Marine Science Semester 1 review

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1.
What percentage of the surface of the Earth is covered by seawater?
a. 46% b. 55% c. 64% d. 71% e. 83%
2.
Oceans are important in all but the following ways:
a. solar-powered engines that drive weather patterns.
b. provide a substantial amount of the world's food supply.
c. marine organisms are important for scientific research.
d. a direct source of fresh water for arid lands.
e. a source of industrial and medicinal materials.
3.
Oceanography is best described as the study of:
a. the living organisms that inhabit the sea. b. the oceans and all of their phenomena. c. the
oceans and living organisms. d. the chemical make up of the oceans. e. the interactions of
marine organisms with their environment.
4.
Marine biology is the study of:
a. the living organisms that inhabit the sea. b. the oceans and their phenomena. c. the oceans
and living organisms. d. the chemical make up of the oceans. e. biogeochemical processes.
5.
The most complete scientific picture of the oceans comes from:
a. thorough oceanographic studies. b. thorough marine biology studies. c. combining
oceanography and marine biology information. d. having ocean usage policies. e. the popular
media.
6.
Knowledge of the ocean can come from all except:
a. robotics. b. ocean law. c. deep submersibles. d. SCUBA studies. e. dredging the sea floor.
7.
The earliest recorded direct studies of marine biology are attributed to:
a. the Greeks. b. the Catholic Church. c. Arabian philosophers. d. Micronesian mariners.
e. the Chinese.
8.
The following marine biologist was aboard the HMS Beagle in 1831:
a. Edward Forbes. b. Charles Wyville Thomson. c. Alexander Agassiz. d. Charles Darwin.
e. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
9.
Charles Darwin's observations while aboard the HMS Beagle led eventually to the:
a. idea that life started on land. b. theory that life's origin was in fresh water. c. theory of
natural selection. d. re-birth of marine biology. e. idea that life could not survive in the deep
sea.

10.
Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection based on data he collected
during:
a. the Beagle expedition. b. the Challenger expedition. c. the observations of Agassiz.
d. Alvin's dives. e. his time spent on the rocky coastline of England.
11.
Darwin produced a well-respected monograph on:
a. mussels. b. sea lizards. c. Galapagos turtles. d. barnacles. e. marine fossils.
12.
To Edward Forbes is attributed the idea that:
a. life could not survive in the deep ocean. b. life occurs throughout the ocean depths.
c. continents drift upon the Earths mantel. d. the mid-Atlantic rift ridge is a result of
continental drift. e. dead zones occur in oxygen-depleted coastal waters.
13.
That the deep sea could not support life was proven wrong when:
a. Alvin was able to explore the ocean depths. b. the observations from the Challenger
expedition were reported. c. organisms were discovered while repairing the transatlantic
telegraph cable. d. the development and use of robotic submersibles began. e. living organisms
were found in the Gulf of Mexico dead zone.

14.
Modern oceanography and marine biology were attributed to:
a. the voyage of the Beagle. b. the discoveries of Alvin. c. the laying of the transatlantic
telegraph cable. d. expeditions of Alexander Agassiz. e. the Challenger expedition.
15.
The chief scientist on the HMS Challenger expedition was:
a. Charles Darwin. b. Victor Hensen. c. Alexander Aggasiz. d. Charles Wyville Thomas.
e. Edward Forbes.
16.
The preeminent American naturalist of the late 1800s was:
a. Charles Darwin. b. Charles Wyville Thomson. c. Victor Hensen. d. Alexander Agassiz.
e. Edward Forbes.
17.
To Alexander Agassiz are attributed the following theories except:
a. colors of organisms were related to the absorption of different wavelengths of light at different
depths. b. that the Caribbean and Pacific Oceans were once connected. c. that atolls sit atop
sinking mountains. d. None of these. e. All of these.
18.
The phrase "Study nature, not books" is attributed to:
a. Louis Agassiz. b. Alexander Agassiz. c. Charles Darwin. d. Charles Wyville Thomson.
e. Aristotle.
19.
The first marine biology laboratory was:
a. the Scripps Institute of Oceanography. b. the Marine Biological Laboratory at Woods Hole.
c. the Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric Research. d. the Friday Harbor
Laboratories. e. the Duke University Marine Laboratory.

20.
The first United States Marine Biological Laboratory was started by:
a. Charles Wyville Thomson. b. Sir Alistair Hardy. c. Charles Darwin. d. Louis Agassiz.
e. Alexander Agassiz.
21.
Which United States marine science center is on the Pacific Coast?
a. Scripps Institute of Oceanography. b. Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric Science.
c. Duke University Marine Laboratory. d. Harbor Branch Oceanographic Institute. e. None of
these.
22.
Important United States marine laboratories on the Atlantic Coast include all except:
a. Woods Hole Marine Biology Laboratory. b. Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric
Science. c. Duke University Marine Laboratory. d. Friday Harbor Laboratory. e. Harbor
Branch Oceanographic Institute.
23.
The classic book The Open Sea: Its Natural History was written by:
a. Fridtjof Nanson. b. Sir Alistair Hardy. c. Alexander Agassiz. d. Charles Wyville Thomson.
e. Jacques-Yves Cousteau.
24.
An early marine biology expedition to the North Pole was led by:
a. Sir Alistair Hardy. b. Alexander Agassiz. c. Fridtjof Nanson. d. Charles Wyville Thomson.
e. Robert Peary.
25.
An early marine biology expedition to study Antarctic whales was led by:
a. Sir Alistair Hardy. b. Alexander Agassiz. c. Fridtjof Nanson. d. Charles Wyville Thomson.
e. Louis Agassiz.
26.
El Nio/Southern Oscillation refers to changes in atmospheric pressure in the:
a. Pacific Ocean. b. Atlantic Ocean. c. Indian Ocean. d. Southern Ocean. e. Antarctic Ocean.
27.
The scientific method can be best described as:
a. implementing an experiment. b. inductive and deductive reasoning. c. collecting data from
the laboratory. d. a set of procedures for learning about the world. e. a rigid set of procedures
that cannot be deviated from.
28.
A marine biologist observes that Mako sharks, flying fish, and salmon leap out of the
water. An example of induction from these observations is:
a. only some fishes can leap out of the water. b. all fishes leap out of the water. c. fishes leap
out of the water to escape from predators. d. leaping out of water is often used in feeding.
e. these fish must be closely related.
29.
The first step in the scientific process is:
a. setting up a laboratory. b. conducting experiments. c. making observations. d. inducing a
testable hypothesis. e. using deductive reasoning.
30.

For a scientific theory to enjoy broad acceptance by the scientific community it must:

a. be based on numerous observations. b. have one or more hypotheses that have been tested
and accepted. c. be supported by an important scientist. d. both a and b. e. both b and c.
31.
A scientific investigation follows an orderly progression of steps-select the correct path.
a. Test hypothesis, collect and interpret data, determine conclusions. b. Make observations,
formulate hypothesis, test hypothesis. c. Make observations, formulate hypothesis, test
hypothesis, collect and interpret data, draw conclusions. d. Consult literature, test hypothesis,
collect data, interpret data, draw conclusions. e. Make observations, consult literature, interpret
data, formulate and test hypothesis.
32.
The thinking process of proposing a general explanation from individual observations is
called:
a. scientific method. b. deductive reasoning. c. logical reasoning. d. inductive reasoning.
e. logical-positivist reasoning.
33.
The thinking process of drawing specific statements from a general principle or idea is
called:
a. scientific method. b. deductive reasoning. c. inductive reasoning. d. logical reasoning.
e. logical-positivist reasoning.
34.
The orderly pattern of gathering and analyzing information to understand how the natural
world works is called:
a. scientific method. b. logical reasoning. c. deductive reasoning. d. inductive reasoning.
e. theory formation.
35.
J. H. Connell proposed that competition occurred between barnacle species; he based that
on:
a. the observed distribution of the species and environmental measurements. b. laboratory tests
he had concluded. c. a conversation with other scientists. d. the observation that they were in
the rocky intertidal. e. laboratory observations of their fighting behavior.
36.
Ivan Valiela's hypothesis that the growth of salt marsh grass is limited by nitrogen
availability was:
a. disproved by the growth of larger and taller grass in his control (nitrogen-fertilized) plots.
b. disproved by the growth of larger and taller grass in his experimental (nitrogen-fertilized)
plots. c. supported by the growth of larger and taller grass in his experimental (nitrogenfertilized) plots. d. supported by the growth of larger and taller grass in his control (nitrogenfertilized) plots. e. unsupported by a poor experimental design.
37.
Which of these hypotheses cannot be tested by a controlled experiment?
a. Biological interactions between barnacle species are responsible for their distribution patterns.
b. Night-feeding fishes rely on their sense of smell to locate prey. c. The growth of salt marsh
grass is limited by nitrogen availability. d. Certain humpback whale behaviors are important for
attracting a mate. e. Goldfish prefer to eat brightly-colored foods.
38.

Ecology is:

a. a type of life style. b. the study of the interaction of organisms and their environment. c. a
place where organisms live. d. what happens when a predator consumes a prey item. e. the
study of the physical environment in an ecosystem.
39.
The biosphere
a. is located in the Northern Hemisphere. b. contains organisms with similar needs. c. has
environmental conditions of similar temperature, pressure, and salinity. d. supports all of life on
earth. e. is restricted to the continents.
40.
Organisms that live under similar environmental conditions and location, and interact
directly or indirectly are part of the same:
a. ecosystem. b. biosystem. c. abiotic habitat. d. biotic habitat. e. population.

41.
An example of abiotic factors influencing marine organisms is:
a. predation. b. competition for food. c. parasitism. d. temperature. e. bacterial disease.
42.
Habitat refers to where an organism:
a. lives. b. feeds. c. reproduces. d. forages. e. All of the above.
43.
The habitat of a species has
a. both abiotic and biotic factors. b. neither biotic or abiotic factors. c. biotic factors.
d. abiotic factors.
44.
Habitat complexity can support
a. complex life histories. b. increased biodiversity. c. higher productivity. d. more different
species in an area. e. All of the above.
45.
An environment would be considered harsh to an organism if:
a. it would be difficult for the individual to maintain homeostasis. b. the temperatures are
extreme. c. salinity varies. d. pressure gradients are large. e. light levels are low.
46.
Regions above or below the optimal range of an environmental variable are called:
a. zones of stress. b. tolerance zones. c. optimal range areas. d. None of the above. e. b and c
only.
47.
A population growth pattern that reaches a certain level is described with a(n)
a. logarithmic equation. b. exponential equation. c. logistic equation. d. J -shaped curve.
e. quadratic equation.
48.
You start to culture a petri dish of marine bacteria. Each day, the number of visible
colonies growing on the agar surface increases in this fashion: 2, 4, 16, 32, 64, 128. This growth
pattern is best described as
a. logarithmic. b. logistic. c. exponential. d. quadratic.
49.

The most important marine photosynthetic organisms are:

a. kelp. b. seagrasses. c. macroalgae. d. phytoplankton. e. giant kelps.

50.
Animals that obtain their body heat from internal metabolism are called:
a. ectotherms. b. poikilotherms. c. endotherms. d. osmoconformers. e. osmoregulators.
51.
An organism that maintains a constant body temperature is termed:
a. an endotherm. b. an ectotherm. c. a poikiotherm. d. cold blooded. e. an osmoconformer.
52.
An organism whose temperature is similar to its surroundings is called a(n)
a. endotherm. b. poikiotherm. c. ectotherm. d. warm blooded organism. e. osmoregulator.
53.
A particular sea bird has a Type 1 survival curve, and older female birds produce more
eggs than younger birds. What is an evolutionary strategy of these birds?
a. young birds reach maturity rapidly b. reproduction is delayed c. birds reach maturity slowly
d. both a and b e. both b and c
54.
The amount of dissolved salts in water determines the:
a. temperature. b. luminosity. c. salinity. d. clarity. e. turbidity.
55.
The movement of water across a membrane in response to a gradient of solute
concentration is called:
a. salinity. b. osmosis. c. solubility. d. diffusion. e. pressure.
56.
An atmosphere of pressure, in psi, equals:
a. 15. b. 14.7. c. 15.7 d. 16.5. e. 16.7
57.
The pressure of the oceans increases by one atmosphere for every ____ meter increase in
depth.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25
58.
At what depth would water pressure be 4 times greater than atmospheric pressure at the
surface?
a. 10 meters b. 20 meters c. 30 meters d. 40 meters e. 50 meters

59.
In the carbon cycle, animals play a fundamental role by:
a. decreasing the amount of dissolved carbon dioxide. b. increasing the amount of dissolved
carbon dioxide as a result of respiration. c. increasing the amount of dissolved carbon dioxide
as a result of photosynthesis. d. decreasing the amount of plant biomass. e. decreasing it as a
result of photosynthesis.
60.
An important inorganic nutrient needed by marine photosynthetic organisms is:
a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. lipids. d. nitrates. e. carbohydrates.
61.

Oxygen during the early development of the atmosphere was:

a. common. b. rare. c. important for photosynthesis. d. about the same as now. e. created
from the cooling of hot lava.
62.
Those organisms that thrive in an environment free of oxygen are called
a. phytoplankton. b. zooplankton. c. nekton. d. anaerobes. e. aerobic.
63.
Anaerobic organisms thrive:
a. in oxygen-free environments. b. where oxygen is abundant. c. where carbon dioxide is
abundant. d. in surface waters of the ocean. e. in the middle of the water column.
64.
Metabolic wastes are:
a. the byproduct of metabolism. b. unused nutrients during metabolism. c. re-used by the
organism. d. unimportant to community metabolism.
65.
Waste products of metabolism tend to accumulate in:
a. open ocean areas. b. coastal waters. c. small enclosed bodies of water. d. fast circulating
water. e. major oceani currents.
66.
When two different species require the same resources we may observe
a. intraspecific competition. b. resource partitioning. c. interspecific competition.
d. predation. e. symbiosis/parasitism.
67.
____ is when one organism successfully outcompetes another organism and excludes it
from a particular area or niche.
a. Predation b. Resource partitioning c. Parasitism d. Competitive exclusion
e. Commensalism
68.
The niche of the species is best described as:
a. the biological relationships of the species in the ecosystem. b. the behavior of a species in the
ecosystem. c. the sum of the abiotic factors required or tolerated by the species. d. the
occupation (needs and role) of the species in the ecosystem. e. the location where the species
resides.
69.
The process of subdividing a niche into smaller niches is called:
a. resource partitioning. b. interspecific competition. c. commensalism. d. mutualism.
e. symbiosis.
70.
Members of the same species living in the same area and interacting are:
a. a community. b. a population. c. an ecosystem. d. a biosphere. e. a biome.
71.
Predators that prevent the population of their prey from exploding and thus outcompeting
their prey are called:
a. regulators. b. herbivores. c. keystone predators. d. omnivores. e. decomposers.
72.
A species whose effect on biological diversity is disproportionate to their own abundance
is termed:

a. predator. b. keystone. c. carnivore. d. producer. e. herbivore.

73.
The symbiotic relationship in which the symbiont benefits from the relationship but the
host is neither harmed nor benefited is called:
a. mutualism. b. parasitism. c. commensalism. d. competition. e. niche interactivity.
74.
An example of mutualism is:
a. remora fish attached to or following a shark. b. cleaner shrimp removing parasites from a
fish. c. tapeworm living in the digestive system of a fish. d. hagfish feeding off a whale killed
by an Orca. e. interactions between the barnacle species Semibalanus and Chthamalus
75.
The following are main points of the example of the Amphipod and Sea Butterfly except:
a. Fish are confused by the amphipods. b. A new form of symbiosis was observed. c. A
kidnapping behavior was observed. d. An example of chemical defense was seen e. The
scientific method was utilized.
76.
Communities of organisms are made up of:
a. populations of different species. b. different habitats. c. two or more populations of the same
species. d. ecosystems. e. interacting niches.
77.
Organisms that live in the intertidal must deal with:
a. pressure changes. b. desiccation. c. temperature extremes. d. b and c only. e. a amd b
only.
78.
The pelagic zone comprises the:
a. ocean bottom. b. lit area of the ocean. c. dark area of the ocean. d. water column.
e. intertidal zone.
79.
Estuaries are an example of:
a. communities. b. populations. c. ecosystems. d. the benthic division. e. pelagic systems.
80.
The primary source of energy for primary production is:
a. high temperatures. b. sunlight. c. hydrogen bonds. d. glucose. e. carbohydrates.
81.
Chemosynthetic organisms use the energy from ____ to produce organic molecules.
a. the sun b. chemical reactions c. the water d. other organisms. e. glucose
82.
The proper order of predator-prey relationships is
a. herbivore-producer-carnivore. b. carnivore-producer-herbivore. c. herbivore-carnivoreproducer. d. producer-herbivore-carnivore. e. carnivore-herbivore-producer.
83.
____ are good examples of consumers.
a. Omnivores b. Detritivores c. Herbivores d. Carnivores. e. All of the above.
84.
With each change in trophic level we can expect a ____% transfer of biomass.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 25 d. 50 e. 20

85.
How much biomass of krill (in kg) is needed to produce 1,000 kg of whale?
a. 100 b. 2,000 c. 10,000 d. 50,000 e. 100,000
86.
On average, only about ____ percent of the energy available at one trophic level is passed
on to the next trophic level.
a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 90 e. 50
87.
When nutrients are limited, they do all the following except:
a. reduce metabolism. b. decrease growth rates. c. affect growth form. d. immobilize an
organism. e. cause algal blooms.
88.
Important nutrients for photosynthesis include:
a. nitrogen and phosphate. b. phosphate and oxygen. c. nitrogen and oxygen. d. calcium and
oxygen. e. glucose and oxygen.
89.
Nutrients are reintroduced into the upper reaches of the oceans from deeper areas by the
process of:
a. upwelling. b. downwelling. c. excretion by animals. d. sinking of dead organisms.
e. attachment to fecal pellets.
90.
The process of increasing nutrients is termed:
a. photosynthesis. b. community metabolism. c. eutrophication. d. putrification.
e. oligotropism.
91.
Eutrophication can lead to
a. an algal bloom. b. fish congregations. c. decreased water clarity. d. slow plant growth rates.
e. a and c only.
92.
You are a resource manager of a large eutrophic lake. After stopping the source of
nutrients from entering the lake, what further steps could you do to imporve the water quality?
a. introduce phytoplankton-consuming fish. b. introduce freshwater sponges into the lake.
c. introduce aquatic plants into the habitat. d. introduce carnivorous fish into the lake.
93.
The solar system formed ____ billion years ago.
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8
94.
Gaseous oxygen formed in the Earths atmosphere as a result of:
a. outgassing from the interior of the planet. b. respiration of bacteria. c. input from outer
space. d. photosynthesis. e. All of these.
95.
It has been proposed that the first living organisms were:
a. heterotrophs. b. autotrophs. c. chemosynthetic. d. photosynthetic. e. multicellular.
96.

The first heterotrophs obtained their energy from:

a. autotrophs. b. chemosynthetic organisms. c. organic material in the ocean.

d. photosynthetic organisms. e. the sun.
97.
The ocean is frequently referred to as:
a. circumpolar ocean. b. seven seas. c. world ocean. d. Indo-Pacific Ocean. e. the cradle of
civilization.
98.
A body of salt water that is more or less landlocked is called:
a. the seven seas. b. a world ocean. c. an ocean. d. a sea. e. a marine province.
99.
The thickest of Earths physical layers is the:
a. crust. b. mantle. c. inner core. d. outer core. e. asthenosphere.
100. The region of the mantle below the crust is called:
a. the asthenosphere. b. the mantle. c. the lithosphere. d. the outer core. e. the troposphere.
101. The solid region of crust and upper mantle is called:
a. the asthenosphere. b. the mantle. c. the lithosphere. d. the outer core. e. the inner core.
102. The continental crust is primarily comprised of all the following except:
a. granite-type rock. b. basalt-type rock. c. quarts-type rock. d. silicon-type rock.
e. sedimentary rock.
103. The forces of the mantle acting on the crust give way to:
a. ocean basins. b. continental drift. c. magma. d. continental rise. e. All of these.
104. Pangea, the name given to the supercontinent that existed before continental drift, was
coined by:
a. Sir Francis Bacon. b. Alfred Wegener. c. Harry Hess. d. Edward Suess. e. Sir Alistair
Hardy
105. When Pangea first broke up it formed:
a. North and South America. b. Africa and South America. c. Antarctic and Godwanaland.
d. East and West Hemisphere. e. Laurasia and Godwanaland.
106. The two continents that suggested continental drift are called:
a. North and South America. b. North America and Europe. c. South America and Africa.
d. Europe and Asia. e. Australia and India.
107. The first person to describe the mechanism of seafloor spreading by which continents
drifted apart from one another was:
a. Sir Francis Bacon. b. Alfred Wegener. c. Harry Hess. d. Edward Suess. e. Charles
Darwin.
108. Where oceanic crust is cracked and magma is emerging we find:
a. midocean ridges. b. atolls. c. archipelagos. d. trenches. e. guyots.

109. Seafloor spreading is the result of:

a. vertical movement along the lithosphere. b. lateral movement of the crust. c. growth of the
midocean ridge. d. subduction. e. horizontal uplift of the continents.
110. A region where old oceanic crust is being destroyed is called:
a. a spreading center. b. a midocean ridge. c. a seamount. d. a subduction zone. e. an atoll.
111. All of the following are evidence of continental drift except:
a. distribution of earthquakes. b. age of rocks from the sea floor. c. reefs. d. analysis of core
samples. e. paleomagnetism.
112. Lithosphere plates move past each other at regions known as:
a. divergent plate boundaries. b. convergent plate boundaries. c. escarpments. d. faults.
e. hydrothermal vents.
113. The special kind of fault along where different ocean plates are moving laterally away
from each other is called:
a. trench. b. midocean. c. transform. d. arc. e. convergent.
114. Midocean ridges form:
a. anywhere in the middle of the ocean. b. in subduction zones. c. where oceanic crust is
cracked and magma is emerging. d. in deep ocean trenches. e. in subduction zones and in deep
ocean trenches
115. In 1977 Dr. Robert Ballard and J.F. Grassle discovered:
a. underwater seamounts. b. the midocean ridge. c. the Titanic. d. rift communities. e. the
Andrea Doria.
116. A core sample is taken 100 km west of and parallel to a ridge system. Magnetic readings
of the rock show a reversal of the Earths magnetic field. How many km east of the ridge system
must scientists travel to collect a core sample with the same magnetic properties?
a. 50. b. 100. c. 200. d. 75. e. 0 km; collect the sample directly at the ridge.
117. The area directly below the neritic zone is called:
a. abyssal plain. b. ocean basin. c. trench. d. continental margin. e. hadal zone.
118. The area beyond the neritic zone is called:
a. abyssal plain. b. ocean basin. c. trench. d. continental margin. e. the hadal zone.
119. The transition between the continental shelf and the deep floor is called:
a. midocean. b. continental slope. c. shelf break. d. continental margin. e. dontinental divide.
120. The continental rise is composed of sediments deposited from:
a. biological activity. b. underwater landslides. c. midocean ridges. d. windblown sources.
e. cosmogenous sources.

121. Island arcs are associated with:

a. midocean ridges. b. continental shelves. c. continental slopes. d. deep-sea trenches.
e. midocean ridges and deep-sea trenches.
122. The deepest underwater trench in the world is the:
a. Mariana Trench. b. Peru-Chile Trench. c. Java Trench. d. South Sandwich Trench.
e. Aleutian Trench.
123. Drowned rivers help create:
a. shelf breaks. b. continental margins. c. submarine canyons. d. turbidity currents.
e. continental trenches.
124. As sand moves rapidly down the continental slope it can lead to:
a. convergence. b. earthquakes. c. turbidity currents. d. shelf breaks. e. midocean ridges.
125. Turbidity currents are thought to have contributed to the formation of the:
a. Hudson River Canyon. b. Chesapeake Bay. c. Galveston Bay Canyon. d. San Francisco
Bay. e. Scripps Submarine Canyon.
126. The following are all main points of the article Animal Sculptors of the Seafloor except:
a. Gray whales feed in a way that preserves habitat of their prey. b. Biological activities can
alter large expanses of seafloor. c. The previous ideas about the feeding biology of large marine
mammals were refined. d. Feeding activities enhance the areas productivity. e. Walruses
overgrazed clam beds, causing environmental collapse.
127. At the base of a steep continental slope a gentle slope is called:
a. a bajada. b. a delta. c. an inverse plane. d. the continental rise. e. an abyssal hill.
128. All of the following are considered a main ocean basin except:
a. Pacific. b. Atlantic. c. Mediterranean. d. Arctic. e. Indian.
129. A flat expanse of an ocean basin is called:
a. a seamount. b. an abyssal plain. c. an abyssal hill. d. an abyssal prairie. e. an underwater
delta.
130. Dotting the abyssal plain are abyssal hills that rise up to:
a. 100 meters. b. 500 meters. c. 1000 meters. d. 1500 meters. e. 4000 meters.
131. Seamounts are formed from:
a. the rift zone. b. underwater volcanoes. c. uplifting of crust. d. earthquakes. e. underwater
landslides.
132. Sediments that are composed of the remains of once living organisms are called:
a. cosmogenous. b. hydrogenous. c. inorganic. d. biogenous. e. terrigenous.

133. Sediments that are formed from seawater as a result of a variety of chemical processes
are called:
a. cosmogenous. b. hydrogenous. c. organic.. d. biogenous. e. terrigenous.
134. An example of a hydrogenous sediment is:
a. diatomaceous ooze. b. siliceous ooze. c. manganese nodules. d. calcareous ooze.
e. coccolithophore ooze.
135. You have a sediment sample taken from the Tropical Indo-Pacific shallows. When acid is
added to the sample, it bubbles and fizzes. What do you conclude?
a. Bubbles are due to manganese nodules. b. The sample is cosmogenous. c. The sample is
terrigenous. d. The sample is biogenous. e. None of these.
136. An ooze is called an ooze if it is composed of ____% or more of biogenous sediments.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50
137. Radiolarians contribute to biogenous sediments termed:
a. diatomaceous ooze. b. calcareous ooze. c. manganese ooze. d. siliceous ooze.
e. hydrogenous ooze.
138. Mud is composed of:
a. dirt and water. b. iron and diatoms. c. clay and silt. d. calcareous and siliceous ooze.
e. sand and clay.
139. The reference or primary line of longitude is:
a. the Tropic of Cancer. b. the Tropic of Capricorn. c. the Greenwich meridian. d. the equator.
e. the International Date Line.
140. A chronometer is used for:
a. measuring depth. b. measuring speed. c. measuring time. d. measuring latitude.
e. measuring longitude.
141. You are planning to set sail on your catamaran from Los Angeles to Tahiti. What piece of
navigating equipment would you preferentially use?
a. Sextant. b. GPS unit. c. Chronometer. d. Physiographic chart. e. None of these.
142. Marine organisms contain ____ % water by mass.
a. 40-50 b. 50-60 c. 60-70 d. 70-80 e. 80-90
143. Water can mingle with other elements because it is a:
a. heating agent. b. solvent. c. solid. d. vapor. e. nonpolar molecule.
144. The charge of a water molecule is considered:
a. polar. b. positive. c. negative. d. neutral. e. nonpolar.
145.

The polarity of a water molecule is due to:

a. the greater number of hydrogen atoms relative to oxygen. b. the uneven attraction of
electrons to the oxygen atom. c. the uneven attraction of electrons to the hydrogen atoms.
d. the uneven attraction of protons to the oxygen atom. e. the number of neutrons in the
nucleus.
146. The unique attractive forces that keep molecules of water together are called:
a. strong forces. b. adhesion. c. hydrogen bonds. d. cohesion. e. weak nuclear forces.
147. Hydrogen bonds are the result of attraction between:
a. the H of one water molecule and the H of another water molecule. b. the two H atoms of the
same water molecule. c. the H and O of the same water molecule. d. the H of one water
molecule and the O of another water molecule. e. the O of one water molecule and the O of
another water molecule.
148. The property of water whereby molecules tend to stick to one another is called:
a. cohesion. b. polarity. c. dissolving ability. d. adhesion. e. viscosity.
149. The property of water whereby molecules tend to stick to objects is called:
a. cohesion. b. surface tension. c. dissolving ability. d. adhesion. e. viscosity.
150. Surface tension allows water molecules to do all the following except:
a. transmit light energy. b. resist evaporation. c. form a tight surface layer. d. support small
organisms. e. resist evaporation and transmit light energy.
151. Hydrogen forces have high attractive forces that allow water to have a high:
a. strength. b. solubility. c. freezing point. d. boiling point. e. rate of evaporation.
152. Water is unique because its solid phase is ____ the liquid phase.
a. denser than b. similar to c. less dense than d. Less dense than or similar to e. None of
these.
153. An ion is:
a. a type of gas. b. an individually charged particle. c. heavy water. d. water with an extra
hydrogen atom. e. a neutrally-charged atom.
154. The specific heat of water is:
a. a gram of substance. b. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1 F. c. calories need to
heat seawater. d. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1 C. e. energy required to
evaporate 1 gram of liquid water.
155. Which low energy light wave length is quickly absorbed by water?
a. Red. b. Orange. c. Yellow. d. Green. e. Red, orange, and yellow.
156. Which high energy light wave length can penetrate sea water the deepest?
a. Blue. b. Green. c. Violet. d. Red. e. Blue, green, and violet.

157. In most clear waters, 1% of surface light can penetrate to:

a. 10 m. b. 20 m. c. 50 m. d. 75 m. e. 100 m.
158. You are SCUBA diving with a friend, who is wearing a red and purple wetsuit. You both
descend and conduct your underwater research at 30 m. What color(s) does her wetsuit appear at
this depth?
a. Black and dark blue. b. Dark blue and purple. c. Dark green and black. d. Dark red and
black. e. Dark green and dark blue.
159. Light that is absorbed by water is converted to:
a. short wave radiation. b. long wave radiation. c. heat. d. mass. e. green light.
160. Acids are compounds that:
a. can bind hydrogen ions. b. can release hydrogen ions. c. are pH 8 or above. d. contain
hydrogen and hydroxide ions equal in number. e. raise pH.
161. Bases are compounds that do all the following except:
a. they bind hydrogen ions. b. they release hydrogen ions. c. they are pH 7 or above. d. they
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions. e. they raise pH.
162. Waters pH is considered neutral when:
a. hydrogen can be bound. b. hydrogen can be released. c. water is slightly alkaline.
d. hydrogen and hydroxide ions are equal in number. e. hydrogen can be bound and released.
163. The pH scale is a measure of:
a. how many degrees a professor has. b. the temperature of water. c. concentration of hydrogen
ion in a volume of solution. d. concentration of hydroxide ions in a volume of solution.
e. None of these.
164. The pH of seawater is important to living organisms because:
a. it can affect the functioning of enzymes. b. it can interfere with metabolism. c. it can affect
growth. d. All of these. e. None of these.
165. A trace element's concentration is less than a part per:
a. thousand. b. million. c. billion. d. trillion. e. hundred.
166. Salinity is expressed in parts per:
a. hundred. b. thousand. c. ten thousand. d. hundred thousand. e. million.
167. The average salinity of seawater is ____0/0.
a. 35 b. 37 c. 40 d. 45 e. 50
168. The salinity of seawater at the poles is:
a. high due to evaporation. b. low due to precipitation. c. high due to freezing. d. low due to
river input. e. similar to the open ocean.

169. The salinity of seawater at the equator is:

a. high due to evaporation. b. low due to precipitation. c. high due to freezing. d. low due to
river input. e. low due to temperature.
170. Salts are removed from the oceans primarily by:
a. absorption by living organisms. b. removal by sea spray. c. evaporation. d. adsorption onto
particles. e. salt mining.
171. When a shallow extension of the sea dries out it leaves salt deposits called:
a. participates. b. conglomerates. c. evaporites. d. rock salt. e. sedimentary layers.
172. Gases that are regulated by biological processes include:
a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. argon. d. oxygen and carbon dioxide. e. carbon dioxide and
argon.
173. The oxygen minimum layer is found:
a. in the ocean trenches. b. mid-ocean. c. just below the sunlit surface. d. at the surface.
e. just above the abyssal plain.
174. In terms of gas solubility in sea water, what is the correct relationship?
a. Carbon dioxide > oxygen > nitrogen. b. Oxygen > carbon dioxide > nitrogen. c. Nitrogen >
carbon dioxide > oxygen. d. Carbon dioxide > nitrogen > oxygen. e. Oxygen > nitrogen >
carbon dioxide
175. To remove carbon dioxide that is dissolved in seawater, you could _____ the water
sample.
a. chill b. increase the pressure of c. increase the salinity of d. heat e. heat and increase the
pressure of
176. Seawater is considered buffered due to the presence of:
a. oxygen ions. b. nitrogen ions. c. bicarbonate ions. d. silicon ions. e. calcium ions.
177. An imbalance of heat received versus heat leaving the Earth can lead to:
a. global warming. b. global cooling. c. temperature inversion. d. global warming and global
cooling. e. global cooling and temperature inversion.
178. The majority of the heat that is transferred from the Earth to the atmosphere is transferred
by:
a. radiation of heat into the atmosphere. b. evaporation of water. c. absorption by the
lithosphere. d. reflection of heat into space. e. Condensing of water.
179. The following are considered greenhouse gases except:
a. nitrogen. b. carbon dioxide. c. methane. d. chlorofluorocarbons. e. nitrogen and methane.
180. The mass of a substance divided by its volume is:
a. heat capacity. b. surface tension. c. density. d. salinity. e. viscosity.

181. The two main factors controlling the density of water are:
a. salinity and temperature. b. salinity and heat capacity. c. salinity and pH. d. pH and heat
capacity. e. temperature and pH.
182. The maximum density of pure water occurs at:
a. -2 C. b. 0 C. c. 3 C. d. 4 C. e. -4 C.
183. A zone of rapid temperature change is called a(n):
a. pycnocline. b. thermocline. c. halocline. d. isocline. e. None of these.
184. An isopycnal water column is one in which the density:
a. increases with depth. b. decreases with depth. c. remains the same with depth. d. None of
these. e. increases with temperature.
185. The density of air increases with:
a. increasing temperature. b. decreasing pressure. c. increasing moisture. d. decreasing
moisture. e. decreasing temperature.
186. At 30 north and 30 south, air is:
a. cool and rising. b. moist and rising. c. moist and falling. d. dry and falling. e. dry and
rising.
187. The Coriolis effect is:
a. the downwelling of seawater at the equator. b. the upwelling of seawater at the equator.
c. the apparent deflection of the path of air and water. d. the reduction of air speed over the
ground as one goes from the equator to the poles. e. None of these.
188. A Class 4 hurricane is centered over Bermuda (latitude 32.20 N) and is moving
eastwards. Which coastal city on the eastern coast of the United States is in the most peril from
its approach?
a. Savannah, GA (latitude 32.08 N). b. Jacksonville, FL (latitude 30.32 N). c. Wilmington, NC
(latitude 34.23 N). d. Boston, MA (latitude 42.36 N). e. None of these.
189. A common generating force for surface waves in the oceans is:
a. wind. b. gravity. c. surface tension. d. capillary action. e. undersea tectonic activity.
190. The designation of winds is referenced from:
a. the direction from which they are coming. b. the direction towards which they are going.
c. folk lore. d. the need to throw horses overboard. e. the direction in relation to the
observers path of travel.
191. Deep water waves move through water having a depth that is deeper than ____ the
wavelength of the wave.
a. 1/3 b. 3/4 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 7/8

192. The distance over which wind is blowing is referred to as:

a. fetch. b. duration. c. strength. d. depth. e. wind span.
193. Gyres are divided into the following types of currents (named below) except:
a. Ekman spiral. b. eastern boundary. c. western boundary. d. transverse. e. Ekman spiral
and transverse.
194. Tsunamis are usually:
a. deep-water waves. b. shallow-water waves. c. wind waves. d. capillary waves. e. the
result of winter storms.
195. A tidal pattern of two equal high and low tides per day is called a:
a. mixed semidiurnal tide. b. semidiurnal tide. c. diurnal tide. d. spring tide. e. neap tide.
196. You are on the beach at Corpus Christi, Texas. High tide falls at noon, and the tides are
diurnal here.. When will be the next high tide?
a. 6 pm that evening. b. 12 hours later, at midnight. c. 6 am the next morning. d. Noon the
next day. e. 9 pm that evening.
197. A falling tide is called a(n):
a. flood tide. b. spring tide. c. neap tide. d. ebb tide. e. mixed tides