaP grafting

b. Tissue adhesive glue
c. Contact lens
d. Local anesthetics drops instillation

PresbYoPia

closure glaucoma excePt:

a. Smali cornea
b. Flat cornea
c. Anterior chamber shallower
d. Short axial length of eYebal

Undescended testes in males

48.

September 2005

Posterior staphyloma is seen in:

a. MyoPia
b. HypermetroPia

In Lon'e syndrome, all of the following are seen

except:

Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Corneal edema
Sympathetic oPhthalmia
Sudden loss of vision

57.

tu

True about open angle glaucoma ale all except:

March 2008

Marclt 2005

a.
b.

Open anterior chamber angle

Frequcnt change in presbyopic correction

RaPid visi'.-,n loss

d.

Cornrnonest form of glaucoma

,,,..ji

Ophthalmology

58.

True about angle recession glaucoma are all except:

65.

Anterior uveitis is commonly associated with:

September 2009

a. \,tiosis is commonly seen

b. 'iears of the iris sphincter and ciliary body
c. Angle recession more than 1g0 degree
d. Secondary open angle glaucoma
59.

Which of the following is seen in iridodialysis:

a.
b.

September 2009

a. Psoriasis
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. All of the above

LENS
66.

Biocular diplopia
Degenerative condition

d. Normal pupil
Prostaglandin used in the management of glaucoma:
a.
b.

c.

(,,

o,
J

oi
l:
J.:
:

Septeniber 2009

Bimatoprost 0.03%
Travoprost0.004%
Latanoprost 0.005%

d. Ali
61.

<:

E,r

t:
O-,.

oj

d. All
63.

caused by:

68. Rosette shaped cataract

March 2A10

d. Pupillary block glaucoma

Hundred day glaucoma is associated with:

c.
d.

September 2006

Neovascular glaucoma
CRAO
CRVO
Steroid-related glaucoma

September 2006

a. 1.-2"h
b. 8%
c. 20-30%
d. More than 50%

of the above

c. Malignant glaucoma

March 2005,2N7

What is the magnitude of magnification when

refractive correction of aphakia is done with contact
lens:

mellitus

Very high intraocular pressure, vertically oval mid_

dilated pupil and shallow anterior chamber is seen in:

a.
b.

in

2009

a. Senile cataract
b. Diabetic cataract
c. Traumatic cataract
d. After cataract
69.

a. Primary open angle glaucoma

b. Acute primary angle closure glaucoma

64.

a. Subcomeal
b. Capsular bag '
c. Anterior to the pupil
d. Anterior chamber

March 201-0

CRVO
CRAO

c. Diabetes

,1

Ideal site for intraocular lens implantation is:

March 2005, September 2006 &

HLA testing aids in the diagnosis of which ocular

affection:
March 2010
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Uveitis
c. Retinitis

a.
b.

Which of the following subfypes of cataract is the

]i
most common cause of visual morbidity: Nlarch
2005

cl. Drug toxicity

67.

of the above

d. Viteous hemorrhage
F.i 62. Neovascular
glaucoma is

a. Senile
b. Congenital
c. Traumatic

c. Iris is torn ar,t,ay from its ciliary attachment

60.

Septe-mber 20Ag

70.

Most common cause of blindness in India is:

September 2006

a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Trachoma
d. Vitamin A deficiency
71. Sunflower cataract is seen

a. Trauma
b. Diabetes
c. Chalcosis
d. HIV

in:

March, Septenrber 2007

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

T2.Ectopia

lentis is seen in all of the following except:

80.

Correct statement regarding Coats disease:

March 2007

March 2007

a. Unilateral

a. Marfan's syndrome

|.

b. Presents in fourth to fifth deacde

c. Sudden loss of vision
d. Hereditary in nafure

Homocystinuria

c. Weil-Marchesanislmdrome
d. Down s1'ndrome
73.

March 2007

Most common cause of cataract is:

a. Trauma

81.

September 2005,2010 March 2007

a. Hard exudate
b. Soft exudate

b. DM
c. Age related
d. HereditarY
74, Which of the following is most irnportant factor for
Mnrch 2007
refractive en:ors:

In extra-capsular cataract surgery [ECCE], which part

September 2008
of the lens is excised:

d.
82.

83.

Nucleus

Snowflake cataract is associated

a. Hypertension

with:

September 2008

b. Adult diabetes
c. Trauma
d. fuvenile diabetes
77.

84.

September 2009

Phacolytic glaucoma
Phacomorphinc glaucoma
Phacotopic glaucoma
Pseudophakic glaucoma
78. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of:

;I
i>
Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of lti

March 2008
retinal detachment:
vision
of
field
their
a. Feeling of curtain obscuring

2009

i
.::

Marclt 2009

c. Uveitis

March

2005

Cataract

Chodoretinitis is commonly caused by all of the

March
Following excePt:

a.
b.

CryPtococcosis
Onchocerciasis

c. Cytomegalovims
d.

Toxoplasmosis

infection

,:<
t

a. Corneal ulcer
b. Retinochoroiditis

RETINA

a. Myopia
b. DM retinopathy
c. Trauma
d. Vitreous loss after Surgery

;o

Septemher 2008

Most common eye pathology in toxoplasma infection

d.

:o
f

io

is:

87.

;=
:,:

Fall in visual acuity

85. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in:
a. CRVO
b. Diabetic retinoPat\
c. Hypertensive retinoPathY
d. Ocular ischemic syndrome

a. Fructose
b. Galactose
c. Glucose
d. Sorbitol
Tractional retinal detachment is seen in:

Fioaters

d.

86.

March

ro
]T
i1{

c. Photopsia

a.
b.
c.
d.

79.

LLnrclt 2007

Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in: March 2007

b.

Intumescent cataract is associated with which fype of

glaucoma:

Roth's spot are seen in:

a. HIV
b. Diabetes Mellitus
c. Hypertension
d. All of the above

d. \ltrhole lens
76.

Microaneurysm

a. SABE
b. Trauma
c. Hypertension
d. Trachoma

a. Anterior capsule
b. Posterior capsule

c.

t!

c. Ambylopia

a. Lens
b. Vitreous hemorrhage
c. Aqueous humour
d. Axial eyeball length
75.

Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy:

2009

ri

Ophthalmology

88.

True regarding photoretinitis are all of the following

except:

95.

a.
b.

No effective treatment
Caused by ultravio)et rays

c.

Caused by infrared rays

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes in microscopy is

seen
in:

Marclt 2009

c-.-a-. ,
Septentlser

a. Retinitispigmentosa
b. Trauma
c. Retinoblastoma

d.

Complete recovery is possible

89. Retinal tear is associated with which degeneration:

d" Neuroblastoma
Most common malignant eyelid tumour is:

96.

March 201A

a. Equatorial drusen
b. Reticular pigmeniary degeneration
c. Paving stone degeneration
d. Lattice retjnal degeneration
90. All of the following are seen in retinitis
except:

o
o
J
o

c. Pigmentation
d.
91.

around the retinal veins

Pale disc

a. Herpes virus
b. Toxocara
c. Toxoplasma
d. Cytomegalovirus

I
F
92.

o-

93.

March 2010

a. Visible rays
b. Infrared rays
c. Ultraviolet rays
d. All of tire above
Lisch nodules are seen in:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Neurofibromatosis

c. Retiniitis pigmentosa
d.

Neuroblastoma

Basal cell carcinoma

White pupillary reflex is seen in:

98.

a. Retrolental fibroplasia
b. Complete retinal detachment
c. Retinoblastoma
d. All of the above
99.

Which of the following is the most common

vitreous hemorrhage in young individuals:
It4a r ch,

a.
b.

cause of

ep t en tb er

2ffi5

Trauma
H1'pertension

c. Eale's disease
d. Diabetes
100. Scleritis is most commonly associated

with:
March 2ffi5

a.
b.
c.
d.

OPHTHAL ONCOLOCY
94.

Neuroblas'roma

MISCELLANEOUS

The superficial retinal hemorrhage is seen in which

layer of retina:
Mnrch 2070
a. Inner plexifonn layer
b. Nerve fibre layer
c. Inner nuclear layer
d. Outer nuclear layer

Photoretinitis is due to:

2@

a. Iletinoblastoma
b. Metastatic neuroblastoma
c. Rhabdomyoru..oriu
d. Leukemia

vessels

Vision loss in HIV is commonly due to infection with:

Melanoma
Retinoblastoma

97. All of the following childhood tumours cause

proptosis except:
Septentber 200g

March 2005

J=
I-

pigmentosa
Septetrher 2009

a. Prominent retinal
b. Ring scotoma

September

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009

101"

Diabetes

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoidarthritis
Hvpertension

tight reflex is carried through:

Cranial nen'e Vl

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cranial nerve VII

Cranial nerve V
Cranial nerve II

March

2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

1iii.

:;

used to manage

fiLlaser

1.,,"',

u.
.,. ' b.
,:.:,i:. c.
,;.:r, d.
103.

"U"t:",'::Tl
March 2005, September

1L0. Oculocardiac reflex is seen

a.
,, b.
it.' c.
d.

September 2005

Strabismus surgery

Ventricular Septemberal Defect surgery

Valvular surgery

with

6th

cranial nerve palsy:

March 2007

Convex lens
Cylindrical lens
Septembcr 2005, March 2007

Enophthalmos

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ptosis

Septenrber 2005, March 2007

2009

Excimer
Xenon

Nd:Yag
None of the above
107. True statement regarding myopia: September 2006
a. Parallel rays comes to focus posterior to the retina
b. Parallel rays comes to focus anterior to the retina
c. An abnormal shortness of the axial iength of the
eye

d.

Newborns eYe is mYoPic

108. Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in young individual
March 2007, Septenrber 2009
indicates:

L13.

60-70%

are seen in:

Retinoblastoma

'o

DiabeticretinoPathY

Retinitis Pigmentosa

.-o

:,-

HYPertensiveretinoPathY

'S'-stands

a. safety
c.
d.

ir

io

Side-effects

March 2009 i,Q)

:4!

Punctate keratitis

,:.

follicularkeratitis
dendritic ulcer
vesicles on eYelids

in the lesion of:

Marclt 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.
116"

Lateral geniculate bodY

OPtic nerve
OPtic chiasma
OPtic tract

Synchisis scintillans means:

a. Vitreous detachment

b"
c.
d.

Liquefaction of vitreous
Adhesion of iris
Vitreous hemorrhage

iO

Surgery

115. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen

i=

114. Early ocular sign of herpes zoster:

a.
b.
c.
d.

r{

SePtember2\\|?>

b. Solutions

Chorioretinitis

50-60%

in the retina

for:

Glaucoma

30-40%

No diPloPia

-SAFE' strategy for control of trachoma;

Eale's disease

Coat's disease
For preventing Retinopathy of Prematurity,
March 2007
concentration of oxYgen should be:
20-30%

a.
b.
c.
d.

Uncrossed diPloPia
\'ertical diPloPia

ScPtember 2008

Miosis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Crossed diPloPia

112. |et-black spots

Hypelhvdrosis

Septenfuer 2005
is seen in:
105. Constriction of pupils
a. OnlY light reflex
b. light reflex and accommodation reflex
c. AtroPine medication
d. AII of the above
106. Laser used in LASIK for correcting myopia:

109.

Cataract surgery

SPhericallens

excePt:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

111. Type of squint seen

Concave lens

the following are seen in Hornels syndrome

104. All of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mnrch 2007

2009

Excimer laser,
Argon green laser
Diode laser
Nd:YAG laser

Lens used to treat astigmatism:

in which surgery:

Ophthalmology

117. Which of the

following is not a cause of

124.T'rue regarding amaurosis fugax are all

l-rypermetropia:
Septenrber 2009
a. Short axial length of the e1'eball
b. Flat cornea
c. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens
d. Anterior dislocation of the lens
According to WHO, blindness is defined

as:

September 2009,2010

a.
b.
c.
d.
119.

\/isrial acuity of less than 6/18

The terrn ankyloblepharon means:

a.
b.

o
o
J
o

IL

cause

126.

Smaller appearing palpebral fissure

Inconrplete closure

of palpebral aperture \4/hen

Adhcsions of the margins of the two lids

Eversion o{ the lid margin

120. Keratoconus is seen

a.
b.
c.
d.
121.

in:

March 2010

Patau syndrome

Down syndrome
Turner syndrome

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

The person cannot use the two eyes together

b"
c.
d.

Diminished visual acuity

in vitreous humour is caused by all of

Diabetes meliitus

CRVO
Glaucoma
Trauma

Superior oblique
Inferior oblique

A manifests

as all of the

130.

Scptenrber

2M

Alopecia

Anorexia
Pseudofumor cerebri
Peripheral neuritis

for correcting
old child is:

129. Best

a.

March 2010

Inferior rectus

following except:

Uniocular diplopia
Binocular diplopia

the following except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

20j,0

None of the above

123. Hemorrhage

Refractive errors

128. Hypervitaminosis

Hoffer formula
Holladay formula
SRK formula

L22.^kue about paralytic squint is:

Onchocerciasis

A pupil responds to accomodation but light reflex is

absent. It is known as:
March2()05
a. Adie's pupil
b. Hutchinson pupil
c. Argyll Robertsonlupil

b.
c.
d.
March

Diabeticretinopathy

None of the above

127. Muscle to be affected commonly in thyroid
ophthalmopathy is:
a. Superior recfus

\,Veber syndrome

used:

t.

d.

To check power of IOL, which formula is commonly

a.
b.
c.
d.

transient and recurrent episodes of -,'isual ktss ,.,.

Binocular lesion
Emblous from the carotid artery is the commonest

Ocular examination may be normal

125. Amongst the following causes of blindness, one
which is less common in India:
March2A16"1,
a. Trachorna

b.
c.
d.
Scpterrtl,cr 2009

.:,

M^nrch2g1g:,

d.

eyes are shut

c.
d.

J
=

I
F
T

Visual acuity of less than 1/60

Visual acuity of less than 3/60
Visual acrrity cf less than 6/60

a.
b.
c.

except:

15 degree esotropia

in

a5

year

.;:

September 2N7'11

Refraction testing under atropine followed by full;j;

correctlon
Surgical correction
Occlusive patches
Ocular exercises

Afferent pathway for pupillary light reflex is:

SePtembet 2N7

a.
b.
c.
d.

Oplic nen'e
Oculomotor nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Ciliary nerve

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

131.

Angiod streaks are seen in which of the following:

March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Tendinous xanthoma
Pseudoxanthomaelasticum
Xanthelesma
Eruptive xanthoma

c.
d.

Marked venous engorgement

Elevation of optic disc
Cotton wool sPots
Prominent oPtic disc margins

Blue Sclera is associated with:

a. OsteogenesisimPerfecta
b. Marfan's s1'ndrome

c.
d.

Mnrch

2009

AlkaPtonuria

a.
b.
c.
d.

c.
d.
135.

All of the above

September 2009
The term enucleation means:
contents
a. Removal of eyebail
b. Removal of eyeball along with a portion of optic
nerve

Septentber 2009

Anterior chamber
Subtenon space

Periorbital space

3
except:
a. Cataract
b. Trachoma
c. Epidemicconjunctivitis
d. Onchocerciasis

September 2009

Iridocyclitis

in:

Subperiorbitalspace
cause of sudden blindness in a young
Common
137.
September 2009,201.0
diabetic female is:
a. Glaucoma
b. Vitreous defects
c. PaPilledema
d. Cataract
138. Vision 2020-Right to sight by WHO targets ail

All of the above

134. Which of the following is a cause of sudden
blindness in a quiet eye with a normal media and
funcius:
a. Acute retrobulbar neuritis
b. Vitreous hemorrhage

extraocular

Ilemoval of the eyebail along with extraocular

muscles and part of skuli

136. Peribulbar injection is given

March 2009

133.

of the eyeball along with

muscles

f2. Which of the following is not seen in papilledema:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Removal

SEtember 2009

Which of the following orbital structure is involved

March 2010
in blow out fracture of the skull:

L39.

a. Lateral wall
b. Medial wall

c. Roof
d. Fioor

zffil

SELF ASSESSIVIENTC
Ew.oiirrrc E/Mcr scREEN rNG rfnrwNffi

,,1.:.,?"

.a.

,li*ia
.t;

i*rrt**

GENERAL MEDICINE (Questions)

9.

HEMATOLOCY

In hemolytic anemia, all of the following are true

except:

a.

c.
d.

Mnrclr 2005

b. Hypomagnesernia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Iron overload

Bone marrow hyperplasia

Reticulocytosis
Increased unconjugated bilirubin
Increased hapioglobulin

Most common form of shock is:

March 2005

a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Cardiogenic shock

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
10.

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.

hlarclt 2045

Salicr'Latepoisoning
Digoxin poisoning
Barbjturate poisoning
Methanol poisoning

Which of the following is not a cause of Cor

a. lntermittent pulmonary
b. Kyphoscoliosis

March 2405

a, Increased FIbF and normal FIbA2

b. Normal HbF and normal HbA2
c. Normal HbF and decreased FIbA2
d. Decreased FIbF and normal FIbA2

March 20A5

embolism
+

c. COPD

d. Mitral stenosis
1.2.

Dresslels syndrome is due to:

March 2005

a. Cor pulmonale
b. Mitral stenosis
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Pulmcronary embolism

In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:

13.

A -wave in fVP indicates:

Marclt 2005

a. Atrial relaxation
b. Atrial contraction

c. Bulging of tricuspid

valve into right atrium

contraction
14. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in :

d. Ventricular

6. Not a feature of hereditary Spherocytosis: March 2007

a. Autosomal dominant

b. lncreased RBC surfaee area

c. Increased MCHC
d. Normal or decreased \4CV

lvlarch 2005

a. Normal individuals
b. Left bundle branch block

7. Causes of megaloblastic anaemia are all except:

March 2007

a. Hemodiaiysis
b. Amlodipine
c. Fish tapeworm infestation
d. Blindloop syndrome
8. First investigation to be done in a patient with
thrombocytopenia:
September 2008

c. Prothrombin time
d. aPTT

Blood v,)lume

pulmonale:

d. All of the above

a. Platelet count
b. Bleeding time

March 2005

Mvocardial fibre tension

Cardiac outprit

C. Heart rate
11.

4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is associated

March 2005
with:
a. Diabetes lvlellitus
b. Vitamin 812 deficiency
c. Hemolytic uremic sy'ndrome

i.

Most irnportant factor determining rnyocardial Oz

consumptron:

c. Neurcgenic shock
d. Sep';icemic shock
i)ialysis is not effective in:

Which of the followine is not a side effect of blood

Septenfuer 2009
transfusion:
a. Hypokalemia

c. ASD
d.

VSD

15. Most important in aetiology of coronary artery disease

Mnrclt 2005

ls:

a. VLDL
b. LDL

c.

HDL

d. All of the above

16.1AA"/o

Oxygen is not effective in;

a. Pulmonary edema
b. MI
c. Tetralogy of fallot
d. COPD

Nldrch 2005

General Medicine

.'J rz. True regarding secondary prophylaxis

.rl:tl:. child with carditis is:
'
.

of a 6 year old

25. Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all

Mnrch 2005

.
,.

ro' revcrrrY
Severity of
L mitral stenosis is determined by:
.';;ii li1i,. 18.

. .j,rii,
'^:t ' :''' :

March 2005

-:1'.

26.

a. lntensity of S'l heart sound

b. Diastolic murmur duration

c. Opening

snap

Septtentber 2005
segment elevation is seen in:
Prinzmetal's angina
Acute pericarditis
c. Acute MI
LlJ d. All of the above
7 ' z}.Continuous murmur is found in which arterial
19. ST

disease:

O
7i
]|i
=
=
J

Atherosclerosis
Dissecting aortic aneurysm
c. Arteriovenous Frsruia
d. Thromboangitis obliterans
zt.Swan Ganz Cuih"te. is used to measure:

tv

Malignant hypertension can lead to all of

following except:

iii
=
fi
- '

tricuspidlncompetence:
a. Hepatic pulsafion
b" A wave in ]VP
.. Mid diastolic murmur
d. Normal cardiac output
,',, 23" Pulsus bisferiens occurs in:
. a. HOCM

March

after myocardial
a. First week

ii .'
ig,
i '

c. ASandAR
.
d. All of the above
',,'.' 24. Most common feature of essential
,'

29.

l
;11

::i:l':,

.'

f l1,.ii:,,.1i

"^. :"

::, ;tri:.';

.l

riil
.'t;i:,

'riii

a. Visual disturbances
b. Headache

c. Palpitations
d.

Dizziness

March

;.:i

of:

the

lY4arch 2M7

c. Tricuspid stenosis
d. Mitral stenosis
30.

Large'a'waves in |VP

d.
3l-.

March2007

Tachycardia

Acute anginal attack can be terminated by:

hypertension:
September 2005

represents:

a.- Complete heart block

b. 1't degree A-V block
c. Sinus bradycardia

September 2005

SePtentber 2ffi7

a. Nitroglycerin.
b. Digoxin

c. L,ignocaine
d.

Verapamil

lt:j1

rl,-l
..:.lt

a. Mitral regurgitation
b. Pulmonary regurgitation

t..

,,.;1:

infarction:

Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for

murmur

Septenfuer 2005

'.
;;

2AA7

b. Second week
c. Third week
d. Fourth'lveek

: bAR

MarchZMi

28. Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration

Mean arterial pressure

Cardiac output
c. Blood volume
d. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
2z.Which of the following is seen in a patient with

,;
.r
ri
:,
l.

a. Absence of P rvaves
h lrreqrlrritv nf R-f{ intCryal
3
c. Tall P t,aves
d. None of the above

a.
b.

iii

the

27.ECG changes in atrial fibrillation do not include:

SePtcmber 2005

a.
b.

lQQ5

a. Hypertensive retinopathy
b. Respiratory failure
c. Renal failure
d. Flemolvtic blood picture

d. Intensity of diastolic murmur

a.
b.

a. Aortic stenosis
b. Chronic cor pulmonale
c. Chronic kidney disease
d. Essential hypertension

b. Duration of prophylaxis is till tA y"ears

c. Duration of prophylaxis is at least 5 years after onset
d. Duration of prophl'laxis is till 25 years of age

:rj:i::; -:! : r:,!i*;:

except

September

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

Carotid sinus massage

32.

will terminate:

39.

March 2005, September 2007

a. Atrial fiutter.
b. Atrial fibirillation
c. Supraventiculararrythmia
d. Suprventicular tachycardia
33.

September 2008

a. Serum markers
b. Chest X-ray
c. Electrocardiography
d. Echocardiography

Which of the following is the most common

arrhythmia:
a. Inappropriate

September 2007
sinr.rs

tachycardia

b. Junctional Preniafure
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Atrial flutter
34.

A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chest

pain. On auscultation, she had multiple non-ejection
clicks. Investigation of choice would be:

complexes

Pacemaker is indicated in which of the follon'ing

condition:

September 2407

40. False regarding

35.

Indication for aortic stenting is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

A--:^^---L-,
^ nr
15rv6r ayr
d,

36.

b. Midsystolic murmur
c. Middiatolic murmur
d. Confinuous murmur

infarction

September 2008

b. Cardiac specific Troponins

c. CK-MB
d. All of the above
38.Split first heart sound is heard

#m
Septenher 2009

grade:

$r
Septenfuer 2009

Continuous murmur

a.
b.

Chest X-ray

*El
:-

io

Austin flint murmur

Crescendo-decrescendo
Graham Steele's Murmur
45. Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by:
Swtember 2009

Echocardiography

c. ECG
d. Angiography

in

a. Mitral stenosis
b. Left bundle branch block
c. Complete right bundle branch block
d. Pulmonary hypertension

Septenrber 2008

45. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension includes

except:

a. High salt and fluid intake

b. Physical countermaneuvers

c. Dopamine
d. Fludricortisone

I=
$m

Murmur heard in aortic regurgitation is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

$m

{>

b.2
c.3
d.4
44.

&z

in

Seotenfuer 2009

Preferred biochemical markers in patients presenting

with myocardial
a. Myoglobin

io

Electrocardiography
Echocardiography
42. Austin flint murmur is a:
a. Pansystolic murmur

One of the main disadvantage of stenting is:

i;
ir':

Chest X-ray

a. I

March 2008

March 2009

rJv

43. Dyspncrea at rest is which

a. Elastic recoil
b. Late stent thrombosis
c. Restenosis
d. Less efficacy in bifurcation lesions
37"

b.
c.
d.

March 2008

Acute aortic occlusion

Aortic dissection
Rheumatic aortitis
Tetralogy of fallot

is:

Systolic murmur
Severe aortic regurgitation
c. Origtrates at anterior mitral valve leaflet
Murmur of mitral stenosis
d. N4av be confused
"vith
41. A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations.
On examination there was a non eiection click.
Marclt 2009
Next investigation is:

a. Acute myocardial infarction n'ith first degree AV

block
b. Acute myocardial infarction with fascicular block
c. Sick sinus syndrome
d. All of the above

Austin-Flint murmur

a.
b.

all

March 2014

&z
*m

General Medicine

-i't

47. A patient presented with shock with pump failure.

;;r
..'.-.::
Ideal management would be:
Septenfucr 2006

::ir,rt'l::

a. Intra-aortic ballooning
b. Intracardiac adrenaline
c. Rapiddigitalization
d. Dopamile

'::l:::l':

48.

following

infarction

a. Altered cardiovasculardynamics
b. Anaphylactoid reaction
c. Hypertension
d. Muscie cramps

is:

September 2008

Io
=

b.
i. c.
::' d.
,,::

ul :i

50.

Infarction causing septal defect

Decreased eiection fraction from left ventricle

UJ

z t?

51.

UJ

o 'iit

Pulsus alternans is seen in:

a. MS with MR

u.
c.
d.

,,r.i
',.,-r.it;i:

'-

liiiali{:i
'.'
- l:
!il::::::..i1

jjffi

:::

:r '::i

'

Cardiovascular disease
respirator), failure *

Renal artery stenosis is not associated with:

b
U. Amvloidosis

c.
d.

Hvpocalcemia
Hypokalemra

Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for:

Scptenber 20[E

c. Renal amyloidosis
d.
59.

a. Nephrotic svndrome
b. Acute nephritis
^- ^t cell
-^ll carcinoma
c. DRenal
d. Nephroclacinosis
Neplrroclacinosis
r^u^--ihd except:
6v.6n+.
following
jrl
T^-_:
^jL_
^a llithium
a.
ToxicitY
of

a. Antiphospholipid syndrome
b. Goodpasture's syndrome

Left ventricular failure

Digitalis poisoning

Diabetic nephropathy

To diagnose diabetic nephropathy, earliest sensitive

March 2010
test is:
a. Regular blood sugar estimation
b. Blood urea nitrogen

c.
d.

Microalbuminuria
Serum creatinine test

CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT

ss.Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by all of the

ti

Mnrclt2\tV

March2W

AS with AR

ai

,t

patient rvith chronic

a. Marfan's s)'ndrome
b. atherosclerosis
c. polyarteritisnodosa
d. takayasu arteritis

March 2009

!i 52. Syndrome characterized.by proteinuria, hematuria

j and hypertension:
March 2007
'i'

.:

57.

58.

.! EXCRETORY SYSTEM

.n

.:i
2ffitji

Infection

AU of the following can lead to sudden death except:

a. Massive MI
b. Atrial flutter
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. Massive pulmonary emboli

.\

,':

:ll!:i

b.
c.
d.

September 2008

:l

Most common cause of death in

renal failure on clailysis:

September

a. Uraemia

Septenfucr 20UE

Tr{itral rt'gurgitation

=
J

56.

A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is in

shock.The reason is:
a. Right ventricular infarction

lTJ

except:

Most common valvular lesion after myocardial

a. MR
b. AR
c. AS
,J Scnicrr,hr'r;rl dofect
49"

True statement regarding oliguria:

March
a. Urine formation less than 50 mli24 hours
b. Urine formation less than 250 mL/24 hours
c. Urine formation of less than 500 mL/24 hours
d. Urine formation less than 750 mL/24 hours
55. Hemodialysis related complications are all of the

54.

h,toreh 2008
)oo)
March

60. Best

marker to assess prognosis after Surgery for colon

carcinoma:

a.

CA19-9

b" cA-125

c. Alpha
d.

CEA

fetoprotein

March2A05

'"'

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE

61,

Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by all of the

except:
March 2005
a. Reduction in creatinine clearance
b. Managed effectively by renal vasodilating agents.
c. Proteinuria less than 500 mg/d

i MCI Screening Examination

68. Enzyrne specificaily raised

following

Setttember 20A9

a. Camma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

b. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
c. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
d. Ratio of AST: ALT

d. Normal intrinsic kidney

f2.

Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in:

a. 1 -2 rveek
b. 2 -3week
c. 3-4 week
d. 4-5rveek
63.45 year

March 2005

59. Hepatosplenomegaly is not seen

a.
b.
c.
d.

cld rnan complaining of vomiting Vomitus

consist of food mass taken few days back,

foul

smelling breath and occasional dysphagia to solid

food. Diagnosis is:
March 2005
a. Achalasia cardia
b. Diabetic gastroparesis

70. Spirochaetes can be

71.

a. Normal alkaline phosphatase

b" Mildly elevated serum aminotransferases level
c. Clay colour stools
d. Pruritis
f6. All are the features of carcinoid syndrome except:

57.

b. Oesophageal
c. Tumour
d, Leukaemia

varices

:rfl
,4
tq
,^.
,t, .,7t
nl"d'2005 \D
i.: S

ig

a. 4 r,veeks
b. 6 weeks
c" 8 weeks
d. 10 weeks
73. Bacteria causing

ifn
j

vomiting and diarrhea within

of food intake is:

hours

74.

Not a cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis:

Marclt 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lupus vulgaris
Scrofuloderma
Exanthematouslesion
Ervthema migrans

March 2005

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Salmoneila spp.
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Staphylococci aureus

\Aheezing
Diarrhea
Acute appendicitis
Flushing

An young man is brought to casualty with history of

hematemesis.There is mild splenomegaly on
examination. Cause of bleeding is:
March 2009
a. Gastritis

.O

72.Post exposure prophylaxis [PEP] for HIV should be

,i6
given for a minimum period of:
March 2005 :.f

Septenfuer 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

Most common CNS manifestation of HIV:-4^^+:^..

Inlectron

a. seizures
b. Dementia
c. Focal neurologic deficits
ue'crrs
d. stroke

Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single

stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus.

d. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequently in
pregnancy
65. All of the following are features of Obstructive
jaundice except:
Seyttember 2007

March 2010

NInrch 2005

a. Transmitted by faeco-oral route

b. Majority of patients develops chronic infection

c.

identified by

a. Levaditi stain
b. Fontana stain
3
c. Gram stain
d. Dark field microscopy

True about hepatitis E are all except:

September 2005,2010

in:

lvlalaria
Lymphorna
Sickle cell disease
Kala azar

INFECTIOUS DISEASES

c. Scieroderma
d. Zenkers diverticulum
64.

in chronic alcoholics:

General Medicine

81.

r:. 1 ::l-:,'.,'':

i ': , .

:;1;;i;$:;-l;:

i:'

:,..ia'.,.i

a. Didanosine
b. Nevirapine
c. Acyclovir
d. Nelfinavir

a. SlrePtococcus
b. H.influenzae
c. Pneumocystii
d. All of the above

-,...
'- ,t..,,', .lr1 ,'.',".
;-

76. Chest

X-ray findings in tuberculosis associated with

lt ., HIV are all except:

rrl:; a. Disseminatedhrberculosis
b. Lupus vulgaris
' c. Pleural effusion
d. Hilar lymphadenopathy
:

Which drug is given as a single dose to prevent

March2A0i
mother to child HIV transmission:

82.

September 2005

a.

|.::l]i

83.

Z,) a. Pentostatin
B
6 i b' AmPhotericin
c. Zidovudine
7i
lJi
t
d' Clotrimazole
IIJ
! f,: ZS. Which of the following is not true about Mumps:
March 2007
J ii
{(v.,, a. Caused by paramyxovirus
b. lncubation period is less than 14 days
IIJ.:
= " c. Orchitis is a common complication in males
2 ,,
lll ii d. Aseptic meningitis is a commoner complication in

84.

;u
...;..

i' ', ii

,, I

Septembu

2W

a. May present as Sjogren's sl.ndrome

b. Unilateral parotid enlargement is common

c. Non tender enlargement of salivary

d.
85.

gland

May present as xerostomia

Not seen in dengue:

Mnrch201A

a. Hemorrhagic tendencies
b. High grade fever

Marclr 2007

c.

Circulatory problem

d.

Hepato-splenomegaly

85. Symptoms of secondary

U. Blood culture
C. Urlne Culrure

syphilis are all except:

March2010

a. Localized or diffuse mucocutaneous lesion

b. Generalized and tender lymphadenopathy
c. Self resolving
d. Condyloma lata is seen

a. Common site is right posterosuperior part of liver

b. Alcoholics are susceptible to develop amoebic liver
abscess

c. Anchovy sauce pus

d. Fever is the most .'ommon

50%

True regarding sialadenitis in AIDS are all except:

children

t" the first week:

a. Stool culture

25%

c. 75%
d. 100%

i: zs. Whicn of the following is best for diagnosing typhoid

1"/o

Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if no

March20()I
prophylaxis is given:

a.
b.

March 2007
r,

or',

2ffi7

b. 2%
c. 3n/"
d. 1%

TT.Drugused to treat Cryptococcal meningitis is:

[U

Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if

March
prophylaxis is given:

sig'n

87.

Which infection is common after organ

transplantation:

a. Pneumocystii
b. Nocardia
c. Cvtomegalovirus
d. Toxoplasma

March2010

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

95. Pheochromocytoma predorninantly secretes

ENDOCRINOLOCY
88. Pretibial myxedema is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.
89.

hormone:
a. Serotonin
b. Epinephrine
c. Nor-epinephrine
d. Dopamine

March 2005

Papillary Ca thyroid
Follicular Ca thyroid
Thyrotoxicosis
Myxedema

96. Excessive

Long term control of diabetes is assessed by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a. Randomblood sugar

b. Microalbuminuria/creatinine ratio
c. F{bA2

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
91.

Complications in Diabetics mellitus type

Septentber 2007

99.

a. MEN I syndrome
b. MEN lI syndrome
c" Neurofibromatosis lype I
d. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
94"

101.

September 2007

n
]7I
=

are features of hyperthyroidism

September

2007

Rise in BMR

rl

Addison's disease
Primaryhyperaldosteronism
SecondarvhvBeraldosteronism

i rl
j:

primary
September 2007

Hypocalcemia

Cushing's syndrorne

':

:r

Delayed deep tendon reflexes

Weight loss

Hypophosphatemia
More than half of the patients are asymptomatic
Parathyroid adenoma is the commonest cause
A patient of tuberculosis presented with low levels
of sodium,chloride and bicarbonate. He also had
hyperpigmentation of palmar creases. Most
probable diagnosis is:
Septenfuer 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

zm

Phenl{ketonuria

c.
d.

Pheochromocytoma is characterized by:

a. Headache
b. Paroxysmal hypertension
c. Profuse sweating
d. All of ttre above

a.
b.

i;

l-

Moist skin
100. All of the following are true regarding
hyperparathyroidism except:

september 2oo7

Cushings s)'ndrome
Pcrphyria cutanea tarda

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Addison's disease

All of the following

March 2047

Pheochromocytoma is a feature of all of the following

except:
Septenber 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septentuer 2405

a. 1 week
b. 2 week
c. 3 week
d. 8 week

Diffuse hyperpigmentation is seen in all

HbIAC indicates blood glucose level in the previous:

except:

Pheochromocytoma

occu(s

a. 5 years of onset
b. 10 years of onset
c. 15 years of onset
d. 20 years of onset

93.

Zollinger-eliisonsVndrorne

a. Water retention
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Edema
98.

-II

Diabetes mellirus
Pancreatic cancer

I{hich of the following is seen in Conn's syndrome:

Dry skin

around:

92"

97.

Septentber 2005

Bradycardia
Myxedema
Lid retraction

insulin levels are associated with:

September 2007, 2009

March 2005

d. F{bA1C
90. All of the following are features of hypothyroidism

which

Seotenfuer 2AA7

):,

'r
::,

General Medicine

102.

ir,;
1]1;,

Which of the following plays an important role in

tlre treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: NInrch 2009
a. Norrnal saline

b,
c.
d.

109. Investigation of choice for diagnosing

hypothyroidism:
a. Decreased free T3
b. Decreased free T4
c. Elevated TSH
d. Anti-TPO antibodies

Bicarbonate
Potassium

Insulin

fOS. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism:

i*{
i.,iil

110. Most common

'.:

u.
n.
c.
d.

in all of the following except:

111.

Ir4nrch 2009

UJ
Z
n

:h.
c.
d.

l-f
=

a.
b.
c.
ci.
tOo.

2:;

in cushing's s)'ndrome:

March 2009

in acromegaly except:
March 2009

IIJ'i
O .i

a.
b.

rr

c"

Increased heel pad thickness

d.

Muscle hypertrophy

113.

Diabetes mellitus

Enlarged nose

: tOZ. Not true about congenital hypothyroidism:

t:
::

March 2009

a. Males more often affected"

b. No signs at birth
c. Occurs due to antibodies against

thyroid

hypothyroidism in India:
September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

in hyperosmolar

Iatrogenic

Pituitarv tumours
Iodine deficiency
Hashimoto's disease

non

Septenrber 2ffi5

Primary causes of non-inflammatory edema include

all of the following except:
September 2ffi9

a.
b.
c.
d.

Increasedintravascularpressure
Decreasedvascularpermeability
Obstruction of lymphatics
Reduced plasma colloid oncotic pressure

114, Tetany is not seen in:

1:4000 live births

108. Most common cause of

2A0S

METABOLIC AND NUTRITIONAL DISORDERS

peroxisomes

in

March

Perforation is common
Obstruction results due to stricture formalion
Bleeding is usudl
Ileum is the common site

b. Mild elevation
c. Moderate elevation
d. Severely elevated

Hypogiycemia

Seen

Sensorimotorpoll'neuropathy
Lirnbmononeuropathies

ketotic hyperglycemia is:

a. No change

are seen

2@;

Radiculopatl'ries

112. True regarding level of sugar

Hirsutis

All of the following

d.

b.
c.
d.

Cushing's syndrome
Hypertension
weighr gain

is:

Regrading typhoid ulcer, all of the following are

a.

Hvootlrvroidism
lnsulinoma

2Q4g

Cranialneuropathies

true except:

Phact'chromocYtoma

105. Not seen

e
=
J
#
fi

form of diabetic neuropathy

September

a.
b.
c.
d.

Carcinoma
I1vpcrPlasia
Adenoma
Familial isolated hyperparathi,roidism

104. lVeight gain is seen

Mttrch 2007, Septentber

March 2009

i:

primary i

L4arch 2005

a.
b.
c.
d"

Malabsorption
Hyperventilation
Antiestrogentherapy
Thyroid Surgery
1L5. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in:

a. Lactic acidosis
b. Cholera
c. DKA
d. Uremia

March20A5

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

r{:i

is
lL5. pH=7.28, P aCO2=70, Condition

124. Features

consistent with:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis

c.
d.

117.

Mnrch 2005

Respiratorl'acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
September 2006

a.
b.
c.
d.
118.

119.

except:

hyponatremia:

L21.

in hyperkalemia classically shou's:

lncrease QRS duration

Shortened PR interval

o
jnl
',2

Prominent U r.vaves t
Increased R wave amplitude

Which of the following is not associated with zinc

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mnrch 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009

in

case of hemorrhage

in MCA tertitory:

Contralateralhemiplegia
Aphasia

Dysarthria
Urinary incontinence
1,29. Brain death is defined as loss of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009

Osteomalacia

Not an ECG finding of hypokalemia: September 2009

a. Absent T waves
D. b I elevatlon
c. Flat T waves.
d. Prominent lJ wave

'9

:o
.':.2

Mnrch 2005 j 111

Convulsions

Primaryhyperparathyroidism
Pseudohypoparathyroidism

'Jll

Sexual infantilism

128. Not seen

1>

:,=

Pigmentation

Confusion

[Tl
'v

,l-

Delayed wound healing

Loss of libido

NEUROLOCY

associated with:
a. Rickets

123.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Headache

Lactic acidosis
Diarrhea
Ketoacidosis
Methanol poisoning
Incteased plasma concentration of calcium is

b.
c.
d.

Diabeticketoacidosis

deficiency:

hrcreased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage

September 2009

ScPtember 2009' 2010

127.

Delusion

Normal anionic gap is seen in:

except:

Ureterostomy
Ethylene glvcol
Methylene glycol

126. The ECG

Marclt 2009

Nausea

a.
b.
c.
d.
122"

Fiat T wave
Bigeminal T wave

lv[arclt 20{J7

Vomiting
Anorexia
120. Neurological manifestations of water intoxication
March 2009
are all of the following except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Elevated T wa.:ir
Inverted T wave

Anion gap is increased in all

a.
b.
c.
d.

Calciurn gluconate
Sodir.rmbicarbonate
I.V. infusion with glucose and insulin
I.V. KCI intusion

Not seen in

a.
b.
c.
d.

125.

Renal failure

hyperkalemia

a.
b.
c.
d.

d"

Crush injurY
Rhabdomyolysis
Vitamin D dependent rickets-Il

All of the following are used in the management of

Septtcnfuer 2009

are all except:

a.
b.
c.

Hypocalcemia with hypophosphatemia is seen in:

of T wave in ECG of hypokalemia patients

1.30.

March 2005

Withdrawl reflex
Brain stem functions
Cortical functions
Spinal reflex

Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is:

SePtenrber 2005

a"
b"
c.
d.

Profouund sensory loss

loss of limb reflex

Residual paralysis
Descendingparalysis

General Medicine

131. Spike and Dome pattern is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Marclt 2007

Petitmai seizures
Grandmal seizures
Cionic seizures

Myoclonic seizures
132. An upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve

will

Mttrch t S ept ember, 2007

Paralysis of the lower half of face on the same side
Paralysis of the lou'er half of face on the opposite side

cause:

a.
b.
c.
cl.

a.
b.
c.
d.

pupil is seen in:

Horner's syndrome
Retrobulbar optic neuritis

Mtrclt

a.

o.
IJJ

2009

Marclr 2009
Decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased

lymphocytes
Increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased
b.
i
lvmphocytes
c. Increased glucose, increased proteins, increased
lvmphocytes
d. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased
iymphocytes
UJ '.
135. Most Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Z';:
ul,:

is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

O.r

141.

136.

*fi
$'

?
7]

t
.:

.{t

L37.

------

'
pneumonlae

Kernig's sign is seen in:

Th\irotoYicos
Uraemia

loss of

March 2ffi5
:

Cerebral infarction

Pontine hemorrhagc
None

following

a.
b.
c.
d.

20AS

CO: narcosis

injury leads to all of the

except:

March 2ffi5

Agnosia
Dvsphasia
Dyscalculia

Urinaryincontinence

143. Most common cause of intracranial bleed is:

March

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2A09

144"

2005

Berry aneurysm
Hypertension
Coagulopathy
Diabetes

Which of the following sensation is preserved on

the side of the lesion in Brown-Sequard syndrome:

Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are seen

SePtember 2009

Lambert-Eaton-mvasthenic syndrome
Botulism
Myasthcnia gravis

l\4nrch

Idiopathrc

Hyperthyroidism

in all except:

lVilscur disease

142. Dominant parietal lobe

Initial Investigation of choice of subarachnoid

in:
a.
b
c.
d

September

Bilaterally pinpoint ptrpil, hyperpyrexia and

b.
c.
d.

Rupture of bridging veins

Saccular aneurysm rupture

hemorrhage:
a. Angiography
b. Lumbar puncture
c. CT scan
d. Serum electrolytes

,iii

S+rnh "*'
rrrrpriq
- *"
"'*t-."
ri
.Strentoe^..r
..-.r..

N.meningitidis

consciousness is suggestive of:

a. Subarchnoid hen'rorrhage

March 2009

Hypertension

c-r'i

a.
b.
c.
d.

=t
J,,

{,.
E:.

H.Influenzae

140. Flapping tremor is seen

Diabetes

meningitis:

a.
b.

in adults:

a. \/iral encephalitis
b. Pyogenic meningitis
c. Brain abscess
d. All of the above

Paral-'rsis of the upper half of face on the opposite side

Neurosyphiiis
134. CSF findings in Tubercular

=
9.

L39.

Paralysis of the upper half of face on the same side

133. Argvll-Robertson

IIJ

138. Most common cause for meningitis

SePtemher 2005

a.
b.

Vibration

Tomnorrfrrro

d.

Al1 of the above

Touch

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

145.

Cranial nerve commonly involved in Guillain Barre

syndrorne is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
146.

152. Pulmonary edema

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009

Optic
Trochlear

Oculomotor
Facial

153.

Most common causative agent for meningitis in the

Septentber 2009
immunocompromised patient is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Histopiasmosis
Cryptococcus
Candida albicans
Coccidiomycosrs

Oral steroids
Long acting Beta-2 agonist

Leucotrineantagonist
Theophyliine
1.48. Lung Carcinoma is most commonly associated with:

a. Silicosis
b. Asbestosis
c. Coal dust
d. Beryllill^

150.

a.
b.
c.
d.
1,51.

September 2005

March 2007

Reduced FEVt
Reduced diffusion capacity

Reduced residual volume

Reduced mid expiratory flow rate

Respiratory acidosis is caused by all except:

Elevated JVP
Hepatomegaly
Peripheral edema

Chronic bronchitis.
COPD

Pulmonaryhypertension
Interstitial lung disease

Stytenfucr 2008

Pao2/Fio, ratio is </= 100

Paor./Fio, ratio is <l:200

Pao2lFio2 ratio is </:300

,Z

Pao2/Fio2 ratio is </= J00

a.
b.
c.
d.

in India is:

Breast

Lung

Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in:

Marclt 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

,m

.7
'>
r

,=
m

Skin
Bladder

Pneumonia
ARDS

,g

.Z
m

Pulmonary edema
All of the above

157. Investigation of choice

in pulmonary embolism:
Marclt 2009

a. Ventilation perfusion mismatch

b. Conventionalangiography
c. ChestCT
d. MRI angiography
1.58. ECG pattern seen in pulmonary embolism is:
Septentber 2009',,::

SePtember 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2007

Feeble pulse

March 2009, September 2010

156"

Characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease are

all except:

are signs of Cor pumonale

155. Most common occupational malignancy

March 2005

True about COPD are all except:

a. Polycythemia
b. Left ventricular Failure
c. Right ventricular Failure
d" Clubbing is not a sign of COPD

COPD

syndrome is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2005

149.

Pneumonia

154. Diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress

Management of steroid resistant asthma is done by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pulmonary emobolism

All of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2007

Mitral stenosis

except:

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
147.

rvill be caused by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

S3Q3T1

s1Q1T3
S1Q3T3

s3Q3T3.

a:

General Medicine

159. Most common ECG change

in pulmonary embolism

is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2009

Sinus bradycardia

Tall T wave in iead III

Left bundle branch block

uJ

z
C)

Septenfuer 2009

Also knor",'n as perioperative respiratory

failure

a.
b.
c.
d.

J=

tr

St'ptembcr 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

COPD

failure

Cardiogenic shock

is:

March 2010

Ateiectasis

(9

d.

,
:

March 2010

Acute respiratory distress syndrome is present

rsi
a. Hcmoptysis
,,,.,. b. Dl,spnea
,,,'.;l c. Substernal discomfort
d. Wheezing

if

March 2010

all of the following

except:
March 2005
a. Onlv 3-5% are small cell carcinomas
b. Involves eighth cervicai and first two thoracic
nerves commoniy
Lor,r'er lobe Carcinoma

syndrome:

Septenrbcr 2009

Hyperuricemia
Hypocalcemia
hypercalcemia

c.
d.
170.

nodulosclerosis tvpe
Characteristic cell is a Reed_Sternberg cell
Increase in eosinophils

in

ald plasma cllh

Working formulation in staging of non_hodgkins

lymphoma is based on;
a. Morphology of cells

b.
c.
d.

March 2010

Cell surface markers

Sur.r'ival characteristic of cells

Cellular genetics

MISCELLANEOUS

165. True about pancoast tumour are

t{orner's sl.rrdrome may be

in tumor lysis

Hyperphosphatemia

a. CNS is the commonest site of invoivement

b. Mediatinal involvement is common

ARDS survivors

..

c.
d.

CHOP

September 2a09

COPD

Pao2lFiorratio </= 200

I 164. Most common symptom
of Interstitial Lung disease

CMF

ABVD

169. False statement regarding

Hodgkin,s disease is:

Myasthenia gravis

a. Mortalitv rates ranges between 40 to 65ok

b. Pneumonia is commonly associated with it
c. Ilecovery in terms of lung functions is poor in

z
UJ

September 200g

VAD

168. Not seen

163. True about ARDS are all except:

UJ

Angiographi,
MRI

Treatment regimen for Hodgkins

lymphoma is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Interstitial lung disease

162. Example of type-I respiratory

UJ

167.

failure is associated with:

Flail chest
Pulmonary eclema

March 2009

ONCOLOCY

There is impaired CNS drive to breathe

Occurs as a result of atelectasis
Can be marraged conserr,.atively

161. Type-II respiratory

a.
b.
c.
d.

c.
d.

failure are all

except:

lung

sequestration is:
a. X-rav chest_pA view
b. Plain CT scan_chest

Sinus tachycardia

160. True regarding type_III respiratory

Ib.
c.
d.

166. Investigation of choice for diagnosing

manifestation

171.. 45

year old man complains of back pain

and

multiple joints pain. X-Ray shows bilateral

sacroilitis.Diagnosis could be:
Rheumatoidarthritis
Ankvlosingspondylitis

a.
b"
c.
d.

Psoriatic arthritis
Osteoarthritis

Mnrch 2005

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examination

fi2. Anti mitochondrial antibody is typically

seen in:

179.

173.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hepatic cirrhosis
Cardiac cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis

Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease

IMCTD] are all of the following except: March 2005

a. Hvpogammagiobulinemia
b. lr4embranous glornerulonephritis
c. Polyarthritis
d. CNS involvement
L74. Patient complaining of finger stiffness and
dysphagia.What could be the most probable

175.

b.
c.
d.

Lower esophageal ring

Not

a.
b.
c.
d.

Crohn's disease
Ulcerative colitis

Esophagealcarcinoma
Scleroderma

177.

premalignant condition:
Retinitispigmentosa

March 2005

Sarcoidosis

Acute pancreatitis

Hyperparathyroidism
Vitamin D intoxication

Diabetes mellitus

hypothyroidism
Nephrotic sl.ndrome

All of the above

a.
b"
c"
d.

Pericarditis
Loud first heart sound

All of the following

are associated

March 2007 t Septenrber 20L0

Anti-Sm antibodies
Anti-ss DNA antibodies
Anti-RNA antibodies
ANA antibodies

with polyuria

Mnr*

a.
b.
c.
d.

2A07

a.
b.
c.
d.

2409

Uncontroiled diabetes
Familial short stature-

jo

im
i:Z

Osteomalacia
Rickets

BMI

of:

March 2009

L8.5-24.9
25-29.9
35-39.9

Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except:

March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

I>
lli=

ls

?o

\z
*1Tl
-

Biliary cirrhosis
Pregnancy
Pernicious artemia

*
*
t ePtember 2oo9

a. splenomegal,
b. Neutrophilia
c. Femalepreponderance
d" Associated with rheumatoid arthritis
following is true for acanthosis

March 2010
nrgrrcans:
a. May be an indication of skin malignancy

d.

?;v

i:,

Myocardialinfarction

184. True regarding Felty's syndrome are all except:

b"
c"

rm

lm

40-M.9

185. Which of the

Most specific antibody for Systemic lupus

erythematosus:

mitral stenosis

181. Bone age corresponds to chronological age in:

183.

Septenfuer 2005

178.

Mitralregurgitation

Septembcr
except:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Rapidlyprogressiveglomerulonephritis
d. P;'eloncphritis

March 2005

Hypercholesterolemia is commonly associated with:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septentber 2007, 2010

182. Preobesity is defined as

Leukoplakia
L76. Nephrocalcinosis seen in all except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

180.

March 2005

diagnosis:
a. Achalasia

can occur in rheumatic fever

except:

March 2005

a.
b.
6.
d.

All of the following

Hypopigmentation
May be associated with Insulin resistant diabetes
mellltus
Commonly occurs in lean and thin

i
t

General Medicine

185. Correct statement regarding von recklinghausen

March 2014
diseaselNF-1] are all except:
a. Never turns malignant
b. N{utations of gene on chromosome L7 causes NF1
c. Ma1' be associated with nervous system tumors
d. Lisch nodules can be seen

'

. 'tl.
i: i:..1

i,

.:.tii'
'.t

'i.r
:ilil:n

187. Acantholysis is seen

a.
b.
c.

::ll
:,.:!r::,.

in:

March 2005

Bullous pemphigoid

Dermatitisherpetiformis
Hailey-Haileydisease

d. Ali of the above

188. A patient develops gross hematuria 3 days after an

attack of URTI. Which of the following is

March 2005
responsible:

UI

6,

tJl:

='
J

tlll
z'
IIJ'
o,

i..
i .i:
i.
t:
:

.:,
.!.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Drug abuse
Acuteglomerulonephritis
Minimal change disease
IgA nephropathy

189.

Tripple screening test for Down syndrome during

pregnancy includes all of the following except:
l\/ln!^L
.,lqtrrt

a.
b.
c.
d.
190. The

..:

AlkanlilePhosphatase
Serum oestriol

tourniquet test is positive

than:

50 petechiae per
40 petechiae per
30 petechiae per
20 pr'tr'chiae

per

if the petechiae are

March 2007 A September

square inch
square inch
square inch
square inch

191. Most common cause of short stature is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

..:

a^^-'
LUUJ,

Maternal serum AFP

Serum beta-HCG

more

a.
b.
c.
rl.

".H

Constitutional
H1'pothyroidism
Grorvth hormone deficiency
Systemic

illness *

March 2010

LF ASSESSMENr&
E/MCI SCREENING

GENERAL SURGERY (Questions)

BURNS

VASCULAR SYSTEM

1. All

8. Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in:

a. AV fistula
b. Raynaud's disease
c. Buerger's disease
d. Aneurysm
9. W-hich of the following is associated with

of the following are tme regarding fluid

resuscitation in burn patients except:
March 2008
a. Consider intravenous resuscitalion in children with
bums greater than 15% TBSA
b. Oral fluids must contain salts
c. Most preferred fluid is Ringer's lactate

d. Half of the calculated volume of fluid shorrld

given in first

2. According

10/
I o

b.

9%

c.

18%

triad:
a. Hypercoagulabiiity

to "rule of nines", burns involving

perineum are:
^
a.

be

hours
Nlnrclr 2009

1.0.

a a10/
q.
Ll /o

3. Which

March 2009

a. Loss of skin appendages

b. No vesicles
c. Red colour
d. Extremely painful
4. In second

11.

Hemorrhage leads to:

Stptentber ZNS

Septicemic shock

Neurogenic shock

Hypovolemic shock
Cardiogenic shock

Which of the following is true for shock:

2M5'i

to tissues

Damage to deeper dermis

Less blanching

13.

6. In burns management, which of the following

j;l:

March2NV

::;.i

,.:

tibial artery

Drug used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins are all of

the following except:

is the

Septentbet

2007

a. Ethanolamine Oleate
b. Polidocanol
c. Ethanol
d. Sodium tetradecyl sulfate

March 2010, September 2010

are complications in a patient on

total parenteral nutrition except:
Septentuer 2008

Most common vessels to be affected in Buergers

Buergers

disease:
a. Femoral artery
b. lliac artery
c. Popliteal artery
d. Anterior and posterior

Painless

a. Hyperchlosterolemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c" Hypotriglyceriedemia
d. Hypophophatemia

of the above

d. All of the above

12.

of the following is false regarding deep 2nd

degree burns:
September 2009
a. Heal by scar deposition

a. Dextrose 5%
b. Normal saline
c. Ringer lactate
d. Isolyte-M
7. All of the following

Virchowe

SEtember

c. Hypoxia

5. Which

medium of choice:

,t.i

Disseminated malignancy

a. Hypotension
b. Hypoperfusion

Septenfuer 2009

a. l week
b. 2 rveeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeeks

b.
c.
d.

.A11

t:,.

:i:

September

degree burns, re-epithelialisation occurs

around:

DVT

c1.

a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is not seen in 3rd degree

burns:

b.
c.

March2W

14.

Ravnaud's syndrome occurs in all of the following

except:

a.

SLE

Rheumatoid arthritis

c" Osteoarthritis
d. Cryoglobulinemia.

September

2A07

Generalsurgery

30. Acute Pancreatitis is associated

a. Elevated
b. Alcohol

with:

September 2005

serum amalyse

c. Gali bladder

38. Which of the

a.
b.

stones

d. Ali of the above

31.

Septenfuer 2005, March 200g

39.

ft,:

Or

Ei

fr;
oi
Ji

<a

si

34.

uJl

zr;:
uJ!

oi;

35.

c.
d.

USG

and leucopenia

37.

amongst the following is:

t,.:i..j

,ll!:

Scptenfttr 2008

a. S.amylase
b. S.Alanine transaminase
c. S.lipase
d. C-reactive protein

2007

49. Splenectomy is useful in:

stones: March

Charcot's triad is defined by all of the following

except:
Septtember 2007, March

d" Pain

the diaphragm

48. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis

USG
CT scan

a. Fever
b. Gall stones
c. Jaundice

20Ag

c. CT scan mav aid in diagnosis

d. Upright films shows free air under

a. USG
b. Oral cholecystography
c. Percutaneous transhepaticcholangiographv
d. Intravenous cholangiogram

March

peritonitis
September 2006

d" All of the above

!ilie

of acute

a. Raised WBC count irr peritoneal aspirate

b. Moderately raised amylase levels are diagnostic of

c. HIDA scan

,;,.,.1;

2006

all except: Nlarclt ZC|j|

a. Hereditary spherocl,tosis
b. Trauma
c. Poh.cythemia
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
41. All of the following relarding diagnosis
peritonitis are correct except:

Investigation for assessing proper functioning of

biliary system:
March

t, 36. Best way to diagnose gall bladder

CTscan

40. Indications of splenectomy are

ERCP

Charcoat triad is seen in:

a. Acute pancreatitis
b. Acute appendicitis
c. Acute hepatitis
d. Cholangitis

a.
b.

September 2005

SeTttember 2005

X-ray abdomen
CTscan

200g

c. ERCP

Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:

a.
b.

March

USG

d. MRI scan

32. Splenectomy can lead to:

33.

Which of the investigation can itself lead to acute

a.
b.

CT scan
o. diagnostic peritoneal iavage

lU,,

Shock

pancreatitis:

b. USG

>:

2C08

d. Serosanguinous discharge

X-ray abdomen

a. Leucoprgni3
b. Thrombocvtosis
c. Thrombocytopenla
d. Thrombocytopenia

March

Fever

c. Pain

Traurna to spleen in a stable patient is best diagnosed

by,

folloning is the most pathognomonic

sign of impending burst abdomen:

a. Hemophilia
b. Polyrythenia
c. HereditarySpherocytosis

2007

cl. Thalassemia
50.

Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion and shock is

seen ln:

2U09

a. Pancreatitis
b. Hepatitis
c. Cholangitis
d. Appendicitis

March

2009

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

51.

58. Conjugated

Most common type of gallstone in India is:

hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:

September 2005

March 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

a. Cholesterol

!.

Pigment

c" Mixed

d. Both A and C
52.

Investigation of choice for hydatid disease is:

SePtember 2009

a.
b.
c. Biopsv
d. USG

59.

associated

a.

of the following are common cause

of

post

SePtember 2009

a. H.influenza
b. Ecoli

coiectomy

d. Nutritional support
Investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis:
March 2010

a. Plain Radiography
b. USG
c. CT scan
d. Barium studies

a. CT scan
b. MRI scan
c. USC
d. diagnostic

o
m

eptember 2007

zm

peritoneal lavage

All of the following

are seen with bile duct stone

i U,
c

7
o
*m
7

,.].

March 2008

except:

a.
b.
c. Pruritis
d. Clay coloured

i;

;:

Obstructive jaundice
Distended and palpable gall bladder
stools

following statement is true regarding

September 2009
pyogenic liver abscess:

March 2005

a. Oral contraceptives
b. Oestrogen
c. Obesity
d" Diabetes

a. Diagnosis can be confirmed by serological test

b. Radiographic features are diagnostic

c.

Usually a large and single abscess is seen in

d"

direct spread.
Systemic manifestations are uncommon

63. Reversed

Chronic calcific pancteatitis is associated with all of

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Diabetes mellitus
c" Malabsorption of fat
d. Diabetes associated complications

61.

:i

62. Which of the

Calculous cholecystitis is associated with all of the

the following except:

ti

abdominal bleeding in an ulstable patient:

March 2010
all of the following except:
a. Percutaneousdrainage
b. Pancreaticnecrosectomy
c. Manage conservatively with antibiotics alone

57.

60. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra

54. Management of infected pancreatic necrosis includes

following except:

March 2007

Biiiary Cirrhosis is a known complication

b. Increasecl risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma

c. May har.'e raised levels of alkaline phoshphatase
d. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis resolt'es after total

c. Klebsiella
d. Streptococcus

56"

with ulcerative colitis are all of the

following except:

splenectomy infections excePt:

55.

Criggler Najjar type I

Criggler Najjar type II

True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis

CT scan
Elisa

53. A11

Dubin Johnson syndrome

Cilbert's syndrome

September 2005

are uncommon

cases

f;

*
of

"3" sign on barium studies is seen in which

condition:

a. Ampuilary carcinoma
b. carcinoma stomach
c. Carcinoma head of pancreas
d. Insulinoma

September 2009

t:

:i

iL,,
$.1!r

General Surgery

64.

All of the following

are true regarding splenic

rupture except:

70.

a. fistula
b. stricture

c. Sclerosing cholangitis
d. granuloma
71.

t,
ut
o

a.
b.

d.

f,

d.
73.

OCG

o
68.

c.

X-ray

d.

69.

74.

Routine management of paralytic ileus include all of

75.

Colonoscopic removal
Hartman's operation

Uncommon complication of meckels diverticulum is:,,

September 2Ni

Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of the

a. Anorexia
b. Rovsing's

c.

March 2005

sign

d. Peri-umbilical colic
True about Barrett's esophagus are all of the follo$'itlg

a.

Septembu2M

Hvperplastic change in the lining mucosa of

esophagus

b" Patient is usually asymptomatic

c.

Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting

d.

goblet cells
Chronic gastroesophageal reflux
factor

and giddiness

c. Hyperglycemia
d. Epigastric fullness

September 2M5

Fever >42 degree celsius

except:

Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the

a. Colic
b. Tremors

X-ray abdomen
CTscan
Colonoscopy
Barium enema

following except:

76.

Anterior resection

following except:

Rectal biopsy

a. Intussusception
b. Diverticulitis
c. Malignancy
d. Increased bleeding

March 2005

Ideal management in an old and frail patient

presenting with a mass situated 15 cm anay from anal
orifice:
March 2005
a" Abdomino-perineal resection

b.
c.
d.

hlarch2(fr5

Which of the followirg is the investigation of choice

for diagnosing carcinoma colon:
September 2ffi5.,

a.
b.

USG

the following except:

a. Electrolyte correction
b. Nasogastric aspiration
c. Parasympathomimetics
d. Intravenous fluids

zul

by:

USG
CT scan

b.
c. Anogram

CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT

IJJ

Hirschsprung's disease in diagnosed

a.

c. PTC

67.

March

Colon
Rectum
Rectosigmoid part

d. Terminal ileum
72.

March 2010

v,

tr

c.

66. Investigation of choice for gall bladder stone is:

a.
b.

Flxploratorv iaparaotomv
imrnediate appendicectomy
Ochsnt'r-Sherren re5;irr,an
Extemal drainage

Hirschsprung's disease involves which region o{

intestine:

lump was felt in the right iliac fossa.Most appropriate

management for this case would be:
March 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Crohn,a

disease:

September 2009

a. Elet'ation of the left dome of diaphragm

b. Obliterated psoas shadow
c. Obliterated colonic gas shadow
d. Obliterated splenic outline
55. A 26 year old male presented with 4 day history of
pain in the right sided lower abdomen with frequent
vomiting. Patients GC is fair and clinically a tender

Which of the following is not associated n ith

is a

predispostlt6

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

7/, Commonest cause of peptic ulcer disease:

85.

Septenfuer 2006

a. NSAID ingestion
b. Smoking
c. H.pylori
d. Genetic factors
78.

a. Boerhaave sl'ndrome
b. Carcinoma of esophagus

c.

Acid ingestion

d. Instrumentation
79,

a. Intestinal fuberculosis
b. ulcerative colitis
c. Crohn's disease
d. Typhoid

Commonest cause of esophageal perforation:

March 2007

Entero enteric fistula is found in all except:

March 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

86.

b. Perianal lesions are common in Crohn's disease.

c. Stricture involving the colon is found in ulcerative
colitis.
d. Fistula formation is common in Crohn's disease.
81. Which of the following is not a commoner cause of
March 2007

cancer

Commonest operation done for gastric outlet

obstruction with peptic ulcer is:

March 2007

a. Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy

b. Truncal vagotomy with pyloroplasty

c.

d.

Highly selective vagotomy with pyloroplasty

Metabolic disturbance seen with pyloric stenosis:

March 2007

a. Hypokalemic hyponatremic alkalosis

b. Hyperkalemia

c.

Hyperchloremicacidosis
d. Hypematremia
84. Hellels myotomy is done for.

a" Esophagealcarcinoma

b. Pylorichypertrophy
c" Achalasia cardia
d. Inguinal hemia

Acute

.o
i tTi

appendicitis

Trichobezoar is pathological ingestion

of:
Seplembcr

a. \'egetable matter
b. Hair

2009':7

c.

,'

Sigmoid colon

d. Caecum

i:

following is false regarding gastro

oesophageal reflux disease:

March 2005
a. Transient relaxation of the lower esophagus
b. Tea and coffee should be avoided
c. Length of LES is an important factor
d. Omeprazole is the preferred agent for management

91.The commonest cause of significantly lower

gastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged person
without any known precipitating factor may be due to

September 2007,2009,201.0

j:,2
ifn

>
,lc. Coins
iA
o. )rones
C
i7
Most
of
volvulus
89.
common site
is:
March 2010 Septettuer 2f|r0 iG)
.im
a. Ileum
b. Appendix
',4
90. Which of the

d. Gastrojejunostomy
83.

Appendicularabscess
Pelvic abscess

b.
c. Appendicular mass .
88.

disease.

82.

September 2008

Septernber 2009, 2010

a.

false: March 2007

a. Granulomatous inflammation is found in Crohn's

intestinal perforation:

All of the following predisposes to carcinoma of the

esophagus except:
a. Achalasia
b. Zenker's diverticulum
c. Barrett's esophagus
d. Piummer-Vinson disease
87. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:

Crohn's disease
Colo-rectal malignancy
Actinomycosis
Ulcerative colitis
80, Which of the following statement is

a. Gastric ulcer
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Typhoid
d. Crohn's disease

A patient presents with history of mild diarrhea,

blood in stools with multiple fistulas. What is the
most probable diagnosis:
September 2007

March 2008, September 2010

a. Ulverative colitis
b" Ischemic colitis

c.
d.

Angiodysplasia
DiverLiculum of sigmoid colon

:i

Generalsurgery

92. Which of the

following is not true for Zollinger-

Ellison syndrome:

a.
b.

5c1,tt1,'Lr,'

99.

rrr,t

Recurrence after operation

Reduced BAO : IvIAO raticr

c. Gastrin producing tumour

d.

Diarrhoea may be a presenting feature

93. Which of the

following plays a major role in the

development of dumping syrdrome:
lvlarch 2009
a. Vagolytic mechanism
b. Smaller stonach
c. Excessive food in the stomach

d,

Large volurne of hyperosmotic fluid in the intestine

94. Treatment of an

incidentally detected appendicular

carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

tr

uJ

Mnrclt 2009

Right hemicolectomy
Limites resection of the rieht colon
Total colectomy
Appendicectomy

95. Features of achalsia cardia are

all of the following

E,

except:

a. Regurgitantvomiting
b. Elongated and dilated esophagus
c. Rat-tail deformitl' and filling defect
d. Increased difficulW in sn'allowing

:)

tlU
z

Marclt 2005

in:
Seatember 2005

a. femoral hernia
b. Direct inguinal hernia
c" Indirect inguinat hemia
',,i;i...,
:9,t.t,.
1,,.:.;::l't '':l
,.r.t,.:;;it'i.
'.;:.

.' . ".,i.r, ,,,.

,'.,$;;t",,,t""

':iiit.,",

,.,':1 ,,1::i

l;'
,

;t,t.
t';

2@g

.'.i
age

.,;

Septernber

2ffi

d.

Urnbilical hemia
101. While operating upon strangulated hernia, the sac
is
opened at:
a. Neck
b. Body
c. Fundus

d.

Scptembcr 200g

Mouth

102. Which of the

a.

following describes Richtels hernia:

September 2W
The strangulated loop of ,W, lies within the

b.
c.

Hemia occurring at the lerrel of arcuae line

lnvolves only a portion of the circumference of *re

d" Lumbar hemia

98. True regarding indirect inguinal hernia

are

all except:
March 2008

a. Most common lype of hernia

b. Always unilaterai
c" Inguinal herniotomy is the basic operation
d. Transillumination distinguishes it from hydrocele

d.

Hernia occurring through the linea alba

103. Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2005

Umbilical hernia
Incisional hernia
Strangulated hemia
Fatty hernia of linea alba

CENITOURINARY SYSTEM
1,04. tnvestigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:
March 2005, Septenrber 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

CT scan

Voidingcystourethrography
Intravenousurography

X-ray KUB
105. Seminoma is carcinoma of:

a.
b.
c.
d"

Kidney
Urinary bladder
Testes

Penis

t.-:
::..i,

Most common type of hernia in the young

group:
a. Femoral hernia
b. Direct inguinal hernia
c. Indirect inguinal ht'rnia

bowel.

a. Hernia passing through the obturator canal

b. Hernia occurring through the linea alba
c. Hernia through the triangle of petit
d. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line
97. Strangulation most commonly occurs

1.00.

Septentber

abdomen
on barium study

96. Spigelian hemia is:

a. Richter's hernia
b. Spigelian hernia
c. Sliding hernia
d. lnterstitial hemia

March 2009

HERNIA

IJJ

If caecum is involved as a pad of the wall of hernial

sac and is not its content, then it will be k.ro*n
ur,--

September 2005

ti:,i

*$

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

100.

Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed mainly by:

SePtember 2405

a.
b.
c.
d.
107.

X-ray KUB

Micturating cysto uretl-rrogram

CT scan

MRI scan

1L4. Treatment of stage I teratoma is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Septembet 2007

a.
b"
c.
d.

Anal fistula
Anal canal strictures

Haemorrhoids
Anal fissure
108. Treatment of choice for 3rd degree hemorrhoids is:

Band ligation

Hemorrhoidectomy

11L.

a.
b.
c.
d.
112.

1.18.

teratoma

in:

Testes

Penis

Nephroma
Hepatic malignancy
Testicular tumour
Penile malignancy

Suprapubiccystostomy
Referral to a urologist
Observation

Septemher 2009

Hypernatremia
Sepsis

Hepatic coma
Water retention

120.

except:

Srptenrber 2009

Human papilloma virus infection

Schistosomiasis

Cyclophosphamide

All of the following

are radio-opaque stones except:

September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Calcium
Struvite

Uric acid
Cystine

zm

n
l-

Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma are all of

b.
c.
d.

Scrotum

March 2009

Urinarycatheterization

the following
a. Smoking

September 2008

SePtember 2008

SeTttember 2008,

Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients

who had undergone transurethral resection of

a.
b.
c.
d.
119.

Interstitialtumours

2009

prostate suggests:

March 2008

Bladder
113. A 25 year old man presents with hydrocele on the
left side. Associated condition could be a:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Seminoma

Lymphoma
Erythroplasia of Queyrat occurs

a.
b.
c.
d.

is:

Glans penis

be done is:

Phosphate

Most radiosensitive testicular tumour

Base of penis

117. Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to

Calcium oxalate
Cystine
Uric acid

True about incompletely descended testis are all of

March 2008
the following except:
preserve
function
a. Early repositioning can
b. It may lead to sterility, if bilateral
c. Poorly developed secondary sexual characters
d. May be associated with indirect inguinal hemia

Scrotum
Shaft of penis

Mrch

September 2007

110.

September 2008

a. Teratoma
b. Dermoid
c. Seminoma
d. All of the above

Sclerotherapy

All of the above

109. Which one of the following is radiolucent stone:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Surgery
Observation

116. Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade is:

SePterfuer 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

Radiotherapy

1L5. Fournier's gangtene is seen in:

Lateral internal sphincterotomy is useful for:

September 2008

Chemotherapy

a
c
n
o
m
n

Generalsurgery

L21. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography

is

suggestive of:

a.
b.
c.
d.
122.

Duplicaiion of renal pelvis

Simple cyst of kidney
Ureterocele

Thimble bladder is seen in:

Diverticulae

d.

March 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Schistosorniasis

Tuberculosis

Narrowest part of the urethra is:

a. Prostatic urethra

LInrch 2009

Bulbar urethra

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009

Syphilis
TB

Gonorrhoea

b.
c.
d.

Dorsal vein of penis

Internal pudendal vein
Pampiniform plexus
126. Spider-leg appearance is seen in:
a. Pyelonephritis

Anaplasticcarcinoma
Merlullary carcinoma

hyperthyroidism are all except:

March 2010

obstruction except:
a. Alkaline urine
b. Acidic urine
c" Hypochloremia

March 2010

H1'pokalemia

THYROID

All of the following

are features of Graves disease

except:

More common in males

Tremor
Pretibial myxoedema
Intolerance to heat

Septenrber 2005

Cold intolerance
Emotionaldisturbance
Sleeplessness

a.

Radioiodine

b.
c.

Thyroxine

d.

Observation

134.

September 2007

Surgery

AntiTPO antibodies are present

a. Reidel'sthyroiditis

b.
c.
d"

Polyrystic kidney
Renal artery stenosis
Ureteric stones

March 2Aa7

Voracious appetite

treated by:

133.

127. All of the following are seen in chronic pyloric

a.
b.
c"
d.

March 2N7

Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be

132.

Chlamvdiatrachomatis
125. Drainage of venous blood from testes following
division of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is
byt
March 2009
a. Cremasteric vein

128.

except:

Follicularcarcinoma
Papiilary carcinoma

131. Features of

epididymitis:

d.

in all

Penile urethra

Membranous urethra
L24. Which of the following causes orchitis without

b.
c.
d.

Septentber 2a06

None of the above

130. FNAC is useful

Bladder stones

b.
c.
d.

During thyroidectomy, inferior thyroid artery is

ligated at:
a" Maxiamally away from the gland
b. Close to the gland
c. Halfr,r'ay from the gland

Horseshoe kidney

a.
b.
c.
d.
123.

129.

I'tlarch 2010

in:

September 2007

Grave's disease

Hashimotosthyroiditis
DeQuervain's thyroiditis

All of the following

are true regarding Gtave,s

disease except:

a.
b"
c.
d.

March 2008

Orbital proptosis
Presents as primary thyrotoxicosis
Anti-TPO antibodies
Pretibial myxoedema

135. True regarding Papillary carcinoma of

thyroid

is:

March

a.
b.
c.
d.

Undifferentiatedcarcinoma
Blood-bome metastasis is commoner
Excellent prognosis
Capsulated

20A8

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

f6. Most common

cause of solitary thyroid nodule is:

Septentber 2008

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Follicular adenoma
Colloiddegenerations
Cysts

a.
b.
c.
d.

can be given in which thyroid carcinoma:

Anaplastic
Undifferentiated

thyroid, which is important for determining

a.
b.
c.
d.

TSH

Carcinoembryonicantigen
Thyroxine levels
September 2009

Follicular
Anaplastic
Anaplastic

Medullary

All of the following are true regarding medullary

March 2010
carcinoma of thyroid except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

lymph node involved in breast carcinoma

Supraclavicular

c.
d.

Axillary'
Intemal mammary

Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around

the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of:

144.

TSH dependent
Releases calcitonin

Which of the following is initial investigation of

choice for a patient presenting with solitary nodule of
Thyroid function test
FNAC
Radionuclide scan

MRI

SePtember 2005

Galactocoele

*v

*>

Eczema
Sebaceous cysts

145. Simple Mastectomy includes removal of:

September 2005 i 2006

a"
b.
c.
d.

March 2005

..O

:m
i:Z
,irn

Pagets disease

Only breast

$l-

*o

*c

in

to

Breast and axiJ.lary nodes

Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle

Breast+axillariesnodes+Pectoralismajor
muscle+pectoralis minor muscle

*m

*F
$<
-(-

{:
:l:

146. Peau d'Orange of breast is due to:

September 2005,2010, March 2007

Parafollicular cells involved

thyroid:

Mnrch 2005

Prebracheal

Total thyroidectomy is done

141.

a.
b"
c.
d.

Family history

a.
b.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Amyloid deposition is seen in which type of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Genetic factors

September 2009

thyroglobulin

carcinoma thyroid:

Lymph node involvement

are all of the following except:

Medullary

$8. After thyroidectomy for medullary carcinoma of

Age of the patient

143. Group of

PaPillary

recurrence of tumour:

March 2005

Carcinoma is:

SePtember 2009

140.

142. Most important prognostic factor for breast

Physiologicalgoitre

f7, Thyroxine

139.

BREAST

a"
b.
c.
d.

Obstruction of Vein
Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.
Obstruction of glandular ducts
Obstruction of arteries

147. Structure preserved

mastectomy

a.
b"
c.
d.

in Modified radical [Pateyl

is:

Axillary vein
Pectoralis major muscle

Nerves to serratus anterior

All of the above

Septenrber 2006' 2009

GeneralSurgery
rii

ffi

Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in which

type of breast cancer:
Septernber 20A7
a. Tubular carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Colloid carcinoma
Jcl. lnilammatory
l^fl ---r^-,, carclnoma
1,49. True regarding breast carcinoma is:
March 2008
a. Occurs most commonly in upper inner quadrant
b. Late menarche and early menopause predisposes

!,.

for breast malignancy

Commoner in nulliparous wornel-l
Unrelated r.r.ith the family historv of breast cancer
150. All of the following are predisposing factors for
ltnlntrhrr
)OO.9
breast carcinoma except:
"-r-'"
"' -"'_
a. Family history of breast carcinoma
b. First child at a younger age
c. E.rrly menarche and late mcnopause

1,48.

,'t1,"i

.,..i,*:.i,:

c.
d.

&i:
IIJ i

(,t
EI
f,t

@i

J}:

<l
t:,
IJJ

I'

Zii
utt
C,l

d.

Nulliparous lvomen

155.

March2MT

a.0
b. 1
c.2
o.J
156. Raised

Stptetnber 2007,2A10

a.
b.

Septentuer 2009

c.
d.
159.

Totalparotidectornv
Superfici.rl parotidectonry
Total paroiidectomy n'ith lymph node dissection

Radicaiparotidectomy
March2ffi8;

Prophylactic antibiotics are usually not required

Associated with 8 cranial nerve palsv
Early surgery is indicated for optimal outcome
May present with CSF otorrhoea

All of the following statement regarding

r.,i

stones in

the submandibular gland are true except: March 2008

a. 80% of stones occur in the submandibular qland
b. Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent
c. Stones are the most common cause of obstruction
within the submandibular gland
d. Patient presents rvith acute swelling in the region
of the submandibular gland

in which salivary
March 2005,2007

frequenry in all the salivary

glands.
1"53. A man sustained injury and presented with fluid
coming out through nose. What could be the
possible fracture:
Marclr 2007
a. Fracture base of skull
b. Fracture of mandible
c. Fracfure of maxilla
d. None of the above
154. What is not found in head injury:
March 2007
a. Confusion
b. Loss of consciousness
GCS score of 0

Normai locrking anterior fontanelle in infants

are all of the following except:

152. Stones are most commonly seen

Lucid interval

March2@L

d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

in which type of breast

a. Inflammatory
b. infiltrative
c. Ductal
d. Lobular

c.
d.

cause:

Tachycardia
Hvpotension
Papilloedema

158. True statement regardihg fracture base of the skull

carcinoma:

gland:
a. Submandibular
b. Sublingrral
c. Parotid
d. Occurs with equal

Intra cranial Pressure will

a.
b.
c.

157. Surgerv of choice for pleon'rorprhic adenoma is:

HEAD.NECK
151. Both breasts are affected

Minimum score in Glassgow Coma Scale:

160.

True regarding cystic hygroma is:

a. Alrvays unilateral

b.
c.
d.

March 20At

Brilliantlytranslucent
Subsides itself

Always presnts at birth

161. Most common congenital anomaly of the face is:

March

a. Cieft lip alone

b. Isolated cleft palate
c. Cleft lip and cieft palate
d. All have equal incidence

2009

,:
r

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

152,

Carcinoma of tongue most commonly occur at:

a.
b.
c.
d.
163.

March 2009

ls:

Dorsum
Lateral border of anterior 2/3rd
Lateral border of posterior 1/3rd

Tip

Most common location of ectopic submandibular

salivary gland tissue is:
September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.
164.

Cheek
Palate

Angle of mandible
Tongue

True regarding Sjogren's syndrome are all of the

following except:

a.
b.
c.

Autoimmune condition
Males are commoniy affected
Progressive destruction of lacrimal and salivary
gland

166.

is

pathognomic.
Branchial cyst arises from the which branchial cleft:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2009

First
Second

Third
Forth

Most common tumour of eyelid

a.
b.
c.
d.

is:

September 2009

Neurofibromatosis
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
167. Surgical correction in cleft palate primarily aims at
all of the following except:
March 2010
a. Control of regurgitation
b. To promote normal dentition and facial growth
c. To get a normal speech
d. Normal appearance of lips, nose and face
168. Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid

gland is most common after:

a. Uveo-parotid fever
b. Mumps
c. Debilitation after major surgery
d. After administration of iodine

Septenfuer 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

Thoracotomy
Insertion of a chest tube
Needledecompression
Tracheostomy
L70. Management of flail chest with respiratory failure

is:
September 2006
a. Chest tube drainage
b. Oxygenadministration
c. IPPV
d. Intemal operative fixation of the frachrres
segments

Septenfuer 2009

d. No single laboratory investigation

165.

LUNGS
169. Emergency management for Tension pneumothorax

March 2008

flail chest are all except: March

Ultimately leads to respiratory failure
Paradoxicalrespiration

171. True about

a.
b.
c.
d.

2007

Fracture of 3-4 ribs ?

Mediastinal shift
172. Carcinoma responding maximally to radiotherapy is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2006

Squamous cell carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
None of the above
173. Most common symptom in pulmonary embolism:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2007

,D

tr

t'rU,

ic

i.,F

io
irTt

Pleuritic chest pain

i<

.in

Cyanosis

Hemoptysis

builds within hemithorax

resulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm,

contralateral mediastinal shift and compromised
venous return to right side of heart is known as:
September 2007

Open pneumothorax
Flail chest
Massive pulmonary hemorrhage

Tensionpneumothorax

175. IPPV is useful in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

:.2

im

Dyspnea

174. Condition which

a.
b.
c.
d.

,o

i|'rl

Hemopneumothorax
Pneumothorax
Flail chest
Hemothorax

March 2009

General Surgery

176. Which of the

following subtype of lung carcinoma

183.

produces superior vena cava syndrome:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septonber 2a09

Small cell carclnoma

Adenocarcinoma

177.Most common subtype of Basal cell carcinoma is:

March 2005
Sr,rperficiai basal cell carcinoma
Nodr,rlar basai cell carcinoma
Sclerosing basai cell carcinorna
Pigmented basal ccll carcinoma

L78. Sister |oseph Nodules are present

&

ut

&

179.

a.
b.
c.
d.

zIIJUJ

at:

2A05

a.
b.
c.
d.

of carcinoma penis include all except:

March 2007

Metastasize to inguinal lymph nodes

Surgery is the treatment of choice
Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion

Circumcisionprovides protection

all except:
March 2007

Positive family history

Median age of presentation is about 40 years
More common in muslims
Peau d'orange is due to subcutaneous lymphatic

Aim of surgery in carcinoma rectum

a.
b.
c.
d.

is:

Limited excision of the rectum

Sacrificing gastrointestinal continuity
Preserving the anal sphincter
Preservingmesorectum

b. Histologically,adenocarcinomaonll,
c. Unrelated to tobacco chen ing
d. It is more common in females

MISCELLANEOUS
186. Glasgow coma scale

a.0
b. 1
c.2
d.3

in death is:

includes all except:

a. Hyperglycemia

involvement
L82"

Jaundice is rare

Psammoma bodies are seen in:

March 2007
a. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
b. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
c. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
d. Lymphoma of thyroid
185. False statements about carcinoma esophagus are all
of the following except:
March 2007
a. Most common in lorver third

187. Commonest complication of parenteral

Adeno carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma

181. True about breast carcinoma are

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2007

Squamous cell carcinoma

180" Feafures

(,

Mar&

Umbilicus
Diaphragm
Lung
Liver
Most common histological type of carcinoma of base
of tongue:

CD

2005

1.84.

Squamous cell carcinoma

a.
b.
c.
d.

are false for Gall Bladder

Carcinoma except:
March
a. Carries a good prognosis
b. Gallstones may be a predisposing factor
c. Commorrly squamous cell carcinoma

d.

Anaplasficcarcinoma

SURCICAL ONCOLOCY

a.
b.
c.
d.

All of the following

March 2010

b.
c.
d.

Hyperkalemia

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pregnancy

b.
c.
d.

Great Saphenous vein

September 2005

nutrition
March 2007

Hyperosmolardehydration

Azotemia
188. Chyluria is caused by all except:

Nlarch 2007

Childbirth

Filariasis
Bile duct stones
189. Which of the follorving is preferred cannulation site
for total parenteral nutrition:
September 2007
a. Subclavian vein
Median cubital vein
Extemal jugular vein
190. Which is best method for supplementing nutrition
in patients who have undergone massive tesection
of the small intestine is:
September 2007
a. Parenteral
b. Enteral
c. Gastrostomy
d. All of the above

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

191.

Level V cervical nodes includes:

a. Upper jugular nodes

b.
c.
d.
f2.

September 2007

Middle jugular nodes

Lower jugular nodes

September 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

SePtenfuer 2007

Normal saline

a.

b.

196.

dextrose 5%
March 2008

198.

b.
is:

c.

March 2008

d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

204.

H.Influenzae

co

iQ

"
are true regarding

im
iz

pilonidal $m

Occurs only in sacrococcygeal

region.

tendenry forrecurrenc
Obesity is a risk

"
factor
tissue:

1'

trp
i=
i
6

March 2009

205.

*I
"{<
1

In radical neck dissection, which strucfure is not

Removed:

:l'

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009

Achalasia cardia
Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Ureterosigmoidostomy
Diarrhea

IX

Septenfucr 2009

a. Fat
b. muscle
c. Skull bone
d. Deep fascia

Streptococci

II
V
VIII

by:

02

March 2005 $n1

Staphylococci

factor
factor
factor
factor

203.Graft is not taken up by the following

Clostridia

Cryoprecipitate eontains:

vein

SePtemberz\lgYV
exceph
a. Seenpredominantlyinwomen t>
dF

Cellulitis is most commonly caused by:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Subclavian

sinus

CT scan

Hypochloremic alkalosis is seen in:

September 2009

Right atrium
Junction of superior vena cava and right atrium

All of the following

202.

Swtember 2008,2010

197.

in:

Superior vena cava

C.

Hemorrhoids
Pilonidal sinus
Anal fissure
Ideal investigation for fistula-in-ano
a. Endoanalultrasound
b. MRI
c. Fistulography

a.
b.
c.
d.

Gastritis

CO2
d. N20

Ringer iactate

b.
c.
d.

d.

Antibioticassociateddiarrhoea

201. Pneumoperitoneum is created

Albumin

leep disease is also known as:

a. Anal incontinence

195.

Ulcerative colitis
Activation of latent tuberculosis

200. CVP is usually measured

Which of the following solution is a colloid:

194.

September 2009

cause could be:

hemorrhagic shock:
a. Dextrose
b. Ringer lactate
c. Blood
d. Dextran

a.
b.
c.
d.

peritonitis

presents with mucus diarrhoea. Most probable

Posterior triangle nodes

Which of the following is ideal in moderate

193.

199. A patient on antibiotics for treatment for

March 2005

Cervical group of lymph nodes

Stemocleidomastoidmuscle
Internal jugular vein
None of the above

All of the following conditions result in chronic

thick walled pyogenic

a"
b.
c"
d.

abscess

exeept:

Inadequate surgical drainage

Virulent strain of offending organism
Prolnged course of antibiotic therapy
Presence of foreign body

March 2005

Generai Surgery

206. Which of the

following is true regarding

tuberculous lymphadenitis:
March 2005
a. Historv of contact lr,ith TB patient rnay be present
b. Commoniy seen in the 1'oung and children
c. Mostly in the ccrvical region
i:.,+,1,

'lr,i.:l.,,'

ll'.,;:il;t
: i 'j''.
' ' ,,'

d.

Ail of the above

207. Sen-m amylase level is increased

following

a.
b.
c.
d.

except:

tUI

g)

209.

March 2005

associated'with: Mnrclr

a lesion,

--

2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

J;

<:
&,,:
210.

ltJ

a.

21.1.

Hyperparthyroidism
Aneurysmal bone ryst
are features of carcinoma penis

a.
b.
c.
d.
218.

Patient with gastrinoma

Head injuries
Burns
Analgesicoverdosage

-:

is not necess ary for:

Septenfuer 2007

September 2ffi7

Renal transplant

Heart transplant
Comeal transplant

following is seen in Addison's

disease:

Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypercalcemia

All of the following conditions

are associated with

raised amylase level except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2A07

Carcinoma pancreas
Perforated ulcer
Acute pancreatitis
Acute appendicitis

219. Adson test is positive

Infected sebaceous cyst

Osteomyelitis of skuli
Cyst in the skull
Tumour of the skull

Septenfuer 20A1, 2010

September 2407

Histologically a transitional cell carcinoma

September 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

in renal transplant is

Liver transplant

217. Which of the

Surgery is the treatment of choice

Balanoposthitis may be a predisposing factor
Metastaizes to inguinal nodes

212. Cock's peculiar tumour is:

Cheek

March 2005

Curling's ulcer are associated with:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Inner canthus of eve

HtA matching

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fibrosarcoma
Enchondroma

All of the following

b.
c.
d.

216.

2A07

Orrter canti'rus of eve

a. Father
b. Mother
c. Twin
d. Son

histologically

Except:

(9"'

September

Lips

possible when the donor is:

March 2005

ai.

Lymphatic route
Direct spread

215. Highest chance of success

z"j

a.
b.
c.
d.

All of the above

Differential diagnosis of

Hematogenous route

ulcer:

Perforated ulcer
Acute pancreatitis
Acute appendicitis

Turner's syndrome
Klinefelter'ssr.ndrome
Don'n's syndrome

September 20ai

All of the above

2L4. Which of the following is commonest site for rodent l

resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of

the hand/feet, include all of the following except:

E,':

IJJ.:

a.
b.
c.
d"

Intestinalobstruction

208. Cystic hvgroma may be

a.
b.
c.
d.

in all of the

213. Basal cell carcinoma usually spreads by which route:

in:

Cervical spondylosis
Cervical rib
Cervical vertebra fracture
Superior vena cava syndrome

September 2007

SELF ASsEssefigerre
.NNNCC/MCI SCRE.*NING EXAMIN

ORTHOPAEDICS (Questions)
9. lVhat

ORTHOPAEDIC TRAUMA

1. Hill-Sachs lesion is seen in:

a. Ilecurrent dislocation of elbou'
b. Recurrent dislocation of patelia

c. Recurrent dislocation

NIarch 2005

.1,

of hip

d.

2.

3.

Recurrent dislocation of shoulder

Supracondylar fracture of the femur commonly
inlures which structure:
September 2005
a. Sciatic nerve
b. Popliteal nerve
c. Popliteal vessel
cl. Femoral vessel
Comrnonest complication of extra capsular fracture of

femur is:

Osteoarthritis
Most serious complication of fracture of a long bone
is;

a.
b.

c.

a. Musculocutancous
b. Radial nerve
c. ulnar nerve
d. Median nerve

L2.

September 2005

Pulmonary embolism

c. Deep vein thrombosis

5.

13.

6.

nerve
14.

,,1

Scptember 2N8

Bone commonly fractured in facial injuries

a.
b.
c.
d.

Seatnnber 2005

fracture:

15.

is:

:.

Lower radial fracfure & dislocated ulna

Lorter ulnar fracture & dislocatcd raclius

Nasoethmoid bone
Zygomanc bone

Mandible
Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medial

a. McMurray's
b. Lachmann's

is:

March2010

test
test

c. Valgus stress test

d. Varus stress test

of EPL tendon
Refler sympathetic dystrophy

d.
8. True regarding Monteggia fracture is:
a. Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial
b. Upper radial fracture & dislocated ulna

Nasal bones

meniscus injury
March 2007

c. Rupture

Complication of humeral lateral epicondyle fracture

March2W

a. Herring's classification
b. Salter-Harris classification
c. Garden'sclassificanon
d. Pauwel's classification

c.

Extensor digitorum

a. Non union
b. Tardy ulnar nerrre palsy
c. Cubitus valgus deformity
d. All of the above

Epiphyseal plate fractures are classified by:

7. Uncommon in Colle's
a. Non-union
b. Mal-union

is:

March, Septeruber 2a05

a. Musculocutaneous
b. Radial nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Median nerve

nerve

Fracture of distal end of radius may results in loss of

function of which tendon:
Sept ember
a. Extensor pollicis longus
b. Flexor pollicis brevis
c. Extensor indicis

d.

Associated joint injuries

Which of the following nerve is damaged in the
fracture of the shaft of the humerus:

Distal fibrrla

Proximal tibia
11. Humeral supracondylar fracture commonly results in
vrhich nerve injury:
S eTttetnber 20A7

Fat embolism

d.

":'

d.

necrosis

d.
4"

a. Calcaneus
b. 2nd metatarsal

Septentuer 2005

a. Non union
b. Mal union

c. Avascular

is the position of the leg in fracture neck of

femur:
Septentber 2@J
a. Internal rotation deformitv of less than 45 degree ,r,
b. External rotation deformitv of less than 45 degree '
c. Internal rotation deformitv of more than 45 degree ',
d. External rotation deformity of more than 45 degree.
10. March fracture is fracture of:
September

16. Manoeuvre for diagnosing rupture of medial

March 2007
head

collateral ligament is:

a. Posterior drawer test
h, Anterior drar.t.er test

c.

Lachmann's test

cl. Valeus

stress test

March2il'A

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

INFLAMMATIONS OF MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM

17. Fibrous ankylosis is caused by which of the following:
March 2A05

a. Septic arthritis
b. TB arthritis
c. Bechet's disease
d. Psoriatic arthritis
18.

a. Shoulder
b. Hip

c. Knee

d. Ankle
26. Part

following:
a. Osteoarthritis

28.

a. Cold abscess
b. Back pain
c. Decreased sPinal movements
d. Collapse of spine

,,{

a. Acute paronYchium
b. Whitlow
All of the following
spondylitis

lo
'T
,.D
'T

'.lll
ls

c. Acute suppurative tenosynovitis

d. Apical subungual infection

29.

are true regarding ankylosing

March 2010

excePt:

i.6
iu,

a. Involvement of sacroiliac ioint

In a patient with gouty arthritis, strongly birefringent

needle-shaped crystals with negative elongation in
synvial fuid aspiration are comPosed of:
SePtember 2007

b. Most of people areHLAB2T positive

c. 50% of pafients may have urinary infection
d. Bamboo spine may be a radiologicai feature
30.

HLA 827 is commonly associated with which of the

following:

March 2010

a. Rheumatic fever
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Ankylosing sPondYlitis

a. Monosodium urate
Calcium pyroPhosPhate
Homogentisic acid
Sodium pyroPhosPhate

Charcots/ neuropathic joints are most commonly seen

b. Syringolmyelia
c. Leprosy
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

:,o

',.7

SePtentber 2009

Mnrch 2007

a. DM

SePterfuer 2009
3

Purulent inflammation and infection of terminai pulp

space of distal phalanges is known as:

Commonest presenting symptom of Pott's spine is:

in

Mnrch 2009

b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Ankylosing sPondYiitis
d. Psoriatic arthritis

Mnrch 2007

a.
b.
c" Reiter's syndrome
d. Osteoarthritis

23.

in

27.Felty's syndrorne is associated with which of the

Ankylosing spondylitis
Rheumatoid arthritis

b.
c.
d.

of knee most commonly involved

b. Laterai corrlPartment
c. Medial and lateral comPartment
d. Patellofemoral comPartment

Iliac crest involvement is common in which

22.

ri

Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India:

Mnrch 2407

c. Terminal pulp sPace infection

d. Infection of nail bed

21.

it

a. Primarvosteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoicl arthritis
c. Tuberculararthritis
d. Sero-neagtive spond-arthritis

osteoarthritis:
a. Medial comPartment

Felon is:
a. Mid palmar sPace infection
b. Infection of ulnar bursa

condition:

September 2007

March 2409

c. IRhettmatoid arthritis
d. Rheumatic fever

20.

Monoarticular joint involvement is seen in which oI

the following:

25.

Metacarpophalangeal joints are most commonly

March 2A05
affected in:
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Psoriatic artirritis

19.

24.

September 2007

::

OTHER NON TRAUMATIC CONDITIONS

31. Duputryens contracture commonly affects:
SePtember

finger
a.
b. Ring firger
Little

c. Middle finger
d. Index finger

,l
." ......-,,.'
'

2005

,
.

i'''

r,

Orthopaedics

32. Aseptic necrosis is common

in:

40.

March 2007, Septenfuer 2010

a. Scaphoid
b. Calcaneum
c. Cuboid
d. Trapezium

Best diagnostic modality to diagnose avascular

necrosis is:
March 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.
34.

4L. Foot

at

(--+..---,
Sr|ttember
2005

nerve

drop occurs due to the involvement of:

September 200lr

Sciatic nerve

Direct injury to the dorsiflexors

peroneai nerve palsy
d. All of the above
42, Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial
epicondyle of humems is:
Mdrch 2A{)7
a. Radial nerve
b. Ullar nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
43. Positive Trendelenburghign is seen in:
March 2007
a. Superior gluteal nerve palsy
b. In-ferior giuteal nerve palsy
c. Obturator nerve palsy
d. Ilihypogastric nerve palsy
44. Carpal tunnel is associated with all of the following

c. Common

USG

c. Cupping and splaying

Stptctrfucr 2009

diaphvsis distance
of metaphvsis

Rarefaction

. 35. Duchenne,s muscular dystrophy affects which

group
of muscle s
Septeiber ZbOg

commonly:

Calf muscles
Sl-roulder muscles
l-orearm muscles
Respiarr.ory muscles

? ,, ,U. In Duchennes muscular dystrophy, calf muscle is:

September 200g
L ,i, a
Hypertrophied
O
D. Arroptued
T
c.
Pseudoatrophied
tr
d.
Pseudohvpertrophied.
U
Congenital talipes equinovarus deformity includes all
O 37. of
the following except:
March 2010

except:

All of the following

a.

are true about rickets except:

March 2010

September 2007

a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Rheumatoid arthritis

c. Wrist osteoarthritis
d.
45.

r,r a. Eversion
i: b. Forefoot adduction
-: c. ,t oretoot cavus
o. Equrnus
38.

rs:
is:

a. Ulnar nerve
b. Median nen'e
c. Radial nerve
d. Muscuiocutaneous
a.
b.

CTscan
X-rav

a. Frenkels line
b. lVidening of epiphysis-

,
Ur "', a.
O :: b.
c.
A
-::
iii . d.

erpow
elbow

MRI scan

AII of the following are seen in rickets except:

d.

In Hansen's disease, the nerve commonly affected

'!

Acromegaly

Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen in:

SePtember 2008

a. Cubitus varus deformity

b. Cubitus valgus deformity
c. Dinner fork deformity
d. Garden spade deformity
46. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to involvement of
which nerve:
March 2009

a. Radial nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Axillary nerve

47.

Inability to adduct the thumb is due to the injury

of:

lvlarch 2009

Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
uI Radial nerve

a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Musculocutaneous

nerve

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

48.

September 2009

Tinel sign indicates:

Sunray appearance on X'ray may be seen in:

56.

SePtember 2048

a. Nerve degeneration
b. Nerve regeneration

c.

a. Osteoclastoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Chondroblastoma

Both

d. None
the:
49. Partial claw hand is caused by lesion involving
March2010

a. Radialnerve
b. Ul:rar nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Anterior interosseous

57.

Tumour which can occur following exposure to

March 2009
radiation is:

a. Osteosarcoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d. Osteoclastoma

nerve

ORTHOPAEDIC ONCOLOCY
50.

MISCELLANEOUS

Radiological finding of ewings sarcoma is:

Scotentber 2005

58.

Mnrch 2005

a. Soap bubble aPPearence

b. Sunray apPearence

a. Head of radius
b. Capituium
c. Trochlea
d. Medial condYle

c. Onion peel apPearence

d. Codman's triangle
51. Osteosarcoma conunonly

af f ects:

September 2005

a. Metaphysis
b. Diaphysis
c. Epiphysis
d. None of the above
52.

First epiphysis to appear around the elbow region is:

59.

60. Example of syndesmosis Ju'rrr

ioint

a. Femur
b. Pelvis
c. Vertebrae
d. Tibia

'''o"
a. Tibiotalarlo*a
b. Tibiofibuiar joint
c. Elbowjoint
d.

53. Which of the following is seen in multiple myeloma:

March 2007

c.

Normal serum calcium

Most common tumor of sPine is:

61.

September 2008

SePtember 2008

Metastasis

d" Osteosarcoma

March 2009

63.

Spondylolysis is more common in:

a. Intervertebral disc
b. Anterior Part
c. Pars interarticularis
d. Annulus fibrosus

i''
t:'

!:

March 2009

b. OsteoPetrosis
c. Rickets
d. OsteoPorosis

Punched out lesion in the skull is indicative of:

c.

i.(n

CarpometacarPal joint

Gluteum maximus
Gluteus medius
c. Psoas major
d. Adductor magnus
62. "Marble Bone" appearance is seen in:
a. Osteomalacia

Oteosarcoma

a. Ewings sarcoma
b" Multiple myeloma

tI
\4
?on7 i r I
Qsntowhor -""
'
I
,Q

Trendelenburg sign is positive due to the involvement

d. Multiple myeloma
55.

is:
rr'

the

a.
b.

a. Secondaries
b" Ewings sarcoma

c.

iO
,tV
SePtember 2006 I
|*
:9'

of:

d. None of the above

54.

..,

joinh

c. Radio-ulnar joint
d. CarpometacarPal ioint

SePtembet 2006

Raised serumcalcium
Decreased serum calcium

t'

a. Wrist joint
b. Eibow joint

Commonest location of aneurysmal bone cyst isl

a.
b.

i'

Supination and pronation occurs at which of

following

:..:

March 2009

Orthopaedics

March 2009

67.

Knuckle bender splint is used for:

a. Ulnar nerve palsy

b. Radial nerve palsy

c. Median nerve PaisY
d. Axillary nerve palsY
SEtember 2009

68.

September

l:

Maximum weight that can be given with skeletal .':-::

Septenrber 2@g
traction is:

a. 5kg

b. 10 kg
c. 15 kg
d.
Stpttentber 2009

a.
b.

Osteosarcoma
Osteomalacia

c. Multiple myeloma
d. Malnutrition

69.

20 kg
Who coined the term orthopaedics:

Match2010

a. Louis Pasteur
b. Erlu'ard jenner
c. Nicholas andry
d. Kuntscher

U'

9
o
lJl

,i
t.t
:;

;J

o-

T
F

o
.:r

;l
,j:
::,1

...:

:
:':.::

).

.
...,.-:
,:.

': ',i.

.:-

r .I
4.. ...
'.,'.:-'..-

:.

':
'

.
.

"'.
..

i
::

ii '!ii'

CI 5CREENIN

PAEDIATRICS (Questions)
CROWTH

t.

Fluid intake by a 8 kg boy should be:

March 2005

9. Very low birth weight

a. 1000 gm

d.

2. Nocturnal enuresis may be considered normal upto:

a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 I'ears
d. 6 years

a.

Marclt 2A10
1 year

Moro reflex disappear by:

September 2405

Vitamin D deficiencv is manifested

12.

year
months
2 year
1

18

5. A 8 month old baby will be able to do which of the

March 2047
following:

13.

a. Stable sitting
b. Pincer grasp
c. Stands without support
d. Says mama
14.

Copy cross
do all of the following except:
Smtember 2009

one foot per step

September 2007

Specific sign of kwashiorkor is:

September 2007

Prelacteal feed given iust after birth is: March 2009

a. Colv's milk
b. Honey
c. Water
d" None
16. All of the following are the features of scurvy except:

15"

March 2009

d. Copy triangle

a. Skip
b. Goes down stairs
c. Tell a story
d. Copies triangie

by;

a. Pitting edema
b. Weight loss
c. Flag sign
d" Muscle wasting

SePtember 2007

4 years can

Malnutrition is assessed clinically

a. Mid arm circumference

b. Weight for age

c. Body mass index
d. Al1 of the above

5. Normal weight of infant at 1 year from birth is:

a. Doubled
b. Trippled
c. Quadrupled
d. Variable increase
7' A child of 3 years will be able to:
a. Copy circle
b. Ride bicycle

as: Swtember 2005

a. Scurr,y
b. Night blindness
c. Beri-Beri
d. Rickets

a. 6 months

8. A child of

March 2010

NUTRITION

Weight of a child triples at:

c.

6 months

a. 2 months
b. 3 months
c. 4 months
d. 5 months

Septenrber 2005,

a.
b. Z1tear
c. 3 year
d. 4 year

March 2007

b. 12 months
c. 15 months
d. 18 months
11.

Height of a newbom doubles at:

2500 gm

Anterior fontanelle ossifies by:

10.

March 2005

d.

September 2009

b. 1500 gm
c. 2000 gm

a. 700 ml
b. 800 ml
c. 900 ml
d. 1L

b.
c.

is less than:

SePtenfuer 2009

a. Hyperkeratosis
b" Ecchymosis of lower limbs
c" Hypoglycemia
d" Bleeding gums

Paediatrics

17.

A child of age 9 needed prophylaxis of vitamin A.

25.

The dose and route of administration is:

Scpternber 2009

.,,,,i",i'

a. 1,00,000 IU intramuscularly
b. 1,00,000IU orally
c. 2,00,000 IU intramuscularly
d. 2,00,000 IU orally

]r:i:;,.1:]i
.:,

:.,,::,

ii,*.;;i

:rlirii
...: :).

L8.

c.
d.

SePtember 2009

tj.iyi.,
.

would be:

a.
b.

Breast feeding should be initiated with in:

iiit51

19.

c. One and a half hour

d.

c. Maternal alpha feto-prctein levcl

27. Most common cause of pathological jaundice on first

a. Body mass index

b. Weight for age
c. Height for age
d. Weight for height

day of life is:

a. Physiologic

b.
c.
d.

NEWBORN

6ii

28.

ri

d. Tricuspid

r' 21.

Rh

incompatibility t

Sepsis

Which of the following is not a cause for neonatal

jaundice manifesting for the first time in the second

29.

Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is:

March 2010

SePtember 2007

Repeat dose if the rvomen remains undelivered

after the first course
b. Decreased risk of enterocolitis and intracranial

a. Congenital malformations
b. Birth injuries

a.

haemorrhage
Contra-indicated in eclampsia

c.
d. Indicated in women with preterm labor
24-34 weeks of gestation

22. All of the

except:

following are components of APGAR score

SEtember 2008

a. Heart rate
b. Respiratory efforts
c. BP
d. Muscle tone
23.

Physiological jaundice in

term baby lasts upto:

Marclt 2005 t September 2010

a.
b.

4 days

da7,s

c. 10 days
d. t4 days

c. Prematurity
d. Inbom error of metabolism
30.

between

September 20A8

a. Rhesusincompatibility
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Jaundice due to breast milk
d. Galactosemia

atresia

True about administration of corticosteroids for fetal

lung maturity all of the following except:

Nlarch 2008

Biliary atresia

week:

c. PDA

<t
CL

September 2@7

d. Amniotic fluid phosphatidl,lcholine level

Acute malnutrition in a chiid is clinically assessed by:

of the following condition doesn't present

E'i 20. Which
Septenfuer 2006
with
cyanosis at birth:
Fii a. TOF
<:i b. Transposition of great vessels

llJ

Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the following

a. Lecithin:sphingomyelinnratio
b. Foam stability index

Trgo hour

Septenber 2A06

Observation
Phototherapy
Medical management
Erchange transfusion

except:

Srytentber 2005

()11

26.

a. Half an hour
b. Onehour

1 :T,:
''':l'.

U)t

A 32 weeks premature, healthy infant weighing less

than 1kg is having jaundice with serum bilirubin
level of 5 mg%. Ideal management in such a case

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all of the

following except:

March 2010

a. Crigler Najjar Syndrome

b. Physiological jaundice
c. Dubin-fohnson syndrome
d" Gilbert syndrome
CONCENITAL DISORDER
31" All of the following are associated with Down
March
syndrome except:
a" Sensory hearing loss

b. VSD
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Duodenal atresia

2010

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

32.

Which of the following is associated with Down

Raised PAPP-A level
Decresed beta-HCG level
Raised estriol level
Decreased AFP level

39.

All of the following

are features of chest radiography

in Tetralogy of fallot excePtr

September 2007

b. In 80% right sided arch of aorta

c. Oligemic lung fields
d. Right atrial enlargement
Which of the following step is least useful in the

March 2010
management of TOF:
a. Anastomosis of a systemic artery with pulmonary
artery
b. Modified Blalock-Taussig shrmt
c. Administer 100% oxygen
d. None of the above
35. Most common cause of death in aortic stenosis

patients is:
a. Pulmonary edema

March 2005

a. TAPVC
b. TOF
c. Coarctation
d. PDA

September 2007

of aorta

SePtember 2006

a. Poliovirus

d.

Adenovirus
Rotavirus
Rhabdovirus

in:

March 2007

a. Leukaemoid reaction
b. Myelofibrosis
c. Pemicious anemia
d. Polycythemia

i-u

child with acute post-streptococcal

March 2005
glomerulonephritis is:

41. Characteristic of a

a. Leucocytosis
b. Fever

r>

rm

:tl

;>
:{

',:,4

Pedal edema

in

a case of nephritic syndrome is:

SePtember 2008

a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Proteinuria
c. Pedal edema
d. Hypertension
43. A 5 year boy presented

Commonest virus causing diarrhea in infants is:

b.
c.

40. Decreased LAP score is found

42. Basic abnormality

INFECTIOUS DISEASES
37.

MISCELLANEOUS

d.

Congestive heart failure is seen in all of the following

except:

Which of the following is the most common

March 2008
malignancy of the childhood:
a. CLL

c. Raised ASO titre

b. Atrial flutter
c. IHD with ventricular fibrillation
d. Cerebral embolism
36.

Septembet 2008

b. ALL
c. CML
d. AML

a. Boot shaped heart shadow

34.

in:

PEDIATRIC ONCOLOGY

CVS DISORDERS
33.

Koplik's spots are seen

a. Typhoid
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Polio

March 2014

syndrome:

a.
b.
c.
d.

38.

with massive haemetemesis'

He is not febrile. Per abdomen examination revealed

massive splenomegaly without hepatomegaly' Most
March 2005
probable diagnosis would be:
fibrosis
portal
a. Non-cirrhotic
b. Extrahepatic portal venous obstruction

c. Budd-Chiarisl'ndrome
d. Hepatic carcinoma

io
t(n

ASSESSMENT
OB STETRICS (Questions)
9. Polyhydroaminosis

OBSTETRICS ANATOMY

1.

2.

The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower

border of pubis corresponds to:
Mnrch 2009
a" Transverseconjup;ate
b. True conjugate
c. Diagonal conjugate
d. Obstetric conjugate
Smallest pelvic diameter in anteroposterior plane of

inlet:

Mlarch 2009

a.
b.
3.

Obstetric conjugate
Diagonal conjugate
c. True conjugate
d. Transverse conjugate
Largest fetal head diameter:

March 2009

Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly on ultrasound can

be done at:
Septenfuer 2005
a. 5 weeks of gestation
b. 8 weeks of gestation
c. 10 rt'eeks of gesi:ation
d. 14 weeks of gestation
11. True regarding pre-exposure tetanus immunization

10.

are all except:

d.

as:

March 2010
12.

a.
b.

ANTENATAL PERIOD
March 2005

6. Pregnant lady presents with fulminant hepatitis. Most

Common Cause:
March 2005, September 20L0
a. Hepatitis D
b. Hepatitis E
c. Hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis A
7. Hydramnios is complicated by all except: March 2005
a. Placenta abruptio
Pre-eclampsia

c" Postdated pregnanry

d. Atonic Hemorrhage
8" Painless, heavy, recurrent bleeding of sudden onset is
seen ln:
Mnrch 2005

a. Cervical carcinoma
b. Circumvallate placenta
c. Placenta praevia
d. Abruptio placentae

September 2005

Painless bleeding
Causeless bleeding

c. Presents in first trirnester

d. Recurrent bleeding

5. Most common type of vertex presentation:

b.

Placenta Praevia is characterized by all of the

following except:

a. Right Occipito Posterior

b. Left Occipito posterior
c. Right Occipito Anterior
d. Left occipito anterior

September 2005

a. If already immunized, a booster in the last trimester

is advocated
el
b. Vaccine is given intramuscularly
c. Tetanus immunoglobulin is injected to the mother
d. 2 doses are recommended

c. Mentovertical

4.

Seplember 2005

a. 1000 ml
b. 2000 ml
c. 3000 ml
d. 4000 ml

a. Occipitofrontal
b. -suboccipitofrontal
Submentovertical
Pelvis with only one ala is known
a. Rachitic pelvis
b. Naegele's pelvis
c. Scoliotic pelvis
d. Robert's pelvis

is volume of amniotic fluid more

than:

13.

A pregnant lady in her first trimester presents with

vaginal bleeding. On examination the os is closed and
uterine size corresponds to the period of
amenorrhoea.The condition could be: September 2005
a. Septic abortion
b. Compiete abortion
c. Inevitable abortion

d.

Threatend abortion
14. Post term pregnancy is the pregnancy which continues

beyond:

a.
b.

September 2006

274days
284 days

c.

294days

d.

304 days

15. Ideal time for screening of blood sugar for diabetes in

a pregnant female is:
September 2006

a. 1.6-20 weeks
b. 20-24weeks
c. 24-28 weeks
d" 72-16rveeks

Obstetrics

15.

During pregnancy/ maximum urinary HCG level is

reached in:
a. 30 days
b. 50 days
c. 70 days
d. 90 days

17 .

23.

24.

d.

September 2007
25.

ut

a. Nifedipine
b. Metaprolol
c. Methyldopa
d. Hydralazine

i,

F,"q

u)

!::

iri

m,i
o::,

;:
ri

26.

20"

September 2A09

27.

28.

predisposing factor
b. Placenta lying in the lower segment
c. Tender and hard uterus
I
d. Continuous bleeding per vaginum
a
21.
Most common cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy:
i
ir

a':

September 2008

29.

following

30.

22. Shortest diameter of true pelvis amongst the

d.

September

September 2009

pH of vagina in pregnancy is:

September 2ffi9

2008

Uterus reaches up to umbilical level

at:

September 2009

a. L6 weeks
b. 20 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 28 weeks

a. Mitral regurgitation
b. Mitral stenosis
c. Tetralogy of fallots
d. Patent ducfus arteriosus

c.

Congenital anomalies that can be identified by USG

a. 2-4
b. 4-6
c. 6-8
d. 8-10

.,,);

True conjugate
Diagonal conjugate
Interspinous diameter
Interfuberous diameter

weeks of pregnancy
weeks of pregnancy

a. Hydrops fetalis
b. Esophageal atresia
c. Anencephaly
d. Cystic hygroma

September2))8

a.
b.

26-30 weeks of pregnancy

are all except:

a. Hypertension in the pregnancy is important

ls:

22-26 weeks of pregnancy

c" 30-34
d. 3+38

True about abruptio placentae are all except

:,:

1st trimester for all except:

Maximal level of cardiac output is seen at:

a.
b.

Seotember 2007

F$

tlltrasound is done in

a. Mulfiple pregnancy
b. Fetal anomalies
c. To estimate gestational age
d. To know the position of the placenta

September 2007

Microcyticnormochromic
Normochromic normorytic
19. Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnant
women requiring long term antihypertensive therapy:

trii

Cortisone
March 2009

c.
d.

O.I
r:i

Testosterone

c. Aldosterone

a.
b.

U)i:

September 20Ag

Fetal adrenals release which hormone predominantlrn

a" Oestrogen
March 2009, September 20fi

b.

painful and tender.Most likely diagnosis is:

18.

placenta:

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

March 2007

A 32 w-eeks pregnant lady presents in emergency room

with continuous bleeding per vaginum.The uterus is

Circumvallate placenta
Rupture of membranes
c. Placenta praveia
d. Accidental hemorrhage
Type of anemia in pregnancy is:
a. Megaloblastic
b. Microrytic hypochromic

Which Ig crosses through

Earliest fetal anomaly that can be diagnosed with

USG:
September 20N
Duodenal
a.
atresia

b.
c.
d.

Fetal hydrops
Down's symdrome

Anencephaly

::

Ilj

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

*
+

31.

Best time for diagnosing fetal abnormalities by USG:

38.

September 20A9

a. 6-12 weeks of pregnanry

b. 13-19 weeks ofpregnancy
c. 20-26 weeks of pregnancy
d. 27-32 weeks of pregnanry
32.

Term for relation of different parts of the fetus to one

another:
SEtember 2009
a. Fetal station

39.

33.

34.

Fetal presentation

36.

Post partum hemorrhage

Preierm iabour

except:

40. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral

episiotomy are all except:

a. Less blood loss
b. easy repair

Increase seen in plasma volume in pregnancy:

d.

c. extension of the incision

March 2005

;t
:!,

is easy

of the labour is assessed with the help of

March 2005

c.

Change noticed in diastolic blood pressure in

pregnancy is:
March 2010
a. Decline of 10-20 mm of Hg
b. Decline of 5-10 mm of Hg
c. Elevation of L0-20 mm of Hg
d. Elevation of 5-10 mm of Hg
Increase in cardiac output seen in pregnancy is:

d.

c.

a" 10%

44.

${

i,7
March 2005

!o
iU,
:i

Requirement of induction for labour

Gestational age of fetus

Which of the following is seen in 2nd stage of labor:

September 2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

ltUt

Progress oflabour

March 20L0

a. Risk of congenital infection is more in last trimester

b. Vaccination is indicated in pregnanry for protection
c. IgM antibodies in fetus reflects immunity
d, It is caused by DNA virus

*w

f"{

subsided pre-eclamptic feafures,pregnancy should be

continued at least upto:
September 2005
a. 35 week
b. 37 week
c. 39 week
d. 40 week

b. 20"/"
c. 30%
d. 40%

*o
..*ITl

d" Fetal well bein

43. A hypertensive primigravida with completely

March 2010

37.True regarding rubella infection in pregnancy is:

Cervicograph
Partogram
Dilatation chart
Growth curve

42. Bishop's classification is used for:

a.
b.

:,
].:

muscles are not cut

41. Progress

a.
b.

Pain

a. Rabies
b. Hepatitis B
c. Yellow fever
d. Hepatitis A

a. 1.0-20"/o
b. 20-30o/o
c. 30-400/"
d. 40-s0%

:.ii

:ti

2009

LABOR

March 2010

,:,

Metastasis

Vaccine not contraindicated in pregnancy are all

March 2010

35.

During pregnanct fibroid may have all o{ the

f ollowing complications except:
March

a.
b.
c.
d.

b. Fetal attitude
c. Fetal lie
d.

Which of the following genital infections carries the

highest risk for preterm delivery:
March 2005
a. Trich.omonas vaginitis
b. Monilial vaginitis
c. Bacterial vaginitis
d. Human papilloma virus

Expulsion of the fetus

Increase in contraction
Cervical dilatation
All of the above

.i;

Obstetrics

45.

A full-term multigravida is having breech

presentation. Ideal management in this case would be:

52.

primigravida with placenta praevia and active

Sextentber 2006

bleeding:

a. Elective caesarean section

b. External cephalic version followed by vaginal

c.
d.

Ideal management of a37 weeks pregnant elderly

delivery
Trial of labour
Extemal cephalic version followed caesarean section
all of the

46. External cephalic version is conhaindicated

following except:

c. Vaginal deiivery
d. Expectant treatment
53.

a. Android pelvis
b. Naegele's pelvis

a. Antepartum hemorrhage
b. Multiple pregnancy
c. Breech presentation
d. ltupfured membranes

c. Flat pelvis
d.
Septenber 2006

b. Shot'
c. Relieved by enema ans administration
d. Dull in nature

U'

48. Pressure

(J

a.

54.

of sedative

d.
55.

0.4 kgisq"cm

.,
,
.
.,

:
.l
,,

in the following except:

56.

Erb's palsy

b. Klumpke's palsy
c. Sternomastoid swelling
d. Anencephaly
50. Shoulder dystocia is seen predominantly

in:
57.

Transverse lie

b. Cord around neck

c. Anencephaly
o. r|ano Prolapse

-.i.:,* 5l.Prerequisite for applying forceps are all except:

, ,.
'1. a. Aftercoming head of breech
b. Thereshouldbeno CPD
'.ffi
c. Saggital suture should be in line with transverse
;,.i'i,{
''
diameter of pelvis

SePtcmber 2007

d.

,'&i,

$.,
.,ii:.,iiji':.r
,,a.,,,t
,

Rh-negative mother
a

parameter in Bishop's

Foetal head should be engaged

March 2N9

Cervicalconsistency
Station of head
Position of head
Cervical length

Drug which is contraindicated before

labor is:
a. Mifepristone
b. Oxytocin
c. Misoprostol

d.

March 2007

a.

bleeding "

score:

March 2007

Cardiac problems

Which of the following is not

a.
b.
c.
d.

2nd stage

of

March 2009

Ergometrine

Contraindication for applying forceps:

a. crowning of head

b.
c.
d.

2AA8

Suspected muitiple pregnancy

c. Atonic uterine

in ventcuse assisted delivery is:

49. Shoulder dystocia results

Contra-indications to ergometrine are all except:

a.
b.

:, b 0.6 kg/sq.cm
IJJ ,,: c. 0.8 kg/sq.cm
F .:. d. 1.0 kg/sq.cm

aI
m
o ".

Generally contracted pelvis

Mqrch

September 2006

tF i:

Successful trial of labour can be expected in:

March2wl

September 2006

47.True labour pains is represented by:

a. Pain and discomfort in the abdomen

September 2007

a. Labour induction
b. Caesarean section

March2N9

head station +1

maternal cardiac disease

CPD

58. Causes

of prolonged first stage of labor are all except

March 2a09

a.
b.

Weak uterine contractions

CPD

c. Rigid perineum
d.

Transverse presentation

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

59.

Cord cutting should be delayed in which condition:

66.

a.
b.

Se1ttember 2009

a. IUGR
b. Sever anemia
c. Rh incompatibility
d. Asphp<ia
60.

partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is

commonly due to:
September 2005
a. Traumatic
b. Uterine atony

c. BIood coagulopathy
d. Mixed
37

lveeks uncomplicated breech

pregnancy is:

68. Low

vaginal

63. A primigravida

with vertex presentation is having

fully dilated cervix. Head is well engaged and is
having a station of +2. Foetal heart monitoring shows
late deceleration. Most appropriate management in
such a case would be:
September 2009

59. Most common cause of uterojvesical

c.

APGAR scoring

d. Uterine massage and I/V oxytocin

65. AntiD Rh is given for:
September 2005
a. Rh positive father,Rh positive mother
b. Rh negative father,Rh positive mother

c.
d.

Rh negative father,Rh negative mother

Rh positive father,Rh negative mother

fistula in India:
Septemher 2006

70.

a. Prostaglandin
b. Oxytocin

,;a
,.{
.:JTI

September 2007

analogue

c. Progesterone
d. Ergotmetrine
71.

All of the following

are signs of uterine scar

dehiscence except:
a. Tachycardia

b. Fetal distress
c. Strong uterine
d. Falling BP
72.

September 2009

contractions

A woman with a history of repeated abortions gave

birth to a low birth weight baby. The child is having
rashes over palm and rhinitis. The most probable
diagnosis is
September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Congenital HIV
Congenital syphilis
Congenital rubella
Pemphigus

io
]TD

Drugs used to control post partum hemorrhage are all

except:

POST NATAL PERIOD

After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta,

patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would
include all except:
March 2005
a. Check for placenta in uterus
b. Check for laceration of labia

baby weighing:

a. Pelvic Surgery
b. Obstructed labour
c. Tumours
d. Tuberculosis

Observation
Vacuum extraction
Forceps application
Immediate Caesarean

as

a. 1000 gm
b. 1500 gm
c. 2000 gm
d. 2500 gm

delivery

d. External cephalic version followed caesarean secfion

62. All are done in 3'd stage of labour except: March 2010
a. Injection of ergometrine
b. Cord clamping
c. Massage of uterus
d. lnjection of oxytocin

causes

birth weight baby is defined

Septembet 2.006

March 20L0

a. Spontaneous vaginal delivery

b. Elective caesarean section
c. External cephalic version and trial of

64.

of the above

67. Post
September 2009

a.
b.
c.
d.

Proionged bleeding

d. All

The average blood loss in normal delivery is:

Ideal management of

September 2005

Placental polyp

c. Puerperal sepsis

a. 250 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 750 ml
d. 1000 ml
61.

Retained placenta can lead to:

j{

',,4

:lo
tu,

Obstetrics

73. Percentage of scar dehiscence

segment caesarean section

in lower uterine

is:

September 2009

80. Commonest cause of ectopic

a. Previous tubal disease

c. 5-9"/"
74.

81.

More than 10%

1.0 cm/day

c. Methotrexate

1.25 cm/day

d.

L.5 cm/day

82.

2.0 cm/day

pHCG is highly elevated in both the forms of molar

preSnancy

b.

Classical svmptoms are only seen

c.

moles
The genotype is 46XX

tr$
F;:
IJJ I
Frt
(,):i

76.Exact number of weeks between last menstnral period

ILMPI and expected date of delivery [EDD]:

ir

tube:

il

i
:i 78.
,:i,
.,r!r:

d.
79.

Salpingocentesis

Misoprostol is indicated in all of the following except:

a. Postpartumhemorrhage
September 2005,2010

b.

c.
d.

Missed abortion
Induction of labour
Menorrhagia

March20ffi

d. Atonic uterus
All of the following

are associated
of acute hydrops fetalis except:

with pathogenesis
September 2009

a. Hypoproteinemia
b. Anemia
c. Hypoplasia of placental tissue
d. Metabolic acidosis

March 2005

Treatment for choice for fubal pregnancy with no

evidence of bleeding or rupfure:
September 2005
a. Salpingectomy
b. Salpingostomy
c. Observation

with twin pregnancy:

c. Antepartum hemorrhage
84.

a. Infundibulum
b. ampulla
c. isthmus
d. interstitium

,(

in majority of incomplete

a. Pre-eclampsia
b. Oligohydramnios

77.Most common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian

il
;i

complete

majority of complete moles

genotypes is 69XXY

83. Not associated

March 2005

a. 38 weeks
b. 39 weeks
c. 40 weeks
d. 41 weeks

:!:

i!

with

moles

MISCELLANEOUS

dl,'i
o.'li

March 2009

a.

d. The

()ltj
-.ij:

Misoprostol

all except:

Most common cause of post partum hemorrhage:

a. Trauma
b. Uterine atony
c. Tumours
d. Blood coagulopathy

'ii

Suction and evacuation

True regarding gestational trophoblastic neoplasia are

September 2009

U)ili

September 2007

a. Ethyl dacryryanate
b. Misoprostol + Mifepristone

Swtember 2009

75,

Method of termination of pregnancy in first trimester

are all of the following except:

Involution of uterus occurs at the rate of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 200?

b. Oral contraceptives
c. IUCD
d. Endometriosis

a. 0.1-2%
b. 2-5%
d.

pregnancy:

85.

If division of fertilized

egg takes place in between F8

days. It would give rise to which

pregnancy:

kind of twin
March 2009

a. Monochorionic/monoamniotic
b" Monochorionic/diamniotic
c. Dichorionic/monoamniotic
d. Siamese twins
86. Which of the

following is not a manifestation of

neonatal tetanus:

a" Irrritability
b. Hypotonia

c. Difficult feeding
d. Facial grimacing

September 20N

ESSMENT
GYNAECOLOGY (Questions)
d. IUCD

GYNAECOLOCY ANATOMY
1" The mucosal lining in vagina is composed of:

CYNAECOLOCY-INFECTION

March 2005

9. Gold

March2005

a. Transitional

Anti chlamYdial Ab

a.
b. LaParoscoPY
c. USG
d. Blood leucocYte

b. Ciliated columnar
c. Stratified squamous non keratinized
d. Pseudostratified columnar
2. Hormone responsible for ferning pattern of cervical

March 2007

mucus:

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. LH

b. Trichomanas vaginatis
c. Candidal I'aginitis
d. Gardenelia vaginitis

March2007

Commonest uterine anomalY is:

a. Uterus unicomis
b. Uterus bicomis
c. Uterus didelPhYs
d. SubsePtate uterus

L1.

d.

treatment of choice would

d. Abortions
6. Levonorgestrol containing IUCD

endometrium
d. Making cervical mucus thin
Teehnique of Cu-T insertion:

a. Surgery under local anaesthesia

b. Surgery under general anaesthesia
c" Pushing
d. LaparotomY

c. 'Condoms

c.

Estrogen+ Progestogen

d.

Estrogen
Sevtember 2006

March 2007

a. Teratoma
b. Brenner tumour

c. Fibroma

the

d.
14.

March 2010

March 2005

Meig's syndrome is associated with ovarian:

Prevents Pregnancy

c. tiiatit'tg inflammatory changes within

is:

be:

a. Total HYsterectomY
b. Progestron

13.

primarilY due to:

a. Making endometrium unrecePnve
b. Suppressing ovulation

8. Conventional contracePtion
a. OCP
b. Surgical sterilization

Gonococci

GYNAECOLOCY-ONCOLOGY
bleeding
12. A 46years old lady has abnormal uterine
The
endometrium'
of
with simple hyperplasia

2009
Pearl index is used to calculate: March' September
a. Accidental Pregnancies
b" PoPulation
c. FertilitY rate

7.

vaginalis

c. Candida

Contraceptive which is supplied by government free

SePtember 2006
of cost:

a. MiniPill
b. Norplant
c. Mala-N
d. Centchroman
5.

A female presented with thick white discharge and

September 2009
pruritus. aetiological agent fu:

a. Gardnerella
b. Trichomonas

CONTRACEPTIVES

4.

count

iikely to be
10. Which of the following condition is most
2009
September
:
4
of
vaginal
associated with
PH
a. AtroPhic vaginitis

d. Prolactin

3,

standard investigation in diagnosing PID is:

Theca cell tumour

Most com{non cervical carcinoma:

March 2007

a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Sarcoma

c. Squamous

cell carcinoma
carcinoma
cell
Small
d.
is highest with the
15. The risk of endometrial carcinoma
September 2006

of endometrial
following histological pattern
-

hyperplasia:

a. Simple hyperplasia n'ith atyPia

b. Simple hvperplasia without atypta

March

2A07

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

c.

c. Complex hyperplasia

with atypia
d. Complex hyperplasia without atyPia

16. Sensitivity of conventional PAP smear

in picking up
SEtember 2007

cervical cancer is:

Unicornuate uterus
Imperforate hYmen
September 2005
24. Estrogen deficiencY leads to:
a. PostmenoPausalbleeding
b. Decreased risk of cardiovascular diseases

d.

a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 90%
d. 100%

c. OsteoPorosis
d.

17. Not useful for diagnosis, in a female of 55 years

presenting with postmenopausal bleeding:

Dysmenorrhea
25. Hirsuitism is seen in all
a. AcromegalY

a. Transvaginal

b.
c.
d.
18.

26.

Endometrial carcinoma with vaginal metastasis,what

September 2009
FIGO stage would it be :

Laparoscopy is the diagnostic procedure of choice for:

a. Ca uterus
b. Ca cervix
c. Ca rectum
d. Endometriosis

;
1

hair.Condition is:

September 2009

20. Treatment of choice for choriocarcinoma:

SePtember 2009

a. Observation
b. HysterectomY
c. Chemotherapy with Methotrexate
d. RadiotheraPY

28.

Not seen in anorexia nervosa:

a.

$m

{o

September 2009

b.
c. Weight

d. Menorrhagia

September 2009

a. Stage II a
b. Stage II b
c. Stage III a
d. Stage III b
MISCELLANEOUS

Colposcopy is used to visualize all except: March 2405

a. Upper 2/3'd endocervix
b. Lower 1/3'd endoCervix
c. Lateral fornix
d" Vault of vagina
September 2005
23. Heamatocolpos is seen in:
a. Septate uterus
b. Bicomuate utems

September 2009

a. Full length of cervix

b. Competenry of os
c. FertilitY
d" Menstruation

a. Complete bed rest

b. Acidification of urine
c. Continuous bladder drainage
d. Antibiotic
31. Most important manifestation of ureterovaginal

a. Hydronephrosis
b. Overflow incontinence
c. Stress incontinence

.{

I
g

30. Most important part of post operative management of

September 2009
vesico vaginal fistula is:

fistula is:

*o
g

loss

in manchester operation:

io
i1io
*<

Osteoporosis
Refusal to feeds

29, Preserved

involving upper 2/3d of vagina'

The stage would be:

September 2009

:o
i<
2Z
t>

a. Tumer s}'ndrome
b. Mullerian agenesis
c. Premature ovarian failure
d. Testicular feminizing syndrome

b. Cervical metaPlasia
c. Microinvasive carcinoma
d. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia

22.

'i

27.78year old girl presented with primary amenorrhea,

normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary

Therapeutic conisation is indicated inl.

a. CIN IiI

21. Carcinoma cervix

'

March 2008

a. Stage III a
b. Stage III b
c. Stage III c
d. Stage IV a
19.

Septembet 2007 201-0

b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Arrhenoblastoma
d. PCOD

Seatember 2009

USG
Postcoital test
Pap smear
Endometrial bioPsY

except:

September 2009

Gynaecology

d.

Continuous incontenence
32. Methylene blue 3 swab test is done fot urinary
fistulae.source of leakage if the low-ermost slvab gets
stained:
a. Ureter

March 20L0

b. Urinary bladder
c. Urethra
d. None of the above
33.

lVhat is the most common complication after

March 2007
abdominal hYsterectomY:

a. Ureteral injury
b. Intestine dvsfunction
c. Urinary bladder atonY
d. Vaginal vault ProlaPse

34.

Hysterectomy is indicated in postpartum period fon

March 2007

a. Trvin Pregnancy
b. Endometriosis

c. Fibroid uterus
d. PPH not controlled

bY

artery
35. Gynaecomastia is seen

a.

in all

of intemal

except

iliac

September 2007

Spironolactone

b. HyPothYroidism
c. Klinefelters s)'ndrome
d. Cirrhotic liver diseases

j
;.-t*
.rt

:*

)
J

{
,l
4

IJ

.. ,.,q
;,ili
:$

IJJ

,':i

z
o

'

DERMATOLOGY (Questions)
8.

BACTERIAL INFECTION

1. Chancroid is caused by:

a. Herpes simplex virus
b. HPV

Septenrber

2005

c. T. paliidum
d. H.ducreyi
2. Which of the following

is associated with leprosy:

9.

As per IVHO recommendation, duration of treatment

September 2009
of multibacillary leprosy is:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
Most important in establishing diagnosis of leprosy
a,

a. Foamy historytes
b. Epitheliod cells
c. Noncaseatinggranulomas
d. All of the above
3. Incubation period of syphilis
a. 10-14 days
b. 30-60 days

is:

Septentber 2006

are commonly involved

FUNGAL INFECTION
1.0. A 40 yr old male has a rash over gtoin with
demarcated peripheral scaling and central clearing. It
Septentber 2005
could be due to:

a. Candidiasis
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Trichophyton
d. Aspergillosis

in

1L.

c. Brain
d. Liver

leprosy:

c. Histoplasmosis

More than 5 iesions on skin smears

d. All

d.
12.

Asmmetrical several nerves thickening with sevetal

hypoesthetic macules on skin indicates which stage
March 2009
of leptosy:
a. Borderlinelepromatous
b" Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Borderlineborderline
d. Borderline tubeculoid
7" Innumerable, small, normoesthetic and symmetrical
skin lesions are present in which type of leprosy:

6"

March 2009

None of the above

Fungus which affects hair is:

March 2009

a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

of the above

a. Borderlinelepromatous
b. Lepromatous
c" Borderline tubeculoid
d. Tuberculoid

September 2005

a. Candidiasis
b. Aspergillosis

SePtember 2006

b. Clofazimine is an important drug to be given

c. Treatment is to given for 12 months

'

Most common fungal infection in neutropenic patient

ls:

Which of the following is true for multibacillary

a.

Slit smear for AFB

Positive lepromin test

c.

disseminated gonococcal infection except:

September 2006
a. |oint and tendons
b. Skin

5.

Evidence of neural involvement

b. Hypopigmented patches

c. 9-90 days
d. 3-6 months
4. All of the following

March 2010

is:

SePtember 2005

13"

Kerion is:
a. Viral infection
b. Fungal infection
c. Bacterial infection

d.

March 2009

Parasitic inJection

PICMENTATION DISORDERS
14. Deereased number of melanocytes are seen in:
March 2005
a.

Pebaldism

b"

Albinism
Vitiligo

u-

All of the above

Dermatology

15.

l:;:
'
ffi

All of the following

are true regarding

albinism

Erythroderma is related with all of the following

23.

except:

March 2009

except:

a. Lepromatous

a. Autosomal recessive condition

b. Normal procluction of melanin

SePtember 2008

leProsY

'i

b. Psoriasis
c. Air-borne dermatitis
d. Sulfonamides
24.

Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with all of the

September 2008

following excePt:

a.
b.

Giuten sensitive enteroPathY

Enteral lymPhoma
c. Atrophic gastritis
d. Ulcerati're colitis
25. Most common type of pemphigus in India is:
Latest retinoid drug used in acne is:
a. Retinoic acid

b. CiindamYcin
c. Adapalane
d. Azelaic acid

o
o
J
o
F
=
E

18.

26.

True isomorphic phenomenon is not seen in:

a. Pterygium
b. Longitudnal
d.

b.
c. Vitiligo
d. Psoriasis

27.

September 2006

in:

Ashleaf sPots are seen in:

a. Psoriasis
b. Tuberous sclerosis
c" Multiple sclerosis

d.

Pemphigus vulgaris

a. Crusting

b. Silvery Scaling
c. Coarse bleeding
d.

Erythematous macules
29. Fir tree pattern lesion on trunk is seen in:
SePtentber 2009

March 2007, September 20L0

a. Psoriasis
b. Fungal infections
c. Vitiiigo
d. Melasma
22.

The following is an important feature of psoriasis:

SePtember 2009

a. DLE
b. SLE
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Reiter's sYndrome
Auspitz sign is seen

a.
b. Virus
c. Prion
d. Fungus
28.

Butterfly rash is associated with:

21.

a:

Bacteria

September 2006

a. Lichen Planus
b. Psoriasis
c. Vitiligo
d. Albinism
20.

Beau's lines
Causative agent of molluscum contagiosum is

SePtembet 2009

19. Silver plaques are a feature of:

grooves

c. Oncholysis

sclerosis

Lichen planus

ul

i
i

Nail deformity commonly sgen in lichen planus are

March 2009
all of the following excePt:

March 2005

a. Lichen

a. P.foliaceus
b. P.vulgaris
c. P.erythematosus
d. P.vegetans

March 2005

a. PemPhigoid
b. Psoriasis
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Pityriasis versicolor
30.

March 2007

Wickham's striae is

a. Psoriasis
b. Pityriasis rosea
c. Lichen Planus
d. Vitiligo

feature

of:

'rl

'{
,i1

September 2008

MISCELLANEOUS
17.

]{

September 2009'2010

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

31.

a.

Which of the following features are associated with

September 2009

a. Munro's micro-abscesses,

fir

tree appearence and

epidermal hyperplasia

Munro's

micro-abscesses, parakeratosis, and

epidermal hyperplasia
c. Munro's micro-abscesses, satellite pustules and
epidermal hyperplasia
d. Munro's micro-abscesses, wickham's striae and
epidermal hyperplasia
32. Salt and pepper dyschromatosis is seen in:
b.

a. Dermatofibrositis
b. Scleroderma
33.

34.

Infantile eczema
Papular urticaria
Which of the following is the histological feature of
March 2010
pemphigus;

a.
b.
c.
d.

Acanthosis
Colloid bodies
Acantholysis
Basal cell degeneration

September 2009
35.

Drug of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis:

March 20L0

c. SLE
d.

Tinea cruris

b. Scabies

Psoriasis

A child presented with complaint of severe itching

over the web of fingers, more at night. Examination
revealed burrows. Most probable diagnosis is:
Sevtember 2009

a. Rifampicin
b. Thalidomide

c. Dapsone
d. Clofazimine

g
m

v
=
{

o
ro
o

- '-*;

-re:: iF

SCREEN

ANAESTHESIA (Questions)
7.

RECIONAL ANAESTHESIA

1.

All of the following are induction agents except:

Epidural anaesthesia is preferred over spinal

anaesthesia because:

a.
b.

a. Thiopental
b. Halothane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Propofol

Prolonged duration of effect

Cheaper

c. Less incidence of intravascular

d.

Sentenfuer 2007

September 2006

injection

Less incidence of epidural hematoma

8.

following is true:

SYSTEMIC ANAESTHESIA

2.

a.
b.

Srytternbcr 2005,2q10

c. Pancuronium

Diazepam
Ketamine

9. Which of the following

a. Ketamine
b. Diazepam
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Thiopentone

3. Nirous oxide is contraindicated in all of the following

September 2006

except:

surgeries

b. Pneumothorax
c. Patient in shock
d.

4.

10. Pin index of orygen is:

Tympanoplasties

b. 1,5
c. 2,5
d. 3,5
L1.

\ffoman was posted for emergency

September 2006

a. Cricoid pressure is applied n'hile intubating

b. Isoflurane should not be used as it causes placental
insufficienry

c.

CS is done to prevent fetal distress and meconiumm

aspiration

d. Cord clamping to be done after a few minutes

6. Anaesthetic of choice in asthma patients: March
a. Halothane
b. Thipentone

c, Ketamine
d. Fentanyl

Laughing gas is:

March 2005

a. Ketamine
b. Nitric oxide
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Methane

caesarean section. Correct statements are all of the

following except-

March 2005

a. 0,5

Which of the following anaesthetic agent also has

September 2006
anti-emetic property:

5. A multigravida

MISCELLANEOUS

a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone
c. Propofol
d. Nitrous oxide
,

is the best induction agent:

Septenfuer 2009

Sevoflurane

a. Volvulus

should be avoided in renal disease

d. Depolarizing blocking dmgs shorvs no fasciculations

c. Propofol
d.

March 2009

a. Neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine

b. Atracurium is a depolarizing agent

Short acting anesthetic agent used for day care surgery

1S:

Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the

12.

All of the following

induction

are used for intravenous

except:

March 2005

a. Bupivacaine
b. Thiopentone
c. Ketamine
d. Etomidate
13, Incorrect statement about orygen storage is:
September 2006

2007
a.

Pressure is 2,000 pounds per square inch

b. Acceptable

d.

pvrity is 99c/a

CommorLly used rylinders on anaesthesia machine

are of type E
Blue rylinder with orange collar

Anaesthesia

14.

ti

Which of the following is not widely used in

September 2006
cardiopulmonary resuscitation:
a. Adrenaline

d. Abductor
17.

it

a.
b.

c. Xiphoid Process
d. 2 fingers left to xiphoid process
16. Which of the following is the most common
March 2009
complication related to intubation:
a. Bleeding
b. MalPosition

Contraindication of bag and mask ventilation are all

March 2009

a. Tracheo-esoPhageal fistula
b. Hiatus hemia
c. PregnancY
d. EmptY stomach

March 2009

Lower third of stemum'

Junction of body and manubrium stemi

ParalYsis

of the following excePt:

b. Calcium
c. Atropine
d. VasoPressin
15. Site for external cardiac massage is:

c. Sore throat

18.

Drug of choice for sedation of

patient in ICU is:

September 2009

a. DiazePam

b. LorazePam
c. Propofol
d. Alprazolam

ESSM

sc
N

PSYCHIATRY (Questions)
PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER
1. Chronic use of anti-psychotic drug can lead to:

9. Drugs used for treating schizophrenia are chiefly:

March 2010

a.
b. Antidepressant
c. Antihistaminics
d. Antipsychotic

SePtember 2006

Antimaniac

a.
b.

2.

Orthostatic hYPertension
Parkinsonism
c. Tardive dyskinesia
d. All of the above
Benzodiazepine overdose in a patient presenting with
March 2010
coma, is treated by:
a. Protamine
b. Flumazenil

MOOD DISORDERS
10.

except:

are true for Korsakoff's psychosis

March 2010

Suicidal tendency is associated

11.

severe manifestation of alcohol

withdrawl

March20-l-0

syndrome:
a. Wemicke's encePhaloPathY
b. Delirium tremens

c. Seizures
d. Aloholic

Catatonia is a tyPe of :
a. Schizophrenia
b. Phobia
c. Depression
d. OCD
5. Delusion is a disorder of:

13.

7. Most common type of schizophrenia is:

a. Paranoid
b. Simple
c" Catatonic

September 2009

following:

a. Schizophrenia
b. Severe dePression
c. Borderline personality
d. All of the above

disorder

CHILD PSYCHIATRY
14. Drug of choice for attention deficit disorder with
September 2009
hyperactivity is:

a. ChlorPromazine
b. Clonidine
c. Imipramine
d. Methylphenidate

March 2009

Undifferentiated
Which of the following is the drug of choice for

d" Flupentixol

March 2007

Ftequent suicidal tendencies are seen in which of the

September 2007

b. Chlorpromazine
c. Clozapine

mood:

Estimation of serum levels is important for which of

September 2009
the following drug:
HaloPeridol
a.

September 2407

a. Thinking
b. Memory
c. Perception
d. Leaming

medication-resistantschizophrenia:
a" Haloperidol

A 40 year old man with elevated

b. BenzodiazePines
c. Lithium
d. ChlorPromazine

SCHIZOPHRENIA

8.

12.

hallucinosis

5.

September 2005

a. Schizophrenia
b. Mania
c. Depression
d. Hysteria

a. Organic amnestic s1'ndrome

b. Loss of insight
c. Deficienry of ryanocobalamin
d. It may follow Wemicke's encephalopathy
4. Most

with:

a. Depression
b. Schizophrenia
c. Impulsive disorder
d. Ail of the above

c. Coumarin
d. Midazolam
3. All of the following

1(

September2009

15.

September 2009

True regarding autism is:

a. A metabolic disorder

b. Caused due to teratogenic drugs

c. Impaired reciprocal social
d.

interaction
Neurodevelopmental disorder

and

interpersonal

Self Assessment & Review OF FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

NEUROTIC DISORDERS
16.

March, 2005, September 2009

a. Sertraline
b. Alprazolam
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Fluoxetine
17.

21.

d.

Fear of closed spaces

September 2005

Acute anxiety
Chronic anxiety

22.

shortest acting

Wilhelm Reich

September 2005

Neurofibrillary tangles are associated with:

)nno

l.:

Spread

,:i
:j..

Spike

:r

Presently, classification of psychiatric illness is done it

bv:
by,
March 2009 :..,
a. DSM-IV-TR
b. ICD-10
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
24. Organic cause for erectile dysfunction is most

commonly:

a. Bipolar disorder
b. Alzheimer's disease

a.
b.

Psychological
Vascular

c. Neuronal

c. Schieophrenia

d. Hormonal

infarctions

25.

Illusion is:

September 2007

not keeping one's sociao-

cultural background
Perception without stimuli

..4:

23.

March 2007

a. A false unshaken belief

^Inr.L

d. Divert

a. Diazepam
b. Lorezepam
c. Midazolam
d. Alprazolam

b.

Sigmond Freud

Which of the following is a method of breaking bad

b.
c.

benzodiazepine:

d. Multiple

John Broadus Watson

Carl Gustav |ung

news:
a. Burst

Chronic depression

Which of the following is

The term'psychoanalysis' is associated with:

b.
c.
d.

MISCELLANEOUS

20.

d.

March 2009

c. Acute depression

19.

Abnormal perception by a sensory misinterpretation

of actual stimulus

a.

Panic attack is:

a.
b.

18.

c.

Drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

In EEG, alpha wave denotes:

a. REM sleep
b. Awake and eye closed
c. Sleep with eyes closed
d. Mental activity

September 20A9

and mind wandering

o
o

RADIODLA-GNO SIS (Questions)

8. Minimum fluid collection required for radioiogical

GENERAL PRINCIPLE

1. Filament in X-ray
a. Molybdenum
b. Tungsten

machine is made up

of:

detection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view

March 2005

is:

c. Strontium
d.

2. Who discovered X-rays:

a. Roentgen
b. Curie
c. Becquerel
d. Gray
3. Roentgen is the unit of:
a. Radioactivity
b. Radiation exposure
d.

c. J5 ml
d. 45 ml

Silver

c. Absorbed

September 2007

ABDOMINAL

9. Double Bubble sign on abdominal

March

2010
10.

dose

d.
11.

CT scan

Initial investigation for an amoebic liver

a. USG
b. Exploratory laparotomy

presents with the clinical features of

interstitial lung disease. How will you confirm the
diagnosis:

c. CTscan
d.

September 2007,2010

a. CT scan
b. X-Ray
c. Bronchoscopy
d, MRI

12. Investigation of choice

c.

d. Pulmonary artery
7. Investigation of choice for bronchiectasis

13.

is:
September 2009

V-P scan

patient brought with

March 2005

CT scan

d. MRI scan

September 2008,2010

Right atrium
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava

in

traumatic paraplegia:
a. Plain X-ray
b. Myelography

cardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except:

c. CTscan

Technetium-99 scan

MUSCULOSKELETAL

5. All of the following are seen on the right side of the

a. Chest X-ray
b. MRI

abscess is

Sntember 2009

Coarctaation of aorta

5. A patient

d.

September 2009

c. ELISA

September 2006

d. All of the above

c.

Gold standard investigationdor diagnosing cystic

a. USG
b. X-ray

a. ASD
b. PDA

a.
b.

Marclr 2005

echinococcus is:

None of the above

Rib notching is a feature of:

c.

skiagram is

suggestive of:
a. Ileal atresia
b. Anorectal malformation
c. Bladder calculi
d. Duodenal Atresia

THORAX

4.

September 2009

a. 15 ml
b. 25 ml

White line of Frenkel is seen in:

September 2008

a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Scurvy
d. Beri-Beri
14.

Which of the following is the radiological features of

September 2008
rickets:
a. Frenkel line
b. Narrowing of epiphysis

c. Metaphyseal
d.

Pelikan spur

cupping and splaying

Radiodiagnosis

,U.

Ouaio".tive isotope of which of the following is used

i"

bone

scans:

19.

SePtember 20A9,2070

Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the

following

$
* c. Technetium
$ d. Gallium

c. Aplastic anemia
d.

is not a radiological feature of

$ fO. Whi.tt of the following
March 20L0
rickets:

a.
b.

MetaPhYseal cuPPing

d.

Triradiate Pelvis

20.

b. X-ray abdornen-suPine view

c. Left lateral decubitus with horizontal
d. Left lateral view with vertical beam

srur-l

i tz. nrrat ganglia calcification

$ f"ttowing except:
$ a. HypoParathYroidism
$ b. HypothYroidism
_* .. HyperparthYroidism
gi d. Acromegaly
.:
I$
l*.
:$
$
t;:

it

$
$

x
$

i*
il$:
#3:

&h
s.'i

ffii
::.lti

*?g

F+j

i:;il
**li1r

:ii';

;*i;
t:,

is seen in all of the

a.
b.

Frontal sinus
Ethmoidal sinus

c. Sphenoid sinus
a. Maxillary

sinus

is:

21.

March 2007

Septenfuer 2005

beam

Which one of the following is the preferred route for

March 2009
performing cerebral angiograPhY:

a. Transfemoral route
b. Transbrachial route

c. Transradial route
d. Transaxillary route

Pu.".t"tal sinus which can be visualized best on a

occipito-frontal view

Which of the following is the best view for visualizing

minimal pneurnoPeritoni um:a. X-ray abdomen-erect vieil'

:t

18.

Thalassemia

MISCELLANEOUS

:l
I'hyseal widening
:: c. Frenkel's line

il

March 20L0, September 2010

a. G-6-PD deficienry
b. Sickle cell anemia

i " Phosphorous
b. Iodine

-:

excePt:

22.

USG finding in chronic renal disease may be:

March 2009

September 2009

a. Enlarged kidneY
b. Noral kidneY
c. ShrunkenkidneY
d. All of the above

RADIOTHERAPY (Questions)
RADIOSENSITIVITY OF TISSUES
L. Most radiosensitive organ is:

9. Which of the following radio of Iodine

March 20AS

a. Liver
b. Fat
c. Bone marrow
d. Nervous tissue
2. Which of the following

is the most radiosensitive

March 2008

tissue:

thyroid

THERAPEUTIC
10. Element most commonly used

3. Which of the following is a harmful:

a. Alpha particle
b. Gamma particle
c. Neutron
d. Electron
March 2009
4" Most radiosensitive cell is:
a. NeutroPhil
b. Lymphocyte
c. MegakarYocYte
d. Basophil
5. Radioactivity acts on which phase of cell cycle:

d.
11.

March 2009

a. I'123
b. I-131
.

t-1?.)

d. All have equal half life

12.

Radiotherapy is most useful in which of the

following:

March 2010

a. Choriocarcinoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Seminomas
d. Renal cell carcinoma

GI
G2

Cesium

lVhich of the following has longer half life:

March 2010

MISCELLANEOUS

c.M
d.s

13.

Radium emits which of the following radiations:

SePtember 2007,2010

a.

DIACNOSTIC

Gamma raYs
Alpha raYs

b.
c. Beta raYs

Radiation exposure occurs in all of the following

September 2005

except:
a. CT scan
b. MRI scan

d. All of the above

14.

c. Fluoroscopy
d. X-ray
doesn't produce radiation

hazardz

Septenfuu 2006

a. MRI
b. Doppler USG
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
8.

Mnrch 2005

c. Nitrogen
March 2A09

7. Which of the following

in brachytherapy of

carcinorna cervix:
a. Carbon
b. Technetium

a.
b. I'ancreas
c. Gonads
d. Uterus

6.

SePtenfuer 2008

a, l-123
b. r-125
c. I-127
d. I-131

Adrenal

a.
b.

scan:

is used for

Gamma camera is used for:

a. Mesuring the radioactivitY

b. Radionuclide scans
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

Amount of radioactivity absorbed by body is

measured bY:
a. Curie
b. I{oentgen

March 2010

c. Rad
d.

Rem

safe
15. Maximum dose of radiation which is considered
March 2010
is:
for human in a
Year

September 2007

a. 5 Rads
b. 10 Rads

c.

15 Rads

d.

20 Rads

September 20L0 Questions

5. True about

cardiac muscles are all except:

Se1ttentber 2007, SePtenfuer 2010

L.

2.

Which of the following artery is present in

September 2010
anatomical snuff box:
a. Anterior interosseous artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Radial artery
d. Ulnar artery
September 2010
Peyels patches are present in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

3. I{hich of the following

nerve does not supply

submandibular gland:
a" Lingual nerve

4.

b.
c.
d.

Chorda tympa.i
Sympathetic plexus

a.
b.
c.
cl.

T2
T3
T4

September 2010

Auriculotemporalnerve
Arch of aorta begins and ends at which level:
September 201.0

Property o{ spontaneous and rhythmic contraction

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pelvic

Cardiac muscle exhibits cross striations

Cardiac muscle cells are linear and longitudinal.
Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nerve
fibers
6. Commonest position of appendix:
September 2007, SePtember 2010

Duodenum
jejunum
Ileum
Stomach

a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

Retrocaecal
Subcaecal

Promontoric
Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube while

sneezing:
a. Tensor veli palatini
b. Levator veli palatini
c. None of the above :r
d. Both A and B
8. Safety muscle of tongue is:
a" Styloglossus
b. Genioglossus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Hyoglossus

a.
b.
c.
d.

9.

September 201.0
Which of the following is true:
anion
in
organic
rich
Fluid
is
a. ExtraCellular
b. ECF is more than IntraCellular Fluid
c. High sodium to potassium ratio is seen in ECF
d. ECF is potassium ion rich
September 2010
10. Haldane effect is defined as:
a. Important mechanism meant for oxygen transPort
in the body
b. Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin increases
capacity for carbon dioxide
c" Deoxygenation of blood increases capacity for

carbon dioxide

All of the above

11. Hypocalcemia results in

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mmch 2009, September 2010

r5

12. Iron binding protein

d.

March 2005, Septembet 2010

September 2070

Absent tendon reflexes

Shortened QT interval in ECG
Reduced excitability of nerves and muscle cells
Tetany

is

Septenrbet 201'0

Ferritin
Ferroportin
Transferrin

Hephaestin

13. Platelets ate stored at what temperature:

a.
b.
c.
d.
14.

September 2014

20 degree Celsius
15 degree celsius
10 degree celsius
5 degree celsius

The hormone which helps in milk secretion:

September 2008, SePtember 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Oxytocin
Growth hormone
FSH

Prolactin

by:

March 2009, September 2010

a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
b. Noradrenergic mediated sympathetic activity
c" Noradrenergic mediated parasympathetic activity
d. Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activify

15. Sweating is mediated

September 201 0 (Questions)

16.

Ol'ulation is due to surge of:

c. Prolactin
d. TSH

Septenrber 2006,201-0

a. FSH
b. LH

chain acYl22. Which is involved in transport of long

2010
SePtember
CoA in mitochondria:

a.
b.
c.
d.

co-factor:
t7. Xanthine Oxidase is associated with which

a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Selenium
d. Molybdenum

18. Codor,, are present

a.
b.
c.
d.

SePtember 2010

in:

r-NA

DNA
19. Which of the following is found
HartnuP's disease Pateints:

in urine in

SePtember 2010

Omithine
CYstine

ClYcine
by phosphofructokinase:
20. Which element is required
^

a. Magnesium
b" Inorganic PhosPhate
c. Manganese
d. CoPPer

2L. Adipocytes use which of following:

SePtember 2010

Septemher 2010

GLUT1
GLUT2
GLUT3
GLUT4

by which type
zz. ACTH type of substance is produced
of lung malignancY
t.
,a;
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
ti
b. Small cell lung carcinoma

ii
:'t;:.

.1r

c.
d.

Large cell carcinoma

Oat cell carcinoma
ot
li 28. Which of the following is not a feature
ifi
megaloblastic anaemia:
lfi:
a. ThrombocYtoPenia
b" MegakaryocYtes

;.'t

;i:
tr:
.'i.i.:

,..,.l-

Camitine

Albumin
September 2005,201'0

deficient in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

LYsine

a.
b.
c.
d.

Uric

Methionine

Both
None of the above
is:
24. Final product of purine metabolism
2010
SePtermber
March 2010,

PhenYalanine

a.
b.
c.
d.

Xanthine

23. Pulses are

Septenfuer 2010

m-RNA
I-RNA

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ornithine

25.

acid

Creatinine
Xanthine
PhoshPhates

Northern blotting technique is used for

of:
a.
b.
c.
d.

tle

separation

March 2005' SePtember 2010

DNA
Protein

RNA

Protein DNA interaction

blood' as it inhibit:
25. Sodium fluoride is added to
Mar ch 201'0,

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hexokinase
Glucokinase

c.
d.

Reticulorytosis

a"
b.
c.
d.

APical cavitY
Ghon's focus
ParatrachealtYmPhadenoPathY
Heal sPontaneouslY bY fibrosis

SePtemb er

2010

Glucose-6-PhosPhatase
Enolase

Howell-jolleYbodies
of the foliowing is not a feature of prirnary
Which
29.
tuberculosis:

SO. FriaUte

the

a.
b"
c.
d.

b,'tty

".ra
following:

""gut"iiotrs

Infective endocartitis
Libman sack's endocartitis
Rheumatic fever
All of the above

are seen

in which of

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

31.

Which of the following is the first symptom of iron

deficiency anemia:
a. Low iron concentration in blood

b.
c.
d.

c.
d.
38.

Reduced hemoglobin
Reduced PCV

32. Lacunar cells is seen in which type of Hodgkins

39.

Lymphoma
a. Mixed cellularity tyPe
b. Lymphocytepredominant
c. Nodular Sclerosis TYPe
33.

All of the above

Which of the following is not

a featute of red

infarction:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Venous occlusion
Occurs in organs having dual circulation
Occurs in solid organs
Occurs in previously congested tissues

34. Most common lung cancer in non-smokers

35.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

a.
b.
c.
d.

Microrytosis

is:

Oat cell carcinoma

None of the above

Sickle cell anemia is characterized by:
Macrorytosis
Splenomegaly
Autosplenectomy

36. Which of the following is ultrastructural feature of

irreversible cell iniury:

a.
b.

Formation of PhagolYsosomes
Formation of amorphous densities in the

c.
d.

mitochondrial matrix
Formation of blebs in plasma membrane
Detachment of ribosomes from rough
endoplasmic reticulum

37. Lobar pneumonia is caused

a.
b.

Staphylococcusaureus
Klebsiella

bY:

40.

Accumulation of beta-amyioid protein

None of the above

Chalcosis is deposition of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

d.

Pseudomonas

Pathology of Alzeheimer's disease is:

a. Defecienry of cholinergic action
b. Excess action of dopamine

c.
d.

Reduced ferritin

Streptococcuspnuemonlae

.."'l
,,

,t, t'.,, . i
.iii.;.'r '{

Iron

i1:;i-!

Calcium

ir

Copper

Lead
Christmas disease is due to deficiency of
a. Deficiency of factor IX
b. Deficiency of factor X
c. Deficiency of factor XI
d. Deficiency of factor XII

',a
.m
-g

,,

{
m
1=
is:
41. Biomarker to rise earliest hr myocardial infarction
H
March 2010
V
a. Troponin-I
IXI
^
b. Creatine kinase-MR
|6
!:r.l
c. Myoglobin
!O
d. froponin-f
42. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are numerous .6
SePtember 2009
in:
C
a. M2
:fm
b. M3
ig')
c. M4
i:,{
;t
d. M5
the
43. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of
,'Y
tvtarch 2010
following excePt:
6
a. Hematuria
b. Edema
i:'
c. Hypertension
d. Massive proteinuria
iil,
March 2070
is caused by:
Bysinnosis
44.
",1,. ,:
:,1.,1.i
a. Bagasse
b. Mold hay
:r .: : :
c. Cotton
..1.. ,: .,..:
d. Bird droPPings
... ,,
': ..: ' ',,'
,'

1:'

.,:

'-^.r

-,...

l.

:'.'. .t.'.,
,,1.., , '.',i.:
-,r-,.i
-. .,r
-

_lr'

:'.

'

:.:].'

:'

:j:

September 201 0 (Questions)

49. Which of the following has opsonins on its surface:

15. VDRL is a tyPe of:
a. brdirect hemagglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Gel PreciPitation test
d. None of the above
46. Confirmatory test for Syphilis is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgA

September 2010

50.

a.
b.
c.
d.

\'DRL
Rapid plasma reagin test
FT-ABS

Earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by foetus

September 20L0
in response to infection:

a.
b.
c.
d.

IgA
IgE

IgM

IgG
antibody test is done for:
Heterophile
48.

51.

PneumocYstiscarinii

ClostridiumDifficile
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus Pneumoniae

Travelle/s diarrhea is caused due to:

SePtenfuer 2009,2010

a. EIEC
b. EPEC
c. ETEC
d. EHEC
52. Pneumatocoele

SePtember 2014

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:

SePtember 2005,20L0

September 20L0

A1l of the above

Rickettsialinfections
Infectiousmononucleosis
SmallPox
japaneseencePhalitis

SePtember29l)

is most commonly caused by:

Sevtember 2005,201.0

a.
b.
c.
d.

StrePtococcusPneumoniae
Klebsiella

HemoPhilusinfluenzae
staPhYlococcusAureus

56. Nevirapine belongs to:

JJ.

Furosemide mechanism of action in LVF is:

SePtember 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Inhibitor of Na-K-Cl ion symport

Aldosteroneantagonist

Carbonic anhYdrase inhibitor

Side effects of glucocorticoids are all of the following

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2010

Hlpoglycemia
Cataract

SePtember 20-1'0

RifamPicin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

INH

SePtember 2010

a.
b"
c.
d.

Cyclo oxYgenase
LipooxYgenase
PhosPholiPase

None of the above

58. Metoprolol is preferred over Propranolol as it:

Psychoses
OsteoPorosis

55. Antitubercular drug which is least hepatotoxic:

a.
b.
c.
d.

None of the above

57. Which of the following is inhibited by Aspirin:

Mercurialderivative

except

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2010

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

Protease inhibitor
Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

SePtember 2010

a.
b"
c.
d.

Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors

Is more Potent in blocking beta-2 receptors
Is more effective in suppressing essential tremors

ImPairs exercise caPacitY

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

59"

54. Contents of Ringels lactate are all except

Mechanism of action of Telmisartan is:

Seutember 2010

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Blocks alpha adrenergic receptors

AT-2 receptor antagonist
Blocks 4'T-L receptors
Mast cell stabilizer
60. Beta2 adrenergic receptots are not found on:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Chioride ion
Bicarbonate ion
65. Drug of choice for parorysmal supraventricular
tachycardia is:

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Veins

61. W-trich of the following is used for treatment of

hypercholestremia:

a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is not true regarding

carbimazole:
Seotember 20L0
a. Safely used in pregnanry
b. More potent than propylthiouracil
c. Single daily dose administration
d. Does not inhibit peripheral conversion of T-4 to

63. Which

Adenosine

Diltiazem

sulfonylureas is:

March 2008, September 2010

a. Increased peripheral utilization of glucose

b. Reduce hepatic glucose output
c. Act on SIIRI receptors on pancreatic beta cell

Thiamine

Increased drainage of aqueous

None of the above

March 20L0. Swtember 2007A 2U0

Digoxin
Propranolol

66. True statement regarding mechanism of action of

Septenfuer 2010

Biotin
Pyridoxine
Nicotinic acid
62. Acetazolamide decreases intraocular nressure bv
what mechanism:
September 2010
a. Decreases aqueous humor production
b. Decreases vitreous volume

c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Arterioles
Adipose Tissue
Uterus

Sodium ion
Potassium ion

d.

tm
],7
t{

.!fll
.

membrane

Transcription of genes regulating glucose

metabolism

67. Anti-hypertensive drug contraindicated in

Pregnancy rs:

':cn

September 2005, 2010 March 2007

a.
b.
c.
d.

'.

[P

:,i

rTl

;rv
iiN

Hydralazine
Methyldopa
itl
Enalapril
liiO
Amiodopine
68. Which of the following drug causes gynecomastia:
a. Cimetidine
Septemher 2008, 2010 irC
,im
b. Ranitidine

c.
d.

iio
;i^

to
,iclt

Omeprazole
Famotidine

i:{

r6
;LZ

T-3

,!:Cf)

69. Arsenic poisoning mimics which disease:

71,.

a.
b.
c.
d"

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Acute cholerystitis
Cholera
Dhatura poisoning
Morphine poisoning
70" Mechanism of action of cyanide poisoning:
Seotember 2010

a.
b.
c.
d"

Inhibits protein breakdown

Inhibits DNA synthesis
Inhibits protein syntheisi
Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450

Cobra venom is primarily:

72.

t.

Musculotoxic
Neurotoxic
Cardiotoxic

-r

,:

t.,..:ii'.1
::-1 . '-a ,
,

,:, ... ,,
..'., ". t"'

Hematotoxic

Rape is defined under:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 201.0

IPC 375
rPC376
IPC377
IPC 378

September 2010

,..'-:

i,

' .',.'-'' i,'

':.

, .'-"'

,i;',
ii'.

ir

'

:.;,
i,

i'

September 201 0 (Questions)

73. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the

following:

a.
b.
c.
d.

74. Sweating

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septentber 2010

Arsenic poisoning
Kerosene poisoning

OrganophosphorusPoisoning

Sinus not present at birth

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2010

Heat exhaustion
Heat fatigue
Heat rash
Heat Stroke

Dhatura poisoning
77.

75.

does not occur in:

is/are:

Septenfuer 2010

Maxillary
Ethmoidal

Frontal
All of the above
76. What is rhinophyma:
September 2010
a. Hypertrophy of sweat glands
b. Hypertrophy ofsebaceous glands
c. Hypertrophy of meibomian glands
d. Hypertrophy of lacrimal gland

Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part

September 2009,2070
of the semi circular canals:
a. Lateral
b. Posterior

c.
d.

Anterior

All of the above

78. All of the following are true about glomus-jugulare
March 2010, Septenfuer 2010
tumor except:
a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodes
b. Pulsafile tinnilus and cd-rductive deafness seen
c. Most commonly affects male

d.

Paraganglioma's

83. Which of the following mydriatic does not have any

cycloplegic effect:

79. Melanoma of choroid spreads most commonly to:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lungs

September 20L0

Kidneys
Adrenals

Liver

80. Which of the following is not a feature of

occulomotor nerve

a.
b.
c.
d.

palsy:

Proptosis
Ptosis
85.

:.,1',:
a ..:),:l
.

':::a.a:

Extemal hordeolum
Internal hordeolum
Chalazion
Stye

Cocaine

85.

Lens induced glaucoma

Closed angle glaucoma

Iridoryclitis

Chorioretinitis
Cherry red spot is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2010

82. Chronic, sterile inflammation of meibomian gland is

September 2010
seen ln:

Tropicamide
Atropine

September 2410

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mydriasis
Absent papillary reflex

a. Timolol
b. Physostigmine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Atropine

September 2010

Phenyephrine

84. Cycloplegics are used for the treatment of:

September 2010

81. Drug which is not used in glaucoma:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 201.0

CRVO
CRAO
Eale's disease

Retinitispigmentosa
September 2010
What is epiphora:
a. Everted upper eyelid following surgery
b. CSF running through nose after injury
c. Abnormal flow of tears due to obstructed lacrimal
duct
d" CSF mnning through ears after injury

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screeninq Examination

87, Keratometermeasures

a.
b.
c.

Thickness of cornea
Radius of cornea
Curvature of cornea

d.

Depth of posterior chamber

Septenfuer 2010

Septenfuer 2010

88. Grave's ophthalmopathy mostly presents

as:

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Keratoconjuctivitissicca
Rheumatoidarthritis
Epiphora

Autoimrnune in nature

92.Characteristicfeatureofdiabeticretinopathy:

Proptosis
Ptosis
Reduced intraocular tension
lncreased power of convergence

89. Which of the following is malignant intraocular

tumor of children:

Srytembcr 20L0

a.
b.
c.
d.
90.

91. Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except:

Retinoblastoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Melanoma
Chloroma
Single drug used for treatment of trachoma is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2005, 2010 March

:,,

Soft exudate

Ambylopia
Microaneurysm

93. Common cause of sudden blindness

diabetic female is:

a. Glaucoma
b. Vitreous defects
c. Papilledema

d.

2007'

Hard exudate

5c1,

| 11 1,

1t

r,

a
m

in a young
201)9. St

1,

tot

rtte

2010

'g
-.{

Cataract

'w
=

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Tetracyclin
Doxycycline

|TI

fi

.,N

Azithromycin

Chloramphenicol

,.A
98. Housemaid's knee
following:

94. Gower's sign is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.
95.

Guillain-Barreslmdrome
Duchhene Muscular Dystrophy

All of the above

Looser's zone is present in
a. Multiple myeloma

b.
c.
d.

September 2010

Congenital myopathy

September 20'L0

Osteomalacia

Calcaneocuboidloint
TalanovicrrlarJoint
Talocalcaneal |oint
Tibiotalar Toint

September

bursa
bursa
Prepatellar bursa

the

2010'.O

Olecranon

' ffl

lnfrapatellar

'V,

' " Dursa

{
ttrsa
o- )uDacromlal
99. In spinal fuberculosis, the commoner route of spread,. Q

Pseudoparathyroidism
Osteoporosis
September 2010
96. What is Neurapraxia:
a. Complete division of nerve
b. Loss of conduction due to axonal interruption
c. Irreversible injury
d" Reversible physiological nerve conduction block
97. Triple arthrodesis does not involve September 2010

a.
b"
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.

is bursitis of which of

is:
a. Direct spread
b. Blood
c. Lymphatics
d. All of the above

100. Tuberculosis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septentber

2010';:17
,A
t:-l

in Pott's disease involves:

Hip Joint
Knee Joint
Spine

Wrist Joint

101. Aseptic necrosis is common

in:
March 2007, Septenfuer 2a70

a.
b.
c.
d"

Scaphoid
Calcaneum

Cuboid
Trapezium

September 201 0 (Questions)

102.

tn nephrotic syndrome,which infection is more

September
conrmoner in children:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cellulitis
Pneumonia

UTI
BacterialPeritonitis

103. 10 vear old

child with mental

age

a.
b.
c.
d.

of 2 years

will

20

70

Ebsteins anomalY
None of the above

105. Which of the

following is false about Wilm's tumon

SePtembet 2010

109. Plasma levels of hCG during pregnancy doubles

SePtembet 2010

every:
a. DailY

b.
c.
d.

2days
4 days
6 days

hCG is secreted bY:

a. CytotroPhoblast
b. Chorionic villi

c.
d.

111.

None of the above

'''

with which of

the

Se7tember 20L0

Rubella

Varicella

HIV
following is a part of lochia:

Red blood

cells

Decidual membranes

10E.

September 2010

Axillary hairs
malnutrition is:
September 2010

Weight for age

Weight forheight

All of the above

Physiological iaundice in

tegr baby lasts upto:

March2005

a.
b.
c.
d.

4days

c.
d.

Cervical mucus

SePtember 20L0

7 days
10 daYs
14 daYs

All of the above

L13. Folic acid is given during which trimestet of

Septembo 20L0

Pregnanclr:

a.
b.
c.
d.

First
Second

Third
ThroughoutPregnancy

114. Which of the

following is true regrading hCG:

SePtember 20L0

CMV

112. Which of the

a.
b.

Septembet 2010

SynrytiotroPhoblast

Teratogenic effects are rare

following infections:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

50

c.
d"

110"

d.

107. Best index for chronic

Height for age

30

Figure of 8 in chest X-ray is suggestive o*

Septembu 201'0
a. TOF
b. TAPVC

Presents before the age of 5 years

Mostly presents as abdominal mass
Spreads mostlY bY lYmPhatics

ResPonds well to treatment

sign of sexual maturity in boys is:
First
106.
a. Increase in height
b. Increase in facial hairs
c. Testicularenlargement

have

September 20L0

an IQ level of:

104.

2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

SePtembu 2010

a.
b.
c.

Half-life is around 7 daYs

Low levels are seen in hydatidiform mole
HCG can be detected as early as 8-9 days after

concePtion.
All of the above
115. Pregnant lady presents with futminant hepatitis'
Most Common Cause: March2005, September 20L0
a. HePatitis D
b. HePatitis E
c. HePatitis B
d. HePatitis A

d"

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

115. Fetal adrenals release which honnone

117. Misoprostol is indicated

predominantly:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

March 2009, September 201,0

Oestrogen
Testosterone

Aldosterone
Cortisone

All of the following are side effects of Oral

Contraceptive Pills except
September 20L0
a. Thromboembolism
b. Liver disease
c. Ovarian fumor
d. Breast Carcinoma
119. Featutes of Bacterial vaginosis are all of the

118.

following except:

a.
b.

Menorrhagia

c.
d.

Clue cells
It is sexually transmitted
120. Menstrual regulation is done upto:
a. 35 days of Amenorrhea
b. 42 days of Amenorrhea
c. 49 days of Amenorrhea
d. 56 days of Amenorrhea
121.

Hirsuitisrr is seen in all excepk

a. Acromegaly
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Arrhenoblastoma
d. PCOD

September 201.0

Abundantlactobacillus
pH>4.5

a.
b.
c.
d.

122. Wood's lamp is not used for diagnosing:

September 2010

123.

All

Vitiligo
Porphyria

blistering diseases except

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 201-0

following induction agent is most

Morphine
Propofol
Diazepam
Ketamine

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 20'10

September 2007,2010

a'

is:

Auspitz sign is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Psoriasis

preferred for day care $urgery:

in Vitiligo

September 2010

September 20L0

Absent melanosomes
Absent melanocytes
Reduction in melanin slmthesis
Reduction in number of melanorytes
March 2007, September 2010

Psoriasis
Fungal inJections

Vitiligo
Melasma

125. Wickham's striae is a feature

Pemphigus r"ulgaris
Pemphigusfolliaceous
Bullous pemphigoid

127. Which of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

125.

Pityriasis
Lichen planus
of the following are immunologically mediated

September 2005,201,0

Postpartumhemorrhage
Missed abortion
Induction of labour

124. Defect seen

a.
b.
c.
d.

in all of the following

except:

Psoriasis

Pityriasis rosea
Lichen planus

Vitiligo

of:

September 2009,2010

September 201 0 (Questions)

close friends and

is having reduced appetite

and

improper sleep. He is probably suffering from:

September 2010

old female is having headache for

the past 6 months. A1l her investigations were
normal. She had several consultations and she had
no relief of her symptoms. She still believes that she

128. Shailza, a 40 year

has some problem

in her brain. Likely diagnosis

September 2010

could be:

a.
b.
c.
d.
129.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Acute depression
Acute mania
Acute Psychosis
Schizophrenia

Which of the following is not a feature of

130.

September20L0
hallucination:
a. It can occur in any sensory modality
b. It is independent of will of observer
c. It is defined as perception occurring witltout

Acute mania
Acute depression
Psychogenicheadache

Hypochondriasis

Rupak, a 22 year old, unmarried man is suffering

from sudden onset of third person hallucination for

d.

external stimulation
Always pathological

the past 12 days. He is suspicious of his telatives and

131. Wimberger's

a.
b.
c.
d.

L32.

ring is seen in:

b. X-Ray
c. Bronchoscopy
d, MRI

September 2410

135.

Rickets
Scurvy

All of the following are seen on the right side of the

cardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except:
September 2008,20L0

Hemophilia

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pellagra

Investigation of choice for marking out calcification

of an intracranial lesion

a.
b.
c.
d.
133.

rs:

September 2010

CT Scan
MRI scan
USG

a.
b.
c.
d.

SePtember 20L0

Blastomycosis
Pneumonia

Invasiveaspergillosis

Bronchiectasis
134. A patient presents with the clinical featutes of

a.
b.
c.
d.

September 2007, 2010

I
:.i
:1

;i

which of the following is used

September 2009,2070

Phosphorous

Iodine
Technetium

Callium

excePc

G-6-PD deficienry
Sickle cell anemia
Aplastic anemia

Thalassemia

d.
139"

il
ii:

Pulmonary artery

CT scan

i
f

lnferior vena cava

137. Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the

March 2010, September 2010
following

interstitial lung disease. How will you confirm the

a.

Superior vena cava

in bone scans:

Contrast studies

diagnosis:

Right atrium

136. Radioactive isotope of

Air crescent sign in chest X-ray is seen in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

138.

Which of the following isotope is commonly used in

teletherapy:
a. Cesium
b. Iridium
c. Technetium

SePtember 2010

Iodine
Radium emits which of the following radiations:
September 2007,2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Gamma rays
Alpha rays
Beta rays
All of the above

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

It
140. Reversed cold chain is used

a.

b.
c.

for:

of vaccine from hospital to

vaccination centre
A system of storing and transporting samples at
Transportation

year

2 years
5 years
10 years

142. Incubation period of Rabies depends on:

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Number of bites
Site of bite

Animal species

All of the above

143. Poliomyelitis is diagnosed by:

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Clinicalpresentation
Antibody titer measurement in blood
Isolation of virus from blood
Isolation of virus from stool
144. Amongst the following which carries the least
chance of transmitting HIV infection:
Swtember 2070

a.
b.
c.
d.

Verticaltransmission
IV drug abusers
145. Swine Flu pandemic in 2009 was caused due to which

a. It
b.

the number of total cases in the

September 2070

represents the number

community
L47. Urban population of India

as

of cured cases in

the

r,:

per census 2001 is:

September 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.
1,48.

1,I.6%
27.8Yo

30.5%
38.6%

Which

of the following is not included in

primary prevention for hypertension:

the

Septenfuer 2010

a, Exercises
U,
m
b. Weight control
q
c. Health education
d. Early diagnosis and treatment
t
L49. All of the following features are seen in dengue !
hemorrhagic fever except: .
54rf ernlser 2070 Vl
a. Positive tourniquet test
ryl
n
b. Platelet counts less than 1 lac
N
c. Falling hematocrit value
,O
d. Acute onset of high fever
': I
150. Rabies vaccine is prepared from which strain ofl'O
Selttember 2t|r}'ff
virus:
a. Street virus
C
b. Fixed Virus
m
@c. Wild virus
d. All of the above
'I
L51.

Heterosexualkrtercourse
Blood transfusion

strain:
a. H1N1
b. H3N1
c. H5N1
d. H7N1
146. What is Incidence Rate:

It

Septenrber 2010

Transportation of vaccines back from vaccination

centre to hosoital

recommended temperatures from the point of

collection to the laboratory
d. Transporting oral polio vaccine only
141. Certificate of vaccination of Yellow Fever is valid for
how manv vears:
September 201.0

a.
b.
c.
d.

represents

community

Which of the following is not included in neonatal

mortality:
a. Early neonatal mortality
b. Late neonatal mortatity
c. Post neonatal mortality
d. None of the above
152. ESI act does not cover which of the

Septenber

2U0

!
\/A;
:
:.r:

follor vrng:
:

S,Yttrrfuer' 20-10

September 20L0

represents the number of old cases in the

community
It represents the number of new cases in the
community

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hotel

employee

,i*t

Railway employees
Factory employees

153. PERT is a type

a.
b.

,:i'*

Transpoters

of:

Netrvork analysis
Input output analysis

"
,

SeTttember 2010
i

'*

September 201 0 (Questions)

c.
d.
154.

151. Requirement of

System anaiYsis

SePtember 2010

Cost benefit analYsis

Which of the following is the most reliable

bacteriological indicator of water pollution:
SePtember 20-10

a.
b.
c.
d.
155.

t:
)
.:

l'.

a.
b.
c.
d.

7A0

a.
b.
c.
d.

Night blindness

Escherichia coli

Clostridium tetani

In which of the following interpretation of benefits

is done in terms of results achieved: September 2010
System anall'5is
Cost accounting
Cost benefit analYsis
Cost effective analYsis

It
t;s
F

ia:i

!:;

,i

I
li

FJ

{;i

):
{.:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Haemorrhage

154.

Anemia

*".

;_1:

t, t:

SePtember 2070

165.

.f

SePtember 2010
156.

Human Influenza
Septenrber 2010

Breast

SePtember 2010

Tetanus
Ameobiasis
Pertussis

Diphtheria

Bishop score

100,000 Pregnancies

100,000live births
100,000 births

100,000 PoPulation
Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency
March 20L0, Sqtenrber 2070
of:

Socially acquired behavior is known as:

March 2a05, SePtember 2010

Lung
Cervix
Oral cavity
160. Carrier state is not seen in which infection:

a.
b.
c.
d.

score

SARS

Cholera
159. Most common c.rncer worldwide is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Apgar

a. Thiamine
b. Niacin
c. Pantothenic acid
d. CYanocobalamin

WHO International Health regulation:

Wild PoliomYelitis

Glassgow scale

SePtember 2005,2010

a.

a.
b,
c.
d.

APACHE II

a.
b.
c.
d.

L ,*ti
u

20!a

Denominator for maternal mortality rate is:

are features of cost accounting

Data on cost of a prograrnme is provided

Control of cost can be done
l';r"l*)
b"
U.
Benefits are expressed in terms of money
c.
;1
0s
d. Planning and allocation of peoples and financial
tr
{:
services can be done
iJ
'*;
i 158. Which of the following diseases is not covered under

September

a.
b.
c.
d.

Puerpural sePsis

except:

for assessment of severity of disease in ICU

is:

Toxaemia

157. All of the following

XeroPhthalmia
Keratomalacia
PolyneuroPathY

163. Criteria

SePtember 2010

,:

900

following is uncommon symptom of

September 20L0
deficiency of vitamin A:

Salmonella tYPhi

155. Most common cause of matemal mortality in India is:

::,

800

1000
152. Which of the

Fecal strePtococci

a.
b.
c.
d.

iron during pregnancy is lin mg']:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Culture
Socialization

Intemalization
Custom

l1T.Tofacilitate the screening of visual-acuity, I4IHO

defines blindness as counting fingers at a distance of,
September 2006t SePtanbu 2010

a. 1. metre
b. 3 metres
c. 6 metres
d. 9 metres

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

175.

168. Bezold abscess is seen in:

Septenrber

a.
b.
c.
d.

2010

SternocleidomastoidMuscle
Sternohyoid muscle
Sartorius muscle
Semimembranosusmuscle
Septenfuer 2010
159. What is a xenograft:
a. Graft from L twin to other twin
b. Graft from 1 species to other species.
c. Graft from father to other child
d. Graft from sister to brother
170. Which of the following is most sensitive and specific
screening test for carcinoma of breast:

Predisposing factors for carcinoma of penis are all of

the following except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septenfuer 2010

pagets disease

Phimosis
Balanoposthitis
Papilloma
1,76. Palmar surface of hand represents: Septenrber 201'0
a. 1% of total body surface area
b. 2% of total body surface area
c. 3% of total body surface area
d. 4% of total body surface area

l77.For shock patient, best guideline to check for

adequacy of fluid replacement therapy:

SePternber 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

FNAC
Mammogram
USG

Self Examination

171. Commonest malignancy

t)?e in oral cavity is:

Sntentber 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Adenocarcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
172. Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:
SePtember 2010

a.
b"
c.
d"

Deep vein thrombosis

Sapheno-femoralincompetence

Thromboangitisobliterans

patient having coronary artery

routine ultrasound scan of the abdomen.What the

best management for his gallstones:
Septenfuer 2010
a.

c.

d.

b.
c.
d.

Laparoscopic removal of gall bladder

Open cholecystectomy
ERCP assisted galistones removal
Observation

Septeniltcr 201.0

Hypokalemia

Sarcoma

Ductal
Granuloma
181" Which of the following is feature of Diffuse axonal
Septenfuer 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

No unconsciousness
Transientunconsciousness
Prolongedunconsciousness
None of the above
182" In burns management, which of the following is the

a.
b.
c^
d.

Dextrose 5%

Normal saline
Ringer lactate

Isolyte-M

=
Ip
JI]

,N
,o

..r

,o

aC

.m

:a
j{

:lo

:.2
:,4

Lobular

medium of choice:

Hyperphosphaetemia
All of the above
Septetrther 2010
179. Lucid interval is associated with:
a. Intracerebralhematoma
b. Subarachnoidhematoma
c. Extradural hematoma
d. All of the above
180. Most common type of breast carcinoma is:

a.
b
c.
d.

Blood pressure and pulse

*
Central Venous Pressure
178. Villous adenoma presents as:
a. Hypercalcemia

injury:

disease was found to have apnptomatic gallstones on

b.

Hemoglobin
Urine output

Seytenfuer 20'l'0

Below-knee perforators incompetency

173. In 3-glass utine test, there is thread in the first glass.
Septentber 2010
What is the probable diagnosis:
a. Cystitis
b. Prostatitis

c. Urethritis
d. Pyelonephritis
\74. A 70 year female

SePtenber 2()-l'0

March 20L0, Septentber 2010

September 201 0 (Questions)

fSS. Buerger's disease usually affects

all of the following

188. Investigation of choice

March 2005, Septenfuer 2010

Septenber 2009, 2010

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.

Small sized arteries

Medium sized arteries
c. Large arteries
d. Deep veins
184. Hellels myotomy is done for: Septanber 2M7,2009,2010
a. Esophagealcarcinoma

b.
c.
d.

Pyloric hypertrophy

a.
b.
c.
d.

Appendicularabscess
Pelvic abscess

1.89.

I
t

Obstruction of Vein
Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.
Obstruction of glandular ducts
Obstruction of arteries
Septenfuer 2007,2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

Appendicular mass
Acute appendicitis

volvulus is:

Ileum
Appendix
Sigmoid colon
Caecum

187.The commonest cause of significantly lower

gastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged person
without any known precipitating factor may be due to
March 2008,

a.
b.
c.
d.

X-ray KUB

190. Surgery of choice for pleomorphic adenoma is:

March 2010 Seatenfuer 201.4

Voidingcystourethrography
lntravenousurography

Peau d'Orange of breast is due to:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Septentuer 2009,2010

185. Most common site of

CT scan

September 2A05, 2010, March 20a7

Achalasia cardia
Inguinal hernia
185. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Total parotidectomy

Superficialparotidectomy
Total parotidectomv with lymph node dissection

Radicalparotidectomy
191. Ideal investigation fot fistula-in-ano
a. Endoanal ultrasound
b. MRI
c. Fistulography

d.

192. Highest chance of success

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ulverative colitis
Ischemic colitis
Angiodysplasia
Diverticulum of sigmoid colon

193. Kussmaul's sign is not seen

in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Right Ventricular infarction

Constrictivepericarditis
Restrictivecardiomyopathy
Cardiac tamponade

194. Characteristic of

type-Il respiratory failure is:

SePtember 2010

a"
b.
c.
d

196.

Mother

Twin
Son

following does not present with

Septernber 2010

Mitral stenosis
Pulmonary embolism
Empyema
Bronchiectasis

Which of the following is not seen in chronic renal

failure:

Low PaO2 and low PaCO2

a.

Hyperkalemia

Low PaO2 and normal PaCO2

Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2

b.

Metabolic acidosis

Low PaO2 and high PaCO2

September 2007,2010

father

hemoptysis:

Septenfuer 2010

March 2008

in renal transplant is

possible when the donor is:

Se.ptenfuer 2010

is:

CT scan

195. Which of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:

Hypophosphatemia
d.

Hypocalcemia

September 201.0

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE

197. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen

a.
b.
c.
d.

in:

September 2010

HypertrophiccardiomYoPathY
Severe COPD

Drowsiness
Cyanosis

Frusemide
Acetazolamide
Al1 of the above

in all of the following

Congestive heart failure

Pi

' ,

d.

Sexual infantilism

excePt:

zinc .l
"

d.

Systemic illness

..,

I -..

.:j

T
{

Septentber 2007, 201 0

204. Most common cause of short stature

c.

,,, '

',

e!,

FN

b. mitral stenosis
c. Pericarditis
d. Loud first heart sound

SIADH

'i

203.Allofthefollowingcanoccurinrl.reunraticfever

Diabetes insipidus

March 2005

smentafinn
'"-.--.'"

Constitutional
Hypothyroidism
Growth hormone deficiencY

''b--'.

a.
b.

Kidney problems

a. Mitralregurgitation

SePtember 2010

a.
b.
c.
d.

following is not associated with

except:

Spironolactone

Pregnanry
deficiency:
a. Delayed wound healing
b. Loss of libido

Dizziness

2005, 20-l 0

Transmitted by faeco-oral route

Majority of patients develops chronic infection
Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single
stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus.
Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequentiy in

202. Which of the

Headche

200. Hyponatremia is seen

d.

September 2014

Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of

Septtember 2A1A
acute mountain sickness:

a.
b.
c.
d.

True about hepatitis E are all except:

a.
b.
c.

Constrictivepericarditis

mountain sickness is:

199.

201.

Sepf entber

Cardiac tamponade

198. Most severe and persistent symPtom for acute

a.
b.
c.
d.

i MCI Screening

=
tF
rfl

is:

7
March 2010

'N
;o

I
.iOr

,,

:o
:c
l'l'l
a
:{
o
',2
,

,.4

'l;:.t
';.

:i:;],;]j:::.

1'::.i