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1
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
SOLVED PAPER
IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam
REASONING
Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the given questions.
1. If all the symbols are dropped from the
arrangement, then which will be the eleventh
element from the right end of the given
arrangement?
(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P
2. How many such symbols are there in the
given arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a letter and also
immediately preceded by a number?
(1) More than three (2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One
3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of
the fourteenth from the left end of the given
arrangement?
(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4
4. What should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following series based on the
given arrangement?
UXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?
(1) W 2 b
(2) 6%8
(3) 6 % +
(4) QXZ
(5) & 8 +
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(2) 15
(4) 11
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
14. Statements W # D, Z B, B $ H
Conclusions
I. H # Z
II. B % W
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true
15. Statements F $ N, N @ D, D % B
Conclusions
I. F @ D
II. B @ N
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true
Directions (16-20): In these questions, two
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II have been given. Decide which of the givenconclusions
logically follows the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
16. Statements All buses are cars.
All scooters are buses.
Conclusions
I. No scooter is a bus.
II. All cars are buses.
(1) Either conclusion l or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true
17. Statements No auditorium is hall.
All theatres are halls.
Conclusions
I. No auditorium is a theatre.
II. All halls are theatres.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
to answer the question
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
41. ...... refers to the unauthorized copying and
distribution of software.
(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright
42. Which of the following is an operating
system?
(1) Umlx
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085
43. A collection of programs that controls how
your computer system runs and processes
information is called
(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter
44. Which of the following statements is a false
conceiving file names?
(1) Every file in the same folder must have
a unique name
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.)
(3) File extension is another name for the
type
(4) The file extension comes before the dot
(.) followed by the file name
(5) Files may share the same name or the
same extension, but not both at the
same time
45. Which is not a storage device?
(1) Printer
(2) CD
(3) Hard Disk
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD
46. ........ tags, placed on animals body can be
used to record and track in a database all of
the animals movements.
(1) pas
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Tab
Shift + Tab
Esc + Home
Shift + Home
Home
Information Interchange
(4) American Standardisation Code for
Information Interchange
(5) American Standardisation Code for
Information Interchanger
74. Which of the following is not a valid formula
in Microsoft Excel?
(1) =A2+A1
(2) =A2+1
(3) = 1 + A2
(4) =1A+2
(5) =A1 +A2
75. What does the acronym ISP stand for?
(1) Internal Service Provider
(2) International Service Provider
(3) Internet Service Provider
(4) Internet Service Providing
(5) Internet Service Provision
76. What is the full form of WWW?
(1) Work Wide Web
(2) World Wide Web
(3) World With Web
(4) World Wide Wet
(5) World Weak Web
77. Which of the following is hardware?
(1) Assembler
(2) Server
(3) Compiler
(4) Interpreter
(5) Operating System
78. USB in data cables stands for
(1) Unicode Smart Bus
(2) Universal Structural Bus
(3) Unicode Serial Bus
(4) Universal Smart Bus
(5) Universal Serial Bus
79. Which of the following is not a binary
number?
(1) 11101
(2) 110
(3) 233
(4) 1001
(5) 100110
80. Ais approximately one billion bytes.
(1) megabyte
(2) kilobyte
(3) terabyte
(4) gigabyte
(5) bit
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
ENGLISH LANGAUGE
Directions (81-85): Choose the best word that fits in
the meaning of both the sentences to make them
grammatically correct and coherent.
81. I. Governments in these countries should
create education systems since . good
schools the bulk of people entering the world
force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid
changes in our surroundings .... the cone
shaped cells packed around the centre of the
retina.
(1) lack
(2) missing
(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence
82. I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds
with ASEAN countries and Japanese
countries recently won a $ 370 million
contract to start. a new underground
railway system in Jakarta.
II. The cost ofspace vehicles is high no doubt,
but the costs of complying with legal and
regulatory paperwork and rules is huge too.
(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building
83. I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........
a way for websites to reduce the incidence of
spam which troubled internet users in the
2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is
that it often develop cracks and scientists
have now . self-healing concrete.
(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent
84. I. Politicians have promised to ....... the goal
of eradicating extreme poverty many times
but have failed because they cannot agree
about what exactly counts as poverty and
how exactly to measure it.
II. Reserve Bank hoped that a cut in its
benchmark rate will . a reduction in
10
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
(2) Scared
(4) Distant
(2) In deluson
(4) Progressively
12
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
121. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 1
billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun
river with
(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China
122. Indian player Anirban Lahiri is associated
with the game of
(1) rifle shooting
(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess
123. The abbreviation ATS stand for
(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor
(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme
124. China has recently announced that it has
completed a major hydro-power darn in Tibet
over the river Yartung Zangbo known in
India as
(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra rive
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi rive
(5) Doyanq river
125. According to which of the following acts, a
fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in
cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?
(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act
126. The Commonwealth Association for Public
Administration and Managements (CAP
AM) International Innovation Awards for
2014 has recently been conferred upon the
Indian State of
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Gujarat
(4) Karnataka
(5) Maharashtra
14
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
(3) NPCI
(4) Account holder
(5) RBI
Science
(1)
(2)
(a)
(4)
(5)
16
Al Ahmadi
Al Jahra
Kuwait City
Al Salmiya
Hawalli
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
NUMERICAL ABILITY
161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks
for every correct answer and loses 4 marks
for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80
questions and obtained 310 marks, how
many questions did he attempted correctly?
(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61
162. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many
revolutions will it make to cover a distance of
3200 m?
(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18
163. The average run of a cricketer after 18
matches was 565. If he made 101 runs and
123 runs in 19th and 20th match
respectively. What is his new average run
after 20th match?
(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.45
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85
164. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were
mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The
mixture was then sold at the rate of Rs. 75.60
per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of
type 1 rice is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price
of type 2 rice per kg?
(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62
165. Mr. Shahs monthly income is Rs. 54550. In
an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual
salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on
repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half
of the remaining amount he invests in fixed
deposits, what is the amount invested by him
in fixed deposits?
(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336
3
166. Two pipes A and B can fill tank in 3 h when
7
opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes
2 h less than A alone takes to fill the tank
compleletely. How much does A alone take to
fill the tank?
(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h
167. A man can now 10.2 km downstream in 18
min. If the speed of the stream in 3.5 km/h,
how much time (in h) he would take to cover
121.5 km upstream?
(1) 4
1
2
(2) 3
(4) 5
1
2
(5)
(3) 4
1
2
1
4
(2)
3
8
1
5
(4)
8
16
(5) Other than those given as optons
(3)
(2) 38560
(4) 35950
37
49
172. 13 13
(1) 233
(3) 234
(5) 239
20
37.5 83
?
(2) 216
(4) 235
173. 17 16
(1) 1735
(3) 1660
(5) 1715
30
174. 8
9.4
(1) 53.6
(3) 52.1
(5) 49.8
12.2 17.8 29
?
(2) 51.4
(4) 48.6
175. 26 12
(1) 72
(3) 74
(5) 78
11
87
69 ?
(2) 99
(4) 103
344 ?
(2) 1760
(4) 1685
15.5 30
(2) 68
(4) 82
18
EXAM PAPER IBPS Clerk Common Written Exam (Held on: 20-12-2015)
191.
5
14
(2)
1681
190.
=?
484
2
(4)
5
18
35
(4)
18
37
(5)
20
37
March
April
May
June
July
8
(4)
25
14
20
1
25
(2)
Sotres P
Months
5
8
(1)
19
38
(3)
19
35
3
(3)
10
(5)
(1)
2
1
2 5
186. 2
2 =?
4
5
1
(1)
(0.6)3 - (0.4)3
=?
(0.6)3 + (0.4)3
(2)
3
11
(5)
1
11
(3)
1
5
213
156
177
220
253
200
208
197
145
188
195
216
185
235
278
253
187
181
265
243
229
175
215
231
249
(4) 237
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
20
Rs. 38.13
Rs. 25.33
Rs. 55.08
Rs. 35.30
Other than those given as options
Quantitative Aptitude
Reasoning Ability
General English
Hindi Language
General Awareness
Computer Knowledge
3. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes
information is called
(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter
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Page 1
8. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is
known as a
(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options
10. ......... technology enables you to carry a powerful navigational aid in websites.
(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronisation
(5) Global Positioning System
Page 2
12. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT
(1) spyware
(2) spam
(3) hackers
(4) identity theft
(5) viruses
13. Which of the following commands in Office 2007, can be used to go to first cell in the
current row?
(1) Tab
(2) Shift + Tab
(3) Esc + Home
(4) Shift + Home
(5) Home
14. Software such as Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses that has a malicious content, is
known as
(1) malicious software (malware)
(2) adware
(3) scareware
(4) spyware
(5) firewall
17. Which of the following enables to determine how often a user visited a website?
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18. To move to the bottom of a document while working on MS Word, which command is
used?
(1) Home key
(2) End key
(3) Ctrl + Page Down
(4) Insert key
(5) Ctrl key + End key
19. What is a person called who uses a computer to cause harm to people or destroy
critical systems?
(1) Cyber Terrorist
(2) Black-hat Hacker
(3) Cyber Cracker
(4) Hacktivist
(5) Other than those given as options
20. ........ can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.
(1) Speech input hardware
(2) Speech recognition software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Talking software
(5) Other than those given as options
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24. Integrated Circuit (IC) chips used in computers are made with
(1) copper
(2) aluminium
(3) gold
(4) silicon
(5) silver
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2. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance
of 3200 m?
(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18
3. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 56.5. If he made 101 runs and 123
runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?
(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.75
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85
4. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The
mixture was then sold @ 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rise is
Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 price per kg?
(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62
5. Mr. Shahs monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual
salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of
the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in
fixed deposits?
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6. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in hours when opened simultaneously. If B alone can
takes 2 hours less than A alone takes to fill the tank completely. How much does A alone
take to fill the tank?
(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h
7. A man can row 10.2 km downstream in 18 minutes. If the speed of the stream is 3.5
km/h, how much time he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream? (in hours)
8. The respective ratio of two numbers is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30%
and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first
and the second number?
(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21
9. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 students P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the
fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally
distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?
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10. The present population of village P is 2.5 time the present population of village Q. If
after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%.
What is the present population of village P?
(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
11. 29 31 37 49 69 ?
(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88
12. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?
(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239
13. 17 16 30 87 344 ?
(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715
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15. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?
(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78
16. Arunika brought some articles and sold half of them at Rs. 22103 thereby making a
profit of 15%/ At what price should sell the rest of them so as to earn a total profit of
25%?
(1) Rs. 25947
(2) Rs. 23528
(3) Rs. 27130
(4) Rs. 24682
(5) Rs. 26240
17. The height of a triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is m and
the base of the same triangle is equal to the side of the square whose area is 784 m2. What
is the area of the triangle? (in m2)
(1) 504
(2) 558
(3) 478
(4) 522
(5) 496
18. Arunavo invested total sum of Rs. 16000 in two schemes (A and B) for two years.
Scheme A offers compound interest (compounded annually) at the rate of 10% per annum
and scheme B offers simple interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the total interest
earned by him from both the schemes after two years is Rs. 3504. How much money
(principle) did he invest in scheme B?
(1) Rs. 4800
(2) Rs. 4200
(3) Rs. 4600
(4) Rs. 4400
(5) Rs. 5200
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20. A started a business by investing Rs. 33600. After three month B joined him by
investing Rs. 23100. After 3 months of Bs investment, C joined them by investing Rs.
18900. If the total annual profit earned by them is Rs. 26450, what is Cs share of profit?
(1) Rs. 4630
(2) Rs. 4080
(3) Rs. 4260
(4) Rs. 4420
(5) Rs. 4140
21. The sum of two numbers is equal to 27 and their product is equal to 182. What are the
two numbers?
(1) 15, 12
(2) 11, 16
(3) 9, 18
(4) 13, 14
(5) 19, 8
Direction (Q. Nos. 22-31): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions?
23.
(1) 8
(2) 14
(3) 16
(4) 12
(5) 22
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26.
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30.
31.
Directions (32-36): Study the table and answer the given questions.
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33. What is the respective ratio between the total number of books sold by store P in April
and June together and total number of books sold by store T in May and July together?
(1) 49 : 58
(2) 49 : 54
(3) 47 : 58
(4) 43 : 52
(5) 47 : 54
34. If 30% of the total number of books sold by store Q, S and T together in April were
Academic books, how many non-academic books were sold by the same stores together in
the same month?
(1) 389
(2) 413
(3) 381
(4) 373
(5) 399
35. What is the average number of books sold by store R in April, June and July together?
(1) 243
(2) 241
(3) 233
(4) 237
(5) 239
36. What is the difference between total number of books sold by store Q in May and July
together and total number of books sold by store in S in March and June together?
(1) 129
(2) 127
(3) 143
(4) 133
(5) 136
37. A train 350 m long takes 36 seconds to cross a man running at a speed of 5 km/h in the
direction opposite to that of train. What is the speed of the train?
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38. A person invested some money at the rate of 6% simple interest. At the end of three
years, he got Rs. 900 as SI. If interest is put at the rate of compound interest annually, how
much more interest would he got in three years?
(1) Rs. 38.13
(2) Rs. 25.33
(3) Rs. 55.08
(4) Rs. 35.30
(5) Other than those given as options
39. Raju purchases 550 ml of milk everyday. If cost of 1 litre of milk is Rs. 44, how much
amount will he pay in 45 days?
(1) Rs. 1098
(2) Rs. 1079
(3) Rs. 1099
(4) Rs. 1088
(5) Other than those given as options
40. Neha scored 1.2 times as many marks in Science as in Sanskrit and in Social Science.
She scored 20 more marks than Science. If she secured 85.5% marks in these three
subjects out of a total 600 marks (in the given three subjects only), how much did she score
in Social Science?
(1) 194
(2) 174
(3) 170
(4) 185
(5) Other than those given as options
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4. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power dam in Tibet
over the river Yartung Zangbo known in India as
(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra river
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi river
(5) Doyang river
5. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in
cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?
(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act
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8. Banks borrow money from the RBI at which of the following rates?
(1) CRR
(2) Base Rate
(3) Repo Rate
(4) SLR
(5) Reverse Repo Rate
10. Under the PMJDY, the government is loking to open at least ......... basic bank accounts
for unbanked tambles in the country.
(1) 7.5 crore
(2) 1.8 crore
(3) 5.7 crore (4) 3 crore
(5) 4.5 crore
11. In order to achieve financial inclusion goals, RBI has permitted opening of USBs. What
is the full form of USB?
(1) Urban Small Branch
(2) Unique Safety Branch
(3) Ultra Small Branch
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12. As per recent press in India, White Label ATMs are installed. What is meant by a
white lebel ATM?
(1) ATMs, which are set-up by non-banking entities.
(2) ATMs, which are white in colour.
(3) ATMs, which are set-up by group of foreign banks operating in India.
(4) ATMs, which are set-up by Reserve Bank of India.
(5) ATMs, which are installed by group of bankers.
13. As per the recent press reports, RBI has recently converyed the in-principle approval
to open new bank. Which of the following entity has received the permission?
(1) Tata Group
(2) LIC Housing Finance
(3) Anil Ambani Group
(4) Videocon Group
(5) IDFC
15. By the year 2022, the Sardar Patel Urban Housing Mission aims to build as many as
(1) 25 million houses
(2) 20 million houses
(3) 30 million houses
(4) 35 million houses
(5) 15 million houses
16. The private sector banking space witnessed its first consolidation move in four years.
Which of the following bank merger took place recently?
(1) United Western Bank and IDBI Bank
(2) Ganesh Bank of Kurundwad and Federal Bank
(3) ING Vysya Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank
(4) Bank of Rajasthan and ICICI Bank
(5) State Bank of Indore and State Bank of India
17. Who bears the premium payable to the insurance company under acidental insurance
cover under PMJDY scheme?
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19. The government of India has decided to observe the birth anniversary of Sardar
Vallabhai Patel on October 31, as
(1) Rashtriya Sankalp Diwas (National Resolve Day)
(2) Rashtriya Shahidi Diwas (National Martyrs Day)
(3) Rashtriya Sadbhavana Diwas (National Solidarity Day)
(4) Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day)
(5) Rashtriya Shiksha Diwas (National Education Day)
20. The international day for Elimination of Violence against Women is observed across
the world on
(1) December 15
(2) August 24
(3) June 24
(4) November 25
(5) September 24
22. Kangto also known as Kanggardo Rize is a montain in the Eastern Himalays of
India and is highest peak in the State of
(1) Sikkim
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Uttarakhand
(5) Himanchal Pradesh
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24. Balance in deposit accounts which are not operated for at least ........ years are to be
transferred to the RBI.
(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 5
(5) 10
26. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the
term SHGs?
(1) Self Help Groups
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Small Help Groups
(4) Small Hope in Growths
(5) Self Hope Groups
28. Which Indian women sportsperson has recently been appointed as the UN Goodwil
Ambassador for the South Asian region?
(1) Mary Kom
(2) Sania Mirza
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34. Process of getting shares in an electronic form of holding in a demat account is known
as
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37. The Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana has been launched on October 11, 2014, the birth
anniversary of
(1) Jai Prakah Narayan
(2) Shyam Prasad Mukherji
(3) lala Lajpat Rai
(4) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(5) Balraj Madhok
38. The Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship in the revamped Union Council of Ministers is
(1) Mahesh Sharma
(2) Rajiv Pratap Rudy
(3) JP Nadda
(4) Birender Singh
(5) Najma Heptulla
39. The theme of the next Pravasi Bhartiya Divas to be held in the year 2015 is based on
the completion of the hundred years of Mahatma Gandhis
(1) return to South Africa from India
(2) marriage with Kasturba Gandhi
(3) Quit India call to the British users
(4) return to India leaving South Africa
(5) founding the Natal India Congress
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1.
I. Governments in `these countries should create education systems since ......... good schools the bulk of
people entering the world force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid changes in our surroundings ......... the cone shaped cells
packed around the centre of the retina.
(1) lack
(2) missing
(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence
2.
I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds with ASEAN countries and Japanese countries recently won a $
370 million contract to start .......... a new underground railway system in Jakarta.
II. The cost of ......... space vehicles is high no doubt, but the costs of complying with legal and regulatory
paperwork and rules is huge too.
(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building
3.
I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........... a way for websites to reduce the incidence of spam which
troubled internet users in the 2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is that it often develop cracks and scientists have now ..........
self-healing concrete.
(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent
4.
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5.
I. According to some exports, subsidising crop insurance to a large extent may be bad for the environment
since farmers may take .......... such as farming on food plains or sleep hills.
II. In the 1990s, Germany was known as the sick man of Europe and had high unemployment but its
success today is on account of the huge ........ it took in reforming the labour market.
(1) danger
(2) chance
(3) possibility
(4) risks
(5) threats
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10): Arrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions:
A. If you are transitioning from products to services or vice-versa, you have to know and understand these
differences to effectively promote and sell.
B. For example, a product is tangible, which means the customer can touch and see the product before
deciding to make a purchase and a service is intangible.
C. Understanding the different changes in product and service marketing can help you establish the right
approach for this transition.
D. Unless you understand the basic difference of tangibility, it will be a challenge to promote and sell your
product.
E. Companies that are marketing a product face different challenges compared to those that are promoting a
service.
6. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
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8. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase
given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it is given and no
correction is required, mark No correction required as the answer.
11. In order to look taller, we should use pencil heels instead block heels.
(1) instead of
(2) despite
(3) in spite of
(4) neither
(5) No correction required
12. This move is expected for mitigate the effects of a depleting water by making use of
surface or canal water.
(1) expects of
(2) is expectation of
(3) is expected to
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13. Do you know that dressing properly for an interview can earns you those brownie
extra points which will help you get that dream job?
(1) can earn
(2) will earning
(3) earned
(4) well earns
(5) No correction required
14. The craze for private hands has caught the fancy of the citys residents.
(1) catch the fancity
(2) caught fancity
(3) catching fancy
(4) catch fancy
(5) No correction required
15. The trend of wearing boots in something that has most sure come around this season.
(1) most surely
(2) caught fancity
(3) catching fancy
(4) catch fancy
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given.
Do you ever feel theres is a greater being inside of you bursting to get out? It is the voice that encourages
you to really make something of your life. When you act congruently with that voice, its like your are a
whole new person. You are bold and courageous. You are strong. You are unstoppable. But, then reality sets
in, and soon those moments are history. It is not hard to put youself temporarily into an emotionally
motivated state. Just listen to that motivational song for that matter. However, this motivation does not stay
forever. Your great ideas seem impractical. How many times have you been temporarily inspired with a idea
like, I want to start my own business. And then a week later its forgotten? You come up with inspiring
ideas when you are motivated. But you fail to maintain that motivation through the action phase.
The problem we ask ourselves is, why does this happen? You can listen to hundereds of motivational
speakers and experience an emotional yo-yo effect, but it does not fast. The problem is that as we are
intellectually guided, we try to find logic in emotional motivation and as we fail to find logic eventually
phases out. I used to get frustrated when my emotional motivation fizzled out after a while. Eventually, I
realised that being guided by intellect, was not such a bad thing after all. I just had to learn to use my mind
as an effective motivational tool. I figured that if I was not feeling motivated to go after a particular goal,
may be there was a logical reason for it. I noted that when I had strong intellectual reasons for doing
something. I usually did not have trouble taking action.
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16. What does the author want to convey when he says, When you look further upstream,
it becomes clear that the goal is ill advised.?
(1) When you analyse your goal closely you realise that it is not what you thought it would be.
(2) When you work towards dealing with your problems eventually they disappear
(3) When you inspect the problem you realise that the solution is within our reach
(4) When you devise a method of motivating self you must keep analysing it periodically
(5) When you face a problem you realise your incapability of making good decisions.
17. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?
A. Many a time, although we are motivated at the start, we fail to keep up the motivation while working
towards the goal.
B. We can learn to use our mind as a motivational tool.
C. Being guided by intellect is very bad.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only A
(4) A and C
(5) All of these
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19. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word timid as used in
the passage?
(1) Sudden
(2) Scared
(3) Humble
(4) Distant
(5) Egoistic
20. Which of the following is/are not true about the context of the passage?
A. Although a goal may look intellectual, it may not actually work for us.
B. Our subconscious mind will not motivate us unless we face our fears.
C. The only way to keep yourself motivated throughout is by listening to many motivational speakers.
(1) B and C
(2) Only C
(3) Only A
(4) A and B
(5) Only B
21. According to the passage, the author found it difficult to be motivated because
A. he was not intellectually motivated.
B. he wanted to take the easy way out
C. he did not push himself hard enough
(1) A and B
(2) Only C
(3) Only A
(4) A and C
(5) Only B
22. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word congruently as
used in the passage?
(1) Periodically
(2) In delusion
(3) In addition
(4) Progressively
(5) In agreement
23. What does the author mean when he says, It eventually phases out.?
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24. Which of the following can be an appropriate title for the passage?
(1) Living Life with Success
(2) Why Dont We Feel Motivated?
(3) Our Only Aim-Success
(4) How to Achieve Intellectual Success
(5) Feel Motivated-Feel Superior
25. According to the passage, what does the author say about emotional motivation?
A. It tends to be temporary
B. It promises our negativity
C. It has the potential to inspire us.
(1) A and B (2) Only B
(3) Only A (4) A and C
(5) All of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30): Read the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical
mistakes/error to it. The error, if any
will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as you answer. If there is no error, mark No
error as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
26. More than scoring points for/choosing the colour, the actress creating a fluffed/with the
mini cape that she wore/to match her dress.
(1) More than scoring points for
(2) Choosing the colour, the actress creating a fluffed
(3) With the mini cape that she wore
(4) To match her dress
(5) No error
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29. With the water project moving / a step closer to feasibility, / city residents can soon /
expect for sufficient water supply.
(1) with the water project moving
(2) a step closer to feasibility
(3) city residents can soon
(4) expect for sufficient water supply
(5) No error
30. We are in the final stages/ of resolve the issue / which has been pending / for over two
years.
(1) We are in the final stage
(2) of resolve the issue
(3) which has been pending
(4) for over two years
(5) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40): In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Against each, fieve words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
The emergence of a cloud based banking will affect banks big and small. Banks are expected to spend
almost $ 180 billion on IT this year. At present, cloud based services make up a (31) fraction of this amount
but some estimates (32) by financial services firms on the cloud will (33) $ 26 billion in 2015. This increase
should (34) barriers to entry for newcomers which can (35) modern IT infrastructure at monthly fees of less
than $ 10000 (36) having to invest tens of millions of dollars upfront (37) build their own secure data entries
and it should (38) enable big banks to become much more cost of (39). Small firms without traditional
computer systems to maintain are the fastest movers. (40) can type documents, run spreadsheets and read emails in the cloud. Keeping track of clients, payments and loans can be done on a cloud computing platform
using a specially banking software.
31.
(1) largely
(2) tiny
(3) bit
(4) part
(5) less
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33.
(1) sum
(2) come
(3) account
(4) costs
(5) total
34.
(1) fall
(2) dropped
(3) lower (4) sank
(5) maintain
35.
(1) rent
(2) sold
(3) hired
(4) leased
(5) used
36.
(1) other
(2) rather
(3) more
(4) further
(5) compared
37.
(1) that
(2) for
(3) to
(4) try
(5) on
38.
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39.
(1) effect
(2) efficient
(3) price
(4) ceiling
(5) subsidy
40.
(1) Employees
(2) Who
(3) How
(4) Worker
(5) Sub-ordinates
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Subject: Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.
W2XT3*ZbU4OP9 $QG D5#WEJ6&8K@7+
1. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh
element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P
2. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangment each of which is immediately
followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number?
(1) More than three
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One
3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given
arrangement?
(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4
4. What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series based on the
given arrangement?
WXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?
(1) W2b
(2) 6%8
(3) 6%+
(4) WXZ
(5) &8+
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
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7. If 1 is added to the first digit in each number and then the position of the first and the
third digits are interchanged. Which of the following will be the third digit of the second
highest number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 8
(5) 7
8. In which of these digits, the sum of all the three digits is an even number?
(1) 753
(2) 538
(3) 269
(4) 476
(5) 814
9. Which of the following is the sum of the second and third digits of the second lowest
number?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 91
(4) 11
(5) 13
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11. Statements
H @ K, K % M, M D
Conclusions
I. H @ D II. K % D
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
12. Statements
R % H, H T, T @ K
Conclusions
I. T R
II. K % H
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
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13. Statements
R D, D $ M, M # J
Conclusions
I. J # D II. J % D
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
14. Statements
W # D, Z B, B $ H
Conclusions
I. H # Z II. B % W
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
15. Statements
F $ N, N @ D, D % B
Conclusions
I. F @ D II. B @ N
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20): In these questions, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II have been given. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
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Conclusions
I. No scooter is a bus.
II. All cars are buses.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
17. Statements
No auditorium is hall.
All theatres are halls.
Conclusions
I. No auditorium is a theatre.
II. All halls are theatres.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
18. Statements
Some drugs are medicines.
No medicine is a treatment.
Conclusions
I. All treatments being drugs is a possibility.
II. All drugs can never be treatments.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
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Conclusions
I. All snaps are photos.
II. Some snaps are photos.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
20. Statements
Some computers are tablets.
Some laptops are computers.
Conclusions
I. No laptop is a tablet.
II. All tablets being computers is a possibility.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit
at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the
four sides face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.
Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
O sits third to the right of Q.
Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
M sits second to left of N.
N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.
21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) S
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23. How many people sit between M and S when counted from the right hand side of S?
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) None
(4) Two
(5) Four
26. In the given code language, what does the code tj stand for?
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27. What is the code for focus in the given code language?
(1) ap
(2) ni
(3) sy
(4) cn
(5) mk
28. What is the code for time in the given code language?
(1) tj
(2) sy
(3) ni
(4) cn
(5) rb
30. In the given code language, what does the code rb stand for?
(1) Either never or waste
(2) goes
(3) your
(4) work
(5) time
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent person. In row 1-V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same
order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2-F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not necessarily in the same
order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a
row faces another member of the other row.
Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
Only one person sits between F and I.
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32. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate left of the person who sits exactly in
the middle of row-2?
(1) J
(2) H
(3) I
(4) G
(5) F
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating
arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) H
(2) I
(3) W
(4) Y
(5) X
34. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of the person who faces X?
(1) G
(2) F
(3) J
(4) I
(5) H
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36. In a straight line of eight people (all facing North), what is the position of R from the
left end?
I. Y stands fourth from the right end of the line. Only two people stand between Y and Z. R stands to the
immediate right of Z.
II. W stands fourth from the left end of the line. R is an immediate neighbour of W.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not
sufficient to answer the question.
37. Among four friends W, X, Y and Z (each having different number of cookies), who has
the most number of cookies?
I. W has lesser number of cookies than Z. Y does not have the most number of cookies.
II. W has more cookies than Y. X does not have the most number of cookies.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not
sufficient to answer the question.
38. In a code language my dear family is coded as 624. Which number stands for
dear?
I. In the same code language my small family is coded as 256.
II. In the same code language, dear family friend is coded as 647?
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Page 44
40. How many students attended the cultural fair of the college?
I. The number of students attending the cultural fair was twice the number of female students.
II. The number of female students attending the cultural fair was 25 more than that in the previous year.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not
sufficient to answer the question.
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Page 45
2. Simple interest on a certain sum at 7 p.c. p.a for four years is Rs. 3584. What will be the
compound interest on the same principal at 4 p.c. p.a. in two years?
(1) Rs. 1054.48
(2) Rs. 1044.48
(3) Rs. 1044.84
(4) Rs. 1064.84
(5) None of these
3. The cost of pure milk is Rs. 16 per litre. On adding water the mixture is sold at Rs.
15/litre. In this way the milkman earns 25% profit. What is the ratio of milk and water in
the mixture?
(1) 25 : 7
(2) 7 : 25
(3) 15 : 1
(4) 1 : 15
(5) None of these
4. Four persons - M. N, O and P-distributed a sum of Rs. 44352 among themselves. M got
th of total amount. N got th part of the remaining amount. Thereafter, the remaining
amount was divided between O and P in teh ratio 3 : 2. The amount received by P is
(1) Rs. 1648
(2) Rs. 1848
(3) Rs. 1884
(4) Rs. 1684
(5) Rs.1448
5. Three persons A. B and C start a business with Rs. 12800. Rs. 16800 and Rs. 9600
respectively. At the end of the year. B received Rs. 13125 as share in total profit. What is
the share of Mr. C in the profit?
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Page 46
6. One-third of a diagonal of a square is units. What is the measure or the side or the
square?
(1) 6 units
(2) 3 units
(3) 18 units
(4) 9 units
(5) None of these
7. 56 men can do a job in 14 days. How many additional men are required to do the same
job in 8 days?
(1) 42
(2) 24
(3) 52
(4) 25
(5) None of these
8. A shopkeeper has goods of worth Rs. 6000. He sold hall or the goods at a gain of 12%.
At what profit percent should he sell the remaining half of the stock so that he gets 18%
profit on the whole?
(1) 25%
(2) 24%
(3) 18%
(4) 21%
(5) None of these
9. A 210 metre long train crosses a man running at 9 kmph in opposite direction in 6
seconds. Find the speed or the train.
(1) 98 kmph
(2) 97 kmph
(3) 107 kmph
(4) 117 kmph
(5) None of these
10. Average score of a cricketer in 13 matches is 42 runs. If the average score in the first
five matches be 54 runs what is the average score in the last eight matches?
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11. The perimeter- of a rectangle whose length is 6 metre more than its breadth is 84
metre. What is the area of the triangle whose base is equal to the diagonal of the rectangle
and height is equal to the length of the rectangle?
(1) 360 sq. metre
(2) 360 sq. metre
(3) 380 metre
(4) 400 sq. metre
(5) None of these
12. Due to decrease of 10% in the price of tea per kg. a consumer buys 250gm of tea more
than before for Rs. 270. What is the Original price of tea ?
(1) Rs. 130/kg
(2) Rs. 120/kg
(3) Rs. 115/kg
(4) Rs. 140/kg
(5) None of these
Directions (93-107): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
Page 48
16.
(1) 18
(2) 17
(3) 28
(4) 19
(5) None of these
19.
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21.
(1) 196
(2) 125
(3) 169
(4) 225
(5) 81
23.
24.
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(1) 5.75
(2) 6.75
(3) 7.75
(4) 6.25
(5) 6.50
26.
(1) 121
(2) 11
(3) 9
(4) 12
(5) 17
27.
(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 18
(5) 17
Directions (28-32): What will come in place of the question mark (7) In the following number series 7
Page 51
32. 4 6 12 ? 90 315
(1) 25
(2) 27
(3) 30
(4) 45
(5) None of these
Directions (33-37): In the following table the number of pages printed by 6 printers in 5 weeks has
been given. Read the following table carefully and answer the questions.
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33. What is the average number of pages printed by all printers in the first week 7
(1) 586.5
(2) 540
(3) 545.4
(4) 546.5
(5) 548
34. What is the average number of pages printed by printer C taking all the weeks
together ?
(1) 529
(2) 519
(3) 591
(4) 592
(5) 539
36. The difference between the pages printed by printers A and E in the second week is
(1) 46
(2) 42
(3) 62
(4) 52
(5) None of these
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38. Pipe A can fill a tank in 8 Hours while another pipe B can fill it in 16 hours. A third
pipe C can empty the full tank in 32 hours. All three pipes are opened simultaneously. In
what time will an enmity tank be filled?
(1) 5.5 hours
(2) 6 hours
(3) 6.4 hours
(4) 7 hours
(5) 7.2 hours
39. A and B are two numbers. Six times square of B is 540 more than square of A. The
ratio of A and B is 3 : 2. Find the number B?
(1) 12
(2) 18
(3) 14
(4) 21
(5) None of these
40. Eight years ago, the age of Vishal was four times that of Shekhars. After 8 years,
VishaJs age will be twice of Shekhars age. Vishals present age is
(1) 24years
(2) 28years
(3) 30years
(4) 32years
(5) None of these
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4. The process by which LIC holder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy
contract to any third person is known as
(1) Subrogation
(2) Escrow
(3) Mortgage
(4) Assignment
(5) Nomination
5. In order to promote no frills accounts as part of basic banking, the Reserve Bank of
India, in August 2012, advised banks to rechristen it as
(1) Basic Saving Account
(2) Basic Deposit Account
(3) Basic Account
(4) Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account
(5) None of these
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10. What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha?
(1) 21 years
(2) 25 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 32 years
(5) 35years
Page 56
14. Arrangement of bank selling insurance product acting as agent of respective companies
is called
(1) Bancassurance
(2) Outsourcing
(3) Delegation
(4) Proxy Insurance
(5) Shadow Insurance
15. BCSBI aims to plan, evolve, prepare, develop, promote and publish comprehensive
Codes and Standards for banks, for providing for fair treatment to their customers. Which
of the following codes has been evolved by it?
(1) Code of Banks Commitment to Customers
(2) Code of Banks Commitment to Micro and Small Enterprises
(3) Code of Banks Commitment to Financial Inclusion
(4) Both 1 and 2
(5) Both 2 and 3
17. The Adhaar-enabled payment systems (AEPS) is a bank-led model that facilitates
banking facilities by allowing transactions at Point of Sale through the business
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19. Which of the following banks/ ministries/bodies is the Lender of last resort in India?
(1) World Bank
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Union Ministry of Finance
(4) Planning Commission
(5) International Monetary Fund
20. For expanding access to banking services, the Reserve Bank of India has advised
banks to open branches with minimum infrastructure support of 8 to 10 BC units at a.
reasonable 3-4 km. Such branches are known as
(1) White Label ATMs
(2) Ultra Small Branches
(3) Banking Kiosks
(4) CBS Terminals
(5) ICT Hubs
21. According to the Income Tax Act of 1961, the age of Super Senior Citizens should be
(1) 62years
(2) 70years
(3) 80years
(4) 88years
(5) 95years
Page 58
24. When Criminals use an innocent persons details to open or use an account to carry out
financial transactions, it is known a
(1) Money Laundering
(2) Phishing
(3) Identity Theft
(4) Real Time gross Settlement
(5) Insinuation
26. As per the announcements made in Union Budget 2013-14, a person taking a loan for
his first home from a bank or a housing finance corporation (HFC) up to Rs 25 lakh from
April 1, 2013 to March 31, 2014, will be entitled to an additional deduction of interest of
(1) Rs. 75,000
(2) Rs. 1 lakh
(3) Rs. 1.5 lakh
(4) Rs. 2 lakhs
(5) Rs. 2.6 lakh
27. Where was the 8lh National Conference on Krishi Vlgyan Kendra 20 13 held?
(1) Chandigarh
(2) Bangalore
(3) Kolkata
(4) Patna
(5) Jodhpur
28. The Reserve Bank of India has made it mandatory for banks to lend at least 40per cent
of their credit to select sectors such as agriculture, Micro and Small Enterprises other
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29. What is the term for a bank without any branch network that offers its services
remotely?
(1) Virtual Bank
(2) Direct Bank
(3) Lending Institution
(4) Indirect Bank
(5) Online Bank
30. With reference to Indian Banking sector which of the following is the most appropriate
expanded form of EMI?
(1) Estimated Monthly Installment
(2) Extended Matching Items
(3) Equated Monthly Installment
(4) Enterprise Manufacturing Intelligence
(5) Easy Monthly Installment
31. Which term is used for banking in which banking institutions execute transactions
directly with consumers rather than corporations or other banks?.
(1) Merchant Banking
(2) Collateral Banking
(3) Retail Banking
(4) Bulk Banking
(5) Direct Banking
32. As per the 2011 Census which state of India has the lowest density?
(1) Mizoram
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Tripura
(5) Nagaland
Page 60
35. Which among the following, is not identified as a minority community in India?
(1) Buddhists
(2) Jains
(3) Muslims
(4) Zoroastrians
(5) Sikhs
36. Which of the following bodies recently expressed concern over unregistered investment
advisors spread across the country and brought out the Investment Advisers Regulations
2013?
(1) Reserve Bank of India
(2) IRDA
(3) SEBI
(4) NABARD
(5) CII
38. In a circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India on 9 April 2010. Banks were advised
to switch over to which system for calculation of their lending rates with effect from July
1.2010?
(1) Prime Lending Rate System
(2) Base Rate System
(3) Marginal Liquidity Facility System
(4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio system
(5) Benchmark Rate System
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Page 61
40. Part of companys earning or profit which is paid out to share holders is known as
(1) Premium
(2) Dividend
(3) Bonus
(4) Sum Assured
(5) Return
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Page 62
2. Of the 5 words listed below which one is the odd one out?
(1) Applications
(2) Peripherals
(3) Programs
(4) Software
(5) Operating System
Page 63
10. Which of the following commercial software products are examples of operating
system software and application software respectively?
(1) Microsoft Windows XP and Microsoft. Word
(2) Microsoft Office XP and Microsoft Windows XP
(3) MS DOS and Microsoft Windows XP
(4) UNIX and LINUX
(5) UNIX and Java
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Page 64
13. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?
(1) CTRL + A
(2) ALT + F5
(3) SHIFT + A
(4) CTRL + K
(6) CTRL + H
16. The device which helps you to communicate with computer is called:
(1) Input device
(2) Output device
(3) Software device
(4) Storage device
(5) None of these
18. The devices which store information and that are used by computer for its functioning
are called:
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19. Which among the following is not such an operation which can be carried out on
objects in graphic programmed?
(1) Spell check
(2) Change size
(3) Move
(4) Delete
(5) None of these
20. A hardware device which converts data into meaningful information is called
(1) Protector
(2) Output device
(3) Input device
(4) Program
(5) Processor
21. Which process checks to ensure the components of the computer are operating and
connected properly?
(1) Booting
(2) Processing
(3) Saving
(4) Editing
(5) Starting
Page 66
26. Most mail programs automatically complete the following two parts in an e-mail
(1) From: and Body:
(2) From: and Date:
(3) From: and To:
(4) From: and Subject:
(5) None of these
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35. Dr. E.F. Codd represented____ rules that a database must obey if it has to be
considered truly relational
(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 6
(5) 5
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Subject: Reasoning
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G - are standing in a straight line facing north at equal distances
but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is a different professional viz. Actor. Reporter,
Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer. Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.
G is standing at the fifth position to the left of C. Reporter is standing at the third position to the right
of G. F is standing at the fifth position to the right of A. E is standing second to the left of B. Engineer
is standing the second position to the left of D. Three persons are sitting between Engineer and
Painter. Doctor is to the immediate left of Engineer. Lawyer is to the immediate right of teacher.
2. Which o f the following pairs of persons are sitting at the extreme ends?
(1) A and Actor
(2) Engineer and C
(3) Doctor and F
(4) F and Lawyer
(5) Teacher and Doctor
3. Who among the following is Sitting exactly in the middle of the row?
(1) Doctor
(2) F
(3) Lawyer
(4) B (5) Teacher
Page 70
8. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between K and P?
(1) O and L
(2) Land N
(3) Land M
(4) M and N
(5) M and O
Page 71
13. Among J, K, L M and N. each has different height. Who amongst them is the second
tallest?
I. N is taller than M and K. K is shorter than M.
II. L is taller than N. J is not the tallest.
14. Five persons A, B, C, D and E- are sitting in a circle facing the centre. Who is sitting
to the immediate left of D?
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Mark answer if
(1) Only conclusion I follows.
(2) Only conclusion II follows.
(3) Either conclusion I or II follows.
(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) Both conclusions and II follow.
16. Statements
K>ITE:
O<R<K
Conclusions
I. R < E
II. O < T
17. Statements
B>A> S< I> C>L< Y
Conclusions
I. B > L
II. A > Y
18. Statements
C<L<O= U= DS> y
Conclusions
I. O > Y
II. C < D
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Conclusions
I. H > K
II. S < B
20. Statements
J=A; CKSA
Conclusions
I. C > J
II. C = J
Directions (21-25): In each of the questions/set of questions below are given two statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the two given conclusions
logically follows from the information given in the statement,
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow,
21. Statements
All alphabets are numbers.
Some alphabets are digits.
Conclusions
I. At least some digits are numbers.
II. No digit is a number.
22. Statements
Some squares are circles.
Some circles are rectangles
Conclusions
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23. Statements
No office is a palace.
All colleges are places.
Conclusions
I. All palaces are colleges.
II. No college is an office.
24. Statements
All mountains are rivers.
All rivers are lakes.
Conclusions
I. All mountains are lakes.
II. At least some lakes are rivers.
25. Statements
Some wins are losses.
All trophies are losses.
Conclusions
I. All trophies are wins.
II. All losses are trophies.
Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language very large risk associated is written as nu ta ro gi
risk is very low is written as gi se nu mi
is that also associated is written as ta mi po Iu
inherent risk also damaging is written as fu nu di yu
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Page 75
30. Which of the following may represent low risk associated industry ?
(1) ta nu gi ro
(2) ta hi nu se
(3) mi ta se fu
(4) di gi ta po
(5) po gi se di
Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully answer the questions given below:
CEBACDBCDACEDE DCABADACEDUBANBD
31. How many such Ds are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
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Page 76
33. If all the Bs are deleted from the above arrangement which of the following will be
eleventh from the left end?
(1) D
(2) C
(3) E
(4) A
(5) None of these
34. How many such As are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by B and also immediately followed by a consonant?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
35. Which of the following is ninth to the right of the 22nd from the right end of the above
arrangement?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) B
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (36-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight people - S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z - are sitting around a circle but not necessarily in the same
order. Two of them S and Tare facing towards the centre while other people are facing towards the
outside. Y sits second to the left of W. S sits second to the left of Y. Only one person sits between Sand
Z. T sits to the immediate right of S. T is not an immediate neighbour of Y. V is not an immediate
neighbour of Y. Both the immediate neighbours of X face towards the outside.
Page 77
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http://sscportal.in/community/courses/ssc-cgl-tier-1-hindi
Page 79
6. Only the golkeepers (1)/ reflexes (2) / stopped the ball (3)/ from going in. (4)/ All
Correct (5)
7. He has (1)/ refrain (2)/ from criticizing (3) / the government (4)/ in the public. All
Correct (5)
8. To save his own skull (1)/ he lied and blamed (2)/the accident (3)/ on his friend. (4)/ All
Correct (5)
9. He was badly (1)/ shaken (2)/ by the news (3)/ of her dead. (4)/ All Correct (5)
10. We lost (1)/ our way (2)/in the laybarinth (3)/ of streets. (4)/ All Correct (5)
Directions (11-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if
any will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, the
answer is (5). i.e. No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation. if any.)
11. Lets wait and see (1)/ how the land (2)/ laid before (3)/ we do anything. (4)/ No error
(5)
12. In ancient Greece (1)/ a messenger ran from Marathon (2)/ to Athens with the news of
(3) / a victory of the persians. (4)/ No error (5)
13. Grammar information enables (1)/ students to map a (2)/ structure of a foreign (3)/
language onto their own. (4)/ No error (5)
14. Their wedding (1)/ turned out to be (2)/ quite (3)/ an occasion. (4)/ No error (5)
15. I may be stated(I) / the obvious but (2)/ without more-money the (3)/ project cannot
survive. (4)/ No error (5)
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Page 80
16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C
(5) F
17. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) D
(2) F
(3) B
(4) E
(5) C
18. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) B
(4) C
(5) F
19. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the
rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) F
(4) E
(5) C
20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) D
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21. Which bank(s) is/are pioneer in India to explore the versatility of internet banking in
serving customers?
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23. What percentage of PC non- owners but who have access to Internet would not prefer
to buy through the net, as they are not sure of the product offered?
(1) 75%
(2) 62%
(3) 84%
(4) 76%
(5) None of these
25. What estimate was made by confederation of Indian Industries regarding the size of
B2B business in India by the year 2011
(1) Between Rs. 250 billion to Rs. 500 billion
(2) Between Rs. 1250 billion to Rs. 1500 billion
(3) Between Rs. 850 billion to Rs. 1050 billion
(4) Between $ 8.7 trillion to $ 21 trillion
(5) None of these
Directions (26-28): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used
in the passage.
26. Versatility
(1) multi-utility
(2) vesicle
(3) dullness
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27. Monoliths
(1) large blocks of stone
(2) large organizations
(3) monopoly
(4) dwarfs
(5) niche
28. TRANSACT
(1) do business
(2) tranquillize
(3) transcend
(4) exceed
(5) transfer
Directions (29 30): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used
in the passage.
29. Substantia
(1) meagre
(2) considerable
(3) large
(4) submissive
(5) sufficient
30. Minuscule
(1) small
(2) minimum
(3) minute
(6) large
(7) maximum
Directions (31-40): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Trust is (31) relationship concept that needs clarification because researchers (32) disciplines have
defined it in so many different ways. A typology of trust types would make it easier to (33) and
communicate results and would be especially valuable if the types of trust related to one another. The
typology should be interdisciplinary (34) many disciplines research e-commerce. This paper (35) a
parsimonious interdisciplinary typology and relates trust constructs to e-commerce consumer actions
defining both conceptual-level and operational-level trust constructs. Conceptual-level constructs
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31.
(1) vital (2) close
(3) important (4) low
(5) proximate
32.
(1) along
(2) around
(3) across
(4) above
(5) over and above
33.
(l) compose
(2) compare
(3) comparison
(4) comparing
(5) spare
(1) but
(2) that
(3) which
(4) because
(5) as if
35.
(1) justifies
(2) clarifies
(3) denies
(4) regards
(5) registers
36.
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37.
(1) disbeliefs
(2) beliefs
(3) ways
(4) means
(5) measures
38.
(1) decomposed
(2) decomposing
(3) deposed
(4) divided
(5) distributed
39.
(1) with
(2) in
(3) by
(4) of
(5) to
40.
(1) partially
(2) legally
(3) generally
(4) illegally
(5) gradually
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1. Which of the following represents such people who are Experienced- Hospital
Employees but are not doctors?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A and C
(4) F and C
(5) G and A
2. Which of the following represents such people who are Doctors and Post Graduates but
not Experienced- Hospital Employees?
(1) Only D
2) B and F
(3) Only E
(4) Only B
(5) B and E
3. Which of the following represents such Doctors who are also Experienced- Hospital
Employees?
(1) G and F
(2) D and G
(3) Only A
(4) Only G
(5) Band F
4. Which of the following represents Experienced-Hospital Employees who are Doctors but
are not Post Graduates?
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5. Which of the following represents all such people who are Doctors?
(1) Only D
(2) B, D, F and G
(3) Only F
(4) B, D and G
(5) S, F and G
Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
QSRUIVPJLGNFMTOKEAH DBC
6. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a Consonant and also immediately followed by a Vowel?
(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
(5) Two
7. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in Bold in the
above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
8. On the basis of above series of alphabets DECK is written as BABE and BARS is
written as CHSR, then how will JUMP be written?
(1) LIFJ
(2) PRTV
(3) LRFV
(4) PITJ
(5) None of these
9. On the basis of above series of alphabets if PJ is related to GI, EA is related to DO, then
NF is related toClick Here to Buy Printed Study Material for IBPS, SBI Bank Exams
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10. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the ninth from the left end of the
above arrangement?
(1) V
(2) I
(3) U
(4) M
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
J, K. L, M, N, 0, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the
same order. 0 is immediate neighbour of both K and Q. Only one person sits between K and J. Land
Mare neighbours but are not immediate neighbours of
Q. Two persons sit between Mana P. P does not sit to the immediate right of K.
Page 89
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) JLL
(2) NQ
(3) ML
(4) OK
(5) PJ
Directions (16-18): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a six storeyed building the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it is numbered two and so
on such that the topmost floor is numbered six. One out of six people viz, A, B, C, D, E and F lives on
each floor.
No one lives between C and F. There are two floors between the floors on which A and D live. A lives
on floor above the floor on which D lives. E lives on odd numbered floor. B does not live on a floor
immediately above or below Es floor.
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19. Statements:
All buses are cars.
Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions:
I. Some buses are definitely not trucks.
II. At least some trucks are cars.
20. Statements:
No leaf is a root.
All plants are roots.
Conclusions:
I. No leaf is a plant.
II. Some plants are leaves.
21. Statements:
Some chapters are units.
Some units are topics.
Conclusions:
I. At least some topics are chapters.
II. Some topics are definitely not units.
22. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
All dishes are bowls.
Conclusions:
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23. Statements:
Some gates are doors.
No gate is window.
Conclusions:
I. No door is window.
II. Some doors are definitely not windows.
Directions (24-28): In these questions relationships between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Mark answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Mark answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows
Mark answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Mark answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow
24. Statement: A F T = E R
Conclusions:
I. A < F
II. R F
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36. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FINANCIAL, each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series (in both forward
and backward directions)?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
37. Cause: The Government has recently increased the taxes on retail items by about 10
per cent. Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?
(1) The retailers will reduce the prices of retail items by about 10 per cent
(2) The retailers will dose their shops till the taxes are rolled back by the Government
(3) The retailers will increase the prices of retail items by about 20 per cent
(4) The retailers will most probably increase the prices of retail items by about 10 percent or less than 10
percent
(5) None of these
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39. Which of the following is a Conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
above paragraph?
(1) Government cannot withdraw subsidies provided to various items.
(2) Government subsidy on cooking gas is purely a political decision
(3) Government can compensate the expenditure incurred on subsidy by raising the various taxes
(4) Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizens increases the cost of capital
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the
above paragraph?
(1) It is not possible to create more infrastructural abilities if the present level of subsidy continues even for
short duration
(2) The Government should sought assistance from international financial organizations for developing
infrastructural projects
(3) The people of India may not be able to pay more for cooking gas
(4) India is no longer a developing country and many people in the country are rich enough to buy petroleum
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1. During the recession many companies will be forced to lay oil workers.
(1) have the force to
(2) be forced into
(3) forcibly have
(4) forcefully
(5) No correction required
3. Ramesh took charge of the project, within a few days of having appointed?
(1) having an appointment
(2) being appointed
(3) after being appointed
(4) appointing
(5) No correction required
4. It is difficult to work with him because he is one of those persons who think he is always
right.
(1) think they are always
(2) always thinks he is
(3) is always thinking they are
(4) always think his
(5) No correction required
Page 96
6. They work hard not because of the __ , but because of their inner urge.
(1) desire
(2) drive
(3) energy
(4) incentive
(5) motivation
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11. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?
(1) It will improve the standard of living of those farmers who can afford to repay their loans but are
exempted,
(2) Other government relief measures have proved ineffective.
(3) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver.
(4) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual holdings.
(5) The government will be forced to reexamine and Improve the public distribution system.
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14. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor?
(1) The percentage of bank loan sanctioned to family owned farms increased.
(2) The loans benefited dishonest money-lenders not landless labourers.
(3) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries of the loans.
(4) It resulted in the Government sanctioning thrice the amount for the current loan waiver.
(5) None of these.
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20. According to the author what is the governments motive in sanctioning the loan
waiver?
(1) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans from money- lenders.
(2) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness.
(3) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have the means to but have not repaid their loans
(4) To ensure they will be re-elected
(5) None of these
Directions (21-23): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
21. Incumbent
(1) mandatory
(2) present
(3) incapable
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22. ploys
(1) surveys
(2) entreaties
(3) ruses
(4) lazy
(5) assurances
23. aggrieved
(1) vindicated
(2) intimidated
(3) offensive
(4) wronged
(5) disputed
Directions (24-25): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
24. plethora
(1) dearth
(2) missing
(3) superfluous
(4) sufficient
(5) least
25. merited
(1) ranked
(2) unqualified for
(3) lacked
(4) inept at
(5) unworthy of
Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
26. It is more better(l)/ if one of the parents(2)/ stays at home(3)/ to look after the
children(4)/ No error(5)
27. With a fresh coat(l)/ of paint(2)/ the school can(3)/ look much nice(4)/ No error(5)
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31.
(1) havoc
(2) transformation
(3) destruction
(4) violence
(5) deforestation
32.
(1) discarded
(2) resorted
(3) indulged
(4) perfected
(5) designated
33.
(1) removing
(2) nurturing
(3) appeasing
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Page 102
34.
(1) additions
(2) gadgets
(3) modifications
(4) variety
(5) invention
35.
(1) immediately
(2) precisely
(3) irreversibly
(4) indefinitely
(5) measurably
36.
(1) designed
(2) produced
(3) manufactured
(4) sold
(5) purchased
37.
(1) inspire
(2) cultivate
(3) visualise
(4) drive
(5) curtail
38.
(1) uses
(2) demands
(3) advertisements
(4) consumption
(5) goods
39.
(1) visible
(2) secure
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40.
(1) view
(3) vogue
(5) order
(2) wings
(4) isolation
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2. Who among the following was never the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Osborne Smith
(2) James Braid Taylor
(3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(4) C.D. Deshmukh
(5) D. Subbarao
3. Which one of the following is correct regarding the Note Issuing Authority of the
Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Apart from the government it has the authority / monopoly to issue currency notes other than one rupee
notes/ coins
(2) One rupee notes/coins and coins of smaller denominations are put into circulation by the Central
government
(3) At present the RBI issues notes in seven denominations
(4) The functions of note issue and currency management is discharged by the RBI through its head office in
Mumbai
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following Is not correct regarding the National Integration Day?
(1) It aims to bring unity, peace, and spreading of love and brotherhood among fellow Indians
(2) It is also celebrated as Quami Ekata Divas
(3) It is celebrated in remembrance of Indira Gandhi
(4) It is celebrated on October 31
(5) National Integration Day celebration ends with Childrens Day
5. In banking, a Pay in Slip(1) Means a slip through which a person can deposit money in his account
(2) Means a slip through which a person can issue cheque from his account
(3) Is also called a withdrawal slip
(4) Must essentially contain IFSC Code
(5) None of these
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7. Who among the following has authored the book, titled Saga of Struggle and
Sacrifice?
(1) Manmohan Singh
(2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(3) Hamid Ansari
(4) Pranab Mukherjee
(5) Amartya Sen
9. A unique function of the bank is to create credit. Which of the following factors do not
determine the credit creation power of banks?
(1) Amount of Cash Reserve in the Country
(2) Cash Reserve Ratio
(3) Special Drawing Rights
(4) Monetary Policy of the Central Bank
(5) Willingness of Customers to Borrow
10. For which of the following debt instruments, not having a fixed rate of interest over the
life of the instrument, can Floating Interest Rate be applied?
(1) Aloan
(2) A bond
(3) A mortgage
(4) A credit
(5) All of these
Page 106
12. In banking, Mobile Banking refers to the performance of which of the following
services through a mobile device?
(1) Balance checks
(2) Account transactions
(3) Payments
(4) Credit applications
(5) All of these
13. Which among the following subsidiaries of the State Bank of India, which were
nationalized in 1960, has now been merged with SBI?
(1) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
(2) State Bank of Hyderabad
(3) State Bank of Patiala
(4) State Bank of Saurashtra
(5) State Bank of Travancore
14. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is to be implemented in India. Which of the
following taxes will not be replaced by It?
(1) Excise duty
(2) Service tax on the Centres front
(3) Value Added Tax (VAT) at states end
(4) Cesses, surcharges and local levies
(5) Wealth Tax
15. Service Tax act/Rules in India has provided exemption to small scale service providers
from service tax up to aggregate value of taxable services provided up to how much in a
Financial Year?
(1) Rs. 1 lakh
(2) Rs. 2.5 lakhs
(3) Rs. 5 lakhs
(4) Rs. 10lakhs
(5) None of these
16. Which of the following does not aptly describe Demat Account in India?
(1) It refers to a dematerialized account for individual Indian citizens to trade In listed stocks or debentures
in paper form
(2) It is required for investors by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
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17. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced a new type of
Demat Account called Basic Services De-mat Account (BSDA). Which of the following is
one of its features?
(1) Individuals are eligible to have multiple BSDA account across all depositories
(2) Investors will receive transaction statement on annual base
(3) Investors can avail at least two delivery instruction slip during account opening
(4) Investors can avail SMS alert facility for credit transactions
(5) If investors account have zero balance and no transactions during the year then will receive no annual
statement
18. Which of the following is not one of the major charges usually levied on a Demat
account?
(1) Account opening fee
(2) Annual maintenance fee
(3) Annual fee for spot conversions of one currency into another
(4) Custodian fee
(5) Transaction fee
19. Who among the following has authored the famous novel titled Joseph Anton?
(1) Jeet Thayil
(2) Salman Rushdie
(3) Shobha De
(4) V.S. Nalpaul
(5) Chetan Bhagat
20. Which of the following are the essential facilities/benefits provided by a Demat account
to an individual to trade the securities in the stock market?
(1) It reduces brokerage charges
(2) It makes pledging/hypothecation of shares easier
(3) It enables quick ownership of securities on settlement reo sulting in increased liquidity
(4) It avoids confusion in the ownership title of securities
(5) All of these
21. Which one of the following can be described as a secondary function of commercial
banks in India?
(1) Overdraft facilities
(2) Discounting Bills of Exchange
(3) Money at Call
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22. The balance sheet of a bank comprises of two sides; the assets side and the liabilities
side. Which one of the following items comes under the side of Assets?
(1) Subscribed capital
(2) Acceptance and endorsements
(3) Money at call and short notice
(4) Bills for collection
(5) Paid-up Capital
23. In the reshuffle of Union Council of Ministers, undertaken by Prime Manmohan Singh
in October 2012, who among the following is a Cabinet Minister (excluding Ministers of
State and Ministers of Stare with Independent Charge)?
(1) Pawan Kumar Bansal
(2) Shashi Tharoor
(3) Jyotiraditya Madhavrao Scindia
(4) Sachin Pilot
(5) Chiranjeevi
24. The first ever India Biodiversity Awards were presented in October 2012. In which of
the following categories were these awards not given?
(1) Community Stewardship
(2) Decentralized Governance
(3) Environmental sensitization
(4) Co-management
(5) Protected Area
25. Which of the following Central Armed Police Forces of India has recently celebrated
its golden jubilee?
(1) Sash astra Seema Bal (SSB)
(2) Border Security Force (BSF)
(3) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(4) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
(5) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Page 109
28. India has taken a pledge towards strengthening the institutional mechanism for
biodiversity conservation in the country with a sum of $ 10 million announced by Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh in this regard. The name of this pledge is
(1) Rio Pledge
(2) Doha Pledge
(3) Hyderabad Pledge
(4) Delhi Pledge
(5) Kyoto Pledge
31. Europe recently produced the greatest comeback in Ryder Cup to retain the trophy.
With which sports is the Ryder Cup associated?
(1) Golf
(2) Tennis
(3) Baseball
(4) Basketball
(5) Ice Hockey
32. The Cheque was first introduced in India by which of the following banks?
(1) Bank of Hindustan
(2) State Bank of India
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33. United Nations secretary general Ban Ki-Moon has announced that every year 10
November will be celebrated as
(1) Malala Day
(2) Earth Day
(3) Development Day
(4) Wilmut Day
(5) Jobs Day
34. Which of the following is a quantitative credit control policy of the Reserve Bank of
India?
(1) Margin requirements
(2) Moral suasion
(3) Bank rate
(4) RBI guidelines
(5) Direct action
35. What is the term for inflation when the general price level increases at the rate of about
5-6 per cent per annum?
(1) Creeping inflation
(2) Walking inflation
(3) Running inflation
(4) Hyper inflation
(5) Galloping inflation
37. Who among the following is a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Abhijit Sen
(2) Mihir Shah
(3) K Kasturirangan
(4) H.R. Khan
(5) Arun Mall-a
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Page 111
39. The National Capital Region (NCR) in India is a name for the conurbation or
metropolitan area which encompasses the entire Delhi as well as urban areas around it in
neighbouring states. Which of the following is not that neighbouring state?
(1) Punjab
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Uttarakhand
(4) Uttar Pradesh
(5) None of these
40. Which one of the following banks was nationalized in the second wave of
nationalization in 1980?
(1) Central Bank of India
(2) Bank of India
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Corporation Bank
(5) Bank of Maharashtra
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2. On annual day of a school some chocolates were to be distributed equally among 420
children. But on that particular day, due to some reason 140 more children of another
school joined them: hence each child got 1 chocolate less. How many chocolates were
originally supposed to be distributed among the children?
(1) 1640
(2) 1680
(3) 1690
(4) 1600
(5) None of these
3. Raj Kumar got the result of his 8th class. Each subject consists of a maximum of 140
marks. If he scores 98 marks in science; 129 marks in Sanskrit; 131 marks in Maths, 110
marks in English and 120 marks in Hindi, what was his percentage of marks in all the five
subject?
(1) 84%
(2) 82%
(3) 77%
(4) 79%
(5) None of these
4. If Suresh sells an article at a price of Rs. 9300, he incurs a loss of Rs. 3100. At what price
should he sell the article so that he gets a profit of 25%?
(1) Rs. 7250
(2) Rs. 7350
(3) Rs. 7650
(4) Rs. 7750
(5) None of these
5. There is a circular ground whose area is 246400 sq. metre. If a person runs at the speed
of 14.08 m/sec, then how much time will he take to complete the circle?
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Page 113
6. 2 4 16 96 768 ? 92160
(1) 7680
(2) 7580
(3) 7608
(4) 7090
(5) 7860
8. 5 8 13 20 ? 44 61
(1) 29
(2) 30
(3) 31
(4) 32
(5) 37
9. 11 16 31 56 91 136 ?
(1) 171
(2) 181
(3) 185
(4) 191
(5) 197
10. 3 4 12 45 196 ?
(1) 985
(2) 990
(3) 995
(4) 1000
(5) 1005
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12. If a person runs 14.35 km in five weeks, then what distance does he travel everyday?
(1) 400 m
(2) 410 m
(3) 405 m
(4) 415 m
(5) None of these
13. If a train 280 metre long runs at the speed of 7.4 m/ second how much time will it take
to cross a platform 460 metre long?
(1) 95 sec.
(2) 96 sec.
(3) 98 sec.
(4) 99 sec.
(5) 100 sec.
14. If a trader sells his stock of oranges at Rs. 18270, he gains 45 per cent. What is the cost
price of total stock of oranges?
(1) Rs. 12600
(2) Rs. 13600
(3) Rs. 12650.
(4) Rs. 13650
(5) None of these
15. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its denominator by 25%. then
the fraction so obtained is . What is the original fraction ?
Directions (16-24): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
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19. 8 ? = 4888 4
(1) 150.75
(2) 125.75
(3) 125.05
(4) l52.75
(5) None of these
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24.
26. A car covers a distance from town A to town B at the speed of 58 kmph and covers the
distance from town B to town A at the speed of 52 kmph What is the approximate average
speed of the car?
(1) 55 kmph
(2) 52 kmph
(3) 48 kmph
(4) 50kmph
(5) 60kmph
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28. In a sale perfumes are available at a discount of 25% on the selling price. If a perfume
costs Rs. 5.895 in the sale what is the selling price of the perfume?
(1) Rs. 6.020
(2) Rs. 7.860
(3) Rs. 7,680
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
29. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
(1) 294
(2) 276
(3) 265
(4) 300
(5) 288
30. The cost of 15 digital cameras and 21 handy cameras is Rs. 3.54.900. What is the cost of
5 digital cameras and 7 handy cameras?
(1) Rs. 1.25.500
(2) Rs. 1.18.300
(3) Rs. 2.15.100
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
31. A canteen requires 56 kgs. of rice for seven days. How many kgs. of rice will It require
for the months of April and May together?
(1) 496
(2) 480
(3) 498
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33. The total number of students in a school is 31700. If the ratio 01 boys to the girls in the
school is 743:842 respectively, what is the total number of girls in the school?
(1) 14860
(2) 16480
(3) 15340
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
34. The sum of five consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 130. What is the product
of A and E?
(1) 720
(2) 616
(3) 660
(4) 672
(5) None of these
35. If the square of a number is subtracted from 4052 and the difference is multiplied by
15, the answer so obtained is 41340. What is the number?
(1) 36
(2) 1024
(3) 32
(4) 1296
(5) None of these
36. 20% of the total cost of a plot with an area of 395 sq.ft. is Rs. 78,210. What is the rate
of per sq. ft. of the plot?
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37. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customers 15% more than the cost price. If a
customer paid Rs. 9,039/- for a sofa set, then what is the cost price of the sofa set?
(1) Rs. 7,680/(2) Rs.7.860/(3) Rs. 7.880/(4) Rs. 7,660/(5) None of these
38. Each child from a certain school can make 5 items of handicraft in a day. If 1125
handicraft items are to be displayed in an exhibition then in how many days can 25
children make these items?
(1) 6 days
(2) 9 days
(3) 8 days
(4) 7 days
(5) None of these
39. The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer?
(1) 20
(2) 22
(3) 21
(4) 23
(5) None of these
40. While withdrawing an amount of Rs. 49.350/- a customer by mistake collects Rs.
48.150/-. The remaining amount is deposited back to his account by the bank, which shows
the balance of Rs. 25.376/-. What will be the customers balance after depositing the
remaining amount?
(1) Rs. 26,576/(2) Rs. 26,676/(3) Rs. 26,586/(4) Rs. 26,686/(5) None of these
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3. The basic unit of a worksheet into which your enter data in Excel is called a _____
(1) tab
(2) cell
(3) box
(4) range
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like
applets?
(1) Java
(2) Cable
(3) Domain name
(4) Net
(5) COBOL
6. Which part of the computer is directly involved in executing the instructions of the
computer program?
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8. When the computer is switched on. the booting process performs the
(1) integrity Test
(2) Power-On Self-Test
(3) Correct Functioning Test
(4) Reliability Test
(5) Shut-down
9. Press the __ key to move the insertion point to the first cell in a row in Excel.
(1) Page Up
(2) Page Down
(3) Home
(4) Tab
(5) None of these
11. Language used in a computer that is similar to the languages of humans and is easy to
understand is referred to as
(1) Source Code
(2) Machine Language
(3) High Level Language
(4) Object Code
(5) Assembly Language
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21. In Excel this is a prerecorded formula that provides a shortcut for complex
calculations (1) Value
(2) Data Series
(3) Function
(4) Field
(5) None of these
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25. In word, when you indent a paragraph, you(1) push the text in with respect to the margin
(2) change the margins on the page
(3) move the text up by one line
(4) move the text down by one line
(5) None of these
26. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as
(1) Join Cells
(2) Merge Cells
(3) Merge Table
(4) Join Table
(5) None of these
27. What do you see when you click the right mouse button?
(1) The same effect as the left click
(2) A special menu
(3) No effect
(4) A mouse cannot be right clicked
(5) Computer goes to sleep mode
29. When machine instructions are being executed by a computer the instruction phase
followed by the execution phase is referred to as __
(1) program cycle
(2) machine instruction
(3) execution cycle
(4) task cycle
(5) machine cycle
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32. _______ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.
(1) OS
(2) ALU
(3) CPU
(4) Memory
(5) Printer
33. User can use ______ commands to search for and correct words in a document.
(1) Print and Print Preview
(2) Header and Footer
(3) Find and Replace
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Copy and Paste
34. Which of the following will be used if a sender of e-mail wants to bold, italics etc. the
text message?
(1) Reach Signature
(2) Reach Text
(3) Reach Format
(4) Plain Format
(5) Plain Text
35. Which of the following justification align the text on both the sides-left and right -of
margin?
(1) Right
(2) Justify
(3) both Sides
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36. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute dynamically the results from
Excel data?
(1) Goto
(2) Table
(3) Chart
(4) Diagram
(5) Formula and Function
39. In Power Point the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what
group?
(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group
(5) None of these
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2. Home assignment
3. Important current affairs materials for RRB Examination will be provided
4. Online Tests will be conducted after the end of each subject.
5. At the end of your course, five comprehensive test will be conducted to evaluate your performance.
Our Objectives:
Secondly to compile all the required study materials in a single place, So to save the precious time of
the aspirants.
Our Strategy:
Content of every section of the syllabus is developed after a exhaustive research of last year
Question Papers.