4.

Which of the following is a controlling factor in very fast

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING heterogeneous reaction?
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS: A (a) heat and mass transfer effects
(b) pressure
COMPILATION (c) temperature
DR. LEONARDO C. MEDINA, JR. (d) composition of reactant

DEAN, COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING 5. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are
(a) pressure and temperature only
LYCEUM OF THE PHILIPPINES (b) temperature and composition only
UNIVERSITY (c) pressure and composition only
(d) pressure, temperature and composition

6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in

CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING AND series is the
REACTOR DESIGN (a) fastest step
(b) slowed step
1. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants (c) intermediate step
for (d) data insufficient; can't be predict
(a) zero order reaction
(b) third order reaction 7. Chemical kinetics can predict the
(c) consecutive reaction (a) rate of reaction
(d) none of these (b) feasibility of reaction
(c) both (a) and (b)
2. Which of the following is not a unit of reaction rate? (d) none of these
(a) moles formed/(surface of catalyst) (time)
(b) moles formed/(volume of reactor) (time) 8. Velocity of a chemical reaction
(c) mole formed/(volume of catalyst) (time) (a) decreases with increase in temperature
(d) none of these (b) increases with increase of pressure of reactant for all reactions
(c) decreases with increase of reactant concentration
3. If n is the order of reaction then unit of rate constant is (d) none of these
(a) 1
(time) (concentration)n-1 9. Sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation is
(b) (time)-1(concentration)n-1 called the
(c) (time)n-1 (concentration) (a) order of the reaction
(d) none of these (b) overall order of the reaction
(c) molecularity of the reaction
 (d) none of these (c) independent of
(d) none of these
10.Molecularity of a reaction
(a) is always equal to the overall order of reaction 15. Fill up the blanks from among the alternatives given below: In a first
(b) may not be equal to the order of reaction order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant from
(c) cant have a fractional value 1 mole/liter to 0.5 mole/liter will be ............. that required to reduce it from
(e) both (b) and (c) 10 moles/liter to 5 moles/liter in the same volume
(a) more than
11.Inversion of cane sugar is an example of (b) less than
(a) unimolecular reaction with first order (c) same as
(b) bimolecular reaction with second order (d) data insufficient; can't be predicted
(c) bimolecular reaction with first order
(d) unimolecular reaction with second order 16. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction
(a) is independent of temperature
12.Concentration of the limiting reactant (with initial concentration of a (b) varies with temperature
moles/liter) after time t is (a-x).Then t for a first order reaction is given by (c) depends on the nature of the reactants
(a) kt = ln a (d) both (b) and (c)
a-x
(b) kt = x 17. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric
a(a-x) equation is called
(c) kt = ln a-x (a) elementary reaction
a (b) non-elementary reaction
(d) k.t = a (a-x) (c) parallel reaction
X (d) autokinetic reaction

13.Half life period of a chemical reaction is 18. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a
(a) the time required to reduce the concentration of the (a) dynamic steady state
reacting substance to half its initial value (b) static steady state
(b) half of the space time of a reaction (c) dynamic unsteady state
(c) half of the residence time of a reaction (e) none of these
(d) none of these
19. For a zero order reaction, concentration of product increases with
14.Fill up the blanks: (a) increase of reaction time
Half-life period for a first order reaction is....................... the initial (b) increase in initial concentration
concentration of the reactant (c) total pressure
(a) directly proportional to (d) decrease in total pressure
(b) inversely proportional to
20. Fill up the blanks (c) catalyst has very high selectivity
Arrhenius equation shows the variation of __________with (d) no catalyst is used
temperature
(a) Reaction rate 26. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible
(b) Rate constant exothermic reaction
(c) Energy of activation (a) decreases
(d) Frequency factor (d) increases
(c) remain unaffected
21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction (d) decreases linearly with temperature
(a) is same as heat of reaction at constant pressure
(b) is the minimum energy which the molecules must have 27. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible
before the reaction can take place endothermic reaction
(c) varies as fifth power of the temperature (a) decreases
(d) both (b) and (c) (b) increases
(c) remains unaffected
22. Rate constant 'k' and the absolute temperature T are related by collision (d) increases linearly with temperature
theory (for bimolecular) as
(a) k T 1.5 28. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
(b) k e E/RT (a) increases in the presence of catalyst
(c) k T (b) decreases in the presence of catalyst
(d) k T (c) remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst
(d) can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst
23. Transition state theory relates the above quantities as
(a) k e E/RT 29. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of
(b) k Te E/RT (a) Autocatalytic reaction
(b) Irreversible reaction
(c) k T
(c) Reversible endothermic reaction
(d) k T 1.5
(d) Reversible exothermic reaction
24.Reactions with high activation energy are
30. The heat of reaction
(a) very temperature sensitive
(a) depends on the pressure only
(b) temperature insensitive
(b) depends on the mechanism of reaction only
(c) always irreversible
(c) depends on both pressure and mechanism of reaction
(d) always reversible
(d) is independent of the mechanism of reaction
25. In autocalytic reactions
31.Integral method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
(a) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst
(a) when the data are scattered
(b) one of the products acts as a catalyst
 (b) for testing specific mechanisms with simple rate expression 37. A batch reactor is characterized by
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) constant residence time
(d) none of these (b) the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the
reaction mixture with time
32. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used (c) variation in reactor volume
(a) for testing complicated mechanisms (d) very low conversion
(b) when the data are scattered
(c) when rate expressions are very simple 38. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by
(d) none of these (a) high capacity
(b) presence of axial mixing
33.Exposure of a photographic plate to produce a latent image is an (c) presence of lateral mixing
example of (d) constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture
(a) Very slow reaction
(b) Very fast reaction 39. In a semi-batch reactor
(c) Photochemical reaction (a) velocity of reaction can be controlled
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) maximum conversion can be controlled
(c) both the as reactants flow counter-currently
34. A trickle bed reactor is one which (e) residence time is constant
(a) has altogether three streams either entering or leaving
(b) processes three reactants at different flow rates 40. A back mix reactor
(c) processes three reactant with same flow rate (a) is same as plug-flow reactor
(d) employs all the three phases (i.e. solid liquid and gas) (b) is same as ideal stirred tank reactor
(c) employs mixing in axial direction only
35.According to Arrhenius equation of temperature dependency of rate (d) is most suitable for gas phase reaction
constant for an elementary reaction
(a) k T 41. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of the exit
(b) k e-E/RT stream
(c) k Te-E/RT (a) is same as that in the reactor
(d) none of these (b) is different than that in the reactor
(c) depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream
36. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius (d) none of these
equation
(a) increases 42. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor
(b) decreases (a) there is no mixing in longitudinal direction
(c) decreases exponentially with temperature (b) mixing takes place in radial direction
(d) can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor (c) there is a uniform velocity across the radius
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
43. Space velocity
(a) describes the extensive operating characteristics of a tubular
flow reactor
(b) is the maximum feed rate per unit volume of reactor for is
given conversion
(c) is a measure of the case of the reaction job
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
44. A high space velocity means that a given
(a) reaction can be accomplished with small reactor
(b) conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
45. Space time in flow reactor is
(a) usually equal to the residence time
(b) the reciprocal of the space velocity
(c) a measure of its capacity
(d) both (a) and (c)
46. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that
(a) the time required to process one reactor volume of feed
(measured at specified conditions) is 3 hour
(b) three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour
(c) it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction
with feed
(d) conversion is cent per cent after three hour
47. Space time equals the mean residence time
(a) when the density of the reaction mixture is constant
(b) for large diameter tubular reactor
(c) for narrow diameter tubular reactor
(d) for CSTR
48. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by
(a) uniformity of temperature
(b) comparatively smaller equipment
(c) very small pressure drop
(d) absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility
49. A batch reactor is
(a) suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale
(b) suitable for liquid phase reaction involving small
production rate
(c) least expensive to operate for a given rate
(d) most suitable for very large production rate
50. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-pressure gas-
phase reaction?
(a) batch reactor
(b) tubular flow reactor
(c) stirred tank reactor
(d) fluidized bed reactor
51. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid
phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is
(a) stirred tank reactor
(b) tubular flow reactor
(c) batch reactor
(d) fixed bed reactor
52. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides
(a) more uniform operation condition
(b) permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long
reaction time
(c) higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion?
(a) single stirred tank (v=5liters)
(b) two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series
(c) stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5liters)
(d) single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)
54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a 59. In a CSTR
(a) batch reactor (a) reaction rate varies with time
(b) slurry reactor (b) concentration varies with time
(c) fluidized bed reactor (c) both (a) and (b) occur
(d) fixed bed reactor (d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs

55. A second order reaction of the form A+B C is called a pseudo-first 60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the
order reaction when design of
(a) CAO = CBO (a) batch reactor
(b) CAO > CBO (b) ideal tubular-flow reactor
(c) CAO CBO (c) slurry reactor
(d) CBO > CAO (d) CSTR

56. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a
constant volume as well as a in a variable volume reactor for a particular
period. It signifies that
(a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in the two
reactors
(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will
be different in the two reactors
(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different
in the two reactors
(d) none of these
57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that
(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are
being fed into the reactor per hour
(b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed
(c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours
(d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours
58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for a
particular conversion and production rate?
(a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature)
(b) rate constant
(c) density of mixture
(d) none of these
61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty
(a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow reactor
(b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that of the plug-
flow reactor decreases with order
(c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow
(d) density variation during reaction affects design
62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the
reaction 2A B is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of
equal volumes. The conversion will be
(a) higher in P.F. reactor
(b) higher in CSTR
(c) same in both the reactors
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is
(a) P.F. reactors in series
(b) CSTR in series
(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor
(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR
64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects the
(a) Size requirement
(b) Distribution of reaction product
 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
65. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the
following gives a higher yield?
(a) Large reactor followed by smaller one
(b) Smaller reactor followed by larger one
(c) Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same
yield
(d) Data insufficient; cant be predicted
66. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is
(a) Less when they are connected in series
(b) More when they are connected in series
(c) More when they are connected in parallel
(d) Same whether they are connected in series or parallel
(d) None of these
70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction
being carried out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Data sufficient; cant be predicted
71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained
when the feed stream is distributed in such a way that the
(a) Space time for each parallel line is same
(b) Space time for parallel lines is different
(c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller
ones
(d) None of these

67. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B decreases 72. Back mixing is most predominant in
(a) Linearly with time (a) A well stirred reactor
(b) Exponentially with time (b) Plug-flow reactor
(c) Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction (c) A single CSTR
(d) Logarithmically with time (d) CSTR connected in series

68. Which of the following is most suitable for isothermal reaction ? 73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to
(a) Batch reactor that converted into unwanted product is called
(b) Back-mix reactor (a) Operational yield
(c) Plug-flow reactor (b) Relative yield
(d) Fixed bad reactor (c) Selectivity
(d) None of these
69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an
exothermic reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor 74. The performance of a cascade of CSTRs can be improved by adding
(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and (a) a P.F. reactor in series
decreased towards the end of the reaction (b) a P.F. reactor in parallel
(b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the (c) More CSTRs in series
reaction (d) More CSTRs in parallel
(c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the
reaction
75. An auto thermal reactor is 80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation
(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction yield
(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction (a) Is greater than relative yield
(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy (b) Is smaller than relative yield
requirements (c) Equals the relative yield
(d) Isothermal in nature (d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on
the type of reaction
76. For series reaction,the
(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha) 81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of
for the single CSTR of the same volume (a) Only chemical steps
(b) Statement in a is wrong (b) Only physical steps
(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good (d) Neither (a) and (b)

77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas-liquid 82. Pick out the wrong statement
reaction, use (a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium
(a) Packed column in a reversible reaction.
(b) Spray column (b) A catalyst initiate a reaction
(c) Tray column (c) A catalyst is specific in action
(d) Bubble column (d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at
the end of the reaction
78. For reactions in parallel viz. AP (desired product) and AQ
(unwanted product), if the order of the desired reaction is higher than 83. Catalyst is a substance which
that of the undesired reaction, a (a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction
(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high (b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction
yield (c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical
(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high reaction
yield (d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible
(c) Both (a) and (b) reaction
(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable
84. Catalyst carriers
79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions) (a) Have very high selectivity
(a) At high pressure (b) Increase the activity of a catalyst
(b) At low pressure (c) Provide large surface area with small amount of
(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactant stream active material
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning
85. A catalyst promoter (c) Semi-batch reactor
(a) Improves the activity of a catalyst (d) Plug-flow reactor
(b) Acts as a catalyst support
(c) Itself has very high activity 91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid solid
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) reactor?
(a) The reaction kinetics for single particle
86. A catalyst inhibitor (b) The size distribution of solids being treated
(a) Lessens its selectivity (c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor
(b) May be useful for suppressing undesirable side reaction (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
(c) Is added in small quantity during the catalyst
manufacture itself 92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) (a) Batch reactor
(b) Plug-flow reactor
87. Carbon catalyst accumulated on the catalyst used in the gas oil cracking (c) Mixed reactor
lies in the category of : (d) None of these
(a) Deposited poison
(b) Chemisorbed poison 93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a
(c) Selectivity poison (a) Fixed bed reactor
(d) Stability poison (b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
88. Slurry reactors are characterised by (d) Fluidized bed reactor
(a) Lack of intra-particle diffusion resistance
(b) Presence of two mobile phase 94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction,
(c) Both (a) and (b) use
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (a) High recycle for pure glass
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of
89. A reaction . A 3 B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting feed
with pure A, the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in 6 (c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large
minutes. The final conversion is preheating to bring the steam up to the reaction
(a) 0.33 temperature
(b) 0.50 (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
(c) 1
(d) Data insufficient, cant be predicted 95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?
(a) Fixed bed reactor
90. The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal reaction is (b) fluidized reactor
(a) Batch reactor (c) Semi-fluidized reactor
(b) CSTR (d) Plug flow catalytic reactor
96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous 2. Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?
catalyst pellet? a. concentration b. mass
(a) Decay reactions c. temperature d. entropy
(b) Pore diffusion
(c) Form of surface attack of poison 3. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically stated as
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) a. dQ = dU + dW b. dQ = dU dW
c. dU = dQ + dW d. dW = dQ dU
97. BET apparatus is used to determine the
(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst 4. First law of thermodynamics deals with
(b) Pore size distribution a. direction of energy transfer b. reversible process
(c) Pore diameter only
(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed c. irreversible processes only d. none of these

98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the 5. An irreversible process
catalyst a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines
(a) Porosity is very important b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system
(b) Porosity is less importance c. yields the maximum amount of work
(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently d. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.
(d) None of these
6. In a adiabatic process
99. BET apparatus a. heat transfer is zero b. temperature change is zero
(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly c. work done is a path function d. enthalpy remains constant
(b) Operates at very high pressure
(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel 7. Enthalpy H is defined as
(d) None of these a. H = U PV b. H = U TS
c. H U = PV d. none of these
100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the
(a) Pore volume 8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two
(b) Solid density temperature levels depends upon
(c) Porosity of catalyst particle a. the two temperatures only b. the pressure of working fluid
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) c. the mass of the working fluid d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water
1. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system? equilibrium with its vapor?
a. heat capacity b. molal heat capactiy a. 0 b. 1
c. pressure d. concentration c. 2 d. 3
 18. C, for an ideal gas
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T 1 and T2 a. does not depend upon temperature
(T1 < T2 ) is b. is independent of pressure only
a. (T2 T1) / T2 b. (T2 T1) / T1 c. is independent of volume only
c (T1 T2) / T2 d. (T1 T2) / T1 d. is independent of both pressure and volume
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( H) change of
the system is 19. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas
a. C vdT b. Cp dT a. increases b. decreases
c. Cp dT d. Cv dT c. remains unchanged d. data insufficient cant be predicted

12. Internal energy of an ideal gas 20. PV = Constant (where, = Cp / C v) is valid for
a. increases with increase in pressure a. Isothermal process b. Isentropic process
b. decreases with increase in temperature c. Isobaric process d. adiabatic process
c. is independent of temperature
d. none of these 21. For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas
a. only U= 0 b. only H = 0
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is c. U = H = 0 d. dQ dU
called
a. Equation of state b. Gibbs Duhem equation 22. As the time is passing, entropy of the universe
c. ideal gas equation d. none of these a. is increasing b. is decreasing
c. remains constant d. data insufficient, cant be predicted
14. Isobaric process means a constant
a. temperature process b. pressure process 23. Boyles law for gases states that
c. volume process d. entropy process a. P 1/V when temperature is constant
b. P 1/V when temperature and mass of the gas remains
15. Isentropic process means a constant constant
a. enthalpy process b. pressure process c. P V at a constant temperature and mass of the gas
c. volume process d. none of these d. P/V = constant, for any gas

16. Throttling process is a constant 24. The equation, PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases at
a. enthalpy process b. entropy process a. low pressure and high temperature
c. pressure process d. none of these b. high pressure and low temperature
c. low pressure and low temperature
17. The point at which all three phases co-exist is known as d. none of these
a. freezing point b. triple point
c. boiling point d. none of these 25. Compressibility factor of a gas is
a. not a function of pressure b. not a function of its nature
 c. not a function of its temperature d. unity, if it follows PV = nRT b. energy with its surroundings
c. neither matter nor energy with its surroundings
26. Critical compressibility factor for all substances d. both matter and energy with its surroundings.
a. are more less constant(vary from 0.2 to 0.3)
b. vary as square of the absolute temperature 33. Heat of formation of an element in its standard state is
c. vary as square of the absolute pressure a. 0 b. <0
d. none of these c. >0 d. a function of pressure

27. Reduced pressure of a gas is the ratio of its 34. Heat of reaction is
a. pressure to critical pressure a. dependent on pressure only
b. critical pressure to pressure b. dependent on temperature only
c. pressure to pseudocritical pressure c. dependent on both pressure and temperature
d. pseudocritical pressure to pressure d. independent of temperature changes

28. Compressibility factor-reduced pressure plot on reduced coordinates 35. Second law of thermodynamics is concerned with
facilities a. amount of energy transferred
a. use only one graph for all gases b. direction of energy transfer
b. covering of wider range c. irreversible process only
c. easier plotting d. non-cyclic process only
d. more accurate plotting
36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero
29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are temperature
related by Gibbs phase rule as a. is zero b. is negative
a. P + F C = 2 b. C =P F +2 c. is more than zero d. cant be determined
c. F = C P 2 d. P = F C 2
37. Joule Thomson coefficient is defined as
30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be a. = ( P/T)H b. = ( T/ P)H
a. 0 b. 1 c. = ( U/ T)H d. ( U/ P)H
c. 2 d. 3
38. Mollier diagram is a plot of
31. Cp Cv = R is valid for a. temperature vs. enthalpy
a. ideal gases b. all gases b. temperature vs. entropy
c. gases at very high pressure d. gases at a very low c. entropy vs. enthalpy
temperature d. temperature vs. internal energy

32. An isolated system can exchange

a. matter with its surroundings
39. Fill up the blank from among the following: 46. For a constant volume process
Near their critical temperature all gases, occupy volumes that of a. dU = C pdT b. dU = Cv dT
the ideal gas c. dQ = dU + pdV d. dW = pdV
a. less than b. same as
c. more than d. half 47. In a reversible process
a. TdS = dU + dW b. dU dW = TdS
40. Charles law for gases states that c. dW dU = TdS d. TdS dW dU > 0
a. V/T = constant b. V 1/T
c. V 1/P d. PV/T = constant 48. In an irreversible process
a. TdS = UdW = 0 b. dU dW TdS = 0
41. Absolute zero temperature signifies c. TdS dU dW <0 d. TdS dT + dW < 0
a. minimum temperature attainable
b. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine 49. Cv is given by
rejects all the heat that is taken in a. ( U/ T)v b. ( U/V)T
c. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot c. ( U/P)v d. (V/ T)P
engine rejects no heat
d. none of these 50. Third law of thermodynamics is concerned with
a. the value of absolute entropy
42. Entropy is measure of b. energy transfer
a. disorder of a system c. direction of energy transfer
b. orderly behavior of a system d. none of these
c. only temperature changes of the system
d. none of these 51. Which of the following equation is obtained on combining 1 sT and 2nd
law of thermodynamics, for a system of constant mass?
43. For spontaneous changes in an isolated system( S = entropy ) a. dU = TdS PdV b. dQ = Cv dT + PdV
a. dS = 0 b. dS < 0 c. dQ = Cp dT + Vdp d. TdS = dU PdV
c. dS> 0 d. dS = constant
52. The equation TdS = dU PdV applies to
44. For equilibrium process in an isolated system a. single phase fluid of varying composition
a. dS = 0 b. dS < 0 b. single phase fluid of constant composition
c. dS>0 d. dS = constant c. open as well as closed systems
d. both b and c
45. The four properties of a system via P,V,T,S are related by
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Gibbs-Helmholtz 53. For an exothermic reaction
equation a. only enthalpy change (H)is negative
c. Maxwells equation d. none of these b. only internal energy change (U) is negative
c. both H and U are negative
 d. enthalpy change is zero
62. Pick out the correct equation relating G and A
54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical a. G = A + PV b. G = U + A
reaction, the enthalpy change is same for all of them. c. G = A TS d. G = A + TS
a. Hesss law b. Kirchhoffs law
c. Lavoisier and Laplace law d. none of these 63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and
temperature, if free energy is
55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in a. zero b. positive
oxygen at constant pressure is called c. negative d. none of these
a. calorific value b. heat of reaction
c. heat of combustion d. heat of formation 64. Clapeyron equation deals with the
a. rate of change of vapor pressure with temperature
56. Melting of wax is accompanied with b. effect of an inert gas on vapor pressure
a. increase in entropy b. decrease in entropy c. calculation of G for spontaneous phase change
c. constant entropy d. none of these d. temperature dependence of least of phase transition

57. Helmholtz free energy is defined as 65. In any spontaneous process

a. A = H TS b. A = U TS a. only G decreases b. only A decreases
c. A = H + TS d. none of these c. both G and A decreases d. both G and A increases

58. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as 66. Pick out the Claussius-Clayperon equation from the following:
a. G = U TS b. G = H - TS a. dP/dT = H/T V b. ln P = - H/ RT + constant
c. G = H + TS d. G = U+ TS c. G = H + T[ ( G)/T]P d. none of these

59. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation is 67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are
a. G = H + T[ ( G)/ T]P respectively 15 and 5 units. It implies that X is
b. G = H TT a. slower than Y b. faster than Y
c. d(U TS)T ,V <0 c. three times slower than Y d. three times faster than Y
d. dP/dT = HVAP/ TVVAP
68. Chemical potential is
60. For a reversible process involving only pressure volume work a. an extensive property
a. (dG)T, p<0 b. (dG)T, p>0 b. an intensive property
c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0 c. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibrium
d. both b and c
61. For an irreversible process involving only pressure volume work
a. (dG)T, p<0 b. (dG)T, p>0 69. Chemical potential of its component of a system is given by
c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0 a. i = ( G/ni)T,P,ni b. i = ( A/ni)T,P,ni
 c. i = ( G/ni)T,P d. i = ( A/ni)T,P 76. The activity of an ideal gas is numerically
a. more than it pressure b. less than its pressure
70. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives; c. equal to its pressure d. data insufficient cant be predicted
The chemical potential for a pure substance .. its partial molal free
energy 77. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a
a. more than b. less than given pressure range is the
c. equal to d. not related to a. isothermal work b. adiabatic work
c. isentropic work d. none of these
71. Partial molal quantities are important in the study of
a. ideal gases b. ideal solutions 78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
c. non-ideal mixtures d. a pure component a. critical point b. triple point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
72. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
a. in standard state b. at high temperature 79. Equilibrium constant of a reaction varies with
c. at low temperature d. in ideal state a. initial concentration of the reactant b. pressure
c. temperature d. none of these
73. The relation connecting the fugacities of various components in a
solution with one another and to composition at constant temperature 80. For an ideal solution, the value of activity coefficient is
and pressure is called a. 0 b. 1
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Van Laar equation c. <1 d. >1
c. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation d. Margules equation
81. Fugacity coefficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to
74. The necessary condition for phase equilibrium in a multiphase system a. mole fraction b. activity
of N components is the c. pressure d. activity coefficient
a. chemical potential of all components should be equal in all
phases 82. Van Laar equation deals with activity coefficients in
b. chemical potentials of all components should be same in a a. binary solution b. ternary solution
particular phase c. azeotropic mixture only d. none of these
c. sum of the chemical potentials of any given component in all the
phases should be the same 83. In Joule-Thomson porous plug experiment
d. none of these a. enthalpy does not remain constant
b. the entire apparatus is exposed to surroundings
75. Which of the following is not affected by temperature changes c. temperature remains constant
a. fugacity b. activity co-efficient d. none of these
c. free energy d. none of these
84. Equilibrium constant 90. In a working refrigerator value of COP is always
a. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic a. 0 b. <0
reaction c. <1 d. >1
b. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reaction
c. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reaction 91. One ton of refrigeration capacity is equivalent to
d. none of these a. 50 k cal/hr b. 200 BTU/hr
c. 200 BTU/minute d. 200 BTU/day
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work
producing capacity of a heat engine is 92. Which of the following have minimum value of COP for a given
a. not changed b. decreasing refrigeration effect?
c. increasing d. data insufficient cant be predicted a. reverse Carnot cycle
b. ordinary vapor compression cycle
86. Refrigeration cycle c. vapor compression process with a reversible expansion engine
a. violates second law of thermodynamics d. air refrigeration cycle
b. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high
temperature 93. An ideal refrigerant should
c. both a and b a. not have a subatmosphere vapor pressure at the temperature in the
d. d. none of these refrigerator coils
b. not have unduly high vapor pressure at the condenser temp.
87. Ideal refrigeration cycle is c. both a and b
a. same as Carnot d. none of these
b. same as reverse Carnot cycle
c. dependent on refrigerant properties 94. Heat pump
b. the least efficient of all refrigeration processes a. accomplishes only space heating in winter
b. accomplishes only space cooling in summer
88. Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on c. accomplishes both a and b
a. zeroth law of thermodynamics d. work on Carnot cycle
b. first law of thermodynamics
c. second law of thermodynamics 95. Which of the following is not a common refrigerant
d. third law of thermodynamics a. freon 12 b. ethylene
c. ammonia d. carbon dioxide
89. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio of
a. work required to refrigeration obtained 96. Domestic refrigerator usually works on
b. refrigeration obtained to the work required a. Carnot refrigeration cycle
c. lower to higher temperature b. A refrigeration cycle
d. higher to lower temperature c. Absorption refrigeration cycle
d. Vapor ejection refrigeration
97. Refrigerants commonly used for domestic refrigerations are (b) high gas temperature
a. ethyl chloride b. freon 12 (c) high percentage of oxygen in flue gas
c. propane d. CO2 (d) high carbon monoxide content in flue gas

98. Air refrigeration cycle 4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its height should be
a. is most efficient of all refrigeration (a) 200 meters
b. has very low efficiency (b) infinitely long
c. requires relatively quantities of air to achieve a significant amount (c) more than 105.7 meters
of refrigeration (d) equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
d. both b and c
5. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is
99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working (a) 19 (b) 21
between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2) is (c) 23 (d) 29
a. T2 /(T1 - T2) b. T1 /(T1 T2)
c. (T2 T1) / T1 d. (T1 T2) /T2 6. Stack (chimney) height in a big thermal power plant is dictated by
(a) pollution control aspect
100. Dry ice is (b) draught to be created
a. moisture free ice b. solid helium (c) limitation of constructional facilities
c. solid carbon dioxide d. none of these (d) none of these

7. A particular coal is said to be free burning when it

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS (a) burns completely (b) gives smokeless burning
(c) shows little or no fusing action (d) none of these

1. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed 8. As time passes, the calorific value of stored coal
by (a) decreases
(a) cuprous chloride (b) potassium hydroxide (b) increases
(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these (c) remains unaltered
(d) may increase or decrease (depends on the method of storage)
2. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is
(a) higher calorific value at constant volume 9. Emission of dense white smoke out of chimney of a thermal power
(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure plant is an indication of the use of
(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure (a) less air for combustion (b) correct amount of air for combustion
(d) net calorific value at constant volume (c) too much air for combustion (d) pulverized coal in boilers

3. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by 10. Use of pulverized coal in boiler furnace provides
(a) smoke formation (a) high calorific value (b) better combustion
 (c) smokeless burning (d) pulverized coal (a) transportation of coal
(b) drying of coal
11. Which of the following fuels is best for burning on chain grate smoker? (c) combustion of coal by supplying in around the burner
(a) non caking coal (b) caking coal (d) pre-heating the primary air
(c) coking coal (d) pulverized coal
18. The main function of primary air in pulverized coal fired burner is to
12. Which of the following accounts for maximum energy loss in a boiler (a) burn CO to CO2
(a) flue gases (b) ash content in the fuel (b) dry transport of the coal
(c) incomplete combustion (d) unburnt carbon in flue gases (c) have proper combustion by supplying it around the burner
(d) pre-heat the tertiary air used for complete combustion of CO to
13. Over-fire burning in a furnace is a phenomenon characterized by CO2
(a) supply of excess fuel
(b) supply of excess air 19. The advantage of firing pulverized coal in the furnace lies in the fact
(c) burning carbon monoxide and other incombustible in upper zone that if
of furnace by (a) permits the use of high ash content of coal
supplying more air (b) permits the use of low fusion point ash coal
(d) none of these (c) accelerates the burning rate and economizes on fuel
combustion
14. When steam is passed over coal resulting in the endothermic reaction (d) all of the above
(C + H2O ----- CO + H2), it is called
(a) carbonization of coal (b) oxidation of coal 20. Orsat apparatus is meant for
(c) coalification (d) gasification of (a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas
coal (b) finding out combustion efficiency
(c) direct determination of nitrogen in flue gas by absorbing it in
15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at ammoniacal cuprous chloride
(a) gasification of coal (d) none of these
(b) synthesis of gasoline (from water gas)
(c) hydrogenation of coal to produce gasoline 21. Pick out the wrong statement
(d) none of these (a) Theoretical flame temperature is temperature attained by the
products of combustion when the fuel is burned without loss or
16. Commercial production of petrol from coal (as practiced in a factory at gain of heat
Sasol in South Africa) is done by (b) Burning the fuel with theoretically required amount of pure oxygen
(a) hydrogenation of coal (b) gasification of coal results in attainment of maximum adiabatic flame temperature
(c) carbonization of coal (d) none of these (c) Burning the fuel with excess pure oxygen results in maximum
theoretical flame temperature
17. In case pulverized coal from steam boiler, the secondary air serves the (d) Adiabatic flame temperatures of actual combustions are always
main purpose of less than maximum values
22. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature in air compared to that in 28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their adiabatic flame
pure oxygen is temperatures
(a) much lower (a) increase
(b) much higher (b) decrease
(c) same (c) remain unchanged
(d) either lower or higher, depends on the type of fuel (d) may increase or decrease; depends on the quantity of products
of combustion
23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependant on the initial
temperature of 29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the
(a) the fuel (b) the air (a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty
(c) both fuel and the air (d) neither fuel nor the air (b) coal cant be pulverized
(c) coal can easily be pulverized
24. Preheating of (d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high
(a) the gaseous fuel before combustion decreases the flame
temperature 30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high,
(b) Combustion air decreases the flame temperature the adiabatic flame temperature will be
(c) either the fuel or the air or both increases the flame (a) low
temperature (b) high
(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the flame temperature (c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value
(d) none of these
25. The fuel ratio of a coal is
(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to that of volatile matter 31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be around
(b) helpful in estimation of its rank (a) 5 (b) 50
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) 500 (d) 5000
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have
26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing the (a) low ignition temperature (b) very little content
hydrogen or its compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at constant (c) high fusion point of its ash (d)low adiabatic flame temperature
pressure. Its gross calorific value as compared to the net calorific value
will be 33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the production
(a) more (b) less of producer gas to
(c) same (d) data insufficient; cant be predicted (a) convert CO to CO2
(b) increase in combustion rate
27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas (c) increase the gas production rate
(a) increases its calorific value (b) decreases its calorific value (d) minimize the chances of clinker formation
(c) does not alter its calorific value (d) is not possible on
commercial scale
34.Which of the following is called blue gas? 40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its
higher
(a) coke oven gas
(b) water gas (a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due
(c) natural gas to its low specific gravity)
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier).
(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)
35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air (d) all of the above
(a) lengthens the flame (b) tends to shorten
the flame 41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its
(c) does not affect the flame length (d) increases the flame calorific value on combustion
temperature
(a) hydrogen (b) sulfur
36. Use of excess of combustion air in the combustion of fuels results in
(c) carbon (d) none of these
(a) heat losses 42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal
(b) long flame
(a) develops a non-luminous flame (b) develops a low temperature
(c) condensation of water vapor from the flue gas flame
(d) none of these (c) can be done with less excess air (d) provides a lower rate of
37. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain heat release
(a) carbon monoxide (b) hydrocarbons 43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended
use of pulverized coal in boiler firing?
(c) hydrogen (d) oxygen
(a) ash disposal problem
38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased (b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(a) flame length (b) flame (c) high power consumption in its transportation
temperature (d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(c) quantum of flue gas (d) ignition
temperature (a) less moisture content (b) high fusion point
of its ash
39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization
of one ton of dry coal may be around (c) high bulk density (d) lower ash constant
(a) 30 Nm3 (b) 300 Nm3 45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
(c) 3000 Nm3 (d) 30,000 Nm3 (a) 11.5 lb (b) 2.67 lb
 (c) 16 lb (d) none of these 53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash
3 may be around
46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft of CO to CO2 may be around
(a) 5% (b) 2%
(a) 2.4 ft3 (b) 1.75 ft3
(c)17% (d) 25%
(c) 0.87 ft3 (d) 11.4 ft3
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross
47. Washing of coal
calorific value is maximum in case of
(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content
(a) pitch (b) fuel oil
(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its calorific value
(c) improves its coking properties (c) blast furnace gas (d) bituminous gas
(d) all (a), (b), and (c)
55. Spontaneous combustion of coal on storage results due to
48. Which of the following has the highest gross calorific value? (a) inadequate ventilation
(b) low temperature oxidation
(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas
(c) storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio
(c) carburetted water gas (d) oil refinery gas (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
56. Low temperature oxidation of coal resulting from bad storage conditions
49. Most of coking coals are
does not decrease its
(a) anthracite coal (b) bituminous coal
(a) caking power (b) calorific value
(c) lignite (d) none of these
(c) hydrogen content (d) oxygen content
50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in
57. Efficient burning of anthracite coal requires
(a) increased fuel consumption (b) incomplete combustion
(a) low preheat of air (b) fine grinding
(c) smoky flame (d) none of these
(c) high excess air (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
51. Atomizing steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner should be around
58. Rate of temperature oxidation of coal due to bad storage conditions
(a) 0.5 (b) 2
(a) decrease with increase in surface area
(c) 3 (d) 5 (b) does not vary with increase in surface area
(c) is more for low volatile coal compared to high volatile coal
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases
(d) is accelerated by storage in large heaps with small surface to
by
volume ratio
(a) 0.1% (b) 2%
(c) 5% (d) 10%
59. Fusion of point coal ash increases in its 65. Highly caking coals
(a) iron sulfate content (b) iron silicate content (a) produce weak coke
(b) produce strong coke
(c) lime and magnesia content (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
(c) may damage the coke oven walls during carbonization
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate (d) both (b) and (c)
burning coal
66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions of
carbonization
iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature (a) reduces the coking time
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air (b) protects the volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the
(d) all (a), (b) and (c) presence of hot coke and hot oven walls
(c) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the ovens when charging
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared (d) none of these
to a coal having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
67. Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the production of
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage metallurgical grade coke
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air (a) increases the hardness of coke
(d) none of these (b) increases the abrasion resistance of coke
(c) causes brittleness in steel
62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a (d) none of these
binder
68. Increases in ash content of blast furnace coke
(a) lignite (b) bituminous coal
(a) reduces its consumption in the furnace
(c) anthracite coal (d) none of these
(b) increases its consumption in the furnace
63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most disadvantageous during (c) does not affect its consumption in the furnace
(d) decreases its hardness and abrasion resistance
(a) its pulverization (as it requires more power)
(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates 69. High sulfur content in a fuel
(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons) (a) increases the dew point of the flue gases
(d) none of these (b) decreases the dew point of the flue gases
(c) reduces combustion efficiency by limiting the permissible
64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal briquetting? temperature reduction of the flue gases
(a) coal tar (b) bitumen (d) both (a) and (c)
(c) molasses (d) none of these
70. With the increase in carbonization temperature 75. Which of the following constituents of coal is most important in the
production of coke
(a) gas yield increases
(a) moisture (b) ash
(b) tar yield increases
(c) volatiles (d) carbon
(c) hydrogen percentage in the coke oven gas decreases
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO
(d) methane percentage in the coke oven gas increases
+ H2 from C + H2O)?
71. Fill up the blank
(a) blast furnace coke (b) low temperature coke
With increase in time of carbonization at a particular temperature (say
(c) anthracite coal (d) sub-bituminous coal
1000C ), the . percentage in coke oven gas increases
77. A coal that softens and fuses on heating in
(a) hydrogen (b) methane
(a) classified (b) carbonized
(c) unsaturates (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
(c) caking (d) non-caking
72. Producer gas containing least amount of tar is produced by
78. Purity of coke means that it is high in carbon and low in
(a) partial combustion of coal
(b) partial combustion of large size (<50mm) (a) volatiles (b) ash
(c) high pressure gasification of coal (e.g. in Lurgi gasifier)
(c) iron (d) moisture
(d) atmospheric pressure gasification of coal (e.g., in Kopper-Totzek
3
gasifier) 79. Calorific value (kcal/Nm ) of coke oven furnace gas is around
(a) 900 (b) 4500
73. High temperature in gasification of coal favors
(c) 7500 (d) 2000
(a) high production of CO2
3
(b) low production of CO2 80. Calorific value (kcal/Nm ) of blast furnace gas is around
(c) high production of CO
(a) 900 (b) 1800
(d) both (b) and (c)
(c) 4500 (d) 6500
74. Lurgi gasifier (high pressure gasifier) as compared to Kopper-Totzek
gasifier (atmospheric pressure gasifier) produces 81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly
high
(a) higher amount of methane
(b) lower amount of hydrogen (a) H2S content (b) CO2 content
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) CO content (d) CH4 content
(d) higher amount of both methane and hydrogen
82. Percentage of carbon monoxide in blast furnace gas may be around
(a) 0.5 (b) 5
 (c) 20 (d) 55 (a) Nickel (b) Zinc oxide
83. Percentage of hydrogen in coke oven gas may be around (c) Alumina (d) Thorium oxide
(a) 1 (b) 5 91. In the flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, oxygen is absorbed by
(c) 20 (d) 50 (a) potassium hydroxide (b) cuprous chloride
84. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around (c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these
(a) 1 (b) 10 92. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by
(c) 25 (d) 55 (a) potassium hydroxide (b) dilute potassium carbonate
85. Coke oven gas compared to blast furnace gas is (c) cuprous chloride (d) alkaline pyrogallol solution
(a) more explosive and inflammable (b) less poisonous 93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus is
(c) lighter (d) all (a), (b) and (c) respectively
(a) CO2, O2, CO (b) CO, O2, CO2
86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for
(c) CO2, CO, O2 (d) O2, CO2, CO
combustion of 1 Nm3 gas?
94. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) blast furnace gas (b) natural gas
(a) lignite (b) sub-bituminous
(c) producer gas (d) water gas
coal
87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of
(c) anthracite (d) peat
complete combustion (Nm3/Nm3 of fuel)?
95. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
(a) carburetted water gas (b) blast furnace gas
(a) coke (b) ammonia
(c) natural gas (d) producers gas
(c) tar (d) coke oven gas
88. Which is the heaviest fuel gas out of the following?
(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas
96. High temperature carbonization produces
(c) water gas (d) carburetted water gas
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization
89. Fuel can be defined as a substance which produces heat by
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products
(a) combustion (b) nuclear fission (c) large quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization
(d) none of these
(c) nuclear fusion (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
97. High temperature carbonization takes place at
90. Catalyst used in Fisher-Tropsch process is
(a) 2000C (b) 600 C
 (c) 1100 C (d) 1600 C (c) is obsolete
(d) eliminates absorber
98. Low temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 300 C (b) 1100 C 4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of
(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(c) 500-650 C (d) 150 C (b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
99. Proximate analysis of determines (c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter 5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(b) moisture, volatile matter, ash, fixed carbon (a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon (b) CO, H2
(d) none of these (c) H2, CH4
100. Ultimate analysis of coal determines (d) C2H2, CO2, H2
(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur 6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur, nitrogen (a) Linde's process
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash (b) Claude's process
(d) carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture (c) both Linde's and Claude's process
(d) Bayer's process
7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES (a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone
1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and (c) ammonia, limestone and coke
contact processes are (d) ammonia and coke oven gas
respectively 8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of
(a) V2O5 and Cr2O3 (a) carbonating tower
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr2O3 (b) ammonia recovery
(c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen (c) ammonia recovery and size of plant
(d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier (d) ammoniation of salt solution
2. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water 9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells
because (a) require lower initial investment
(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water (b) require more power
(b) water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb (c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
(c) the purity of acid is affected (d) none of these
(d) scale formation in absorber is to be avoided 10. Cement mainly contains
3. Contact process (a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
(a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process (b) MgO, SiO2, K2O
(b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process (c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3
 (d) CaO, MgO, K2O (b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(c) solid at normal temperature
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin
18. Wax is
11. Gypsum is (a) a mixture of glycerides
(a) calcium chloride (b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin
(b) potassium sulfate (c) liquid at room temperature
(c) sodium sulfate (d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(d) calcium sulfate
12. Glauber's salt is
(a) calcium sulfate
(b) potassium sulfate 19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have
(c) potassium chlorate (a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate (b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and (c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
magnesium (d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
(a) bi-carbonates 20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by
(b) sulfates and chlorides (a) decoloration
(c) carbonate (b) hydrogenation
(d) chlorides (c) oxidation
14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is (d) purification
(a) cold lime process 21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is
(b) coagulation (a) hexane
(c) hot-lime soda process (b) methyl ethyl ketone
(d) sequestration (c) furfural
15. Hydrazine is largely used (d) benzene
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo' 22. Solvent extracted oil
(b) in photographic industry (a) has low free fatty acid-content
(c) as rocket fuel (b) is odorless
(d) in printing industry (c) has more of unsaturated oil
16. Trinitro-toluene is (d) none of these
(a) used in glycerin manufacture 23. Hydrogenation of oil does not
(b) an explosive (a) remove double bonds
(c) used in dye manufacture (b) rise in melting point
(d) used in paint manufacture (c) improve its resistance oxidation
17. Oil is (d) none of these
(a) a mixture of glycerides 24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is
 (a) nickel (d) acts as fabric brightener
(b) platinum 31. Bio-degradable detergents
(c) iron (a) can be readily oxidized
(d) alumina (b) pose problem in sewerage plant
25. Soaps remove dirt by (c) have an isoparaffinic structure
(a) increasing the surface tension (d) should not be used as it spoils the cloth
(b) decreasing wettability 32. Which of the following is a detergent?
(c) supplying hydrophilic group (a) fatty alcohol
(d) none of these (b) alkyl benzene sulfonate
26. Metallic soap is (c) fatty acids
(a) sodium salt of fatty acids (d) methyl chloride
(b) potassium salt of fatty acids 33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using
(c) both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids (a) activated carbon
(d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids (b) diatomaceous earth
(c) bauxite
(d) bentonite
34. Essential oils are usually obtained using
(a) steam distillation
27. Fat splitting catalyst is (b) extractive distillation
(a) CaCO3 (c) solvent extraction
(b) ZnO (d) leaching
(c) alumina
(d) iron
28. Free alkali in toilet soap is
(a) less than that in a laundry soap
(b) more than that in a laundry soap 35. Plasticizers are added to paints to
(c) same as that in a laundry soap (a) make it corrosion resistant
(d) not present in laundry soap (b) make glossy surface
29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because (c) give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film
(a) hard water contains sulfate (d) increase atmospheric oxidation
(b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate 36. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture?
(c) they attract back the removed dirt (a) drying oil
(d) they increase the surface tension (b) non-drying oil
30. Builders are added in soap to (c) semi-drying oil
(a) boost cleaning power (d) saturated oil
(b) act as anti-redeposition agent 37. Function of thinner in a paint is to
(c) act as corrosion inhibitor (a) accelerate the oxidation of oil
 (b) prevent gelling of the paint 44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that
(c) suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming materials (a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the
(d) form a protective film latter
38. Varnish does not contain (b) both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in
(a) pigment the latter
(b) thinner (c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is more in the
(c) dryer latter
(d) anti-skinning agent (d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the
39. Enamels latter
(a) give good glossy finish 45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is
(b) are same as varnish (a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil (b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium
(d) do not contain pigment (c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate
40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to (d) sodium bisulfite
(a) act as an acidifying agent 46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
(b) increase its concentration (a) rag pulp
(c) increase the amount of molasses (b) mechanical pulp
(d) increase the crystal size (c) sulfate pulp
41. Molasses is the starting material for (d) sulfite pulp
(a) alcohol 47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during
(b) essential oil manufacture?
(c) fatty acids (a) bond paper
(d) ether (b) writing paper
42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high (c) blotting paper
(a) cellulose content (d) colored paper
(b) lignin content 48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) activated clay
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (b) bromine
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide
(d) magnesium sulfite
49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper to
43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of (a) impart resistance to penetration by liquids
caustic soda (b) increase its thickness
(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate (c) increase its flexibility and opacity
(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate (d) increase its brightness
(c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide 50. Viscose rayon is
(d) and sodium carbonate (a) cellulose nitrate
 (b) regenerated cellulose nitrate 57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(c) regenerated cellulose acetate (a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur
(d) regenerated cellulose fiber (b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture
51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value? 58. Washing of coal is done to
(a) Lignite (a) remove the inherent impurities
(b) Sub-bituminous (b) remove the adhering impurities
(c) Anthracite (c) reduce the ash content
(d) Peat (d) both b and c
52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
(a) Coke
(b) Ammonia 59. A good quality coal should have
(c) Tar (a) low fusion point of ash
(d) Phenol (b) high ash content
53. High temperature carbonization produces (c) high sulfur content
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization (d) none of these
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products 60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of
(c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization (a) H2, CH4
(d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous products are larger (b) CO, CO2
than the yield of liquid (c) H2, CO
products (d) CH4, CO
54. High temperature carbonization takes place at 61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized
(a) 4000 - 5000F (a) moving bed reactor
(b) 950F (b) fixed bed reactor
(c) > 1650F (c) fluidized bed reactor
(d) < 1000F (d) entrained bed reactor
55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at 62. In Lurgi gasifier
(a) 500F (a) cooking coals cannot be used
(b) 1300F (b) low carbon conversion efficiency is achieved
(c) 750 - 1100F (c) entrainment of solids is higher
(d) 2500 F (d) large quantity of coal can be processed
56. Proximate analysis of coal determines 63. The catalyst used in shift converter is
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter (a) nickel
(b) moisture, volatile matter (b) vanadium
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon (c) silica gel
(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash (d) alumina
64. The gasification reaction C + H2O
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) catalytic
(d) autocatalytic
65. The combustion reaction C + O2
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) autocatalytic
(d) catalytic
66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier
(a) can give ammonia synthesis gas
(b) is a moving bed reactor
(c) cannot use cooking coal
(d) operate at very high pressure
67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in
(a) polymer industry
(b) printing industry
(c) dyeing industry
(d) photographic industry
68. The major use of butadiene is
(a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
(b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber
(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint
(d) as corrosion inhibitor
69. Phenol is mainly used
(a) to produce benzene
(b) to produce phenol formaldehyde
(c) to produce polyester resin
(d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
70. Phthalic anhydride is made by
(a) Oxidation of naphthalene
(b) Oxidation of benzene
CO + H2 is (c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene
(d) Oxidation of toluene
71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is made by nitration of
(a) nitrobenzene
(b) toluene
(c) nitrotoluene
(d) benzene
CO2 is 72. Which is the most suitable dye for synthetic fibers?
(a) acid dye
(b) azoic dye
(c) pigment dye
(d) mordant dye
73. Fumigant insecticides
(a) kill insects when they eat it
(b) emit poisonous vapor
(c) are absorbed throughout the plant
(d) are stomach poisons
74. Systemics insecticides
(a) are absorbed throughout the plant
(b) kill insects following external bodily contact
(c) are stomach poisons
(d) emit poisonous vapor
75. DDT stands
(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane
(d) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by chlorination of benzene
(a) which is an addition reaction
(b) which is a substitution reaction
(c) in absolute dark
(d) in presence of sunlight
77. Analgesic drugs are
 (a) pain relievers (d) chemically active
(b) antibiotics 84. Phenol formaldehyde
(c) used in the treatment of TB (a) employs addition polymerization
(d) used in the treatment of typhoid (b) employs condensation polymerization
78. Antibiotic (c) is a monomer
(a) prohibits/destroys the growth of micro-organism (d) is an abrasive material
(b) is used as pain reliever 85. Epoxy resin
(c) is an anti-malaria (a) is a good adhesive
(d) is an anaesthetic (b) is an elastomer
79. Penicillin is made employing (c) cannot be used on surface coatings
(a) continuous fermentation process (d) is a polyester
(b) aerobic batch fermentation 86. Vulcanization of rubber
(c) anaerobic batch fermentation (a) decreases its tensile strength
(d) aerobic or anaerobic batch fermentation (b) increases its ozone and oxygen reactivity
80. Which of the following is not an antibiotic? (c) increases its oil and solvent resistant
(a) penicillin (d) converts its plasticity into elasticity
(b) streptomycin 87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing agent is
(c) tetracyclin (a) sulfur
(d) quinine (b) bromine
81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the range of (c) platinum
(a) 10 - 1000 (d) alumina
(b) 105 - 109 88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is
(c) 103 - 107 (a) a natural rubber
(d) 105 - 107 (b) a synthetic polymer
82. Zeigler process (c) a synthetic monomer
(a) produces high density polyethylene (d) another name for silicon rubber
(b) produces low density polyethylene 89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from
(c) uses no catalyst (a) caprolactam
(d) employs very high pressure (b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid
90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from
(a) hexamethylene diamine adipic acid
83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is (b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
(a) thermosetting (c) caprolactam
(b) thermoplastic (d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
(c) a fibrous material
 (b) 700 - 850C
(c) 2000 -2200C
(d) 4000 - 4500C
91. Dacron is 98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by
(a) a polyester (a) oxidation of naphthalene
(b) an unsaturated polyester (b) propylene alkylation of benzene
(c) a polyamide (c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene
(d) an inorganic polymer (d) polymerization of propylene
92. Celluloid is
(a) cellulose acetate
(b) regenerated cellulose 99. Glycerin can be obtained from
(c) cellulose nitrate (a) fat
(d) cellulose acetate butyrate (b) naphthalene
93. Thermoplastic materials (c) cumene
(a) do not soften on application of heat (d) sucrose
(b) are heavily branched molecules 100. Cumene is the starting material for the production of
(c) are solvent insoluble (a) benzoic acid
(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of (b) phenol and acetone
hardening again when cooled (c) isoprene
94. Thermosetting materials (d) styrene
(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or 101. Which of the following is not responsible for causing permanent
cured hardness of water?
(b) soften on application of heat (a) Ca(HCO3)2
(c) are solvent insoluble (b) CaCl2
(d) are heavily branched molecules (c) MgCl2
95. Type of glass used in optical work is (d) NaCl
(a) soda-lime glass 102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) is
(b) fiber glass regenerated by washing
(c) lead glass with
(d) borosilicate glass (a) brine
96. Silicon carbide is (b) chloramines
(a) an adhesive (c) sodium bisulfite
(b) an abrasive (d) liquid chlorines
(c) a type of glass 103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in
(d) brittle (a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite
97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is (b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual
(a) 200 - 300C in the water
 (c) easy removal of its hardness (d) all a, b and c
(d) residual turbidity 111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment
104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove (a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters
(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium (e) after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to
(b) undesirable taste and odor presence of O2 and CO2
(c) bacteria (c) is to adjust the pH value
(d) its corrosiveness (d) all a, b and c
105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for 112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is to
(a) disinfection and control of taste and odor (a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant
(b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite
(b) corrosion control (c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite
(c) removing turbidity (d) all a, b and c
(d) control of bacteria 113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment
106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it (a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely
(a) minimizes its turbidity (b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control without
(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor subsequent filtration
(c) minimizes its corrosiveness (c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness of
(d) controls bacteria water
107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for (d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior
(a) deaeration of water to sedimentation
(b) dechlorination of water
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to
(a) remove residual turbidity
(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter
(c) control taste and odor 114. Pick out the false statement pertaining to water treatment
(d) remove chlorinous taste (a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2 removal
109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment is to control (b) The zeolite water softening process reduces the hardness of
(a) bacterial growth water by not more
(b) taste and odor than 50%
(c) turbidity (c) Sodium sulfate or sodium carbonates do not cause hardness in
(d) corrosion water
110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment to remove (d) Water with pH value less than 7, is acidic
(a) color 115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to solvent extraction of oil
(b) turbidity Rate of extraction.
(c) bacteria (a) decreases with decrease of thickness of the flakes
 (b) increases with the increasing flake size keeping the flake thickness (a) pyrolysis of oil
constant (b) sintering of porous catalyst
(c) increases considerably with the rise of temperature (c) hydrogen embrittlement
(d) decreases as the moisture content of flakes increases (d) all a, b and c
116. Fats as compared to oils have 122. Shaving soaps are
(a) more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids (a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free
(b) less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids stearic acid to give
(c) much higher reactivity to oxygen lather a lasting property
(d) lower melting point (b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap manufacture to separate (c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
(a) soap from lye (d) usually soap soaps
(b) glycerin from lye 123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(c) the metallic soap (a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane
(d) the unsaponified fat from soap sugar and alcohol are
118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve
(a) explosive transparency
(b) rocket fuel (b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve
(c) an additive in detergent transparency
(d) catalyst (c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not
119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture vanaspati, been recovered
because fully saturated (d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
solidified oils 124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting (a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
(b) are prone to rancid oxidation (b) liquid extraction technique
(c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their complete removal (c) extractive distillation technique
is very difficult) (d) steam distllation
(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds 125. Glycerin is not used in the
120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in (a) manufacture of explosive
(a) an autothermal reactor (b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco
(b) a trickle bed reactor (c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(c) a plug flow reactor (d) manufacture of caustic soda
(d) backmix reactor

121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than

200C, otherwise it will
result in
 FLOW OF FLUIDS (c) MLT-1T (d) MLT

7. Poise is converted into stoke by

(a) multiplying with density (gm/c.c.)
1. A fluid is one which (b) dividing with density (gm/c.c.)
(a) cannot remain at rest under the action of shear force (c) multiplying with specific gravity
(b) continuously expands till it fills any container (d) dividing with specific gravity
(c) is incompressible
(d) permanently resists distortion

2. In an incompressible fluid density 8. Dimension of kinematic viscosity is

(a) is greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure (a) ML-2 (b) L2T-1
2
(b) is greatly affected only by moderate changes in temperature (c) L T (d) L2T2
(c) remains unaffected with moderate change in temperature and
pressure 9. With increase in the temperature viscosity of a liquid
(d) is sensible to changes in both temperature and pressure (a) increase (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases
3. Potential flow is the flow of
(a) compressible fluids with shear 10. For water, when the pressure increases the viscosity
(b) compressible fluids with no shear (a) also increases (b) decreases
(c) incompressible fluids with shear (c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases
(d) incompressible fluids with no shear

4. Potential flow is characterized by 11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) irrotational and frictionless flow (a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) irrotational and frictional flow (b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) one in which dissipation of mechanical energy into heat occurs (c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an
(d) the formation of eddies within the stream adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent
5. Newtons law of viscosity relates layer
(a) shear stress and velocity
(b) velocity gradient and pressure intensity 12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent
(c) shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid (a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.
(d) pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation (b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.
6. Dimension of viscosity is (d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.
(a) ML-1T-1 (b) MLT-1
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a (b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
rigid body, the pressure intensity varies as the (c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than
(a) square of the radial distance momentum transfer
(b) radial distance linearly (d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar laminar
(c) averse of the radial distance flow
(d) elevation along vertical direction
19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving
14. The center of pressure is
(a) always below the centroid of the area (a) highly viscous fluid (b) very narrow passages
(b) always above the centroid of the area (c) very slow motion (d) none of these
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area 20. An ideal fluid is
(a) frictionless and incompressible
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6 (b) one which obeys Newtons law of viscosity
below a free oil surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with (c) highly viscous (d) none of these
the horizontal. The force in one side of the surface is :(y = specific
weight of water) 21.Steady flow occurs when
(a) conditions change steadily with time
(a) 39.6y (b) 48y (b) conditions are the same at the adjacent points at any instant
(c) 49.2y (d) 58y (c) conditions do not change with time at any point
(d) rate of change of velocity is constant

16. Fill up the blanks 22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real or
A stream tube is that which has cross-section entirely bounded ideal)?
by stream lines. (i) Newtons law of viscosity
(a) a circular (b) any convenient (ii) Newtons second law of motion
(c) a small (d) a large (iii) the continuity equation
(iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary
17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the (v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary
flow is (a) I, II, III (b) II, III, V
(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section (c) I, II, V (d) II, III, V
(b) steady through changing cross-section
(c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged 23. Discharge (ft3/sec) from a 24 inch pipe of water at 10 ft/sec will be
(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed (a) 7.65 (b) 32.36
(c) 48.22 (d) 125.6
18. In turbulent flow
(a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner 24. The unit velocity head is
 (a) ft-lb/sec (b) ft-lb/ft3 (a) 2000 (b) 10
(c) ft-lbf/lb.m (d) ft-lb.f/sec (c) 100 (d) 1000

25. Bernoullis equation describes

(a) mechanical energy balance in potential flow 32. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe
(b) kinetic energy balance in laminar flow (a) varies parabolically across the cross-section
(c) mechanical energy balance in turbulent flow (b) remains constant over the cross-section
(d) mechanical energy balance in boundary layer (c) is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius
(d) is zero at the wall and increase linearly to the center
26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar
flow is 33. Discharge in laminar flow through a pipe varies
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.66 (a) as the square of the radius
(c) 1 (d) 2 (b) inversely as the pressure drop
(c) inversely as the velocity
27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar (d) as the square of the diameter
flow is
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.66 34. Boundary layer separation is caused by
(c) 2.5 (d) none of these (a) reduction of pressure below vapor pressure
(b) reduction of pressure gradient to zero
28. The loss due to sudden expansion is (c) an adverse pressure gradient
(a) V12 V22 (b) (V1 V2)3 (d) reduction of boundary layer thickness to zero
2gc 2gC
(c) V1 V2 (d) none of these 35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe
2gc (a) depends only on Reynolds number
(b) does not depend on Reynolds number
29. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to (c) depends on the roughness
(a) velocity (b) velocity head (d) none of these
(c) turbulence (d) none of these
36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further
30. The value of critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is smoothing
(a) 1300 (b) 10,000 (a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor
(c) 100,000 (d) none of these (b) increases the friction factor
(c) decreases the friction factor
(d) none of these
31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm
diameter pipe at 37. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of
average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around (a) wetted perimeter to flow area
 (b) flow area to wetted perimeter (a) turbulent flow
(c) flow area to square of wetted perimeter (b) laminar flow through an open channel
(d) square root of flow area to wetted perimeter (c) steady flow (d) none of these

38. Hydraulic radius of 6 x 12 c/s is 45. Isotropic turbulence occurs

(a) 2
(c) 1.5
39. Reynolds number is the ratio of
(a) viscous forces to gravity forces
(b) inertial forces to viscous forces
(c) viscous forces to inertial forces
(d) inertial forces to gravity forces
40. Mach. number is the ratio of the speed of the
(a) fluid of that of the light
(c) fluid to that of thesound
41. Power loss in an orifice meter is
(a) less than that in a venturi meter
(b) same as that in a venturi meter
(c) more than that in a venturi meter
(d) data insufficient, cannot be predicted
(b) 0.5
(d) none of these
(b) light to that of the fluid
(d) sound to that of the fluid
(a) where there is no velocity gradient
(b) at higher temperatures
(c) only in newtonion fluid
(d) none of these
46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is
passed at the same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and
that for smooth pipe is f2. Pick out the correct statement.
(a) f1 = f2 (b) f1 < f2
(c) f1 > f2 (d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2
47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
(c) the solid on the fluid (d) none of these

42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
(a) logarithmic (b) parabolic 49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(c) hyperbolic (d) linear (a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
43. For laminar flow through a closed conduit (c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity
(a) Vmax = 2 Vav (b) Vmax = Vav head and density
(c) Vmax = 1.5 Vav (d) Vav = 2 Vmax (d) none of these

44. f = 16/NRe is valid for 50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
 (a) < 1 (b) > 1
(c) < 5 (d) none of these
57. Force acting on a particle settling in fluid are
51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range) (a) gravitational and bouyant forces
(a) CD = 16 (b) CD = 24 (b) centrifugal and drag forces
Re.p Re.p (c) gravitational or centrifugal, bouyant and drag forces
(c) CD = 18.4 (d) CD = 0.079 (d) external, drag and viscous forces
Re.p Re.p
58. Terminal velocity is
52. At low Reynolds number (a) a constant velocity with no acceleration
(a) viscous forces are unimportant (b) a fluctuating velocity
(b) viscous forces control (c) attained after moving one-haft of total distance
(c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant (d) none of these
(d) gravity forces control
53. At high Reynolds number 59. In hindered settling, particles are
(a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant (a) placed farther from wall
(b) viscous forces predominate (b) not affected by other particles and the wall
(c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control (c) near each other (d) none of these
(d) none of these
60. Drag co-efficient in hindered settling is
54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is (a) lesser than in free settling
(a) less than the average velocity through channels (b) equal to that in free settling
(b) more than the average velocity through channels (c) not necessarily greater than in free settling
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed (d) greater than free settling
(d) same as the average velocity through channels
61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of
55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by CD log NRe, plot is
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation (a) 1 (b) 1
(c) Levas equation (d) none of these (c) 0.5 (d) 0.5

56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by

(a) Kozeny-Carman equation
(c) Levas equation
(b) Blake-Plummer equation
(d) none of these
62. In continuous fluidization
(a) solids are completely entrained
(b) the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidisation
(c) there is no entrainment of solids
(d) velocity of the fluid is very small
63. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is
(a) less than that in a similar packed bed reactor
(b) more than that in a similar packed bed reactor
(c) same as that in a similar packed bed reactor
(d) none of these
(a) the suction pressure < vapour pressure of the liquid at that
temperature
(b) the suction pressure > vapour pressure of the liquid at that
temperature
(c) the suction pressure = vapour pressure
(d) the suction pressure = developed head

69. Cavitation can be prevented by

(a) suitably designing the pump
(b) maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the
64. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by vapour pressure
(a) using tall narrow vessel (c) maintaining suction head = developed head
(b) using deep bed solids (d) maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure
(c) the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow beds of
solids 70. Priming needed in a
(d) using very large particles (a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump
(c) centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump
65. Minimum porosity for fluidization is
(a) that corresponding to static bed 71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(b) that corresponding to completely fluidized bed (a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(c) the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins (b) dependent on the power of the pump
(d) less than that of the static bed (c) 34 feet (d) 150 feet

66. In a fluidized bed reactor

(a) temperature gradients are very high 72. Boiler feed pump is usually a
(b) temperature is more or less uniform (a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump
(c) hot spot formed (c) multisatge centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump
(d) segregation of the solids occurs
73. Plunger pumps are used for
67. Lower BWG means (a) higher pressure (b) slurries
(a) lower thickness tube (c) viscous mass (d) none of these
(b) lower cross-section of tube
(c) outer diameter of tube 74. Molten soap mass is transported by a
(d) inner diameter of tube (a) diaphragm pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) gear pump (d) centrifugal pump
68. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when
75. To handle smaller quantity of fluid at high discharge pressure use
 (a) reciprocating pump (b) centrifugal pump (d) does not produce tangential current
(c) volute pump (d) rotary vacuum pump
83. With increase in pump speed, its NPSH requirement
76. The head developed by a centrifugal pump is largely determined by the (a) decreases (b) increases
(a) power of the pump (c) remains unaltered
(b) nature of the liquid being pumped (d) can either increase or decrease, depends on other factors
(c) angle of the vanes and the speed of the tip of the impeller
(d) vapour pressure of the liquid 84. One dimensional flow implies
(a) Flow in the straight line (b) steady uniform flow
77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single impeller is (c) unsteady uniform flow
(a) 25 ft. (b) 1000 ft. (d) a flow which does not account changes in transverse direction
(c) 250 300 ft. (d) 1000 ft.
85. In case of centrifugal fan or blower, the gas capacity varies as
78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2 diameter orifice has a diameter of (a) spect speed (b) (speed)
1.75 at its vena-contracta. The co-efficient of contraction is (c) (speed)3 (d) none of these
(a) 1.3 (b) 0.766
(c) 0.87 (d) none of these 86. The continuity equation
(a) relates mass flow rate along a stream tube
79. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as (b) relates work and energy
(a) H3/2 (b) H1/2 (c) stipulates that Newtons second law of motion must be satisfied at
5/2
(c) H (d) none of these every point in the fluid
(d) none of these
80. The discharge through a rectangular weir varies as
(a) H1/2 (b) H3/2 87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and
2/5
(c) H (d) none of these capacity the power requirement and pressure vary
(a) directly as squares of gas density
81. Propellers are (b) directly as gas density
(a) axial flow mixers (b) low speed impeller (c) directly as square root of density
(c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity (d) inversely as gas density
(d) radial flow mixers
88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to
(a) avoid priming every time we start the pump
(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid
82. Turbine impeller (c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge
(a) produces only radial current (d) control the liquid discharge
(b) produces only tangential current
(c) is effective over wide range of viscosities 89. Differential manometer measures
 (a) atmospheric pressure (b) sub-atmospheric pressure (a) more (b) less
(c) pressure difference between two points (c) equal (d) independent of porosity
(d) none of these
96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps
(a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure
90. Velocity distribution for flow between the fixed parallel plates (b) can handle slurries more efficiently
(a) varies parabolically across the section (c) are not subject to air binding
(b) is constant over the entire cross section (d) can be operated with delivery valve closed
(c) is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the midplane
(d) none of these 97. A tube is specified by its
(a) thickness only (b) outer diameter
91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve should be kept (c) thickness and outer diameter both (d) inner diameter
(a) opened (b) closed
(c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference
(d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the
92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a water tank will connector used should be a
be a (a) union (b) tee
(a) parabola (vertex being at the opening) (c) reduces (d) elbow
(b) hyperbolic
(c) horizontal straight line 99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same
(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined) point, then use
(a) elbow (b) union
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble (c) tee (d) none of these
may be
(a) incomplete priming (b) too high a suction lift 100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction pipe (a) butterfly valve (b) globe valve
(d) all a, b, and c (c) needle valve (d) none of these

94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by 101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure
(a) changing the speed of rotation drop in a pipeline?
(b) bleeding air into suction (a) velocity of liquid (b) size of pipe
(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line (c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these
(d) all a, b, and c
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no
95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as significant compression is required?
compared to average velocity through the channel in the bed is (a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
 (c) axial flow compressor (d) centrifugal compressor
109. In question No. 107, the new discharge will be
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may (a) 500 liters/min. (b) 200 liter/min
be due to (c) 1000 liter/min (d) 750 liter/min
(a) cavitation (b) low speed of impeller
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time 110. Interstage coolers are provided in a multistage compressor to
after starting the pump (a) save power in compressing a given volume to a given
(d) off centering of pump with motor pressure
(b) cool the delivered air
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for (c) achieve the exact delivery
the same discharge of water? (d) none of these
(a) globe valve (b) gate valve
(c) needle valve (d) butterfly valve 111. Surge tanks are provided in high pressure water pipelines to
(a) store a definite quantity of water all the time
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept (b) reduce water hammer
(a) open (b) closed (c) facilities easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and
(c) either open or closed (d) none of these maintenance
(d) none of these
106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done
by 112. Pipes having diameter 14 inches or more are designated by their
(a) diameter of the pipe (b) color of the pipe (a) outside diameter (b) inside diameter
(c) the altitude of at which pipe is located (d) none of these (c) schedule number (d) none of these

113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying

pipelines to
(a) keep the pipe in proper orientation
(b) make the pipe joint leak-proof
107. A centrifugal pump has the following specifications: (c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to
Power 4 H.P.; Speed 800 rpm temperature changes of the surroundings
Head 8 meters; Flow 1000 liters/minutes (d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines
If its speed is halved , then the new head will be
(a) 2 m (b) 4 m 114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter
(c) 8 m (d) 5.5 m indicates its
(a) inner diameter (b) outer diameter
108. In question No. 107, the power consumed now will be (c) thickness (d) neither inner or outer
(a) 0.5 H.P. (b) 2 H.P.
(c) 4 H.P. (d) 1 H.P.
 121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient
quantity of liquid. This may be set right by
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to (a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
which water can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe
(62F) is (c) lowering the pump position
(a) barometric pressure (b) speed of the impeller (d) both b and c
(c) diameter of the impeller (d) both b and c
122. Delivery of insufficient quantity of liquid by a pump may be caused
116. Bear pump by
(a) is a positive displacement pump (a) air leak in the inlet (b) low rpm
(b) is a centrifugal pump (c) too high a lift (d) all a, b and c
(c) is a non-positive displacement pump
(d) can be started with delivery valve closed

117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a
pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited
by
(a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
(c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
(d) all a, b and c

118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for 124. Fill up the blank
(a) high head (b) low head but high discharged Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually the
(c) highly viscous liquid (d) slurries of high solid concentration nominal size of the inlet pipe
(a) smaller than (b) larger than
119. Centrifugal pump cant be used to pump (c) same as (d) twice
(a) molten sodium (used as a coolant in Fast Breeder Reactor)
(b) moderately vegetable oil used in soap industry 125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(c) thick molten soap at 80C (a) specific gravity of the liquid (b) suction lift
(d) none of the above (c) discharge head (d) all a, b and c

120. Volute type of casing is provided in a centrifugal pump to FLOW OF HEAT

(a) convert velocity head to pressure head 1. A pipe carrying steam at about 300C traverses a room, the air
(b) convert pressure head to velocity head being still at 30C. the major fraction of the heat loss will be by
(c) reduce the discharge fluctuation a. conduction to the still air b. convection to the
(d) increase the discharge air
 c. radiation to the surrounding d. conduction and c. both rate will be the same
convection put together d. this will depend on the material
2. A satellite in space exchanges heat with its surroundings by 8. A thin black plate at temperature T receives radiation from a
a. Conduction b. convection surface at Temperature T and radiates to a surface at T. If all
c. Radiation d. conduction as well surfaces are black at steady state
as convection a. (T-T)>(T-T) b. (T-T)<(T-
3. For the same temperature drop in the temperature ranges of 300- T)
400C the heat flow rate will be highest by c. (T-T)=(T-T) d. can be any
a. Conduction process b. convection process one of a, b or c
b. Radiation process d. other factors should 9. In a slab under steady conduction if the thermal conductivity
be known before any conclusion increases along the thickness, the temperatures gradient along the
4. In the cold season a person would prefer to be near a fire because direction will become
a. The conduction from the b. the convection will a. Steeper b. Flatter
be better if he is near the fire c. Remain constant d. either b or c
fire will be better depending on the heat flow rate
c. Direct unimpeded radiation d. combined
conduction and convection will be better
will provide quick warmth 10. In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the
5. A finned tube hot water radiator with a fan blowing air over it is conductivity decreases along the flow direction, then the
kept in rooms during winter. The major portion of the heat transfer temperature gradient along the flow direction will become
from radiator to air due to a. Remain constant b. will become flatter
a. Radiation b. convection c. Will become steeper d. either b or c depending on
c. Conduction d. combined the heat flow rate
conduction and radiation 11. In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the
6. For a specified heat input and a given volume which material will conductivity decreases along the flow direction, then the
have the smallest temperature rise (Use data book if necessary) temperature gradient along the flow direction will become
a. Steel b. aluminum a. Steeper b. flatter
c. Water d. copper c. Remain constant d. either of the three
7. When a hot metal piece is left to cool in the air the time rate of depending on heat flow rate
cooling of the outer layer will be 12. In steady state conduction with thermal conductivity given by k=k
a. Slower at start and faster near the end (1+) where , is +ve, a slab of given thickness and given
b. faster at start and slower near the end temperature drop will conduct
 a. More heat at lower temperature levels b. Reduce thermal conductivity
b. More heat at higher temperature levels c. Reduce the convection coefficient on the surface
c. Will be the same as flow depends in the temperature drop d. Reduce the heat generation rate
d. Will be the same as flow depends on the thickness only 18. The thermal gradient in a heat generating cylinder under steady
13. Choose the correct statement or statements conduction, at half the radius location will be
a. The thermal conductivity of gases decreases with temperature a. One half of that at surface b. One fourth of the at
b. The thermal conductivity of insulating solids increase with surface
temperature c. Twice that at surface d. four times that at surface
c. The thermal conductivity of good electrical conductors are 19. In a sphere under steady state conduction with uniform heat
generally low generation, the temperature gradient at half the radius location will
d. The thermal conductivity variation is of low percentage in be
gases as compared to solids a. One half of that at the surface b. one fourth of that at surface
14. In slab generating heat uniformly and at steady state convecting c. One eight of that at the surface d. 2 times of that at the surface
equally on both sides, the temperature gradient will 20. In a long fin if the thermal conductivity is increased with other
a. Flatten out as the distance from the centre increases parameters maintained constant
b. Become steeper as the distance from the centre increases a. The temperature will drop at a faster rate along the length
c. Will remain constant b. The temperature will drop at a lower rate along the length
d. Can be any of (a,b) or (c) depending the heat generation rate c. The temperature gradient is not strongly influenced by the
15. For the same linear size (i.e. L,r) and heat generation rate, the conductivity
temperature drop from centre to surface us highest in d. The temperature gradient is dependent on the heat flow only
a. Spherical shape b. plate shape 21. In a long fin if the convection coefficient is increased with other
c. Cylindrical shape d. rod of square parameters maintained constant.
section a. The temperature drop along length is not strongly influenced
16. The temperature drop in the heat generating solid under steady by the convection coefficient
state conduction depends to a greater extent on b. The temperature gradient depends only on heat flow rate
a. Linear dimension b. thermal c. The temperature drop will be faster along the length
conductivity d. The temperature drop along the length will be at a lower rate
c. Heat generation rate d. convection coefficient at the 22. In a long fin if the parameter m=(hP/kA) increases, other
surface parameters being maintained constant then.
17. The most effective way to reduce the temperature drop in a heat a. The temperature variation along the length will be a lower
generating solid is to rate
a. Reduce the linear dimension b. The temperature drop along the length will be steeper
 c. The parameter m influences the heat flow only
d. The temperature profile will remain the same
23. For a given sectional area of fin if the circumstances is increase by
adopting different geometric shape then
a. The temperature variation along the fin length will be steeper
b. The temperature variation along the fin length will be featter
c. The circumference length does not affect the temperature
change
d. The circumference will only influence the heat convected
24. In a given fin configuration increase in conductivity will
a. Decrease the total heat flow
b. Will affect only the temperature gradient
c. Increase the total heat flow
d. Heat flow is influenced only by the base temperature and
sectional area
25. An increase in convection coefficient over a fin will
a. Increase effectiveness b. decrease effectiveness
c. Does not influence effectiveness d. influences only the
fin efficiency
26. In the case of fins it is desirable to have
a. Area of section maintained constant along the length
b. Area of section reduced along the length
c. Area of section increased along the length
d. Better to vary the convection coefficient than the area
27. Fin effectiveness will be increased more by
a. Having a higher value of convection coefficient
b. Higher sectional area
c. higher thermal conductivity
d. longer circumference
28. If a square section fin is split longitudinally used as two fins
a. The total heat flow will decrease
b. The total heat flow will increase
c. The total heat flow remain constant
d. Heat flow may increase or decrease depending on the material
used
29. For a given volume of material for use in a pin fin
a. Longer the fin better the total heat flow
b. Shorter the fin better the heat flow
c. As the volume is constant the heat flow will not change
d. As length is increased heat flow will increase and after some
length will decrease
Choose the correct statement or statements for nos. 31-33 questions
30. a. If the convection coefficient is low, it is not desirable to use a
fin
b. If the conductivity is large, longer fin will be more effective
c. Plate fins of smaller thickness is better in the point of view of
heat dissipation
d. Finned surface is desirable under conditions of boiling
31. a. aluminum fins are better because the material is light
b. a constant area fin provides the best (heat flow/weight) ratio
c. on rare occasions the heat flow may be reduced by the addition
of fins
d. If conductivity is high a short fin will be a good proportion
32. a. A constant temperature gradient along the length of a
constant area fin is not possible
b. The temperature gradient, in circular section fin dissipating heat
will increase along the length
c. Longitudinal fins are less effective compared to annular fins
d. Fins at close pitch will give a high heat dissipating rate
33. a. An aluminum fin will be cooler at a given distance
compared to a copper fin of identical section and other parameter
b. An aluminum fin will be hotter at a given distance compared to
a copper fin of identical section and other parameter
 c. An aluminum fin of same configuration will dessipate more b. Sinusoidal with time
heat compared to copper fin c. Exponential with time
d. An Aluminum fin of same configuration will dessipate less heat d. Cubic with time
compared to copper fin 39. The response time of a thermocouple is the time taken for the
temperature change to be
a. 0.5 of original temperature difference
b. 1/1.414 of original temperature difference
c. 1/e of original temperature difference
34. Semi infinite model van be adopt when d. 99% of the original temperature difference
a. Thickness of the solid is very large 40. To make thermocouple to respond quickly
b. Heat diffusion is very slow a. The wire diameter should be large
c. Short time period b. Convection heat transfer coefficient should be high
d. All of these 41. Heat transfer rate
35. Heating or cooling of a road surface can be analyzed using a. Will be higher in turbulent flow
a. Lumped parameter model b. Will be lower in turbulent flow
b. Infinite slab model c. Will depend on the fluid
c. Semi infinite slab model d. Will depend only on viscosity
d. None of these
36. Choose the correct statement
42. Nusselt number is
a. Transient conduction means very little heat transfer
a. Ratio of viscous to inertia forces
b. Transient conduction means conduction when the temperature
b. Dimensionless heat transfer coefficient
at a point varies with time
c. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
c. Transient conduction means heat transfer for a short time
d. Signifies of velocity gradient at the surface
d. Transient conduction means heat transfer with very small
43. Reynolds number is
temperature difference
a. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
37. Lumped parameter model can be used when
b. Ratio of buoyant to inertia forces
a. The thickness is small
c. Ratio of viscous ratio to inertia force
b. When the conductivity is high
d. Ratio of heat conducted to the heat capacity
c. When convective heat transfer coefficient is low
44. Prandtl number is
d. When conditions a, b, and c are true
a. Ratio of buoyant force to inertia force
38. In the lumped parameter model, the temperature variation is
b. Ratio of conduction to convection resistance
a. Linear with time
c. Signifies the temperature gradient at the surface
 d. Ratio of molecular momentum diffusively to thermal diffusion
45. The staton number is
a. The dimensionless temperature gradient at the surface in
convection
b. Mass diffused to heat diffused
c. Dimensionless convection coefficient
d. Wall heat transfer/ heat transfer convection
46. The convective heat transfer coefficient in laminar f;ow over a
flat plate
a. Increases if a lighter fluid is used
b. Increases if a higher viscosity fluid is used
c. Increases if higher velocities are used
d. Increases with distance
47. In the boundary layer over a flat plate in laminar flow the
velocity is
a. Zero at the boundary layer thickness
b. Slowly decreases from the free stream to the solid surface
c. Slowly increases from the free stream to the wall
d. Only temperature in the boundary layer will be different from
that of free stream
48. As viscosity of fluid increases the boundary layer thickness
a. Will increase
b. Will decrease
c. Will not change
d. Will increase at medium values and then will decrease
49. The temperature gradient in the fluid flowing over a flat plate
a. Will be zero at the surface
b. Will be positive at the surface
c. Will be very steep at the surface
d. Will be zero at the top of the boundary layer
50. The ratio of thermal to hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness
varies as
a. Root of Reynolds number
b. Root Nusselt number
c. Root Prandt number
d. One third power of Prandt number
51. In liquid metal flow over a flat plate (T>T)
a. The hydrodynamic boundary layer will be very thick and
thermal boundary layer will be very thick
b. The hydrodynamic boundary layer will be very thin and
thermal boundary layer will also be thin
c. The two will more or less equal
d. The thermal boundary layer will be thick and hydrodynamic
boundary layer will be thin
52. In forced convection molecular diffusion causes
a. Momentum flow in turbulent region
b. Momentum flow in the laminar region
c. Heat flow in the turbulent region
d. Diffusion has no part in energy transfer
53. In flow over a flat plate the convection coefficient
a. Always increases along the flow
b. Decreases, increases and decreases
c. Increases up to critical Reynolds number and then decreases
d. Decreases up to critical Reynolds number and then increases
54. In laminar flow over a flat plate.
a. The thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic boundary layers
are of equal thickness
b. The thermal boundary layer is thicker if the Prandtl number is
less than one
c. The thermal boundary layer is thicker if the Prandt number is
less than one
d. The thermal layer is always thinner in the laminar region
55. Choose the correct statement:
a. Higher the value of kinematic viscosity thinner will be the
boundary layer
b. Higher the Prandtl number lower will be the thickness of
thermal boundary layer
c. The convective heat transfer coefficient will be lower in
turbulent flow as compared to laminar flow
d. The boundary layer will thicken as the free stream velocity
increases
56. In flow across a cylinder, the local Nusselt number will be
highest at
a. 90 from the stagnation point
b. At the stagnation point
c. At 80C from the stagnation point
d. At 135C from the stagnation point
57. In banks of the tubes heat transfer will be highest
a. In linear arrangement with square pitch
b. Linear arrangement with lower longitudinal pitch
c. Staggered arrangement with equal pitch
d. Staggered arrangement with lower longitudinal pitch
58. Choose the correct statement in flow through pipes
a. In laminar flow, the exit Nusselt number in the fully developed
condition is lower than at entry
b. In laminar flow, the exit Busselt number in the fully developed
condition is higher that at entry
c. In laminar flow, the Nusselt remains constant
d. In laminar flow the Nusslet at constant wall temperature is
higher as compared to Nusselr constant heat flow
59. In flow through pipes for the same Reynolds number
a. The thermal entry length is longer for low Prandtl number
fluids
b. The thermal entry length is longer for high Prandtl number
fluids
c. Prandtl number does not influence the thermal entry length
d. The thermal entry length affect is more pronounced only
turbulent flow
60. Choose the correct statement:
a. Flow of air can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully
developed and thermal layer developing
b. Flow of oils can be considered as HFD and thermal layer
developing
c. Flow of liquid metals can be considered as hydrodynamic layer
fully developed and thermal layer developing
d. Flow of water can be considered as hydrodynamic layer fully
developed and thermal layer developing
61. In pipe flow, the average convection coefficient
a. Will be higher in rough pipes
b. Will be higher in smooth pipes
c. Roughness affects only pressure drop and not the convection
coefficient
d. Only Reynolds and Prandtl numbers influence the convection
coefficient and not the roughness
62. In pipe flow
a. For constant heat flow, the initial length is more effective
compared to the end length
b. For constant wall temperature the initial length are less
effective compared to the end length
c. In fully developed flow and constant wall temperature, the
effective compared to the end lengths
d. In fully developed flow and constant heat flux, the
effectiveness decreases with length
63. Choose the correct statement:
a. In smooth pipes a laminar flow remains laminar all through the
length
b. in smooth pipes a laminar flow turns turbulent after a certain
length
c. The temperature profile in fully developed layer remains the
same
d. The velocity profile in a pipe flow is established at the entry
64. Choose the correct statement:
 a. Buoyant forces and inertia forces only influence free convection 70. The overall heat transfer coefficient is the
heat transfer a. Sum of all resistance
b. Viscous and Buoyant forces only influence free convection heat b. Sum of all conductances
transfer c. Sum of the convection coefficients
c. Viscous and inertia forces only influence free convection heat d. Resistance due to the wall material.
transfer 71. The range of value of overall heat transfer coefficients fall in
d. Viscous, inertia and Buoyant forces influence the heat transfer the following increasing order
in free convection a. Boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas, liquid to liquid,
65. In free convection, the slope of the curve Nu vs Gr Pr gas to gas
a. Increases with increasing Gr Pr b. Liquid, gas to gas,, boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to
b. Decreases with increasing Gr Pr gas
c. Increases and then decreases with increasing Gr Pr c. Gas to gas, liquid to gas, liquid to liquid, boiling or
d. Decreases and then increases with increasing Gr Pr condensation to liquid
d. Boiling or condensation to liquid, liquid to gas, gas to gas,
liquid to liquid
72. The decreasing order of effectiveness for a given situation
66. With increase in excess temperature the heat flux in boiling among types of heat exchangers is
a.
Increase continuously a. Parallel flow, cross flow, shell and tube, counter flow
b.
Decrease and then increases b. Cross flow, counter flow, shell and tube, parallel flow
c.
Increases then decreases and again increases c. Counter flow, shell and tube, cross flow, parallel flow
d.
Decreases then increases and again decreases d. Counter flow, cross flow, shell and tube, parallel flow
67. In nucleate pool boiling the heat flux depends on 73. When one of the fluids is condensing the best flow arrangement
a. Only the material of the surface is
b. Material and roughness of the surface a. Counter flow
c. Independent of surface b. Parallel flow
d. Fluid and material and surface roughness c. Cross flow
68. The heat flow in nucleate pool boiling will be higher for d. All are equal
a. Horizontal plane 74. Thermodynamically the type which leads to lower loss in
b. Vertical plane availability is
c. Horizontal cylinder a. Parallel flow
d. Independent of location b. Counter flow
69. In considering under same conditions, the convections c. Cross flow
coefficient will be lowest for d. Shell and tube
a. Vertical palte
b. Vertical pipe
c. Horizontal pipe
d. Row of vertical pipes 75. Effectiveness of a heat exchanger is
 a. Actual heat transfer/heat content of hot fluid c. Increases continuously
b. Actual heat transfer/ heat content of cold fluid d. Increases and then decreases
c. Actual heat transfer/heat content of higher heat capacity fluid 82. The directional emissivity for metallic surface is
d. Actual heat transfer/heat transfer when minimum heat capacity a. Constant from all over the angles from normal
fluid goes through the maximum temperature difference in the b. More near the normal and less near the tangential direction
exchanger c. More near tangential direction compared to normal direction
76. Cross flow exchangers are popularly used for heat transfer d. The distribution is affected more by temperature than by
a. Liquid and liquid direction
b. Liquid and evaporating fluid 83. For non metallic insulating materials directional emissivity
c. Condensing fluid and liquid a. Is constant all over the angles from normal
d. Gas and gas or liquid and gas b. More at near normal directions than at tangential direction
77. The minimum heat transfer area for a given situation is for c. Less at near normal directions compared to tangential direction
a. Parallel flow d. Can be as case b or c depending on surface preparation
b. Counter flow
c. Cross flow 84. Selective surface
d. Shell and tube Do not follow Kirchhoffs law
a.
78. The flow direction is immaterial in the case of heat exchange b.
Adsorb only at definite wavelengths
from c.
Emit only at definite wave bands
a. Wet or saturated steam to water d.
All of these
b. Water to gas 85. Glasses are
c. Oil to water a. Opaque for high temperature radiation
d. Oil to gas b. Opaque for low temperature radiation
79. The monochromatic emissive power of a black body with c. Transparent at short wavelengths
increasing wavelength d. Transparent at long wavelengths
a. Decreases e. Opaque for low temperature radiation transparent at long
b. Increases wavelengths
c. Decreases, reaches a minimum and then increases 86. For solar collectors the required surface characteristics
d. Increases, reaches a maximum and the decreases combination is
80. A gray surface is one of which a. High emissivity and low absorptivity
a. Reflectivity equals emissivity b. High emissivity and high reflectivity
b. Emissivity equals transmissivity c. High reflectivity and high absorptivity
c. Emissivity is constant d. Low emissivity and high absorptivity
d. Absorptivity equals reflectivity 87. Emissivity of Gas body of a given composition depends on
81. As the source temperature increases the wavelength at which a. Shape and temperature
the monochromatic emissive power is maximum b. Partial pressure and shape
a. Decreases continuously c. Partial pressure and temperature
b. Decreases then increases d. All of these
88. For a given shape, partial pressure and temperature the c. A small opening from a large enclosure at constant temperature
emissivity of will provide black body radiation
a. O is higher than that of N d. Black paint is an example of block body
b. N is higher than that of N 94. The reciprocity theorem states
c. O is higher than that of CO a. F=F
d. CO is higher than that of O b. AF=AF
89. The combination which will give the highest gas emissivity is c. AF=AF
a. Low partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness d. F=F
b. Higher partial pressure, higher temperature and larger thickness 95. Choose the correct statement or statements
c. Higher partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness a. F.=F+F
d. Lower partial pressure, lower temperature and larger thickness b. AF.=AF.+AF
90. The value of shape factor will be highest when c. F.=F+F
a. The surface are farther apart d. A.F..=AF..+AF..
b. The surface are closer 96. Choose the correct statement or statements
c. The surface are smaller and closer a. Radiosity is another name for emissive power
d. The surface are larger and closer b. Radiation intensity is the flow per unit area
91. A radiation shield should have c. Radiation intensity is the radiant energy per unit solid angle
a. High emissivity d. Irradiation is the total radiant energy incident on a surface
b. High absorptivity 97. Choose the correct statement or statements
c. High reflectivity a. Convex surface have positive value for shape factor themselves
d. High emissive power b. Concave surface have positive value for shape factor with
92. Chooses the correct statement or statements themselves
a. Highly reflecting surface is suitable for solar heat collection c. Flat surfaces have positive value for shape factor with
through flat plates themselves
b. The emissivity of smooth surface is higher compared to rough d. Irregular surfaces have positive value for shape factor with
surface of the same material themselves
c. For a given gas body, the emissivity will decrease with increase 98. If A=4 and A=2 and F =0.2 then
in temperature a. F= 0.2
d. Snow has high emissivity b. F=0.8
c. F=0.4
d. F=0.1
93. Choose the correct statement or statements
a. The shape factor of small enclosed body with respect to the
enclosing surface is zero DRYING
b. The shape factor of small enclosed body with respect to the
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid
enclosing surface unity
depends upon the
 a) nature of the moisture 1-X
b) temperature c) 1+X
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c X
d) 1X
2. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure to
a) perfectly dry air X
b) highly humid air
c) air at high temperature 7. In paper industry, paper is dried in
d) none of these a) tunnel dryer
b) heated cylinder dryer
3. Milk is dried usually in a c) conveyor dryer
a) freeze dryer d) festoon dryer
b) spray dryer
c) tray dryer 8. Moisture content of a substance when at equilibrium with a given
d) rotary dryer partial pressure of the
vapor is called
4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different solids a) free moisture
a) are different b) unbound moisture
b) are same c) equilibrium moisture
c) depend on the humidity of the gas d) bound moisture
d) none of these
9. Calcium ammonium nitrate (a fertilizer) is dried in a
a) rotary dryer
5. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in a b) vacuum dryer
a) spray dryer c) tunnel dryer
b) spouted bed dryer d) none of these
c) tunnel dryer
d) pan open to atmosphere.

6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X then the same on wet

basis is
a) X 10. Moisture in a substance exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure less
than that of pure liquid at
X+1 at the same temperature is
b) X a) bound moisture
b) unbound moisture
 c) critical moisture
d) none of these
16. Flights in a rotary dryer are provided to
11. Rotary dryer cannot handle a) lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to the
a) free flowing materials drying action of the gas
b) dry materials b) reduce the residence time of solid
c) sticky materials c) increase the residence time of the solid
d) granular materials d) none of these

12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that 17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
of the pure liquid at a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid
the same temperature is b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
a) unbound moisture c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
b) critical moisture d) none of these
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture 18. The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by
a) increase in rate of drying
13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in a b) increasing temperatures both on the surface and within the
a) tray dryer solid
b) tunnel dryer c) decreasing temperatures
c) conveyor dryer d) none of these
d) festoon dryer
19. Dryer widely used in a textile industry is
14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can a) cylinder dryer
be dried b) conveyor dryer
a) in indirect tray dryer c) tunnel dryer
b) in spray dryer d) festoon dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these 20. Sticky material can be dried in a
a) tray dryer
15. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium b) rotary dryer
moisture is called c) fluidized bed dryer
a) unbound moisture d) none of these
b) free moisture
c) critical moisture 21. Drying of a solid involves
d) bound moisture a) only heat transfer
b) only mass transfer
 c) both heat and mass transfer 27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used
d) none of these is
a) tunnel
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which b) tray
of the following c) rotary
should be controlled to control the drying process? d) none of these
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air 28. All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material ismoisture
c) humidity of inlet air a) free
d) temperature of the solid b) equilibrium
c) unbound
23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on d) bound
a) its r.p.m
b) its inclination with ground surface 29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
c) both a and b a) decrease in air temperature
d) neither a nor b b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew point d) neither a nor b
a) decreases
b) increases 30. Which is the controlling factor for a drum dryer?
c) depends on the extent of heating a) diffusion
d) remains unchanged b) heat transfer
c) both a and b
25. The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates d) neither a nor b
a) beginning of falling rate period
b) beginning of constant rate period 31. Paper industry employs..dryers
c) end of falling rate period a) cylinder
d) none of these b) rotary
c) spray
26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you d) fluidized bed
recommend?
a) spray dryer 32. Sand is dried in foundaries in a ..dryer
b) drum dryer a) rotary
c) rotary dryer b) fluidized bed
d) dielectric dryer c) vacuum
d) spray
33. Free flowing granular materials can be best dried in a b) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid
a) rotary dryer at gas temperature
b) cylinder dryer c) actual humidity to saturation humidity
c) drum dryer d) none of these
d) freeze dryer
5. The percentage humidity is less than the relative humidity only at
a) zero percentage humidity
b) hundred percent humidity
HUMIDIFICATION c) both zero or hundred percent humidity
d) none of these
1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and
a fixed gas which is: 6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb. of gas and
a) insoluble in the liquid its accompanying
b) soluble in the liquid vapor by 1o F is called the
c) non-ideal in nature a) latent heat
d) at a fixed temperature b) humid heat
c) specific heat
2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the d) sensible heat
a) partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
b) heat capacity of the vapor 7. Humid volume is the total volume in cubic feet of 1 lb. of
c) density of the vapor a) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. And room temperature
d) none of these b) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and room temperature
c) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and gas temperature
d) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. and gas temperature

8. The temperature to which a vapor gas mixture must be cooled (at

varying humidity)
3. In saturated gas, the to become saturated is
a) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature a) dew point
b) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the room temperature b) wet bulb temperature
c) partial pressure of vapor equals the vapor pressure of the liquid at c) dry bulb temperature
room temperature d) none of these
d) none of these
9. The dew point of a saturated gas phase equals the
4. Relative humidity is the ratio of the a) gas temperature
a) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at b) room temperature
room temperature c) wet bulb temperature
 d) none of these

10. Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid

evaporating into a large amount 15. The most efficient cooling tower out of the following is
of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture is a) induced draft
a) dry-bulb temperature b) forced draft
b) wet bulb temperature c) natural draft
c) dew point d) atmospheric
d) adiabatic saturation temperature
16. Critical humidity of a solid salt means the humidity
11. Dry bulb temperature of the gas is a) above which it will always become damp
a) less than the wet-bulb temperature b) below which it will always stay dry
b) greater than the wet-bulb temperature c) both a and b
c) equal to the wet-bulb temperature d) above which it will always become dry and below which it will
d) none of these always stay damp.

12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation 19. Percentage saturation is..the relative saturation.
temperature of unsaturated a) always smaller than
mixture of any system is b) always greater than
a) positive c) not related to
b) negative d) none of these
c) zero
d) none of these 20. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at
a) 100% saturation curve
13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use b) 50% saturation curve
a) natural draft cooling tower c) 78% saturation curve
b) forced draft cooling tower d) none of these
c) induced draft cooling tower
d) none of these 21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with
dry bulb temperature
14. The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling 12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer
operation with (temperature of water being constant at 40oC)?
recirculating liquid is a) humidification only
a) natural draft cooling tower b) heating only
b) induced draft cooling tower c) both heating and humidification
c) spray chamber d) evaporative cooling
d) none of these
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling d) increases with increases in pressure
process?
a) specific humidity 27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process
b) partial pressure of vapor with recirculated water
c) both a and b supply?
d) neither a nor b a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these

28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process

23. During sensible cooling process with recirculated water
a) relative humidity decreases supply?
b) relative humidity increases a) wet bulb temperature
c) wet bulb temperature increases b) relative humidity
d) both b and c c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew
point of 20oC. Its 29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas
dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around can be increased by
a) 21.7oC a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) 20oC b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) 27.3oC c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) 18.7oC d) both b and c

25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling 30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin when
process with a) p = P
recirculated water supply? b) p P
a) relative humidity c) p P
b) partial pressure of vapor d) p>= P
c) wet bulb temperature where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
d) none of these P = vapor pressure of the liquid

26. Dew point of a gas-vapor mixture 31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 oC and
a) increases with temperature rise 25oC respectively) is
b) decreases with temperature rise passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35 oC. The air will
c) decreases with increases in pressure be
 a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b Diffusion
d) dehumidified
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
32. In case of unsaturated air a.) cm2/ec b.) cm/sec
a) dew point wet bulb temperature c.) cm3/sec d.) cm3/sec3
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperature
c) both a and b 2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature
d) neither a nor b (T) as
a.) D T b.) D T0.5
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35 oC c.) D T 1.5
d.) D T3
and 18oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15 oC. The air 3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P)
will be as
a) cooled and humidified a.) D T1.5 b.) D 1
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature P0.5
c) cooled at the same relative humidity c.) D 1 d.) D 1
d) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb P P1.5
temperature
4. Molecular diffusion is caused by
34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during a.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration
adiabatic saturation of region
unsaturated air? b.) thermal energy of the molecules
a) dry bulb temperature c.) activation energy of the molecules
b) dew point d.) potential energy of the molecules
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these 5. Pick out the correct statement
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperature
35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45 oC b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight
and 25oC respectively) c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual molecule
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23 oC. The air d.) None of these
will be
a) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature decreasing 6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperature a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference)
c) cooled and dehumidified b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration difference
d) none of these c.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficient
 d.) None of these d.) none of these

7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according 14. Lewis number (Le) is
to film theory as a.) Sc x Pr b.) Pr x Sc
a.) K D b.) K D c.) Sc x Pr d.) St x Sh
c.) K D1.5 d.) K D2

8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with

diffusivity (D) as 15. Which of the following is not a unit of mass transfer coeffiecient?
a.) K D b.) K D a.) moles transferred
c.) K D1.5 d.) K D2 (time)(area)(mole fraction)
b.) moles transferred
9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless ( time)(area)(pressure)
group in mass transfer is c.) mass transferred
a.) Schmidt number b.) Sherwood number (time)(area)(mass A / mass B)
c.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number d.) none of these

10. Schmidt number is 16. In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion , diffusivity of one constituent
a.) b.) Re.Pe into another is not dependent on
DAB a.) temperature and pressure
b.) Sh x Pe d.) Re / Pe b.) concentration
c.) nature of the constituents
11. In physical terms, Schmidt number means d.) none of these
a.) thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity
b.) thermal diffusivity / momentum diffuisivity 17. Steady state equimolal counter diffusion is encountered in
c.) momentum diffusivity / mass diffusivity a.) separation of a binary mixture by distillation
d.) mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity b.) absorption of NH4 from air by water
c.) all liquid-liquid diffusion systems
12. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless d.) all liquid-solid diffusion systems
group in mass transfer, is
a.) Scherwood number b.) Schmidt number 18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity?
c.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number a.) momentum flux b.) kinematic viscosity
c.) thermal diffusivity d.) both b and c
13. Mass transfer coefficient of liquid is
a.) affected more by temperature than that for gases 19. Diffusivity in concentrated solutions differs from that in dilute
b.) affected much by less temperature than that for gases solutions because of changes in
c.) not affected by temperature a.) viscocity with concentration
 b.) degree of ideality of the solution b.) gives lower pressure drop
c.) both a and b c.) both (a) and (b)
d.) neither a nor b d.) gives higher drop

20. The value of Lewis number Le = Sc for air-water vapour system is 5. Channeling is most severe
around a.) in towers packed with stacked packing
Pr b.) in towers packed randomly with crushed solids
a.) 1 b.) 0.24 c.) in dumped packing of regular units
c.) 3.97 d.) 600. d.) at very high liquid flow rate

6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity
d.) Good contact between the fluids

GAS ABSORPTION 7. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually

a.) half the flooding velocity
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the b.) twice the flooding velocity
a.) gas side coefficient should be increased c.) equal to flooding velocity
b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased d.) more than the flooding velocity
c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased

2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a liquid 8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being
a.) bubble the gas through liquid irrigated with liquid
b.) spray the liquid on gas stream a.) is greater than that in dry packed
c.) either a or b will suffice b.) is lower than that in drying packing
d.) none of these c.) is same as that in drying packing
d.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient
3. Wetted wall tower experiment determines
a.) molal diffusivity b.) volumetric 9. Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be used
coefficient a.) for alkalis b.) for SO2
c.) mass transfer coefficient d.) none of these c.) for H2SO4 d.) in oxidizing
atmosphere
4. Stacked packing compared to dumped packing
a.) provides poorer contact between the fluids 10. Flooding in a column results due to
 a.) high pressure drop b.) low pressure drop slope of the equilibrium curve
c.) low velocity of the liquid d.) high temperature c.) slope of the operating line - slope of the equilibrium curve
d.) slope of the operating linexslope of the equilibrium curve
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions b.) mole ratios 17. H2S present in naphtha reformed gas is removed by absorbing with
c.) partial pressure d.) mass fractions a.) ethanolamine b.) K2CO2
c.) HCL d.) vacuum
12. In case of an absorber, the operating gas soil
a.) line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium curve 18. If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L = non-volatile solvent in liquid
c.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve stream, then the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
d.) velocity is more than the loading velocity a.) L/G b.) G/L
c.) always < 1 d.) none of
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for these
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation 19. Raschig ring made of porcelain cannot be used for treating
c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation a.) concentrated hydrochloric acid
d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation b.) concentrated nitric acid
c.) alkalis
14. In case of desorber (stipper) d.) concentrated sulfuric acid
a.) the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line 20. For absorbers, high pressure drop results in
c.) temperature remains unaffected a.) increased efficiency b.) decreased
d.) temperature always increases efficiency
c.) high operating cost d.) better gas
15. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an liquid contact
operating line
a.) of slope = 1 b.) of slope = 21. Which of the following is an undesirable property for an absorbing
'1 solvent?
c.) tangential to the equilibrium curve d.) none of these a.) low vapour pressure b.) low
velocity
c.) low freezing point d.) none of these

16. Absorption factor is defined as 22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which
a.) slope of the equilibrium curve combination of properties provides a good solvent?
slope of the operating line I. high viscosity II. Low
b.) slope of the operating line viscosity
 III. high vapour pressure IV. Low vapour d.) large weight of liquid retained
pressure
V. high gas solubility VI. High freezing 28. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
point a.) reduce the over-all pressure drop
VII. low freezing point b.) avoid channeling
c.) reduce liquid hold-up
Choose from the following combinations: d.) avoid flooding
a.) II,IV,V,VII b.) I,IV,V,VI
c.) II,IV,V,VI d.) 29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is
I,IV,V,VII decreased, the tower height will
a.) increase
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the b.) decrease
operating line is c.) remain unaffected
a.) negative b.) positive d.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid
c.) 1 d.) -1
30. HETP is numerically equal to HTU only when operating line
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with a.) lies below the equilibrium line
a.) caustic solution b.) dilute b.) lies above the equilibrium line
ammoniacal liquor c.) and equilibrium lines are parallel
c.) dilute HCl d.) d.) is far from the equilibrium line
ethanolamine
31. Desirable value of absorption factor in an absorber is
25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the a.) 1 b.) <1
design of absorbers? c.) >1 d.) 0.5
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid 32. Absorption accompanied by heat evolution results in
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream a.) increased capacity of the absorber
d.) none of these b.) increase in equilibrium solubility
c.) decrease in equilibrium solubility
26. In an absorber, HETP does not vary with d.) none of these
a.) flow rate of liquid b.) flow rate of gas
c.) type and size of packing d.) none of these 33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in
the liquid is
27. Which of the following is an undesirable property in a low-packing a.) sparingly soluble b.) highly soluble
a.) large surface per unit volume c.) a pure substance d.) a mixture
b.) large free cross-section
c.) low weight per unit volume 34. Channeling in a packed tower results from
 a.) high pressure drop b.) maldistribution of a.) minimum at the filter medium b.) minimum at the upstream
liquid face
c.) non-uniformity of packing d.) both b and c c.) maximum at the filter medium d.) same throughout
the thickness
35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally
around 6. The specific cake resistance is
a.) 2" b.) 8" a.) gm / cm2 b.) cm / gm
c.) 12" d.) 18" c.) cm / gm2 d.) gm / gm.

7. The unit of filter medium resistance is

a.) cm-1 b.) gm / cm-
FILTRATION 1
c.) cm / gm-1 d.) gm -1
1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter b.) plate and frame filter 8. The medium resistance is controlled by
c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) rotary vacuum filter a.) the pressure drop along
b.) the flow rate alone
2. Vacuum filter is most suitable for c.) both pressure drop and flow rate
a.) removal of lines from liquid b.) liquid having high vapour d.) the cake thickness
pressure
c.) liquids of very high viscosity d.) none of these 9. Compressibility coefficient for an absolutely compressible cake is
a.) 0 b.) 1
3. Filter aid is used c.) 0 to 1 d.) none of
a.) to increase the rate of filtration b.) to decrease the these
pressure drop
c.) to increase the porosity of the cake d.) as a support base for the 10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate
septum varies inversely as the
a.) square root of the velocity
b.) square root of the viscosity
c.) filtration time only
4. During the washing of cake d.) washing time only
a.) all resistance are constant b.) filter medium resistance
increases 11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
c.) filter medium resistance d.) change resistance a.) sparkler filter b.) plate and
decreases frame
c.) centrifugal filter d.) rotary drum
5. The porosity of a compressible cake is vacuum filter
 c.) 1 d.) 1/2
12. The most common filter aid is
a.) diatomaceous earth b.) calcium silicate 20. Moore filter is a
c.) sodium carbonate d.) silica gel a.) leaf filter b.) filter press
c.) rotary filter d.) sand filter
13. Removal of activated carbon from glycerine is done by
a.) plate and frame filter b.) rotary vacuum 21. Diatomaceous earth is
filter a.) explosive b.) filter aid
c.) batch backed centrifuge d.) none of these c.) filter medium d.) none of
these
14. Filtration of water in a paper mill is done by
a.) open sand filter b.) plate and frame 22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best
filter described by
c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) sparkler filter a.) Kozency-Carman equation b.) Hagen-Poiseu
equation
15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be c.) Fanning's equation d.) Kremser equation
a.) 1 b.) 50
c.) 100 d.) 500
23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the
16. Gelatinous solid (which plug the septum) can be filtered by volume of filtrate
a.) sparkler filter b.) plate and a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
frame filter b.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) precost filter c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum
which of the following with the valid? 24. Percentage of drum submerged in slurry in case of rotary drum filter is
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation b.) Leva's equation a.) 3% b.) 30%
c.) Clack-Plummer equation d.) none of these c.) 85% d.) 25%

18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile
liquids? 25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus
a.) pressure filter b.) gravity filter time for constant pressure filtration?
c.) centrifugal filter d.) vacuum filter a.) parabola b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola d.) exponential curve
19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to
the final filtrate rate is 26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) 4 b.) 1/4 a.) increases b.) increases linearly
 c.) decreases d.) is not affected d. both b and c

27. The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtration 2. Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is
a.) increases continuously b.) decreases a. same as Van der Waals adsorption
c.) remains constant d.) none of these b. characterized by adsorption of heat
c. also called activated adsorption
28. Which is a continuous filter? d. none of these
a.) plate and frame filter b.) cartridge filter
c.)shell and leaf filter d.) none of these 3. Rate of adsorption increases as the
a. temperature increases c. pressure decreases
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the b. temperature decreases d. size of adsorbent
coke increases
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient 4. When adsorption hysteresis is observed, the desorption equilibrium
c.) decrease the porosity pressure is
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient a. always lower than that obtained by adsorption
b. always higher than that obtained by adsorption
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a c. same as that obtained by adsorption
plate and frame filter employing constant .. filtration d. dependent on the system can be either lower or higher than that
a.) rate b.) pressure obtained by adsorption
c.) both a and b d.) neither a nor b
5. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow
31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the . glycerine?
Resistance a. silica gel c. Fullers earth
a.) piping b.) cake b. alumina d. activated carbon
c.) filter medium c.) none of
these 6. Freundlich equation applies to adsorption of solute from
a. dilute solutions, over a small concentrated range
b. gaseous solutions at high pressure
c. concentrated solutions
ADSORPTION d. none of these

7. In case of physical adsorption, the difference between heat of

1. Physical adsorption is adsorption and heat of normal condensation is
a. an irreversible phenomenon a. equal to the heat of formation of surface compound
b. a reversible phenomenon b. equal to the heat of wetting
c. accompanied by evolution of heat c. zero
 d. called integral heat of adsorption b. integral heat of adsorption d. none of
these
8. Pick out the wrong statement
Generally for physical adsorption, a gas of 13. Ion exchange process is similar to
a. higher molecular weight is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low a. absorption c.
molecular weight adsorption
b. high critical temperature is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low b. extraction d. leaching
critical temperature
c. low volatility is adsorbed in preference to a gas of high volatility 14. CO2 can be adsorbed by
d. both b and c a. hot cupric oxide c. Cold Ca
(OH)2
9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed b. heated charcoal d. alumina
on gas free or outgassed adsorbent to form a definite concentration of
adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption CENTRIFUGATION
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation 1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a. sparkler filter c. centrifugal filter
10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of b. plate & frame filter d. rotary drum vacuum filter
adsorption
a. increases 2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using
b. decreases a. tubular centrifuge c. sparkler filter
c. remains unchanged b. clarifier d. vacuum leaf filter
d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of
11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a tube oil and printing ink?
relatively large quantity of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration a. sparkler filter c. disc-bowl centrifuge
of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed as the b. precoat filter d. sharpless supercentrifuge
a. differential heat of adsorption c. integral
heat of adsorption 4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled,
b. heat of wetting d. heat of then
normal condensation a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
12. As complete saturation of an adsorbent is approached, the differential c. centrifugal force is doubled
heat of adsorption approaches d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
a. heat of normal condensation c. zero
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots
is very small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
a. disc bond centrifuge c. batch basket d. removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene
centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge d. sparkler filter 2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction c. absorption
b. leaching d. adsorption

FLOTATION

3. Rate of leaching increases with increasing

a. temperature c. pressure
1. Froth Flotation is most suitable for treating b. viscosity of solvent d. size of the solid
a. iron ores c. quartz
b. sulfide ores d. metal ores 4. Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on the
a. time of contact between the solid and the solution
2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air adherence is b. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid and into the liquid
called c. both a and b
a. collector c. modifier d. vapor pressure of the solution
b. frother d. promoter
5. Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by
3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a a. liquid-liquid extraction c. extractive
a. collector c. frother distillation
b. modifier d. activator b. leaching d. steam distillation

4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal 6. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by
dust (< 0.5 m)? a. hot water c. dilute H2SO4
a. Through washer c. Spiral separator b. hexane d. lime water
b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation
7. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to
a. decreased liquid viscosity c. both a and b
b. increased diffusivity d. neither a nor b
LEACHING
8. Leaching rate is independent of the
a. agitation c. temperature
1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching? b. particle size d. none of these
a. dissolving gold from ores
 a. separation of the constituent is most effective
b. no separation will occur
LIQUID LIQUID EXTRACTION c. amount of solvent required will be minimum
d. solvent flow rate should be very low

6. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then

a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used
1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may
b. solvent of low freezing point should be used
be economically separated using
c. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute
a. liquid extraction c. evaporation d. very small quantity of solute is required
b. distillation d. absorption
7. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system
2. Fractional solvent extraction
having very low density difference?
a. employs only one solvent c. results in low
a. mixer-settler extractor c. pulsed extractor
interfacial tension
b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction
b. employs two solvents d. none of these tower
3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for
8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity
extraction out of the following
(area covered by binodal curve)
(i) high selectivity
a. decreases c. remains
(ii) low selectivity
unchanged
(iii) high viscosity b. increases d. none of these
(iv) low viscosity
(v) large distribution coefficient
9. The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate (internary liquid
(vi) small distribution coefficient
system) represents
(vii) high interfacial tension
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture
(viii) low interfacial tension b. a binary mixture d. an insoluble
binary system
a. ( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii ) c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), (
vii )
10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the
b. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi ) d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), (
extraction efficiency
vii )
a. increases c. remains
unchanged
4. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be b. decreases d. depends on the
a. 1 c. > 1
pressure of the system
b. < 1 d. 0

5. In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then

11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of
vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very MATERIALS HANDLING
high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material?
a. apron conveyor c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor d. pneumatic
conveyor

2. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of

12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor abrasive materials?
a. both liquids flow at fixed rate a. belt conveyor c. apron conveyor
b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate b. flight conveyor d. chain conveyor
c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate
d. liquids flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure 3. For transporting pastry material, one will use
a. apron conveyor c. belt conveyor
13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator
system is plotted) represent
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture 4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the
b. a binary mixture d. partially miscible cross section of the load, the other is the
ternary system a. speed of the belt c. thickness of the
belt
14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is b. length of the belt d. material to be
increased, the number of stages transported
a. increase c. remain unchanged
b. decrease d. can either increase 5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
or decrease, depends on a. belt conveyor c. belt conveyor
the system b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator

15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution 6. Apron conveyors are used for
of acetic acid in water by a. heavy loads and short runs c. heavy loads and long runs
a. solvent extraction c. evaporation b. small loads, long runs d. transporting
b. continuous distillation d. absorption powdered materials
 b. screening becomes progressively easier
SCREENING c. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
d. none of these

1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the 8. A screen is said to be blinded when
next smaller screen is a. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
a. 2 b. 2 c. 1.5 d. none of these b. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
c. the screen is plugged with solid particles
2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is d. its capacity is abruptly increased
a. 0.0074 cm b. 0.0074 mm c. 0.0047 cm
d. 0.0047 mm 9. Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in terms
of
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of a. centimeter c. micron
openings in the next smaller screen is b. screen size d. surface area per unit
mass
a. 1.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. none of
these

4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than 10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their
differential analysis because of the a. size c. screen size
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size b. wet ability d. electrical and magnetic
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in 11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of
size is not needed a. tons/h b. tons/ft2 c. both a and b d.
d. none of these tons/h-ft 2

5. Increasing the capacity of screen 12. Which of the following screens has the maximum capacity?
a. decreases the screen effectiveness c. does not affect the a. grizzlies c. shaking screen
screen effectiveness b. trommels d. vibrating screen
b. increases the screen effectiveness d. none of these
13. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a
6. Screen efficiency is a. trommel c. shaking screen
a. recovery rejection b. recovery c. rejection d. none of b. grizzly d. vibrating screen
these
14. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per
7. As particle size is reduced a. square inch c. square foot
a. screening becomes progressively more difficult b. linear inch d. linear foot
15. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of a trommel is SEDIMENTATION
a. 0.33 0.45 c. 0.5 2
b. 1.33 1.45 d. 1.5 2.5 Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
In an experiment, a sphere of density 1 and radius r is dropped in
16. 200 mesh screens means
a tank of oil of viscosity 1 and density 2 . The time of descent for the
a. 200 openings/cm2 c. 200 openings/cm
b. 200 openings/inch d. 200 openings/inch2 sphere through the first section of height d is recorded as t1 and through the
second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 << 1.
17. In screen analysis, notation + 5 mm/ -10 mm means passing through
a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen
c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens Sphere
d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens d V (1)
d
2
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)
1
a. N c. N D
D 1. Which of the following is true for the experiment
1 a. The drag force exerted on the sphere increases during it descent
b. N D d. N through the second section.
D
b. The sphere never reaches its terminal velocity while falling
through both sections
19. With increase in the capacity of screens, the screen effectiveness
a. remains unchanged c. decreases c. The sphere reaches its terminal velocity while falling through
b. increases d. decreases the first section
d. The drag force exerted on the sphere decreases during the descent
exponentially
through the second section
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 hr mm mesh size) in the
2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the
range of
second section is
a. 0.2 to 0.8 c. 50 to 100
4
b. 5 to 25 d. 100 to 250 a. 1 2 g r 3 c.
3
21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a d
4 3
subsequent surface is called r 1 g 61r
a. intermediate material c. plus material 3 t2
b. minus d. none of the above
 4
b. 1 g r 3 d. 8. At high Reynolds number
3
a. inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
4 3 d b. viscous forces predominate
r 1 g 61r
c. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
3 t2
d. none of these
3. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
9. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are
a. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
a. gravitational and buoyant forces
b. the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow b. centrifugal and drag forces
c. the solid on the fluid
c. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and drag forces
d. none of these
d. external, drag and viscous forces
4. Drag coefficient for flow of past immersed body is the ratio of
10. Terminal velocity is
a. shear stress to the product of velocity head and density
a. constant velocity with no acceleration
b. shear force to the product of velocity head and density b. a fluctuating velocity
c. average drag per unit projected area to the product of the c. attained after moving one-half of total distance
velocity head and density d. none of these
d. none of these
11. In hindered settling, particles are
5. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
a. placed farther from the wall c. near
a. <1 c. >1
each other
b. <5 d. none of these b. not affected by other particles and the wall d. none of these

12. Drag coefficient in hindered settling is

6. Drag coefficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
a. less than in free settling
16 24
a. CD c. CD b. equal to that in free settling
Re p Re p c. not necessarily quarter than in free settling
d. greater than in free settling
18.4 0.079
b. CD d. CD
Re p Re p 0.23 13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of
CD vs log NRe plot is
7. At low Reynolds number a. 1 c. 1
a. viscous forces are unimportant b. 0.5 d. 0.5
b. viscous forces control
c. viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant 14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies
d. gravity forces control as the
 a. first power of its diameter b. >1 d.
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter 21. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid a. classifiers c. thickeners
b. rotary drum filters d. cyclones
15. Buoyant force
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical 22. For non spherical particle, the sphericity
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the
c. depends on the weight of the floating body same volume as the particle to the actual surface area of the
d. none of these particle
b. has a dimension of length
16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______ the center of c. is always less than 1
gravity d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as
a. above the particle to the actual volume of the particle
b. below
c. at 23. Sphericity of a cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as
d. either above or below; depends on the liquid density the height of the tube is
a.0.5 c. 2
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of
gravity of the b.1 d. 3
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body 24. For raschig rings, the sphericity is
d. horizontal projection of the body a. 0.5 c. < 1
b. 1 d. 3
18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed object
a. passing the centroid of the body at 60 to the direction of motion 25. Sphericity for a non-spherical particle is given by
b. the component being parallel to the flow direction
c. the component being normal to the flow direction 6V DS
a. c.
d. none of these DS V
V V
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is b. d.
6 DS DS
a. >1 c. <2
b. 1 d. 2
where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one
particle
20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is
D = equivalent diameter of particles
a. 1 c. <1
 d. for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on
SIZE REDUCTION the sizes of feed and product

1. Sphericity for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is

a. 0.46 b. 0.5 c. 0.68 d. 0.87

2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having 7. Bond crushing law
the same a. calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particle
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume than does the Rittinger law
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle b. is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of
c. volume as the particle commercial crushes
d. none of these c. states that the work required to form particle of any size from very
large feed is proportional to the square root of the volume to
3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use surface ratio of the product
a. impact b. attrition c. compression d. states that the work required for the crushing is proportion
d. cutting
8. Work index is defined as the
4. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into fines by a. gross energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large
a. attrition b. compression c. cutting feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes a 100 micron
d. none of these screen
b. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 200 microns
5. Crushing efficiency is the ratio of c. energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size
a. surface energy created by the crushing to the energy absorbed that 80% of product passes a 200 mesh screen
by the solid d. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns
b. the energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine
c. the energy fed to the machine to the surface energy created by the 9. The operating speed of a ball mill should be
crushing a. less than the critical speed c. at least
d. the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by equal to the critical speed
the crushing. b. much more than the critical speed d. none of these

6. Rittingers crushing law states that 10. A fluid energy mill is used for
a. work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the a. cutting c. ultragrinding
square of the surface to volume ratio of the product. b. grinding d. crushing
b. work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional
to the square root of the surface to volume ratio of the product 11. Wet grinding in a revolving mill
c. work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface a. gives less wear on chamber walls than dry grinding
created b. requires more energy than for dry grinding
 c. increases capacity compared to dry grinding a. requires more energy c. complicates handling and
d. complicates handling of the product compared to dry grinding classification of the product
b. has less capacity d. none of these
12. Cement clinker is reduced to fine size
a. Roll crusher c. Tube mill 20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing
b. Ball mill d. Hammer mill a. results in increased capacity c. consumes more
power
13. For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use b. consumes less power d. both a and c
a. gyratory crusher c. Tube mill
b. Ball mill d. Squirrel-cage disintegrator 21. For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated
a. at a speed less than critical speed c. at a speed equal to critical
speed
14. Fibrous material is broken by b. at a speed more than critical speed d. with minimum possible
a. Roll crusher c. Ball mill small balls
b. Squirrel-cage disintegrator d. none of these
22. To get ultra fine particles, the equipment used is
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding a. ball mill c. hammer crusher
a. decreases c. is same as for coarser b. rod mill d. fluid energy mill
grinding
b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for 23. The material is crushed in a gyratory crusher by the action of
coarser grinding a. impact c. compression
b. attrition d. cutting
16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. slow compression c. attrition 24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is
b. impact d. cutting action a. roller crusher c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill d. gyratory crusher

17. The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on 25. Ball mill is used for
a. its speed c. the density of the material a. crushing c. fine grinding
being ground b. coarse grinding d. attrition
b. its ball load d. all a, b and c
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
18. Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of a. length to diameter ratio c. final product size
a. 1 5% c. 75 80% b. size of the grinding media d. operating speed
b. 40 50% d. 90 95%
27. Kicks law relates to
19. In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared to dry grinding a. energy consumption c. feed size
 b. final particle size d. none of these b. Dp/Df d. Dp Df

35. The reduction ratio for fine grinders is

a. 5 10 c. 10 20
b. 20 40 d. as high as 100

36. Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is achieved by

a. compression c. cutting
b. interparticle attrition d. impact

28. Fluid energy mill comes in the category of 37. Pick out the material having minimum Rittingers number
a. Grinder c. cutting machine a. calcite c. quartz
b. crusher d. ultrafine grinder b. pyrite d. galena

29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create 38. Pick out the material having maximum Rittingers number
new surface? a. Calcite c. quartz
a. Taggarts rule c. Rittingers law b. pyrite d. galena
b. Ficks Law d. none of these
39. Crushing efficiency of a machine ranges between
30. Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is a. 0.1 to 2 % c. 20 to 25 %
a. attrition c. cutting b. 5 to 10 % d. 50 to 70 %
b. compression d. impact

31. Feed size of 25 cm can be accepted by

a. ball mill c. fluid energy mill 40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of
b. rod mill d. jaw crusher size D from very large feed is

32. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by

a. S /V p c. S /V p
a. attrition c. impact S /V p S /V f
2
b. d.
b. compression d. cutting
when S /V p and S /V f are surface to volume ratio of the
33. The main size reduction operation in ultra fine grinders is
a. cutting c. compression product and feed respectively
b. attrition d. impact

34. The reduction ratio for grinders is defined as PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
a. Df/Dp c. Df Dp
1. Vertical valves are not supported by
a. brackets b. skirts 11. Baffle width is normally taken as
c. column d. saddles a. 0.1-0.12 tank diameter b. 0.4-0.5 tank diameter
2. Bracket supports are most suitable for c. 0.45-0.6 tank diameter d. 0.2-0.45 tank
a. thick walled vertical vessels b. horizontal vessels diameter
c. thin spherical vessel (e.g. Hortonsphere) d. none of these 12. The minimum baffle height should be
3. Skirt support is most suitable for a. equal to the impeller diameter b. twice the impeller
a. small horizontal vessels b. large horizontal diameter
vessels c. twice the diameter d. 3/4 of the tank height
c. tall vertical vessels d. thick walled small vertical 13. Baffles may be eliminated for
vessels a. low viscosity liquids (<200 poise) b. high viscosity
4. Saddle supports are used for supporting (>600 poise)
a. horizontal cylindrical vessels b. tall vertical vessels c. large diameter tank d. none of these
c. thick walled vertical vessels d. thick spherical vessels 14. Power required for agitation depends upon the
5. Wind load consideration in the design of a support can be neglected when a. height and properties of the liquid b. agitator type and speed
the vessel is of agitation
a. tall (say 30 meters) but is full of liquid b. tall but empty c. size of agitator and the tank d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. short (<2 m) and housed indoor d. none of these 15. The retention time of material in rotary dryer depends upon
6. Leg support is meant for a. its rpm b. its slope and length
a. large horizontal cylindrical vessels b. tall but empty c. the arrangement of flights d. all (a), (b) and (c)
vessels 16. Filtration rate is affected by
c. small vessels d. thick walled tall vessels a. pressure drop across the cake and filter medium
7. The force due to wind load acting on a tall vessels depends upon its b. cake and filter medium resistance
a. shape b. outside diameter c. area of filtering surface and viscosity of filtrate
c. height d. all (a), (b) and (c) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
8. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is 17. Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely proportional to the
a. 1 b. 0.85 a. filtering the area and the pressure difference driving force
c.1.2 d. 0.5 b. viscosity of filtrate
9. In the design of a paddle agitator the ratio paddle diameter to tank c. cake and filter medium resistance
diameter is normally taken as: d. both (b) and (c)
a.0.1 b. 0.8 c.0.25 d. 18. In the case of a shell and the tube heat exchanger, the logarithmic mean
0.5 temperature difference
10. The ratio propeller agitator diameter to tank diameter is normally taken
a. is always less than arithmetic average value
as
b. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric
a. 0.15-0.30 b. 0.5-0.65 c. 0.75-0.85 d.
mean value
0.60-0.90
c. is always less than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric
mean value
 d. may be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic mean c. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to square pitch of tube
value depending upon whether the flow of stream is co-current or layout
counter-current d. none of these
19. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for 25. In most of the shell and tube heat exchanger, the tube pitch is generally
heat transfer (for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be a. less than the diameter of the tube b. 1.25 -1.50 times the tube
diameter
a. same as that for fluid flow
c. 2.5 times the tube diameter d. one-fourth of the tube
b. less than that for fluid flow
diameter
c. more than that for fluid flow
26. Triangular pitch tube layout as compared to square pitch in a shell and
d. D2 - D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of inner and outer pipes respectively)
tube heat exchanger
a. permits the use of less tubes in given shell diameter
b. facilitates comparatively easier external cleaning because of larger
20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat
clearance
transfer co-efficient when the liquid
c. permits the use of more tubes in a given shell diameter
a. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
d. both (b) and (c)
b. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
27. Twenty five percent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle
c. is highly viscous
a. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell b. height is 25% of the I.D. of
d. is of high specific gravity
the shell
21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
c. spacing is 75% of its height d. width is 25% of its height
a. characteristics of process fluid b. velocity process fluid
28. In shell and tube heat exchangers, straight tie rods are used to
containing suspended solids
a. hold baffle in space b. fix the tubes in
c. suspended solids in the fluid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
position
22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for c. account for thermal strain d. none of these
a. heat transfer between corrosive fluids 29. Baffle spacing is generally
b. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the a. more than the I.D. of the shell
tubes is more (>50 C) b. not greater than the I.D. of the shell
c. co-current heat transfer systems c. not less than one fifth of the I.D. of the shell
d. counter-current heat transfer systems d. both (b) and (c)
23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest center to center distance 30. Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial
between adjacent tubes is shell and tube heat exchange?
a. called tube pitch a. 75% cut segmental baffle b. 25% cut
b. called tube clearance segmental baffle
c. always less than the diameter of the tube c. orifice baffle d. disk and doughnut
d. none of these baffle
24. Shortest distance between two tubes is 31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer surface area,
a. called tube pitch smaller diameter tubes are favored as compared to larger diameter ones
b. called tube clearance because smaller diameter tubes.
 a. are easier to clean 37. Friction factor turbulent flow in new pipe is given by
b. are less prone to fouling a. f = 16/NRE b. f = 0.04/(NRE)0.16 c. f = 0.22NRE0.5 d. f =
c. can be fitted into a smaller shell diameter hence the cost of the 25/NRE
heat exchanger would be less 38. In case of continuous distillation column, increase in the reflux ratio
d. none of these may result
32. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably a. lower fixed charges for the column b. greater cost for the
be routed through the reboiler heat supply
a. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell construction c. greater cost for the condenser coolant d. all (a), (b) and (c)
b. shell side for smaller total pressure drop 39. Optimum reflux ratio in a continuous distillation column is determined
c. shell side if the flow is counter-current and tube side if the flow is by the
co-current a. maximum permissible vapor velocity
d. shell side for larger overall heat transfer co-efficient b. flooding limit of the column
33. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and has fouling tendency, it c. total cost consideration (fixed cost of the column plus the cooling
should water and steam
a. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning cost)
b. preferably flow outside the tube d. none of these
c. flow at very slow velocity 40. Pressure drop due to pipe fittings can be estimated by p/ = 4f (Le/D)
d. flow outside the tube when the flow is counter-current and inside the (V2/2gc) where Le =
tube when the flow is co-current equivalent length of straight pipeline which will incur the same
34. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the clearance of the tube is generally frictional loss as the fitting and D = diameter of the fitting. The value
a. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16 of Le /D (dimensionless) for 45 elbow and 180 close return bends
b. more than the tube diameter would be respectively around
c. equal to the tube diameter a. 5 and 10 b. 45 and 75
d. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to the square pitch tube c. 180 and 300 d. 300 and 500
layout. 41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90 square elbow would be
35.For a given fluid as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost respectively around
a. decreases a. 25 and 60 b. 3 and 5
b. increases c. 100 and 250 d. 250 and 600
c. remains unaffected 42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run) would be around
d. may increase or decrease depending upon whether the fluid is a.5 b. 60
Newtonian or non-Newtonian c. 200 d. 350
36. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid flow is determined by the 43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering branch) would be
a. viscosity of the fluid a. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
b. density of the fluid b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
c. total cost considerations (pumping cost plus fixed cost of the c. around 90
pipe) d. both (b) and (c)
d. none of these. 44. Le/D for couplings and unions would be
 a. 60 b. 200 c. 350 d. 49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function
negligible of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating
45. Le/D for fully open gate valves would be temperature
a. much more than that for fully open globe valve b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
b. much less (say 2% than that for fully open globe valve) c. diameter of the vessel
c. around 7 d. all (a), (b) and (c)
d. both (b) and (c) 50. Bubble cap plate column is
46. Le/D for fully open globe valve may be around a. a finite stage contactor
a. 10 b. 25 c. 75 d. b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
300 c. a differential stage contactor
47. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity fluid (<20 cp) in steel d. a continuous contactor
pipes, the optimum inside pipe diameter is given by 51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial
a. Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
0.13 c. operation is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
Diopt 4.7 q f
0.49
0.14 b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
a. Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
c 0.95 d. d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18

where qf = fluid flow rate, ft3/sec

= fluid density, lb/ft3 52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation
c = fluid viscosity, centipoise column
Diopt = optimum inside pipe diameter, inches a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent
plugging of the slots by residue build up.
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the
diameter is given by form of small bubbles.
a. Diopt 3.6 q f
0.45
c 0.28 c. c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the
skirt clearance
Diopt q f
0.487
c 0.025 d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used
a. Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18 d. per tray is set by the
Diopt q f
0.364
c 0.182 a. allowable gas velocity through the slots b. plate spacing
c. diameter of the column
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column
design) as recommended by Davies are respectively 59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ 0.5 b.3.4/ 0.5 a. maldistribution of gas
0.5
and 12/ b. back trapping
c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5 d. 3.4/ 0.5 c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
and 12/ 0.5 d. all (a), (b) and (c)
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional 60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
area (for bubble cap towers of a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5"
diameter more than 3 ft) is around c. 5" d. half the
a. 0.4 - 0.6 b. 0.35 - 0.75 tray spacing
c. 0.1 - 0.2 d. 0.55 - 0.85 61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and
distillation column is provided to the flow of gas.
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation. b. low gas velocity
b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation c. large plate spacing
c. avoid back-trapping d. large reflux ratio
d. none of these 62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir
is to b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual flows or by decreasing the
observation velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance
b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance along the tray through which the
and installation liquid must flow.
c. guard against foaming and entrainment by dumping anti-forming c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter
agent through it. larger than 4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c) d. all (a), (b) and (c).
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column 63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in a distillation column?
operation a. plate spacing
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of b. depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
liquid during operation follow approximately the same path as the c. vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
overflow fluid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to 64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column
prevent plugging but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid a. lead to high tray efficiency
during operation b. results in higher pressure drop per tray
d. all (a), (b) and (c). c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is
normally
a. 6" b. 18" c. 24" d. INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL
34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery 1. What is the Laplace transform of sin t ?
distillation columns (of diameter 73 ft) (a) __1__ (b) __s_____
is normally s + 1 1 + s
a. 6" b. 12" c. 18" d. 34" (c) __1 (d) __s_____
s - 1 s - 1
2. The transfer function of the first order system is
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to (a) __1 (b) _1_
a. low gas velocity b. high gas Ts + 1 Ts
velocity (c) ___s__ (d) 1/s
c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray d. low reflux ratio Ts + 1
68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is 3. Pick out the first order system from among the following
provided to (a) damped vibrator
a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid (b) mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water
b. reduce the discharge fluctuation (c) interacting system of two tanks in series
c. ensure better vapor liquid contract (d) non-interacting system of two tanks in series
d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is 4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input called
generally (a) impulse response (b) unit step response
a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter (c) frequency response (d) step response
b. equal to the column diameter 5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal
c. twice the column diameter forcing
d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter) function in a first order system ?
70. Pick out the wrong statement (a) 1 (b) > 1
a. If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the (c) < 1 (d) none of these
downcoming liquid in the 6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is
downcomer, it may entrain some vapor. (a) 120 (b) 30
b. The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than one (c) 180 (d) 90
half the plate spacing to avoid 7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is
flooding. (a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR) (b) Decibel=20 log e(AR)
c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough into (c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5 (d) Decibel = log10 (AR)
the tray liquid so that no gas 8. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response
bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps. exhibits an
d. none of these amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
 (a) Bode stability criterion (b) Nyquist criterion temperature change)?
(c) Routh stability criterion (d) both b and c (a) mercury thermometer (b) radiation pyrometer
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase (c) bimetallic thermometer (d) thermocouple
margin to be 17. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the
respectively range of -40
(a) > 1.7 and > 30 (b) < 1.7 and > 30 to 800F.
(c) < 1.7 and < 30 (d) >1.7 and < 30 (a) mercury thermometer (b) bimetallic
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called thermometer
(a) corner frequency (b) resonant frequency (c) radiation pyrometer (d) radiation
(c) cross-over frequency (d) natural frequency pyrometer
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means 18. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring
(a) a stable system (b) unstable system (a) liquid temperatures only (b) very high temperatures
(c) critically damped system (d) both a and c only
12. Bode diagram is a plot of (c) very low temperatures only (d) both high and low
(a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and vs. log (f) temperatures
(b) log (AR) vs. f and log vs. f 19. Which of the following relates the absorption and evolution of heat at
(c) AR vs.log (f) and vs. log (f) the junctions
(d) log (AR) vs. log f of a thermocouple to the current flow in the circuit?
13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which is the most suitable (a) Seebeck effect (b) Peltier effect
instrument? (c) Joule heating effect (d) Thomson effect
(a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Thermocouple 20. Thermal wells are used in temperature measurement to
(c) Optical pyrometer (d) Bimetallic (a) guard against corrosive and oxidizing action on thermocouple
thermometer materials
14. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured (b) reduce measuring lag
variable without (c) increase the fidelity
dynamic error is called (d) increase the sensitivity
(a) speed of response (b) reproducibility of 21. Gas analysis is commonly done using
instrument (a) thermal conductivity cell (b) X-ray diffraction
(c) fidelity (d) its static (c) mass spectrometer (d) emission
characteristics spectrometer
22. Psychrometer determines
15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument? (a) humidity of gases (b) moisture content
(a) high drift (b) high fidelity of solids
(c) high temperature lag (d) poor (c) water of crystallization (d) hygroscopic
reproducibility nature of solids
16. Which of the following shows maximum dip affect (indicating reverse 23. Continuous measurement of moisture content of paper in paper industry
direction of is done by
 measuring (c) proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(a) thermal conductivity through the paper (d) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential
(b) electrical resistance through the paper 32. Which of the following flow-metering instruments is an area meter?
(c) magnetic susceptibility (a) venturi meter (b) rotameter
(d) both b and c (c) pitot tube (d) hot wire anemometer
24. Optimal activity of a solution can be determined using a 33. Continuous measurement of flow rates of dry granular fertilizer is done
(a) polarimeter (b) polarograph using
(c) dilatometer (d) refractometer (a) velocity meters (b) area-meters
25. A simple pitot tube measures (c) weighing meters (d) anemometer
(a) average velocity (b) maximum velocity 34. Pick out the symbol for locally mounted instrument in
(c) point velocity (d) static pressure instrumentation diagram
26. Pirani gauge is used for (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) measurement of very high pressure (b) measurement of high _
vacuum 35. Which is the symbol for pneumatic
_ control valve
(c) liquid level under pressure (d) liquid level at atmospheric (a) (b) _ (c) (d) none of
pressure these _
27. A barometer measures
(a) absolute pressure (b) gauge pressure _
(c) both absolute and gauge pressure (d) dynamic pressure _
36. The symbol for capillary line in instrumentation diagram is
28. The level of a liquid under pressure can be determined using (a) ___ ___ _ ___ _ ___ (b)
(a) bubbler system (b) differential pressure
manometer (c) _________________ (d)
(c) diaphragm box system (d) air-trap system
29. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by
(a) hydrometer (b) contact-type 37. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of
electric indicators (a) greater safety of operation (b) better quality of product
(c) displacement meter (d) both a and c (c) greater operation economy (d) all a, b and c
30. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of 38. Dilatometer is used to measure
(a) flow rates of fluid (b) flow rates of (a) stress (b) strain
granular solids (c) deflection (d)
(c) very high temperature (d) thermal contraction/expansion due to changes
conductivity of gases in temperature
31. Flow rate through an orifice is 39. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of
(a) proportional to the pressure differential (a) kinematic viscosity (b) surface tension
(b) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential (c) refractive index (d) optical activity
40. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of
 (a) rpm of a flywheel (b) frequency of light (a) water (b) steam
(c) depression of freezing point (d) liquid level under (c) air (d) oil
pressure 49. Number of poles in a system with transfer function ________1______
41. Minute depression of freezing point of a liquid solvent or addition of a is
solid solute s +
can be best measured by 2s + 1
(a) Beckman thermometer (b) dilatometer (a) 2 (b) 5
(c) mercury thermometer (d) bimetallic (c) 3 (d) 1
thermometer 50. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset?
42. Gain margin is equal to the (a) P-controller (b) P-I controller
(a) amplitude ratio (b) reciprocal of (c) P-D controller (d) P-I-D controller
amplitude ratio 51. Process degrees of freedom
(c) gain in P controller (d) gain in P-I (a) indicates the maximum number of controller to be used
controller
43. Phase margin is equal to (b) indicates the minimum number of controller to be used
(a) 180 - phase lag (b) phase lag - 180 (c) determines both maximum and minimum number of controllers to
(c) phase lag + 180 (d) phase lag - 90 be used
44. A system with a transfer function __2s _ is of (d) gives no idea of controllers
4s + 1 52. Resistance of a gas in a vessel is
(a) zero order (b) 1st order (a) __V__ (b) nRT
(c) 2nd order (d) 3rd order nRT V
45. Bode stability method uses (c) nRT (d) __P_
(a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop P nRT
transfer function Where: P =pressure V= volume of the vessel
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant
46. Routh stability method uses 52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow
(a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop transfer function rate of
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b (a) coolant (b) reactant
(c) product (d) hot fluid
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
(a) elimination of offset (b) reduction of offset
47. Nichels chart deals with (c) reduction of stability time (d) both b and c
(a) A.R. vs. phase lag of first order 54. Which of the following error integral is considered as the best criterion
(b) A.R. vs. phase lag of second order in controller settings?
(c) closed loop values vs. open loop value (a) | e | dt (b) | e | dt
0 0
(d) frequency response values of controllers
2
48. The fluid used in hydraulic controller is (c) e dt (d) both a and b
 0
64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature around
1400C?
(a) copper-constantan (b) aluminum-chromel
(c) platinum-platinum+rhodium (d) copper-aluminum
65. pH meter has
55. Cascade control means (a) one cell (b) two cells
(a) feed forward control (b) more than one feed-back (c) three cells (d) no cell
loop 66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is
(c) on-off control (d) one feed-back loop (a) 20 psi (b) 30 psi
56. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation? (c) 40 psi (d) 50 psi
(a) P-controller (b) P-I controller 67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by
(c) P-I-D controller (d) P-D controller (a) float (b) manometers of float type
57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by (c) U-tube manometer (d) Bourdon gauge
(a) Bourdon gauge (b) U-tube
manometer
(c) Inclined tube manometer (d) Pirani gauge
58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by 68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
(a) Ionization gauge (b) Pirani gauge (a) V-notch (b) rectangular notch
(c) Mcleoid gauge (d) Bourdon gauge (c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle
59. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by 69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by
(a) sling psychrometer (a) chromatograph (b) orsat apparatus
(b) hair-hygrometer (c) spectrometer (d) photometer
(c) weighing 70. Bellows are made of
(d) high resistance, Wheatstones bridge circuit (a) leather (b) paper
60. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by (c) plastic (d) thin copper
(a) Meloid gauge (b) Pirani gauge 71. Flapper nozzle is a
(c) Thermocouple gauge (d) Bourdon gauge (a) pneumatic controller (b) hydraulic
61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of controller
(a) millivolts (b) microvolts (c) electronic controller (d) both a and b
(c) volts (d) bi-metallic thermometer 72. Weir valve is used for
62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done by (a) slurries (b) acids
(a) thermocouples (b) resistance thermometers (c) neutral solutions (d) bases
(c) gas thermometer (d) bi-metallic 73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is
thermometer (a) gate valve (b) butterfly valve
63. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is (c) rotary plug valve (d) both a and b
(a) 800C (b) 400C 74. Mode used for transmitting signal for one kilometer distance is
(c) 1200C (d) 1500C (a) hydraulic (b) pneumatic
 (c) electronic (d) all a, b and c 84. Laplace transform method is used for
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to (a) linear behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(a) speed up signal (b) change the flow (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
of air 85. Phase lag of first order system is
(c) adjust the signal (d) all a, b and c (a) tan-1 (T) (b) tan-1 (T)
76. Final control element is a (c) /2 (d) 0
(a) valve (b) switch 86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has a
(c) signal (d) both a and b (a) higher maximum deviation (b) longer response time
77. Example of a second order instrument is a (c) longer period of oscillation (d) all a, b and c
(a) mercury-glass thermometer with covering 87. Difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer the set point is
(c) pressure gauge called
(d) Bourdon gauge (a) deviation (b) derivative time
78. Offset (c) error ratio (d) differential gap
(a) varies with time (b) varies exponentially 88. The time difference by which the output of a P-D controller leads the
with time input when the input changes linearly with time is called
(c) does not vary with time (d) varies as square of the time (a) error ratio (b) derivative time
79. Regulator problem means that (c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain
(a) set point is constant (b) load is constant 89. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load
(c) both set point and load are constant (d) neither variable is called
set point nor (a) offset (b) error ratio
load is (c) deviation (d) static ratio
constant 90. Time required for the output of a first order system to change from a
80. Servo problem means that given value to within 36.8% of the final value when a step change of input
(a) set point is constant (b) load is constant is made is called
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b (a) time constant (b) settling time
(c) rise time (d) derivative time
91. A controller action in which there is a continuous linear relation
81. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is between value of the controlled variable and rate of change of controlled
(a) 1 (b) < 1 output signal is called
(c) > 1 (d) 0 (a) proportional action (b) integral action
82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at 180 should be (c) derivative action (d) proportional-
(a) 1 (b) < 1 integral action
(c) > 1 (d) 0
83. Phase plane method is used for
(a) linear-behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
92. A controller action in which there is a continuous relation between (b) cant be connected to the measuring instrument remotely located
value of the controlled variable and the value of the output signal of the (c) need cold junction compensation
controller is called
(a) proportional action (b) derivative action (d) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or vapor pressure
(c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative thermometer
action 99. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on the
93. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller output (a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
variable and the (b) minimum and maximum temperature
change in actuating signal is called (c) pressure and velocity condition of the fluid whose temperature is
(a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate to be measured
(c) rangeability (d) integral action (d) both a and b
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice, the pressure difference
signal is
proportional to
(a) Q (b) Q 100. Radiation pyrometers
(c) Q3 (d) 1 /Q (a) have very low speed of response
where Q= volumetric flow rate
95. Thermistor is a (b) need not see the temperature source; it is measuring
(a) semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature (c) cant measure temperature of objects without making physical
rise contact (d) none of these
(b) metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise 101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a liquid in
(c) metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature (a) an open channel (b) a non-circular cross-section closed
channel
(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation (c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline
96. Which of the following factors does not influence measurement 102. Which of the following is not a head flowmeter?
accuracy? (a) segmental orifice plate (b) pitot tube
(a) static and dynamic error (b) reproducibility (c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle
(c) dead zone (d) none of these 103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids (e.g. sand) can be best
97. Which of the following is suitable for measuring the temperature of a measured by
red hot moving object (a) pitot tube (b) concentric orifice
(e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ? (c) eccentric orifice (d) rotameter
(a) thermocouple (b) radiation 104. Orifice plates for flow measurement
pyrometer (a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss
(c) thermistor (d) radiograph (b) has poor accuracy on high orifice ratios (above 0.75)
98. Thermocouples (c) cant be easily interchanged
(a) have very slow speed of response
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big pipelines
105. Pitot tube is used
(a) for highly accurate flow measurement
(b) when the fluid contains lot of suspended material
(c) when the line is large and the velocity is high
(d) both a and c
106. In an area meter (e.g. rotameter), the flow rate is
(a) proportional to the square root of the differential pressure
(b) inferred from the change in area of an orifice in the flow line
across which the pressure differential is constant zero
(c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which the
pressure differential is zero
(a) moves the final control element at constant speed in either
direction in
response to an error signal
(b) changes the position of the final control element from
on to off
(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes
(d) both b and c
110. Cascade control is
(a) the continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic
control loop by a primary (master) controller
(b) used when changes in process conditions
cause serious upsets in controlled variable
(c) useful to control flow from temperature

(d) all a, b and c (d) all a, b and c

107. A rotameter
(a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop
(b) incurs constant but very large permanent pressure drop
(c) is inaccurate for low flow rates MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
(d) need not be mounted always vertically
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist
ferric hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
108. On-off control d. none of these
(a) fully opens the final control element when the measured variable 2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
is below the set point a. pig iron b. wrought iron
(b) fully closes the final control c. high carbon steel d. none of these
element when the measured variable is above the set point 3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
(c) is a two position (fully open or fully closed) control adequate a. talc b. gypsum
to control a process with slow reaction rate and minimum dead c. rubber d. none of these
time or transfer lag
(d) all a, b, and c
109. Floating control action
4. Karbate is c. cast iron d. none of these
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust 14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite) concentrated nitric acid is
c. acid resistant material a. cast iron
d. both (b) and (c). b. monel
5. Duralumin is an alloy of c. karbate
a. aluminum, copper and manganese d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon 15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
c. aluminum and nickel a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
d. none of these b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of c. zinc and aluminum
a. phosphorus and tungsten d. copper and aluminum
b. nickel and chromium 16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing
c. lead and vanadium out the juice from sugar cane is
d. molybdenum and tungsten a. stainless steel b. cast iron
7. White metal is an alloy of c. mild steel d. monel.
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc 17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride
c. copper and lead d. none of these (a pesticide) in a photochemical reactor lined with
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its a. karbate b. lead or glass
a. cutting ability b. corrosion resistance c. fire clay bricks d. PVC
c. tensile strength d. none of these 18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace rubber (SBR) is made of
contains about a. vessel b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
a. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbon c. karbate d. wrought iron
c. 4% carbon d. 8% carbon 19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of
10. Carbon content in steel is construction for evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH
a. 0.1 2% b. 4 6% solution to 70%?
c. 5- 10% d. 0 a. cast iron b. steel
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic c. nickel d. karbate
soda solution would be 20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to
a. Karbate b. high silica cast iron corrosion contains
c. monel d. none of these a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3%
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use molybdenum
a. steel vessel b. karbate vessel b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. stainless steel vessel d. none of these c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of d. none of these
a. monel b. karbate 21. Caustic soda can be stored in
 a. steel drums b. cast iron drums c. aluminum d. vanadium
c. brass drums d. gun metal drums 32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and
22. Brass is an alloy of cathode made respectively of
a. nickel and tin b. copper and zinc a. moving mercury and graphite
c. tin and lead d. copper, nickel and zinc b. graphite and moving mercury
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash c. moving mercury and carbon
manufacture is made of d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
a. cast iron b. stainless steel 33. Monel metal is an alloy of
c. karbate d. lead lined steel a. molybdenum and nickel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of b. nickel and copper
a. nickel, tin and copper c. molybdenum and aluminum
b. copper, tin and zinc d. molybdenum and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel 34. German silver is an alloy of
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of c. silver, zinc and aluminum
a. steel b. cast iron d. silver, nickel and zinc
c. stainless steel d. bronze 35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
26. Bronze is an alloy of a. chromium and molybdenum
a. lead and copper b. copper and tin b. nickel and chromium
c. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc c. molybdenum and nickel
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with d. chromium and aluminum
a. fire clay b. silica 36. Urea autoclave is made of
c. lead d. high alumina and high magnesia a. cast iron b. refractory blocks
bricks c. stainless steel d. lead lined steel
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester 37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum
is made of a. is lined with lead b. need not be lined
a. cast iron b. stainless steel c. is lined with rubber d. is lined with acid-proof
c. karbate carbon d. wrought iron bricks
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of 38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in
a. iron or steel b. PVC a. lead lined steel vessel b. rubber-lined steel vessel
c. nickel d. brass c. stainless steel vessel d. cast iron vessel
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of 39. Photographic plates are coated in
a. mild steel b. cast iron a. silver nitrate b. silver halide
c. refractory blocks d. stainless steel c. calcium silicate d. metallic silver
31. Stainless steel contains 40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in
a. chromium and nickel b. copper a. steel drum
 b. stainless steel vessel a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brick b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces
d. cast iron vessel with a torch)
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation
a. cast iron packed tower from either mechanical or thermal strain
b. stainless steel plate tower d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricks 50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
d. none of these a. duriron b. nickel
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of c. aluminum d. karbate
a. cast iron b. mild steel 51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
c. karbate d. stainless steel a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce c. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)
phosphoric acid) in a steel digester lined with 52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. acidic refractory b. rubber a. high carbon steel b. wrought iron
c. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks c. mild steel d. none of these
44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives: 53. Bell metal is an alloy of
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metals a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin
a. least b. not c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
c. mildly d. highly 54. Inconel is an alloy of
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of a. tin, zinc and nickel b. iron, nickel and
a. cast iron b. chemical stoneware chromium
c. karbate d. mild steel c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are normally made of 55. Hastelloy comprises
a. wrought iron b. brass a. copper and tin b. copper and nickel
c. bronze d. monel c. molybdenum and nickel d. lead and tin
47. Acid proof stoneware 56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic
a. has very low strength range is characterized as its
b. cannot be heated a. ductility b. toughness
c. is broken by small temperature changes c. creep d. resilience
d. all (a), (b) and (c) 57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under
48. Duriron is constant stress is called
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard a. creep b. erosion
b. high silicon iron c. resilience d. none of these
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high 58. Wrought iron is
co-efficient of thermal expansion. a. high carbon iron
d. all (a), (b) and (c) b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
49. Lead pipe is
 c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and a. bromine
couplings b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly a. wet chlorine b. synthetic
responsible for imparting it an anti-corrosive property? detergent solution
a. silicon b. phosphorus c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. nitric acid (<25%)
c. sulfur d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility 68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its for the storage of
a. corrosion resistance a. acetic acid
b. cutting ability b. benzoic and boric acids
c. abrasion resistance and toughness c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. elasticity and creep resistance d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to 69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si) c. sulfuric acid up to 60C d. all (a), (b) and (c)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon 70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware a. anhydrous ammonia b. fatty acids
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store c. hydrochloric acid (95%) d. sulfuric acid (25%)
a. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfate 71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none of these a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
64. Brass container is suitable for storing b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
a. aqueous ammonia b. beer c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration) d. phosphoric acid d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
(95%) 72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of a. caustic soda solution b. phosphoric acid
a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these
temperature 73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
c. H2SO4 (fuming) d. Wet SO2 a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
storage of c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
 d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%)
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia
c. synthetic detergent solution
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia
c. sulfuric acid (95%)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%)
c. ether
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet
c. an alloy of lead and tin
bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid
c. phosphoric acid d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
b. nitric acid (10%) a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Water
d. saturated brine b. hydrochloric acid d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
b. aromatic solvents a. hydrochloric acid b. SO2 (dry or wet)
d. none of these c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
b. chloroform a. molybdenum stainless steel b. mild steel
d. all (a), (b) and (c) c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm
b. sulfuric acid (95%) and 500C is
d. both (b) and (c) a. molybdenum stainless steel b. 18-8 stainless steel
c. mild steel d. high
b. an elastomer silicon iron (14% Si)
d. aluminum foil clad with 89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
b. hydrochloric acid (95%) 90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
d. none of these a. caustic soda b. chlorinated brine

80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded by c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperature 91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made
b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature of
c. sulfur trioxide at 60C a. wood b. stainless steel
d. any of these c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14%
81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is Si)
a. unsaturated polyester b. polyproplylene 92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
c. polyurethane d. nylon 6 a. cast iron b. mild steel
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. tin lined with refractory
a. high silicon iron (14%) b. tin bricks
c. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum b. sulfuric acid 93. Kel-F is
c. sulfuric acid d. saturated brine a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
84. Glass is corroded by b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to
a. fluorine (dry or wet) b. sulfuric water 200C)
 c. an elastomer a. cast iron and high silicon iron b. mild steel and
d. all (a), (b) and (c) stainless steel
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) c. aluminum, tin and rubber d. teflon, glass and porcelain
is an alloy of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of ENGINEERING ECONOMY
construction for handling aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none b. stainless steel 1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating
c. graphite d. Kel-F and Teflon cost of an enterprise is:
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling a. interest b. depreciation
concentrated HNO3 at 100C. c. taxes d. supplies
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon b. silicon rubber 2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit
c. tin and wood d. stainless steel to equal the investment is called:
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
a. PTFE and porcelain c. price earning ratio d. payback period
b. cast iron and aluminum 3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron newest products / model
d. copper, nickel and monel a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended c. indirect cost d. obsolescence
by a chemical engineer 4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow a. production b. break even point
system? c. balance method d. balance sheet
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon 5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less
b. Mild steel and stainless steel depreciation.
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum a. earning value b. scrap value
d. Copper, nickel and monel c. book value d. face value
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling 6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so
acetic (glacial and that subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
anhydrous) at 40C? a. compound interest b. simple interest
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood c. interest rate d. sinking fund
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite 7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron a. break even point b. investment
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin c. depreciation d. cash flow
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined 8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is
with the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
 a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns 17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that
c. present worth method d. obsolescence action of one will lead to almost the same action by the other.
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated a. monopoly b. oligopoly
life. c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
a. break even point b. cash flow 18. Is the simplest form of business organization
c. interest d. book value a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated c. partnership d. corporation
life. 19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a
a. book value c. salvage value profitable business
c. depreciation d. cash flow a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity c. partnership d. corporation
available as a coal, oil and timber in forests. 20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business
a. depletion b. depreciation transaction which a real person could do.
c. amortization d. investment a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net a. profit b. capital gain
loss that ten years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the c. capital expenditure d. capital stock
corporation or its subsidiaries. 22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. appraisal b. bond a. capital expenditure b. capital loss
c. written contract d. equity capital c. loss d. deficit
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation
that profit will be earned.
a. equity capital b. investment 23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
c. working capital d. present a. net income b. gross profit
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid c. rate of return d. gross national
and the debt be repaid at a specific place and time product
a. discount b. cash flow 24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand
c. working capital d. borrowed capital is consistently high in relation to its supply
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain a. money market b. hard currency
price at a given place and time c. treasury bill d. certificate of
a. supply b. demand deposit
c. discount d. investment 25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain
a given place and time. assets of a corporation
a. supply b. demand a. bonds b. T-bills
c. discount d. investment c. stock d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit 35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing
a. time deposit b. bond corporation
c. capital gain d. certificate of a. debenture bond b. lien bond
deposit c. collateral bond d. mortgage bond
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the 36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the
corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders periodic payment continue indefinitely.
a. dividend b. return a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. share stock d. par value c. annuity due d. perpetuity
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security 37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the
a. bond b. bank note product it is designed to produce at a profit
c. coupon d. check a. write off period b. physical life
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite c. economic life d. perpetual life
reasons 38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is
a. valuation b. appraisal constant each year
c. estimate d. both a and b a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock c. SYD method d. Sinking fund
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock method
c. common stock d. incorporators 39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and
stock which can engage in practically any business transaction which a real
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at person can do.
some time in the future a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
a. discount b. amortization c. corporation d. all of the above
c. depletion d. investment 40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party change in operation or policy which is made.
in order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer. a. fixed cost b. increment cost
a. fair value b. market value c. variable cost d. differential cost
c. salvage value d. book value 41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand a unit have already been recovered.
a. book value b. salvage value a. economic life b. write off period
c. fair value d. market value c. physical life d. salvage life
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific 42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
reasons a. compound interest b. nominal interest
a. amortization b. appraisal c. simple interest d. effective interest
c. investment d. depreciation 43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product /
services in a given region of the country.
a. franchise b. branch
c. extension d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of c. consumer goods d. cash flow
vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the 54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time
market where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of
a. free market b. perfect the payment
competition a. deferred annuity b. delayed annuity
c. open market d. law of supply and c. progressive annuity d. simple annuity
demand 55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested are no goods substitute
capital is included as a cost. a. monopoly b. monopsony
a. rate of return b. annual cost c. oligopoly d. oligopsony
pattern 56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing
c. present worth pattern d. capital cost seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a or sell
decreasing rate. a. fair value b. goodwill value
a. SYD method b. sinking fund c. book value d. market value
c. straight line method d. declining balance 57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials period, beginning from the first period
a. construction cost b. expenses a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. labor cost d. investment c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic b. gratuitous
c. private d. pure 58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is fixed percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the
called year to which the depreciation applies
a. profit margin b. gross margin a. straight line b. sinking fund
c. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings method
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time c. SYD method d. declining balance
a. interest b. depreciation method
c. annuity d. amortization 59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should
a. contract b. barter or will earn
c. memorandum d. pro-forma a. present worth factor b. interest rate
52. An index of short term paying ability is called c. time value of money d. yield
a. current ratio b. receivable turnover 60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
c. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
53. Used to produce consumer goods c. corporation d. enterprise
a. producer goods b. supply
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative 71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a
amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits commodity
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor a. resale value b. market value
c. capacity factor d. demand factor c. book value d. scrap value
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to 72. The price of property when sold for a junk
provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the country a. scrap value b. book value
a. market value b. book value c. resale value d. market value
c. goodwill value d. franchise value 73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the intervals of time
function for which it was designed and manufactured. a. annuity b. sinking fund
a. economic life b. business life c. interest d. investment
c. insular life d. physical life 74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants. include cash equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. supply b. consumer goods a. capital b. investment
c. producer goods d. cash flows c. collateral d. assets
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production. 75. The first cost of any property includes
a. fixed cost b. sunk cost a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
c. first cost d. differential cost b. installation expenses
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be c. initial taxes and permits' fee
recovered. d. all of the above
a. sunk cost b. first cost
c. increment d. fixed cost ENGINEERING PHYSICS
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale
value is
1. Velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is maximum at
a. salvage value b. resale value
c. sunk cost d. fixed cost (a) mean position
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a (b) extreme position
single supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers presented. (c) both (a) and (b)
a. competition b. monopoly (d) none of these.
c. inventory d. profitability 2. The number of waves that can be set up in a medium in one sec. is
69. A place where buyer and seller come together called
a. market b. shop (a) wavelength
c. department store d. parlor (b) wave amplitude
(c) wave frequency
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion b. rate of return (d) wave period
c. load factor d. use factor
3. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is (d) have high elastic after effect.
independent of 9. Shearing strain is possible only in
(a) the mass of the planet (a) solids
(b) the radius of the planet (b) liquids
(c) the mass of the satellite (c) both solids and liquids
(d) all are true. (d) gases.
4. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time 10. Poissons ratio is the ratio between
period (a) rigidity modulus and Youngs modulus
(a) decreases by 2% (b) Youngs modulus and bulk modulus
(b) increases by 1% (c) Youngs modulus and modulus of rigidity
(c) decreases by 1% (d) lateral strain and modulus of rigidity.
(d) increases by 2%. 11. The Youngs modulus of rubber is
5. In the case of damped motion the forces acted upon the particles are (a) zero
(a) restoring force (b) 100 N/m2
(b) frictional force (c) less than that for steel
(c) the external periodic force (d) greater than that for steel.
(d) both restoring force and frictional force. 12. For all materials the frictional force is always
6. Hookes laws give us a relation between (a) perpendicular to the direction of motion
(a) stress and strain (b) along the direction of motion
(c) opposite to the direction of motion
(b) Poissons ratio
(d) none of these.
(c) potential energy and height
13. For all materials the coefficient of friction is always
(d) velocity and mass.
(a) less than one
7. Relation between Youngs modulus Y and bulk modulus k and the
(b) greater than one
Poissons ratio is
(c) equal to one
(a) Y = 3k(1 + 2)
(d) none of these.
(b) k = Y(1 + 2)
14. Out of the following statements which one is not correct?
(c) Y = 3k(1 2)
(a) the friction which comes into play when a body is sliding is
(d) k = 3Y(1 2).
known as dynamic friction
8. Quartz and phosphor bronze are used for the suspension wires of
(b) the friction which comes into play when the body does not
galvanometers because they
move though being pulled by a force is called static friction.
(a) are highly plastic
(c) the coefficient of static friction can be defined as equal to the
(b) are highly elastic
tangent of the angle of friction.
(c) have negligible elastic after effect
 (d) the work done to overcome friction results in the large (a) decrease in size
amount of power loss. (b) no change in size
15. When a body is moving along an inclined plane, the direction of (c) an increase in size
frictional force is always (d) sometimes an increase and sometimes a decrease in size.
(a) perpendicular to the direction of motion 21. With rise of temperature which of the following forces can increase
(b) along the direction of motion (a) elastic force
(c) opposite to the direction of motion (b) frictional force
(d) none of these. (c) force due to surface tension
16. The coefficient of friction is minimum for (d) viscous force.
(a) static friction 22. What is surface tension of boiling water?
(b) dynamic friction (a) zero
(c) rolling friction (b) 100 times that at 27C
(d) both (a) and (b). (c) infinity
(d) half of its value at room temperature.
17. Moment of inertia of a body depends on its 23. Liquid drops always occupy minimum surface area on account of
(a) mass only (a) viscosity
(b) axis of rotation only (b) surface tension
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) refractive index
(d) none of these. (d) gravitational energy
18. The work done by a torque in rotating a body about an axis is 24. Small drops of mercury are practically spherical because of
equal to the change in (a) predominant S.T. force
(a) rotational K.E. of the body (b) predominant gravitational force
(b) moment of the momentum of the body (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) translational K.E. of the body (d) color of mercury.
(d) all are true. 25. Small liquid drops assume spherical shape because
19. A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having the same mass and (a) gravitational force acts upon the drop
same diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the top (b) atmospheric pressure exerts a force on a liquid drop
of an inclined plane which will reach the bottom first
(c) volume of spherical drop is minimum
(a) the solid cylinder
(d) liquid tends to have the minimum surface area due to surface
(b) the hollow cylinder
tension.
(c) both will reach the same time
(d) none of these 26. A drop of water breaks into two droplets of equal size. In this process
20. When a charge is given to a soap bubble, it shows which of the following statements is correct.
(a) the sum of temperature of the two droplets together is equal to the
 original temperature (c) friction
(b) the sum of surface areas of the droplets is equal to the surface area (d) surface tension.
of the original drop 32. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water. Which of the following
(c) the sum of masses of the droplets is equal to the original mass of statements is correct?
the drop
(d) the sum of the radii of the two droplets is equal to the radius of the (a) it will spread as a thin layer
original drop. (b) it will remain on it as sphere
27. When sugar is added to water, the surface tension of sugar solution is (c) it will partly be spherical and partly a thin film
(a) more than that of water (d) it will float as a distorted drop on the water surface.
(b) same as that of water 33. When a magnet is broken, each piece becomes a complete magnet
(c) less than that of water because
(a) the number of electrons in one piece are different from that of the
(d) sometimes more and sometimes less than that of water.
other
28. In a human body the blood pressure is the greatest at
(b) each piece becomes a complete magnet since molecular magnets
(a) brain cannot be broken
(b) hands (c) the density of atoms in the pieces are different
(c) Abdomen (d) none of these.
(d) feet. 34. Since the induced magnetic moments in a diamagnetic substance in a
29. The value of Reynolds number signifies magnetic
field oppose the applied field, the diamagnetic susceptibility is
(a) whether the flow is stream lined or turbulent (a) negative
(b) high surface tension of the liquid (b) small positive value
(c) whether the flow is vertical or horizontal (c) zero
(d) all the above. (d) large positive value.
30. Viscosity is a transport phenomenon explained using the concept of 35. For a diamagnetic substance the susceptibility is
transfer (a) positive and very small
of
(b) positive and very large
(a) mass
(c) negative and very small
(b) kinetic energy
(d) zero.
(c) potential energy
36. All materials have
(d) momentum.
(a) paramagnetic property
31. Viscosity is closely similar to
(b) diamagnetic property
(a) density
(c) ferromagnetic property
(b) velocity
 (d) ferri-magnetic property
37. Which of the following materials has a very high positive (a) the susceptibility varies inversely with temperature
susceptibility? (b) the susceptibility varies directly with temperature
(c) independent of temperature the susceptibility
(a) diamagnetic material
(d) all the above are not true.
(b) ferromagnetic material 43. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic and a hydrogen molecule is
(c) paramagnetic material (a) diamagnetic
(d) anti ferromagnetic material (b) paramagnetic
38. The deflection at the centre of the tangent galvanometer is (c) ferromagnetic
(d) none of these.
(a) directly depending on the tangent of the deflection
44. At Curie temperature
(b) inversely depending on the tangent of the deflection (a) ferromagnetism vanishes and the substance attains paramagnetic
(c) directly depending on sin behavior
(d) all the above are false. (b) ferromagnetism becomes dominant
39. The unit of relative permeability of a medium is (c) ferromagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
(a) henry all the above are true
(b) no unit 45. The magnetic elements of earths magnetic field are
(c) newton (a) dip and magnetic induction
(d) meter/sec. (b) total flux and declination
40. Substances having a net atomic or molecular magnetic dipole (c) horizontal intensity
moment zero (because atoms of several electrons with their orbital (d) horizontal intensity, declination and dip.
and spin magnetic moments adding vectorially to zero) are called 46. The magnetic needle in a tangent galvanometer is short. This is
(a) paramagnetic materials (a) to have the interaction between aluminum needle and magnetic
(b) ferrites needle is small
(c) ferromagnetic materials (b) to have greater interaction between the two
(d) diamagnetic materials. (c) to bring the reading to zero
(d) to have both the poles in the same field due to the current in the
41. Which of the following element is a dia-magnetic one? coil.
(a) mercury 47. If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, the
(b) iron field in the core will be
(a) slightly greater since bismuth is paramagnetic
(c) BaTiO3
(b) remains the same
(d) nickel.
(c) slightly less since bismuth is diamagnetic
42. In paramagnetism
 (d) all the above are untrue. nature
48. The flux density describes the (c) gravitational force is much weaker than electrostatic force
(a) dimension of a magnet (d) all the above are true.
(b) strength of the poles of a magnet 53. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser does not depend upon
(c) distance between the two poles of a magnet (a) area of the plates
(d) none of the above. (b) medium between the plates
49. A magnetic needle when kept in a non- (c) distance between the plates
uniform magnetic field experiences ( d) nature of the material of the plates.
(a) a force but not a torque
54. If a dielectric is placed between the plates, the capacitance
(b) a torque but not a force
(a) decreases
(c) neither a force nor a torque
(b) remains constant
(d) both a force and a torque.
(c) becomes zero
50. When the distance between two charged particles is halved the
(d) increases
coulomb force
55. Asymmetric molecules have permanent dipole moment even in the
between them becomes absence of an external field. This is because
(a) one fourth of the initial force (a) in such molecules the centers of charges coincide
(b) four times the initial force (b) in such molecules the centers of charges do not coincide
(c) double the initial force (c) in some cases they coincide and in other cases they do not
(d) one-half of the initial force. coincide
51. When a charged body is brought near an uncharged conductor on the (d) all the above statements are false.
insulating 56. Which one of the following is a polar molecule
stand, (a)H2O
(a) the nearer end of the conductor acquires the same charge while the (b)H2
farther end opposite charge (c) O2
(b) no charge is induced on the conductor (d) CO2.
(c) the nearer end of the conductor acquires opposite charge and the 57. Potential difference between two points under the field of an electric
farther end the same charge charge is the work done is moving a unit positive charge
(d) none of the above is correct. (a) from to the mid-point of the line joining the points
52. Which one of the following statements is true? (b) from the charge to
(a) electrostatic force obeys inverse square law while gravitational (c) from one point to the other
force does not (d) all the above are false.
(b) both gravitational force and electrostatic force are repulsive in 58. The dipole moment of the water molecule is
 (a) 108 Debye unit (b) is doubled
(b) 8.84 Debye unit (c) increases to five times
(c) Zero Debye unit (d) increases to six times.
(d) 1.84 Debye unit. 64. The e.m.f. of a cell is equal to the potential difference between its
59. The dimensions of potential difference are terminals when it is in the open circuit i.e.,
(a) MLT2 (a) when a current of any value is drawn from the cell
(b) MLT 2 (b) when a current of 2 amp current is drawn from the cell
(c) ML2 (c) when no current is drawn from the cell
(d) ML2T3A1. (d) all the above are true.
60. Charge given to a conductor is 65. Which type of the following sources of energy is required to
(a) directly proportional to the voltage maintain a p.d. in an electric circuit?
(b) inversely proportional to the voltage (a) chemical reactions as in cells
(c) equal to the voltage (b) rotating a coil in a magnetic field
(d) none of these
(c) by converting light energy due to electrical energy
61. Capacitor is a device used
(d) all the above three sources.
(a) to conduct charges
66. The unit of electrical conductivity is
(b) to store charges
(a) ohm meter
(c) to reduce the potential difference
(b) meter/ohm
(d) to reduce the current.
62. Which of the following statements is true? (c) ohm/meter
(d) all the above are wrong.
(a) When capacitors are connected in series, the effective capacitance 67. The resistance R of a conductor depends on
will be greater than the smallest individual capacitance (a) the density of the metal
(b) The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by (b) color of the metal
increasing the separation of the plates (c) molecular weight of the metal
(c) When the condensers are connected in parallel the effective (d) all the above are false.
capacity will be less than the individual capacitance 68. The low temperature coefficient of a material is the one in which
(d) all the above three statements are false. the
resistance
63. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the (a) increases slowly with decrease of temperature
two plates is reduced to one third and the area of the plate doubled, (b) increases slowly with increase of temperature
the capacitance (c) increases with increase of temperature
(a) remains the same (d) increases with decrease of temperature.
69. Kirchhoffs laws are presented as 75. Constantan, nichrome and manganin are used for making standard
(a) I = 1, IR = 0 resistance
(b) IR = 0, I = E because their
(c) I = 0, IR = E (a) resistivity is low
(d) R = 0, I = 0.
(b) density is high
70. The cause for the resistance in the conductor is due to
(c) resistivity is high
(a) vibration of electrons (d) temperature coefficient of resistance is high.
(6) collisions of electrons on atoms 76. A proton is 1849 times heavier than electron. At 300 K, the average
(c) magnitude of the charge of the electron random
(d) none of these. velocity of the electron is
71. The current flowing through a conductor depends on (a) 143 times that of the proton
(a) quantity of charge carriers (b) 123 times that of the proton
(b) charge and voltage (c) 1849 times that of the proton
(c) resistance and voltage (d) 43 times that of the proton.
(d) resistance alone. 77. Though a number of charge carriers in a given volume remains
72. The material having negative temperature coefficient of resistance the same and independent in a metal, the resistivity of a metal
is increases as the temperature increases because
(a) copper
(a) the mobility remains constant
(b) aluminium
(b) the mobility of the electron increases as temperature
(c) silicon increases
(d) water. (c) the mobility of the electron decreases as the temperature
73. A proton is moving perpendicular to a magnetic field increases
(a) gains momentum in opposite direction of motion (d) all the above are false.
(b) the proton did not gain any momentum
78. Which device can convert all electrical energy into heat
(c) the magnetic field will not affect the motion of proton
(a) radiator
(d) the proton bends to an arc of circle. (b) convertor
74. The probability of an electron colliding with an atom is higher if (c) generator
(a) length and radius of the conductor are small (d) resistor.
(b) length is small 79. The resultant flow of a current in the absence of an electric field in
(c) radius is large a
(d) length of the conductor is higher and radius is smaller. conductor is
 (a) minimum (a) 1.52 V
(b) zero (b) 6.2 V
(c) maximum (c)2 V
(d) has a negative value. (d) 11.5 V.
80. The relation connecting the coefficient of thermal conductivity and
85. In a potentiometer set-up a cell of e.m.f. 1.25 volt gives a
electrical conductivity is known as
balance point at 0.35 m length of the wire. If the cell is
(a) Boltzmanns law
replaced by another cell, and the balance point shifts to 0.63
(b) Kirchhoff s law
m; what is the e.m.f. of the
(c) Ohms law
second cell?
(d) Wiedemann-Franz law.
(a) 1.25 V
81. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a
(a) high resistance in series (b) 2.25 V
(b) low resistance in parallel (c) 3.25 V
(c) low resistance in series (d) 4.25 V.
(d) high resistance in parallel. 86. A galvanometer scale is divided into 100 equal divisions and a
current of 2.5 mA required to produce a full scale division. The
82. The principle of a transformer is
current required to produce a deflection of 40 division is
(a) self induction (a) 4 mA
(b) joule heating (b) 3 mA
(c) mutual induction (c) 2 mA
(d) Ohms law. (d) 1 mA.
87. The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of
83. The frequency of the domestic power supply is of the order
intensity 100 kV/m
of
(a) 100 x 102 m/s2
(a) 220 Hz (b) 0.01 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 50 Hz (c) 1.76 x 1016 m/s2
(c) 100 Hz (d) 11.21 x1015 m/s2.
(d) 150 Hz. 88. Current is flowing through a conductor of resistance 10 Q.
84. A storage battery of e.m.f. 8 volt and internal resistance 0.5 Indicate in which of the following cases maximum heat will
be generated
Q is being charged by a 120 volt d.c. supply using a series
(a) 4.9 amp current for 3 minutes
resistor of
(b) 3.9 amp current for 3 minutes
15.5 Q. The terminal voltage of the battery during charging (c) 1.0 amp current for 4 minutes
is (d) 1 amp current for 5 minutes.
 89. The resistance of the shunt to be used to divert 60% of the 94. A steady current is passing through a linear conductor of non-
total current is 200 Q. The resistance of the galvanometer is uniform cross-section. The current density in the conductor is
approximately (a) independent of the area of cross-section
(a)733 a (6) inversely proportional to the area of cross-section
(b)33 Q (c) inversely proportional to the square of the area of cross-
(c)3.3 a section
(d)133 a. (d) all the above are false.
90. A superconductor at superconducting state 95. Two unequal resistances are connected in series across a battery.
(a) requires larger power to carry even small current Which of the following statements is true?
(b) has no thermal losses but has high resistivity (a) potential difference across each resistance is same
(c) has no resistivity and no thermal losses associated with (6) potential difference across smaller resistance is lower
the passage of large current (c) potential difference across smaller resistance is higher
(d) all the above are true. (d) potential difference can be higher or lower in any resistance.
96. The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is
91. Masses of three wires of the same material are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 (a) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
and the (b) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
lengths in the ratio 3:2:1. Electrical resistance of these wires will be
(c) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
in the
(d) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
ratio
(e) is equal to its e.m.f. if the cell is in open circuit.
(a) 27 : 6 : 1
(b) 1 : 27 : 6 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
(c) 1 : 2 : 3
(d) 27 : 54 : 2. 1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of
92. If a metallic rod has no p.d. applied across it, then the mean continuous ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers because of
velocity of free electron is a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
(a) proportional to absolute temperature b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
(b) inversely proportional to T c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators
(c) directly proportional to jf 2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac
(d) directly proportional to T2. amplifier in an atomic absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the
93. A copper wire is subjected to a p.d. of V volt. If the p.d. is doubled following
(a) the drift velocity is doubled a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for
(b) the drift velocity remains the same the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual
(c) the drift velocity is reduced to one fifth of the initial value
photomultiplier tube
(d) the drift velocity is increased to 5 times the initial value.
 c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-
state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not
interfere with the absorbance measurement
3. Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops
that vary the power of the reference beam until it matches the power of
the beam through the sample. This mode of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear
response to radiant power would not be deleterious
5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is
sometimes more sensitive than flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of
ground-state atoms is much greater than the population of
excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more
sensitive than those used to measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power
output than do ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an
emission line because of the Doppler effect.
6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects
provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does
not itself introduce appreciable quantities or interfering
substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of
interfering substances are lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to
swamp out sample variations
7. Fe3+ and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is
colorless , as is Fe3+ itself, at the concentration involved here: the
copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the color of Cu2+
itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration curve below
was obtained when a solution containing both Fe3+ and Cu2+ was
titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of
745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.
A
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a. A is the iron end point.
b. B is the iron end point
c. The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the
quantity of iron
d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like
this unless the quantity of copper in the solution was known
ahead of time
8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the
coefficient, K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materials
 b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase
9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to
a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the
stationary liquid phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is
lost by evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas
10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in
GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components
more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous
column behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity
11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is
a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column
because of their great length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is
very rapid and the C term in the Van Deemter equation is
relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of
the stationary liquid phase than can packed columns and thus
handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention
times primarily because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with
increasing temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase
are stronger at higher temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher
temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a
thermal conductivity cell
13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the
retention volume of a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing
from 5 to 10% by weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column
packing will, with everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way
into the pores of a typical anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one
exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient,
K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
 b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material the sodium form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride
d. the total volume of the column form
19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption? d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed in the hydrogen form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the
from a solution hydroxyl form
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being 23. Line spectra are emitted by
equal a. incandescent solids
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the b. excited molecules
solute c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is 24. Band spectra are emitted by
a. the height of the elution band a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. the area of the elution band b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. the baseline width of the elution band c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. the retention volume d. incandescent solids
21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which 25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of
adsorbent and what solvent system to use for a larger-scale analytical methods based upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional
chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements, an the instrument has
materials formed in side reactions? separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in
a. Paper chromatography the "off" position?
b. Affinity chromatography a. detector power supply
c. TLC b. amplifier
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the
emission side of the instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant
combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best c. acetylene-oxygen
approach employs d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen 27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy
form involves change in the average separation of the nuclei of two or more
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl atoms, then the change is
form a. electronic
b. vibrational
 c. translational b. intermolecular reactions
d. rotational c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon d. all of these
a. Beer's law 34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV
b. Fajar's law spectrophotometers, except:
c. Bouger law's a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
d. Beer Lambert's Law b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited
atoms:
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
visible and UV spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
components could the devices be used interchangeable in both: c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
a. sources of radiant energy d. Nephelopmetry
b. optical system 36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend
c. sample holders on the :
d. detectors a. wavelength of the incident light
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars? b. intensity of the incident light
a. TLC chromatography c. concentration of the substance
b. Polarimetry d. thickness of the sample cell
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry? 37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy,
a. hydrogen arc lamp which of the following statements will be true?
b. glass filter a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
c. barrier layer photocell b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission
d. none of these spectroscopy
32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission
solution is an experimental function of the concentration of absorbing spectroscopy
substance present and the sample path length d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
a. Bouger's Law 38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible
b. Beer's Law absorption spectrophotometry because AAS
c. Lambert's Law a. has no light source
d. Bouger-Beer Law b. does not need a monochromator
33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to c. does not follow Beer's Law
a. instrumental d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector 5. Gaseous mixtures ________________.
b. refractive index detector a. can only contain molecules
c. flame ionization detector b. are all heterogeneous
d. electron capture detector c. can only contain isolated atoms
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on d. are all homogenous
a. carrier gas velocity e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules
b. column temperature 6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
c. volume of compound analyzed a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
d. volatility of compound analyzed b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a
gas ad its volume was ________________.
1. The main component of air is ____________. a. Amadeo Avogadro
a. oxygen b. argon c. carbon dioxide d. b. Lord Kelvin
nitrogen e. methane c. Jacques Charles
2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases. d. Robert Boyle
a. Gases are highly compressible e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
b. These are relatively large distances between molecules 8. Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyles law.
c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting a. PV = constant
gas components b. P = constant
d. All of these V
e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container c. V = constant
3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is that P
______________________. d. V = constant
a. a gas is made up of molecules T
b. a gas assumes the volume of its container e. n = constant
c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds P
d. gases are always mixtures 9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles law.
e. all of these answers are correct a. P = constant
4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at T
room temperature. Which of the following is most likely not a gas at b. V = constant
room temperature? T
a. Cl2 b. HCl c. LiCl d. c. PV = constant
H2 e. CH4 d. V = constant x n
 e. V = constant x P 15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of
10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadros law? a particular sample of an ideal gas will increase or decrease?
a. P = constant a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
T b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
b. V = constant c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
T d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
c. PV = constant e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure
d. V = constant x n 16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers
e. V = constant x P to ____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________. c. 298 K and 1 torr
a. 0C b. -45F c. -273K d. - d. 273 K and 1 pascal
363K e. -273C e. 273 K and 1 torr
17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume,
12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas. temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass
a. V1 = V2 (g).
T1 T2 a. M = dRT
b. V1T1 = V2T2 PV
c. V1 = T1 b. M = gRT
V2 T2 PV
d. V2 = T2 ( V1) c. M = PT
T1 GRV
e. V1 = T1 = 0 d. M = gV
V2 T2 RT
13. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L. e. M = RT
a. 0.08206 b. 62.36 c. 1.00 d. Gv
22.4 e. 14.7 18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume,
14. A gas is considered ideal if ___________. temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass
a. it is not compressible (g).
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and a. d = PM
pressure RT
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C b. d = gRT
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equation PM
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1 c. d = PTM
atm at room temperature gRV
d. d = gV
 RT
e. d = RT
PM
19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of 25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas
effusion at a given temperature. law?
a. NH3 b. CH4 c. Ar d. HBr a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas
e. HCl volume
20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
_________________. c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
a. have no attraction for one another d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly
b. have appreciable molecular volume elastic
c. have a molecular weight of zero e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear
d. have no kinetic energy size
e. has an average molecular mass 26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at
21. The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas the other end of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous
volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure. Is known as: emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. Avogadros law b. Boyles law c. Charles law d. Grahams a. monometry b. ideality c. effusion
law e. Kelvins law d. diffusion e. barometry
22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant: 27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than
a. the pressure stays the same one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing:
b. the molecules move faster a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law c. Grahams law d.
c. the kinetic energy increases van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
d. the molecules move slower 28. Gases tend to behave ideally at
e. none of these answers a. low temperature and low pressure
23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas b. low temperature and high pressure
collected over water is an example: c. high temperature and low pressure
a. Avogadros Hypothesis b. Daltons law c. d. high temperature and high pressure
Grahams law d. van der Waals Theory e. gases always behave ideally
e. ideal gas law 29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have
the lowest density at standard temperature and pressure?
24. The energy of molecules of a gas: a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d.
a. is dependent on concentration N2 e. Kr
b. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature 30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature a. CH4 b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2
d. increases with a decrease in temperature e. He
e. increases with an increase in pressure
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be 37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given
made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of temperature, the following conditions could exist:
liquid known as: (I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension vapor
d. triple point e. viscosity (II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called: (III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to
a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity d. liquid), proceed at equal rates
viscosity e. wetability (IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
33. A liquid will wet a surface if: Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface a. I b. II and III c. I, II, and III
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak d. II and IV e. none of these combination
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure 38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater liquid?
than the forces between the molecules of the liquid a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus
e. none of these answers disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion
temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are
identical
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid
state is true? form its vapor by increasing pressure
a. Cohesive forces are not important 39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container If the volume of the container is decreased, which of the following has
c. The molecules have no motion occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher
arrangement c. the pressure is higher
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together d. the pressure is lower e. none of these
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the 40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the
external pressure is called the : temperature of the liquid equals:
a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. sublimation point e. thermal point d. the vaporization point e. none of these
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at
the:
a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point 41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
d. critical point e. absolute point
 a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
gas phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules from the e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
gas phase pass into the liquid phase 47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
container b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
of liquid d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase 48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed
because the amount of liquid in the container is constant macroscopic properties of crystals EXCEPT
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly
vapor will be left repeating pattern
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur? b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy essentially every atom except at the surface
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary
surface area greatly
c. high molecular energy, small surface area d. Some defects are present in the crystals
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area 49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass cell?
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization? a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
a. closing container lid b. increasing forces between b. The face centered cubic lattice
molecules c. increasing mass of molecule c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling 50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure
point of a liquid? EXCEPT
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
c. rate of evaporation b. All lattice points have identical environments
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
allowed to escape, what is the immediate result? 51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest
c. condensation rate increases packed lattice
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a closest packed lattice
metastable: c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point have identical fractions of space which are occupied by atoms
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point sample considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date 57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid
necessary to determine the atomic mass of a metal? state?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the metal a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal and the length of the b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt
unit cell edge molecules
c. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure
unit cell edge and the type of lattice includes no electrostatic repulsions
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within
cell edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius of the metal the structure but the total of the attractions is greater
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of 58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
metals form crystallographic data? a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure normally empty hole
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the charge which are missing
radius is an average c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1
d. The atoms in the structure are touching anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not
bearing the expected charge
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons 59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the
and the number of nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal? conductivity of metals?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are
nearest neighbors high
b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are
nearest neighbors high
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest 60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
neighbors a. AIS and P b. GeAs and Se c. GeAs and GaSe
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or d. Al and SiP
equal to the number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of
metals EXCEPT 61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable c. Metals are element?
ductile d. Metals break easily when they are bent a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d.
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity? the chemical and physical properties
a. The metal atoms are close together 62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures the dark because
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
 c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three a. amorphousb. crystalline c. glasses d. metals
dimensions e. none of these
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic
solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction
doped semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) pattern contains many sharply defined spots. The specimen is
with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous
of the following statements is TRUE? d. plastic e. liquid
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap 69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number pattern contains three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The
of thermally generated electrons is higher specimen is
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous
combines with an electron from the P region d. polycrystalline e. colloidal
d. Both (a) and (c) 70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
should be incorporated into the lattice? b. absorption by transition metal complexes
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, visible region
EXCEPT d. radioactivity
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice e. none of these
versa 71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the equilateral triangle?
same a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of plane d. all of these e. none of these
Na and Cl are known, then the density can be calculated 72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have crystal system
different ionin radii a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are d. triclinic e. monoclinic
true, EXCEPT 73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band fold rotation is
gap is quite large a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in d. triclinic e. trigonal
only two dimensions 74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp 3 ________.
hybridization a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that 2 4 4
have the same environment in the same orientation is called the d. This cannot be determined without additional information
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system e. none of these
d. crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern 84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the solid are
a. unit cell b. atom c. molecule a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds
d. atomic cluster e. symmetry pattern d. all of these e. none of these
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is 85. Molecular crystals typically
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are
e. this depends on the crystal system insulators d. all of these e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
d. tetragonal e. monoclinic
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the 87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions,
_________ unit cell. with cations occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. hexagonal e. trigonal d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe 88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________
the _______ unit cell equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
e. trigonal e. none of these
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic
lattice is 89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 structure?
e. 8 a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ e. MgO
lattice points to the unit cell 90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1 a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1
e. none of these e. 2
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in 91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. 12
e. none of these 92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the point. The substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This
following correctly relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length substance is most likely _____ in nature.
of an edge a of the unit cell? a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic
a. r = a b. r = a2 c. r = a3 e. it could be more than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core 103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular
ions d. electrons e. atomic clusters position in the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
94. The metal with the highest melting point is a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. d. site defect e. berthollide
W 104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
as close together as possible is called a ____ arrangement. b. formation of an F-center
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
e. nematic d. all of these
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres e. none of these
is 105. In a plastic crystal,
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
all of these e. none of these b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination c. the molecules are rod-like
number of d. all of these
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. none of these
e. 12 106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other a. initial concentration of reactants
carbon atoms b. extent of reaction
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 c. temperature
e. 8 d. time of reaction
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is 107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 reaction?
tetrahedral a. Concentration of reactants
d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings b. Nature of reactants
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom c. Molecularity of the reaction
bonded to three others? d. Temperature
a. As b. Bi c. N d. P 108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
e. Sb a. the temperature dependence of the rate
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure? b. the rate law
a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur c. the net equation
d. red phosphorous e. all of these d. the activation energy
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure? 109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by
a. sulfur b. white tin c. a. raising the temperature
red phosphorous d. sodium e. gray b. lowering the temperature
tin c. removing the products of the reaction
 d. adding a catalyst c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the
temperature products
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants 117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations b. many body collisions have low probability
d. is not characteristic of the reaction c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours,
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the and is dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate
hypothetical reaction and its rate law constant is
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g) a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2 -1
c. (ln2/5.7) hr -1
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a 119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the
factor of reactant, the reaction is of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9 a. zero order b. first order
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by c. second order d. third order
a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9 120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its a. Drapper b. Einstein
original volume the rate will increase by a factor of c. Grotthus d. Lambert
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by a. its amplitude b. its frequency
a. decreasing the concentration of D c. its wave length d. none of the above
b. increasing the concentration of A 122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a
c. increasing the concentration of C chemical reaction?
d. increasing the temperature a. Chemical luminescence
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of b. Photosensitization
the reaction? c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5 d. None of the above
c. Doubled d. Tripled 123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase a. IR and Visible region
in temperature on the rate of the reaction? b. Visible region only
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary c. IR and micro wave region
activation of energy d. UV and visible region
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation 124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
energy a. compounds having hydrogen
 b. compounds having carbons 132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from
c. free radicals Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
d. ionic compounds a. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103
21
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the c. 9.47 x 10 d. 1.91 x 1025
reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.? 133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz) oxidation-reduction equation is
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5 a. electrons need not be balanced
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0 b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2 c. charges are not balanced
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent d. atoms need not be balanced
upon 134. In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. pressure b. temperature a. is always made of copper
c. concentration d. catalyst b. is always made of zinc
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode? c. may be made of an inert metal
a. A stick b. A nail d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
c. A glass rod d. A soda straw 135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M a. Ag+ b. Cu++
is c. Cl2 d. Zn++
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V 136. Not all galvanic cells contain
c. 0.059V d. 0.030V a. a cathode b. an anode
129. A good reducing agent c. a porous partition d. ions
a. will always react rapidly 137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
b. has a negative oxidation potential a. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cell
c. is readily oxidized c. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell
d. shows a negative oxidation number 138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1
hour. The loss of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g
130. A Faraday of electricity is c. 0.197g d. 11.8g
a. one ampere per second 139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m
b. 96,500 coulombs per second concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges b. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode 140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH -
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
 c. 5.00 x 10-2mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole 148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an
141. As the lead storage battery is charged, order is known as:
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases a. electrical conductivity series
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate b. electrode potential series
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated c. electrochemical series
d. lead dioxide dissolves d. chemical affinity series
142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes)
one would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode 149. In a salt-bridge KCl is used because
b. oxygen liberated at the anode a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline b. KCl is an electrolyte
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference number
143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
the cathode is 150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a
a. Na b. H+ strip of copper is dipped in each.. which solution finally turns blue?
-
c. OH d. Cl2 a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00
c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2
ampere, the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml 151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an
electrolyte, positive ions move towards the cathode and negative ions
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml
towards the anode. What will happen if the cathode is pulled out of
145. As a lead storage battery is discharged solution?
a. water is used up a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative
b. lead is formed ions will stop moving
c. lead sulfate is consumed b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the
d. sulfuric acid is consumed positive ions will stop moving
146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction will be: d. None of these movements will take place
a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+ 152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn +2 (IM) ll Cu+2
(IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++ d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
potentials and the variation of electrode potential with concentration? c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed
c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
in series containing solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The
 amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the
deposited will be: metallic electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be
Silver Nickel +ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:
Chromium
a. +ve for half cell (I)
a. 108g 29.5g b. +ve for half cell (ii)
17.5g c. ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue
b. 108g 59g
color of the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
52.0g
a. reduction of Cu++
c. 108g 108g b. oxidation of CuSO4
108g c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
d. 108g 117.5g
157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
166g
a. sodium b. lead
154. Given standard electrode potentials
c. copper d. gold
E
158. The mathematical statement of Gibbs phase rule is
Fe++ + 2e Fe -0.440V
a. F = C-P+2 b. C = F-P+2
Fe+++ + 3e Fe -0.036V
c. C = F-P+1 d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts
of the heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called
a. phases b. components
c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above
The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e Fe++ is 160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous
a. 0.476V mixture of carbon dioxide and nitrogen?
b. 0.404V a. 0 b. 1
c. +0.404V
d. +0.771V c. 2 d. 3
155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given 161. How many phases are present in the water system?
(i) CO2+ + 2e Co 0.28V
a. 0 b. 1
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg 0.78V
c. 2 d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and 2. The sum of the squares of two numbers is 58 and the difference of their
methyl alcohol? squares is 40. Find the larger no.
a. 3 b. 1
a. 7 b. -7 c. 3 d. 3
c. 1 d. 0 3. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when
divided by 4, 6 and 8.
163. How many components are necessary to define the following
a. 98 b. 50 c. 26 d. 74
equilibrium?
4. The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of
their reciprocals.
CaCO3 CaO + CO2 a. b. c. 2 d. 4
Solid solid gas
5. A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the
a. 0 b. 1 original number and the number resulting from an
interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
c. 2 d. 3 a. 45 b. 54 c. 28 d. 82
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is
6. A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units
a. 0 b. 1 digit. If the number with the digits reversed is
c. 2 d. 3 subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the
sum of the digits. Find the original number.
165. The incongruent melting point is so called a. 84 b. 48 c. 26 d. 62
a. peritectic temperature 7. A fathers age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years
b. meritectic temperature from now, the old mans age will be only three times that
c. transition temperature of his son. Find the sons present age.
d. all of the above a. 12 b. 30 c. 6 d. 36

8. A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the

ALGEBRA mother will be four times as old as the daughter was, two
years ago. How old is the daughter?
a. 36 b. 12 c. 20 d. 60
1. The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30.
Find the smaller number.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
9. If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm,
the area would increase by 19 cm2. If the altitude is 15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in
increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be a matter of 11 hrs. If for the first 4 hrs, the drain was
decreased by 5 cm2. Find the base of the triangle. left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have
a. 7 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8 taken the input pipe to fill the tank full if the tank was
emptied at the start?
10. A rectangular piece of cardboard has an area of 150 cm2. By a cutting a a. 5.5 hrs b. 7.6 hrs c. 15.2 hrs d. 6.12 hrs
square 2 cm wide on each side from each of the
corners and folding up the sides, an open box is formed having a 16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of
volume of 132 mL. Find the length of the original a short distance of 45 km, takes an hour and 12
cardboard. minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it.
a. 8 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15 What was the rate of the current?
a. 0.44 kph b. 225 kph c. 20.5 kph d. 5 kph
11. How soon after three oclock will the hands of a clock be together?
a. 3:16:22 b. 3:15:00 c. 16:22 d. 15:00
17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the
12. At what time between 6 and 7` oclock are the hands of a clock group. If the number of men is reduced by 4, the work is
coincident? delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
a. 6:30 b. 6:32.73 c. 6:32.5 d. 6:35 a. 18 b. 16 c. 20 d.
13. One pipe alone can fill a tub in 12 minutes. Another pipe can fill it in 24
only 8 minutes. How long would it take both pipes to fill
the tub? 18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the
a. 4.7 mins b. 20.0 mins c. 4.8 mins d. 4.9 mins same project in 6 days. How long will it take for 3 boys and 6
14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary girls to do the job?
in 12 hrs. How long would it take the pipe to fill the a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6
tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the days d. 8 days
filling job and if the tank were entirely emptied at the
start?
a. 7.6 hrs b. 8.6 hrs c. 4.42 hrs d. 4.06 hrs
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the
numbers is 100. Find the product of the two numbers.
a. 42 b. 48 c. 54
d. 56

20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the

ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the biggest amount received by a
 brother? 25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination
a. 54 b. 63 c. 72 6 hours. If he increased his speed by 24kph, he would
d. 75 have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his
destination.
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is a. 750 km b. 720 km c. 650 km d.
25% gasoline. How much gasoline should be added to the 600 km
solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L b. 75 L c. 40 L d. 26. Find the value of x if : (a + b)x = (a2 + 2ab + b2 ) x-3
60 L a. 4 b. 6 c. 8
d. 10
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol,
the alcohol comprising 25%. How much of the mixture 27. Find the value of x2 + 1/x2 if : x + 1/x = 7
should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank a. 45 b. 47 c. 49
contains a mixture of 50-50% solution? d. 51
a. 14.5 L b. 15 L c. 16 L d.
16.67 L 28. Find the value of x if : Log x = ln (2x)
a. 0.254 b. 0.294 c. 0.354 d.
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the 0.394
greater part is divided by the smaller part, the quotient is 3 and
remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110 b. 112 c. 114 d. 29. Simplify : 7a+2 8(7a+1) + 5(7a) + 49(7a-2)
a. 5a b. 3 c. 7a d. 7a
116
30. If 33y=1, what is the value of y/33?
24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same a. 0 b. 1 c. undefined d. infinity
time from two airports located 4800 km apart. If they passed
each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster 31. Which of the following is true?
plane if one plane is flying at 160 kph faster than the other. a. 2 X 2 = 2 b. 24 = 4( 6 )
a. 1280 b. 1300 c. 1320 c. 10 = 5 + 2 d. 55+ 55 + 55 + 55 + 55 = 56
d. 1350
32. Find k so that 4x2 + kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution. 40. Find a quadratic equation whose roots are 2- 5 and 2 + 5.
a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 a. x2 4x + 1 = 0 b. x2 + 4x + 1 = 0
2
c. x 4x 1 = 0 d. x2 + 4x-1 = 0
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the
sum of the first 50 positive even integers, then the 41. Find the 6th term of the expansion of (1/2a 3)16.
difference is a. 22113 256a11 b. 66339128a11
a. 100 b. 50 c. 150 d. 250
c. 22113 d. 66339
th
128a11 256a11
34. Find the 347 digit in the decimal expansion of 825/999.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 8 d. 2 42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x 1)20?
a. 1 b. 0 c. 215 d. 225
35. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . .
a. 2/3 b. 4/3 c. 1.312 d. none of the above
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of 1
6

2x2

4 y

36. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . .
a. 5 x
6 6
a. 2/3 b. 4/3 c. 1.312 d. none of the above b. 5 x
3
2 y y3

d. 5 x
37. A tank full of alcohol is emptied one-sixth of its content and then filled c. 5 x
6 6

8 y 3
up with water and mixed. If this is done six times and 4 y3
the tank has a capacity of 6 liters, how much alcohol remains?
a. 3 liters b. 2 liters c. 1 liter d. 0 liter
44. In the complex number 3 + 4i, the absolute value is
38. Solve for x in the equation x x x ... 3 a. 10.0 b. 7.2 c. 5.0 d. 5.7
a. 6 b. 3 c. 3 d. 3 3 45. Simplify : i1997 + i1999

a. 1 + I b. I c. 1 I d. 0
39. Evaluate log6 3
a. 0.61 b. 0.08 c. 216 d. 729
46. Evaluate : 10 7
. imaginary b. 70 c. 10 d. 70

47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16,
25) is called
a. Fourier series b. Fermats number
c. Eulers number d. Fibonacci number
48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as TRIGONOMETRY
a. trivial solutions c. conditional solutions
b. extraneous solutions d. hypergolic solutions 1. Add : 273452 + 322518
a. 60010 b. 595970 c. 60100 d. 5910
49. Infinity minus infinity is
a. Infinity b. 0 c. Indeterminate d. 1 2. Solve for x if tan 3x = 5 tan x
a. 15.705 b. 20.705 c. 35.705 d. 30.705
50. The logarithm of 1 is
a. 0 b. 1 c. data insufficient d. 3. Solve for x : tan-1 (x+1) + tan-1 (x-1) = tan-1 (12)
51. The polynomial x3+4x23x+8 is divided by x-1, then the remainder is
a. 1.50 b. 1.20 c. 1.25 d. 1.33
a. 10 b. 14 c. 5 d. 7
4. If sin A = 2/5, what is the value of 1 cos A?
4
52. Which of the following is not a factor of 2x +11x +16x +x-6=0? 3 2
a. 0.08 b. 0.92 c. 0.40 d. 0.61
a. 1 b. 2 c. -3 d.
5. Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is 62
53. Given 3 X 3 matrix,
1 -2 3
. Find its determinant. a. 28 b. 118 c. 152 d. 35
-1 2 2
0 1 3 6. For what value of (less than 2) will the following equation be
a. 0 b. 2 c. -1 d. 5 satisfied? sin2 + 4sin + 3 = 0
a. b. /4 c. 3/2 d. /2
54. Determine the value of y:
2x + y 3z = 3 7. If sin - cos = -1/3, what is the value of sin 2?
x + y 2z = 1 a. 1/3 b. 1/9 c. 8/9 d. 4/9
xyz=4
8. Given : cos3 - 2cos2 + cos = 0. Find
a. - 2 b. 4 c. 1 d. 0 a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 30

9. Find the minimum positive value of 5 3 sin A

3 5 cos B
a. 5/8 b. c. 1 d. 5/3
10. If cos 0, then sec - sin tan =?
a. sin b. cos c. tan d. 1
 21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of
11. sinA sin3A + cosA cos3A = ? the sun is 61o. If the pole has lean 15o from the vertical
a. cos2A b. sin2A c. cos4A d. sin4A directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
a. 54.23 b. 48.64 c. 36.84 d.
12. If tan x = , tan y = 1/3, what is the value of tan (x+y)? 64.84
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included
13. Simplify: 2 tan 2
1 tan2 2 angle of 30o between the two equal sides. Find the perimeter
of the triangle.
a. cos b. sec c. sin d. tan
a. 30.21 b. 32.12 c. 28.43
14. Given: sin A = 3/5; cos A < 0 and cos B = -12
/13; tan B < 0, determine d. 29.65
cos (A-B)
a. 123/845 b. 123/845 c. 33/65 d. 63/65 23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius
10-cm, determine the side of the triangle.
15. Simplify cos (30-) cos (30+) as a function of only a. 34.64 b. 64.12 c. 36.44
a. cos b. sec c. tan d. sin d. 32.1
16. Express sin 145 in terms of a function of a positive acute angle
a. cos 35 b. sin 35 c. cos 55 d. cos -55 24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed
in a circle of radius 243 inches.
17. If sin 4x = cos (40 + x), solve for x a.143 b.154 c.165 d.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 186

18. cos (A+B) cos A + sin (A+B) sin A 25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43
a. sin B b. cos B c. sin A d. cos A cm, the acute angle between them being 65.
a. 1305 b. 1611 c. 1805 d.
19. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
2611
a. 7.39 b. 3.79 c. 3.97 d. 9.37

20. Find the value of sin (arc cos 15/17).

26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25
a. 8/9 b. 8/21 c. 17/9 d. 8/17 PM.
a. 0.73 b. 0.83 c. 0.93 d.
1.0
 32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the is 28 and the angle of elevation of the top of tower A
ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is 810 cu cm, what is the length of from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same
horizontal plane. If the height of tower B is 120 m, find
the longest side? the height of tower A.
a. 6 b. 9 c. 15 d. a. 87 m b. 91 m c. 79 m d. 66 m
18

28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are

melted and formed into a new sphere. Find the radius of this new 33. Express 18 in mils
sphere. a. 220 mils b. 320 mils c. 330 mils d. 400 mils
a. 3.3 b. 4.3 c. 5 d. 6
34. A circle is divided into two parts by a chord 3 cm away from the
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches center. Find the area of the smaller part, in square cm, if the
respectively. If the angles at the extremities of one base are 65 circle has an area of 201 cm2.
a. 372.5 b. 363.6 c. 368.4 d. 53.7
and 40 respectively, find the longer leg.
a. 5.63 b. 6.23 c. 7.21 d. 35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the
7.81 radius of a circle which is tangent to the shortest and
longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for a. 9 cm b. 12 cm c. 11 cm d. 18 cm
which A = 50, B = 20, and a = 35 inches. 36. If a steel ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder, it displaces
a. 22.84 b. 25.64 c. 31.25 water to a depth of 2.25 cm. The radius of the ball is
d. 36.55 a. 6 cm b. 3 cm c. 2 cm d. 4 cm
31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15 37. Each interior angle of a regular nonagon is equal to
ft high. On the other side of the road, at a point on the a. 140 b. 144 c. 135 d. 150
ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal
angles. Find the width of the road. 38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?
a. 25 ft b. 40 ft c. 60 ft d. 30 ft a. 28 b. 25 c. 32 d. 30
 7. Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5 b. 5.4 c. 5.8 d. 6.2
39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160 b. 45, 135 c. 55, 125 d. 50, 130 8. Find the acute angle formed by the lines 2x + y 8 = 0 and x +
3y + 4 = 0.
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm.
Find the length of its shortest side. a. 30o b. 35o c. 45o d.
a. 16 b. 24 c. 18 d. 27 60 o

9. If the points (-2, 3) , (x,y) and (-3, 5) lie on the straight line, then
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY the equation of the line is _____.
1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3).
a. x + 2y 1 = 0 b. 2x + y 1 = 0
a. 10 b. 9.5 c. 10.5 d. 9 c. x + 2y + 1 = 0 d. 2x + y + 1 = 0

2. A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the
triangle is reduced by 10. Two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2, 3) and the area is 2
a. 36% b. 20% c. 18% d. 40% square units, the locus of the third vertex is
a. x 4y = -10 b. x 4y = -18
3. A spherical balloon is being inflated so that the surface increases by
20%, then the volume of the sphere increases by
c. none of the above d. both a and b
a. 20% b. 30% c. 31.5% d. 31.45%
11. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x 3y + 6 = 0 forms
4. The midpoint of the line segment between P 1(x1,y1) and P2(-2,4) is with the coordinate axis.
Pm(2, -1). Find the coordinate of P1 a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d.
a. (6,-5) b. (5,-6) c. (6,-6) d. (-6,6) 5

5. If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the 12. The intercepts of a straight line on the x and y axes are 4 and
value of y? 6, respectively. Find its equation.
a. 5 b. 19 c. 19 or 5 d. 5 or 19 a. 3x + 2y = 12 b. 2x + 3y = 12 c. 3x 2y =
12 d. 2x 3y = 12
6. The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line
segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
a. 8 b. 8 c. 3 d. 3 13. What is the distance between the center of the circles X2 + Y2
+ 2X + 4Y 3 = 0 and X2 + Y2 - 8X - 6Y + 7 = 0 ?
 a. 7.07 b. 7.77 c. 8.07 19. Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and
d. 8.77 the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos b. r = 3sin c. r = 6cos d. r
14. Find the radical axis of the circle x2 + y2 + 8x 6y = 0 and the = 6sin
circle x2 + y2 -12x 16y + 20 = 0.
a. 2x + y = 2 b. 2x y = 2 c. x + 2y = 2 d. x 20. Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
2y = 2 a. 74.8 b. 4.5 c. 47.8 d. 77.5

15. Find the eccentricity of the curve: 9X2 - 4Y2 - 36X + 8Y = 21. Find the length of the chord common to the circles x2+y2=64 and
2 2
x +y -16x=0
4.
a. 1.76 b. 1.80 c. 1.86 a. 14 b. 13 c. 12 d. 11
d. 1.92 22. Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the
line 4x+3y-8=0
16. The moons orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The a. 6 b. 9 c. 3 d. 12
length of the major axis is 478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to 23. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2= - 12y
the moon in miles. a. 12 b. 3 c. 12 d. 3
a. 239,000 b. 225,855 c. 210,755 d.
190,255 24. Find the equation of the axis of symmetry of the function y = 2x 2
7x+5.
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining a. 4x+7=0 b. x-2=0 c. 4x-7=0 d. 7x+4=0
the points A (4, 1, 8) and B (6, -3, 4).
25. Find the length of the latus rectum of the following ellipse:
a. (5, -1, 6) b. (10, -2, 12) c. (-2, 4, 4) d. 25x2+9y2-300x-144y+1251=0
(0, 0, 0) a. 3.4 b. 3.2 c. 3.6 d. 3.0
18. Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers 26. The eccentricity of the ellipse x2/4 + y2/16 = 1 is
are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2). a. 0.725 b. 0.256 c. 0.689 d. 0.866
a. 300 b. 400 c. 450
d. 60 0
27. Find the eccentricity of the curve 9x2 16y2 = 144 2. Find lim x3 2x 9
a. 0.6 b. 0.8 c. 1.25 d. 5/3 x 2x 8
3

a. 0 b. 2 c. d.
28. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 4x 2 + 25y2 = 50
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15 x
3. Find lim 2 x tan 2
x 1
a. e2 b. e2/ c. 0 d.
2 2
29. What is the equation of the asymptote of the hyperbola x y 1 ?
9 4
a. 2x-3y=0 b. 3x-2y=0 c. 2x-y=0 d. 2x+y=0
4. Find Limx ( 7 x3 ) / (4 x3 - 2x + 10 )
30. An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The a. 0 b. 1.75 c. indeterminate
length of a horizontal beam placed across the arch 8m d. infinity
from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom.
a. 86m b. 96m c. 106m d. 76m 5. Find Limx 0 ( 1 ex ) / x
a. -1 b. 1 c. -2
31. The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed
d. 2
points is
a. ellipse b. parabola c. line d. circle
6. Find Limx 0 sin 3x / x
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x2 4y2 + (k+1)x + k2 a. 0 b. 1/3 c. 1
= 0 represents two intersecting lines. d. 3
a. k =1 b. k = 0 c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3 7. Find the derivative of y if x2 + y2 = 1.
a. x/y b. x/y c. y-3
d. y-3
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
8. Find the derivative of y if xy + y2 = 1.
1. Find lim 3 x 1 a. y / (x + y) b. y / (x + y) c. y / (x + 2y)
x2 x2 d. y /(x + 2y)
a. 0 b. 1 c. d.
infinite 9. Find the derivative of y = ex cos x2
a. ex sin x2 b. ex (cos x2 2x sin x2 ) c. ex cos x2
2x sin x2 d. 2x ex sin x
 a. 0 b. 1 c. 2
d. 3
10. Find the partial derivatives with respect to x of the function xy2
5y +6. 16. If x + y = 6, find the maximum value of xy2
a. y2 5 b. y2 c. xy 5y a. 32 b. 30 c. 36 d. 40
d. 2xy
sin x , then f (x) = ?
11. The length of a rectangle of constant area 800 q cm is increasing 17. If f(x) =
1 cos x
at a rate of 4 cm per second. What is the width of the
a. 1 b. 1 c. 1 + cos x
rectangle at the moment the width is decreasing at a rate of 0.5 1 cos x 1 cos x
cm per second?
a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm 18. If xy = 6, find the minimum value of 2x + 3y
d. 40 cm a. 12 b. 10 c. 9 d. 15

12. A particle moves around a curve y = x2 + 2x. At what point on the 19. Find a point on the curve y = e2x whose tangent line is perpendicular to
curve are the x and y coordinates of the particles changing the line x + 4y-8 = 0
at the same rate? a. (0,1) b. (ln 2 , 2) c. (ln2, 4)
a. (1, 3) b. (0, 0) c. (-1/2, -3/4)
20. Find the derivative of y = xx
d. (-1, -1)
a. xx b. xx (lnx) c. xx( l + lnx ) d. non
above
13. Find the slope- intercept equation of the normal line to the graph
y = x3 x2 at the point where x=1. 21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse,
a. y = x + 1 b. y = -x + 1 c. y = x 1 4x2 + 9y2 = 36
d. y = -x 1 a. 12 b. 24 c. 6 d. 48

14. Find the point on the graph of y = x2 at which the tangent line is 22. A balloon leaving the ground 18m from the observer rises 3m/sec. How
parallel to the line y = 6x-1. fast is the angle of elevation of the line of sight
a. (0,0) b. (1,1) c. (2,4) increasing after 8 sec?
d. (3,9) a. 0.12 rad/s b. 0.08 rad/s c. 0.03 rad/s d. 0.06
rad/s
15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x2 xy + y2 = 3, find the slope of the
tangent line.
23. A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in2 by cutting equal
squares from each corner and turning up the zinc to 32. Which of the following functions will have an inflection point?
form the side. What is the maximum volume (cubic inch) of the box a. y = x4 b. y = x3 c. y = x2 d. y =
that can be constructed?
a. 600 b. 593 c. 580 d. 622
33. Find C so that the line y = 4x + 3 is tangent to the curve y = x 2 + C
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7
of 3.75 cm across the top. If the rate at which the
water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m3/sec) into the
conical vessel when the water is 4 cm deep? INTEGRAL CALCULUS
a. 6.28 b. 2.37 c. 4.57 d. 5.73
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is
1. Find the (x + 1) (x 1) dx
d. unitya. x + x + C b. x2 x + C c.
2
a. zero b. negative c. positive
0.33 x3 + x + C d. 0.33 x3 x + C

26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f (x) = - f(x). Determine the function 2. Find the x x dx
a. logarithmic c. transcendental a. 2/5 x5/2 + C b. 5/2 x5/2 + C c.
b. exponential1 d. sinusoidal 2 x1/2 + C d. x1/2 + C
27. At the maximum point, the value of f (x) is
unity the (5 x + 1) dx / x
3. d.Find 2
a. negative b. positive c. zero
a. 2 x + 2 x1/2 + C
5/2 b. 2 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
28. The function, f ( x ) x 2 is discontinuous at c. 5 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C d. 5 x5/2 2 x1/2
x 2 2x 3 +C
a. x = -1, 3 b. x = 1, -3 c. x = 1, -2 d. x = -1, 2
4. Find the 5sin 4 x cos x dx
29. Find the slope of the line tangent to y = -4/x at x=2
a. sin 4 x cos2 x + C b. 5 sin 4 x cos2 x + C c. 5 sin
a. 1 b. 0 c. 1 d.52
x+C d. sin x + C
5

30. Find the 3rd derivative of y= x ln x

a. 1/x b. 1/x2 c. 1/x3 5. d. Find
1 the dx / ( 1 + sin x)
a. tan x + sec x +C b. tan x sec x +C
31. The graph of y = x5 x will cross the x-axis c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2 + C d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C
a. twice b. thrice c. 4 times d. 5 times
6. Find the ( 1 sin x)1/2 dx 13. Find the 6dx / ( x2 + 9)
a. tan x + sec x +C b. tan x sec x +C a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C c. 2
c. 2 (1 sin x )1/2 + C d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C arctan x/3 + C d. 6 arctan x/3 + C

7. Find the cot x dx 14. What is the integral of x (x+1)8 dx if the lower limit is zero and the
a. ln sin x + C b. ln sin x + C c. upper limit is 1.
ln cos x + C d. ln cos x + C a. 22.76 b. 34.76
c. 45.52 d. 54.52
8. Find the x sin x dx
a. x cos x + sin x + C b. x cos x sin x + C c. x 15. What is the integral of x3 dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and
cos x + sin x + C d. none of these the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14 b. 0.28 c. 0.34
d. 0.38

16. What is the integral of x e 3x dx if the lower limit is zero and the
9. Find the ln x dx / x upper limit is 1.
a. ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. x ln x a. 1.57 b. 2.57 c.
x + C d. ln 2 x + C 3.57 d. 4.57

10. Find the ln x dx 17. What is the integral of dx / (x2 -9) if the lower limit is 4 and the
a. ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. upper limit is 5.
x ln x x + C d. ln 2 x + C a. 0.093 b. 0.193
c. 0.293 d. 0.393
11. Find the (2x + 2)dx / ( x + 2)
a. 2x 2ln( x + 2 ) +C b. 2x + 2ln( x + 2 ) +C c. 18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x3 , the x-axis , and
2x ln( x + 2 ) +C d. 2x + ln( x + 2 ) +C the line x = -2 and x= 1.
a. 2.45 b. 4.25 c.
12. Find the 6dx / ( x2 9) 5.24 d. 5.42
a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C c. 2
arctan x/3 + C d. 6 arctan x/3 + C 19. Find the area bounded by y = ex , x = 0 and y = 0.
 a. 1 b. 2 c. e

6
26. Evaluate cos 8 3 A dA
d. infinity 0

a. 35/768 b. 45/786 c. 125/768

20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y2 = x3 from x =
27. Find the area of the region bounded by the lines x = y, x = 2 ; y = 1/x 2
0 to x = 1.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
a. 1.2 b. 1.44 c. 1.64
d. 1.84 28. Determine the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by
the line 2x+y-4=0 about the y-axis
a. 16/3 b. 4/3 c. 2/3
x
21. If sin2ycos2ydx = 1 4 , then x is equal to

0

a. /2 b. /6 c. /3 d. /4 volume
29. Find the
y2=4x, about the
generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and
x-axis from x=1 and x=4.
xdx a. b. 2 c. 3
22. T o integrate
1+ x , by the u-substitution method, let u
4
2
a. 1+x2 b. x2 c. 1+x4 30. Thed.areax4 bounded by the curve y =12x and the line x=3 is revolved
about the line x=3. What is the volume generated?
2 a. 186 b. 179 c. 181
23. Evaluate
0
4 x 2 dx
a. 4 b. 2 c. d. 3
STATISTICS

3x
2 1. In how many different ways can a ten-question true-
24. Evaluate 2
4 x 5 dx false examination be answered?
1

a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3a. 12 b. 10
c. 20 d. 210
2. A team of 5 students is to be chosen for a math contest. If there were
ten male and eight female students to choose from,
1

25. Evaluate xe x dx ? what is the probability that three team members will be male and two
0 will be female?
a. 1 b. e c. e1 d. e+1
a. 5/18 b. 20/51 c. 5/9
3. In how many ways can seven trees be planted in a circle 9. How many ways can 4 boys and 4 girls be seated alternatively in
a. 720 b. 5040 c. 1440 d. eight
the row of 49 chairs?
a. 40320 b. 24
4. What is the number of permutation of the letters in the word c. 48 d. 1152
banana?
a. 36 b. 60 c. 52
d. 42
10. In how many different ways can 4 persons be seated in
5. In a mathematics examination, a student may select 15 problems consecutive seats in a row of 7 seats?
from a set of 20 problems. In how many ways can he a. 72 b. 96 c.
makes his choice? 120 d. 168
a. 3,000 b. 15,504
c. 1,860,480 d. 2.027 x 1016 11. How many different committees of 6 can be formed from 12 boys
and 20 girls if each committee is consisting of 4 boys and
6. There are 10 basketball teams in NCAA. If each team plays every 2 girls?
team twice, how many games are played? a. 34,560 b. 69,120
a. 45 b. 90 c. c. 94,050 d. 4,514,450
180 d. 120
12. How many different signals each consisting of 6 flags hung in a
7. How many different three-digit numbers greater than 300 can be vertical can be formed from 4 identical red flag and 2
formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if no repetitions are identical yellow flag?
allowed? a. 720 b. 24 c. 15
a. 3,125 b. 1,875 d. 12
c. 120 d. 36
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1,
8. In how many different ways can 5 persons be seated in an 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if repetition is allowed?
automobile having places for 2 in the front seat and 3 in the back a. 4,536 b. 10,000
seat if only 3 can drive? c. 5040 d. 9,000
a. 30 b. 60 c. 36
d. 72 14. Which of the following can not be a probability value?
 a. (0.99)2 b. 13/12 20. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a heart in a
c. 8/10 d. 0.01 single draw from a deck of 52 playing cards?
a. 17/52 b. 4/13
15. If A and B are complimentary events and probability of c.9/26 d. 15/52
occurrence of event A is zero or Pr(A) = 0, then Pr(B) is
a. less than one b. more than one 21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls
c. one d. zero are drawn. Find the probability that one is white and the
other is black.
16. Determine the probability of throwing a total of 7 in a single a. 4/9 b. 5/9 c.
throw with two dice. 2/3 d. 1/3
a. 1/3 b. c.
1/6 d. 1/12 22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards.
What is the probability that both cards are either a king or a
17. In one of the parlor games, nineteen tickets from 1 to 19 are in diamond?
the box. If two tickets are drawn at random. Determine the a. 16/169 b. 20/221
probability that both are odd. c. 4/13 d. 17/52
a. 4/19 b. 5/19 c.
6/19 d. 7/19 23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf.
What is the probability that the blue books will be
18. A box contains 4 red, 7 white and 5 blue balls. Two balls are together?
chosen at random with replacement. What is the probability a. 0.1 b. 0.143
they are both red? c. 0.2 d. 0.341
a. 1/16 b. 1/10 c.
1/12 d. 1/8 24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What
is the probability that it is a perfect square?
19. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a king in a a. 0.01 b. 0.015
single draw from a deck of 52 playing cards? c. 0.02 d. 0.025
a. 1/13 b. 2/13 c.
7/52 d. 1/6 25. What is the probability of drawing 3 face cards in 3 draws from an
ordinary deck of card?
 a. 0.0123 b. 0.00995 32. A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut &
c. 0.123 d. 0.0995 low cut variety, each either rubber or leather, and
each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes
does he sell?
26. If 10 coins are tossed, what is the probability that it will show 5 a. 64 b. 80 c. 72 d. 92
heads and 5 tails?
a. 0.246 b. 0.256 33. In a poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of
c. 0.0246 d. 0.0256 holding 2 aces and 2 queens?
a. 5!/52! b. 5/52 c.
27. What is the probability of getting a number "4" thrice in five tosses 33/54145 d. 1264/45685
of a dice?
a. 0.232 b. 0.322 34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a
c. 0.0232 d. 0.0322 president. a vice president, a secretary, a treasurer and
an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
28. If the probability that Ginebra, Alaska and Shell will win the PBA a. 630630 b. 3300
open conference championship are 1/5, 1/6 and 1/10 c. 360360 d. 3003
respectively. Find the probability that one of them will win the title.
a. 7/15 b. 1/300 c. 7/100 35. Ad. two-digit
1 number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it
is divisible by 7?
29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability a. 7/50 b.13/90
of getting one black ball and one white ball in two c. 1/7 d. 5/7
consecutive draws from the urn?
a. 0.24 b. 0.27 c. 0.53 d. raw
36. In 0.04data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
a. mean c. mode
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is b. median d. quartile
the probability that there is one and only one detective
in a random lot of 100. 37. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is
a. 0.3697 b. 0.3967 c. 0.3796 d. 0.3679
termed as:
a. sample space c. a set of random variables
31. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in b. set of random counts d. a fuzzy set
a set of statistical data is called?
a. Mean c. Frequency Polyhedron
b. Histogram d. Mass Diagram