OCET 2010

Code No.: 210101

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Tech. (Nanoscience & Nanotechnology)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Code No. of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
 M.Tech. (Nanoscience & Nanotechnology)/210101
1. A photon strikes an electron of mass m that is initially at rest, creating an electron-positron pair. The
photon is destroyed and the positron and two electrons move off at equal speeds along the initial
direction of photon. The energy of photon was :
(A) mc (B) 2 mc
(C) 3 mc (D) 4 mc
2. The length of half wave dipole antenna at 60 MHz is
(A) 3.5 m (B) 3 m
(C) 2.5 m (D) 4 m
3. A TV tower has a height of 200 m. By how much the height of tower be increased to triple its coverage
range ?
(A) 400 m (B) 600 m
(C) 1600 m (D) 1800 m
4. Potential barriers across the p-n junctions are of the order of :
(A) 1 mV (B) 1 V
(C) 1 kV (D) 1 MV
5. For interfacing a microcontroller with a relay, it is proposed to use a p-n-p transistor as buffer.
Which configuration is preferred ?
(A) Common emitter (B) Common Base
(C) Common Collector (D) any of A or B
6. Which of the following is a super cooled liquid ?
(A) NaCl (B) Sulphur
(C) Copper (D) Glass
7. The de-Brolgie’s wavelength of an electron in first orbit of Bohr’s hydrogen is equal to :
(A) radius of orbit (B) diameter of orbit
(C) half the perimeter of orbit (D) perimeter of orbit
8. Minimum number of 8 micro-farad, 250 V capacitors used to make a combination of 16 micro farad
1000 V is :
(A) 32 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 4
9. Two metallic balls each of radius 0.9 mm collide with each other and 5 electrons are exchanged
between the metallic balls. What is the potential of each ball ?
(A) 10 V (B) 50 V
(C) 5 V (D) 0.5 V
10. The resistance of hot tungsten filament is about 10 items the cold resistance. What will be the resistance
of 100 W and 200 V lamp when not in use ?
(A) 14000 ohm (B) 400 ohm
(C) 40 ohm (D) 4 ohm

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11. What is the effective wattage of 40 W and 60 W lamps connected in series with each other ?
(A) 100 W (B) 20 W
(C) 80 W (D) 24 W
12. A proton is fired perpendicular to the magnetic field B with kinetic energy E. If the proton is fired
through a magnetic field 4 B making angle 90º with it and in both cases the radius of circular path
is R, then the kinetic energy of proton should be :
(A) E (B) 2 E
(C) 4 E (D) 16 E
13. The hysteresis cycle for a material of transformer core should be :
(A) long and wide (B) short and thin
(C) short and wide (D) long and thin
14. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) The proton is a fundamental particle and can’t be broken
(B) The proton is broken into quarks u u d
(C) The proton is broken into quarks u d d
(D) The proton is made up of quarks & pions
15. The Q-meter works on the principle of :
(A) mutual inductance (B) self inductance
(C) series resonance (D) parallel resonance
16. An ideal Op-Amp is an ideal :
(A) Voltage controlled current source (B) Voltage controlled voltage source
(C) Current controlled voltage source (D) Current controlled current source
17. The band gap of silicon at room temperature is :
(A) 2.1 eV (B) 1.1 eV
(C) 1.3 eV (D) 0.6 eV
18. The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor :
(A) Stepper motor (B) Brushless DC motor
(C) Reluctance motor (D) DC commutator motor
19. Total instant power supplied by 3-phase supply to balanced R-L load is :
(A) Zero (B) Constant
(C) Pulsating with zero average (D) Pulsating with non-zero average
20. An emf of 100 mV can be rectified using which device ?
(A) Normal p-n junction (B) Backward diode
(C) Zener diode (D) Can’t be rectified

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21. Which of the following law was modified by Maxwell by introducing displacement current ?
(A) Ampere’s Law (B) Biot Sevart’s Law
(C) Gauss’s Law (D) Faraday’s Law
22. In which of the atmospheric layers is the ozone present ?
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere (D) Mesosphere
23. Which quantity is increased in step down transformer ?
(A) Current (B) Voltage
(C) Power (D) Frequency
24. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by :
(A) Polarization (B) Interference
(C) Reflection (D) Refraction
25. The critical angle of diamond is 24º and that of glass is 42º. The angle of incidence so that the ray
passing from diamond to glass just grazes the surface of separation will be nearest to :
(A) 42º (B) 36º
(C) 30º (D) 24º
26. The object is placed at a distance n times the focal length of a concave lens. The linear magnification
of the object is :
(A) 1/(n + 1) (B) (1/n) + 1
(C) 1/(n – 1) (D) (1/n) – 1
27. What causes chromatic aberration ?
(A) Non Paraxial rays
(B) Paraxial rays
(C) Variation of focal length with colour
(D) Difference in radii of curvature of the bonding surfaces of lens.
28. A diffraction pattern is formed using a beam of red light. What will happen if the red light is replaced
by blue light ?
(A) no change (B) diffraction bands become narrower
(C) bands become broader (D) bands disappear
29. In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal width, one slit is made twice as wide as the
other. Then, in interference pattern :
(A) The intensities of maxima and minima increase
(B) The intensity of maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity
(C) The intensity of maxima decreases and that of minima increases
(D) The intensity of maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity

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30. When a ray is refracted, which one of the following does not change ?
(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength
(C) Velocity (D) Amplitude
31. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The
distance of virtual image from the surface of the sphere is :
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm (D) 12 cm
32. Which one of the following statements is false :
(A) The energy of photoelectrons emitted from a given metal by soft x-rays have less energy than hard
x-rays
(B) To increase the intensity of x-rays, the filament current should be increased
(C) The characteristic x-rays have continuous range of wavelengths
(D) X-rays were named so because of their mysterious nature at the time of discovery
33. According to Moore’s law :
(A) The number of devices on a chip doubles every year
(B) The number of devices on a chip doubles every 18 months
(C) The number of devices on a chip doubles every 3rd year
(D) The chip size doubles every 18 months
34. Wave particle duality of matter suggests that it is not possible to measure time interval with certainty
simultaneously with :
(A) Location (B) Momentum
(C) Energy (D) Mass
35. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. How much energy need to be supplied to ionize
the hydrogen atom in the first excited state ?
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 6.8 eV
(C) 3.4 eV (D) 27.2 eV
36. In a nuclear reactor :
(A) Moderator is used to control the number of neutrons
(B) Moderator is used to slow down the neutrons
(C) Control rods are used to slow down the neutrons
(D) Coolant is used to slow down the neutrons
37. What is the cause of the fractional atomic weight of elements ?
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars
(C) Nucleons (D) Electrons
38. Which technology uses minimum power ?
(A) n-MOS (B) ECL
(C) p-MOS (D) C-MOS
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39. AND-OR logic is equivalent to :
(A) NOR-NOR logic (B) NAND-NAND logic
(C) NAND-NOR logic (D) none of the above
40. How a multiplexed address-data bus is de-multiplexed ?
(A) by using a buffer (B) by using a latch
(C) by using NAND gates (D) by using a decoder
41. Which of the following noble gases is obtained by radioactive disintegration ?
(A) Ae (B) Kr
(C) Xe (D) Rn
42. A solution of potassium ferrocyanide contains :
(A) 2 ions (B) 3 ions
(C) 4 ions (D) 5 ions
43. The largest stable nuclei is :
(A) U-238 (B) U-235
(C) Pb-206 (D) Bi-209
44. The time period of a second’s pendulum in a satellite is :
(A) zero (B) 2
(C) infinity (D) depends upon mass of body
45. The body of mass m is taken from earth surface to a height h = 3 R, R(R being radius of earth).
The change in gravitational potential energy is
(A) ¼ mgR (B) 2/3 mgR
(C) ¾ mgR (D) ½ mgR
46. Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger droplet. In this process :
(A) energy is liberated
(B) energy is absorbed
(C) energy is neither liberated nor absorbed
(D) some mass is converted into energy
47. A body initially at 80 ºC cools to 64 ºC in 5 minutes and to 52 ºC in 10 minutes. The temperature of
surrounding is :
(A) 40 ºC (B) 36 ºC
(C) 26 ºC (D) 16 ºC
48. An empty plastic box of mass 5 Kg is observed to accelerate up at the rate of g/6 when placed deep
inside the water. What mass of sand should be put inside the box so that it may accelerate down at
the rate g/6 ?
(A) 1.5 Kg (B) 2 Kg
(C) 2.5 Kg (D) 4 Kg

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49. Two identical rods are connected between two containers. One of them is at 100 C containing water
and other is at 0 C containing ice. If rods are connected in parallel then the rate of melting of ice is
a.g/s. If they are connected in series then the rate is b.g/s. The ratio of b/a is :
(A) 1/8 (B) ¼
(C) ½ (D) 4
50. The temperature of a radiating body increases by 30%. Then, the increase in amount of radiation
emitted will be approximately :
(A) 185% (B) 285%
(C) 325% (D) 130%
51. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of TK does 6 R joule of work. If the ratio of
specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, then the final temperature
of the gas will be :
(A) (T + 4) K (B) (T – 4) K
(C) (T + 2.4) K (D) (T – 2.4) K
52. At what temperature, the kinetic energy of a gas molecule is half of the value at 27 ºC ?
(A) 13.5 ºC (B) – 123 ºC
(C) – 150 ºC (D) 75 K
53. The quantity PV/kT represents :
(A) mass of gas (B) KE of gas
(C) number of moles of gas (D) number of molecules of gas
54. Microwave region of em spectrum generally lies between :
(A) 0.1–100 cm (B) 50–100 cm
(C) 50–100 mm (D) 50–100 m
55. Which of the following compounds absorb UV radiation ?
(A) Benzene (B) Heptane
(C) Chloro-Hexane (D) Benzoic Acid
56. I-125 emits :
(A) β particles (B) γ rays
(C) both (D) None of the above
57. Half life of I-131 is :
(A) 8 Minutes (B) 8 Hrs.
(C) 8 days (D) 8 years
58. Electric field required to keep a water drop of mass m just to remain suspended, when charged with
one electron is :
(A) em/g (B) mg/e
(C) emg (D) mg

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59. Two sources of light are said to be coherent if the wave produced by them have the same :
(A) Wavelength
(B) Amplitude
(C) Wavelength and Constant phase difference
(D) Amplitude and Wavelength
60. Which out of the following does not support the wave nature of light ?
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction
(C) Polarisation (D) Photo-electric effect
61. Nucleic Acids include :
(A) DNA and CNA (B) DNA and RNA
(C) DNA and Acetic Acid (D) RNA and Acetic Acid
62. With increase in temperature the frequency of the sound from an organ pipe :
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains unchanged (D) changes erratically
63. Which type of vibrations are produced in a sitar wire ?
(A) Progressive transverse (B) Progressive longitudinal
(C) Stationary transverse (D) Stationary longitudinal
64. When high speed electrons hit a target of high atomic number
(A) only heat is produced
(B) only continuous x-rays are produced
(C) only continuous and characteristic x-rays are produced
(D) heat is produced alongwith characteristic x-rays
65. In an electronic transition, atom can not emit :
(A) UV (B) Infrared
(C) Visible light (D) Gamma rays
66. A straight wire of diameter 0.55 mm carrying a current of a A is replaced by another wire of 1 mm
diameter carrying the same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is :
(A) Twice the earlier value (B) One half of the earlier value
(C) One quarter of the earlier value (D) No change

67. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at
the centre is B. If it is bent into a circular loop of n turns, the magnetic field at the centre of coil
would be :
(A) nB (B) n2 B
(C) 2 nB (D) 2 n2 B

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68. 220 V, 1000 Watt bulbs will consume 1000 W power, when connected with 110 Volt supply if :
(A) 4 such bulbs are connected in parallel
(B) 2 such bulbs are connected in parallel
(C) 2 such bulbs are connected in series
(D) 4 such bulbs are connected in series

69. What is the nature of graph between temperature and thermo emf ?
(A) Hyperbola (B) Straight Line
(C) Parabola (D) Some other curve

70. In an experiment, light of particular wavelength is incident on metal surface, and electrons are
emitted from the surface as a result. To produce more electrons per unit time but with less KE per
electron, the experimenter should do the following :
(A) Increase the intensity and decrease the wavelength
(B) Increase the intensity and the wavelength
(C) Decrease the intensity and the wavelength
(D) Decrease the intensity and increase the wavelength

71. When Boron is bombarded by neutrons, a neutron can be absorbed and an alpha particle emitted.
The KE of reaction products is equal to :
(A) KE of incident neutron
(B) Energy equivalent to mass decrease in the reaction
(C) Energy equivalent to mass decrease in reaction minus the KE of incident neutron
(D) Energy equivalent to mass decrease in reaction plus the KE of incident neutron

72. In case of type 2 superconductors what happens to the critical temperature when a magnetic field is
applied :
(A) Critical temperature remains same
(B) It decreases with increasing field
(C) It increases with increasing field
(D) It is a material property and may increase or decrease

73. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its :

(A) Pressure and Temperature are high
(B) Pressure and Temperature are low
(C) Pressure is high but temperature is low
(D) Pressure is low but temperature is high

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74. A uniform charged sphere of total charge Q expands and contracts between radii R1 and R2 at a
frequency f. The total power radiated by the sphere is :
(A) proportional to Q (B) Proportional to f
(C) Proportional to (R2/R1) (D) Zero

75. One end of nichrome wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A is attached with another
nichrome wire of length L and cross-sectional area 2 A. If the free end of longer wire is at electric
potential of 8.0 V, and the free end of smaller wire is at electric potential of 1.0 V, the potential at
the junction of two wires is most nearly equal to:
(A) 2.4 V (B) 3.3 V
(C) 4.5 V (D) 6.6 V

M.Tech. (Nanoscience & Nanotechnology)/210101/DNB-11686 9 [Turn over

 ROUGH WORK

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 ROUGH WORK

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