Marking Scheme T3

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Part Model Answer (Full mark = 20) Marks

The angular momentum should be
A1 2

(1 point for the definition of angular momentum)

Here is the unit vector pointing from the center of the ring to the mass point on the ring
and is the unit vector parallel to the direction of the linear velocity at the mass point.

We know that v = w r , so finally we can get

, with . (1 point for the correct answer: 0.5 points for the
magnitude and 0.5 points for the direction)

For a current loop, the magnetic moment is defined as

A2 2

The current can be expressed as

w
I = -ef = -e (1 point for the current expression)
2p

Finally

(1 point for the answer)

A3 For a current loop, under a uniform magnetic field the total torque should be 2

(0.5 point for the torque definition)

The work done by the magnetic field on the torque should be

W d
2

d
2 (1.5 points for the work on the torque)

2 M B sin d

M B
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(0.5 point for the answer)

A4 We assume that the magnetic field is along z direction such that , then in general 1

The magnetic torque of an electron should be

e
Mz Sz (0.5 points for the electron torque)
2me

Thus

U M B
e
Sz B
2me
B (0.5 points for the answer)
Sz B

1
B B
2

e
Here B is the Bohr magneton.
2me

B 5.788 105 eV T 1

A5 Thus for spin parallel state , we have 1

= 5.788 105 eV (0.5 points)

For spin anti-parallel state , we have

= 5.788 105 eV (0.5 points)

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B1 In the superconductivity state, electrons forming a Cooper pair have opposite spins, thus 1
the external magnetic field cannot have any effect on the cooper pair. Thus the energy of
the Cooper pair does not change.

p12 p22
ES = + - 2D ( 1 point for the answer)
2m 2m

In the normal state, the two electrons will align their magnetic moments parallel to the
B2 external magnetic field. Therefore we have 1

p12 p22 2B S1x Bx 2B S2 x Bx

EN
2m 2m

Here the potential energy of electrons should be twice as the classical estimation

according to quantum mechanics. Because can make the magnetic

moment aligned along x direction, eventually we have

p12 p22
EN 2B Bx
2m 2m
(1 point)
p12 p22 e
Bx
2m 2m me

B3 D 1
EN < ES 2Bx m B > 2D Bx >
mB

2me
Thus BP (1 points)
B e

Note: The above simple consideration for the upper critical field BP over estimates its
value. The strict derivation considering the Pauli magnetization and superconductivity
m
condensation energy will give BP 2 e .
2B e

C1 Method 1: 3
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1
2 4 x2
Substituting x

e into the F y , we have ( )

2 x2 e 2 Bz2 x 2 x2
F

e

e x2

4me
2 e x2
4 x e
2 2 x2

me
e dx

2 2 2 x2
2
2 x2 e2 Bz2 2 2



2me
e
me

me
x e dx

e 2 Bz2
2
1
2 2

2me me me 4
2
e 2 Bz2

4me 4 me

( )
(1.5 points for the correct expression of F y as a function of l )

( )
We can treat F y as a function of l . Thus we have

2
e2 Bz2 dF 2
e2 Bz2
F , and .
4me 4 me d 4me 4me 2

F (y ) takes the minimum value when

dF d2 F
0 and 0 , thus
d d 2

e2 Bz2
( )
2
0 ( 0.5 point for the way to minimize F y )
4me 4me 2

Finally, we can get

(1 point for the correct answer)

We can check that

d2F
dl 2
> 0 when ( )
, which guarantees that F y takes the

minimum value when .

Method 2:
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2
d 2 e2 Bz2 x 2
F 2
dx
4 m e d x me

2
d 2
e Bz x
2 2 2
2
dx (1 point)
4me dx me

H dx

In this way, for normalized wave function the F is simply the energy expectation
, the eigenvalue of the Hamiltonian

d 2 e2 Bz2 2
2
H x
4me dx 2 me

The first two terms correspond to the quantum simple harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian.
Thus the ground state energy should be

eBz
Here and ground state wave function becomes
me

1
me
2m 4 x2
e e

1
(1 point)
2eBz
eBz 2
4 x
e

Therefore, we have

. (1 point)

eBz
From Part (C1) we know Fmin . At the critical value for Bz , it makes the
2me
energy difference zero. It means that the critical value Bz satisfies
C2 2
eBz
0 . (1 point for this equation)
2me

Consequently,
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. (1 point for the correct answer)

D1 p12 p22 2 S B 2 S B 1
EI 2 B 1 z z B 2 z z
2m 2m

Here ,

p12 p22 2 S B 2 S B
EI 2 B 1 z z B 2 z z
2m 2m
p12 p22 2 B 2 B
2 B z B z
2m 2m 2 2
2 2 (1 point)
p1 p2
2 2 B Bz
2m 2m
p12 p22 e
2 Bz
2m 2m me

In the normal state, the electrons will align the magnetic moment parallel to the total
D2 magnetic field, thus 2

2
1 22 2B 1
1 2B 2
2
|| = 2 + 2 + +

For electron 1,

For electron 2,

Therefore, and

can make the their magnetic moments parallel to the total magnetic field respectively.

(1 point for the correct expression of spins: 0.5 points for each respectively)

Finally

2 2 2 2
1
|| = 2 2
+ 2 2B 2 + 2 = 2
1 2
+ 2 2 + 2 (1 point for the answer)

2 + 2B
D3 || < Ising 2B 2 + 2 > 2 + 2B > (1 points) 1
B
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Another correct expression is: .