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POLYTECHNIC UNIVERSITY OF THE PHILIPPINES

College of Engineering
Mechanical Engineering Department
Rm. 217 2nd Flr. CEA Bldg.
NDC Compound, Pureza St., Sta. Mesa, Manila

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT

VISION
INDUSTRIAL PLANT
The Mechanical Engineering
Department envisions itself to be center of
ENGINEERING (MEEN
3324) excellence in Engineering Education.

MISSION

The Mechanical Engineering


Department is committed to produce competitive
300 engineers who will serve as catalyst for sustainable
growth and development in national and international
TERMS FROM PSME
CODE levels.

GOALS

1. Provide quality education through


instruction, advance research and
extension services.
2. Produce world-class professional as
potential industry leaders and job providers
3. Develop and improve facilities through the
use of adapted technology and indigenous
materials
Submitted 4. Maintain, upgrade and improve facilities by:
through the adaptation of engineering
JAVIER, techniques. JAMIELYN S.
BSME 5-1
OBJECTIVES

1. Strengthen the BSME program consistent


with global trends.
2. Develop faculty as competent mentors and
quality researchers, through advanced
studies and other facets of continuing
professionals education.
3. Develop the critical thinking and
Submitted communication and communication skills of to:
students, giving emphasis to research and
Engr. Mario extension services. Regino Norbe
4. Equip graduates with appropriate
Professor knowledge and technical skills imbued with
desirable work attitudes and moral values,
through enhanced teaching/ learning
process by using multimedia facilities on
top of traditional methods.
5. Create a conducive teaching and learning
atmosphere with emphasis to faculty and
students growth and academic freedom;
6. Establish network with educational
institutions, industries, GOs and NGOs,
local and international, which could serve
A.Y. 2016- ass: 2017
2nd SEMESTER a. Funding
and/or partner of researches
sources

b. Sources of new technology


c. Centers for faculty and
students exchange programs
and on-the-job training, and
d. Grantees of scholarships
/additional facilities and;
7. Continuously conduct action researches on
the needs of laboratory and other facilities
1. The load-carrying unit, including its platform, car frame, enclosure, and
car door or gate.
a. car door or gate power closer
b. car door or gate electric contact
c. car door or gate power closed
d. car, elevator

2. The structure which forms the floor of the car and which directly
supports the load.
a. car platform
b. car platform, laminated
c. car platform frame
d. none of the above

3. A self-supporting platform constructed of plywood with a bonded steel


sheet facing on both top and bottom surfaces.
a. car platform
b. car platform, laminated
c. car platform frame
d. none of the above

4. A structure frame, composed of interconnecting members, which


supports the car platform floor.
a. car platform
b. car platform, laminated
c. car platform frame
d. none of the above

5. The movable portion(s) of the car entrance which closes the opening,
providing access to the car or landings.
a. car platform
b. car platform, laminated
c. car platform frame
d. none of the above
6. Any person who has been determined by the Authority Having
Jurisdiction to have the qualifications and ability of a competent
conveyance inspector and is certified as a CCCI by the Authority Having
Jurisdiction.
a. Certified Competent Conveyance Mechanic
b. Certified Competent Conveyance Inspector
c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company
d. none of the above

7. Any person, firm, or corporation that, (1) possesses a valid elevator


contractors license accredited by the PCAB, and (2) is certified as a
CQCC
a. Certified Competent Conveyance Mechanic
b. Certified Competent Conveyance Inspector
c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company
d. none of the above

8. The shortest vertical distance between the tip of the car crosshead, or
between the top of the car whichever is higher, and the nearest part of
the overhead structure or any other obstruction when the car floor is
level with top terminal landing.
a. clearance, bottom car
b. clearance, top car
c. clearance, top counterweight
d. none of the above

9. The shortest vertical distance between any part of the counterweight


structure and the nearest part of the overhead structure or any other
obstruction when the car floor is level with the bottom terminal landing.
a. clearance, bottom car
b. clearance, top car
c. clearance, top counterweight
d. none of the above

10. Wire rope which does not pass over the driving means and is used to
connect the car and counterweight.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor
11. Wire rope used to counterbalance, or partially counterbalance, the
weight of the suspension ropes.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor

12. Wire rope used to raise and lower the counterweight or an electric
elevator having a winding drum machine or a hydraulic elevator
equipped with a counterweight.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor

13. Wire rope with at least one end fastened to the safety activating
means or governor rope releasing carrier, passing over and driving the
governor sheave, and providing continuous information on the speed
and direction of the car of counterweight.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor

14. Wire roped used to raise and lower an elevator car or its
counterweight, or both.
a. rope suspension (hoisting)
b. rope equalizer, suspension
c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary
d. rope sprocket drive

15. An assembly incorporating the detector, the control equipment, and


the alarm-sounding device in one unit, operated from a power supply
either in the unit or obtained at the point of installation.
a. nuisance alarm
b. multiple-station smoke alarm
c. multiple-station alarm device
d. single-station smoke alarm
16. A room or a space in which people sleep, which can also include
permanent provisions for living, eating and either sanitation or kitchen
facilities but not both. Such rooms and spaces that are also part of a
dwelling unit are not sleeping units.
a. sleeping unit
b. maintenance unit
c. storage unit
d. sanitation unit

17. A single or multiple-station alarm responsive to smoke and not


connected to a system.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. smoke alarm

18. A listed device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion.


a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. smoke alarm

19. A facility that receives signals and at which personnel are in


attendance at all times to respond to these signals.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. supervisory signal initiating device

20. The service required to monitor performance of guard tours and the
operative condition of fixed suppression systems or other systems for
the protection of life and property.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. supervisory signal initiating device
21. A signal indicating the need of action in connection with the
supervision of guard tours, the fire suppression systems or equipment,
or the maintenance features of related systems.
a. supervisory service
b. supervisory signal
c. smoke detector
d. supervisory signal initiating device

22. A signal initiated by the fire alarm system or device indicative of a fault
in a monitored circuit or component.
a. supervisory signal
b. trouble signal
c. wireless protection system
d. supervisory signal initiating device

23. A notification appliance that alerts through the sense of sight.


a. zone
b. wireless protection system
c. wet-chemical extinguishing agent
d. visible alarm notification appliance

24. A solution of water and potassium-carbonate-based chemical,


potassium-acetate-based chemical or a combination thereof, fanning an
extinguishing agent.
a. zone
b. wireless protection system
c. wet-chemical extinguishing agent
d. visible alarm notification appliance

25. A system or a part of a system that can transmit and receive signals
without the aid of wire.
a. zone
b. wireless protection system
c. wireless receiver
d. wireless connection zone

26. A defined area within the protected premises.


a. zone
b. fire area
c. storage room
d. maintenance room
27. A service tank used in agriculture for applying anhydrous ammonia to
the soil, or for other agricultural uses.
a. applicator tank
b. appurtenance tank
c. storage tank
d. artificial tank

28. A device installed on and used in the normal operation of the vessel.
This includes, but is not limited to, safety relief devices, liquid level
gauging devices, valves, and pressure gauges.
a. applicator tank
b. appurtenance
c. appurtenance heat
d. artificial heat

29. An air intake device connected to a mechanical exhaust system for


collecting vapors, fumes, smoke, dust, steam, heat or odors from, at, or
near the equipment, place, or area where generated, produced, or
released.
a. air exhaust
b. air intake
c. hood
d. none of these

30. Includes appliances, devices, or equipment used, or intended to be


used, in an industrial, manufacturing or commercial occupancy for
applying heat to any material being processed, but shall not include
water heaters, boilers, or portable equipment used by artisans in
pursuit of a trade.
a. industrial heating equipment
b. commercial heating system
c. residential heating equipment
d. none of these

31. Absorption refrigeration system that has been factory assembled and
tested prior to its installation.
a. accessible unit
b. absorption unit
c. accessible
d. absorption

32. Having access to but which first shall be permitted to require the
removal of an access panel, door, or similar obstruction covering the
item described.
a. absorption
b. absorption unit
c. accessible unit
d. accessible

33. Air that has been treated to achieve a desired level of temperature,
humidity, or cleanliness.
a. air, conditioned
b. air, exhaust
c. air, moist
d. all of these

34. Air being removed from any space or piece of equipment and
conveyed directly to the atmosphere by means of openings or ducts.
a. air, moist
b. air, conditioned
c. a and b
d. air, exhaust

35. A blower of fan used for the purpose of distributing supply air to room,
space, or area.
a. air-conditioning system
b. airhandling unit
c. a and b
d. none of these

36. It that is provided to replace air being exhausted.


a. air-conditioning system
b. airhandling unit
c. air, makeup
d. none of these
37. A system designed to provide heating, cooling, or ventilation in which
one or more air handling units are used to supply air to a common
space or are drawing air from a common plenum or space.
a. airhandling unit
b. air-conditioning system
c. a and b
d. airmoving system
38. Air from outside the building intentionally conveyed by openings or
ducts to rooms or to conditioning equipment.
a. air, exhaust
b. air, conditioned
c. air, outside
d. all of these

39. Air from the conditioned area that is returned to the conditioning
equipment for reconditioning.
a. air, return
b. air, exhaust
c. air, conditioned
d. air, intake

40. Air being conveyed to a conveyed to a conditioned area through ducts


or plenums from a heat exchanger of a heating, cooling, absorption, or
evaporative cooling system.
a. air, intake
b. air, conditioned
c. air, exhaust
d. air, supply

41. A device that utilizes fuel or other forms of energy to produce light,
heat, power, refrigeration, or air-conditioning. This definition also shall
include a vented decorative appliance.
a. none of these
b. device
c. machine
d. appliance
42. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.
a. rejected
b. a and d
c. none of these
d. approved

43. An organization primarily established for purposes of testing to


approve standards and approved by the authority having jurisdiction.
a. standard authority
b. mechanical standard agency
c. approved testing agency
d. none of these

44. A building or a portion of a building used for the gathering together of


fifty (50) or more persons for such purposes as deliberation, education,
instruction, worship, entertainment, amusement, drinking, dining, or
awaiting transportation.
a. assembly building
b. assembly room
c. briefing area
d. none of these

45. The organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the


requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment,
materials, installations, or procedures.
a. standard authority
b. authority having jurisdiction
c. mechanical standard agency
d. none of these

46. That which provides a function without the necessity of human


intervention.
a. automatic
b. manual
c. a and b
d. none of these
47. A refrigerant blend comprising multiple components of different
volatiles that, when used in refrigeration cycles, do not change
volumetric composition or saturation temperature as they evaporate of
condense at constant pressure.
a. oxygen
b. nitrogen
c. azeotrope
d. none of these

48. A boiler furnishing steam at pressures in excess of fifteen (15) pounds


per square inch (103.4 kPa) or hot water at temperatures in excess of
250F (121 C) or at pressures in excess of one hundred and sixty (160)
pounds per square inch (1,103.2 kPa).
a. boiler, standard
b. boiler, low pressure
c. boiler, high pressure
d. none of these

49. Any room containing steam or hot water inlet.


a. boiler room
b. breathing zone
c. breathing zone outdoor
d. none of these

50. A reliable conductor to ensure the electrical conductivity between


metal parts required to be electrically connected.
a. copper
b. silver
c. bronze
d. bonding jumper

51. The region within an occupied space between three (3) planes and
seventy-two (72) inches (1,800 mm) above the floor and more than (2)
two feet (600 mm) from the walls or fixed air-conditioning equipment.
a. boiler room
b. breathing zone
c. breathing unit
d. none of these
52. The rate of outdoor airflow required in the breathing zone of an
occupiable space.
a. breathing zone outdoor airflow (Vbz)
b. breathing zone
c. boiler room
d. none of these

53. A metal connector for medium and high heat appliances.


a. silver
b. breeching
c. copper
d. none of these

54. The listed maximum capacity of any appliance, absorption unit, or


burner expressed in British thermal units input per hour, unless
otherwise noted.
a. BTU/S
b. BTU/Min
c. BTU/H
d. all of these

55. The national Building Code of the Philippines that is adopted by this
jurisdiction.
a. Philippine standards code
b. Philippine mechanical engineering code
c. mechanical engineering code
d. building code

56. The Chemical Abstract System registry number


a. CAS Number
b. CAS system
c. none of these
d. all of these

57. Environmental heating equipment installed and a manner supply heat


by means of ducts or pipes to areas other than the room or space in
which the equipment is located.
a. duct plant
b. central heating plant or heating plant
c. a and b
d. none of these

58. A formally stated recognition and approval of an acceptable level of


competency, acceptable to the Authority Having Jurisdiction.
a. recognized
b. tested
c. qualified
d. certified

59. A vertical shaft enclosing one or more flues for conveying flue gases to
the outside atmosphere.
a. chimney
b. stock
c. a or b
d. all of the above

60. A chimney of solid masonry units, bricks, stones, listed masonry units,
or reinforced concrete, lined with suitable flue liners.
a. masonry stock
b. masonry chimney
c. metal chimney
d. none of these

61. A chimney constructed of metal with a minimum thickness not less


than one hundred and twenty-seven one hundredths (0.127) inch (3.23
mm) (No. 10 manufacturers standard gauge steel sheet).
a. masonry chimney
b. chimney, residential appliance type
c. metal chimney
d. none of these

62. A factory built, masonry, or metal chimney suitable for removing the
products of combustion from fuel burning high heat appliances
producing combustion gases in excess of 2,000 F (1,903 C), measured
at the appliance flue outlet.
a. chimney, high heat appliance type
b. chimney, low heat appliance type
c. chimney, medium heat appliance type
d. none of these

63. The pipe that connects a fuel burning appliance to a chimney.


a. chimney, low heat appliance type
b. chimney, medium heat appliance type
c. chimney, high heat appliance type
d. chimney connector

64. An appliance used to dry wet laundry by means of heat derived from
the combustion of fuel gases or electric heating elements.
a. clothes dryer
b. washing machine
c. a and b
d. none of these

65. Primarily used in family living environment. May or may not be coin
operated for public use.
a. clothes dyer, type 2
b. clothes dyer, type 1
c. clothes dyer, type 3
d. clothes dyer, type 4

66. Used in business with direct intercourse of the function with the public.
May or not be operated by public or hired attendant. May or may not be
coin operated.
a. clothes dyer, type 4
b. clothes dyer, type 3
c. clothes dyer, type 2
d. clothes dyer, type 1

67. A standard that is an extensive compilation of provisions covering


broad subject matter or that is suitable for adoption into law
independently of other codes and standards. It also means the
Philippine Mechanical Engineering Code.
a. rule
b. law
c. standard
d. code
68. The total amount of air provided to the space that contains burning
equipment. Includes air for fuel combustion, draft hood dilution, and
ventilation of the equipment enclosure.
a. combustion air
b. air intake
c. moist air
d. none of these

69. A compressor in which increase in pressure is attained by changing the


internal volume of the compression chamber.
a. compressor, negative displacement
b. compressor, positive displacement
c. compressor, infinite displacement
d. none of these

70. A machine, with or without accessories, for compressing a refrigerant


vapor.
a. compressor, negative displacement
b. compressor
c. compressor, refrigerant
d. none of these

71. The part of the system designed to liquefy refrigerant vapor by


removal heat.
a. all of these
b. evaporator
c. compressor
d. condenser

72. An appliance that condenses part of the water vapor generated by the
burning of hydrogen in fuels.
a. condensing appliance
b. evaporating appliance
c. condensing unit
d. evaporating unit
73. A mechanical refrigeration system, consisting of one or more power
driven compressors, condensers, liquid receivers if provided, and the
regularly furnished accessories that have been assembled and tested
prior to its installation.
a. condensing appliance
b. condensing unit
c. evaporating unit
d. condensing appliance

74. An area, room, or space normally occupied and being heated or cooled
for human habitation by any equipment.
a. conditioned room
b. conditioned unit
c. conditioned space
d. none of these

75. A valve that controls the gas or vacuum to a particular area.


a. valve, isolation
b. valve, riser
c. valve, service
d. valve, zone

76. A fire alarm system component such as bell, horn, speaker, light, or
text display that provides audible, tactile, or visible outputs, or any
combination thereof.
a. fire alarm signal
b. fire alarm control unit
c. alarm notification appliance
d. alarm signal

77. A signal indicating an emergency requiring immediate action, such as


signal indicative of fire.
a. fire alarm signal
b. fire alarm control unit
c. alarm notification appliance
d. alarm signal
78. A system component that receives inputs from automatic and manual
fire alarm devices and is capable of supplying power to detection
devices and transponder(s) of transmitter(s).
a. fire alarm signal
b. fire alarm control unit
c. alarm notification appliance
d. alarm signal

79. A signal initiated by a fire alarm-initiating device such as manual fire


alarm box, automatic fire detector, water-flow switch, or other device
whose activation is indicative of the presence of a fire of a fire
signature.
a. fire alarm signal
b. fire alarm control unit
c. alarm notification appliance
d. alarm signal

80. Electrically non-conducting, volatile, or gaseous fire extinguisher that


does not leave a residue upon evaporation.
a. clean agent
b. deluge system
c. detector, heat
d. fire alarm system

81. A sprinkler system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping


system connected to a water supply through a valve that is opened by
the operation of detection system installed in the same area as the
sprinklers.
a. clean agent
b. deluge system
c. detector, heat
d. fire alarm system

82. A fire detector thats senses heat produced by burning substances.


a. clean agent
b. deluge system
c. detector, heat
d. fire alarm system

83. A system or portion of a combination system consisting of components


and circuits arranged to monitor and annunciate the status of fire alarm
or supervisory signal-initiating devices and to initiate the appropriate
response to those signals.
a. clean agent
b. deluge system
c. detector, heat
d. fire alarm system

84. Apparatus or equipment provided or installed/ or use in the event of an


emergency.
a. fire appliance
b. fire area
c. fire detector, automatic
d. fire protection system
85. The aggregate floor area enclosed and bounded by fire walls, fire
barriers, exterior walls, or fire-resistance-rated horizontal assemblies of
a building.
a. fire appliance
b. fire area
c. fire detector, automatic
d. fire protection system

86. Switching of circuits by means of solid state devices.


a. warm air furnace
b. zeotrope
c. stage lift
d. static switching

87. The automatic device used to actuate the control to slow and stop an
elevator or dumbwaiter car at any landing.
a. stopping device, elevator landing
b. stopping devices, normal
c. static switching
d. none of these
88. A button or other device located at an elevator landing which when
activated causes the elevator car to stop at that floor.
a. stage lift
b. static switching
c. stopping devices, normal
d. stopping device, elevator landing

89. The piping for a hydraulic elevator between the control valves and the
driving member of the driving machine.
a. hydraulic piping
b. supply piping
c. control piping
d. none of these

90. A point at which moving or rotating machinery components may entrap


persons or objects by nipping, pinching, or squeezing.
a. rotating point
b. squeezing point
c. pinching point
d. nip point

91. A gas originating from naturally occurring gas- or oil- bearing strata.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

92. Include natural gas, liquefied petroleum gases, coke-oven gas, coal
gas, oil gas, carbureted water gas, water gas, producer gas, and blast-
furnace gas.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

93. A number of the common refrigerants, such as ammonia, methyl


chloride, ethyl chloride, methyl bromide, and ethyl bromide, have
varying degrees of flammability.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

94. Results from the fermentation or decomposition of organic matter.


a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

95. Pipes located below the public sewer shall discharge into a sump or
receiving tank.
a. building drains
b. areaway drains
c. window areaway drains
d. paved drains

96. Shall be provided in all open subsurface space adjacent to a building


and serving as an entrance to the basement of a building.
a. building drains
b. areaway drains
c. window areaway drains
d. paved drains

97. When surface water drainage sloped is to use to drain water, the
sumps, gratings, or floor drains that collect the water shall be piped to a
storm drain or an approved water course.
a. building drains
b. areaway drains
c. window areaway drains
d. paved drains

98. Any portion of a healthcare facility wherein patients are intended to be


examined or treated. [NFPA 99 22]
a. patient care area
b. purge, flow
c. purge, system
d. special hazard area
99. The removal oxygen from a system by oil free dry nitrogen during
brazing.
a. patient care area
b. purge, flow
c. purge, system
d. special hazard area

100. The removal of nitrogen from a system with the medical gas
required for that system.
a. patient care area
b. purge, flow
c. purge, system
d. special hazard area

101. An area such as a kitchen or electrical switchgear room.


a. patient care area
b. purge, flow
c. purge, system
d. special hazard area

102. An inlet point in a medical surgical piped vacuum distribution


system at which the user makes connections and disconnections. [NFPA
99 3.3.171]
a. station inlet
b. station outlet
c. use inlet
d. use outlet

103. Gas used in a medical facility, including oxygen, nitrous oxide,


carbon dioxide, helium, medical air, and mixtures of these gases.
Standards of purity apply.
a. medical gas
b. medical air
c. medical gas system
d. manifold

104. The pipe from the source of supply to a building or structure.


a. building supply
b. structure pipe
c. building pipe
d. structure supply
105. A device for connecting outlets of one or more gas cylinders to
the central piping system for that specific gas. [NFPA 99 22]
a. medical gas
b. medical air
c. medical gas system
d. manifold

106. 51. A room or space having a volume less than fifty (50) cubic
feet (1.42) per 1000 Btu/h (293 W) of the aggregate input rating of all
fuel burning appliances installed in that space.
a. conditioned unit
b. confined unit
c. conditioned space
d. confined space

107. Air cooling to provide a room or space temperature of 68 F (20


C) or above.
a. cooling
b. heating
c. tempering
d. none of these

108. Any heat other than solar or atmospheric heat.


a. heat transfer
b. wind heat
c. solar heat
d. artificial heat

109. A pipe failure mode which exhibits no visible (to the naked eye)
material deformation (stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the
area of the break.
a. brittle failure
b. ductile failure
c. a and b
d. none of these

110. A pipe failure mode which exhibits material deformation


(stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the area of the break.
a. brittle failure
b. ductile failure
c. a and b
d. none of these

111. Certification issued by the Division to persons who have


satisfactory passed the written boiler and pressure vessel inspectors
examination prescribed by the Division.
a. certificate of competency
b. certificate of resale inspection
c. certificate of ASTM
d. none of these

112. A certificate issued after a resale inspection and designating the


maximum allowable working pressure for the tank when it is installed in
compliance with these orders.
a. certificate of competency
b. certificate of resale inspection
c. certificate of ASTM
d. none of these

113. Storage in vessels other than DOT cylinders.


a. bulk storage
b. container assembly
c. container
d. none of these

114. A room or area of a room where medical gases are dispensed to


a single patient for medical purposes.
a. high point
b. low point
c. use point
d. work point

115. A valve that isolates one piece of equipment from another.


a. valve, isolation
b. valve, riser
c. valve, service
d. valve, zone
116. A valve at the base of a vertical riser that isolates that riser.
a. valve, isolation
b. valve, riser
c. valve, service
d. valve, zone

117. A valve serving horizontal piping extending from a riser to a


station outlet or inlet.
a. valve, isolation
b. valve, riser
c. valve, service
d. valve, zone

118. A single valve at the source that controls a number of units that
makes up the source.
a. valve, isolation
b. valve, riser
c. valve, source
d. valve, zone

119. A friction device for slowing down conveyor components,


bringing conveyor equipment to a controlled stop, holding travelling
equipment at a selected landing, preventing reverse travel, and
controlling over speed due to the action of gravity.
a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop

120. The system governing the starting, stopping, direction of motion,


acceleration, speed, retardation identification, and function of the
moving member in a predetermined manner.
a. brake
b. control
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop

121. An electromechanical device or assembly of device for starting,


stopping, accelerating, or decelerating a drive, or serving to govern in
the predetermined manner the power delivered to the drive.
a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop

122. Weights in a structural frame used to balance or impose a load.


a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop

123. An assembly of the necessary structural, mechanical and


electrical parts that provides the motive power.
a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. drive

124. A stop resulting from a sudden and unexpected need, and not as
part of the normal operation.
a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop

125. A point at which moving or rotating machinery components may


entrap persons or objects by nipping, pinching, or squeezing.
a. rotating point
b. squeezing point
c. pinching point
d. nip point

126. A gas originating from naturally occurring gas- or oil- bearing


strata.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas
127. Include natural gas, liquefied petroleum gases, coke-oven gas,
coal gas, oil gas, carbureted water gas, water gas, producer gas, and
blast-furnace gas.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas
128. A number of the common refrigerants, such as ammonia, methyl
chloride, ethyl chloride, methyl bromide, and ethyl bromide, have
varying degrees of flammability.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

129. Results from the fermentation or decomposition of organic


matter.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

130. Pipes located below the public sewer shall discharge into a sump
or receiving tank.
a. building drains
b. areaway drains
c. window areaway drains
d. paved drains

131. Shall be provided in all open subsurface space adjacent to a


building and serving as an entrance to the basement of a building.
a. building drains
b. areaway drains
c. window areaway drains
d. paved drains

132. When surface water drainage sloped is to use to drain water, the
sumps, gratings, or floor drains that collect the water shall be piped to a
storm drain or an approved water course.
a. building drains
b. areaway drains
c. window areaway drains
d. paved drains

133. Gas used in a medical facility, including oxygen, nitrous oxide,


carbon dioxide, helium, medical air, and mixtures of these gases.
Standards of purity apply.
a. medical gas
b. medical air
c. medical gas system
d. manifold

134. The pipe from the source of supply to a building or structure.


a. building supply
b. structure pipe
c. building pipe
d. structure supply

135. A damper arranged to seal off airflow automatically through a


part of an air duct system so as to restrict the passage of smoke and is
listed to the applicable recognized standard.
a. volume damper
b. smoke damper
c. fire damper
d. none of these

136. Any device that, when installed, will restrict, retard, or direct the
flow of air in any duct, or the products of combustion in any heat
producing equipment, is vent connector, vent, or chimney.
a. fire damper
b. smoke damper
c. volume damper
d. none of these

137. The elevation of the design flood, including wave height,


relative to the datum specified on the communitys legally designated
flood hazard map.
a. flood elevation
b. flood hazard elevation
c. designated elevation
d. design flood elevation
138. A heater in which all the products of combustion generated by
the gas burning device are released into the outside airstream being
heated.
a. direct gas fired makeup air heater
b. indirect gas fired makeup air heater
c. gas fired heater
d. none of these

139. An appliance that is constructed and installed so that all air for
combustion is derived from the outside atmosphere and all flue gases
are discharge to the outside atmosphere.
a. indirect vent appliance
b. direct vent appliance
c. vent appliance
d. none of these

140. A power boiler plant designed to distribute hot water or stream


to users located off premises.
a. area heating plant
b. location heating plant
c. district heating plant
d. none of these

141. A warm air furnace usually normally installed in an air


distribution duct to supply warm air for heating. This definition shall
apply only to a warm air heating appliance that depends for air
circulation on a blower not furnished as part of the furnace.
a. air system
b. duct system
c. air furnace
d. duct furnace

142. Includes all ducts, ducts fittings, plenums, and fans assembled to
form continues passageway for the distribution of air.
a. duct system
b. dwelling
c. dwelling unit
d. none of these
143. A building or portion thereof that contains not more than two
dwelling units.
a. dwelling unit
b. dwelling
c. dwelling system
d. none of these

144. A building or portion thereof that contains living facilities


including provisions for sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation, as
required by this code, for not more than one family.
a. dwelling system
b. dwelling
c. dwelling unit
d. none of these

145. A device that produces heat energy to create a warm


environment by the application of electric power to resistance elements
refrigerant compressors, or dissimilar material conjunctions.
a. electric device
b. electric appliance
c. electric heating unit
d. electric heating appliance

146. The National Electrical Code promulgated by the National Fire


Protection Association, as adopted by this jurisdiction.
a. electrical code
b. electrical national code
c. national electric code
d. none of these

147. A general term including materials, fittings, devices, appliances,


and apparatus used as part of or in connection with installations
regulated by this code.
a. machine
b. equipment
c. unit
d. none of these

148. A device used for reducing the sensible heat of air for cooling by
the process of evaporation of water into an airstream.
a. evaporative cooling unit
b. evaporative cooling system
c. evaporative cooler
d. none of these

149. All of the equipment intended or installed for the purpose of


environmental cooling by an evaporative cooler from which the
conditioned air is distributed through ducts or plenums to the
conditioned area.
a. evaporative system
b. evaporative unit
c. evaporative cooling unit
d. evaporative cooling system

150. That part of refrigeration system in which liquid refrigerant is


vaporized to produce refrigeration.
a. evaporator
b. condenser
c. a and b
d. none of these

151. A valve designed to activate when the fuel gas passing through
it exceeds the prescribed flow rate.
a. gas flow valve (GFV)
b. excess flow valve (EFV)
c. flow valve (FV)
d. none of these

152. The fire code adopted by this jurisdiction.


a. fire regulation
b. fire law
c. fire code
d. none of these
153. A chimney connected, solid fuel burning stove (appliance) having
part of its fuel chamber open to the room.
a. none of these
b. fire place
c. fire resistive construction
d. fire place stove

154. Construction complying with the requirements of the Building


Code for the time period specified.
a. fire resistive construction
b. fire place
c. fire place stove
d. none of these

155. The walls or construction forming the boundaries of a shaft.


a. enclosure
b. shaft
c. shaft enclosure

156. An approved device that senses visible or invisible particles of


combustion.
a. light detector
b. smoke detector
c. fire detector
d. none of these

157. Air cooling to provide a room or space temperature of 68 F (20


C) or above.
a. cooling
b. heating
c. tempering
d. none of these

158. A valve that isolates one piece of equipment from another.


a. valve, isolation
b. valve, riser
c. valve, service
d. valve, zone
159. A structure frame, composed of interconnecting members, which
supports the car platform floor.
a. car platform
b. car platform, laminated
c. car platform frame
d. none of the above

160. Include natural gas, liquefied petroleum gases, coke-oven gas,


coal gas, oil gas, carbureted water gas, water gas, producer gas, and
blast-furnace gas.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

161. A stop resulting from a sudden and unexpected need, and not as
part of the normal operation.
a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop

162. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting


rope sheaves are attached to the crosshead or top member of the car
frame.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, overslung
c. car frame, underslug
d. car frame, sub-post

163. A duct that extends at an angle of more than forty-five (45)


degrees (0.79 rad) from the horizontal. His definition shall not include
any boot connection.
a. riser heat pipe
b. vertical heat pipe
c. horizontal heat pipe
d. diagonal heat pipe
164. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.
a. rejected
b. a and d
c. none of these
d. approved

165. The company or organization that evidences its responsibility by


affixing its name, trademark, or trade name to equipment or devices.
a. manufacturer
b. company
c. organization
d. all of these
166. A device in a piping system to shut off the flow of the fluid.
a. valve, pressure relief
b. valve, stop
c. valve, three-way-type stop
d. valves, companion or block

167. The piping for a hydraulic elevator between the control valves
and the driving member of the driving machine.
a. hydraulic piping
b. supply piping
c. control piping
d. none of these

168. A device equipped with a means of heating used in an absorption


system to drive refrigerant out of solution.
a. generator
b. aircondition
c. machine
d. none of these

169. A heater in which all the products of combustion generated by


the gas burning device are released into the outside airstream being
heated.
a. direct gas fired makeup air heater
b. indirect gas fired makeup air heater
c. gas fired heater
d. none of these
170. The passenger-carrying member of a moving walk.
a. Tread way, moving walk
b. truck-zoning device, elevator
c. truck zone, elevator
d. unlocking zone

171. A listed factory made vent pipe and vent fittings for conveying flue gases to
the outside atmosphere.
a. vent
b. type BW gas vent
c. type B gas vent
d. vent connector, gas

172. The part of the system designed to liquefy refrigerant vapor by


removal heat.
a. all of these
b. evaporator
c. compressor
d. condenser
173. Construction complying with the requirements of the Building
Code for the time period specified.
a. fire resistive construction
b. fire place
c. fire place stove
d. none of these
174. A device that utilizes fuel or other forms of energy to produce
light, heat, power, refrigeration, or air-conditioning. This definition
also shall include a vented decorative appliance.
a. none of these
b. device
c. machine
d. appliance
175. A blower of fan used for the purpose of distributing supply air to
room, space, or area.
a. air-conditioning system
b. air handling unit
c. a and b
d. none of these
176. An acronym for corrugated stainless steel tubing.
a. CSSTu
b. CrSST
c. CSST
d. none of these

177.One made by bolting together a pair of flanged ends.


a. joint, compression
b. joint, brazed
c. joint, flared
d. joint, flanged
178. A vented appliance whose only function is providing anesthetic effect
of flames.
a. vent
b. vented decorative appliance
c. vent connector, gas
d. none of these

179. A gas originating from naturally occurring gas- or oil- bearing strata.
a natural gas
b fuel gas
c refrigerant gas
d sewage gas

180. Weights in a structural frame used to balance or impose a load.


a. brake
b. controller
c. counter weight
d. emergency stop
181. An automatic closing metal assembly consisting of one or more
louvers, blades, slats or vanes that closes upon detection of heat so as to
restrict the passage of flame and is listed to the applicable recognized
standards.
a. fire damper
b. smoke damper
c. volume damper
d. none of these
182. General form for gastight joints obtained by the joining of the metal
parts through a positive holding mechanical construction (such as
flanged joint, screwed joint, or flared joint).
a. joint, flanged
b. joint, mechanical
c. joint, flared
d. joint, brazed

183. The minimum gauge pressure to which a specific system


component is subjected under test condition.
a. pressure, tightness test
b. pressure, field test
c. pressure, stress test
d. pressure test

184. Memory lost when operating power is removed.


a. operating memory
b. power memory
c. volatile memory
d. lost memory

185. The pressure measured at the cylinder of a hydraulic elevator


when lifting car and its rated load at rated speed, or with Class C-2
loading when levelling up with maximum static load.
a. working pressure
b. yield strength
c. ultimate pressure
d. pressure

186. A small glass panel located in the entrance doors to permit the
passengers or attendant to see when the car has reached the
landing.
a. entrance panel
b. landing panel
c. door panel
d. vision panel

187. Results from the fermentation or decomposition of organic


matter.
a. natural gas
b. fuel gas
c. refrigerant gas
d. sewage gas

188. An evaporative cooler that discharges the conditioned air directly


into the conditioned area without the use of ducts and can be readily
transported from place to place without dismantling any portion
thereof.
a. evaporative cooler
b. portable evaporative cooler
c. portable cooling unit
d. none of these

189. Any room containing steam or hot water inlet.


a. boiler room
b. breathing zone
c. breathing zone outdoor
d. none of these

190. A metal connector for medium and high heat appliances.


a. silver
b. breeching
c. copper
d. none of these

191. A listed factory made vent pipe and vent fittings for conveying
flue gases to the outside atmosphere.
a. vent
b. type BW gas vent
c. type B gas vent
d. vent connector, gas

192. A factory made gas vent listed by a nationally recognized testing


agency for venting listed or approved appliances equipped to burn only
gas.
a. vent connector, gas
b. type B gas vent
c. type BW gas vent
d. none of these

193. A factory made gas vent listed by a nationally recognized testing


agency for venting listed or approved gas fired vented wall furnaces.
a. vent connector, gas
b. type B gas vent
c. type BW gas vent
d. none of these

194. That portion of a gas venting system that connects a listed gas
appliance to a gas vent and is installed within the space or area in
which the appliance is located.
a. vent
b. vent connector, gas
c. vented decorative appliance
d. none of these

195. A vented appliance whose only function is providing anesthetic


effect of flames.
a. vent
b. vented decorative appliance
c. vent connector, gas
d. none of these
196. A material that, in the form in which it is used and under the
conditions anticipated, will not ignite, burn, support combustion, or
release flammable vapors when subjected to fire or heat.
a. combustible materials
b. non-combustible materials
c. flammable vapor or fumes
d. none of the these

197. The concentration of flammable constituents in air that exceeds


twenty-five percent (25%) of its Lower Flammability Limit (LFL).
a. combustible materials
b. non-combustible materials
c. flammable vapor or fumes
d. none of the these

198. Are movable component of the grease removal system designed


to capture grease and direct it to a safe collection point before it enters
a duct system.
a. grease filter
b. grease filter, mesh-type
c. secondary filtration
d. none of the these

199. A general air purpose air filter designed to collect and retain lint
and grease from the air passing through it.
a. grease filter
b. grease filter, mesh-type
c. secondary filtration
d. none of the these

200. Fume incinerators, thermal conductivity units, air pollution


control devices or other filtration media installed in ducts or hoods
located in the path of travel of exhaust products after the initial
filtration.
a. grease filter
b. grease filter, mesh-type
c. secondary filtration
d. none of the these

201. A listed chimney


a. none of the above
b. c or d
c. stock
d. factory built chimney

202. It is the susceptibility of a measuring device to having its


indication converted to a meaningful number.

a. Precision
b. Allowance
c. Readability
d. Accuracy

203. It is the ability of the measuring device to detect small


differences in a quality being measured.
a. Correctness
b. Tolerance
c. Standard
d. Sensitivity

204. A flange screwed on the pipe which it is connecting to an


adjoining pipe.
a. Saddle Flange
b. Screwed Flange
c. Socket Flange
d. Contour Flange

205. In a building, an area accessible by crawling, having a clearance less


than human height, for access to plumbing or wiring, storage, etc.
a. plumbing space
b. wiring space
c. crawl space
d. none of these

206. A device used for reducing the sensible heat of air for cooling by the
process of evaporation of water into an airstream.
a. evaporative cooling unit
b. evaporative cooling system
c. evaporative cooler
d. none of these

207. A pipe failure mode which exhibits no visible (to the naked eye)
material deformation (stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the
area of the break.
a. brittle failure
b. ductile failure
c. a and b
d. none of these

208. A pipe failure mode which exhibits material deformation


(stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the area of the break.
a. brittle failure
b. ductile failure
c. a and b
d. none of these

209. Certification issued by the Division to persons who have


satisfactory passed the written boiler and pressure vessel inspectors
examination prescribed by the Division.
a. certificate of competency
b. certificate of resale inspection
c. certificate of ASTM
d. none of these

210. A certificate issued after a resale inspection and designating the


maximum allowable working pressure for the tank when it is installed in
compliance with these orders.
a. certificate of competency
b. certificate of resale inspection
c. certificate of ASTM
d. none of these

211. Storage in vessels other than DOT cylinders.


a. bulk storage
b. container assembly
c. container
d. none of these

212. An assembly consisting essentially of the container and fitting for


all container openings, including shutoff valves, excess flow valves,
liquid-level gauging devices, safety relief devices, and protective
housing.
a. bulk storage
b. container assembly
c. container
d. none of these

213. Any vessel, including tanks, cylinders, tubes, portable tanks and
cargo tanks, used for transporting or storing any liquid or gas.
a. bulk storage
b. container assembly
c. container
d. none of these

214. A person holding a valid certificate of competency issued by the


Division in accordance with the Boiler and Fired pressure Vessel Safety
Orders.
a. certified inspector
b. qualified inspector
c. qualified safety engineer
d. none of these

215. Either a certified inspector or a qualified safety engineer.


a. certified inspector
b. qualified inspector
c. qualified safety engineer
d. none of these

216. A person who is qualified to make inspections or examinations of


boilers or tanks according to the rules under which the vessel was
constructed, and who holds a valid certificate of competency issued by
the division.
a. certified inspector
b. qualified inspector
c. qualified safety engineer
d. none of these

217. A tank used in agriculture for off highway service to deliver NH3
from a transportation tank or storage tank to an applicator tank in the
field.
a. nurse tank
b. storage tank
c. transportation tank
d. trap tank (trap wagon)

218. A tank permanently located and used to store a product or to


supply a product to utilization equipment.
a. nurse tank
b. storage tank
c. transportation tank
d. trap tank (trap wagon)

219. A zone extending from the landing floor level to a point not less
than 3 in. (457 mm) above or a below the landing.
a. treadway, moving walk
b. truck-zoning device, elevator
c. truck zone, elevator
d. unlocking zone

220. A shape of groove used on the drive sheave of a double wrap


traction machine, approximately a semicircle, with a radius
approximately equal to the diameter of the hoist rope.
a. v-groove
b. u-groove
c. c-groove
d. w-groove

221. A process of removing, by sawing or scrapping, part of the mica


until it is under the surface of the copper of a commutator.
a. grooving
b. undercutting
c. annealing
d. tempering

222. Memory lost when operating power is removed.


a. operating memory
b. power memory
c. volatile memory
d. lost memory

223. One form of traction sheave groove which is contoured in the


shape of a straight-sided, flat bottom v.
a. v-groove
b. sheave v-groove
c. contoured v-groove
d. traction v-groove

224. A small glass panel located in the entrance doors to permit the
passengers or attendant to see when the car has reached the landing.
a. entrance panel
b. landing panel
c. door panel
d. vision panel

225. An indicator which shows at which landings and for which


direction elevator hall stop-or-signal calls have been registered and are
unanswered.
a. direction indicator
b. landing indicator
c. waiting-passenger indicator
d. stop-or-signal indicator

226. So constructed or protected that exposure to the weather will not


interfere with its successful operation.
a. fire proof
b. weather proof
c. climate proof
d. interfere proof

227. An assembly consisting of a surrounding frame and one or more


sashes, ventilators, or fixed lights, or a combination of these, designed
to be installed in a wall opening for the purpose of admitting light or air
or both.
a. door
b. window
c. ceiling
d. floor

228. The pressure measured at the cylinder of a hydraulic elevator


when lifting car and its rated load at rated speed, or with Class C-2
loading when levelling up with maximum static load.
a. working pressure
b. yield strength
c. ultimate pressure
d. pressure

229. A device installed on an elevator car or counterweight to


equalize automatically the tensions in the hoisting wire ropes.
a. rope suspension (hoisting)
b. rope equalizer, suspension
c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary
d. rope sprocket drive

230. A device attached to the car or counterweight or to the overhead


dead-end rope hitch support which will function automatically to
support the car or counterweight in case the regular wire
a. rope suspension (hoisting)
b. rope equalizer, suspension
c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary
d. rope sprocket drive

231. A driving means consisting of wire rope which fixed links at


constant intervals throughout its length.
a. rope suspension (hoisting)
b. rope equalizer, suspension
c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary
d. rope sprocket drive

232. The distance between the car buffer striker plate and the striking
surface of the car buffer when the car floor is level with the bottom
terminal landing.
a. runby, bottom elevator car
b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight
c. runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator
d. none of these

233. The distance between the counterweight buffer striker plate and
the striking surface of the counterweight buffer when the car floor is
level with the top terminal landing.
a. runby, bottom elevator car
b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight
c. runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator
d. none of these

234. A valve or plate within a duct or its terminal components for


controlling draft or the flow of gasses, including air. [NFPA 96:3.3.15]
a. damper
b. dips
c. fire partition
d. grease tight

235. A device that will automatically rupture at a predetermined


pressure.
a. Pressure Limiting Device
b. Mechanical joint
c. Rupture Members
d. Stop Valve

236. An interior wall or partition of a building that separates two areas


and serves to restrict the spread of fire but does not qualify as a
firewall.
a. damper
b. dips
c. fire partition
d. grease tight

237. Constructed and performing in such a manner as not to permit


the passage of any grease under normal cooking. [NFPA 96:3.3.8.1]
a. damper
b. dips
c. fire partition
d. grease tight

238. The supporting frame to which the car platform, upper and lower
sets of guide shoes, car safety and hoisting ropes or rope sheaves of a
cable elevator are usually attached or the plunger or cylinder of a direct
plunger elevator are attached.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, overslung
c. car frame, underslug
d. car frame, sub-post
239. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope
sheaves are attached to the crosshead or top member of the car frame.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, overslung
c. car frame, underslug
d. car frame, sub-post

240. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope
sheaves are attached at or below the car platform.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, overslung
c. car frame, underslug
d. car frame, sub-post

241. A car frame, all of whose members are located below the car
platform.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, overslung
c. car frame, underslug
d. car frame, sub-post

242. A car frame sufficiently offset from the center of the platform to
require special design and construction not covered by the formulas in
Article 18.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, overslung
c. car frame, underslug
d. none of these

243. The operation of advancing the elevator drives motor speed from
zero to normal operating speed.
a. acceleration
b. velocity
c. speed
d. none of the above

244. The portion of a sheave contacted by a rope. Measured in


degrees of contact.
a. angle of contact
b. angle of inclination
c. angle of sheave
d. none of the above

245. Wire rope used to counterbalance, or partially counterbalance,


the weight of the suspension ropes.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor

246. Wire rope used to raise and lower the counterweight or an


electric elevator having a winding drum machine or a hydraulic elevator
equipped with a counterweight.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor

247. Wire rope with at least one end fastened to the safety activating
means or governor rope releasing carrier, passing over and driving the
governor sheave, and providing continuous information on the speed
and direction of the car of counterweight.
a. rope, car-counterweight
b. rope, compensating
c. rope, counterweight
d. rope, governor

248. Wire roped used to raise and lower an elevator car or its
counterweight, or both.
a. rope suspension (hoisting)
b. rope equalizer, suspension
c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary
d. rope sprocket drive

249. An assembly incorporating the detector, the control equipment,


and the alarm-sounding device in one unit, operated from a power
supply either in the unit or obtained at the point of installation.
a. nuisance alarm
b. multiple-station smoke alarm
c. multiple-station alarm device
d. single-station smoke alarm

250. A room or a space in which people sleep, which can also include
permanent provisions for living, eating and either sanitation or kitchen
facilities but not both. Such rooms and spaces that are also part of a
dwelling unit are not sleeping units.
a. sleeping unit
b. maintenance unit
c. storage unit
d. sanitation unit

251. A single or multiple-station alarm responsive to smoke and not


connected to a system.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. smoke alarm

252. A listed device that senses visible or invisible particles of


combustion.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. smoke alarm

253. A facility that receives signals and at which personnel are in


attendance at all times to respond to these signals.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. supervisory signal initiating device

254. The service required to monitor performance of guard tours and


the operative condition of fixed suppression systems or other systems
for the protection of life and property.
a. supervisory service
b. supervising station
c. smoke detector
d. supervisory signal initiating device

255. A signal indicating the need of action in connection with the


supervision of guard tours, the fire suppression systems or equipment,
or the maintenance features of related systems.
a. supervisory service
b. supervisory signal
c. smoke detector
d. supervisory signal initiating device

256. A signal initiated by the fire alarm system or device indicative of


a fault in a monitored circuit or component.
a. supervisory signal
b. trouble signal
c. wireless protection system
d. supervisory signal initiating device

257. A notification appliance that alerts through the sense of sight.


a. zone
b. wireless protection system
c. wet-chemical extinguishing agent
d. visible alarm notification appliance

258. A solution of water and potassium-carbonate-based chemical,


potassium-acetate-based chemical or a combination thereof, fanning an
extinguishing agent.
a. zone
b. wireless protection system
c. wet-chemical extinguishing agent
d. visible alarm notification appliance

259. A system or a part of a system that can transmit and receive


signals without the aid of wire.
a. zone
b. wireless protection system
c. wireless receiver
d. wireless connection zone

260. A defined area within the protected premises.


a. zone
b. fire area
c. storage room
d. maintenance room

261. A service tank used in agriculture for applying anhydrous


ammonia to the soil, or for other agricultural uses.
a. applicator tank
b. appurtenance tank
c. storage tank
d. artificial tank

262. A building or a portion of a building used for the gathering


together of fifty (50) or more persons for such purposes as deliberation,
education, instruction, worship, entertainment, amusement, drinking,
dining, or awaiting transportation.
a. assembly building
b. assembly room
c. briefing area
d. none of these

263. The organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing


the requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment,
materials, installations, or procedures.
a. standard authority
b. authority having jurisdiction
c. mechanical standard agency
d. none of these

264. A listed chimney


a. none of the above
b. c or d
c. stock
d. factory built chimney

265. Used in business with direct intercourse of the function with the
public. May or not be operated by public or hired attendant. May or may
not be coin operated.
a. clothes dyer, type 4
b. clothes dyer, type 3
c. clothes dyer, type 2
d. clothes dyer, type 1

266. Printed instructions included with equipment or devices for the


purpose of providing information regarding safe and proper installation
and use whether or not as part of the conditions of listing.
a. manufacturers manual
b. manufacturers installation instructions
c. manufacturers safety instruction
d. none of these

267.Area within the flood hazard area that is subject to high velocity wave
action, as shown in Philippine Government flood hazard map.
a. flood hazard area subject to medium velocity wave action
b. flood hazard area subject to high velocity wave action
c flood hazard area subject to low velocity wave action
d none of these

268.Air being conveyed to a conveyed to a conditioned area through ducts


or plenums from a heat exchanger of a heating, cooling, absorption, or
evaporative cooling system.
a. air, intake
b. air, conditioned
c. air, exhaust
d. air, supply

269. Assembly of a multiple number of tubes securely fastened within


a framework structure and used in DOT service.
a. mobile fuel tank
b. mobile storage module
c. motor fuel tank
d. tank

270. A recognized architectural or mechanical component of a


building having a fire resistance rating as required for the structure and
whose purpose is to enclose the vapor removal duct for its full length to
its termination point outside the structure without any portion of the
enclosure having a fire resistance rating less than the required value.
[NFPA 96:3.3.22.1]
a. continues enclosure
b. factory built grease enclosure
c. field applied grease duct enclosures
d. none of the these

271. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope
sheaves are attached at or below the car platform.
a. car frame (sling)
b. frame, over slung
c. car frame, under slug
d. car frame, sub-post

272. A button or other device located at an elevator landing which


when activated causes the elevator car to stop at that floor.
a. stage lift
b. static switching
c. stopping devices, normal
d. stopping device, elevator landing

273. That portion of the landing adjacent to the tread way consisting
of one or more stationary or slightly movable plates.
a. threshold comb, moving walk
b. threshold plate, moving walk
c. threshold comb, stationary
d. threshold plate, stationary

274. Any portion of a healthcare facility wherein patients are intended


to be examined or treated. [NFPA 99 22]
a. patient care area
b. purge, flow
c. purge, system
d. special hazard area

275. A person who is qualified to make inspections or examinations of


boilers or tanks according to the rules under which the vessel was
constructed, and who holds a valid certificate of competency issued by
the division.
a. certified inspector
b. qualified inspector
c. qualified safety engineer
d. none of these

276. A tank installed on a trailer or semi-trailer, and used temporarily


to receive and store anhydrous ammonia. Temporarily means not
more than 120 days.
a. portable air tank
b. portable LNG tank
c. portable NH3 tank
d. mobile storage tank, MST

277. Pairs of mating stop valves, valving off sections of refrigeration


systems and arranged so that these sections maybe joined before
opening these valves or separated after closing them.
a. valve, three-way-type stop
b. valve, pressure relief
c. valve, stop
d. valves, companion or block

278. All of that equipment intended or installed for the purpose of


supplying air to, or removing air from, any room or space by
mechanical means other than equipment that is a portion of an
environmental heating, cooling, absorption, or evaporative cooling
system.
a. venting system- gravity type
b. ventilating system
c. venting system- power type
d. none of these

279. A system that depends on a mechanical device to provide a


positive draft within the venting system.
a. ventilating system
b. venting system- power type
c. venting system- gravity type
d. none of these

280. A freestanding, non-recessed, environmental heating appliance


installed in the space being heated and not connected to ducts.
a. portable heater
b. room heater
c. room heater, unvented
d. none of these

281. An unvented, self-contained, freestanding, non-recessed, fuel gas


burning appliance for furnishing warm air by gravity of fan circulation to
the space in which installed, directly from the heater without duct
connection.
a. portable heater
b. room heater
c. room heater, unvented
d. none of these

282.Any area or space where combustible dust, ignitable fibers or


flammable, volatile liquids, gases, vapors or mixtures are or may be
present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or
ignitable mixtures.
a. heat (energy) recovery ventilator
b. hazardous location
c. danger zone
d. none of these

283. An air compartment or chamber including uninhabited crawl


spaces areas above a ceiling or below a floor, including air spaces
below raised floors of computer/data processing centers or attic spaces,
to that one or more ducts are connected and that form parts of either
the supply air, return air or exhaust air system, other than the occupied
space being conditioned.
a. duct
b. piping
c. plenum
d. none of these

284. A chimney constructed of metal with a minimum thickness not


less than one hundred and twenty-seven one hundredths (0.127) inch
(3.23 mm) (No. 10 manufacturers standard gauge steel sheet).
a. masonry chimney
b. chimney, residential appliance type
c. metal chimney
d. none of these

285. A power boiler plant designed to distribute hot water or stream


to users located off premises.
a. area heating plant
b. location heating plant
c. district heating plant
d. none of these

286. A central furnace equipped with a fan or blower that provides the
primarily means for circulation of air.
a. forced airtype central furnace
b. up-flow type furnace
c. horizontal type central furnace
d. none of these

287. A furnace designed for low headroom installations with airflow


through the appliance in a horizontal path.
a. horizontal type central furnace
b. forced air type central furnace
c. up-flow type furnace
d. none of these

288. A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path,


discharging air at or near the top of the furnace.
a. horizontal type central furnace
b. up-flow type central furnace
c. forced air type central furnace
d. none of these
289. A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path,
discharging air at or near the bottom of the furnace.
a. forced air type central furnace
b. vertical-flow type central furnace
c. down-flow type central furnace
d. none of these

290. A tank used in agriculture for off highway service to deliver NH3
from a transportation tank or storage tank to an applicator tank in the
field.
a. nurse tank
b. storage tank
c. transportation tank
d. trap tank (trap wagon)

291.

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