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GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No.

1568
VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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Q.1 :b

sanyasam.
Their traditional work (akin to caste system)
too differed - reciting Vedha, farmer,
potter,cobbler and so on. Some of them were
highly learned while some others excelled
with their simple devotion though not
learned in any scriptures (Kannappar).
Some of them were kings (Pukazch chozar)
and some others didn't even have even a
house to live in (Thirumular). They all
excelled in their own way - single minded
devotion to Shiva.

According to Arthashastra, there are three


types of conquest, Dharmavijaya Righteous
Conquest, Lobhavijaya Conquest for Greed,
Asuravijaya Demoniac Conquest. The two
latter types are generally disapproved of by
all sources except the Arthasasthra.

Q.2 :a
The Sresthin is a money lender or banker but
usually merchants as well. They appear as
leading members of wealthy guilds. The
word Sresthin literally means chief, It
survived in the north Indian Seth and the
Dravidian Chetti and setti.It also means a
title of honor held only by merchants of
wealth and consequence.

Alvars:
The Azhwars came from diverse caste groups
and lived between 5th and 9th Century in
southern India. They are great devotees of
Lord Vishnu, especially Ranghanatha.
They composed beautiful devotional poetry
in his praise. Their individual compositions
were later compiled into a single scripture by
the name "Divya Prabhandam".

Q.3 :b
Yoga literally means the union of the two
principal entities. The origin of yoga is found
in yogasutra of patanjali believed to have
been written in the second century BC.
By purifying and controlling changes in the
mental mechanism, yoga systematically
brings about the release of purusha from
prakriti. Yogic techniques control the body,
mind and sense organs. Thus this philosophy
is also considered a means of achieving
freedom or mukti.
This freedom could be attained by practising
self-control (yama), observation of rules
(niyama), fixed postures (asana), breath
control (pranayama), choosing an object
(pratyahara) and fixing the mind (dharna),
concentrating on the chosen object (dhyana)
and complete dissolution of self, merging the
mind and the object (Samadhi).
Yoga admits the existence of God as a
teacher and guide.

Q.5 :a
Explanation: One of the sultans of Delhi in
the 14th century, Firoz Shah Tughluq, was
both intrigued and impressed by an Asokan
Pillar which he found near Delhi, and he had
it removed it to the capital. But no one could
read the inscription on pillar or explain its
purpose.

Q.6 :d
All the above mentioned options form the
part of Panchasiddhantika. Varahamihira
summarized in his Panchasiddhantika the
five siddhantas which includes Paitamaha,
Vasishtha, Paulisa, Romaka and Surya.

Q.7 :c
In North Indian music System there is a form
called gat, derived from plucked stringed
instrumental technique, and another, called
dhun is derived from folk tunes, neither has
text.

Q.4 :a
Explanation:
The saintly devotees of Shiva are known as
Nayanmar (Nayanar). There are 63 of them.
The activities of these devotees differ, but
the one thing in common is their intense love
for the Lord.
They followed different ways of praying the
God and led different kinds of life styles
brahmacharyam, grihastam, vanaprastam,

Q.8 :d
Udayagiri and Khandagiri hills are found near
Bhubaneswar, Orissa have a number of finely
and ornately carved caves.
It is believed that most of these caves were
carved out as residential blocks for Jain

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1568


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monks during the reign of King Kharavela.
There are five Jain caves at Ellora that belong
to the 9th and 10th centuries. They all belong
to the Digambara sect.
Sittanavasal Caves: 2nd century Jain complex
in Sittanavasal village in Pudukottai district
of Tamil Nadu. It is a rock-cut monastery or
temple created by Jains

The Communal Award was announced by the


British PM , Ramsay Macdonald, in August
1932.
Gandhi saw the Communal Award as an
attack on Indian unity and nationalism. He
advocated that once the depressed classes
were treated as a separate political entity,
the question of abolishing untouchability
would get undermined, while separate
electorates would ensure that the
untouchables would remain untouchables in
perpetuity.
Gandhi demanded that the depressed
classes be elected through joint and if
possible a wider electorate through universal
franchise, while expressing no objection to
the demand for a larger number of reserved
seats. And to press his demands, he went on
an indefinite fast on Sept. 1932.

Q.9 :c
Kabir started as a disciple of Ramanandha
but developed his own eclecticism. He
believed in one way to God and that is well
seen in his kirtans and in his quiet
meditation.
His idea of God is eclectic, with influences
from vaishnaivism, monism, Sufism and even
Sunya and Sabda.
The Muslims Claimed him as Sufi, the Hindus
as Rama Bhakta and the Sikhs incorporated
his songs in Adi Granth.

Q.13 :c
The GOI Act 1919, also known as MontaguChelmsford Reforms did not introduce
responsible government at the Centre
though Indians were to have greater
influence over there as the number of
Indians in the Governor-General's executive
Council was raised to 3 in a Council of 8. The
Indian members were entrusted with
departments like that of law, Education ,
labour , Health and Industries.
The distribution of seats among the different
provinces was not made on the basis of
population but on the basis of their
importance like, for instance, Punjab and
Bombay were given seats on the basis of
there military importance and commercial
importance respectively.

Q.10 :d
In Sanchi, Gaya and Bharhut, all the Buddhist
sculpture, even the Buddha himself was
never shown, jus symbolised by emblems,
empty throne, pair of foot prints and pipal
tree.
The Schools of Gandhara which flourished in
the lower Kabul valley and near Peshawar
and Mathura school which flourished under
the Kusana Kings produced the first images
of the Buddha.

Q.11 :d
The aims of launching Individual Satyagraha
were- (i) to express people's feeling that they
were not interested in the war and they had
made no distinction between Nazism and the
double autocracy that ruled India; ii) to show
the nationalist patience was not due to
weakness; iii) to give another opportunity to
the Government to Congress' demands
peacefully.
Gandhi decided to initiate a limited
Satyagraha on an individual basis by a few
selected individuals in every locality . The
demand of the Satyagrahi would be the
freedom of speech against the war through
an anti-war declaration. ( 2nd World War).
Hence option (c) is incorrect.

Q.12 :b

Q.14 :b
During the arrival of Gandhiji in India, the INC
was far more active in a political sense
because it had set up branches in almost all
major towns & cities; the Swadeshi
Movement (1905) broadened Congress'
appeal in the middle classes & saw towering
leaders like Tilak, Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra
Pal-which conveyed their message of their
struggle at all-India level. Hence, 1st
Statement is incorrect.
Ahmedabad Mill Strike was Gandhi's first
hunger strike( Fast unto Death) to resolve
the issue between the mill owners and the
workers over the issue of discontinuation of
the Plague Bonus, wherein the workers
demanded 35% increase in wages but the

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owners were willing to only 20% increase in
wages.Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.
Gandhi's
initiatives
of
Champaran,
Ahmedabad and Kheda , though marked him
as a nationalist leader. But at the same time
, these were localised struggles (Gujarat) and
were not carried out at an all-India level.
Hence, 3rd Statement is incorrect.

responsibility of Indian themselves and


should originate from Indian conception of
the social , economic and political structure
of Indian life.
The Cripps Mission, 1942, declared that an
elected body, charged with the task of
framing a new Constitution. Also the
provision shall be made for the participation
of Indian States in the constitution-making
body.
The Wavell Plan , 1945, proposed the
reconstitution of the Governor-General's
Exeutive Council pending the preparation of
a new Constitution. with the exception of the
Governor General and the Commander in
Chief ( who would retain his position as a
War member) all other members of the
Executive council would be nominated from
amongst the leaders of political life. Hence,
3rd statement is incorrect.
The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 most
importantly it rejected the demand of Muslim
league for Pakistan and recommended for a
Union of India , consisting of British India and
Princely states which should deal with the
subjects of Foreign Affairs , Defence and
Communications and they should have
powers to raise the finances of these
subjects.

Q.15 :c
The Congress Socialist Party was launched in
1934, to work within the Congress, to
strengthen it, to mould and shape its
policies.
Their ideological inspiration came from
Marxism and Democratic Socialism and they
stood for anti-Imperialism, nationalism and
Socialism, whereas , it was Revolutionary
Terrorists who were inspired by the methods
of Russian nihilists and Irish nationalists.
Hence only 3rd statement is incorrect.
They stood for complete independence and
Socialism and they advocated Swaraj not for
the classes but for the masses.

Q.16 :a
In the early centuries of Islam, a group of
religious minded people called the 'Sufis'
turned into ascetism & mysticism in protest
against the growing materialism of the
Caliphate as a religious and political
institution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic
definitions
&
scholastic
methods
of
interpreting the Quran and 'Sunna'
(traditions of Prophet) adopted by the
theologians. Instead they laid emphasis on
seeking salvation through intense devotion &
love for God. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Some Sufis initiated movements against
radical interpretations of sufi ideals. They
ignored
rituals
&
practised
extreme
ascetism, observed celibacy, etc- they were
known by different names like - " Qalandars',
'Madaris', 'Malangs', ' Haidaris', etc. Because
of their deliberate defiance of sharia they
were known as 'be-sharia' , in contrast to
those Sufis who complied with the sharia
(ba-sharias). Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.17 :b
Except 3rd statement, all the statements are
correct.
Under August offer 1940, the framing of the
new Constitution should be primarily the

Q.18 :b
Khond uprising from 1837 to 1856 were
directed against the British, in which tribal
of Ghumsar, china-ki-medi, kalahandi and
Patna actively participated. The movement
was led by Chakra Bisoi in the name of
young Raja. The main issue was the attempt
by the government to suppress human
sacrifice - Mariah System (Traditional Human
Sacrifice practiced by the Khonds),
introduction of new taxes, influx of
Zamindars and sahookars into their areas.
The British formed a Mariah Agency to
counter this movement.
Tirut Singh was leader of Khasi uprising.
Hence only statement 3 and 4 are correct
and option B is correct.

Q.19 :b
College of Fort William was an academy and learning
centre of Oriental Studies established by Lord
Wellesley, the then Governor-General of British
India . It aimed at training British officials in Indian
languages and in the process it fostered the
development of languages such as Bengali and
Urdu. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1568


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Charter Act of 1833 proposed the open
Competition in civil services for the first time
, but after opposition from court of directors
it was negated.And finally it was done in
1854. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
In 1860, 1866 and 1878 , maximum age of
candidates for civil services examination was
respectively reduced to 22, 21 and finally to
19 years in 1878. Hence, 3rd statement is
incorrect.

Q.20 :d
The GOI Act, 1935 proposed an All India
Federation consisting of provinces and
princely states as units but such a structure
but the Federation never came into existence
as the princely states did not join it. Hence,
1st statement is incorrect.
Dyarchy was abolished in provinces
only.Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
It extended the communal representation to
depressed classes ( SCs) , women and labour
(workers) too.Hence, only 3rd statement is
correct.

Q.21 :a
All the statements are correct except
statement 3.
The Deoband Movement (1866) was
organized by the orthodox section among the
Muslim ulema ( Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi
and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi) as a revivalist
movement with the twin objectives of
propagating pure teachings of the Quran and
the Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive
the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers.
On the political front , Deoband School
welcomed the formation of Congress and
issued fatwa( religious decree) against Sir
Syed Ahmed Khan's Mohammaden AngloOriental Association.

Q.23 :c

The average composition of gases by volume is


according to the chart

Component Symbol

Volume

Nitrogen

N2

78.084%

Oxygen

O2

20.947%

Argon

Ar

0.934%

Carbon
Dioxide

CO2

0.033%

Neon

Ne

18.2 parts per million

Helium

He

5.2 parts per million

Krypton

Kr

1.1 parts per million

Sulfur
dioxide

SO2

1.0 parts per million

Methane

CH4

2.0 parts per million

Hydrogen

H2

0.5 parts per million

99.998%

Of these the composition of CO2, water vapour,


Methane, Nitogen oxide, etc have variable
concentration.

Q.22 :d
Abundance of elements in earth is different
than that in earth's crust.Oxygen is the most
abundant element in earth's crust but when
considered overall earth, iron the most
abundant.
Iron - 32%, Oxygen- 30%, Silicon - 15%,
Magnesium- 14%.
Moreover, around 91 % of earth mass is
constituted by these four elements. Next in
line are Sulpher, Nickel, Calcium and
Aluminium.

Q.24 :a
Discovery of many spindles and spindle
whorls in the houses of Indus valley
civilisation.
Wheat and barley was common to all
Harappan areas but few sites like Lothal
show traces of Rice cultivation as well.
They did worship male deities and Mother

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goddess but temple worship was not
practiced.

very important part in both the creation and


maintenance of human cell membrane.
In humans, cholesterol serves three main
functions. It is used by certain glands to
manufacture steroid or cortisone-like
hormones, including sex hormones; it helps
the liver to produce bile acids, which are
essential to the digestion of fats; and, most
important, it is a main component of cell
membranes and structures, a kind of building
block for bodily tissues. Without it,
mammalian life would not be possible.
The problem with cholesterol arises when the
body has too much of it, or has deposits of it
in the wrong places.
Hence option D is correct.

Q.25 :d
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is the
amount of dissolved oxygen needed by
aerobic biological organisms in a body of
water to break down organic material
present in a given water sample.
It measures only biodegradable waste unlike
COD (chemical oxygen demand) that
measures both bio and non bio degradable.
Higher the value of BOD indicates low
content of DO in water.

Q.26 :c

Q.28 :c

Importance of pulse crops-

Induced seismicity refers to typically


minor earthquakes and tremors that are caused
by human activity that alters the stresses and
strains on the Earth's crust. Most induced seismicity
is of a low magnitude. This may occur due to various
causes:

Pulses are leguminous crops. Being


leguminous crops, all these crops except
Arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing
nitrogen from the air.
Water requirement for pulses is lower as
compared to other crops and hence it helps
in conserving soil moisture for the next
season of cropping.
Pulses can be grown on residual moisture as
a relay crop requiring no-tillage or aftertillage operation.
Reduce soil erosion by wind and water.
Increase soil aeration and also improves soil
water-holding capacity.
The ability of pulses to feed the soil different
compounds has the effect of increasing the
number and diversity of soil microbes
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it says
opposite is true. rest two are correct as seen
from above.

Q.27 :d
Cholesterol can both be produced by the
body itself and obtained from food sources.
Cholesterol plays an important part in the
human body. Its functions are as follows:
Hormone production- Cholesterol plays a part
in producing hormones such as estrogen,
testosterone, progesterone, aldosterone and
cortisone.
Vitamin D production- Vitamin D is produced
when the suns ultraviolet rays reach the
human skin surface.
Bile production- Cholesterol produces bile
acids which aid in digestion and vitamin
absorption.
Cell membrane support- Cholesterol plays a

Artificial Lakes
Mining and Extraction activities
Waste disposal wells
Geothermal Energy
Nuclear Bomb Explosion

Q.29 :d
1. An Earthquake is a tremor producing
destructive waves in the Earth's Crust.
2. Richter Scale is a logarithmic scale that
measures the magnitude -- and thus, energy
-- of a quake. The magnitude increases ten
times with each unit increase in Richter
value. The energy increases 31.7 times. It is
an objective mathematical scale measured
on the basis of reading in the Seismograph.
There is no upper limit of Richter Scale.
3. Mercalli intensity Scale measures the impact
of an Earthquake based on empirical
observation. It varies from 1 (not felt) to 12
(total destruction).

Q.30 :c
1. Shelter belts: In the coastal and dry
regions, rows of trees are planted to check
the wind movement to protect soil cover.
2. Mulching: The bare ground between plants
is covered with a layer of organic matter like
straw. It helps to retain soil moisture.
3. Contour barriers: Stones, grass, soil are

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used to build barriers along contours.
Trenches are made in front of the barriers to
collect water.
4. Terrace farming: These are made on the
steep slopes so that flat surfaces are
available to grow crops. They can reduce
surface run-off and soil erosion.

Q.33 :b
Minimum alternate tax (MAT) was introduced
for the zero tax companies. It is a form of
Direct tax while Service tax is Indirect tax.
Biggest source of revenue is corporation tax.

Q.34 :d
Q.31 :b
Statement 1 is false because In India,
although trade deficit is a recurrent feature
every year , for three consecutive years from
2001-02, 2002-03 to 2003-04, there was a
surplus on the current account, to the tune of
0.7, 1.3 and 2.3 percents of GDP
respectively. This is because that earnings
from
services
and
private
transfers
outweighed the trade deficit.
Statement 2 is false because The current
account records exports and imports in
goods and services and transfer payments.
Statement 3 is false because the purchase of
shares and bonds i.e Portfolio Investment
though a part of Capital Account but the
income derived from these assets is recorded
in the current account ; the capital account
entry will just be for any buying or selling of
the portfolio assets in the international
capital market.

Public Debt in India includes only Internal


and External Debt incurred by the Central
Government.
Internal Debt includes liabilities incurred by
resident units in the Indian economy to other
resident units, while External Debt includes
liabilities incurred by residents to nonresidents.The major instruments covered
under Internal Debt are - Dated Securities,
Treasury-Bills, Securities issued to
International Financial Institutions, etc.
External Debt consists of Multilateral,
bilateral, IMF and Rupee debt.
Public account liabilities comprises of small
savings collections into NSSF, PF and bond
towards oil, food and fertiliser subsidies
among others. These are liabilities on the
government with an interest component,
however these are not a part of Public Debt.

Q.32 :c
Q.35 :d
Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) is an indicator of
business activity -- both in the manufacturing and
services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that
asks the respondents about changes in their
perception of some key business variables from the
month before. It is calculated separately for the
manufacturing and services sectors and then a
composite index is constructed.

A figure above 50 denotes expansion in


business activity. Anything below 50 denotes
contraction. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.

It is a composite index based on five of


the individual indexes with the following weights:
New Orders - 0.3, Output - 0.25, Employment - 0.2,
Suppliers Delivery Times - 0.15, Stock of Items
Purchased - 0.1. Hence, it is incorrect.

It is published on a monthly basis by


Market Research and HSBC.

All the statements are true except 5th


statement.

Q.36 :c
Net neutrality lays down responsibilty on
both internet service
provider and government for not
discriminating data in terms of speed and
pricing.
It is also related to over the top services such
as Whatsapp, Skype, etc.
Gives way to innovation and provide level
playing field especially to start-ups.

Q.37 :a

It collects data only from the private


sector.

SIT has been formed with the primary aim of


investigating into matters of black money
stashed outside India.
Black money bill, 2015 is a money bill as it
deals with imposition of taxes on money
which has not been declared; providing for

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compliance window.
Benami transaction prohibition (amendment)
bill, 2015 deals with benami transactions
taking place especially in real estate.

Q.40 :a
District Council in an autonomous district
consists of 30 members.
26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise
and 4 are nominated by the governor.
The district councils have power to make
laws on specific matters like land, forest,
property, marriage etc. (not all matters) for
their territorial jurisdiction subjected to the
approval of governor.

G20 is playing a crucial role in ensuring


international cooperation and pressuring tax
havens for disclosing details.

Q.38 :b
The Universe is full of matter and the
attractive force of gravity pulls all matter
together.
In 1990s when Hubble Space Telescope
made observation about faster acceleration,
the theory of Dark Energy was put forward as
a possible explanation. While special
relativity constrains objects in the Universe
from moving faster than light with respect to
each other when they are in a local,
dynamical relationship, it places no
theoretical constraint on the relative motion
between two objects that are globally
separated and out of causal contact. It is
thus possible for two objects to become
separated in space by more than the
distance light could have travelled, which
means that, if the expansion remains
constant, the two objects will never come
into causal contact.
Red Shift and Blue shift depend on the
relative motion of objects - if they are coming
together, the light will show blue shift and if
they are receding, it will show red shift.
Andromeda, our closest galaxy shows Blue
Shift.

Q.41 :b
Art 323A empowers Parliament to provide for
establishment of administrative tribunals for
centre, states, local bodies, public
corporations, and other public authorities. In
pursuance of this article Parliament passed
the Administrative Tribunals Act. This act
authorizes the Central Government to
establish one Central Administrative tribunal
and the state administrative tribunals.
Art 323B empowers the Parliament and state
legislatures to establish tribunals for
adjudicating disputes over matter other than
administrative.
Administrative tribunals created under Article
323-A do not operate in a hierarchy since
there is one for the centre and one for each
state. While for tribunals under art 323B
hierarchy may be created.

Q.42 :d
Original jurisdiction of the SC does not
include Inter-state water disputes, dispute
arising out of pre-constitution treaty,
agreement, covenant, sanad etc, recovery of
damages by a state against centre the suit
brought by a citizen against the centre or
states.

Q.39 :b
Official Language Act (1963), and not the
constitution, lays down that English should
be mandatorily used for the purpose of
communication between Union and non-Hindi
states.
President has the power to direct a state to
officially recognize a language in that state if
he is satisfied that a substantial portion of
population of state desires so.
Constitution has empowered Parliament to
decide any other language also to be used in
the proceedings of the SC. However,
Parliament has made no law till now, so
presently only English is being used in the
proceedings of the SC. There is no
constitutional mandate of imposition of
English.

Q.43 :a
While the moderates demanded
constitutional reforms and share of Indians in
service, extremists demanded Swarajya.
Poorna Swaraj was not in picture until the
times of Bhagat Singh and Lahore congress
session. The first statement is correct.
The campaign to boycott Foreign goods
during the Swadeshi movement was started
by the Moderates. Extremists wanted to
extend this campaign beyond the boycott
and in other regions outside Bengal.

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speed of internet access.
National Telecom Policy, 2012 envisions
spread of internet connection to masses.
Promotion of Domestic Electronic
Manufacturing will decrease cost of
production and more internet devices would
be available at affordable rates and internet
penetration will increase.
Promotion of Mobile and web applications in
Indian Languages will make internet usages
more accessible to common man.

Q.44 :b
As per the the Wavell's plan, the Indian
representation in the Viceroy's executive
council was not just half. It proposed that
except for governor general and commander
in chief, all the members of executive council
to be Indians.
Hindus and Muslims to have equal
representation and the league demanded
that all the Muslim representatives to be its
nominees.
It did not propose for immediate setting up of
constituent assembly. It proposed for new
constitution once the war is won.

Q.48 :d
Cultivation on mountain slopes without
appropriate land treatment measures such
as bounding terracing and trenching cause
soil erosion and loss of soil nutrients
All remaining options can lead to accelerated
soil erosion.

Q.45 :b
The tribal inhabitants of Chota Nagpur
rebelled violently against the high revenue
rates between 1820 and 1837.
The Chuar rebellion was in and around the
region of Midnapur in Bengal.
Sanyasi rebellion was in and around east
bengal.
Bhill uprising was in Khandesh region of
Maharashtra

Q.46 :c
The maximum and minimum strength of the
Legislative council has been fixed by the
constitution. The maximum strength is one
third of the strength of the legislative
assembly. Minimum is fixed at 40 with some
exceptions.
The actual strength of the council is fixed by
the Parliament.
The propriety of the nomination of
1/6th members to the council by governor
cannot be challenged in any court.
Governor can nominate to council, persons
having experience in art, literature, science,
social service and cooperative movement.

Q.47 :d
Digital inclusion is the ability of individuals
and groups to access and use information
and communication technologies.
NOFN aims to connect all Panchayats to
internet.
Shifting from 2G to 3G does not essentially
guarantee inclusion or spread of new
connections; it merely indicates increase in

Q.49 :a
Declaration of area as Sanctuary When any
area comprised within any reserve forest or
any part of the territorial waters, which is
considered by the State Government to be of
adequate ecological, faunal,
geomorphological, natural or zoological
significance for the purpose of protecting,
propagating or developing wildlife or its
environment, is to be included in a
sanctuary,Provided that where any part of
the territorial waters is to be so included,
prior concurrence of the Central Government
shall be obtained by the State Government.
No alteration of the boundaries of a
sanctuary shall be made except on a
resolution passed by the Legislation of the
State.
Activities permitted The Chief Wildlife
Warden may, on application, grant to any
person a permit to enter or reside in a
sanctuary for all or any of the following
purposes, namely:
investigation or study of wildlife and
purposes ancillary or incidental
thereto;
photography;
scientific research;
tourism; hence, 1st statement is
correct.
transaction of lawful business with
any person residing in the sanctuary.
The Chief Wildlife Warden shall be the
authority who may regulate, control or
prohibit, in keeping with the interests of
wildlife, the grazing or movement of
livestock. He shall take such measures in

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such manner as may be prescribed, for
immunisation against communicable
diseases of the livestock kept in or within five
kilometres of a sanctuary. Thus , grazing of
livestock in the Wildlife Sanctuary is allowed
unlike in National Park where it's not
permitted.Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
Prohibition of entry into sanctuary with
weapon No person shall enter a sanctuary
with any weapon except with the previous
permission in writing of the Chief Wildlife
Warden or the authorised officer. Thus,
carrying of weapon is allowed but with prior
permission .Hence, 3rd statement is
incorrect.
The Chief Wildlife Warden shall be the
authority who may regulate, control or
prohibit, in keeping with the interests of
wildlife, the grazing or movement of
livestock. He shall take such measures in
such manner as may be prescribed, for
immunisation against communicable
diseases of the livestock kept in or within five
kilometres of a sanctuary.

Acid deposition can damage tree foliage


directly but the most serious effect is
weakening of trees so they be- come more
susceptible to other types of dam- age. The
nitric acid and the nitrate salts in acid
deposition can lead to excessive soil nitrogen
levels. Hence only statement 1 and 4 are
correct and option (b) is the correct
answer.

Q.52 :d
Black carbon is a component of soot,
released during combustion, particularly
incomplete combustion of fossil fuels or
biomass.
They are released when carbon is only
partially combusted. Hence Statement 1 and
2 are correct.
The main sources of black carbon emissions
are burning of biomass in inefficient cooking
stoves, diesel emissions from the transport
sector and from generators (especially those
without pollution filters), and burning of other
fossil fuels and biomass in industry and
power production.
Black carbon is released as a particle and
hence falls in the category of particulate
matter, not greenhouse gas.
All particle emissions from a combustion
source are broadly referred to as particulate
matter (PM) and usually delineated by sizes
less than 10 micrometres (PM10) or less than
2.5 micrometres (PM2.5). Black carbon are
ultrafine particles or PM0.1, and pose a
strong health risk. They also strongly absorb
light and convert that energy to heat. Hence
statement 3 and 4 are also correct.
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.50 :b
Chlorofluorocarbons
are
also
called
halocarbons
which
are
nontoxic
nonflammable
chemicals
used
in
refrigerants,
propellants
and
solvents.
Though stable when released they break
apart and release chlorine atoms in the
stratosphere destroying the ozone layer.
Six main greenhouse gases are:
Carbon dioxide (CO2);
Methane (CH4);
Nitrous oxide (N2O);
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs);
Perfluorocarbons (PFCs); and
Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
Hence only 3rd and 4th statements are
correct and option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.53 :b
The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers has
decided to remove cap of 35 percent on
neem-coated urea. Removing this cap will
give impetus to agri sector.
Coating urea with neem has many
advantages like the release of the nitrogen
becomes slow and it also helps reducing risk
of disease in crops, However, this may
increase the prices by around 5 percent and
it will be absorbed by farmers as it has no
subsidy implication.
This will also help plugging the diversion of
urea to non-agricultural uses and help raise
the efficiency of fertilizer use.

Q.51 :b
Acid rain occurs due to concentration of
sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide in the
atmosphere, which react water molecules in
the atmosphere too produce acids, which fall
to the earth as acid rain.
Acid deposition has many harmful effects
especially when the pH falls below 5.1 for
terrestrial systems and below 5.5 for aquatic
systems.
It contributes to human respiratory diseases
such as bronchitis and asthma, which can
cause pre- mature death. It also damages
statues, buildings, metals and car finishes.

Q.54 :c

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Albedo is the reflective quality of a surface,
expressed as the percentage of reflected
insolation to incoming insolation.
Arranging them in their decreasing value :
Fresh snow (~80-95%), Deserts(~30%),
Grasslands(~15-35%), Tropical
forests(~15%). The ocean surface is darker,
reflecting only an average of about 10% of
insolation.

They are generally hard and water percolate


in them with great difficulty.

Q.58 :d
Ocean productivity largely refers to the
production of organic matter by
"phytoplankton," plants suspended in the
ocean, most of which are single-celled.
Phytoplankton.
They are "photoautotrophs," harvesting light
to convert inorganic to organic carbon, and
they supply this organic carbon to diverse
"heterotrophs," organisms that obtain their
energy solely from the respiration of organic
matter.
Longitudinal variations, the ocean currents,
seasonality, depth variation, temperature
and salinity all determines the amount of
phytoplankton in the ocean waters.

Q.55 :c
Temperature inversion is reversal of normal
temperature pattern so that air temperature
increases with altitude.
Conditions favorable to temperature inversion:
Calm winds will reduce vertical mixing.
Clear skies will increase rate of surface
cooling.
Longer nights will provide greater duration of
cooling.
Inversion is more common in winter due to
longer nights and Inversions are stronger in
winter because of the greater difference in
temperature between the cool surface air
and the warmer air aloft.
A very low angle of the sun in the sky (as in
winter)
Less daytime heating of air close to the
ground and surface.
Dry air instead of saturated air is favorable to
temperature inversion.

Q.59 :c
Following are the conditions associated with summer
solstice (21 June) in Northern Hemisphere:
The North Pole is tilted towards the sun and
its summer time in Northern Hemisphere,
whereas South Pole is tilted away from the
sun.
In Northern Hemisphere days are longer
than the nights.
Along the Arctic Circle a day is 24 hours long
and there is no sunset, whereas along the
Antarctic Circle night is 24 hours long and
there is no sunrise.
All places within the Arctic Circle have 24
hours daylight for 6 months and also
experience the midnight sun.

Q.56 :d
1. The valley of Narmada is situated between
the Satpuras and the Vindhyas. River
Narmada flows from east to west in this
valley and falls into the Arabian Sea. This
valley has been formed due to the
subsidence of the land mass between the
Vindhyas and the Satpuras. Hence all the
statements are correct.

Q.57 :b
Igneous rocks are produced by the crystallization
and solidification of molten magma. Some of the
characteristics of igneous rocks include:
These rocks are solidified from molten
magma.
These are not fossiliferrous rocks.
They are granular and crystalline.
They are generally weathered by mechanical
weathering.

Q.60 :a
Mercury, Venus Earth and Mars are called the
Inner planets or Terrestrial planets.
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are
called outer planets or Jovian planets.
Inner planets are small in size and have high
density, whereas outer planets are larger in
size and have a low density.
Inner planets are relatively hotter than the
outer planets.
The planets closer to the sun than the earth
i.e Mercury and Venus are called the inferior
planets.
The planets located at a distance greater

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than the distance of the earth from the sun
are called the superior planets. Mars, Jupiter,
Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are the superior
planets.

It is in news because, Former Prime Minister


Atal Bihari Vajpayee and late educationist
Madan Mohan Malviya (posthumously) have
been chosen for Bharat Ratna- countrys
highest civilian award.
Bharat Ratna, the countrys highest civilian
award instituted in 1954, is given in
recognition of exceptional service,
performance of the highest order in any field
of human endeavour. Any person without
distinction of race, occupation, position or
sex is eligible for this award.
The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are
made by the Prime Minister himself to the
President.

Q.61 :a
The NCT of Delhi has a special status of
being a UT with a Legislative Assembly and
Government as per 69th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1991.
Statement a. is correct. While Parliament has
the power to legislate on all matters, State
Assembly has been given power to legislate
on State List and Concurrent LIst except
police, public order and land. In case of a
dispute, the Central Law prevails.
Statement b. is incorrect. Both Lt. Governior
and Governors are appointed unilaterally by
the Centre
Statement c. is incorrect. CM of NCT (Delhi)
is appointed by the President and not the LG.
CM of State is appointed by the Governor.

Q.65 :d
All statements are correct.

Q.66 :d
Fish farming is cultivation of fish in a
controlled environment often a coastal or
inland pond lake and harvesting when they
reach the desired size.
Fish Ranching - A form of aquaculture in
which a population of a fish species (such as
salmon) is held in captivity for the first stage
of their lives, then released, and later
harvested as adults when they return from
the sea to their freshwater birthplace to
spawn.
Fish farming is the principal form of
aquaculture, while other methods may fall
under mariculture.

Q.62 :c
Rabies is perhaps the most well known
disease associated with bats. Along with
animals such as dogs, foxes, raccoons, and
skunks, bats are one of the primary animals
that transmit rabies.
Rabies, especially a set of symptoms of the
later stages of an infection, in which the
victim has difficulty swallowing, shows panic
when presented with liquids to drink and
cannot quench its thirst.

Q.63 :c
Scheme for Persons Of Indian Origin:
Introduced in 2002.
Eligibility criteria open to all who can
establish that their ancestor until three
generations back, were born in India.
Citizen from bangladesh, Pakistan,
Afghanistan, Nepal, Bhutan, China and sri
lanka are not eligible.
A person with PIO card enjoy certain visa
benefit while coming to India.
People with PIO card cannot hold
constitutional post in India.
PIO card holders enjoy parity with NRIs in
economic, financial and educational benefits.
They do not have voting rights.

Q.64 :a

It involves raising fish commercially in tanks or


enclosures, usually for food.

Q.67 :c
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory
multi-disciplinary body established by the
Government of India under the Ministry of
Environment and Forests, to combat
organized wildlife crime in the country.
WCCB has been tasked with functions unders
the wildlife (protection) Act, 1972
The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau envisages
attaining excellence as intelligence and
enforcement agency, matching international
standards in the field of wildlife crime
intelligence
in
its
core
capabilities,
functioning as one team integrated into the
intelligence community. It aims to conserve

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the wildlife wealth by proper and effective
intervention into matters related to capacity
building of enforcement agencies in the field
of wildlife crime enforcement and by
providing professional assistance to create
deterrence to the organized wildlife crime
nexus.

with weight of 10%. The grants to States will


be divided into two, a grant to duly
constituted Gram Panchayats and a grant to
duly constituted Municipal bodies, on the
basis of rural and urban population.

Q.70 :c
Q.68 :d
Golden rice is a transgenic with enhanced
vitamin A content, producing nutritionally
rich rice to save many lives
Frost resistant tomatoes have been produced
by introducing gene for anti freeze proteins
from polar fish living in ice water.
Bt cotton is a genetically modified variety
of cotton producing an insecticide.
IR8 and Semi-dwarf IR36 Rice - The variety
was one of many of the Green
Revolution which replaced many local strains
and genetic diversity previously found in rice
paddies. It is estimated that over 100,000
local strains were grown in 1960, which have
been largely replaced by hybrid varieties.

As the lake is rich in organic nutrients their


will be algal bloom and eutrophication of the
lake and hence the algae will deprive the
water body of oxygen and fish will die.

Q.71 :b
Coral reefs are generally found at shallow
salty and mud - free water.

Q.72 :d
All are true.

Q.73 :c
Q.69 :c
The recommendation is to increase the
states share from the central pool of taxes.
This might affect the fiscal space of the
centre. To address this there will be
commensurate reductions in the Central
Assistance to States (CAS) known as plan
transfers.
CAS transfers per capita are only mildly
progressive as greater central discretion
reduced progressivity. Implementing the FFC
recommendations would increase
progressivity because progressive tax
transfers would increase, which gives greater
discretion and fiscal autonomy to the states.
The FFC transfers have more favorable
impact on the states which are relatively less
developed which is an indication that the FFC
transfers are progressive i.e. states with
lower per capita net state domestic product,
receive on average much larger transfers per
capita.
The Finance Commission is also required to
recommend on the measures needed to
augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the Panchayats
and Municipalities in the State on the basis of
the recommendations made by the Finance
Commission of the State
FFC has recommended distribution of grants
to States for local bodies using 2011
population data with weight of 90% and area

Divisble pool, which gets divided between


Center and States in India, consists of all
taxes, except surcharges and cess levied by
central government. Hence option C is
correct.

Q.74 :d
All the statements are true.

Q.75 :d
Manufacturing sector in India is facing following
problems:
Regulatory hurdles
Access to funding
Infrastructure
Labour regulations
Disconnect between formal education
system and requirement of the employers
Government has launched National Manufacturing
Policy in 2011 to boost the manufacturing sector.

Q.76 :b
Labeling of environmentally beneficial goods
and resources extracted by more sustainable
methods can help consumers decide which

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goods and services to buy product
ecolabelling can encourage companies to
develop green products and services and
help consumers select more environmentally
beneficial products and services.
Eco-labels are also being used to certify that
the fish bearing ecolabels were caught by
using sustainable fishing methods and also
for timber products to certify and trees were
harvested in accordance with by sustainable
forest management principles.
Eco label is issued by the central polution
control board (CPCB).

television camera for scanning and


telecasting scenes.
They are used in industries for detecting
minor flaws or holes in metal sheets.

Q.80 :a
Since a Money Bill can only be introduced by
a Minister thus, it is always a government
Bill. Hence, 1st statement is correct.
The Money Bill is one which
contains only matters given in Article 110 of
the Constitution. If any other matter is a part
of a Bill, then that Bill can't be considered as
a Money Bill. Hence, 2nd statement is
correct.
The final authority to decide on status of a
Bill as Money Bill is the Lok Sabha Speaker,
not the President.Hence, 3rd statement is
incorrect.

Q.77 :c
Poly chlorinated biphenyles are obtained by
burning of plastics and not agricultural
waste.

Q.78 :b
Polyvarietal agriculture is where several
genetic varities of the same crop are planted
polyculture is When different plants which
mature at various times are planted
together.

Q.81 :c
Collegium system is not mentioned in
constitution.
The government can return some
recommendations made by the collegium,
but if they are reiterated it becomes binding
on the government.

Q.79 :c
A photocell is a technological application of
the photoelectric effect. It is a device whose
electrical properties are affected by light. A
photocell converts a change in intensity of
illumination into a change in photocurrent.
The photocells, inserted in the door light
electric circuit, are used as automatic door
opener. A person approaching a doorway
may interrupt a light beam which is incident
on a photocell. The abrupt change in
photocurrent may be used to start a motor
which opens the door or rings an alarm
(burglar alarm)
In burglar alarm, (invisible) ultraviolet light is
continuously made to fall on a photocell
installed at the doorway. A person entering
the door interrupts the beam falling on the
photocell. The abrupt change in photocurrent
is used to start an electric bell ringing.
In fire alarm, a number of photocells are
installed at suitable places in a building. In
the event of breaking out of fire, light
radiations fall upon the photocell. This
completes the electric circuit through an
electric bell or a siren which starts operating
as a warning signal.
Photocells are used in the reproduction of
sound in motion pictures and in the

Q.82 :d
Keplers laws of planetary motion state thatAll planets in the solar system move in elliptical
orbits with the Sun at one of the focal points
The radius vector drawn from the sun to a planet
sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. This
follows from the fact that the force of gravitation on
the planet is central and hence angular momentum
is conserved. This law comes from the observations
that planets appear to move slower when they are
farther from the sun than when they are nearer.
In motion of an object under the gravitational
influence of another object the angular momentum
and Total mechanical energy is conserved, but linear
momentum is not conserved.
Earth is also tilted on its axis and while travessing
across its orbit the northern hemisphere is tilted
towards the sun by an angle to 23 and half degree.

Q.83 :d

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Stars twinkle because of disturbances in our
atmosphere. Hubble telescope was placed in
space, in order to gaze upon the universe
unhindered by the veil of the atmosphere.
Stars do not twinkle when viewed from
Hubble telescope.
One of the first achievements of HST was to
determine the rate at which our universe has
been expanding i.e. Hubble Constant. This
requires an accurate measurement of the
distances of far away galaxies, which is
almost
impossible
with
ground-based
telescopes. This was one of the key projects
of the telescope. The observations with HST
settled the rate of expansion within ten per
cent accuracy.
Another
revolutionary
discovery
in
astronomy that HST helped to make was that
almost every galaxy contains a black hole in
its centre. Observations with HST were
crucial in this discovery because of its ability
to measure the speed of gas near the
centres of galaxies.

are violated by the private individuals, there


are no constitutional remedies but only
ordinary legal remedies. Therefore, under the
current case the aggrieved cant move to the
Supreme Court. Though, he can go the High
Court because the writ jurisdiction of the
High Court is wider than that of the Supreme
Court, as High Court can issue writs even for
the enforcement of the ordinary rights.

Q.87 :c
Phytoremediation is a type of bio
remediation technique. In this technique
plant is used to decontaminate soil and
water. Mycoremediation is technique in
which fungi is used to decontaminate the
area while mycofiltration is the use of fungi
to detoxicate water in soil.

Q.88 :d
Detrimental health effects of lead are failure
of kidneys and brain function and
interference in development of Red Blood
cells. Lead has no effect on lungs or eyes.
Byssinosis is known as brown lung disease is
caused due to exposure to cotton dust.

Q.84 :a
The Speaker and Deputy Speaker do not
make and subscribe any separate oath while
assuming their office.
Speaker does have the right to vote, but he
can cast his vote only in case of ties to
resolve the deadlock.
Deputy Speaker is not sub-ordinate to the
speaker and is directly responsible to the Lok
Sabha.
Speaker continues to remain in office, till the
new Lok Sabha is constituted, even after the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Q.89 :c
Astrosat-1 is India`s first satellite dedicated
to astronomy, which will scan the universe in
x-ray, ultraviolet and visible light bands.
Aditya-1 will be dedicated to solar coronal
studies and will contain Visible Emission Line
Space Solar Coronagraph -- the main payload
to study the coronal dynamics.
GISAT is Indias eye-in-the-sky which will be
stationed 36,000 km above to maintain
round-the-clock vigil and assist state
authorities to tackle natural disasters, floods
and forest fires and keep a watch over the
country`s sensitive borders.

Q.85 :b
Fundamental duties are inspired by the
erstwhile Soviet Constitution. We have
adopted Directive principles from the Irish
Constitution.
Fundamental duties are confined only to the
citizens of India. Residents is a wider term
than citizens.
Fundamental duties can be enforced in court
of law if the Parliament passes a law in this
regard.

Q.86 :b
The rights under Article 19 are protected
against only the state action and not against
the private individual. When the rights that
are available against the States action only

Q.90 :b
A new technology developed in EU, which
involves changing a part of plant genome
that could be changed to render it less
vulnerable to disease or increase yields or
other desirable traits.
Researchers use molecular scissors to
break apart a genome and then speed up the
repair process thus mimicking the natural
action which occurs when plants are under
attack from diseases.

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It doesnt involve wholesome change of plant
genome or introduction of other organisms
genes as in GM which is GMs major criticism.
Hence, statement 1 is wrong and statement
2 is correct.

Q.94 :a
Major difference between the two types of
food chains lies in the primary source of
energy which in the case of grazing food
chain comes from living plant biomass while
in the other from the dead organic matter.
Both the food chains are found in terrestrial
as well as aquatic ecosystem.

Q.91 :c
Sonar and Radar work on the same principle
of detecting an object through detection of
reflected waves or generated waves ( sound
and radio respectively) from the object.
SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses
sound waves and being a mechanical wave
travels further in the water. Moreso, in water
radio waves are easily absorbed and hence
RADAR could not be used for large distances.
Futher, SONAR could be used both in active
and passive mode.
RADAR (Radio detection and ranging) are
generally used for aerial detection as radio
waves have high penetration in air whereas
sound waves have low penetration in air.
Futher, the speed of radio waves is
thousands of times faster than sound waves.
Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is
correct as range of SONAR will decrease as
radio waves are absorbed more easily.
Statement 3 is incorrect as sound waves are
readily absorbed in air

Q.95 :c
As per the law of thermodynamics, which
state that there is loss of energy in each
process, with the conversion of energy from
one form to another or while passing of
energy from one productivity level to other
energy is always lost. Thus the pyramid of
energy is always upright.

Q.96 :d
The Global Innovation Index 2014 (GII), in its
7th edition this year, is co-published by
Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World
Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO, an
agency of the United Nations, UN).
The theme of the 2014 GII, the Human
Factor in Innovation, explores the role of the
individuals and teams behind the innovation
process. Statistically capturing this human
contribution to innovation is a daunting
challenge.
India slipped off 10 places to 76th place.
India is worst performer among BRICS
countries. China - 29, Russia 49, SA 53,
Brazil 61 (each country is moving up places
except India).

Q.92 :b
Clinically, a heat stroke occurs only after
body temperature crosses 104 degrees F,
when excessive metabolism leads to a sharp
fall in blood pressure and oxygen levels, a
condition called hypoxia.
Increase in metabolism primarily puts
pressure on the heart in a very short time. It
causes expansion of vessels, a major drop in
blood pressure, and hypoxia. Metabolism
goes haywire, creating a toxin overload
which affects multiple organs

Q.97 :c
Titan- USA
K Computer Japan
Mira USA
Juqueen Germany
Sequoia -USA

- See more at: http://indianexpress.com/article/expla


ined/explained-toxin-overload-how-heatkills/#sthash.Kr1b10Ss.dpuf
Q.98 :d
Q.93 :a
Lotic water system and Lentic water system
are types of fresh water ecosystem. Lotic
water system means moving water system. It
includes rivers, creeks, springs and brooks
etc.

Convention on International Trade in


Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora
(CITES):
In order to regulate international trade in
endangered species of Wild Life, the Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species of wild
fauna and flora (CITES) was signed in March 1973.

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World Heritage Convention:
India is a member of World Heritage Convention
responsible for listing of World Heritage Sites, which
include both Cultural and natural sites. The World
Heritage Convention is a Convention under the aegis
of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Wild Life wing of
the Ministry of Environment and Forests is
associated with the conservation of the Natural
World Heritage sites.
The Convention on Conservation of Migratory
Species (CMS) or Bonn Convention aims to conserve
migratory species throughout their range. The
Convention came into force in 1979.
India is a signatory to the convention since 1983.
International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources - The IUCN Red List of Threatened
Species (also known as the IUCN Red List or Red
Data List), conservation status of plant and animal
species.

Q.99 :d
Biomethanation is anaerobic digestion of
organic materials which is converted into
biogas, a gaseous combustible mixture, of
methane (CH4). Biomethanation is a
biological treatment method that can be
used to recover both nutrients and energy
contained in wet biodegradable municipal
waste.
Gasification is incomplete combustion which
produces combustible gas such as
hydrogen, synthetic fuels and is a process
that converts dry organic or fossil based
carbonaceous materials into carbon
monoxide, hydrogen and carbon dioxide at
elevated temperature (500-1800C)
Pyrolysis uses heat to break down
combustible polymeric materials in the
absence of oxygen, producing a mixture of
combustible gases (primarily methane,
complex hydrocarbons, hydrogen, and
carbon monoxide), liquids and solid residues.
The products of pyrolysis process are: (i) a
gas mixture; (ii) a liquid (bio-oil/tar); (iii) a
solid residue (carbon black).
Incineration technology is complete
combustion of waste with the recovery of
heat to produce steam that in turn produces
power through steam turbines. But
Incineration produces dioxins which are POPs
(Persistent Organic Pollutants).

Q.100 :b

UN conference in Japan, adopted a treaty that will


phase out mercury use by 2020. 110 countries
signed this treaty, will come into effect in 90 days.
The treaty sets a phase-out date of 2020 for a list of
products and gives governments about 15 years to
end all mercury mining. Countries need to adopt
alternative techs to phase out mercury use.
Mercury is released by natural processes as well as
thru human use. It is absorbed by forming deep sea
sediment n in lake sediments. This is then absorbed
by marine life n thru there it is consumed by
humans. Mercury affects the brains n kidneys as
found in the Minamata disaster.
East n South-east Asian countries are the biggest
emitters of mercury, along with African n Latin
American countries.
Mercury is use in variety of electrical
appliances, thermometers, barometers,
blood pressure monitors. Artisanal n small
scale gold production accounts for highest
mercury use.
Coal combustion comes second in mercury
use. Coal fired plants need to adopt other
techs to stop mercury emissions; fluorescent
lamps n bulbs containing more than 5 mg of
mercury are banned, mercury mining is
banned.
Mercury will be allowed in artisanal and smallscale gold mining, dental filling are exempt from
2020 ban, though they are encouraged to minimize
its use; switches, relays, mercury containing
batteries are banned in 2020. Thermometers,
Barometers, blood pressure monitors using mercury
are banned. Use of mercury in religious n traditional
ceremonies is exempt from ban.
Incidentally, the treaty does not focus much on the
emission levels nor does it specify any threshold for
emissions. Like in case of coal fired power plants.
Mercury is most unregulated metal, though US n EU
has placed some control on its trade. But China n
Japan have not banned the export of the metal, but
now with the signing of the treaty an export ban is
likely.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 & 3
are correct.

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Q.1

Q.36 a

Q.71 a

Q.2

Q.37 a

Q.72 a

Q.3

Q.38 a

Q.73 a

Q.4

Q.39 a

Q.74 a

Q.5

Q.40 a

Q.75 a

Q.6

Q.41 a

Q.76 a

Q.7

Q.42 a

Q.77 a

Q.8

Q.43 a

Q.78 a

Q.9

Q.44 a

Q.79 a

Q.10 a

Q.45 a

Q.80 a

Q.11 a

Q.46 a

Q.81 a

Q.12 a

Q.47 a

Q.82 a

Q.13 a

Q.48 a

Q.83 a

Q.14 a

Q.49 a

Q.84 a

Q.15 a

Q.50 a

Q.85 a

Q.16 a

Q.51 a

Q.86 a

Q.17 a

Q.52 a

Q.87 a

Q.18 a

Q.53 a

Q.88 a

Q.19 a

Q.54 a

Q.89 a

Q.20 a

Q.55 a

Q.90 a

Q.21 a

Q.56 a

Q.91 a

Q.22 a

Q.57 a

Q.92 a

Q.23 a

Q.58 a

Q.93 a

Q.24 a

Q.59 a

Q.94 a

Q.25 a

Q.60 a

Q.95 a

Q.26 a

Q.61 a

Q.96 a

Q.27 a

Q.62 a

Q.97 a

Q.28 a

Q.63 a

Q.98 a

Q.29 a

Q.64 a

Q.99 a

Q.30 a

Q.65 a

Q.100 a

Q.31 a

Q.66 a

Q.32 a

Q.67 a

Q.33 a

Q.68 a

Q.34 a

Q.69 a

Q.35 a

Q.70 a

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