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Copyright 2008, New Age International (P) Ltd., Publishers
Published by New Age International (P) Ltd., Publishers

All rights reserved.


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xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval
system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of the publisher.
All inquiries should be emailed to rights@newagepublishers.com

ISBN (13) : 978-81-224-2627-4

PUBLISHING FOR ONE WORLD


NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
4835/24, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, New Delhi - 110002
Visit us at www.newagepublishers.com
Dedicated to

PROF. DR. F.V. MANVI

Secretary
KLE Society, BELGAUM
KARNATAKA.

To My First Pharmacy teacher with Love


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FOREWORD

Competitive Examinations are the order of the day. All Colleges conducting professional courses at PG level are
admitting students based on common entrance examination, which is of objective type.
In Pharmacy, M.Pharm admissions are based on qualifying the GATE enterance examination conducted by Govt.
of India.
In this book, The author has done good work in preparing several objective questions which help the students to face
the subject in the examination with poise and confidence.
The book is well balanced and consists of multiple choice questions from all the important topics like carbohydrate
metabolism and other important Biochemical aspects.
The typesetting and quality of printing is good. The author is also well experienced in taking up this type of work.
I recommend this book to all the students preparing for GATE examination and also for Medical and Pharmacy
College libraries.

PROF. B.G. SHIVANANDA


Principal
AL-AMEEN COLLEGE OF PHARMACY
BANGALORE.
WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 289

PREFACE
PREFA

I have brought out this book basically for students who plan to appear for Biochemistry in the entrance examinations like
JIPMER and other Medical, Pharmacy, Physiotherapy, Nursing and other Paramedical PG Entrance Examinations. There
is a dearth of good entrance manual of Biochemistry for the above said examinations. Hence, I have prepared an
exhaustive Question bank of around 5000 MCQs with answers covering a wide spectrum of basic Biochemical topics of
the subject.
Some of the important topics which are given a good coverage include Carbohydrate metabolism, Protein metabo-
lism, Lipid metabolism, Nucleic acids, Enzymes, Vitamins and Mineral metabolism.
The objective questions are prepared based on the background taken from previous question papers of Profes-
sional medical and Paramedical competitive entrance examinations.
The book serves as a ready reckoner for Biochemistry as far as objective pattern is concerned. I feel satisfied if the
book serves the purpose for which it is intended.
I have tried to minimize typographical errors but still some must have crept in. If they are brought to my notice, I will
be rectifying them in the next edition.
Constructive Criticism is always welcome
G. Vidya Sagar
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS

I wish to express my profound gratitude and benevolence to the following who were the inspiring force in making this
book a reality
Prof. Dr. Kishor Pramod Bhusari
Sadhvi Shilapiji
Principal, Nagpur College of Pharmacy
Chair person, Veerayatan Vidyapeeth,
Nagpur.
Jakhaniya, Kutch, Gujarat
Prof. Dr. R. Rangari
Prof. Dr. R.K. Goyal
Principal, J.N. Chaturvedi College of Pharmacy
L.M. College of Pharmacy
Nagpur
Ahmedabad, Gujarat
Prof. Dr. Anant Naik Nagappa
Prof. Dr. A.K. Saluja
Pharmacy group, Birla Institute of Technology &
A.R. College of Pharmacy
Sciences
Vallabh Vidyanagar
Pilani, Rajasthan
Gujarat
Prof. Dr. Srinivas Rao
Prof. J.V.L.N. Sheshagiri Rao
Principal, VELs College of Pharmacy
Dept. of Pharmaceutical Sciences
Chennai
Andhra University, Vishakhapatnam, A.P.
Finally, I express my gratitude to Mr. Saumya Gupta. MD, New Age International (P) Limited, New Delhi, for his
encouragement and support.
Dr. G.Vidya Sagar
SOME VALU
VALUABLE COMMENTS
ALUABLE

This book is very useful for students appearing for GATE Exams. Recommended reading.
Prof. Dr. Subhas C. Marihal
Principal, Goa College of Pharmacy, Goa.

Biochemistry made simple in the form of multiple choice questions. Strongly recommended.
Prof. Dr. Vijaykumar Ishwar Hukkeri
Principal, KLE College of Pharmacy, Hubli

Dr. Vidya Sagar can be applauded for his untiring efforts in bringing out such a good book.
Recommended for students and Library
Dr. G. Devala Rao
Principal, Sidhartha College of Pharmaceutical Sciences
Vijaywada, A.P.

This book will be very useful companion for students appearing for PG Medical, Pharmacy, Nursing and
Physiotherapy competitive exams.
Prof. Dr. T.K. Ravi
Principal, Sri Ramakrishna Institute of Pharmaceutical Science
Coimbatore.

MCQs are well framed, mostly from previous entrance examinations. Commendable work.
Prof. Madhukar R. Tajne
Deptt. of Pharmaceutical Sciences,
Nagpur University, Nagpur
CONTENTS

Preface (x)
Chapter 1
INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY
TO 1
CHAPTER 2
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRA
CARBOHYDRATES TE MET
CARBOHYDRATE ABOLISM
METABOLISM 5
CHAPTER 3
PROTEINS & PRO
PROTEINS TEIN MET
PROTEIN ABOLISM
METABOLISM 27
CHAPTER 4
FATS & FATTY A
FA CID MET
ACID ABOLISM
METABOLISM 75
CHAPTER 5
VITAMINS
VITAMINS 113
CHAPTER 6
ENZYMES 141
CHAPTER 7
MINERAL METABOLISM
METABOLISM 183
CHAPTER 8
HORMONE METABOLISM
METABOLISM 209
CHAPTER 9
NUCLEIC ACIDS
ACIDS 237
CHAPTER 10
WATER & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
ELECTROLYTE 281
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CHAPTER 1

INTRODUCTION TO
BIOCHEMISTRY

1. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis 8. Which are the cholesterol esters that enter
by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine cells through the receptor-mediated
oxidase is endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?
(A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (A) Endoplasmin reticulum
(C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid (B) Lysosomes
(C) Plasma membrane receptor
2. Which of the following is required for
(D) Mitochondria
crystallization and storage of the
hormone insulin? 9. Which of the following phospholipids is
(A) Mn ++ (B) Mg ++ localized to a greater extent in the outer
leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer?
(C) Ca++ (D) Zn++
(A) Choline phosphoglycerides
3. Oxidation of which substance in the body
(B) Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides
yields the most calories
(C) Inositol phosphoglycerides
(A) Glucose (B) Glycogen
(D) Serine phosphoglycerides
(C) Protein (D) Lipids
10. All the following processes occur rapidly
4. Milk is deficient in which vitamins? in the membrane lipid bilayer except
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin A (A) Flexing of fatty acyl chains
(C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin K (B) Lateral diffusion of phospholipids
5. Milk is deficient of which mineral? (C) Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids
(D) Rotation of phospholipids around their long
(A) Phosphorus (B) Sodium
axes
(C) Iron (D) Potassium
11. Which of the following statement is
6. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibited correct about membrane cholesterol?
by
(A) The hydroxyl group is located near the centre
(A) Aspirin (B) Arsenic of the lipid layer
(C) Fluoride (D) Cyanide (B) Most of the cholesterol is in the form of a
7. HDL is synthesized and secreted from cholesterol ester
(C) The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid, planar
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver
structure
(C) Kidney (D) Muscle
2 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

(D) The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol projects (C) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase


into the extracellular fluid (C) All of these
12. Which one is the heaviest particulate 21. The most active site of protein synthesis
component of the cell? is the
(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome
(C) Cytoplasm (D) Golgi apparatus (C) Mitochondrion (D) Cell sap
13. Which one is the largest particulate of the 22. The fatty acids can be transported into
cytoplasm? and out of mitochondria through
(A) Lysosomes (A) Active transport
(B) Mitochondria (B) Facilitated transfer
(C) Golgi apparatus (C) Non-facilitated transfer
(D) Entoplasmic reticulum (D) None of these
14. The degradative Processess are categorized 23. Mitochondrial DNA is
under the heading of
(A) Circular double stranded
(A) Anabolism (B) Catabolism (B) Circular single stranded
(C) Metabolism (D) None of the above (C) Linear double helix
15. The exchange of material takes place (D) None of these
(A) Only by diffusion 24. The absorption of intact protein from the
(B) Only by active transport gut in the foetal and newborn animals
(C) Only by pinocytosis takes place by
(D) All of these (A) Pinocytosis (B) Passive diffusion
(C) Simple diffusion (D) Active transport
16. The average pH of Urine is
(A) 7.0 (B) 6.0 25. The cellular organelles called suicide
bags are
(C) 8.0 (D) 0.0
(A) Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes
17. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio (C) Nucleolus (D) Golgis bodies
between H2CO3 and NaHCO3 is
(A) 1 : 10 (B) 1 : 20 26. From the biological viewpoint, solutions
can be grouped into
(C) 1 : 25 (C) 1 : 30
(A) Isotonic solution
18. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite (B) Hypotonic solutions
to that of
(C) Hypertonic solution
(A) Diffusion (B) Effusion (D) All of these
(C) Affusion (D) Coagulation
27. Bulk transport across cell membrane is
19. The surface tension in intestinal lumen accomplished by
between fat droplets and aqueous
(A) Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis
medium is decreased by
(C) Extrusion (D) All of these
(A) Bile Salts (B) Bile acids
(C) Conc. H2SO4 (D) Acetic acid 28. The ability of the cell membrane to act as
a selective barrier depends upon
20. Which of the following is located in the
(A) The lipid composition of the membrane
mitochondria?
(B) The pores which allows small molecules
(A) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) The special mediated transport systems
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(D) All of these
INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY 3

29. Carrier protein can 35. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport


(A) Transport only one substance are present mainly in the
(B) Transport more than one substance (A) Ribosomes
(C) Exchange one substance to another (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Perform all of these functions (C) Lysosomes
(D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
30. A lipid bilayer is permeable to
(A) Urea (B) Fructose 36. Mature erythrocytes do not contain
(C) Glucose (D) Potassium (A) Glycolytic enzymes(B) HMP shunt enzymes
(C) Pyridine nucleotide(D) ATP
31. The Golgi complex
(A) Synthesizes proteins 37. In mammalian cells rRNA is produced
mainly in the
(B) Produces ATP
(C) Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals (A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Forms glycoproteins (B) Ribosome
(C) Nucleolus
32. The following points about microfilaments
(D) Nucleus
are true except
(A) They form cytoskeleton with microtubules 38. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is
transmitted to the site of protein synthesis
(B) They provide support and shape
by
(C) They form intracellular conducting channels
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA
(D) They are involved in muscle cell contraction
(C) tRNA (D) Polysomes
33. The following substances are cell
inclusions except 39. The power house of the cell is

(A) Melanin (B) Glycogen (A) Nucleus (B) Cell membrane


(C) Lipids (D) Centrosome (C) Mitochondria (D) Lysosomes

34. Fatty acids can be transported into and 40. The digestive enzymes of cellular
out of cell membrane by compounds are confined to

(A) Active transport (B) Facilitated transport (A) Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes
(C) Diffusion (D) Osmosis (C) Peroxisomes (D) Polysomes

ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A
7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A
13. B 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. A
19. A 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. A
25. A 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. D 36. C
37. C 38. D 39. C 40. A
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CHAPTER 2

CARBOHYDRA TES AND


ARBOHYDRATES
CARBOHYDRATE MET
ARBOHYDRATE ABOLISM
ETABOLISM

1. The general formula of monosaccharides 9. Two sugars which differ from one another
is only in configuration around a single
(A) CnH2nOn (B) C2nH2On carbon atom are termed
(C) CnH2O2n (D) CnH 2nO2n (A) Epimers (B) Anomers
2. The general formula of polysaccharides (C) Optical isomers (D) Stereoisomers
is
10. Isomers differing as a result of variations
(A) (C6H 10O5)n (B) (C6 H12O5)n in configuration of the OH and H on
(C) (C6H 10O6)n (D) (C6 H10O6)n carbon atoms 2, 3 and 4 of glucose are
known as
3. The aldose sugar is
(A) Glycerose (B) Ribulose (A) Epimers (B) Anomers
(C) Erythrulose (D) Dihydoxyacetone (C) Optical isomers (D) Steroisomers

4. A triose sugar is 11. The most important epimer of glucose is


(A) Glycerose (B) Ribose (A) Galactose (B) Fructose
(C) Erythrose (D) Fructose (C) Arabinose (D) Xylose
5. A pentose sugar is
12. -D-glucose and -D-glucose are
(A) Dihydroxyacetone (B) Ribulose
(C) Erythrose (D) Glucose (A) Stereoisomers (B) Epimers
(C) Anomers (D) Keto-aldo pairs
6. The pentose sugar present mainly in the
heart muscle is 13. -D-glucose + 1120 + 52.50 + 190 -
(A) Lyxose (B) Ribose D-glucose for glucose above represents
(C) Arabinose (D) Xylose (A) Optical isomerism (B) Mutarotation
7. Polysaccharides are (C) Epimerisation (D) D and L isomerism
(A) Polymers (B) Acids 14. Compounds having the same structural
(C) Proteins (D) Oils formula but differing in spatial
configuration are known as
8. The number of isomers of glucose is
(A) Stereoisomers (B) Anomers
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16 (C) Optical isomers (D) Epimers
6 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

15. In glucose the orientation of the H and (C) Glucose + galactose


OH groups around the carbon atom 5 (D) Glucose + mannose
adjacent to the terminal primary alcohol
carbon determines 25. The monosaccharide units are linked by
1 4 glycosidic linkage in
(A) D or L series
(A) Maltose (B) Sucrose
(B) Dextro or levorotatory
(C) Cellulose (D) Cellobiose
(C) and anomers
(D) Epimers 26. Which of the following is a non-reducing
sugar?
16. The carbohydrate of the blood group
substances is (A) Isomaltose (B) Maltose
(C) Lactose (D) Trehalose
(A) Sucrose (B) Fucose
(C) Arabinose (D) Maltose 27. Which of the following is a reducing
sugar?
17. Erythromycin contains
(A) Sucrose (B) Trehalose
(A) Dimethyl amino sugar
(C) Isomaltose (D) Agar
(B) Trimethyl amino sugar
(C) Sterol and sugar
(D) Glycerol and sugar 28. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic
linkage between their monosaccharide
18. A sugar alcohol is units is
(A) Mannitol (B) Trehalose (A) Lactose (B) Maltose
(C) Xylulose (D) Arabinose (C) Trehalose (D) Sucrose
19. The major sugar of insect hemolymph is 29. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic
(A) Glycogen (B) Pectin linkage between their monosaccharide
(C) Trehalose (D) Sucrose units is
(A) Lactose (B) Maltose
20. The sugar found in DNA is
(C) Trehalose (D) Sucrose
(A) Xylose (B) Ribose
(C) Deoxyribose (D) Ribulose 30. Mutarotation refers to change in
(A) pH (B) Optical rotation
21. The sugar found in RNA is
(C) Conductance (D) Chemical properties
(A) Ribose (B) Deoxyribose
(C) Ribulose (D) Erythrose 31. A polysacchharide which is often called
animal starch is
22. The sugar found in milk is
(A) Glycogen (B) Starch
(A) Galactose (B) Glucose (C) Inulin (D) Dextrin
(C) Fructose (D) Lactose
32. The homopolysaccharide used for
23. Invert sugar is intravenous infusion as plasma substitute
(A) Lactose (B) Sucrose is
(C) Hydrolytic products of sucrose (A) Agar (B) Inulin
(D) Fructose (C) Pectin (D) Starch

24. Sucrose consists of 33. The polysaccharide used in assessing the


glomerular fittration rate (GFR) is
(A) Glucose + glucose
(B) Glucose + fructose (A) Glycogen (B) Agar
(C) Inulin (D) Hyaluronic acid
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 7

34. The constituent unit of inulin is 43. A polymer of glucose synthesized by the
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose action of leuconostoc mesenteroids in a
sucrose medium is
(C) Mannose (D) Galactose
(A) Dextrans (B) Dextrin
35. The polysaccharide found in the (C) Limit dextrin (D) Inulin
exoskeleton of invertebrates is
44. Glucose on reduction with sodium
(A) Pectin (B) Chitin
amalgam forms
(C) Cellulose (D) Chondroitin sulphate
(A) Dulcitol (B) Sorbitol
36. Which of the following is a heteroglycan? (C) Mannitol (D) Mannitol and sorbitol
(A) Dextrins (B) Agar 45. Glucose on oxidation does not give
(C) Inulin (D) Chitin
(A) Glycoside (B) Glucosaccharic acid
37. The glycosaminoglycan which does not (C) Gluconic acid (D) Glucuronic acid
contain uronic acid is
46. Oxidation of galactose with conc HNO3
(A) Dermatan sulphate yields
(B) Chondroitin sulphate (A) Mucic acid (B) Glucuronic acid
(C) Keratan sulphate (C) Saccharic acid (D) Gluconic acid
(D) Heparan sulphate
47. A positive Benedicts test is not given by
38. The glycosaminoglycan which does not (A) Sucrose (B) Lactose
contain uronic acid is
(C) Maltose (D) Glucose
(A) Hyaluronic acid
48. Starch is a
(B) Heparin
(C) Chondroitin sulphate (A) Polysaccharide (B) Monosaccharide
(C) Disaccharide (D) None of these
(D) Dermatan sulphate
49. A positive Seliwanoffs test is obtained
39. Keratan sulphate is found in abundance
with
in
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(A) Heart muscle (B) Liver
(C) Lactose (D) Maltose
(C) Adrenal cortex (D) Cornea
50. Osazones are not formed with the
40. Repeating units of hyaluronic acid are
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(A) N-acetyl glucosamine and D-glucuronic acid
(C) Sucrose (D) Lactose
(B) N-acetyl galactosamine and D-glucuronic
acid 51. The most abundant carbohydrate found
(C) N-acetyl glucosamine and galactose in nature is
(D) N-acetyl galactosamine and L- iduronic acid (A) Starch (B) Glycogen
(C) Cellulose (D) Chitin
41. The approximate number of branches in
amylopectin is 52. Impaired renal function is indicated when
the amount of PSP excreted in the first 15
(A) 10 (B) 20
minutes is
(C) 40 (D) 80
(A) 20% (B) 35%
42. In amylopectin the intervals of glucose (C) 40% (D) 45%
units of each branch is
53. An early feature of renal disease is
(A) 1020 (B) 2430
(C) 3040 (D) 4050 (A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to
perform osmotic work
8 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

(B) Decrease in maximal tubular excretory 62. Fructose is present in hydrolysate of


capacity (A) Sucrose (B) Inulin
(C) Decrease in filtration factor (C) Both of the above (D) None of these
(D) Decrease in renal plasma flow
63. A carbohydrate found in DNA is
54. ADH test is based on the measurement of (A) Ribose (B) Deoxyribose
(A) Specific gravity of urine (C) Ribulose (D) All of these
(B) Concentration of urea in urine 64. Ribulose is a these
(C) Concentration of urea in blood
(A) Ketotetrose (B) Aldotetrose
(D) Volume of urine in ml/minute
(C) Ketopentose (D) Aldopentose
55. The specific gravity of urine normally 65. A carbohydrate, commonly known as
ranges from dextrose is
(A) 0.9000.999 (B) 1.0031.030 (A) Dextrin (B) D-Fructose
(C) 1.0001.001 (D) 1.1011.120 (C) D-Glucose (D) Glycogen
56. Specific gravity of urine increases in 66. A carbohydrate found only in milk is
(A) Diabetes mellitus (A) Glucose (B) Galactose
(B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Lactose (D) Maltose
(C) Compulsive polydypsia
67. A carbohydrate, known commonly as
(D) Hypercalcemia invert sugar, is
57. Fixation of specific gravity of urine to (A) Fructose (B) Sucrose
1.010 is found in (C) Glucose (D) Lactose
(A) Diabetes insipidus 68. A heteropolysacchraide among the
(B) Compulsive polydypsia following is
(C) Cystinosis (A) Inulin (B) Cellulose
(D) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Heparin (D) Dextrin
58. Addis test is the measure of 69. The predominant form of glucose in
solution is
(A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to
perform osmotic work (A) Acyclic form
(B) Secretory function of liver (B) Hydrated acyclic form
(C) Excretory function of liver (C) Glucofuranose
(D) Activity of parenchymal cells of liver (D) Glucopyranose
70. An L-isomer of monosaccharide formed in
59. Number of stereoisomers of glucose is
human body is
(A) 4 (B) 8
(A) L-fructose (B) L-Erythrose
(C) 16 (D) None of these
(C) L-Xylose (D) L-Xylulose
60. Maltose can be formed by hydrolysis of
71. Hyaluronic acid is found in
(A) Starch (B) Dextrin (A) Joints (B) Brain
(C) Glycogen (D) All of these (C) Abdomen (D) Mouth
61. DGlucuronic acid is present in 72. The carbon atom which becomes
(A) Hyaluronic acid (B) Chondroitin sulphate asymmetric when the straight chain form
of monosaccharide changes into ring
(C) Heparin (D) All of these
form is known as
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 9

(A) Anomeric carbon atom 82. Lactate formed in muscles can be utilised
(B) Epimeric carbon atom through
(C) Isomeric carbon atom (A) Rapoport-Luebeling cycle
(D) None of these (B) Glucose-alanine cycle
(C) Coris cycle
73. The smallest monosaccharide having
furanose ring structure is (D) Citric acid cycle
(A) Erythrose (B) Ribose 83. Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in
(C) Glucose (D) Fructose (A) Liver and kidneys
74. Which of the following is an epimeric pair? (B) Kidneys and muscles
(A) Glucose and fructose (C) Kidneys and adipose tissue
(B) Glucose and galactose (D) Muscles and adipose tissue
(C) Galactose and mannose 84. Pyruvate carboxylase is regulated by
(D) Lactose and maltose (A) Induction (B) Repression
75. -Glycosidic bond is present in (C) Allosteric regulation(D) All of these
(A) Lactose (B) Maltose 85. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is formed by
(C) Sucrose (D) All of these the action of

76. Branching occurs in glycogen approxi- (A) Phosphofructokinase-1


mately after every (B) Phosphofructokinase-2
(A) Five glucose units (C) Fructose biphosphate isomerase
(B) Ten glucose units (D) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
(C) Fifteen glucose units 86. The highest concentrations of fructose are
(D) Twenty glucose units found in

77. NAcetylglucosamnine is present in (A) Aqueous humor (B) Vitreous humor


(C) Synovial fluid (D) Seminal fluid
(A) Hyaluronic acid (B) Chondroitin sulphate
(C) Heparin (D) All of these 87. Glucose uptake by liver cells is

78. Iodine gives a red colour with (A) Energy-consuming (B) A saturable process
(C) Insulin-dependent (D) Insulin-independent
(A) Starch (B) Dextrin
(C) Glycogen (D) Inulin 88. Renal threshold for glucose is decreased
in
79. Amylose is a constituent of
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Insulinoma
(A) Starch (B) Cellulose
(C) Renal glycosuria (D) Alimentary glycosuria
(C) Glycogen (D) None of these
89. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
80. Synovial fluid contains
(A) Ouabain (B) Phlorrizin
(A) Heparin
(C) Digoxin (D) Alloxan
(B) Hyaluronic acid
(C) Chondroitin sulphate 90. Glucose-6-phosphatase is absent or
(D) Keratin sulphate deficient in
(A) Von Gierkes disease
81. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by
(B) Pompes disease
(A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine
(C) Coris disease
(C) Glucocorticoids (D) Insulin
(D) McArdles disease
10 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

91. Debranching enzyme is absent in 100. An amphibolic pathway among the


(A) Coris disease following is
(B) Andersens disease (A) HMP shunt (B) Glycolysis
(C) Von Gierkes disease (C) Citirc acid cycle (D) Gluconeogenesis
(D) Hers disease 101. Coris cycle transfers
92. McArdles disease is due to the deficiency (A) Glucose from muscles to liver
of (B) Lactate from muscles to liver
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase (C) Lactate from liver to muscles
(B) Phosphofructokinase (D) Pyruvate from liver to muscles
(C) Liver phosphorylase
102. Excessive intake of ethanol increases the
(D) muscle phosphorylase ratio:
93. Tautomerisation is (A) NADH : NAD+ (B) NAD+ : NADH
(A) Shift of hydrogen (B) Shift of carbon (C) FADH2 : FAD (D) FAD : FADH2
(C) Shift of both (D) None of these 103. Ethanol decreases gluconeogenesis by
94. In essential pentosuria, urine contains (A) Inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) D-Ribose (B) D-Xylulose (B) Inhibiting PEP carboxykinase
(C) L-Xylulose (D) D-Xylose (C) Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing
the availability of pyruvate
95. Action of salivary amylase on starch leads
(D) Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing
to the formation of
the availability of lactate
(A) Maltose (B) Maltotriose
104. Glycogenin is
(C) Both of the above (D) Neither of these
(A) Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
96. Congenital galactosaemia can lead to
(B) Polymer of glycogen molecules
(A) Mental retardation (C) Protein primer for glycogen synthesis
(B) Premature cataract (D) Intermediate in glycogen breakdown
(C) Death
105. During starvation, ketone bodies are used
(D) All of the above
as a fuel by
97. Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) is (A) Erythrocytes (B) Brain
(A) Required for metabolism of galactose (C) Liver (D) All of these
(B) Required for synthesis of glucuronic acid
106. Animal fat is in general
(C) A substrate for glycogen synthetase
(A) Poor in saturated and rich in polyunsaturated
(D) All of the above
fatty acids
98. Catalytic activity of salivary amylase (B) Rich in saturated and poor in polyunsaturated
requires the presence of fatty acids
(A) Chloride ions (B) Bromide ions (C) Rich in saturated and polyunsaturated fatty
(C) Iodide ions (D) All of these acids
(D) Poor in saturated and polyunsaturated fatty
99. The following is actively absorbed in the
acids
intestine:
(A) Fructose (B) Mannose 107. In the diet of a diabetic patient, the
recommended carbohydrate intake
(C) Galactose (D) None of these
should preferably be in the form of
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 11

(A) Monosaccharides (B) Dissaccharides 116. Heavy proteinuria occurs in


(C) Polysaccharides (D) All of these (A) Acute glomerulonephritis
(B) Acute pyelonephritis
108. Obesity increases the risk of
(C) Nephrosclerosis
(A) Hypertension
(D) Nephrotic syndrome
(B) Diabetes mellitus
117. Mucopolysaccharides are
(C) Cardiovascular disease
(D) All of these (A) Hamopolysaccharides
(B) Hetropolysaccharides
109. Worldwide, the most common vitamin (C) Proteins
deficiency is that of
(D) Amino acids
(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Folic acid
118. Bence-Jones protein precipitates at
(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D
(A) 2040 C (B) 40-60 C
110. Consumption of iodised salt is recom- (C) 6080 C (D) 80100 C
mended for prevention of
119. Serum cholesterol is decreased in
(A) Hypertension (B) Hyperthyroidism
(A) Endemic goitre (B) Thyrotoxicosis
(C) Endemic goitre (D) None of these
(C) Myxoedema (D) Cretinism
111. Restriction of salt intake is generally
120. The heptose ketose sugar formed as a
recommended in result of chemical reaction in HMP shunt:
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypertension (A) Sedoheptulose (B) Galactoheptose
(C) Cirrhosis of liver (D) Peptic ulcer (C) Glucoheptose (D) Mannoheptose
112. Polyuria can occur in 121. The general formula for polysaccharide is
(A) Diabetes mellitus (A) (C6H 12O6)n (B) (C6 H10O5)n
(B) Diarrhoea (C) (C6H 12O5)n (D) (C6 H19O6)n
(C) Acute glomerulonephritis 122. The number of isomers of glucose is
(D) High fever (A) 4 (B) 8
113. Normal specific gravity of urine is (C) 12 (D) 16
(A) 1.0001.010 (B) 1.0121.024 123. The epimers of glucose is
(C) 1.0251.034 (D) 1.0351.045 (A) Fructose (B) Galactose
114. Specific gravity of urine is raised in all of (C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose
the following except 124. The intermediate in hexose monophos-
(A) Diabetes mellitus phate shunt is
(B) Diabetes insipidus (A) D-Ribolose (B) D-Arobinose
(C) Dehydration (C) D-xylose (D) D-lyxose
(D) Acute glomerulonephritis 125. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of
115. Specific gravity of urine is decreased in (A) Lactose (B) Maltose
(C) Inulin (D) Starch
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Acute glomerulonephritis 126. On boiling Benedicts solution is not
(C) Diarrhoea reduced by
(D) Chronic glomerulonephritis (A) Sucrose (B) Lactose
(C) Maltose (D) Fructose
12 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

127. Glycosides are found in many 138. The component of cartilage and cornea is
(A) Vitamins (B) Drugs (A) Keratosulphate
(C) Minerals (D) Nucleoproteins (B) Chondroitin sulphate
(C) Cadmium sulphate
128. Galactose on oxidation with conc. HNO3
(D) Antimony sulphate
produces
(A) Gluconic acid (B) Saccharic acid 139. Benedicts test is less likely to give weakly
positive results with concentrated urine
(C) Saccharo Lactone (D) Mucic acid
due to the action of
129. The distinguishing test between mono- (A) Urea (B) Uric acid
saccharides and dissaccharides is (C) Ammonium salts (D) Phosphates
(A) Bials test (B) Selwanoffs test
140. Active transport of sugar is depressed by
(C) Barfoeds test (D) Hydrolysis test the agent:
130. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of (A) Oxaloacetate (B) Fumarate
(A) -glucose (B) -glucose (C) Malonate (D) Succinate
(C) Both of the above (D) None of these 141. The general test for detection of
131. Iodine solution produces no color with carbohydrates is
(A) Iodine test (B) Molisch test
(A) Cellulose (B) Starch
(C) Barfoed test (D) Osazone test
(C) Dextrin (D) Glycogen
142. Glucose absorption may be decreased in
132. Glycogen structure includes a branch in
betweenglucose units: (A) Oedema (B) Nephritis
(C) Rickets (D) Osteomalitis
(A) 612 (B) 814
(C) 610 (D) 1218 143. Glycogen synthetase activity is depressed
by
133. Amylose contains glucose units
(A) Glucose (B) Insulin
(A) 100200 (B) 200300
(C) Cyclic AMP (D) Fructokinase
(C) 300400 (D) 500600
144. The branching enzyme acts on the
134. Each branch of amylopectin is at an glycogen when the glycogen chain has
interval of glucose units: been lengthened to between glucose units:
(A) 1420 (B) 2430 (A) 1 and 6 (B) 2 and 7
(C) 3440 (D) 4450 (C) 3 and 9 (D) 6 and 11
135. N-acetylneuraminic acid is an example of 145. Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP by the
(A) Sialic acid (B) Mucic acid enzyme adenylate cyclase which is
activated by the hormone:
(C) Glucuronic acid (D) Hippuric acid
(A) Insulin (B) Epinephrine
136. In place of glucuronic acid chondroitin
(C) Testosterone (D) Progesterone
sulphate B contains
(A) Gluconic acid (B) Gulonic acid 146. Hexokinase has a high affinity for glucose
than
(C) Induronic acid (D) Sulphonic acid
(A) Fructokinase (B) Galactokinase
137. Blood group substances consist of
(C) Glucokinase (D) All of the above
(A) Lactose (B) Maltose
(C) Fructose (D) Mucose 147. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are
intercoverted by
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 13

(A) Triose isomerase 156. Which of the following metabolite inte-


(B) Phosphotriose isomerase grates glucose and fatty acid metabolism?
(C) Diphosphotriose isomerase (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Pyruvate
(D) Dihydroxyacetone phosphorylase (C) Citrate (D) Lactate
148. Citrate is converted to isocitrate by 157. Cerebrosides consist of mostly of this
aconitase which contains sugar:
(A) Ca++ (B) Fe++ (A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(C) Zn ++ (D) Mg ++ (C) Galactose (D) Arabinose
149. The reaction succinyl COA to succinate 158. Glucose will be converted into fatty acids
requires if the diet has excess of
(A) CDP (B) ADP (A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins
(C) GDP (D) NADP+ (C) Fat (D) Vitamins
150. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is 159. The purple ring of Molisch reaction is due
(A) Succinate (B) Fumarate to
(C) Malate (D) Oxaloacetate (A) Furfural
151. UDPG is oxidized to UDP glucuronic acid (B) Furfural + Napthol
by UDP dehydrogenase in presence of (C) C Napthol
(A) FAD+ (B) NAD+ (D) Furfurol + H2SO4 + -Naphthol
(C) NADP+ (D) ADP+ 160. One of the following enzymes does not
change glycogen synthase a to b.
152. Galactose is phosphorylated by galacto-
kinase to form (A) Glycogen synthase kinases 3, 4, 5
(A) Galactose-6-phosphate (B) Ca2+ calmodulin phosphorylase kinase
(B) Galactose-1, 6 diphosphate (C) Ca2+ calmodulin dependent protein kinase
(C) Galactose-1-phosphate (D) Glycogen phosphorylase a
(D) All of these 161. In EM pathway -2-phosphoglycerate is
153. The conversion of alanine to glucose is converted to
termed (A) Phospho enol pyruvate
(A) Glycolysis (B) Enol pyruvate
(B) Oxidative decarboxylation (C) Di hydroxy acetone phosphate (DHAP)
(C) Specific dynamic action (D) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
(D) Gluconeogenesis 162. An aneplerotic reaction which sustains the
154. The blood sugar raising action of the availability of oxaloacetate is the carbo-
xylation of
hormones of suprarenal cortex is due to
(A) Glutamate (B) Pyruvate
(A) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Citrate (D) Succinate
(B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Glucagon-like activity 163. Specific test for ketohexoses:
(D) Due to inhibition of glomerular filtration (A) Seliwanoffs test (B) Osazone test
(C) Molisch test (D) None of these
155. Under anaerobic conditions the glycolysis
one mole of glucose yields __ moles of ATP. 164. Two important byproducts of HMP shunt
are
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Eight (D) Thirty (A) NADH and pentose sugars
(B) NADPH and pentose sugars
14 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

(C) Pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars 172. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-
(D) Pentose sugars and sedoheptulose phosphate in human liver is by
(A) Hexokinase only
165. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and
-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (B) Glucokinase only
require the following for their oxidative (C) Hexokinase and glucokinase
decarboxylation: (D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(A) COASH and Lipoic acid 173. The following is an enzyme required for
(B) NAD+ and FAD glycolysis:
(C) COASH and TPP (A) Pyruvate kinase
(D) COASH, TPP,NAD+,FAD, Lipoate (B) Pyruvate carboxylase
166. The four membered aldose sugar (C) Glucose-6-phosphatose
phosphate formed in HMP shunt pathway (D) Glycerokinase
is
174. The normal glucose tolerance curve
(A) Xylulose P (B) Erythrulose P reaches peak is
(C) Erythrose P (D) Ribulose P
(A) 15 min (B) 1 hr
167. Cane sugar (Sucrose) injected into blood (C) 2 hrs (D) 2 hrs
is
175. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
(A) changed to fructose requires
(B) changed to glucose (A) NADP+
(C) undergoes no significant change (B) Cytichromes
(D) changed to glucose and fructose (C) pyridoxal phosphate
168. Pentose production is increased in (D) COASH
(A) HMP shunt 176. Glucose tolerance is increased in
(B) Uromic acid pathway (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Adrenalectomy
(C) EM pathway (C) Acromegaly (D) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) TCA cycle
177. Glucose tolerance is decreased in
169. Conversion of Alanine to carbohydrate is
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypopituitarisme
termed:
(C) Addisons disease (D) Hypothyroidism
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Glycogenolysis (D) Photosynthesis 178. During glycolysis, Fructose 1, 6 diphos-
phate is decomposed by the enzyme:
170. The following is an enzyme required for
glycolysis: (A) Enolase a
(B) Fructokinase
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(C) Aldolase
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase (D) Diphosphofructophosphatose
(D) Glycerokinase 179. The following enzyme is required for the
hexose monophosphate shunt pathway:
171. Our body can get pentoses from
(A) Glycolytic pathway (A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(B) Uromic acid pathway (B) Phosphorylase
(C) TCA cycle (C) Aldolase
(D) HMP shunt (D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 15

180 Dehydrogenase enzymes of the hexose 189. The oxidation of lactic acid to pyruvic acid
monophosphate shunt are requires the following vitamin derivative
(A) NAD+ specific (B) NADP+ specific as the hydrogen carrier.
(C) FAD specific (D) FMN specific (A) Lithium pyrophosphate
(B) Coenyzme A
181. Under anaerobic conditions the glycolysis
(C) NAD+
of one mole of glucose yields ______moles
of ATP. (D) FMN

(A) One (B) Two 190. Physiological glycosuria is met with in


(C) Eight (D) Thirty (A) Renal glycosuria
182. Glycogen is converted to glucose-1- (B) Alimentary glycosuria
phosphate by (C) Diabetes Mellitus
(A) UDPG transferase (B) Branching enzyme (D) Alloxan diabetes
(C) Phosphorylase (D) Phosphatase 191. Two examples of substrate level phospho-
rylation in EM pathway of glucose metab-
183. Which of the following is not an enzyme
olism are in the reactions of
involved in glycolysis?
(A) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate and phosphoenol
(A) Euolase (B) Aldolose
pyruvate
(C) Hexokinase (D) Glucose oxidase
(B) Glucose-6 phosphate and Fructo-6-phosphate
184. Tricarboxylic acid cycle to be continuous (C) 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde and phospho-
requires the regeneration of enolpyruvate
(A) Pyruvic acid (B) oxaloacetic acid (D) 1,3 diphosphoglycerate and 2-phosphogly-
(C) -oxoglutaric acid (D) Malic acid cerate

185. Dehydrogenation of succinic acid to 192. The number of molecules of ATP produced
fumaric acid requires the following by the total oxidation of acetyl CoA in
hydrogen carrier: TCA cycle is
+
(A) NAD+ (B) NADP (A) 6 (B) 8
(C) flavoprotein (D) Glutathione (C) 10 (D) 12

186. The tissues with the highest total glycogen 193. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA
content are cycle is in step:
(A) Muscle and kidneys (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Kidneys and liver (B) Malate dehydrogenase
(C) Liver and muscle (C) Aconitase
(D) Brain and Liver (D) Succinate thiokinase

187. Rothera test is not given by 194. Fatty acids cannot be converted into
carbohydrates in the body as the
(A) -hydroxy butyrate (B) bile salts
following reaction is not possible.
(C) Glucose (D) None of these
(A) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose
188. Gluconeogenesis is increased in the (B) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-
following condition: phosphate
(A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Diabetes Mellitus (C) Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate
(C) Hypothyroidism (D) Liver diseases (D) Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids
16 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

195. Tissues form lactic acid from glucose. This 202. Amylo 1, 6 glucosidase is called
phenomenon is termed as
(A) Branching enzyme
(A) Aerobic glycolysis (B) debranching enzyme
(B) Oxidation (C) Glucantransferase
(C) Oxidative phosphorylation
(D) Phosphorylase
(D) Anaerobic glycolysis
203. Glucose enters the cells by
196. One molecule of glucose gives ______
molecules of CO2 in EM-TCA cycle. (A) insulin independent transport
(A) 6 (B) 3 (B) insulin dependent transport
(C) 1 (D) 2 (C) enzyme mediated transport
(D) Both (A) and (B)
197. One molecule of glucose gives ______
molecules of CO2 in one round of HMP 204. Glycogen while being acted upon by ac-
shunt. tive phosphorylase is converted first to
(A) 6 (B) 1 (A) Glucose
(C) 2 (D) 3 (B) Glucose 1-phosphate and Glycogen with 1
198. The 4 rate limiting enzymes of carbon less
gluconeogenesis are (C) Glucose-6-phosphate and Glycogen with 1
carbon less
(A) Glucokinase, Pyruvate carboxylae
phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase and (D) 6-Phosphogluconic acid
glucose-6-phosphatase
205. When O2 supply is inadequate, pyruvate
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenol pyruvate is converted to
carboxykinase, fructose1,6 diphosphatase
and glucose-6-phosphatase (A) Phosphopyruvate (B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Pyruvate kinase, pyruvate carboxylase, (C) Lactate (D) Alanine
phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase and
206. Reactivation of inactive liver phosphory-
glucose-6-phosphatase
lase is normally favoured by
(D) Phospho fructokinase, pyruvate carboxylase,
phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase and (A) Insulin (B) Epinephrine
fructose 1, 6 diphosphatase (C) ACTH (D) Glucagon
199. For glycogenesis, Glucose should be con- 207. Before pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle it
verted to must be converted to
(A) Glucuronic acid (B) Pyruvic acid (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Lactate
(C) UDP glucose (D) Sorbitol (C) -ketoglutarate (D) Citrate
200. Fluoride inhibits ______ and arrests gly- 208. The hydrolysis of Glucose-6-phosphate is
colysis. catalysed by a specific phosphatase
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase which is found only in
(B) Aconitase (A) Liver, intestines and kidneys
(C) Enolose (B) Brain, spleen and adrenals
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase (C) Striated muscle
201. One of the following statement is correct: (D) Plasma
(A) Glycogen synthase a is the phosphorylated 209. The formation of citrate from oxalo
(B) cAMP converts glycogen synthase b to a acetate and acetyl CoA is
(C) Insulin converts glycogen synthase b to a (A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(D) UDP glucose molecules interact and grow into (C) Condensation (D) Hydrolysis
a Glycogen tree
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 17

210. Which one of the following is a rate 218. Acetyl CoA is not used for the synthesis
limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis? of
(A) Hexokinase (A) Fatty acid (B) Cholesterol
(B) Phsophofructokinase (C) Pyruvic acid (D) Citric acid
(C) Pyruvate carboxylase 219. The total glycogen content of the body is
(D) Pyruvate kinase about ______ gms.
211. The number of ATP produced in the (A) 100 (B) 200
succinate dehydrogenase step is (C) 300 (D) 500
(A) 1 (B) 2 220. The total Glucose in the body is ________
(C) 3 (D) 4 gms.
212. Which of the following reaction gives (A) 1015 (B) 2030
lactose? (C) 4050 (D) 6080
(A) UDP galactose and glucose 221. Pyruvate kinase requires ______ ions for
(B) UDP glucose and galactose maximum activity.
(C) Glucose and Galactose (A) Na+ (B) K +
(D) Glucose, Galactose and UTP (C) Ca2+ (D) Mg2+
213. UDP Glucuronic acid is required for the 222. ATP is wasted in Rapoport-Lueberring
biosynthesis of cycle in RBCs as otherwise it will inhibit
(A) Chondroitin sulphates (A) Phosphoglucomutase
(B) Glycogen (B) Phosphohexo isomerase
(C) Lactose (C) Phosphofructo kinase
(D) Starch (D) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase
214. Which one of the following can covert 223. The following co-enzyme is needed for the
glucose to vitamin C? oxidative decarboxylation of ketoacids:
(A) Albino rats (B) Humans (A) NADP+ (B) TPP
(C) Monkeys (D) Guinea pigs (C) Folate coenzyme (D) Biotin coenzyme
215. Which one of the following cannot convert 224. Synthesis of Glucose from amino acids is
glucose to Vitamin C? termed as
(A) Albino rats (B) Dogs (A) Glycolysis (B) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Monkeys (D) Cows (C) Glycogenesis (D) Lipogenesis
216. Transketolase has the coenzyme: 225. The following examples are important
(A) NAD +
(B) FP heteropolysaccharides except
(C) TPP (D) Pyridoxol phosphate (A) Amylopectin (B) Heparin
(C) Peptidoglycan (D) Hyaluronic acid
217. Two conditions in which gluconeogenesis
is increased are 226. Whcih of the following features are
common to monosaccharides?
(A) Diabetes mellitus and atherosclerosis
(B) Fed condition and thyrotoxicosis (A) Contain asymmetric centres
(C) Diabetes mellitus and Starvation (B) Are of 2 types aldoses and ketoses
(C) Tend to exist as ring structures in solution
(D) Alcohol intake and cigarette smoking
(D) Include glucose, galactose and raffinose
18 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

227. Polysaccharides 234. Which of the following compound is a


(A) Contain many monosaccharide units which positive allosteric modifier of the enzyme
may or may not be of the same kind pyruvate carboxylase?
(B) Function mainly a storage or structural (A) Biotin (B) Acetyl CoA
compounds (C) Oxaloacetate (D) ATP
(C) Are present in large amounts in connective
235. A specific inhibitor for succinate
tissue
dehydrogenase is
(D) All of these
(A) Arsinite (B) Melouate
228. The absorption of glucose in the digestive (C) Citrate (D) Cyanide
tract
(A) Occurs in the small intestine 236. Most of the metabolic pathways are
either anabolic or catabolic. Which of the
(B) Is stimulated by the hormone Glucagon
following pathways is considered as
(C) Occurs more rapidly than the absorption of amphibolic in nature?
any other sugar
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Glycolytic pathway
(D) Is impaired in cases of diabetes mellitus
(C) Lipolysis (D) TCA cycle
229. UDP-Glucose is converted to UDP-
Glucuronic acid by 237. Transketolase activity is affected in
(A) ATP (B) GTP (A) Biotin deficiency
(C) NADP+ (D) NAD+ (B) Pyridoxine deficiency
(C) PABA deficiency
230. The enzymes involved in Phosphorylation
of glucose to glucose 6- phosphate are (D) Thiamine deficiency

(A) Hexokinase 238. The following metabolic abnormalities


(B) Glucokinase occur in Diabetes mellitus except
(C) Phosphofructokinase (A) Increased plasma FFA
(D) Both (A) and (B) (B) Increased pyruvate carboxylase activate
231. In conversion of Lactic acid to Glucose, (C) Decreased lipogenesis
three reactions of Glycolytic pathway are (D) Decreased gluconeogenesis
circumvented, which of the following
239. A substance that is not an intermediate
enzymes do not participate?
in the formation of D-glucuronic acid from
(A) Pyruvate Carboxylase glucose is
(B) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase (A) Glucoss-1-p
(C) Pyruvate kinase (B) 6-Phosphogluconate
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase (C) Glucose-6-p
232. The normal resting state of humans, most (D) UDP-Glucose
of the blood glucose burnt as fuel is
consumed by 240. The hydrolysis of Glucose-6-P is catalysed
by a phosphatase that is not formed in
(A) Liver (B) Brain which of the following?
(C) Kidneys (D) Adipose tissue
(A) Liver (B) Kidney
233. A regulator of the enzyme Glycogen (C) Muscle (D) Small intestine
synthase is
241. An essential for converting Glucose to
(A) Citric acid
Glycogen in Liver is
(B) 2, 3 bisphosphoglycerate
(A) Lactic acid (B) GTP
(C) Pyruvate
(C) CTP (D) UTP
(D) GTP
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 19

242. Which of the following is a substrate for 249. Which of the following statements
aldolase activity in Glycolytic pathway? regarding T.C.A cycle is true?
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p (A) It is an anaerobic process
(B) Glucose-6-p (B) It occurs in cytosol
(C) Fructose-6-p (C) It contains no intermediates for Gluconeogen-
(D) Fructose1, 6-bisphosphate esis
243. The ratio that approximates the number (D) It is amphibolic in nature
of net molecule of ATP formed per mole 250. An allosteric enzyme responsible for
of Glucose oxidized in presence of O2 to controlling the rate of T.C.A cycle is
the net number formed in abscence of
O2 is (A) Malate dehydrogenase
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 10 : 2
(C) Fumarase
(C) 12 : 1 (D) 18 : 1
(D) Aconitase
244. The Primaquin sensitivity types of
haemolytic anaemia has been found to 251. The glycolysis is regulated by
relate to reduced R.B.C activity of which (A) Hexokinase (B) Phosphofructokinase
enzyme? (C) Pyruvate kinase (D) All of these
(A) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
252. How many ATP molecules will be required
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
for conversion of 2-molecules of Lactic acid
(C) Glucose-6-p dehydrogenase deficiency to Glucose?
(D) Hexokinase deficiency
(A) 2 (B) 4
245. Which of the following hormones is not (C) 8 (D) 6
involved in carbohydrate metabolism?
253. Which of the following enzyme is not
(A) Cortisol (B) ACTH
involved in HMP shunt?
(C) Glucogen (D) Vasopressin
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase
246. Dehydrogenases involved in HMP shunt (B) Glucose-6-p-dehydrogenase
are specific for
(C) Transketolase
(A) NADP+ (B) NAD+ (D) Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(C) FAD (D) FMN
254. In presence of the following cofactor,
247. Which of the following enzymes in Glyco- pyruvate carboxylase converts pyruvate
lytic pathway is inhibited by fluoride? to oxaloacetate:
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase (A) ATP, Protein and CO2
(B) Phosphoglycerate kinase (B) CO2 and ATP
(C) Pyruvate kinase (C) CO2
(D) Enolase (D) Protein
248. Out of 24 mols of ATP formed in TCA cycle, 255. For conversion of oxaloacetate to
2 molecules of ATP can be formed at phosphoenol pyruvate, high energy
substrate level by which of the molecule is required in the form of
following reaction ?
(A) GTP only (B) ITP only
(A) Citric acid Isocitric acid
(C) GTP (or) ITP (D) None of these
(B) Isocitrate Oxaloacetate
(C) Succinic acid Fumarate 256. If the more negative standard reduction
potential of a redox pair, the greater the
(D) Succinylcat Succinic acid
tendency to
20 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

(A) To lose electrons (C) The free energy change, G, is equal to the
(B) To gain electrons standard free energy change, G
(C) To lose/gain electrons (D) Keq is equal to 1
(D) To lose and gain electrons 264. An uncoupler of oxidative phosphoryla-
tion such as dinitrophenol
257. Electron transport and phosphorylation
can be uncoupled by compounds that (A) Inhibits electron transport and ATP synthesis
increase the permeability of the inner (B) Allow electron transport to proceed without
mitochondrial membrane to ATP synthesis
(A) Electrons (B) Protons (C) Inhibits electron transport without impairment
of ATP synthesis
(C) Uncouplers (D) All of these
(D) Specially inhibits cytochrome b
258. The more positive the E0, the greater the
tendency of the oxidant member of that 265. All of the following statements about the
enzymic complex that carries out the
pair to
synthesis of ATP during oxidative
(A) Lose electrons phosphorylation are correct except
(B) Gain electrons (A) It is located on the matrix side of the inner
(C) Lose (or) gain electrons mitochondrial membrane
(D) Lose and gain electrons (B) It is inhibited by oligomycin
259. The standard free energy of hydrolysis (C) It can exhibit ATPase activity
of terminal phosphate group of ATP is (D) It can bind molecular O2
(A) 7,300 cal/mol (B) 8,300 cal/mol 266. Glucokinase
(C) 10,000 cal/mol (D) +7,300 cal/mol (A) Is widely distributed and occurs in most
mammalian tissues
260. The transport of a pair of electrons from
NADH to O2 via the electron transport (B) Has a high km for glucose and hence is
chain produces important in the phosphorylation of glucose
primarily after ingestion of a carbohydrate
(A) 52,580 cal (B) 50,580 cal rich meal
(C) 21,900 cal (D) +52,580 cal (C) Is widely distributed in Prokaryotes
261. Sufficient energy required to produce 3 (D) None of these
ATP from 3 ADP and 3 pi is 267. The reaction catalysed by phosphofruc-
(A) 21,900 cal (B) 29,900 cal tokinase
(C) 31,900 cal (D) 39,900 cal (A) Is activated by high concentrations of ATP and
citrate
262. The free energy change, AG
(B) Uses fruitose-1-phosphate as substrate
(A) Is directly proportional to the standard free
(C) Is the rate-limiting reaction of the glycolytic
energy change, AG
pathway
(B) Is equal to zero at equilibrium
(D) Is inhibited by fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate
(C) Can only be calculated when the reactants
and products are present at 1mol/1 268. Compared to the resting state, vigorously
concentrations contracting muscle shows
(D) Is equal to RT in keq (A) An increased conversion of pyruvate to lactate
(B) Decreased oxidation of pyruvate of CO2 and
263. Under standard conditions
water
(A) The free energy change G, is equal to 0 (C) A decreased NADH/NAD+ ratio
(B) The standard free energy change G, is (D) Decreased concentration of AMP
equal to 0
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 21

269. Which one of the following would be 275. Pasteur effect is


expected in pyruvate kinase deficiency? (A) Inhibition of glycolysis
(A) Increased levels of lactate in the R.B.C (B) Oxygen is involved
(B) Hemolytic anemia (C) Inhibition of enzyme phosphofructokinase
(C) Decreased ratio of ADP to ATP in R.B.C (D) All of these
(D) Increased phosphorylation of Glucose to
Glucose-6-phosphate 276. How many ATPs are produced in the
conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to
270. Which one of the following statements citrate?
concerning glucose metabolism is correct?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) The conversion of Glucose to lactate occurs (C) 4 (D) 6
only in the R.B.C
(B) Glucose enters most cells by a mechanism in 277. Reduced glutathione functions in R.B.Cs
which Na+ and glucose are co-transported to
(C) Pyruvate kinase catalyses an irreversible (A) Produce NADPH
reaction (B) Reduce methemoglobin to hemoglobin
(D) An elevated level of insulin leads to a (C) Produce NADH
decreased level of fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate (D) Reduce oxidizing agents such as H2O2
in hepatocyte
278. Phenylalanine is the precursor of
271. Which one of the following compounds
(A) L-DOPA (B) Histamine
cannot give rise to the net synthesis of
Glucose? (C) Tyrosine (D) Throxine

(A) Lactate (B) Glycerol 279. D-Mannose is present in some plant


(C) -ketoglutarate (D) Acetyl CoA products like
(A) Resins (B) Pectins
272. Which of the following reactions is unique
to gluconeogenesis? (C) Mucilage (D) Gums
(A) Lactate Pyruvate 280. Galactose is a main constituent of
(B) Phosphoenol pyruvate pyruvate (A) Milk sugar (B) Honey
(C) Oxaloacetate phosphoenol pyruvate (C) Cane sugar (D) Chitin
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-phosphate
281. Glucosamine is an important constituent
273. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate of
by gluconeogenesis
(A) Homopolysaccharide
(A) Requires the participation of biotin (B) Heteropolysaccharide
(B) Occurs exclusively in the cytosol (C) Mucopolysaccharide
(C) Is inhibited by elevated level of insulin (D) Dextran
(D) Requires oxidation/reduction of FAD
282. Glycogen is present in all body tissues
274. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA except
and CO2
(A) Liver (B) Brain
(A) Is reversible (C) Kidney (D) Stomach
(B) Involves the participation of lipoic acid
283. Iodine test is positive for starch, dextrin and
(C) Depends on the coenzyme biotin
(D) Occurs in the cytosol (A) Mucoproteins (B) Agar
(C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose
22 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

284. The general formula for polysaccharide is 294.


D-Glucose and
D-glucose are related
(A) (C6H 10O5)n (B) (C6H 12C6)n by
(C) (C6H 12O5)n (D) (C5 H10O5)n (A) Epimers (B) Anomers
(C) Multirotation (D) Ketoenol pair
285. Epimers of glucose is
(A) Fructose (B) Galactose 295. The stable ring formation in D-Glucose
(C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose involves
(A) C-1 and C-4 (B) C-1 and C-2
286. Human heart muscle contains
(C) C-1 and C-5 (D) C-2 and C-5
(A) D-Arabinose (B) D-Ribose
(C) D-Xylose (D) L-Xylose 296. Reduction of Glucose with Ca++ in water
produces
287. The intermediate n hexose monophos-
(A) Sorbitol (B) Dulcitol
phate shunt is
(C) Mannitol (D) Glucuronic acid
(A) D-Ribulose (B) D-Arabinose
(C) D-xylose (D) D-Lyxose 297. Starch and glycogen are polymers of

288. On boiling Benedicts solution is not (A) Fructose (B) Mannose


reduced by (C) D-Glucose (D) Galactose
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose 298. Reducing ability of carbohydrates is due
(C) Maltose (D) Fructose to
289. The distinguishing test between monosac- (A) Carboxyl group (B) Hydroxyl group
charides and dissaccharide is (C) Enediol formation (D) Ring structure
(A) Bials test (B) Seliwanoffs test 299. Which of the following is not a polymer
(C) Barfoeds test (D) Hydrolysis test of glucose?
290. Barfoeds solution is not reduced by (A) Amylose (B) Inulin
(A) Glucose (B) Mannose (C) Cellulose (D) Dextrin
(C) Sucrose (D) Ribose 300. Invert sugar is
291. Cori cycle is (A) Lactose
(A) Synthesis of glucose (B) Mannose
(B) reuse of glucose (C) Fructose
(C) uptake of glycose (D) Hydrolytic product of sucrose
(D) Both (A) & (B)
301 The carbohydrate reserved in human
292. Cane sugar is known as body is
(A) Galactose (B) Sucrose (A) Starch (B) Glucose
(C) Fructose (D) Maltose (C) Glycogen (D) Inulin
293. Which of the following is not reducing 302 A dissaccharide linked by -1-4 Glycosi-
sugar? deic linkages is
(A) Lactose (B) Maltose (A) Lactose (B) Sucrose
(C) Sucrose (D) Fructose
(C) Cellulose (D) Maltose
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 23

ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A
7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A
19. C 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. B
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. B
37. C 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. B
43. A 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. A 48. A
49. B 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. A
55. B 56. A 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. D
61. C 62. C 63. B 64. C 65. C 66. C
67. B 68. C 69. D 70. D 71. A 72. A
73. B 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. A 78. C
79. A 80. B 81. D 82. C 83. D 84. D
85. B 86. D 87. D 88. C 89. B 90. A
91. A 92. D 93. A 94. C 95. C 96. D
97. D 98. A 99. C 100. C 101. B 102. A
103. C 104. C 105. B 106. B 107. C 108. D
109. B 110. C 111. B 112. B 113. B 114. D
115. B 116. B 117. A 118. B 119. B 120. A
121. B 122. D 123. B 124. A 125. C 126. A
127. B 128. D 129. C 130. A 131. A 132. D
133. C 134. B 135. C 136. C 137. C 138. A
139. B 140. C 141. B 142. A 143. C 144. D
145. B 146. C 147. B 148. B 149. B 150. D
151. B 152. C 153. D 154. A 155. B 156. A
157. C 158. A 159. B 160. D 161. A 162. B
163. A 164. B 165. D 166. C 167. C 168. A
169. B 170. A 171. D 172. C 173. A 174. B
175. D 176. B 177. A 178. C 179. D 180. B
181. B 182. C 183. D 184. B 185. C 186. C
187. A 188. B 189. C 190. B 191. A 192. D
193. D 194. C 195. D 196. A 197. B 198. B
199. C 200. C 201. C 202. B 203. D 204. C
205. C 206. D 207. A 208. A 209. C 210. C
211. B 212. A 213. A 214. A 215. C 216. C
217. C 218. C 219. C 220. B 221. B 222.C
223. B 224. B 225. A 226. C 227. D 228. A
229. B 230. D 231. C 232. B 233. C 234. A
235. B 236. D 237. B 238. B 239. B 240. C
241. D 242. D 243. B 244. C 245. D 246. A
247. D 248. D 249. D 250. B 251. D 252. D
24 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

253. A 254. A 255. C 256. A 257. B 258. B


259. A 260. D 261. A 262. B 263. C 264. B
265. D 266. B 267. C 268. A 269. B 270. C
271. B 272. C 273. A 274. B 275. D 276. C
277. D 278. C 279. D 280. A 281. C 282. B
283. C 284. A 285. B 286. C 287. A 288. A
289. C 290. C 291. D 292. B 293. C 294. B
295. C 296. A 297. C 298. A 299. B 300. D
301. C 302. D

EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS


7. A Polysaccharides are polymers of monosac- get dehydrated to form furfural (from pentoses)
charides. They are of two types hompolysac- or hydroxy methylfurfural (from hexoses) which
charides that contain a single type of condense with -naphthol to form a violet
monosaccharide (e.g., starch, insulin, cellulose) coloured complex.
and heteropolysaccharides with two or more 163. A Seliwanoffs test: this is a specific test for
different types of monosaccharides (e.g., heparin, ketohexoses. Concentrated hydrochloric acid
chondroitin sulfate). dehydrates ketohexoses to form furfural
30. B Mutorotation refers to the change in the specific derivatives which condense with resorcinol to
optical rotation representing the interconversion of give a cherry red complex.
- and - anomers of D-glucose to an equilibrium. 187. A Rotheras test: Nitroprosside in alkaline medium
48. A Starch is a polysaccharide composed of D- reacts with keto group of ketone bodies (acetone
glucose units held together by -glycosidic and acetoacetate) to form a purple ring. This
bonds, ( 1 4 linkages; at branching points test is not given by -hydroxybutyrate.
1 6 linkages). 203. D Two specific transport systems are recognized
71. A Hyaluronic acid is the ground substance of for the entry of glucose into the cells.
synovial fluid of joints. It serves as lubricants (a) Insulin-independent transport: This is a carrier
and shock absorbant in joints. mediated uptake of glucose which is not
93. A The process of shifting a hydrogen atom from dependent on the hormone inslulin. This operates
one carbon to another to produce enediols is in hepatocytes, erythrocytes and brain.
referred to as tautomerization. (b) Insulin-dependent transport: This occurs in
117. A Mucopolysaccharides (commonly known as muscle and adipose tissue.
glycosaminoglycans) are heteropolysaccharides 230. D Hexokinase and glucokinase are involved in
composed of sugar derivatives (mainly amino the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-
sugars and uronic acids). The important phosphate. The enzyme hexokinase, present
mucopolysaccharides include hyaluronic acid, in almost all the tissues, catalyses the
heparin, chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate phosphorylation of other hexose also (fructose,
and keratan sulfate. mannose). It has low Km for substrates (about
141. B Molisch test: It is a general test for the detection 0.1 mM) and is inhibited by glucose 6-
of carbohydrates. The strong H2SO4 hydrolyses phosphate. In contrast, glucokinase is present
carbohydrates (poly- and disaccharides) to lib- in liver, catalyses the phosphorylation of only
erate monosaccharides. The monosaccharides glucose, has high Km for glucose (10 mM)
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 25

and is not inhibited by glucose 6-phosphate. referred to as Pasteur effect. This is due to
251. D The three enzymes namely hexokinase (or inhibition of the enzyme phosphofructokinase
glucokinase), phosphofructokinase and by ATP and citrate (formed in the presence of
pyruvate kinase, catalyzing the irreversible O2 )
reactions regulate glycolysis. Among these, 291. D The cycle involving the synthesis of glucose in
phosphofructokinase is the most regulatory. It liver from the skeletal muscle lactate and the
is an allosteric enzyme inhibited by ATP, citrate reuse of glucose thus synthesized by the muscle
and activated by AMP and Pi. for energy purposes is known as Cori Cycle.
275. D The inhibition of glycolysis by oxygen is
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CHAPTER 3

PROTEINS AND PRO


ROTEINS TEIN MET
ROTEIN ABOLISM
ETABOLISM

1. All proteins contain the (D) All amino acids contain negatively charged
(A) Same 20 amino acids side chains
(B) Different amino acids 6. pH (isoelectric pH) of alanine is
(C) 300 Amino acids occurring in nature (A) 6.02 (B) 6.6
(D) Only a few amino acids (C) 6.8 (D) 7.2
2. Proteins contain 7. Since the pK values for aspartic acid are
(A) Only L- - amino acids 2.0, 3.9 and 10.0, it follows that the
(B) Only D-amino acids isoelectric (pH) is
(C) DL-Amino acids (A) 3.0 (B) 3.9
(D) Both (A) and (B) (C) 5.9 (D) 6.0

3. The optically inactive amino acid is 8. Sulphur containing amino acid is


(A) Glycine (B) Serine (A) Methionine (B) Leucine
(C) Threonine (D) Valine (C) Valine (D) Asparagine

4. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids 9. An example of sulphur containing amino


in solution would be predominantly: acid is
(A) Dipolar ions (A) 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid
(B) Nonpolar molecules (B) 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic acid
(C) Positive and monovalent (C) 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
(D) Hydrophobic (D) Amino acetic acid

5. The true statement about solutions of 10. All the following are sulphur containing
amino acids at physiological pH is amino acids found in proteins except
(A) All amino acids contain both positive and (A) Cysteine (B) Cystine
negative charges (C) Methionine (D) Threonine
(B) All amino acids contain positively charged
11. An aromatic amino acid is
side chains
(C) Some amino acids contain only positive (A) Lysine (B) Tyrosine
charge (C) Taurine (D) Arginine
28 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

12. The functions of plasma albumin are 21. An amino acid that does not form an -
(A) Osmosis (B) Transport helix is
(C) Immunity (D) both (A )and (B) (A) Valine (B) Proline
13. Amino acid with side chain containing (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
basic groups is 22. An amino acid not found in proteins is
(A) 2-Amino 5-guanidovaleric acid (A) -Alanine (B) Proline
(B) 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid (C) Lysine (D) Histidine
(C) 2-Amino 3-mercaptopropanoic acid
23. In mammalian tissues serine can be a
(D) 2-Amino propanoic acid biosynthetic precursor of
14. An example of -amino acid not present (A) Methionine (B) Glycine
in proteins but essential in mammalian (C) Tryptophan (D) Phenylalanine
metabolism is
24. A vasodilating compound is produced by
(A) 3-Amino 3-hydroxypropanoic acid the decarboxylation of the amino acid:
(B) 2-Amino 3-hydroxybutanoic acid
(A) Arginine (B) Aspartic acid
(C) 2-Amino 4-mercaptobutanoic acid
(C) Glutamine (D) Histidine
(D) 2-Amino 3-mercaptopropanoic acid
25. Biuret reaction is specific for
15. An essential amino acid in man is
(A) CONH-linkages (B) CSNH2 group
(A) Aspartate (B) Tyrosine
(C) (NH)NH2 group (D) All of these
(C) Methionine (D) Serine
26. Sakaguchis reaction is specific for
16. Non essential amino acids
(A) Tyrosine (B) Proline
(A) Are not components of tissue proteins (C) Arginine (D) Cysteine
(B) May be synthesized in the body from essential
amino acids 27. Million-Nasses reaction is specific for the
amino acid:
(C) Have no role in the metabolism
(D) May be synthesized in the body in diseased (A) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine
states (C) Phenylalanine (D) Arginine

17. Which one of the following is semi- 28. Ninhydrin with evolution of CO2 forms a
essential amino acid for humans? blue complex with
(A) Valine (B) Arginine (A) Peptide bond (B) -Amino acids
(C) Lysine (D) Tyrosine (C) Serotonin (D) Histamine

18. An example of polar amino acid is 29. The most of the ultraviolet absorption of
proteins above 240 nm is due to their
(A) Alanine (B) Leucine
content of
(C) Arginine (D) Valine
(A) Tryptophan (B) Aspartate
19. The amino acid with a nonpolar side chain (C) Glutamate (D) Alanine
is
30. Which of the following is a dipeptide?
(A) Serine (B) Valine
(C) Asparagine (D) Threonine (A) Anserine (B) Glutathione

20. A ketogenic amino acid is


(C) Glucagon (D) -Lipoprotein
(A) Valine (B) Cysteine 31. Which of the following is a tripeptide?
(C) Leucine (D) Threonine (A) Anserine (B) Oxytocin
(C) Glutathione (D) Kallidin
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 29

32. A peptide which acts as potent smooth 43. The amino acid from which synthesis of
muscle hypotensive agent is the protein of hair keratin takes place is
(A) Glutathione (B) Bradykinin (A) Alanine (B) Methionine
(C) Tryocidine (D) Gramicidin-s (C) Proline (D) Hydroxyproline
33. A tripeptide functioning as an important 44. In one molecule of albumin the number
reducing agent in the tissues is of amino acids is
(A) Bradykinin (B) Kallidin (A) 510 (B) 590
(C) Tyrocidin (D) Glutathione (C) 610 (D) 650
34. An example of metalloprotein is 45. Plasma proteins which contain more than
(A) Casein (B) Ceruloplasmin 4% hexosamine are
(C) Gelatin (D) Salmine (A) Microglobulins (B) Glycoproteins
(C) Mucoproteins (D) Orosomucoids
35. Carbonic anhydrase is an example of
(A) Lipoprotein (B) Phosphoprotein 46. After releasing O 2 at the tissues,
hemoglobin transports
(C) Metalloprotein (D) Chromoprotein
(A) CO2 and protons to the lungs
36. An example of chromoprotein is
(B) O2 to the lungs
(A) Hemoglobin (B) Sturine (C) CO2 and protons to the tissue
(C) Nuclein (D) Gliadin (D) Nutrients
37. An example of scleroprotein is 47. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome characterized by
(A) Zein (B) Keratin hypermobile joints and skin abnormalities
(C) Glutenin (D) Ovoglobulin is due to
(A) Abnormality in gene for procollagen
38. Casein, the milk protein is
(B) Deficiency of lysyl oxidase
(A) Nucleoprotein (B) Chromoprotein
(C) Deficiency of prolyl hydroxylase
(C) Phosphoprotein (D) Glycoprotein
(D) Deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase
39. An example of phosphoprotein present
48. Proteins are soluble in
in egg yolk is
(A) Anhydrous acetone(B) Aqueous alcohol
(A) Ovoalbumin (B) Ovoglobulin
(C) Anhydrous alcohol (D) Benzene
(C) Ovovitellin (D) Avidin
49. A cereal protein soluble in 70% alcohol
40. A simple protein found in the nucleopro-
but insoluble in water or salt solution is
teins of the sperm is
(A) Glutelin (B) Protamine
(A) Prolamine (B) Protamine
(C) Albumin (D) Gliadin
(C) Glutelin (D) Globulin
50. Many globular proteins are stable in
41. Histones are
solution inspite they lack in
(A) Identical to protamine
(A) Disulphide bonds (B) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine
(C) Salt bonds (D) Non polar bonds
(C) Proteins with high molecular weight
(D) Insoluble in water and very dilute acids 51. The hydrogen bonds between peptide
linkages of a protein molecules are inter-
42. The protein present in hair is fered by
(A) Keratin (B) Elastin (A) Guanidine (B) Uric acid
(C) Myosin (D) Tropocollagen (C) Oxalic acid (D) Salicylic acid
30 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

52. Globular proteins have completely folded, 60. At the lowest energy level -helix of
coiled polypeptide chain and the axial polypeptide chain is stabilised
ratio (ratio of length to breadth) is (A) By hydrogen bonds formed between the H of
(A) Less than 10 and generally not greater than peptide N and the carbonyl O of the residue
34 (B) Disulphide bonds
(B) Generally 10 (C) Non polar bonds
(C) Greater than 10 and generally 20 (D) Ester bonds
(D) Greater than 10
61. Both -helix and -pleated sheet confor-
53. Fibrous proteins have axial ratio mation of proteins were proposed by
(A) Less than 10 (A) Watson and Crick
(B) Less than 10 and generally not greater than (B) Pauling and Corey
34 (C) Waugh and King
(C) Generally 10 (D) Y.S.Rao
(D) Greater than 10
62. The primary structure of fibroin, the
54. Each turn of -helix contains the amino principal protein of silk worm fibres
acid residues (number): consists almost entirely of
(A) 3.6 (B) 3.0 (A) Glycine (B) Aspartate
(C) 4.2 (D) 4.5 (C) Keratin (D) Tryptophan

55. Distance traveled per turn of


helix in 63. Tertiary structure of a protein describes
nm is (A) The order of amino acids
(A) 0.53 (B) 0.54 (B) Location of disulphide bonds
(C) 0.44 (D) 0.48 (C) Loop regions of proteins
56. Along the -helix each amino acid residue (D) The ways of protein folding
advances in nm by 64. In a protein molecule the disulphide bond
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.10 is not broken by
(C) 0.12 (D) 0.20 (A) Reduction
57. The number of helices present in a (B) Oxidation
collagen molecule is (C) Denaturation
(A) 1 (B) 2 (D) X-ray diffraction
(C) 3 (D) 4 65. The technique for purification of proteins
that can be made specific for a given
58. In proteins the -helix and -pleated sheet
protein is
are examples of
(A) Gel filtration chromotography
(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(B) Ion exchange chromatography
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
(C) Electrophoresis
59. The a-helix of proteins is (D) Affinity chromatography
(A) A pleated structure
66. Denaturation of proteins results in
(B) Made periodic by disulphide bridges
(A) Disruption of primary structure
(C) A non-periodic structure
(B) Breakdown of peptide bonds
(D) Stabilised by hydrogen bonds between NH
and CO groups of the main chain (C) Destruction of hydrogen bonds
(D) Irreversible changes in the molecule
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 31

67. Ceruloplasmin is 77. A lipoprotein inversely related to the


(A) 1-globulin (B) 2-globulin incidence of coronary artherosclerosis is
(C) -globulin (D) None of these (A) VLDL (B) IDL
(C) LDL (D) HDL
68. The lipoprotein with the fastest electro-
phoretic mobility and the lowest triglyc- 78. The primary biochemical lesion in ho-
eride content is mozygote with familial hypercholester-
(A) Chylomicron (B) VLDL olemia (type IIa) is
(C) IDL (D) HDL (A) Loss of feed back inhibition of HMG
69. The lipoprotein associated with activation reductase
of LCAT is (B) Loss of apolipoprotein B
(A) HDL (B) LDL (C) Increased production of LDL from VLDL
(C) VLDL (D) IDL (D) Functional deficiency of plasma membrane
receptors for LDL
70. The apolipoprotein which acts as activator
of LCAT is 79. In abetalipoproteinemia, the biochemical
(A) A-I (B) A-IV defect is in
(C) C-II (D) D (A) Apo-B synthesis
71. The apolipoprotein which acts as actiator (B) Lipprotein lipase activity
of extrahepatic lipoprotein is (C) Cholesterol ester hydrolase
(A) Apo-A (B) Apo-B (D) LCAT activity
(C) Apo-C (D) Apo-D 80. Familial hypertriaacylglycerolemia is
72. The apolipoprotein which forms the associated with
integral component of chylomicron is (A) Over production of VLDL
(A) B-100 (B) B-48 (B) Increased LDL concentration
(C) C (D) D (C) Increased HDL concentration
73. The apolipoprotein which from the (D) Slow clearance of chylomicrons
integral component of VLDL is
81. For synthesis of prostaglandins, the
(A) B-100 (B) B-48 essential fatty acids give rise to a fatty
(C) A (D) D acid containing
74. The apolipoprotein which acts as ligand (A) 12 carbon atoms (B) 16 carbon atoms
for LDL receptor is (C) 20 carbon atoms (D) 24 carbon atoms
(A) B-48 (B) B-100
82. All active prostaglandins have at least one
(C) A (D) C double bond between positions
75. Serum LDL has been found to be increased (A) 7 and 8 (B) 10 and 11
in (C) 13 and 14 (D) 16 and 17
(A) Obstructive jaundice
83. Normal range of plasma total phospho-
(B) Hepatic jaundice
lipids is
(C) Hemolytic jaundice
(D) Malabsorption syndrome (A) 0.20.6 mmol/L (B) 0.92.0 mmol/L
(C) 1.85.8 mmol/L (D) 2.85.3 mmol/L
76. A lipoprotein associated with high
incidence of coronary atherosclerosis is 84. HDL2 have the density in the range of
(A) LDL (B) VLDL (A) 1.0061.019 (B) 1.0191.032
(C) IDL (D) HDL (C) 1.0321.063 (D) 1.0631.125
32 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

85. -lipoproteins have the density in the 96 Pepsin acts on denatured proteins to
range of produce
(A) 0.951.006 (B) 1.0061.019 (A) Proteoses and peptones
(C) 1.0191.063 (D) 1.0631.125 (B) Polypeptides
(C) Peptides
86. IDL have the density in the range of (D) Dipeptides
(A) 0.951.006 (B) 1.0061.019
97. Renin converts casein to paracasein in
(C) 1.0191.032 (D) 1.0321.163 presence of
87. Aspirin inhibits the activity of the enzyme: (A) Ca++ (B) Mg ++
(A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase (C) Na+ (D) K +
(C) Phospholipae A1 (D) Phospholipase A2 98. An expopeptidase is
88. A suicide enzyme is (A) Trypsin (B) Chymotrypsin
(C) Elastase (D) Elastase
(A) Cycloxygenase (B) Lipooxygenase
(C) Phospholipase A1 (D) Phospholipase A2 99. The enzyme trypsin is specific for peptide
bonds of
89. In adipose tissue prostaglandins
(A) Basic amino acids
decrease
(B) Acidic amino acids
(A) Lipogenesis (B) Lipolysis
(C) Aromatic amino acids
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Glycogenolysis (D) Next to small amino acid residues
90 The optimal pH for the enzyme pepsin is 100. Chymotrypsin is specific for peptide bonds
(A) 1.02.0 (B) 4.05.0 containing
(C) 5.2 6.0 (D) 5.86.2 (A) Uncharged amino acid residues
(B) Acidic amino acids
91. Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin
(C) Basic amino acid
by
(D) Small amino acid residues
(A) HCl (B) Bile salts
(C) Ca ++
(D) Enterokinase 101. The end product of protein digestion in
G.I.T. is
92. The optimal pH for the enzyme rennin is (A) Dipeptide (B) Tripeptide
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0 (C) Polypeptide (D) Amino acid
(C) 8.0 (D) 6.0
102. Natural L-isomers of amino acids are
93. The optimal pH for the enzyme trypsin is absorbed from intestine by

(A) 1.02.0 (B) 2.04.0 (A) Passive diffusion (B) Simple diffusion
(C) 5.26.2 (D) 5.86.2 (C) Faciliated diffusion(D) Active process
103. Abnormalities of blood clotting are
94. The optimal pH for the enzyme chymo-
trypsin is (A) Haemophilia (B) Christmas disease
(C) Gout (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
(C) 6.0 (D) 8.0 104. An important reaction for the synthesis
of amino acid from carbohydrate
95 Trypsinogen is converted to active trypsin intermediates is transamination which
by requires the cofactor:
(A) Enterokinase (B) Bile salts (A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin
++
(C) HCl (D) Mg (C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxal phosphate
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 33

105. The main sites for oxidative deamination 113. Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme:
are (A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(A) Liver and kidney (B) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
(B) Skin and pancreas (C) Argininosuccinase
(C) Intestine and mammary gland (D) Arginase
(D) Lung and spleen 114. Transfer of the carbamoyl moiety of
106. A positive nitrogen balance occurs carbamoyl phosphate to ornithine is
catalysed by a liver mitochondrial enzyme:
(A) In growing infant
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(B) Following surgery
(B) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
(C) In advanced cancer
(C) N-acetyl glutamate synthetase
(D) In kwashiorkar
(D) N-acetyl glutamate hydrolase
107. The main site of urea synthesis in mam- 115. A compound serving a link between citric
mals is acid cycle and urea cycle is
(A) Liver (B) Skin (A) Malate (B) Citrate
(C) Intestine (D) Kidney (C) Succinate (D) Fumarate
108. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found 116. The 2 nitrogen atoms in urea are
in contributed by
(A) Mitochondria only (A) Ammonia and glutamate
(B) Cytosol only (B) Glutamine and glutamate
(C) Both mitochondria and cytosol (C) Ammonia and aspartate
(D) Nucleus (D) Ammonia and alanine

109. The number of ATP required for urea 117. In carcinoid syndrome the argentaffin
synthesis is tissue of the abdominal cavity over-
produce
(A) 0 (B) 1
(A) Serotonin (B) Histamine
(C) 2 (D) 3
(C) Tryptamine (D) Tyrosine
110. Most of the ammonia released from L- -
118. Tryptophan could be considered as
amino acids reflects the coupled action of
precursor of
transaminase and
(A) Melanotonin (B) Thyroid hormones
(A) L-glutamate dehydrogenase
(C) Melanin (D) Epinephrine
(B) L-amino acid oxidase
(C) Histidase 119. Conversion of tyrosine to dihydroxyphe-
nylalanine is catalysed by tyrosine hy-
(D) Serine dehydratase
droxylase which requires
111. In urea synthesis, the amino acid function- (A) NAD (B) FAD
ing solely as an enzyme activator: (C) ATP (D) Tetrahydrobiopterin
(A) N-acetyl glutamate (B) Ornithine
120. The rate limiting step in the biosynthesis
(C) Citrulline (D) Arginine of catecholamines is
112. The enzyme carbamoyl phosphate (A) Decarboxylation of dihydroxyphenylalanine
synthetase requires (B) Hydroxylation of phenylalanine
(A) Mg ++ (B) Ca++ (C) Hydroxylation of tyrosine
(C) Na +
(D) K + (D) Oxidation of dopamine
34 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

121. The enzyme dopamine -oxidase which 130 Chemical score of protein zein is
catalyses conversion of dopamine to (A) 0 (B) 57
norepinephrine requires
(C) 60 (D) 70
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
131. Biological value of egg white protein is
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin B12
(A) 94 (B) 83
122. In humans the sulphur of methionine and
(C) 85 (D) 77
cysteine is excreted mainly as
(A) Ethereal sulphate 132. Net protein utilisation of egg protein is
(B) Inorganic sulphate (A) 75% (B) 80%
(C) Sulphites (C) 91% (D) 72%
(D) Thioorganic compound 133. Net protein utilization of milk protein is
123. Small amount of urinary oxalates is (A) 75% (B) 80%
contributed by the amino acid: (C) 86% (D) 91%
(A) Glycine (B) Tyrosine
134. A limiting amino acid is an essential
(C) Alanine (D) Serine amino acid
124. The amino acid which detoxicated benzoic (A) That is most deficient in proteins
acid to form hippuric acid is (B) That is most excess in proteins
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) That which increases the growth
(C) Serine (D) Glutamic acid (D) That which increases the weight gain
125. The amino acids involved in the synthesis 135. The limiting amino acid of rice is
of creatin are
(A) Lysine (B) Tryptophan
(A) Arginine, glycine, active methionine (C) Phenylalanine (D) Tyrosine
(B) Arginine, alanine, glycine
136. The limiting amino acid of fish proteins is
(C) Glycine, lysine, methionine
(D) Arginine, lysine, methionine (A) Tryptophan (B) Cysteine
(C) Lysine (D) Threonine
126. Chemical score of egg proteins is consid-
ered to be 137. Pulses are deficient in
(A) 100 (B) 60 (A) Lysine (B) Threonine
(C) 50 (D) 40 (C) Methionine (D) Tryptophan

127. Chemical score of milk proteins is 138. A trace element deficient in the milk is
(A) 70 (B) 65 (A) Magnesium (B) Copper
(C) 60 (D) 40 (C) Zinc (D) Chloride

128. Chemical score of proteins of bengal gram 139. A conjugated protein present in the egg
is yolk is
(A) 70 (B) 60 (A) Vitellin (B) Livetin
(C) 44 (D) 42 (C) Albuminoids (D) Ovo-mucoid

129. Chemical score of protein gelatin is 140. The chief protein of cows milk is
(A) 0 (B) 44 (A) Albumin (B) Vitellin
(C) 57 (D) 60 (C) Livetin (D) Casein
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 35

141. A water soluble vitamin deficient in egg is 153. In the total proteins, the percentage of
(A) Thiamin (B) Ribofalvin albumin is about
(C) Ascrobic acid (D) Cobalamin (A) 2040 (B) 3045
(C) 5070 (D) 8090
142. Pulses are rich in
(A) Lysine (B) Methionine
154. In the total proteins percentage of 1
globulin is about
(C) Tryptophan (D) Phenylalanine
(A) 0.21.2% (B) 1.22.0%
143. Milk is deficient in (C) 2.44.4% (D) 5.010.0%
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
155. In the total proteins the percentage of
(C) Sodium (D) Potassium globulin is about
144. Milk is deficient in (A) 2.44.4% (B) 10.021.0%
(A) Calcium (B) Iron (C) 6.110.1% (D) 1.22.0%
(C) Sodium (D) Potassium
156. Most frequently the normal albumin
145. When net protein utilization (NPU) is low, globulin ratioratio (A : G) is
the requirements for proteins are (A) 1.0 : 0.8 (B) 1.5 : 1.0
(A) High (B) Moderate (C) 2.0 : 1.0 (D) 2.4 : 1.0
(C) Low (D) Supplementary 157. In Thymol turbidity test the protein
146. Protein content of human milk is about involved is mainly

(A) 1.4% (B) 2.4% (A) Albumin (B) 1-Globulin


(C) 3.4% (D) 4.4% (C) 2-Globulin (D) Globulin

147. Protein content of cows milk is about 158. In quaternary structure, subunits are
(A) 2.5% (B) 3.5% linked by
(C) 4.5% (D) 5.5% (A) Peptide bonds (B) Disulphide bonds
(C) Covalent bonds (D) Non-covalent bonds
148. Protein content of soyabean is about
(A) 30% (B) 40% 159. Molecular weight of human albumin is
about
(C) 50% (D) 60%
(A) 156,000 (B) 90,000
149. Lipid content of egg white is (C) 69,000 (D) 54,000
(A) 12% (B) 33%
160. At isoelectric pH, an amino acid exists as
(C) 1011% (D) Traces
(A) Anion (B) Cation
150. The recommended daily allowance (RDA) (C) Zwitterion (D) None of these
of proteins for an adult man is
161. A disulphide bond can be formed
(A) 70 gms (B) 50 gms between
(C) 40 gms (D) 30 gms
(A) Two methionine residues
151. The basic amino acids are (B) Two cysteine residues
(A) Lysine (B) Bile acids (C) A methionine and a cysteine residue
(C) Glycine (D) Alanine (D) All of these

152. The daily caloric requirement for the 162 A coagulated protein is
normal adult female is about (A) Insoluble
(A) 1500 (B) 2100 (B) Biologically non-functional
(C) 2500 (D) 2900 (C) Unfolded
(D) All of the above
36 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

163. At a pH below the isoelectric point, an (C) Chaperonins


amino acid exists as (D) All of these
(A) Cation
172. Primary structure of a protein is formed by
(B) Anion
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Peptide bonds
(C) Zwitterion
(C) Disulphide bonds (D) All of these
(D) Undissociated molecule
173. -Helix is formed by
164. An amino acid having a hydrophilic side
chain is (A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Hydrophobic bonds
(A) Alanine (B) Proline
(C) Electrostatic bonds
(C) Methionine (D) Serine
(D) Disulphide bonds
165. An amino acid that does not take part in
helix formation is 174. Glutelins are present in

(A) Histidine (B) Tyrosine (A) Milk (B) Eggs


(C) Proline (D) Tryptophan (C) Meat (D) Cereals

166. A protein rich in cysteine is 175. Aromatic amino acids can be detected by

(A) Collagen (B) Keratin (A) Sakaguchi reaction


(C) Haemoglobin (D) Gelatin (B) Millon-Nasse reaction
(C) Hopkins-Cole reaction
167. Primary structure of proteins can be
(D) Xanthoproteic reaction
determined by the use of
(A) Electrophoresis (B) Chromatography 176. Two amino groups are present in
(C) Ninhydrin (D) Sangers reagent (A) Leucine (B) Glutamate
(C) Lysine (D) Threonine
168. Electrostatic bonds can be formed between
the side chains of 177. During denaturation of proteins, all of the
(A) Alanine and leucine following are disrupted except
(B) Leucine and valine (A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(C) Asparate and glutamate (C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
(D) Lysine and aspartate 178. All the following are branched chain
169. Sangers reagent contains amino acids except

(A) Phenylisothiocyanate (A) Isoleucine (B) Alanine


(B) Dansyl chloride (C) Leucine (D) Valine
(C) 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene 179. An OH group is present in the side chain of
(D) Ninhydrin (A) Serine (B) Arginine
170. The most abundant protein in mammals is (C) Lysine (D) Proline
(A) Albumin (B) Haemoglobin 180. Edmans reagent contains
(C) Collagen (D) Elastin (A) Phenylisothiocyanate
171. Folding of newly synthesized proteins is (B) 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
accelerated by (C) Dansyl Chloride
(A) Protein disulphide isomerase (D) tBOC azide
(B) Prolyl cis-trans isomerase
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 37

181. Edmans reaction can be used to 190. Apolipoproteins C-I, C-II and C-III are
(A) Determine the number of tyrosine residues in present in
a protein (A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
(B) Determine the number of aromatic amino acid (C) HDL (D) All of these
residues in a protein
(C) Determine the amino acid sequence of a 191. Apolipoprotiens C-I, C-II and C-III are
protein present in all of the following except
(D) Hydrolyse the peptide bonds in a protein (A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
182. Inherited deficiency of
glucosidase causes (C) LDL (D) HDL

(A) Tay-Sachs disease 192. Apolipoprotein A-I acts as


(B) Metachromatic leukodystrophy (A) Enzyme activator (B) Ligand for receptor
(C) Gauchers disease (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) Multiple sclerosis
193. Apolipoprotien B-100 acts as
183. Tay-Sachs disease results from inherited
(A) Enzyme activator (B) Ligand for receptor
deficiency of
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Arylsulphatase A
(B) Hexosaminidase A 194. Apolipoprotein C-II is an activator of
(C) Sphingomyelinase (A) Lecithin cholesterola acyl transferase
(D) Ceramidase (B) Phospholipase C
(C) Extrahepatic lipoprotein lipase
184. The largest alpolipoprotein is
(D) Hepatic lipoprotein lipase
(A) Apo E (B) Apo B-48
(C) Apo B-100 (D) Apo A-I 195. Nascent chylomicron receives apolipopro-
teins C and E from
185. Apolipoprotein B-100 is synthesised in
(A) VLDL remnant (B) VLDL
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver
(C) LDL (D) HDL
(C) Intestine (D) Liver and intestine
196. Terminal transferase
186. Apolipoprotein B-48 is synthesized in
(A) Removes nucleotides from 3 end
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver
(B) Adds nucleotides at 3 end
(C) Intestine (D) Liver and intestine
(C) Removes nucleotides from 3end
187. Apolipoproteins A-I and A-II are present (D) Adds nucleotides at 3end
in
197. S1 nuclease hydrolyses
(A) LDL only
(B) LDL and VLDL (A) DNA of somatic cells
(C) HDL only (B) DNA of sperms
(D) HDL and chylomicrons (C) Any double stranded DNA
(D) Any single stranded DNA
188. Apolipoprotein B-48 is present in
198. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
(C) LDL (D) HDL (A) Starvation
(B) Wasting diseases
189. Apolipoprotein B-100 is present in
(C) Growing age
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL only
(D) Intestinal malabsorption
(C) LDL only (D) VLDL and LDL
38 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

199. Alanine can be synthesized from 207. All the following statement about
(A) Glutamate and -ketoglutarate hydroxyproline are true except
(B) Pyruvate and glutamate (A) There is no codon for hydroxyproline
(C) Pyruvate and -ketoglutarate (B) It is present in large amounts in collagen
(D) Asparate and -ketoglutarate (C) Free proline cannot be hydroxylated to
hydroxyproline
200. All of the following are required for
(D) Hydroxylation of proline residues is catalysed
synthesis of alanine except
by a dioxygenase
(A) Pyruvate (B) -ketoglutarate
208. All of the following are required for
(C) Glutamate (D) Pyridoxal phosphate
hydroxylation of proline residues except
201. All of the following statements about (A) Ascorbic acid (B) Glutamate
aspartate are true except
(C) Ferrous ions (D) Molecular oxygen
(A) It is non-essential amino acid
209. Cysteine can be synthesized from
(B) It is a dicarboxylic amino acid
methionine and
(C) It can be synthesized from pyruvate and
glutamate (A) Serine (B) Homoserine
(D) It can be converted into asparagine (C) Homocysteine (D) Threonine

202. Glycine can be synthesized from 210. Methionine is synthesized in human body
from
(A) Serine (B) Choline
(C) Betaine (D) All of these (A) Cysteine and homoserine
(B) Homocysteine and serine
203. All of the following are required for
(C) Cysteine and serine
synthesis of glutamine except
(D) None of these
(A) Glutamate
(B) Ammonia 211. Hydroxylation of phenylalanine requires
all of the following except
(C) Pyridoxal phosphate
(D) ATP (A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(B) Tetrahydrobiopterin
204. A coenzyme required for the synthesis of
(C) NADH
glycine from serine is
(D) Molecular oxygen
(A) ATP
(B) Pyridoxal phosphate 212. Non-Protein amino acids are
(C) Tetrahydrofolate (A) Ornithine
(D) NAD (B) -alanine
(C) -amino butyric acid
205. All of the following statements about
proline are true except (D) All of these

(A) It is an imino acid 213. The amino acid that undergoes oxidative
(B) It can be synthesized from glutamate deamination at significant rate is
(C) It can be catabolised to glutamate (A) Alanine (B) Aspartate
(D) Free proline can be hydroxylated to (C) Glutamate (D) Glutamine
hydroxyproline
214. Allosteric inhibitor of glutamate dehydro-
206. A protein rich in hydroxyproline is genase is
(A) Prolamin (B) Procollagen (A) ATP (B) ADP
(C) Collagen (D) Proinsulin (C) AMP (D) GMP
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 39

215. Allsoteric activator of glutamate dehydro- (A) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and
genase is citrulline
(A) ATP (B) GTP (B) Synthesis of citrulline and argininosuccinate
(C) ADP and GDP (D) AMP and GMP (C) Synthesis of argininosuccinate and arginine
(D) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and
216. Free ammonia is released during argininosuccinate
(A) Oxidative deamination of glutamate 224. Daily excretion of nitrogen by an adult
(B) Catabolism of purines man is about
(C) Catabolism of pyrimidines (A) 1520 mg (B) 1.52 gm
(D) All of these (C) 510 gm (D) 1520 gm
217. An organ which is extremely sensitive to 225. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn
ammonia toxicity is error of metabolism of
(A) Liver (B) Brain (A) Sulphur-containing amino acids
(C) Kidney (D) Heart (B) Aromatic amino acids
218. Ammonia is transported from muscles to (C) Branched chain amino acids
liver mainly in the form of (D) Dicarboxylic amino acids
(A) Free ammonia (B) Glutamine 226. Cystinuria results from inability to
(C) Asparagine (C) Alanine (A) Metabolise cysteine
219. The major site of urea synthesis is (B) Convert cystine into cysteine
(C) Incorporate cysteine into proteins
(A) Brain (B) Kidneys
(D) Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules
(C) Liver (D) Muscles
227. The defective enzyme in histidinemia is
220. Carbamoyl phosphate required for urea
synthesis is formed in (A) Histidine carboxylase
(B) Histidine decarboxylase
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
(C) Histidase
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) Histidine oxidase
221. Cytosolic and mitochondrial carbamoyl
228. All the following statements about
phosphate synthetase have the following
phenylketonuria are correct except
similarity:
(A) Phenylalanine cannot be converted into
(A) Both use ammonia as a substance
tyrosine
(B) Both provide carbamoyl phosphate for urea (B) Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and
synthesis phenyllactate is increased
(C) Both require N-acetylglutamate as an (C) It can be controlled by giving a low-
activator phenylalanine diet
(D) Both are allosteric enzymes (D) It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid
hormones, catecholamines and melanin
222. The following enzyme of urea cycle is
present in cytosol: 229. All the following statements about
(A) Argininosuccinic acid synthetase albinism are correct except
(B) Argininosuccinase (A) Tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosinase) is absent or
(C) Arginase deficient in melanocytes
(D) All of these (B) Skin is hypopigmented
(C) It results in mental retardation
223. ATP is required in following reactions of (D) Eyes are hypopigmented
urea cycle:
40 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

230. Glycine is not required for the formation themselves


of (C) When combined with some other large
(A) Taurocholic acid (B) Creatine molecule, they can elicit an immune response
(C) Purines (D) Pyrimidines (D) Once an immune response develops, the free
hapten can be recognized by the antibody
231. Histamine is formed from histidine by
238. Antigens and haptens have the following
(A) Deamination (B) Dehydrogenation similarity:
(C) Decarboxylation (D) Carboxylation
(A) They have high molecular weights
232. DOPA is an intermediate in the synthesis (B) They can elicit immune response by themselves
of (C) They can elicit an immune response only in
(A) Thyroid hormones association with some other large molecule
(B) Catecholamines (D) Once an immune response develops, free
(C) Melanin antigen and free hapten can be recognized
by the antibody
(D) Catecholamines and melanin
239. The minimum number of polypeptide
233. All the following statements about pepsin
chains in an immunoglobulin is
are correct except
(A) Two (B) Four
(A) It is smaller than pepsinogen
(C) Five (D) Six
(B) It is formed by the action of HCl on its precursor
(C) Its optimum pH is 1.02.0 240. Light chains of immunoglobulins are of
following types:
(D) It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal
peptide bonds of proteins (A) Alpha and kappa (B) Alpha and gamma
(C) Lambda and delta(D) Kappa and lambda
234. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of
all of the following except 241 Immunoglobulins are classified on the
basis of
(A) Trypsin (B) Chymotrypsin
(C) Carboxypeptidase (D) Aminopeptidase (A) Type of light chains
(B) Type of heavy chains
235. The only correct statement about chymo-
(C) Types of light and heavy chains
trypsin is
(D) Molecular weight
(A) It is formed from trypsin
(B) Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin into 242. The molecular weight of light chains is
chymotrypsin (A) 10,00015,000 (B) 20,00025,000
(C) Its optimum pH is around 7 (C) 25,00050,000 (D) 50,00075,000
(D) It hydrolyses peptide bonds involving basic 243. The molecular weight of heavy chains is
amino acids
(A) 20,00025,000 (B) 25,00050,000
236. The portion of the antigen molecule which (C) 50,00070,000 (D) 70,0001,00,000
is recognized by antibody is known as
244. Secretory component is present in
(A) Hapten (B) Epitope
(A) IgA (B) IgG
(C) Complement (D) Variable region
(C) IgM (D) All of these
237. All the following statements about
haptens are true except 245. The variable region of light chains is the

(A) They have high molecular weights (A) N-terminal quarter (B) N-terminal half
(C) C-terminal quarter (D) C-terminal half
(B) They cannot elicit an immune response by
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 41

246. The variable region of light chain is the 256. The immunoglobulin having the longest
(A) N-terminal quarter half-life is
(B) N-terminal half (A) IgA (B) IgG
(C) C-terminal quarter (C) IgM (D) IgE
(D) C-terminal half
257. The half-life of IgG is
247. The variable region of light chains has
(A) 23 days (B) 56 days
(A) One hypervariable region (C) 810 days (D) 2025 days
(B) Two hypervariable regions
(C) Three hypervariable regions 258. Recognition of antigen is the function of
(D) Four hypervariable regions (A) Variable region of light chains
(B) Variable regions of light and heavy chains
248. The variable region of heavy chains has
(C) Constant region of heavy chains
(A) One hypervariable region
(D) Constant regions of light and heavy chains
(B) Two hypervariable regions
(C) Three hypervariable regions 259. The effector function of antibody is
(D) Four hypervariable regions performed by
249. The most abundant immunoglobulin in (A) Variable region of light chains
plasma is (B) Constant region of heavy chains
(A) IgA (B) IgG (C) Variable regions of light and heavy chains
(C) IgM (D) IgD (D) Constant regions of light and heavy chains
250. The largest immunoglobulin is 260. Complement system can be activated by
(A) IgA (B) IgG binding of antigen to
(C) IgM (D) IgD (A) IgA (B) IgD
251. The plasma concentration of IgA is (C) IgE (D) IgM
(A) 15 mg/dl (B) 40200 mg/dl 261. C1 component of classical complement
(C) 60500 mg/dl (D) 7001,500 mg/dl pathway is made up of
252. An immunoglobulin found in exocrine (A) Complements 1q and 1r
secretions is (B) Complements 1q and 1s
(A) IgA (B) IgG (C) Complements 1r and 1s
(C) IgM (D) IgE (D) Complements 1q, 1r and 1s
253. Allergic reactions are mediated by 262. The components of complement system
(A) IgA (B) IgG are activated by
(C) IgD (D) IgE (A) Microsomal hydroxylation
254. An immunoglobulin which can cross the (B) Phosphorylation
placental barrier is (C) Glycosylation
(A) IgA (B) IgM (D) Proteloysis
(C) IgD (D) None of these 263. The component system forms a membrane
255. IgM possesses attack complex made up of
(A) Two light chains and two heavy chains (A) Complements 1q, 1r and 1s
(B) Four light chains and four heavy chains (B) Complements 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) Six light chains and six heavy chains (C) Complements 5b, 6, 7 and 8
(D) Ten light chains and ten heavy chains (D) Factors B and D
42 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

264. Factors B and D are required in 272. Gamma heavy chains are present in
(A) The classical pathway of complement fixation (A) IgA (B) IgG
(B) The alternate complement pathway (C) IgM (D) IgD
(C) Both (A) and (B)
273. Heavy chains in IgD are of following type:
(D) None of these
(A) Alpha (B) Gamma
265. The alternate complement pathway
(C) Delta (D) Epsilon
doesnt involve
(A) Antigen-antibody complex 274. On exposure to any antigen, the first
antibody to be formed is of the following
(B) Complement 3
class:
(C) Factors B and D
(D) Membrane attack unit (A) IgA (B) IgG
(C) IgM (D) IgE
266. Antibody diversity arises from
275. Constant segment genes of heavy chains
(A) Gene amplification
are present in a cluster in which the first
(B) Gene re-arrangement
gene on side is
(C) Alternative splicing
(A) Alpha (B) Gamma
(D) All of these
(C) Delta (D) None of these
267. A light chain gene is constructed from the
following segments: 276. Cell-mediated immunity is the function of

(A) Variable and constant segments (A) B lymphocytes (B) T lymphocytes


(B) Variable, joining and constant segments (C) Plasma cells (D) Basophils
(C) Variable, diversity and constant segments 277. The most abundant T cells are
(D) Variable, joining, diversity and constant
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
segments
(C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells
268. In metabolic point of view, amino acids
are classified as 278. T cells can recognise

(A) Glycogenic (A) Free antigens


(B) Ketogenic (B) Antigens bound to cells
(C) Glycogenic or Ketogenic (C) Antigens bound to antibodies
(D) All of these (D) Antigens bound to MHC proteins

269. Diversity segments are present in 279. MHC proteins are unique to
(A) Light chain genes (A) Each cell (B) Each organ
(B) Heavy chain genes (C) Each individual (D) Each species
(C) Light and heavy chain genes
280. MHC class I proteins are present on the
(D) None of these surface of
270. Constant segments of heavy chains are (A) B cells only (B) T cells only
of (C) Macrophages only(D) All cells
(A) Five types (B) Six types
281. MHC class I proteins, in conjunction with
(C) Seven types (D) Eight types
antigens are recognised by
271. Gamma heavy chains are of (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
(A) Two types (B) Three types (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells
(C) Four types (D) Five types
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 43

282. MHC class II proteins are present on the 290. Human immunodeficiency virus destroys
surface of (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
(A) All cells (C) B cells (D) Plasma cells
(B) B lymphocytes only 291. In allergic diseases, the concentration of
(C) Macrophages only the following is increased in plasma:
(D) Macrophages and B lymphocytes (A) IgA (B) IgG
283. MHC Class II proteins, in conjunction with (C) IgD (D) IgE
antigens, are recognised by 292. IgE has a tendency to attach to
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (A) Basophils (B) Mast cells
(B) Helper T cells (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) Suppressor T cells
293. Reaginic antibody is
(D) Memory T cells
(A) IgA (B) IgG
284. CD 8 is a transmembrane glycoprotein (C) IgD (D) IgE
present in
294. Active immunity can be produced by
(A) Cytotoxic T cells administration of
(B) Helper T cells
(A) Killed bacteria or viruses
(C) Suppressor T cells
(B) Live attenuated bacteria or viruses
(D) Memory T cells (C) Toxoids
285. CD 4 is a transmembrane glycoprotein (D) All of these
present in
295. Passive immunity can be produced by
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells administration of
(C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells (A) Pure antigens
286. CD 3 complex and p 56 lck
proteins are (B) Immunoglobulins
present in (C) Toxoids
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (D) Killed bacteria or viruses
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 296. Helper T cells release all the following
except
287. Cytotoxic T cells release
(A) Interleukins
(A) Perforins
(B) Colony stimulating factors
(B) Interleukins (C) Perforins
(C) Colony stimulating factors (D) Tumour necrosis factor
(D) Tumour necrosis factor
297. IgG cleaved by papain into
288. Helper T cells release
(A) Two light and two heavy chains
(A) Interleukins (B) Two Fab and one Fc fragments
(B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Two pairs of one light and one heavy chain
(C) Tumour necrosis factor each
(D) All of these (D) One Fab and two Fc fragments

289. MHC Class III proteins include 298. Bence-Jones protein is


(A) Immunoglobulins (A) An immunoglobulin
(B) Components of complement system (B) A dimer of heavy chains
(C) T cells receptors (C) A dimer of light chains
(D) CD4 and CD8 proteins (D) A dimer of one heavy and one light chains
44 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

299. Bence-Jones proteins possess all the 306. The recommended energy intake for an
following properties except adult sedentary Indian man is
(A) They are dimers of light chains (A) 1,900 kcal/day (B) 2,400 kcal/day
(B) Their amino acids sequences are identical (C) 2,700 kcal/day (D) 3,000 kcal/day
(C) Their N-terminal halves have variable amino 307. The recommended energy intake for an
acid sequences adult sedentary Indian woman is
(D) Their C-terminal halves have constant amino (A) 1,900 kcal/day (B) 2,200 kcal/day
acid sequences (C) 2,400 kcal/day (D) 2,700 kcal/day
300. A Zwitterion is 308. During pregnancy, the following should
(A) Positive ion (B) Negative ion be added to the calculated energy
(C) Both (A) and (C) (D) None of these requirement:
(A) 300 kcal/day (B) 500 kcal/day
301. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of
(C) 700 kcal/day (D) 900 kcal/day
energy from 25 gm of proteins is about
(A) 70 kcal (B) 100 kcal 309. During first six months of lactation, the
following increment in energy intake is
(C) 130 kcal (D) 200 kcal
recommended:
302. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of (A) 200 kcal/day (B) 300 kcal/day
energy from 25 gm of carbohydrates is (C) 550 kcal/day (D) 1,000 kcal/day
about
310. The proximate principles of diet are
(A) 70 kcal (B) 95 kcal
(A) Vitamins and minerals
(C) 100 kcal (D) 105 kcal
(B) Proteins
303. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of (C) Carbohydrates and fats
energy from 100 gm of fat is about (D) Carbohydrates, fats and proteins
(A) 600 kcal (B) 780 kcal
311. The limiting amino acid in wheat is
(C) 900 kcal (D) 1020 kcal
(A) Leucine (B) Lysine
304. If proteins, carbohydrates and fats are (C) Cysteine (D) Methionine
consumed together:
312. The limiting amino acid in pulses is
(A) The total SDA is the sum of individual SDAs
(A) Leucine (B) Lysine
of proteins, carbohydrates and fats
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine
(B) The total SDA is more than the sum of
individual SDAs of proteins, carbohydrates 313. Maize is poor in
and fats (A) Lysine
(C) Carbohydrates and fats lower the SDA of (B) Methionine
proteins (C) Tryptophan
(D) Proteins raise the SDA of carbohydrates and (D) Lysine and tryptophan
fats
314. The percentage of ingested protein/
305. After calculating the energy requirement nitrogen absorbed into blood stream is
of a person: known as
(A) 10% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA (A) Net protein utilisation
(B) 10% kcal are added on account of SDA (B) Protein efficiency ratio
(C) 20% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA (C) Digestibility coefficient
(D) 20% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA (D) Biological value of protein
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 45

315. Biological value of a protein is 323. Protein content of meat is about


(A) The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen (A) 10% (B) 13%
absorbed into circulation (C) 16% (D) 20%
(B) The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen
324. Protein content of rice is about
in the body
(C) The percentage of ingested protein utilised (A) 7% (B) 12%
for protein synthesis in the body (C) 15% (D) 20%
(D) The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of 325. The calorific value of wheat is about
protein ingested
(A) 2.5 kcal/gm (B) 3.5 kcal/gm
316. Net protein utilisation depends upon (C) 4.5 kcal/gm (D) 5.5 kcal/gm
(A) Protein efficiency ratio
326. For vegetarians, pulses are an important
(B) Digestibility coefficient source of
(C) Digestibility coefficient and protein efficiency
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins
ratio
(C) Fat (D) Iron
(D) Digestibility coefficient and biological value
327. The amino acids present in pulses can
317. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of
supplement the limiting amino acids of
protein ingested is known as
(A) Cereals (B) Milk
(A) Net protein utilisation
(C) Fish (D) Nuts and beans
(B) Protein efficiency ratio
(C) Digestibility coefficient 328. Milk is a good source of
(D) Biological value of protein (A) Proteins, calcium and iron
318. The following is considered as reference (B) Proteins, calcium and ascorbic acid
standard for comparing the nutritional (C) Proteins, lactose and retinol
quality of proteins: (D) Proteins, lactose and essential fatty acids
(A) Milk proteins (B) Egg proteins 329. Milk is a good source of all of the following
(C) Meat proteins (D) Fish proteins except
319. Biological value of egg proteins is about (A) Essential amino acids
(A) 70 % (B) 80 % (B) Vitamin C
(C) 86 % (D) 94 % (C) Galactose
(D) Calcium and phosphorous
320. The following has the highest protein
efficiency ratio: 330. Milk is poor in
(A) Milk proteins (B) Egg proteins (A) Cholesterol (B) Retinol
(C) Meat proteins (D) Fish proteins (C) Calcium (D) Iron

321. The following has the lowest protein 331. Egg is rich in all of the following except
efficiency ratio: (A) Cholesterol (B) Saturated fatty acids
(A) Maize proteins (B) Wheat proteins (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Calcium
(C) Milk proteins (D) Rice proteins
332. A phosphoprotein present in egg is
322. Protein content of egg is about (A) Casein (B) Albumin
(A) 10% (B) 13% (C) Ovoglobulin (D) Ovovitellin
(C) 16% (D) 20%
46 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

333. Consumption of raw eggs can cause (C) Muscle wasting occurs in marasmus but not
deficiency of kwashiorkor
(A) Calcium (B) Lipoic acid (D) Subcutaneous fat disappears in marasmus
(C) Biotin (D) Vitamin A but not in kwashiorkor

334. Egg is poor in 342. Energy reserves of an average well-fed


adult man are about
(A) Essential amino acids
(A) 50,000 kcal (B) 100,000 kcal
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) 200,000 kcal (D) 300,000 kcal
(C) Avidin
(D) Biotin 343. During starvation, the first reserve
nutrient to be depleted is
335. Cholesterol is present in all the following
except (A) Glycogen (B) Proteins
(C) Triglycerides (D) Cholesterol
(A) Milk (B) Fish
(C) Egg white (D) Egg yolk 344. Synthesis of the following enzymes is
increased during starvation.
336. Meat is rich in all of the following except
(A) Digestive enzymes
(A) Iron (B) Fluorine
(B) Gluconeogenic enzymes
(C) Copper (D) Zinc
(C) Urea cycle enzymes
337. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is (D) Glucokinase
severely deficient in
345. In hypoparathyroidism
(A) Iron (B) Calories
(C) Proteins (D) Essential fatty acids (A) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous
are low
338. Clinical features of Kwashiorkor include (B) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous
all of the following except are high
(A) Mental retardation (B) Muscle wasting (C) Plasma calcium is low and inorganic
(C) Oedema (D) Anaemia phosphorous high
(D) Plasma calcium is high and inorganic
339. Kwashiorkor usually occurs in
phosphorous low
(A) The post-weaning period
(B) Pregnancy 346. The number of amino acid residues in
calcitonin in
(C) Lactation
(D) Old age (A) 9 (B) 32
(C) 51 (D) 84
340. Marasmus occurs from deficient intake of
347. Calcitonin is synthesised in
(A) Essential amino acids
(B) Essential fatty acids (A) Parathyroid glands
(C) Calories (B) Thyroid gland
(D) Zinc (C) Pars intermedia of pituitary
(D) Adrenal cortex
341. Marasmus differs from Kwashiorkor in
the which of these following respect 348. Plasma calcium is lowered by
(A) Mental retardation occurs in kwashiorkor but (A) Parathormone (B) Calcitonin
not in marasmus (C) Aldosterone (D) Deoxycorticosterone
(B) Growth is retarded in kwashiorkor but not in
marasmus
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 47

349. Cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete 357. Gastrin stimulates


(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (A) Gastric motility (B) Gastric secretion
(C) Somatostatin (D) Cholecystokinin (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
350. A/G ratio is 358. Secretin is made up of
(A) Strength of proteins (A) 17 amino acids (B) 27 amino acids
(B) ratio of serum proteins (C) 37 amino acids (D) 47 amino acids
(C) ratio of ceruloplasmin
359. Secretin causes all of the following except
(D) None of these
(A) Secretion of pancreatic juice
351. Insulin is made up of (B) Secretion of bile
(A) A single polypeptide chain having 51 amino (C) Inhibition of gastric secretion
acid residues (D) Stimulation of intestinal motility
(B) A single polypeptide chain having 84 amino
360. All of the following statements about
acid residues
cholecystokinin pancreozymin are true
(C) A-chain having 21 and B-chain having 30
except
amino acid residues
(D) A-chain having 30 and B-chain having 21 (A) It is secreted by mucosa of small intestine
amino acid residues (B) It stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich
in enzymes
352. The number of amino acid residues in pre-
(C) It stimulates contraction of gall bladder
proinsulin is
(D) It inhibits gastric motility
(A) 51 (B) 84
(C) 109 (D) 119 361. All of the following statements about
pancreatic somatostain are true except
353. Pre-proinsulin contains a signal sequence
(A) It is secreted by cells of islets of Langerhans
having
(B) It stimulates the secretion of gastrin
(A) 9 amino acid residues
(C) It inhibits the secretion of secretin
(B) 19 amino acid residues
(D) It inhibits the secretion of cholecystokinin-
(C) 27 amino acid residues pancreozymin
(D) 33 amino acid residues
362. Histidine is converted into histamine by
354. The number of intra-chain disulphide
(A) Carboxylation (B) Decarboxylation
bonds in pro-insulin:
(C) Methylation (D) Hydroxylation
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four 363. Histamine is synthesised in
(A) Brain (B) Mast cells
355. Pentagastrin is a
(C) Basophils (D) All of these
(A) Naturally occurring form of gastrin
(B) Inactive metabolite of gastrin 364. Histamine causes all the following except
(C) Active metabolite of gastrin (A) Stimulation of gastric secretion
(D) Synthetic form of gastrin (B) Vasoconstriction
(C) Pruritus
356. Secretion of gastrin is evoked by
(D) Increase in capillary permeability
(A) Entry of food into stomach
(B) Vagal stimulation 365. H2-receptors are blocked by
(C) Lower aliphatic alcohols (A) Diphenhydramine (B) Mepayramine
(D) All of these (C) Pyrilamine (D) Cimetidine
48 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

366. Serotonin is synthesised from 375. The most abundant protein in bones is
(A) Serine (B) Phenylalanine (A) Collagen type I
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (B) Collagen type II
367. All the following statements about (C) Collagen type III
serotonin are true except (D) Non-collagen proteins
(A) It causes vasolidatation 376. The most abundant collagen in cartilages
(B) It causes bronchoconstriction is
(C) It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase (A) Type I (B) Type II
(D) Its metabolite is 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (C) Type III (D) Type IV
368. All the following statements about 377. Collagen and elastin have the following
angiotensin are true except similarity:
(A) Its precursor is an 2-globulin (A) Both are triple helices
(B) Its active form is an octapeptide (B) Both have hydroxyproline residues
(C) It is a vasodilator (C) Both have hydrolysine residues
(D) It increases the secretion of aldosterone (D) Both are glycoproteins
369. Methyl dopa decreases blood pressure by 378. Abnormal collagen structure is seen in all
(A) Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines of the following except
(B) Antagonising the action of aldosterone (A) I-cell disease
(C) Stimulating the release of renin (B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(D) Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin (C) Menkes disease
370. Binding of gamma-aminobutyric acid to (D) Ehlers-Danlos sydrome
its receptors in brain increases the 379. I-cell disease results from absence of the
permeability of cell membrane to following from lysosomal enzymes:
(A) Cl (B) Na + (A) Signal sequence
(C) K + (D) Ca ++ (B) Mannose-6-phosphate
371. Binding of acetylcholine to its receptors (C) Sialic acid
increases the permeability of cell (D) A serine residue
membrane to
380. In I-cell disease, lysosomal enzymes
(A) Ca++ (B) Na +
(C) K + (D) Na+ and K+ (A) Are not synthesised
(B) Are inactive
372. All of the following are glycoproteins
(C) Lack signal sequence
except
(D) Cannot reach lysosomes
(A) Collagen (B) Albumin
(C) Transferrin (D) IgM 381. Renal glycosuria occurs due to
(A) Increased filtration of glucose in glomeruli
373. Sialic acids are present in
(B) Increased secretion of glucose by renal
(A) Proteoglycans (B) Glycoproteins tubular cells
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Decreased reabsorption of glucose by renal
374. Hyaluronidase hydrolyses tubular cells
(D) Increased conversion of glycogen into glucose
(A) Hyaluronic acid
in tubular cells
(B) Chondroitin sulphate
(C) Heparin 382. Haematuria can occur in
(D) Hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulphate (A) Haemolytic anaemia
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 49

(B) Mismatched blood transfusion hours and, then, measure


(C) Yellow fever (A) Serum urea
(D) Stone in urinary tract (B) Serum creatinine
383. Haematuria can occur in all of the following (C) Urine output in one hour
except (D) Specific gravity of urine
(A) Acute glomerulonephritis 393. Among the following, the most sensitive
(B) Cancer of urinary tract indicator of glomerular function is
(C) Stone in urinary tract
(A) Serum urea
(D) Mismatched blood transfusion
(B) Serum creatinine
384. Chyluria can be detected by addition of (C) Urea clearance
the following to the urine: (D) Creatinine clearance
(A) Sulphosalicylic acid (B) Nitric acid
394. All the following statements about inulin
(C) Acetic anhydride (D) Chloroform
are correct except
385. Normal range of serum urea is (A) It is completely non-toxic
(A) 0.61.5 mg/dl (B) 911 mg/dl (B) It is completely filtered by glomeruli
(C) 2045 mg/dl (D) 60100 mg/dl (C) It is not reabsorbed by tubular cells
386. Normal range of serum creatinine is (D) It is secreted by tubular cells
(A) 0.61.5 mg/dl (B) 911 mg/dl 395. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in
(C) 2045 mg/dl (D) 60100 mg/dl blood include all of the following except

387. Standard urea clearance is (A) Urea (B) Uric acid


(C) Creatinine (D) Inositol
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min 396. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in
blood are raised in
388. Maximum urea clearance is
(A) Starvation
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
(B) Liver damage
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min
(C) Renal failure
389. Average creatinine clearance in an adult (D) All of these
man is about
397. Creatinine clearance is deceased in
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min (A) Acute tubular necrosis
(B) Acute glomerulonephritis
390. Inulin clearance in an average adult man
(C) Hypertension
is about
(D) Myopathies
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min 398. Serum amylase is increased in

Q391. Among the following, a test of tubular (A) Acute parotitis (B) Acute pancreatitis
function is (C) Pancreatic cancer (D) All of these
(A) Creatinine clearance 399. Maximum rise in serum amylase occurs in
(B) Inulin clearance (A) Acute parotitis
(C) PAH clearance (B) Acute pancreatitis
(D) PSP excretion test (C) Chronic pancreatitis
392. A simple way to assess tubular function (D) Pancreatic cancer
is to withhold food and water for 12
50 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

400. Serum lipase is increased in (B) Must be supplied in the diet because the
human has an impaired ability to synthesize
(A) Acute parotitis (B) Acute pancreatitis
the carbon chain of the corresponding keto-
(C) Infective hepatitis (D) Biliary obstruction acids
401. Which one of the following metabolites (C) Are identical in all species studied
is not directly produced in the hexose (D) Are defined as those amino acids which
monophosphate pathway? cannot be synthesized by the organism at a
(A) Fructose-6-phosphate rate adequate to meet metabolic requirements
(B) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate 408. Which among the following is an essential
(C) CO2 amino acid?
(D) Erythrose-4-phosphate (A) Cysteine (B) Leucine
(C) Tyrosine (D) Aspartic acid
402. Which one of the following statements
concerning glucose-6-phosphate dehydro- 409. Which among the following is a basic
genase deficiency is correct? amino acid?
(A) Young R.B.Cs, particularly reticulocytes, (A) Aspargine (B) Arginine
contain the highest enzyme activity cells show (C) Proline (D) Alanine
less enzyme activity
410. This amino acid cannot have optical
(B) Glucose-6-P Dehydroglucose deficiency
isomers:
leads to disfuction of many tissues
(C) G-6-p Dehydroglucose deficiency is due to a (A) Alanine (B) Histidine
single deletion of a large sequence of DNA (C) Threonine (D) Glycine
in the G-6-PD gene 411. The amino acid which contains a
(D) G-6-PD deficiency is precipitated by ingestion guanidine group is
of drugs such as aspirin
(A) Histidine (B) Arginine
403. The phenomenon of inhibition of glycol- (C) Citrulline (D) Ornithine
ysis by O2 is termed as
412. GABA(gama amino butyric acid) is
(A) Red drop (B) Pasteur effect
(A) Post-synaptic excitatory transmitter
(C) Michaelis effect (D) Fischers effect
(B) Post-synaptic inhibitor transmitter
404. Seratonin is derived in the body from the (C) activator of glia-cell function
following amino acid: (D) inhibitor of glia-cell function
(A) Phenylalanine (B) Histidine 413. Sulphur-containing amino acid is
(C) Tryptophan (D) Serine
(A) Glutathione (B) Chondroitin sulphate
405. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor? (C) Homocysteine (D) Tryptophan
(A) Lysine (B) Leucine 414. The useful reagent for detection of amino
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine acids is
406. Which among the following is a nutrition- (A) Molisch reagent
ally essential amino acid for man ? (B) Dichlorophenol Indophenol
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine (C) Ninhydrin
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (D) Biuret

407. The essential amino acids 415. The amino acid which contains an indole
group is
(A) Must be supplied in the diet because the
organism has lost the capacity to aminate the (A) Histidine (B) Arginine
corresponding ketoacids (C) Glycine (D) Tryptophan
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 51

416. Sakaguchi reaction is answered by (A) Lysine (B) Glutamine


(A) Lysine (C) Serine (D) Citrulline
(B) Ornithine 425. An amino acid which contains a disulphide
(C) Arginine bond is
(D) Arginino succinic acid (A) Lysine (B) Methionine
417. The pH of an amino acid depends (C) Homocysteine (D) Cystine
(A) Optical rotation (B) Dissociation constant 426. One of the following has a phenolic group:
(C) Diffusion coefficient(D) Chain length
(A) Histidine (B) Hydroxy lysine
418. When amino acids are treated with neutral (C) Seratonine (D) Hydroxy proline
formaldehyde, the pH of the mixture
427. An amino acid not containing the usual
(A) Is not altered COOH group is
(B) Increases
(A) Alanine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Decreases
(C) Methionine (D) Taurine
(D) First increases then decreases
428. Branched chain amino acids are
419. Which among the following has an
imidazole group? (A) Cysteine and cystine
(A) Histidine (B) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine and Tryptophan
(C) Proline (D) Hydroxy proline (C) Glycine and Serine
(D) Valine, Leucine and Isoleucine
420. The amino acid exist as Zwitter ions when
they are in 429. A Zwitter ion is one which has in aqueous
solution:
(A) solid state (B) acidic solution
(C) alkaline solution (D) neutral solution (A) One positive charge and one negative charge
(B) Two positive charges and one negative charge
421. Plasma proteins are isolated by
(C) Two negative charges and one positive
(A) Salting out (B) Electrophoresis charge
(C) Flourimetry (D) Both (A) and (B) (D) No electrical charges at all
422. After digestion amino acids 430. The amino acid which gives yellow colour
(A) Are absorbed into portal circulation with Ninhydrin in paper chromatography
(B) Are absorbed into lymph is
(C) Are excreted to the extent of 50% (A) Tyrosine (B) Proline
(D) Converted into glucose in the intestine (C) Tryptophan (D) Alanine
423. Cysteine has the formula: 431. Hydroxylation of Proline and Lysine in a
protein is effected by
(A) CH3SH
(B) H2NCH2COOH (A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin C
(C) HSCH2CH(NH2)COOH
(D) SCH2CH(NH2)COOH 432. Millons test is for identification of
| (A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
SCH2CH(NH2)COOH (C) Proline (D) Arginine
424. The compound having the formula 433. Hopkins-Cole test is for identification of
H2NCONHCH2CH2CH2CH COOH is (A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
| (C) Arginine (D) Cysteine
NH2
52 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

434. Collagen is very rich in 445. The major end product of protein nitrogen
(A) Glycine (B) Serine metabolism in man is
(C) Aspartic acid (D) Glutamic acid (A) Glycine (B) Uric acid
(C) Urea (D) NH3
435. All amino acids are optically active except
(A) Glycine (B) Serine 446. An amino acid not involved in urea cycle
(C) Threonine (D) Tryptophan is
(A) Arginine (B) Histidine
436. Out of 200 different amino acids form in
nature the number of amino acids present (C) Ornithine (D) Citrulline
in protein: 447. NH3 is detoxified in brain chiefly as
(A) 20 (B) 25 (A) Urea (B) Uric acid
(C) 40 (D) 35 (C) Creatinine (D) Glutamine
437. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins 448. In humans, NH3 is detoxified in liver as
produces amino acids of the form:
(A) Creatinine (B) Uric acid
(A) D (B) L
(C) Urea (D) Uronic acid
(C) DL (D) All of these
449. The body protein after eighteen years
438. The ionizable groups of amino acids are
at least. (A) Remains unchanged
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Is decomposed only slightly at intervals of one
month
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Is in a constant state of flux
439. The neutral amino acid is (D) Is used only for energy requirement
(A) Lysine (B) Proline
450. The only known physiological methylating
(C) Leucine (D) Histidine
agents in the animal organism are
440. The amino acid containing hydroxyl (A) Choline and betaine
group:
(B) Choline and -adenosyl methionine
(A) Alanine (B) Isoleucine (C) Betaine and -adenyosyl methionine
(C) Arginine (D) Threonine
(D) Dimehtyl glycine and betaine
441. The sulphur containing amino acid:
451. In the synthesis of 1 molecule of urea in
(A) Homoserine (B) Serine the Krebs Hanseleit cycle, the number of
(C) Methionine (D) Valine ATPs required is
442. The basic amino acid: (A) 1 (B) 2
(A) Glycine (B) Leucine (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Histidine (D) Proline 452. For biosynthesis of proteins
443. The amino acid which synthesizes many (A) Amino acids only are required
hormones: (B) Amino acids and nucleic acids only are
(A) Valine (B) Phenyl alanine required
(C) Alanine (D) Histidine (C) Amino acid, nucleic acids and ATP only are
required
444. Amino acids are insoluble in
(D) Amino acids, nucleic acids, ATP, GTP,
(A) Acetic acid (B) Chloroform
enzymes and activators are required
(C) Ethanol (D) Benzene
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 53

453. Transmethylation of guanido acetic acid 461. The first amino acid incorporated in a
gives polypeptide in a ribosome of a human is
(A) Creatine phosphate (A) N formyl methionine (B) Methionine
(B) Creatinine (C) Phenyl alanine (D) Hydroxy lysine
(C) Choline
462. The first amino acid incorporated in a
(D) n-methyl nicotinamide polypeptide in a ribosome of a bacterium
454. The 2 energy rich compounds needed for is
protein biosynthesis are (A) N formyl methionine (B) Methionine
(A) ATP and GTP (B) ATP and UTP (C) Alamine (D) Glycine
(C) ATP and CTP (D) ATP and TTP 463. The integrator between the TCA cycle and
455. The following ketoacid is involved in urea cycle is
fixing dietary NH3 into amino acid: (A) Fumarate (B) Malate
(A) Pyruvate (B) Oxalo acetate (C) Pyruvate (D) Citrate
(C) Oxalo succinate (D) -keto glutarate 464. Bence jones proteinurial characterized by
456. The metabolite which sustains urea cycle (A) Non-heat coagulability
is (B) Heat coagulability at 100C
(A) Ornithine (C) Heat coagulability at 45 to 60C
(B) Citrulline (D) Precipitation at 25C
(C) Carbamoyl phosphate
465. Bence Jones proteins may be excreted in
(D) n-acetyl glutamate urine of patients suffering from
457. Tetra hydroglolate can be freed from N5 (A) Tuberculosis (B) Diabetes mellitus
methyl tetrahydrofolate only by (C) Multiple myeloma (D) Hyperthyroidism
(A) Nor epinephrine (B) Ethanol amine
466. Xanthuric acid is an abnormal metabolite
(C) Nicotinamide (D) Vitamin B12 of
458. Neogenesis of methyl group is (A) Xanthine (B) Uric acid
(A) The availability of methyl group form (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
adenosyl methionine
467. Two nitrogen atoms of Urea in the urea
(B) The availability of methyl group from betaine cycle come from
(C) Interaction between N5 N10 methylene tetra
(A) NH3
hydrofolate with a NAD + dependent
reductase (B) One from NH3 and one from aspartate
(D) Availability of methyl group from methyl B12 (C) One from NH3 and one from glutamate
(D) One from NH3 and one from alanine
459. More creatinine is excreted by
468. Pyruvic acid can be obtained by transami-
(A) Adult males (B) Adult females
nation of alanine with
(C) Children (D) Pregnant women
(A) - keto glutaric acid
460. A growing peptide in a ribosome can not (B) Acetoacetic acid
be shifted to the adjacent ribosome (C) OH butyric acid
because
(D) Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid
(A) It is firmly attached
(B) It will get the amino acid cleaved 469. In the synthesis of 1 molecule of urea in
the Krebs Henseleit cycle the number of
(C) The gap between the ribosomes is too big for
AMPs formed is
a shift
(D) The adjacent ribosomes have different (A) 1 (B) 2
composition (C) 3 (D) 4
54 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

470. Formation of melanin from tyrosine (B) H2NGlyArgLysPheCOOH + Asp


requires the action of (C) H2NArgLysPheAspCOOH + Gly
(A) Dopa decarboxylation (D) H2NGlyArgLysCOOH + H2NPhe
(B) Diamine oxidase AspCOOH
(C) Peroxidase
478. Which of the following techniques is used
(D) Tyrosinase to separate proteins based upon differ-
471. In one of the following the quality of the ences in their mass?
protein synthesized is affected: (A) Isoelectric focusing
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Gont (B) Dialysis
(C) Multiple myeloma (D) Primaquine sensitivity (C) SDS-gel Electrophoresis
(D) Western blotting
472. Citrulline is an intermediate of
(A) TCA cycle (B) Urea cycle 479. The greatest buffering capacity at
physiologic pH would be provided by a
(C) Pentose cycle (D) Calvin cycle
protein rich in which of the following
473. The semialdehydes are formed under the amino acids ?
action of enzymes characterised as (A) Lysine (B) Histidine
(A) Aldolases (C) Aspartic acid (D) Valine
(B) Peptidyl lysyl oxidases 480. Which one of the amino acids could serve
(C) Collagenases as the best buffer at pH 7?
(D) Elastases (A) Glutamic acid (B) Arginine
474. Which of the following statement about (C) Valine (D) Histidine
the peptide bond is true?
481. Which one of the following statements
(A) It is a carbon-carbon bond concerning glutamine is correct?
(B) It has cis hydrogen and oxygen groups (A) Contains three tetratable groups
(C) It is planar (B) Is classified as an acidic amino acid
(D) It has rotational freedom (C) Contains an amide group
475. Isoenzymes for a given reaction (D) Migrates to the cathode during electro-
phoresis at pH 7.0
(A) Have different spedificities
(B) Have identical affinities for the same substrate 482. One of the given example is an amino
acid:
(C) Exhibit different electrophoretic motilities
(D) Contain similar ratios of different polypeptide (A) Oh-Lysine (B) Protein
chains (C) Leucine (D) Serine

476. The highest concentration of cystine can 483. The lone pair of electrons at one of the
be found in ring nitrogens in the given amino acid
makes a potential ligand, which is
(A) Melanin (B) Chondroitin sulphate important in binding the iron atoms in
(C) Myosin (D) Keratin hemoglobin:
477. One round of Edman degradation of the (A) Tryptophan (B) Threonine
peptide: H 2 N GlyArgLysPhe (C) Histidine (D) Serine
Asp COOH would result in which of the
484. The amino acid which is not optically
following structures or their phenyl isothi-
active is
ocyanate derivatives?
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine
(A) H 2NGlyArgCOOH + H2NLys
Phe AspCOOH (C) Glutamine (D) Lysine
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 55

485. Optically active compounds are capable of 494. In prehepatic jaundice, protein floccula-
(A) Different reactions tion test is
(B) Rotating plane of polarized light (A) Normal/weekly positive
(C) Showing same chemical properties (B) Usually positive
(D) None of these (C) Negative
486. The reference compound for absolute confi- (D) None of these
guration of optically active compound is 495. Side chains of all amino acids contain
(A) Alanine (B) Lactic acid aromatic rings except
(C) Glyceraldehyde (D) Dihydroxy acetone (A) Pheynl alanine (B) Alanine
487. All the standard amino acids except the (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
following have one chiral c atom:
496. In Nitroprusside test, amino acid cystein
(A) Threonine, Isoleucine produces
(B) Isoleucine, Alanine (A) Blue colour complex
(C) Threonine, Alanine (B) Red colour
(D) Alanine, Glutamine
(C) Yellow colour
488. The role of complement proteins: (D) Purple colour
(A) Defense 497. Bonds that are formed between two
(B) Helps immunity of the body cysteine residues is
(C) Not predicatable
(A) Disulphide (B) Peptide
(D) None of these
(C) Electrostatic (D) Hydrophobic
489. Optical isomers that are mirror images
498. The acid amide of Aspartic acid is
and non superimposable are called
(A) Glutamine (B) Arginine
(A) Diastereomers (B) Euantiomers
(C) dl isomers (D) Stereomers (C) Aspargine (D) Ornithine

490. Living cells have the unique ability to 499. It is the only amino acid having an
synthesize only _________ the form of ionizing R group with a pK near 7 and
optical isomer due to _________. is important in the active site of some
enzymes:
(A) d form, stereospecific enzymes
(B) l form stereospecific enzymes (A) Arginine (B) Cystein
(C) d form, DNA (C) Cystine (D) Histidine
(D) L form, DNA 500. Hemoglobin has a high content of this
491. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH amino acid:
at which it has a (A) Proline (B) Leucine
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge (C) Arginine (D) Histicline
(C) No net charge (D) All of these
501. A hexa peptide with 5 aspartic acid would
492. Albuminoids are similar to have a net charge at pH 7:
(A) Albumin (B) Globulin (A) Neutral (B) Positive
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these (C) Negative (D) Not predictable
493. Abnormal chain of amino acids in sickle 502. In the genetic disorder of cystinuria, the
cells anaemia is patient excretes large quantities of
(A) Alpha chain (B) Beta chain cystine in their urine and its low solubility
(C) Gama chain (D) Delta chain causes crystalline cystine to precipitate as
stones in kidneys. The remedy involves
56 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

ingesting Na HCO 3. Reaction of this 508. The amino acid which has a pK near 4 and
treatment is thus is negatively charged at pH 7 is
(A) NaHCO2 combines with cystine (A) Alanine (B) Glutamic acid
(B) NaHCO3 raises the pH above the isoelectric (C) Glutamine (D) Aspargine
point of cystine 509. The side chain of which of the following
(C) NaHCO 3 prevents stone formation by amino acid contain sulphur atom?
hydrolysis of cystine to cysteine (A) Methionine (B) Threonine
(D) None of these (C) Leucine (D) Tryptophan
503. In the following reaction, Alanine acts as a 510. Which of the followings gives a positive
test for Ninhydrin?
H H (A) Reducing sugars (B) Triglycerides
| |
+
+
H 3 N C COO H 3 N C COOH (C) Alpha aminoacids (D) Esterified Fats
| | 511. In glutathione (a tripeptide) is present
CH 3 CH 3 apart from Glutamic acid and cysteine:

(A) Acid (B) Base (A) Serine (B) Glycine


(C) Leucine (D) Phenyl alanine
(C) Zwitter ion (D) None of these
512. 2 -Amino 3-OH propanoic acid is
504. Amino acids excepting histidine are not
good buffering agents in cell because (A) Glycine (B) Alanine
(C) Valine (D) Serine
(A) They exist as zwitter ions
(B) Their pk and not in the physiological pH of a 513. All amino acids have one asymmetric
cell carbon atom, except
(C) Only Histidine has pk of its R group at 6.0 (A) Arginine (B) Aspargine
unlike the others which have at a different pH (C) Histidine (D) Glycine
(D) None of these
514. Number of amino acids present in the
505. At neutral pH Alanine has the following plant, animal and microbial proteins:
structure: (A) 20 (B) 80
H (C) 150 (D) 200
H
+
(A) H2N C COOH (B) H3 N C COO 515. Immunoglobulins are characterized by their
CH3 CH3
(A) Heavy chains
H +
H (B) Molecular weight
(C) H2 N C COO (D) H2 N C COO (C) Light chains
CH3 CH3
(D) Electrophoretic behaviour
506. The amino acids in which the R groups
have a net positive charge at pH 7.0 are 516. The bond in proteins that is not hydro-
lysed under usual conditions of denatu-
(A) Lysine, Arginine, Histidine ration:
(B) Lysine, Aspargine (A) Hydrophobic bond (B) Hydrogen bond
(C) Histidine, Aspargine (C) Disulphide bond (D) Peptide bonds
(D) Glutamine, Arginine
517. If the amino group and a carboxylic group
507. Apolipoproteins are of the amino acid are attached to same
carbon atom, the amino acid is called
(A) AI (B) AI1
(C) C1 (D) All of these (A) Alpha (B) Beta
(C) Gamma (D) Delta
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 57

518. Zymogen is 528. Physiologically active configuration of


(A) An intracellular enzyme amino acids:
(B) Serum enzyme (A) L
(C) A complete extracellular enzyme (B) D
(D) An inactivated enzyme (C) For some amino acids it is either of two
(D) Neither L nor D
519. SGOT level in a adult is
(A) 540 units/dl (B) 14 units/dl 529. Cystine is synthesized from
(C) 515 units/dl (D) 50100 units/dl (A) Cysteine (B) Methionine
(C) Arginine (D) Leucine
520. Activity of ceruloplasmin shown in vitro:
(A) Reductase (B) Hydrolase 530. The major constituent of the proteins of
hair and keratin of skin:
(C) Ligase (D) Oxidase
(A) Arginine (B) Cysteine
521. Increased serum alanine during fasting is (C) Glycine (D) Arginine
due to
(A) Breakdown of muscle proteins 531. NH3 is removed from brain mainly by
(B) Decreased utilization of non essential amino (A) Creatinine formation
acids (B) Uric acid production
(C) Leakage of aminoacids to plasma (C) Urea formation
(D) Impaired renal function (D) Glutamine formation
522. The following 4 amino acids are required 532. Mechanism by which NH3 is removed from
for completion of urea cycle except the kidneys is
(A) Aspartic acid (B) Arginine (A) Urea formation
(C) Ornithine (D) Glycine (B) Uric acid formation
(C) Creatinine formation
523. Number of amino acids present in the
dietary proteins: (D) None of these
(A) 22 (B) 23 533. Low density plasma proteins are rich in
(C) 20 (D) 19 (A) Chylomicrons (B) Cholesterol
524. Urea synthesis takes place in (C) Triglycerides (D) Phospholipids
(A) Blood (B) Liver 534. Transcortins are
(C) Kidney (D) Heart (A) Mucoproteins (B) Glycoproteins
525. All followings are ketogenic aminoacids (C) Metalloproteins (D) Lipoproteins
except 535. Proteins that carries Iron into different
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine tissues is
(C) Phenyl alanine (D) Glycine (A) Ceruloplasmin (B) Trans cortin
526. The amino acid containing an indole ring: (C) Mucoproteins (D) Glycoproteins
(A) Tryptophan (B) Arginine 536. Naturally occurring amino acids have
(C) Threonine (D) Phenylalanine (A) L-Configuration (B) D-Configuration
527. Histidine is converted to histamine (C) DL-Configuration (D) None of these
through the process of 537. Abnormal chain of aminoacids in sickle
(A) Transamination cell anemia is
(B) Decarboxylation (A) -chain (B) -chain
(C) Oxidative deamination (C) -chain (D) r-chain
(D) Urea cycle
58 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

538. A dietary deficiency of tryptophan and 547. The amino acid which contains an indole
nicotinate leads to group is
(A) Beri Beri (B) Xerophthalmia (A) Histidine (B) Arginine
(C) Anemia (D) Pellegra (C) Cystine (D) Tryptophan
539. Which one of the following is an essential 548. From two amino acids peptide bond
amino acid? formation involves removal of one
(A) Arginine (B) Tyrosine molecule of
(C) Phenylalanine (D) Proline (A) Water (B) Ammonia
(C) Carbondioxide (D) Carboxylic acid
540. One of the following amino acid is solely
ketogenic: 549. Polymers of more than 100 amino acids
are termed
(A) Lysine (B) Alanine
(C) Valine (D) Glutamate (A) Proteins (B) Polypeptides
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
541. Along with CO2, NH3 and ATP, the amino
acid that is needed in urea cycle is 550. The example of globulins:
(A) Alanine (B) Isoleucine (A) Leucosin (B) Tuberin
(C) Aspartate (D) Glycine (C) Oryzenin (D) Legunelin

542. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH 551. The example of scleroproteins:


at which it has a (A) Glutamin (B) Giladin
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge (C) Salmine (D) Elastin
(C) No charge (D) None of these 552. The example of phosphoprotein:
543. Which of the following contributes (A) Mucin (B) Ovovitellin
nitrogen atoms to both purine and (C) Ovomucoid (D) Tendomucoid
pyrimidine rings?
553. The example of metalloproteins:
(A) Aspartate
(A) Siderophilin (B) OREES mucoid
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate
(C) Elastin (D) All of these
(C) CO2
554. The example of chromoprotein:
(D) Glutamine
(A) Salmine (B) Catalase
544. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor?
(C) Zein (D) Gliadin
(A) Lysine (B) Lecuine
555. Deamination is ______ of amino group.
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine
(A) Removal (B) Addition
545. Which of the following protein is rich in (C) Supplementation (D) None of these
cysteine?
556. Proteins produce polypeptides from
(A) Elastine (B) Collagen
proteins by
(C) Fibrin (D) Keratin
(A) Oxidizing (B) Reducing
546. Which amino acid is present at 6th position (C) Hydrolyzing (D) None of these
of -chain of Hbs instead of glutamate in
HbA? 557. Proteins react with biuret reagent which
is suggestive of 2 or more
(A) Cysteine (B) Valine
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Peptide bonds
(C) Aspartate (D) Glutamate
(C) Disulphide bonds (D) Hydrophobic bonds
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 59

558. The disulphide bond is not broken under 568. Foetal haemoglobin contains
the usual conditions of (A) Two and two chains
(A) Filtration (B) Reduction (B) Two and two chains
(C) Oxidation (D) Denaturation (C) Both (A) and (B)
559. Insulin is oxidized to separate the protein (D) None of these
molecule into its constituent polypeptide
569. When haemoglobin takes up oxygen
chains without affecting the other part of
the molecule by the use of there is a change in the structure due to
the moving closer together of
(A) Performic acid (B) Oxalic acid
(A) -chains (B) -chains
(C) Citric acid (D) Malic acid
(C) -chains (D) and chains
560. Each hydrogen bond is quite
570. The hydrogen bonds in the secondary and
(A) Weak (B) Strong
tertiary structure of proteins are directly
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these attacked by
561. A coiled structure in which peptide bonds (A) Salts (B) Alkalies
are folded in regular manner by
(C) Detergents (D) All of these
(A) Globular proteins (B) Fibrous proteins
571. The hydrogen bonds between peptide
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
linkages are interfered by
562. In many proteins the hydrogen bonding (A) Guanidine (B) Uric acid
produces a regular coiled arrangement
called (C) Salicylic acid (D) Oxalic acid

(A) -helix (B) -helix 572. The digestability of certain denatured


(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these proteins by proteolytic enzymes
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
563. Many globular proteins are stable in
solution although they lack in (C) Normal (D) None of these
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Salt bonds 573. The antigenic antibody functions of
(C) Non-polar bonds (D) Disulphide bonds proteins by denaturation are frequently
564. Each turn of -helix contains the number (A) Not changed (B) Changed
of amino acids (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) 2.8 (B) 3.2 574. In case of severe denaturation of protein,
(C) 3.4 (D) 3.6 there is
565. The distance travelled per turn of -helix (A) Reversible denaturation
in nm is (B) Moderate reversible denaturation
(A) 0.34 (B) 0.44 (C) Irreversible denaturation
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.64 (D) None of these
566. -helix is disrupted by certain amino 575. When egg albumin is heated till it is
acids like coagulated, the secondary and tertiary
(A) Proline (B) Arginine structures of the proteins are completely lost
(C) Histidine (D) Lysine resulting in a mixture of randomly arranged

567. -helix is stabilized by (A) Dipeptide chains (B) Tripeptide chains


(C) Polypeptide chains(D) All of these
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Disulphide bonds
(C) Salt bonds (D) Non-polar bonds
60 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

576. In glycoproteins the carbohydrate is in the 586. If one amino acid is fed excess, the
form of disaccharide units, the number of absorption of another is
units are
(A) Slightly accelerated
(A) 50100 (B) 200300 (B) Moderately accelerated
(C) 400500 (D) 600700 (C) Highly accelerated
577. The milk protein in the stomach of the (D) Retarded
infants is digested by
587. Under normal conditions, food proteins
(A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin are generally readily digested upto the
(C) Chymotrypsin (D) Rennin present
578. Achylia gastrica is said to be when absence (A) 67 to 73 (B) 74 to 81
of (C) 82 to 89 (D) 90 to 97
(A) Pepsin only (B) Both pepsin and HCl
588. By overheating the nutritional value of
(C) HCl only (D) All of these
cereal proteins is
579. The pH of gastric juice become low in
(A) Increased (B) Decreased
(A) Hemolytic anemia (B) Pernicious anemia (C) Unchanged (D) None of these
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
589. More than half of the protein of the liver
580. In small intestine trypsin hydrolyzes and intestinal mucosa are broken down
peptide linkages containing
and resynthesised in
(A) Arginine (B) Histidine
(A) 10 days (B) 12 days
(C) Serine (D) Aspartate
(C) 15 days (D) 18 days
581. Chymotrypsin in the small intestine
hydrolyzes peptide linkages containing 590. The half-life of antibody protein is about

(A) Alanine (B) Pheynl alanine (A) 4 weeks (B) 3 weeks


(C) Valine (D) Methionine (C) 2 weeks (D) 1 week

582. Carboxy peptidase B in the small 591. Protein anabolism is stimulated by


intestine hydrolyzes peptides containing (A) ACTH (B) Testosterone
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine (C) Glucagon (D) Epinephrine
(C) Arginine (D) Cysteine
592. The metabolism of protein is integrated
583. The transport of amino acids regulated by with that of carbohydrate and fat through
active processes of different numbers:
(A) Oxaloacetate (B) Citrate
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) Isocitrate (D) Malate
(C) 3 (D) 4
593. The building up and breaking down of
584. The third active process for amino acids
transport involves protoplasm are concerned with the
metabolism of
(A) Acidic amino acids
(B) Basic amino acids (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid
(C) Neutral amino acids (C) Protein (D) Minerals
(D) Sulphur containing amino acids 594. The amino acids abstracted from the liver
585. The neutral amino acids for absorption are not utilized for repair or special
need synthesis but are broken down to
(A) TPP (B) B6 PO4 (A) Keto acids (B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ (C) Water (D) Ammonia
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 61

595. The unwanted amino acids abstracted 603. The transaminase activity needs the
from the tissues are either used up by the coenzyme:
tissue or in the liver converted into (A) ATP (B) B6 PO4
(A) Ammonia (B) Urea (C) FAD+ (D) NAD+
(C) Ammonium salts (D) Uric acid
604. Transamination is a
596. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the (A) Irreversible process(B) Reversible process
synthesis of
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) The bases of the phospholipids
605. Most amino acids are substrates for
(B) Uric acid
transamination except
(C) Glycolipids
(A) Alanine (B) Threonine
(D) Chondroitin sulphates
(C) Serine (D) Valine
597. The metabolism of all proteins ingested
over and above the essential require- 606 Oxidative conversion of many amino
ments is called acids to their corresponding -ketoacids
occurs in mammalian:
(A) Exogenous metabolism
(A) Liver and kidney (B) Adipose tissue
(B) Endogenous metabolism
(C) Pancreas (D) Intestine
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these 607. The -ketoacid is decarboxylated by H2O2
forming a carboxylic acid with one carbon
598. Sulphur containing amino acids after
atom less in the absence of the enzyme:
catabolism produces a substance which
is excreted: (A) Catalase (B) Decarboxylase
(C) Deaminase (D) Phosphatase
(A) SO2 (B) HNO3
(C) H2SO4 (D) H3 PO4 608. The activity of mammalian L-amino acid
oxidase, an FMN flavo protein, is quite
599. Ethereal sulphate is synthesized from the
_________ amino acid. (A) Slow (B) Rapid
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Neutral (B) Acidic
(C) Basic (D) Sulphur containing 609. From dietary protein as well as from the
urea present in fluids secreted into the
600. The amino acids required for creatine
gastrointestinal tract intestinal bacteria
formation:
produce
(A) Glycine (B) Arginine
(A) Carbondioxide
(C) Methionine (D) All of these
(B) Ammonia
601. In human and other ureotelic organisms, (C) Ammonium sulphate
the end product of amino acid nitrogen (D) Creatine
metabolism:
610. The symptom of ammonia intoxication
(A) Bile acids (B) Ketone bodies
includes
(C) Urea (D) Barium sulphate
(A) Blurring of vision (B) Constipation
602. The end product of amino acid nitrogen (C) Mental confusion (D) Diarrhoea
metabolism in uricotelic organisms
(reptiles and birds) is 611. Ammonia intoxication symptoms occur
when brain ammonia levels are
(A) Bilirubin (B) Urea
(C) Uric acid (D) Biliverdin (A) Slightly diminished (B) Highly diminished
(C) Increased (D) All of these
62 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

612. Ammonia production by the kidney is 621. In severe acidosis, the output of urea is
depressed in (A) Decreased (B) Slightly increased
(A) Acidosis (B) Alkalosis (C) Highly increased (D) Moderately increased
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
622. Uremia occurs in
613. Ammonia is excreted as ammonium salts (A) Cirrhosis of the liver(B) Nephritis
during metabolic acidosis but the majority
(C) Diabetes mellitus (D) Coronary thrombosis
is excreted as
(A) Phosphates (B) Creatine 623. Clinical symptom in urea cycle disorder is
(C) Uric acid (D) Urea (A) Mental retardation (B) Drowsiness
(C) Diarrhoea (D) Oedema
614. Synthesis of glutamine is accompanied
by the hydrolysis of 624. The sparing action of methionine is
(A) ATP (B) ADP (A) Tyrosine (B) Cystine
(C) TPP (D) Creatin phosphate (C) Arginine (D) Tryptophan
615. In brain, the major metabolism for 625. NH + 4 aminates glutamate to form
removal of ammonia is the formation of glutamine requiring ATP and
(A) Glutamate (B) Aspartate (A) K + (B) Na +
(C) Asparagine (D) Glutamine (C) Ca++ (D) Mg ++
616. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase struc- 626. Glutathione is a
ture is marked by change in the presence
(A) Dipeptide (B) Tripeptide
of
(C) Polypeptide (D) None of these
(A) N-Acetyl glutamate
(B) N-Acetyl Aspartate 627. All following are conjugated proteins
except
(C) Neuraminic acid
(D) Oxalate (A) Nucleoproteins (B) Proteoses
(C) Metalloproteins (D) Flavoproteins
617. The biosynthesis of Urea occurs mainly in
the Liver: 628. All -amino acids have one asymmetric
carbon atom except
(A) Cytosol
(B) Microsomes (A) Arginine (B) Glycine
(C) Nucleus (C) Aspartic acid (D) Histidine
(D) Mitochondria 629. Number of amino acids present in plants,
animals and microbial proteins:
618. One mol. of Urea is synthesized at the
expense of the _______ mols. of ATP. (A) 20 (B) 80
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 150 (D) 200
(C) 4 (D) 5 630. Hydrated density of (HD) lipoproteins is
619. Urea biosynthesis occurs mainly in the (A) 0.94 gm/ml
liver involving the number of amino acids: (B) 0.94-1.006 gm/ml
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1.006-1.063 gm/ml
(C) 5 (D) 6 (D) 1.063-1.21 gm/l

620. The normal daily output of Urea through 631. The bond in proteins that is not broken
urine in grams: under usual conditions of denaturation:
(A) 10 to 20 (B) 15 to 25 (A) Hydrophobic bond (B) Hydrogen bond
(C) 20 to 30 (D) 25 to 35 (C) Disulphide bond (D) Peptide bonds
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 63

632. Plasma proteins act as 642. Abnormal chain of amino acids in sickle
(A) Buffers (B) Immunoglobulins cell anaemia is
(C) Reserve proteins (D) All of these (A) Alpha chain (B) Beta chain
(C) Delta chain (D) Gama chain
633. Group that reacts in the Biuret test:
(A) Peptide (B) Amino group 643. Number of chains in globin part of normal
Hb:
(C) Carboxylic group (D) Aldehyde group
(A) 1 (B) 2
634. In nitroprusside test, amino acid cysteine (C) 3 (D) 4
produces a:
644. The PH of albumin is
(A) Red colour (B) Blue colour
(A) 3.6 (B) 4.7
(C) Yellow colour (D) Purple colour
(C) 5.0 (D) 6.1
635. Protein present in hemoglobin has the
645. Ninhydrin reaction gives a purple colour
structure known as
and evolves CO2 with
(A) Primary (B) Secondary
(A) Peptide bonds (B) Histamine
(C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary (C) Ergothioneine (D) Aspargine
636. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH 646. Denaturation of proteins involves
at which it has a breakdown of
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge (A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary structure
(C) Nil net charge (D) None of these (C) Quarternary structure(D) All of these
637. Albuminoids are similar to 647. In denaturation of proteins, the bond
(A) Albumin (B) Globulin which is not broken:
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (A) Disulphide bond (B) Peptide bond
(C) Hydrogen bond (D) Ionic bond
638. Optical isomers of all aminoacids exist
except 648. The purity of an isolated protein can be
tested by employing various methods.
(A) Glycine (B) Arginine
(A) Solubility curve
(C) Alanine (D) Hydroxy proline
(B) Molecular weight
639. Proteins that constitute keratin, collagen (C) Ultra Centrifugation
and elastin in body are (D) Immuno Ractivity
(A) Protamines (B) Phosphol proteins (E) All of these
(C) Scleroproteins (D) Metaproteins 649. More than one break in the line or in sat-
640. Systematic name of lysine is uration curve indicates the following
quality of protein.
(A) Amino acetic acid
(A) Non homogenity (B) Purity
(B) 2,6 diaminohexanoic acid
(C) Homogeneity (D) None of these
(C) Aminosuccinic acid
(D) 2-Aminopropanoic acid 650. A sharp moving boundary is obtained
between the pure solvent and solute
641. Side chains of all following amino acids containing layer in
contain aromatic rings except (A) Chromatography
(A) Phenyl alanine (B) Alanine (B) Immuno Reactivity
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (C) Ultra Centrifugation
(D) Solubility curve
64 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

651. The antibodies raised against a pure 658. The sorting out of molecules according to
protein will show only one sharp spike on size and shape may be adapted to protein
this technique: purification in this technique:
(A) Solubility curve (A) Adsorption chromatography
(B) Solvent precipitation (B) Gel filtration chromatography
(C) Molecular weight determination (C) Paper chromatography
(D) Immuno electrophoresis (D) None of these

652. This technique takes the advantage of the 659. Frequently employed materials for the
fact that each protein has different pH at adsorption chromatography of proteins
which it is electrically neutral i.e., its include
isoelectric pH: (A) High capacity supporting gel
(A) Isoelectric focussing (B) Starch blocks
(B) Immunoel Ectro Phoresis (C) Calcium phosphate gel alumina gel and
hydroxy apatite
(C) Chromatography
(D) All of these
(D) HPLC
660. The solubility of most proteins is lowered
653. The following technique makes use of the at high salt concentrations is called as
difference in net charges of proteins at a
given pH: (A) Salting in process (B) Salting out process
(C) Isoelectric focussing(D) None of these
(A) Thin layer chromatography
(B) Ion exchange chromatography 661. Phenylalanine, ornithine and methionine
are involved in the biogenesis of
(C) High performance liquid chromatography
(D) Paper chromatography (A) Lysergic acid (B) Reserpine
(C) L-Hyoscyamine (D) Papaverine
654. The ratio of the distance moved by a
compound to the distance moved by the 662. All the following diuretics inhibit the
solvent frent is known as its carbonic anhydrase except
(A) PI value (B) Linking number (A) Acetazolamide (B) Bumetanide
(C) Rf value (D) Gold number (C) Furosemide (D) Ethacrynic acid

655. The movement of charged particles 663. Protein is a polymer of


towards one of the electrodes under the (A) Sugars (B) Phenols
influence of electrical current is (C) Amino acids (D) Carboxylic acids
(A) Gel filtration 664. All the following amino acids are optically
(B) Molecular sieving active except
(C) Gas liquid chromatography (A) Tryptophane (B) Phenylalanine
(D) Electrophoresis (C) Valine (D) Glycine
656. An anion exchange resin linked to 665. Proteinous substances which catalyze
cellulose backbone is biochemical reactions are known as
(A) DEAE cellulose (B) CM cellulose (A) Activators (B) Catalysts
(C) Sephadex (D) None of these (C) Enzymes (D) Hormones
657. A cation exchange resin linked to cellulose 666. Insulin is a protein which controls
backbone is (A) Blood clotting (B) Metabolic pathway
(A) CM-cellulose (B) DEAE cellulose (C) Digestion (D) Krebs cycle
(C) Starch (D) Biogel
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 65

667. Proteins which are responsible for defence 677. Protein deficiency disease is known as
mechanism are called (A) Cushings disease
(A) Antimetabolites (B) Antibodies (B) Fabrys disease
(C) Antimycins (D) Apoproteins (C) Parkinsons disease
668. When the net charge on an amino acid is (D) Kwashiorkor and marasmus
zero, the pH is maintained as?
678. A vegetable source of protein is
(A) 4.5 (B) 11.2
(A) Egg plant
(C) 7.0 (D) 9.1
(B) Soyabean
669. Isoelectric point of amino acids is used for (C) Tree of the Heaven
(A) Crystallisation (B) Precipitation (D) Devils dung
(C) Solubility (D) Reactivity 679. Oxaloacetate is converted to aspartic acid
670. Xanthoproteic test is positive in proteins by
containing (A) Reductase (B) Oxidase
(A) Sulphur amino acids (C) Transminase (D) Catalase
(B) -Amino acids 680. Deficiency of biotin results in decrease in
(C) Aromatic amino acids
(A) Amino acid synthesis
(D) Aliphatic amino acids
(B) Lipid synthesis
671. All -amino acids give positive (C) Kidney
(A) Millions test (B) Biurete test (D) Fatty acid synthesis
(C) Xanthproteic test (D) Ninhydrine test 681. The precursor of bile salts, sex hormones
672. N-terminal amino acids of a polypeptide and vitamin D is
are estimated by (A) Diosgenin (B) Cholesterol
(A) Edmann reaction (B) Sangers reagent (C) Campesterol (D) Ergosterol
(C) Formaldehyde test (D) Ninhydrine reaction 682 Unsaturated fatty acids is known as
673. Millions test is positive for (A) Non-essential fatty acids
(A) Phenylalanine (B) Glycine (B) Essential fatty acids
(C) Tyrosine (D) Proline (C) Cerebrosides
(D) Phospholipids
674. Indole group of tryptophan responses
positively to 683 Biuret test is specific for
(A) Glyoxylic acid (B) Schiffs reagent (A) Two peptide linkage
(C) Biuret test (D) Resorcinol test (B) Phenolic group
675. Guanidine group of argentine gives (C) Imidazole ring
positive test with (D) None of these
(A) Lead acetate 684. Most of calcium is present in bone, but 2%
(B) Sakaguchi reagent present in soft tissue and the blood is
(C) Tricholoroacetic acid called
(D) Molischs reagent (A) Calcinated blood (B) Solidified blood
676. Thiol group of cysteine gives red colour (C) Physiological blood(D) Colloidal blood
with 685. Calcium present with protein is known as
(A) Sodium acetate free while in salt form is called as
(B) Lead acetate (A) Bound (B) Precipitated
(C) Sodium nitroprusside (C) Solid (D) Polymorphs
(D) Barfoeds reagent
66 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

686. The following ions help in enzymatic 695. Platelets contain an enzyme which has
transfer of phosphate from ATP to pyruvic important role in clotting in blood. This
acid: enzyme is known as
(A) Sodium (B) Calcium (A) Cholinesterase (B) Transaminase
(C) Magnesium (D) Potassium (C) Decarboxylase (D) Thrombokinase
687. International enzyme commission classi- 696. Treatment of pentoses with a concentrated
fies enzymes into mineral acid yields a cyclic aldehyde
(A) Three classes (B) Six classes known as
(C) Four classess (D) Ten classes (A) Pentaldehyde (B) Cyclopental
688. Michaelis Menten equation is used to (C) Hexaldehyde (D) Furfural
explain the effect of substrate concentra-
tion on 697. Isoelectric pH is that pH at which protein
is electrically:
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Enzyme
(C) Lipid (D) Protein (A) Neutral (B) Anionic
(C) Cationic (D) None of these
689. The pH at which an enzyme has maximum
activity is known as 698. About 6.25 g of haemoglobin is produced
(A) Isoelectric pH (B) Optimum pH and destroyed in the body each day and the
total amount of haemoglobin in a normal
(C) Low pH (D) High pH
healthy 70 kg weighing male adult is
690. Degradation of proteins to amino acids, (A) 250 g (B) 150 g
glucose from carbohydrates and fatty
(C) 100 g (D) 70 g
acids from lipids is known as
(A) Anabolism (B) Metabolism 699. Pancreatic juice contains all of the
(C) Catabolism (D) Cretinism following except

691. During glycolysis of glucose the energy (A) Trypsinogen (B) Lipase
liberated in the absence of oxygen is (C) Cholecystokinin (D) Chymnotrypsinogen
known as
700. The milk protein in the stomach in an adult
(A) Oxygenesis is digested by
(B) Glyconeogenesis
(A) Pepsin (B) Rennin
(C) Glycogenolysis
(C) HCl (D) Chymotrypsinogen
(D) Anaerobic fermentation
701. Carboxypeptidase, an enzyme of
692. Deficiency of urea cycle enzymes results pancreatic juice, contains
into accumulation of citrulline argininosuc-
cinate arginine in the liver resulting in in- (A) Mn (B) Zinc
creasing concentration of .. in the blood. (C) Magnesium (D) Manganese
(A) Calcium (B) Sodium 702. The zymogen from trypsinogen of
(C) Ammonia (D) Lipid pancreatic juice is converted to active
693. Accumulation of trytophan in blood is trypsin by
known as (A) Peisin (B) Enterocrinin
(A) Pompes disease (B) Wilsons disease (C) Enterokinase (D) Rennin
(C) Wolmans disease (D) Hartnups disease
703. Inactive zymogens are precursors of all
694. Lymphocytes are responsible for the for- the following gastrointestinal enzymes
mation of except
(A) Serum (B) Plasma (A) Carboxypeptidase (B) Pepsin
(C) Antibody (D) Calcium (C) Amino peptidase (D) Chymotrypsin
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 67

704. Rennin acts on casein of milk in infants in 713. The milk protein in the stomach of the
presence of infants is digested by
(A) Mg ++ (B) Zn ++ (A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin
(C) Co++ (D) Ca++ (C) Chymotrypsin (D) Rennin
705. All the following are true about phenyl- 714. Protein anabolism is stimulated by
ketonuria except
(A) ACTH (B) Testosterone
(A) Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (C) Glucagon (D) Epinephrine
(B) Mental retardation
715. The number of helices present in a collagen
(C) Increased urinary excretion of p-hydroxy-
molecule is
phenyl pyruvic acid
(D) Decrease serotonin formation (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
706. Which of the amino acid produces a
vasodilator on decarboxylation? 716. Which bond is present in the primary
(A) Glutamin acid (B) Histidine structure of protein?
(C) Ornithine (D) Cysteine (A) Ester (B) Hydrogen
(C) Ionic bond (D) Peptide
707. Neutral amino acid is
(A) Leucine (B) Lysine 717. Sakaguchi reaction is specific for
(C) Aspartic acid (D) Histidine (A) Guanidine group (B) Phenolic group
(C) Carboxylic group (D) None of these
708. The amino acid containing hydroxy group:
(A) Glycine (B) Isoleucine 718. With the exception of glycine all amino
(C) Arginine (D) Thereonine acids found in protein are
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
709. The amino acid which synthesizes many
hormornes: (B) Fumarase
(C) Succinate thiokinase
(A) Valine (B) Phenylalanine
(D) ATPase
(C) Alanine (D) Histidine
719 In protein structure the -helix and -
710. Insulin degradation of disulfide bond
pleated sheets are example of
formation is effected by
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(B) Xylitol reductase (C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
(C) Gutathione reductase 720. An essential amino acid in man is
(D) Xanthine oxidase (A) Proline (B) Threonine
711. A protein reacts with biuret reagent which (C) Asparagine (D) Tyrosine
indicates 2 or more
721. An amino acid that does not form an -
(A) Blood clotting (B) Peptide bond helix is
(C) Disulphide bonds (D) Hydrophobic bonds (A) Asparagine (B) Tyrosine
712. In many proteins the hydrogen bonding (C) Tryptophan (D) Proline
produces a regular coiled arrangement
722. The protein present in hair is
which is called as
(A) Elastin (B) Prolamine
(A) -Helix (B) -Helix
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Spiral (C) Keratin (D) Gliadin
68 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

723. Plasma protein can be separated by (A) TPP (B) Mg ++


(A) Salting out with (NH4)2SO4 (C) Biotin (D) CoA-SH
(B) Ultracentrifugation 727. A polymeric unit of starch which has a
(C) Immuno electrophoresis branched structure is
(D) All of these (A) Glucose (B) Amylopectin
724. RNA does not contain (C) Isomaltose (D) Amylose

(A) Uracil 728 The repeating unit in hyaluronic acid is


(B) Adenine (A) Glucuronic acid and Galactosamine
(C) Hydroxy methyl cytosine (B) Glucuronic acid are glucosamine
(D) Phosphate (C) Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine
725. In mammalian cells, ribosomal RNA is (D) Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl galactosamine
produced mainly in the
729 The repeating disaccharide unit in
(A) Nucleus celluslose is
(B) Nucleolus (A) Sucrose (B) Maltose
(C) Ribosome
(C) Dextrose (D) Cellobiose
(D) Golgi apparatus
726. Which co-enzyme is not involved in
oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic
acid?
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 69

ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A
7. A 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. C
19. B 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. B 24. D
25. A 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. A
37. B 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. B 42. A
43. B 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. B
49. D 50. A 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. A
55. B 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. A
61. B 62. A 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. C
67. A 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. C 72. B
73. A 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. D 78. D
79. A 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. C 84. D
85. C 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. A
91. A 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. A 96. A
97. A 98. D 99. A 100. A 101. D 102. D
103. D 104. D 105. A 106. A 107. A 108. C
109. D 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. B
115. D 116. C 117. A 118. A 119. D 120. C
121. B 122. B 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. A
127. B 128. C 129. A 130. A 131. B 132. C
133. A 134. A 135. A 136. A 137. C 138. A
139. A 140. D 141. C 142. A 143. C 144. B
145. A 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. D 150. A
151. A 152. B 153. C 154. C 155. B 156. C
157. D 158. D 159. C 160. C 161. B 162. D
163. A 164. D 165. C 166. B 167. D 168. D
169. C 170. C 171. D 172. B 173. A 174. D
175. D 176. C 177. B 178. B 179. A 180. A
181. C 182. C 183. B 184. C 185. B 186. C
187. D 188. A 189. B 190. D 191. C 192. C
193. B 194. C 195. D 196. B 197. D 198. C
199. B 200. B 201. C 202. D 203. C 204. C
205. D 206. C 207. D 208. B 209. A 210. D
211. C 212. A 213. C 214. A 215. C 216. D
217. B 218. D 219. B 220. B 221. C 222. D
223. C 224. C 225. C 226. D 227. C 228. D
229. C 230. A 231. C 232. D 233. D 234. D
235. C 236. B 237. A 238. D 239. B 240. D
241. B 242. B 243. C 244. A 245. B 246. A
247. C 248. D 249. B 250. C 251. C 252. A
70 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

253. D 254. D 255. D 256. B 257. D 258. B


259. D 260. D 261. D 262. D 263. D 264. B
265. A 266. B 267. B 268. D 269. B 270. D
271. C 272. B 273. C 274. C 275. D 276. B
277. B 278. D 279. C 280. D 281. A 282. D
283. B 284. C 285. A 286. D 287. B 288. B
289. D 290. B 291. D 292. C 293. D 294. D
295. B 296. C 297. B 298. C 299. B 300. C
301. A 302. B 303. B 304. C 305. B 306. B
307. A 308. A 309. C 310. D 311. B 312. D
313. D 314. C 315. B 316. D 317. B 318. B
319. D 320. B 321. A 322. B 323. D 324. A
325. B 326. B 327. A 328. C 329. B 330. D
331. C 332. D 333. C 334. B 335. C 336. B
337. C 338. A 339. A 340. C 341. D 342. B
343. A 344. B 345. C 346. B 347. B 348.B
349. B 350. B 351. C 352. C 353. B 354. C
355. D 356. D 357. C 358. B 359. D 360. D
361. B 362. B 363. D 364. B 365. D 366. D
367. A 368. C 369. A 370. A 371. D 372. B
373. B 374. D 375. A 376. B 377. A 378. B
379. D 380. B 381. D 382. D 383. D 384. D
385. C 386. A 387. A 388. B 389. C 390. D
391. D 392. D 393. D 394. D 395. C 396. B
397. D 398. B 399. B 400. A 401. B 402. A
403. B 404. C 405. D 406. D 407. B 408. B
409. B 410. D 411. B 412. B 413. C 414. C
415. D 416. C 417. B 418. C 419. A 420. D
421. D 422. A 423. C 424. D 425. D 426. C
427. D 428. D 429. A 430. B 431. D 432. A
433. B 434. A 435. A 436. A 437. B 438. B
439. C 440. D 441. C 442. C 443. B 444. D
445. C 446. B 447. D 448. C 449. C 450. C
451. C 452. D 453. A 454. A 455. B 456. C
457. D 458. C 459. A 460. C 461. B 462. A
463. A 464. C 465. C 466. D 467. B 468. A
469. A 470. D 471. C 472. B 473. A 474. B
475. B 476. D 477. C 478. C 479. B 480. D
481. C 482. B 483. C 484. B 485. B 486. C
487. C 488. D 489. B 490. B 491. C 492. C
493. B 494. A 495. B 496. B 497. A 498. C
499. D 500. D 501. C 502. C 503. C 504. C
505. B 506. A 507. D 508. B 509. A 510. C
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 71

511. B 512. D 513. D 514. A 515. A 516. C


517. A 518. D 519. A 520. D 521. A 522. D
523. C 524. B 525. D 526. A 527. B 528. A
529. A 530. B 531. D 532. D 533. B 534. A
535. B 536. A 537. B 538. D 539. C 540. A
541. C 542. C 543. A 544. D 545. D 546. B
547. D 548. A 549. A 550. B 551. D 552. B
553. A 554. B 555. A 556. C 557. B 558. D
559. A 560. A 561. A 562. A 563. D 564. D
565. C 566. A 567. A 568. A 569. A 570. B
571. A 572. A 573. B 574. C 575. C 576. D
577. D 578. B 579. B 580. A 581. B 582. C
583. C 584. C 585. B 586. D 587. D 588. B
589. A 590. C 591. B 592. A 593. C 594. D
595. B 596. A 597. A 598. C 599. D 600. D
601. C 602. C 603. B 604. B 605. B 606. A
607. A 608. A 609. B 610. A 611. C 612. B
613. D 614. A 615. D 616. A 617. D 618. B
619. D 620. C 621. A 622. B 623. A 624. B
625. D 626. B 627. B 628. B 629. D 630. B
631. D 632. D 633. A 634. A 635. D 636. C
637. A 638. A 639. C 640. B 641. B 642. B
643. D 644. B 645. D 646. D 647. B 648. C
649. A 650.C 651. D 652. A 653. B 654. C
655. D 656. A 657. A 658. B 659. C 660. B
661. A 662. D 663. C 664. D 665. C 666. B
667. B 668. C 669. B 670. C 671. D 672. A
673. C 674. A 675. B 676. C 677. D 678. B
679. C 680. D 681. B 682. B 683. A 684. C
685. A 686. D 687. B 688. B 689. B 690. C
691. D 692. C 693. D 694. C 695. D 696. D
697. A 698. D 699. C 700. A 701. B 702. C
703. C 704. D 705. C 706. B 707. A 708. D
709. B 710. C 711. B 712. B 713. D 714. B
715. C 716. D 717. A 718. B 719. B 720. B
721. D 722. C 723. D 724. C 725. B 726. C
727. B 728. C 729. D
72 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS


12. A Albumin (mol. Wt. 69,000) is the major or an increase in globulins (chronic infections).
constituent of plasma proteins with a
421. D By salting out technique (using ammonium
concentration 3.55.0 g/dl. It is exclusively
sulfate or sodium sulfate), the plasma proteins
synthesized by the liver. Plasma albumin
can be separated into 3 groups albumin,
performs osmotic, transport and nutritive
globulins and fibrinogen. Electrophoresis is the
function, besides the buffering action.
most commonly employed analytical technique
67. A Ceruloplasmin is a blue coloured, copper for the separation of plasma (serum) proteins.
containing 2globulin. Its normal plasma Paper or agar gel electrophoresis with veronal
concentration is around 30 mg/dl and it is buffer (pH 8.6) separates plasma proteins into
decreased in Wilsons disease. 5 distinct bands namely albumin, 1 - 2, -and
-globulins.
103. D Defects in clotting factors cause abnormalities in
blood clotting. Hemophilia A (defect- 488. D Complement system is composed of about 20
antihemophilic factor i.e., VII), hemophilia B or plasma proteins that complement the functions
Christmas disease (defect-Christmas factor, i.e., of antibodies in defending the body from
IX) are the major abnormalities known. invading antigens. The complement system helps
the body immunity by promoting phagocytosis,
151. A Lysine, arginine, histidine. These are dibasic
formation of antigen-antibody complexes and
monocarboxylic acids.
inflammatory reaction.
212. A The amino acids which are never found in
507. D Apolipoproteins or apoproteins are the
protein structure are collectively referred to as
non-protein amino acids. However, the non- (structural) protein components of lipoproteins
protein amino acids perform several biological and are closely involved in the metabolism of
functions. e.g., ornithine, citrulline, thyroxine. the later, e.g., AI, AIII, B100, C1, CII

268. D Amino acids are divided into 3 groups based 555. A The removal of amino group from the amino
on their metabolic fats. acids as ammonia is deamination. It may be
oxidative or non-oxidative in nature. The NH3
(a) Glycogenic: These amino acids can serve as so liberated is used for synthesis or urea.
precursors for the synthesis of glucose (or
glycogen) e.g., alanine, aspartate, glycine. 600. D The three amino acids glycine, arginine and
methionine are required for creatine formation.
(b) Ketogenic: Fat can be synthesized from these Glycine combines
amino acids e.g., leucine, lysine.
683. A Biuret test is answered by compounds containing
(c) Glycogenic or ketogenic: The amino acids that two or more CO NH groups i.e., peptide
can form glucose as well as fat e.g., isoleucine, bonds. All protein and peptides possessing at
phenylalanine, lysine. least two peptide linkages i.e., tripeptide (with
300. C Zwitterion (dipolar ion) is a hybrid molecule 3 amino acids) give positive biuret test. The
containing positive and negative ionic groups. principle of biuret test is conveniently used to
Each amino acid has a characteristic pH (e.g., detect the presence of proteins in biological
leucine pH 6.0), at which it exists as zwitterions. fluids. The mechanism of biuret test is not clearly
known. It is believed that the colour is due to
350. B Albumin/Globulin (A/G) ratio expresses their
relation in the serum concentration. The normal the formation of a copper co-ordianated
A/G ratio is 1.2 to 1.5:1, taking the complex.
concentration of albumin and globulins 717. A Arginine, containing guanidine group, reacts
respectively in the range of 3.5-5.0 g/dl and with -naphthol and alkaline hypobromite to
2.53.5 g/dl. The A/G ratio is lowered either form a red colour complex.
due to a decrease in albumin 9liver disease)
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 73

CHAPTER 4

FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM


ETABOLISM

1. An example of a hydroxy fatty acid is 8. In humans, a dietary essential fatty acid


(A) Ricinoleic acid (B) Crotonic acid is
(C) Butyric acid (D) Oleic acid (A) Palmitic acid (B) Stearic acid
(C) Oleic acid (D) Linoleic acid
2. An example of a saturated fatty acid is
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic acid 9. A lipid containing alcoholic amine residue
is
(C) Linoleic acid (D) Erucic acid
(A) Phosphatidic acid (B) Ganglioside
3. If the fatty acid is esterified with an
(C) Glucocerebroside (D) Sphingomyelin
alcohol of high molecular weight instead
of glycerol, the resulting compound is 10. Cephalin consists of
(A) Lipositol (B) Plasmalogen (A) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and
(C) Wax (D) Cephalin choline
(B) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and
4. A fatty acid which is not synthesized in
the body and has to be supplied in the ethanolamine
diet is (C) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and
inositol
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Lauric acid
(D) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and
(C) Linolenic acid (D) Palmitoleic acid
serine
5. Essential fatty acid:
11. In mammals, the major fat in adipose
(A) Linoleic acid (B) Linolenic acid tissues is
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) All these
(A) Phospholipid (B) Cholesterol
6. The fatty acid present in cerebrosides is (C) Sphingolipids (D) Triacylglycerol
(A) Lignoceric acid (B) Valeric acid 12. Glycosphingolipids are a combination of
(C) Caprylic acid (D) Behenic acid
(A) Ceramide with one or more sugar residues
7. The number of double bonds in arachi- (B) Glycerol with galactose
donic acid is (C) Sphingosine with galactose
(A) 1 (B) 2 (D) Sphingosine with phosphoric acid
(C) 4 (D) 6
74 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

13. The importance of phospholipids as 22. Gangliosides derived from glucosyl-


constituent of cell membrane is because ceramide contain in addition one or more
they possess molecules of
(A) Fatty acids (A) Sialic acid (B) Glycerol
(B) Both polar and nonpolar groups (C) Diacylglycerol (D) Hyaluronic acid
(C) Glycerol 23. Drying oil, oxidized spontaneously by
(D) Phosphoric acid atmospheric oxygen at ordinary
temperature and forms a hard water
14. In neutral fats, the unsaponificable matter
proof material is
includes
(A) Coconut oil (B) Peanut oil
(A) Hydrocarbons (B) Triacylglycerol
(C) Rape seed oil (D) Linseed oil
(C) Phospholipids (D) Cholsesterol
24. Deterioration of food (rancidity) is due to
15. Higher alcohol present in waxes is
presence of
(A) Benzyl (B) Methyl (A) Cholesterol
(C) Ethyl (D) Cetyl (B) Vitamin E
16. Kerasin consists of (C) Peroxidation of lipids
(A) Nervonic acid (B) Lignoceric acid (D) Phenolic compounds
(C) Cervonic acid (D) Clupanodonic acid 25. The number of ml of N/10 KOH required
to neutralize the fatty acids in the
17. Gangliosides are complex glycosphin-
distillate from 5 gm of fat is called
golipids found in
(A) Reichert-Meissel number
(A) Liver (B) Brain
(B) Polenske number
(C) Kidney (D) Muscle
(C) Acetyl number
18. Unsaturated fatty acid found in the cod (D) Non volatile fatty acid number
liver oil and containing 5 double bonds is
26. Molecular formula of cholesterol is
(A) Clupanodonic acid
(A) C27H45OH
(B) Cervonic acid
(B) C29H47OH
(C) Elaidic acid
(C) C29H47OH
(D) Timnodonic acid
(D) C23H41OH
19. Phospholipid acting as surfactant is
27. The cholesterol molecule is
(A) Cephalin (B) Phosphatidyl inositol
(A) Benzene derivative
(C) Lecithin (D) Phosphatidyl serine
(B) Quinoline derivative
20. An oil which contains cyclic fatty acids and (C) Steroid
once used in the treatment of leprosy is (D) Straight chain acid
(A) Elaidic oil (B) Rapeseed oil
28. Salkowski test is performed to detect
(C) Lanoline (D) Chaulmoogric oil
(A) Glycerol (B) Cholesterol
21. Unpleasant odours and taste in a fat (C) Fatty acids (D) Vitamin D
(rancidity) can be delayed or prevented
by the addition of 29. Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid ester of
cholesterol used in manufacture of
(A) Lead (B) Copper cosmetic creams is
(C) Tocopherol (D) Ergosterol
(A) Elaidic oil (B) Lanoline
(C) Spermaceti (D) Chaulmoogric oil
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 75

30. Dietary fats after absorption appear in 38. An important finding of Fabrys disease
the circulation as is
(A) HDL (B) VLDL (A) Skin rash (B) Exophthalmos
(C) LDL (D) Chylomicron (C) Hemolytic anemia (D) Mental retardation

31. Free fatty acids are transported in the 39. Gauchers disease is due to deficiency of
blood the enzyme:
(A) Combined with albumin (A) Sphingomyelinase
(B) Combined with fatty acid binding protein (B) Glucocerebrosidase
(C) Galactocerbrosidase
(C) Combined with -lipoprotein
(D) -Galactosidase
(D) In unbound free salts
40. Characteristic finding in Gauchers
32. Long chain fatty acids are first activated disease is
to acetyl-CoA in
(A) Night blindness
(A) Cytosol (B) Microsomes
(B) Renal failure
(C) Nucleus (D) Mitochondria
(C) Hepatosplenomegaly
33. The enzyme acyl-CoA synthase catalyses (D) Deafness
the conversion of a fatty acid of an active
41. An important finding in Neimann-Pick
fatty acid in the presence of
disease is
(A) AMP (B) ADP
(A) Leukopenia
(C) ATP (D) GTP
(B) Cardiac enlargement
34. Carnitine is synthesized from (C) Corneal opacity
(A) Lysine and methionine (D) Hepatosplenomegaly
(B) Glycine and arginine
42. Fucosidosis is characterized by
(C) Aspartate and glutamate
(A) Muscle spasticity (B) Liver enlargement
(D) Proline and hydroxyproline
(C) Skin rash (D) Kidney failure
35. The enzymes of -oxidation are found in
43. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is due to
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol deficiency of enzyme:
(C) Golgi apparatus (D) Nucleus (A) -Fucosidase (B) Arylsulphatase A
36. Long chain fatty acids penetrate the inner (C) Ceramidase (D) Hexosaminidase A
mitochondrial membrane
44. A significant feature of Tangier disease is
(A) Freely
(A) Impairment of chylomicron formation
(B) As acyl-CoA derivative
(B) Hypotriacylglycerolmia
(C) As carnitine derivative
(C) Absence of Apo-C-II
(D) Requiring Na dependent carrier
(D) Absence of Apo-C-I
37. An important feature of Zellwegers
45. A significant feature of Broad Beta disease
syndrome is
is
(A) Hypoglycemia
(A) Hypocholesterolemia
(B) Accumulation of phytanic acid in tissues
(B) Hypotriacylglycerolemia
(C) Skin eruptions (C) Absence of Apo-D
(D) Accumulation of C26-C38 polyenoic acid in (D) Abnormality of Apo-E
brain tissues
76 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

46. Neonatal tyrosinemia improves on admi- 54. Increased urinary indole acetic acid is
nistration of diagnostic of
(A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin (A) Maple syrup urine disease
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Ascorbic acid (B) Hartnup disease
47. Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase (C) Homocystinuia
causes (D) Phenylketonuria
(A) Neonatal tyrosinemia 55. In glycinuria daily urinary excretion of
(B) Phenylketonuria glycine ranges from
(C) Primary hyperoxaluria (A) 100200 mg (B) 300500 mg
(D) Albinism (C) 6001000 mg (D) 11001400 mg
48. Richner-Hanhart syndrome is due to 56. An inborn error, maple syrup urine
defect in disease is due to deficiency of the enzyme:
(A) Tyrosinase (A) Isovaleryl-CoAhydrogenase
(B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (B) Phenylalnine hydroxylase
(C) Hepatic tyrosine transaminase (C) Adenosyl transferase
(D) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (D) -Ketoacid decarboxylase
49. Plasma tyrosine level in Richner-Hanhart 57. Maple syrup urine disease becomes
syndrome is evident in extra uterine life by the end of
(A) 12 mg/dL (B) 23 mg/dL (A) First week (B) Second week
(C) 45 mg/dL (D) 810 mg/dL (C) Third week (D) Fourth week
50. Amount of phenylacetic acid excreted in 58. Alkaptonuria occurs due to deficiency of
the urine in phenylketonuria is the enzyme:
(A) 100200 mg/dL (B) 200280 mg/dL (A) Maleylacetoacetate isomerase
(C) 290550 mg/dL (D) 600750 mg/dL (B) Homogentisate oxidase
51. Tyrosinosis is due to defect in the enzyme: (C) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase
(A) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (D) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
(B) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase 59. An important feature of maple syrup
(C) Tyrosine transaminase urine disease is
(D) Tyrosine hydroxylase (A) Patient can not be treated by dietary
52. An important finding in Histidinemia is regulation
(B) Without treatment death, of patient may occur
(A) Impairment of conversion of -Glutamate to
by the end of second year of life
-ketoglutarate
(C) Blood levels of leucine, isoleucine and serine
(B) Speech defect
are increased
(C) Decreased urinary histidine level
(D) Excessive brain damage
(D) Patients can not be treated by diet
60. Ochronosis is an important finding of
53. An important finding in glycinuria is
(A) Tyrosinemia
(A) Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine
(B) Tyrosinosis
(B) Deficiency of enzyme glycinase
(C) Alkaptonuria
(C) Significantly increased serum glycine level
(D) Richner Hanhart syndrome
(D) Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 77

61. Phrynoderma is a deficiency of 71. The deficiency of both energy and protein
(A) Essential fatty acids(B) Proteins causes
(C) Amino acids (D) None of these (A) Marasmus (B) Kwashiorkar
(C) Diabetes (D) Beri-beri
62. The percentage of linoleic acid in safflow-
er oil is 72. Kwashiorkar is characterized by
(A) 73 (B) 57 (A) Night blindness (B) Edema
(C) 40 (D) 15 (C) Easy fracturability (D) Xerophthalmia
63. The percentage of polyunsaturated fatty 73. A characteristic feature of Kwashiorkar is
acids in soyabean oil is
(A) Fatty liver
(A) 62 (B) 10 (B) Emaciation
(C) 3 (D) 2
(C) Low insulin lever
64. The percentage of polyunsaturated fatty (D) Occurrence in less than 1 year infant
acids in butter is
74. A characteristic feature of marasmus is
(A) 60 (B) 37
(A) Severe hypoalbuminemia
(C) 25 (D) 3
(B) Normal epinephrine level
65. Dietary fibre denotes (C) Mild muscle wasting
(A) Undigested proteins (D) Low insulin and high cortisol level
(B) Plant cell components that cannot be digested
by own enzymes 75. Obesity generally reflects excess intake
of energy and is often associated with the
(C) All plant cell wall components
development of
(D) All non digestible water insoluble polysaccha-
ride (A) Nervousness
(B) Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
66. A high fibre diet is associated with re-
(C) Hepatitis
duced incidence of
(D) Colon cancer
(A) Cardiovascular disease
(B) C.N.S. disease 76. Atherosclerosis and coronary heart
(C) Liver disease diseases are associated with the diet:
(D) Skin disease (A) High in total fat and saturated fat
(B) Low in protein
67. Dietary fibres are rich in
(C) High in protein
(A) Cellulose (B) Glycogen
(D) High in carbohydrate
(C) Starch (D) Proteoglycans
77. Cerebrovasular disease and hyperten-
68. Minimum dietary fibre is found in sion is associated with
(A) Dried apricot (B) Peas (A) High calcium intake
(C) Bran (D) Cornflakes (B) High salt intake
69. A bland diet is recommended in (C) Low calcium intake
(A) Peptic ulcer (B) Atherosclerosis (D) Low salt intake
(C) Diabetes (D) Liver disease 78. The normal range of total serum bilirubin is
70. A dietary deficiency in both the quantity (A) 0.21.2 mg/100 ml
and the quality of protein results in (B) 1.51.8 mg/100 ml
(A) Kwashiorkar (B) Marasmus (C) 2.04.0 mg/100 ml
(C) Xerophtalmia (D) Liver diseases (D) Above 7.0 mg/100 ml
78 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

79. The normal range of direct reacting 86. Fecal stercobilinogen is increased in
(conjugated) serum bilirubin is (A) Hemolytic jaundice
(A) 00.1 mg/100 ml (B) Hepatic jaundice
(B) 0.10.4 mg/100 ml (C) Viral hepatitis
(C) 0.406 mg/100 ml (D) Obstructive jaundice
(D) 0.51 mg/100 ml
87. Fecal urobilinogen is increased in
80. The normal range of indirect (unconjugat-
(A) Hemolytic jaundice
ed) bilirubin in serum is
(B) Obstruction of biliary duct
(A) 00.1 mg/100 ml
(C) Extrahepatic gall stones
(B) 0.10.2 mg/100 ml
(D) Enlarged lymphnodes
(C) 0.20.7 mg/100 ml
(D) 0.81.0 mg/100 ml 88. A mixture of conjugated and unconjugat-
ed bilirubin is found in the circulation in
81. Jaundice is visible when serum bilirubin
exceeds (A) Hemolytic jaundice
(A) 0.5 mg/100 ml (B) 0.8 mg/100 ml (B) Hepatic jaundice
(C) 1 mg/100 ml (D) 2.4 mg/100 ml (C) Obstructive jaundice
(D) Post hepatic jaundice
82. An increase in serum unconjugated
bilirubin occurs in 89. Hepatocellular jaundice as compared to
(A) Hemolytic jaundice pure obstructive type of jaundice is char-
acterized by
(B) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Nephritis (A) Increased serum alkaline phosphate, LDH and
(D) Glomerulonephritis ALT
(B) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase, LDH
83. One of the causes of hemolytic jaundice is and ALT
(A) G-6 phosphatase deficiency (C) Increased serum alkaline phosphatase and
(B) Increased conjugated bilirubin decreased levels of LDH and ALT
(C) Glucokinase deficiency (D) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase and
(D) Phosphoglucomutase deficiency increased serum LDH and ALT

84. Increased urobilinogen in urine and 90. Icteric index of an normal adult varies
absence of bilirubin in the urine suggests between
(A) Obstructive jaundice (A) 12 (B) 24
(B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) 46 (D) 1015
(C) Viral hepatitis
91. Clinical jaundice is present with an icteric
(D) Toxic jaundice
index above
85. A jaundice in which serum alanine (A) 4 (B) 8
transaminase and alkaline phosphatase
(C) 10 (D) 15
are normal is
(A) Hepatic jaundice 92. Normal quantity of urobilinogen excreted
in the feces per day is about
(B) Hemolytic jaundice
(C) Parenchymatous jaundice (A) 1025 mg (B) 50250 mg
(D) Obstructive Jaundice (C) 300500 mg (D) 700800 mg
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 79

93. Fecal urobilinogen is decreased in 100. The ability of liver to remove a dye like
(A) Obstruction of biliary duct BSP from the blood suggests a normal
(B) Hemolytic jaundice (A) Excretory function
(C) Excess fat intake (B) Detoxification function
(D) Low fat intake (C) Metabolic function
(D) Circulatory function
94. A complete absence of fecal urobilinogen
is strongly suggestive of 101. Removal of BSP dye by the liver involves
conjugation with
(A) Obstruction of bile duct
(A) Thiosulphate
(B) Hemolytic jaundice
(B) Glutamine
(C) Intrahepatic cholestasis
(C) Cystein component of glutathione
(D) Malignant obstructive disease
(D) UDP glucuronate
95. Immediate direct Vanden Bergh reaction
102. Normal value of plasma total proteins
indicates
varies between
(A) Hemolytic jaundice
(A) 34 gm/100ml (B) 68 gm/100ml
(B) Hepatic jaundice
(C) 1012 gm/100ml (D) 1416 gm/100ml
(C) Obstructive jaundice
103. A decrease in albumin with increased
(D) Megalobastic anemia
production of other unidentified proteins
96. The presence of bilirubin in the urine which migrate in , region suggests
without urobilinogen suggests (A) Cirrhosis of liver
(A) Obstructive jaundice (B) Nephrotic syndrome
(B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Infection
(C) Pernicious anemia (D) Chronic lymphatic leukemia
(D) Damage to the hepatic parenchyma 104. In increase in 2-Globulin with loss of
97. Impaired galactose tolerance test suggests albumin in urine suggests

(A) Defect in glucose utilisation (A) Primary immune deficiency


(B) Liver cell injury (B) Nephrotic syndrome
(C) Cirrhosis of liver
(C) Renal defect
(D) Multiple myeloma
(D) Muscle injury
105. The normal levels of prothrombin time is
98. Increased serum ornithine carabamoyl
about
transferase activity is diagnostic of
(A) 2 sec (B) 4 sec
(A) Myocardial infarction
(C) 14 sec (D) 1016 sec
(B) Hemolytic jaundice
(C) Bone disease 106. In obstructive jaundice prothrombin time
(D) Acute viral hepatitis (A) Remains normal
(B) Decreases
99. The best known and most frequently used
(C) Responds to vit K and becomes normal
test of the detoxicating functions of liver
is (D) Responds to vit K and increases

(A) Hippuric acid test 107. In parenhymatous liver disease the proth-
(B) Galactose tolerance test rombin time
(C) Epinephrine tolerance test (A) Remains normal (B) Increases
(D) Rose Bengal dye test (C) Decreases (D) Responds to Vit K
80 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

108. Urea clearance test is used to determine 116. Measurement of insulin clearance test is
the a measure of
(A) Glomerular filtration rate (A) Glomerular filtration rate
(B) Renal plasma flow (B) Filtration factor
(C) Ability of kidney to concentrate the urine (C) Renal plasma flow
(D) Measurement of tubular mass (D) Tubular secretory mass

109. The formula to calculate maximum urea 117. The polysaccharide insulin is
U V (A) Filtered at the glomerulus but neither secreted
clearance is , where U denotes
B nor reabsorbed by the tubule
(A) Concentration of urea in urine in gm/24 hr (B) Filtered at the glomerulus and secreted by
(B) Concentration of urea in urine in mg/100 ml the tubule
(C) Concentration of urea in blood in mg/100 ml (C) Filtered at the glomerulus and reabsorbed by
(D) Volume of urine in ml/mt the tubule
(D) Filtered at the glomerulus, secreted and
110. Average maximum urea clearance is reabsorbed by the tubule
(A) 30 ml (B) 50 ml 118. Normal insulin clearance is
(C) 75 ml (D) 90 ml
(A) 40 ml/1.73 sqm (B) 60 ml/1.73 sqm
111. The average normal value for standard (C) 80 ml/1.73 sqm (D) 120 ml/1.73 sqm
urea clearance is
119. Creatinine EDTA clearance is a test to
(A) 20 ml (B) 30 ml measure
(C) 40 ml (D) 54 ml (A) Renal plasma flow
112. Urea clearance is lowered in (B) Filtration fraction
(A) Acute nephritis (C) Glomerular filtration rate
(B) Pneumonia (D) Tubular function
(C) Early stage of nephritic syndrome 120. The end products of saponification:
(D) Benign hypertension (A) glycerol (B) acid
113. Glomerular filtration rate can be measured (C) soap (D) Both (A) and (C)
by 121. The normal PAH clearance for a surface
(A) Endogenous creatinine clearance area of 1.73 sqm. is
(B) Para-aminohippurate test (A) 200 ml/min (B) 300 ml/min
(C) Addis test (C) 400 ml/min (D) 574 ml/min
(D) Mosenthal test 122. Para amino hippurate is
114. At normal levels of creatinine in the blood, (A) Filtered at glomeruli and secreted by the
this metabolite is tubules
(A) Filtered at the glomerulus but not secreted nor (B) Filtered at glomeruli and not secreted by the
reabsorbed by the tubule tubules
(B) Secreted by the tubule (C) Filtered at glomeruli and reabsorbed
completely
(C) Reabsorbed by the tubule
(D) Not removed completely during a single
(D) Secreted and reabsorbed by tubule
circulation of the blood through the kidney.
115. The normal values for creatinine clearance 123. The Tm for PAH i.e the maximal secretory
varies from capacity of the tubule for PAH can be used
(A) 2040 ml/min (B) 4060 ml/min to gavge the
(C) 7085 ml/min (D) 95105 ml/min (A) Extent of tubular damage
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 81

(B) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to 132. Triglycerides are


perform osmotic work (A) Heavier than water
(C) Impairment of renal plasma flow (B) Major constituents of membranes
(D) Glomerular filtration rate (C) Non-polar
124. The normal Tm in mg/min/1.73 sqm for (D) Hydrophilic
PAH is
133. Cerebronic acid is present in
(A) 20 (B) 40
(A) Glycerophospholipids
(C) 60 (D) 80
(B) Sphingophospholipids
125. The normal range of filtration factor in an (C) Galactosyl ceramide
adult is (D) Gangliosides
(A) 0.100.15 (B) 0.160.21
134. Acylsphingosine is also known as
(C) 0.250.30 (D) 0.350.40
(A) Sphingomyelin (B) Ceramide
126. The filtration factor tends to be normal in
(C) Cerebroside (D) Sulphatide
(A) Early essential hypertension
135. The highest phospholipids content is
(B) Malignant phase of hypertension
found in
(C) Glomerulonephritis
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
(D) Acute nephritis
(C) LDL (D) HDL
127. The filtration factor is increased in
136. The major lipid in chylomicrons is
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Malignant phase of hypertension (A) Triglycerides (B) Phospholipids
(C) Early essential hypertension (C) Cholesterol (D) Free fatty acids
(D) Acute nephritis 137. Number of carbon atoms in cholesterol is
128. The filtration factor is decreased in (A) 17 (B) 19
(A) Glomerulonephritis (C) 27 (D) 30
(B) Early essential hypertension 138. The lipoprotein richest in cholesterol is
(C) Malignant phase of hypertension (A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
(D) Starvation (C) LDL (D) HDL
129. Excretion of phenolsulphanpthalein (PSP) 139. The major storage form of lipids is
reflects
(A) Esterified cholesterol
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Glycerophospholipids
(B) Maximaltabular excretory capacity
(C) Triglycerides
(C) Filtration factor (D) Sphingolipids
(D) Renal plasma flow
140. Cerebonic acid is present in
130. Which of the following is a polyunsatu-
(A) Triglycerides
rated fatty acid?
(B) Cerebrosides
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Palmitoleic acid
(C) Esterified cholestrol
(C) Linoleic acid (D) Oleic acid
(D) Sphingomyelin
131. Which of the following is omega-3 polyun-
141. The nitrogenous base in lecithin is
saturated fatty acid?
(A) Ethanolamine (B) Choline
(A) Linoleic acid (B) -Linolenic acid
(C) Serine (D) Betaine
(C) -Linolenic acid (D) Arachidonic acid
82 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

142. All the following are omega-6-fatty acids 152. De hovo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in
except
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
(A) Linoleic acid (B) -Linolenic acid (C) Microsomes (D) All of these
(C) -Linolenic acid (D) Arachidonic acid
153. Acyl Carrier Protein contains the vitamin:
143. All the following have 18 carbon atoms
except (A) Biotin (B) Lipoic acid
(C) Pantothenic acid (D) Folic acid
(A) Linoleic acid (B) Linolenic acid
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) Stearic acid 154. Which of the following is required as a
reductant in fatty acid synthesis?
144. A 20-carbon fatty acid among the follow-
ing is (A) NADH (B) NADPH
(A) Linoleic acid (B) -Linolenic acid (C) FADH2 (D) FMNH2
(C) -Linolenic acid (D) Arachidonic acid 155. Hepatic liponenesis is stimulated by:
145. Triglycerides are transported from liver to (A) cAMP (B) Glucagon
extrahepatic tissues by (C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
156. De novo synthesis of fatty acids requires
(C) HDL (D) LDL
all of the following except
146. Cholesterol is transported from liver to (A) Biotin (B) NADH
extrahepatic tissues by
(C) Panthothenic acid (D) ATP
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
(C) HDL (D) LDL 157. Acetyl CoA carboxylase regulates fatty
acid synthesis by which of the following
147. Elevated plasma level of the following mechanism?
projects against atherosclerosis:
(A) Allosteric regulation
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL
(B) Covalent modification
(C) HDL (D) LDL
(C) Induction and repression
148. All the following amino acids are non- (D) All of these
essential except
158. -Oxidation of fatty acids requires all the
(A) Alanine (B) Histidine
following coenzymes except
(C) Cysteine (D) Proline
(A) CoA (B) FAD
149. Sulphydryl group is present in (C) NAD (D) NADP
(A) Cysteine (B) Methionine
159. Which of the following can be oxidized
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
by -oxidation pathway?
150. Oligosaccharide-pyrophosphoryl dolichol (A) Saturated fatty acids
is required for the synthesis of
(B) Monosaturated fatty acids
(A) N-linked glycoproteins
(C) Polyunsaturated fatty acids
(B) O-linked glycoproteins
(D) All of these
(C) GPI-linked glycoproteins
(D) All of these 160. Propionyl CoA is formed on oxidation of

151. In N-linked glycoproteins, oligosaccharide (A) Monounsaturated fatty acids


is attached to protein through its (B) Polyunsaturated fatty acids
(A) Asparagine residue (B) Glutamine residue (C) Fatty acids with odd number of carbon atoms
(C) Arginine residue (D) Lysine residue (D) None of these
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 83

161. An enzyme required for the synthesis of 169. Thromboxanes cause


ketone bodies as well as cholesterol is (A) Vasodilation
(A) Acetyl CoA carboxylase (B) Bronchoconstriction
(B) HMG CoA synthetase (C) Platelet aggregation
(C) HMG CoA reductase (D) All of these
(D) HMG CoA lyase
170. Prostaglandins lower camp in
162. Ketone bodies are synthesized in
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Lungs
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver (C) Platelets (D) Adenohypophysis
(C) Muscles (D) Brain
171. Slow reacting Substance of Anaphylaxis
163. All the following statements about ketone is a mixture of
bodies are true except
(A) Prostaglandins (B) Prostacyclins
(A) Their synthesis increases in diabetes mellitus (C) Thromboxanes (D) Leukotrienes
(B) They are synthesized in mitchondria
(C) They can deplete the alkali reserve 172. Dipalmitoyl lecithin acts as
(D) They can be oxidized in the liver (A) Platelet activating factor
(B) Second messenger for hormones
164. All the following statements about
carnitine are true except (C) Lung surfactant
(D) Anti-ketogenic compound
(A) It can be synthesised in the human body
(B) It can be synthesized from methionine and lysine 173. Reichert-Meissl number:
(C) It is required for transport of short chain fatty (A) 0.1 N KOH (B) 0.5 KOH
acids into mitochondria (C) 0.1 N NaOH (D) 0.5 NaOH
(D) Its deficiency can occur due to haemodialysis
174. In glycerophospholipids, a polyunsaturat-
165. Which of the following can be synthesized ed fatty acid is commonly attached to which
in the human body if precurors are of the following carbon atom of glycerol?
available?
(A) Carbon 1 (B) Carbon 2
(A) Oleic acid (B) Palmitoleic acid (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) All of these
175. Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by
166. All the following can be oxidized by - removal of
oxidation except
(A) Fatty acid from position 1
(A) Palmitic acid
(B) Fatty acid from position 2
(B) Phytanic acid
(C) Phosphorylcholine
(C) Linoleic acid
(D) Choline
(D) Fatty acids having an odd number of carbon
atoms 176. Sphingosine is synthesized from
167. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit (A) Palmitoyl CoA and Choline
the synthesis of (B) Palmitoyl CoA and ethanolamine
(A) Leukotrienes (B) Prostaglandins (C) Palmitoyl CoA and serine
(C) Thromboxanes (D) All of these (D) Acetyl CoA and choline

168. Diets having a high ratio of polyunsa- 177. For synthesis of sphingosine, all the
turated: saturated fatty acids can cause following coenzymes are required except
(A) Increase in serum triglycerides (A) Pyridoxal phosphate
(B) Decrease in serum cholesterol (B) NADPH
(C) Decrease in serum HDL (C) FAD
(D) Skin lesions (D) NAD
84 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

178. Cerebrosides contain all the following 188. Activated lecithin cholesterol acyl trans-
except ferase is essential for the conversion of
(A) Galactose (B) Sulphate (A) VLDL remnants into LDL
(C) Sphingosine (D) Fatty acid (B) Nascent HDL into HDL
(C) HDL2 into HDL3
179. Niemann-Pick disease results from
deficiency of (D) HDL3 into HDL2
(A) Ceramidase (B) Sphingomyelinase 189. Fatty liver may be caused by
(C) Arylsulphatase A (D) Hexosaminidase A (A) Deficiency of methionine
180. Chylomicron remnants are catabolised in (B) Puromycin
(C) Chronic alcoholism
(A) Intestine (B) Adipose tissue
(D) All of these
(C) Liver (D) Liver and intestine
190. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol
181. VLDL remnant may be converted into
into
(A) VLDL (B) LDL
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Acetaldehyde
(C) HDL (D) Chylomicrons
(C) Acetate (D) CO2 and H2O
182. Receptors for chylomicron remnants are
191. Lipids are stored in the body mainly in
(A) Apo A specific (B) Apo B-48 specific the form of
(C) Apo C specific (D) Apo E specific
(A) Phospholipids (B) Glycolipids
183. LDL receptor is specific for (C) Triglycerides (D) Fatty acids
(A) Apo B-48 and Apo B 100 192. Lipid stores are mainly present in
(B) Apo B-48 and Apo E
(A) Liver (B) Brain
(C) Apo B-100 and Apo D
(C) Muscles (D) Adipose tissue
(D) Apo B-100 and apo D
193. Glycerol is converted into glycerol-3-
184. Nascent HDL of intestinal origin lacks phosphate by
(A) Apo A (B) Apo C (A) Thiokinase (B) Triokinase
(C) Apo E (D) Apo C and Apo E (C) Glycerol kinase (D) All of these
185. HDL is synthesized in 194. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-phosphate
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver required for the synthesis of triglycerides
(C) Intestine (D) Liver and intestine comes mainly from
(A) Hydrolysis of pre-existing triglycerides
186. Nascent HDL of intestinal origin acquires
Apo C and Apo E from (B) Hydrolysis of phospholipids
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed in
(A) Chylomicrons
glycolysis
(B) VLDL
(D) Free glycerol
(C) LDL
(D) HDL of the hepatic origin 195. Glycerol released from adipose tissue by
hydrolysis of triglycerides is mainly
187. Heparin releasable hepatic lipase converts
(A) Taken up by liver
(A) VLDL remnants into LDL (B) Taken up by extrahepatic tissues
(B) Nascent HDL into HDL (C) Reutilised in adipose tissue
(C) HDL2 into HDL3 (D) Excreted from the body
(D) HDL3 into HDL2
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 85

196. Free glycerol cannot be used for triglyceride 204. Oxidation of fatty acids occurs
synthesis in (A) In the cytosol
(A) Liver (B) Kidney (B) In the matrix of mitochondria
(C) Intestine (D) Adipose tissue (C) On inner mitochondrial membrane
197. Adipose tissue lacks (D) On the microsomes

(A) Hormone-sensitive lipase 205. Activation of fatty acids requires all the
(B) Glycerol kinase following except
(C) cAMP-dependent protein kinase (A) ATP (B) Coenzyme A
(D) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (C) Thiokinase (D) Carnitine

198. A digestive secretion that does not contain 206. Mitochondrial thiokinase acts on
any digestive enzyme is (A) Short chain of fatty acids
(A) Saliva (B) Gastric juice (B) Medium chain fatty acids
(C) Pancreatic juice (D) Bile (C) Long chain fatty acids
(D) All of these
199. Saliva contains a lipase which acts on
triglycerides having 207. Carnitine is required for the transport of
(A) Short chain fatty acids (A) Triglycerides out of liver
(B) Medium chain fatty acids (B) Triglycerides into mitochondria
(C) Long chain fatty acids (C) Short chain fatty acids into mitochondria
(D) All of these (D) Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria

200. Salivary lipase hydrolyses the ester bond 208. Carnitine acylcarnitine translocase is
at present
(A) Position 1 of triglycerides (A) In the inner mitochondrial membrane
(B) Position 2 of triglycerides (B) In the mitochondrial matrix
(C) Position 3 of triglycerides (C) On the outer surface of inner mitochondrial
membrane
(D) All of these
(D) On the inner surface of inner mitochondrial
201. Salivary lipase converts dietary trigly- membrane
cerides into
209. Net ATP generation on complete oxidation
(A) Diglycerides and fatty acids of stearic acid is
(B) Monoglycerides and fatty acids
(A) 129 (B) 131
(C) Glycerol and fatty acids
(C) 146 (D) 148
(D) All of these
210. Propionyl CoA formed oxidation of fatty
202. Pancreatic lipase requires for its activity: acids having an odd number of carbon
(A) Co-lipase (B) Bile salts atoms is converted into
(C) Phospholipids (D) All of these (A) Acetyl CoA
(B) Acetoacetyl CoA
203. Pancreatic lipase converts triacylglycerols
into (C) D-Methylmalonyl CoA
(D) Butyryl CoA
(A) 2, 3-Diacylglycerol
(B) 1-Monoacylglycerol 211. -Oxidation of fatty acids occurs mainly in
(C) 2-Monoacylglycerol (A) Liver (B) Brain
(D) 3-Monoacylglycerol (C) Muscles (D) Adipose tissue
86 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

212. Refsums disease results from a defect in 220. During each cycle of -oxidation
the following pathway except (A) One carbon atom is removed from the
(A) Alpha-oxidation of fatty acids carboxyl end of the fatty acid
(B) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids (B) One carbon atom is removed from the methyl
(C) Gamma-oxidation of fatty acids end of the fatty acid
(C) Two carbon atoms are removed from the
(D) Omega-oxidation of fatty acids
carboxyl end of the fatty acid
213. The end product of omega-oxidation of (D) Two carbon atoms are removed from the
fatty acids having an even number of methyl end of the fatty acid
carbon atoms is
221. Net generation of energy on complete
(A) Adipic acid (B) Suberic acid oxidation of palmitic acid is
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) 129 ATP equivalents
214. De novo synthesis of fatty acids is (B) 131 ATP equivalents
catalysed by a multi-enzyme complex (C) 146 ATP equivalents
which contains (D) 148 ATP equivalents
(A) One-SH group (B) Two-SH groups
222. Net generation of energy on complete
(C) Three-SH groups (D) Four-SH groups oxidation of a 17-carbon fatty acid is
215. Fat depots are located in (A) Equal to the energy generation from a
16-carbon fatty acid
(A) Intermuscular connective tissue
(B) Equal to the energy generation from an
(B) Mesentary
18-carbon fatty acid
(C) Omentum
(C) Less than the energy generation from a
(D) All of these 16-carbon fatty acid
216. Salivary lipase is secreted by (D) In between the energy generation from a
16-carbon fatty acid and an 18-carbon fatty
(A) Parotid glands
acid
(B) Sub-maxillary glands
223. Net energy generation on complete
(C) Dorsal surface of tongue
oxidation of linoleic acid is
(D) None of these
(A) 148 ATP equivalents
217. Co-lipase is a (B) 146 ATP equivalents
(A) Bile salt (B) Vitamin (C) 144 ATP equivalents
(C) Protein (D) Phospholipid (D) 142 ATP equivalents
218. Plasma becomes milky 224. Extramitochondrial synthesis of fatty
acids occurs in
(A) Due to high level of HDL
(B) Due to high level of LDL (A) Mammary glands (B) Lungs
(C) During fasting (C) Brain (D) All of these
(D) After a meal 225. One functional sub-unit of multi-enzyme
complex for de novo synthesis of fatty
219. Mitochondrial membrane is permeable to
acids contains
(A) Short chain fatty acids (A) One SH group
(B) Medium chain fatty acids (B) Two SH groups
(C) Long chain fatty acids (C) Three SH groups
(D) All of these (D) Four SH groups
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 87

226. NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis 234. Lipo-oxygenase is required for the syn-
can come from thesis of
(A) Hexose monophosphate shunt (A) Prostaglandins (B) Leukotrienes
(B) Oxidative decarboxylation of malate (C) Thromboxanes (D) All of these
(C) Extramitochondrial oxidation of isocitrate 235. All of the following statements about
(D) All of these multiple sclerosis are true except
227. Fatty liver may be prevented by all of the (A) There is loss of phospholipids from white matter
following except (B) There is loss of sphingolipids from white matter
(A) Choline (B) Betaine (C) There is loss of esterified cholesterol from white
matter
(C) Methionine (D) Ethionine
(D) White matter resembles gray matter in
228. Human desaturase enzyme system composition
cannot introduce a double bond in a fatty
236. After entering cytosol, free fatty acids are
acid beyond
bound to
(A) Carbon 9 (B) Carbon 6
(A) Albumin (B) Globulin
(C) Carbon 5 (D) Carbon 3
(C) Z-protein (D) None of these
229. Which of the following lipid is absorbed 237. Release of free fatty acids from adipose
actively from intestines? tissue is increased by all of the following
(A) Glycerol except
(B) Cholesterol (A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine
(C) Monoacylglycerol (C) Growth hormone (D) Insulin
(D) None of these
238. All the following statements about brown
230. C22 and C24, fatty acids required for the adipose tissue are true except
synthesis of sphingolipids in brain are (A) It is rich in cytochromes
formed by (B) It oxidizes glucose and fatty acids
(A) De novo synthesis (C) Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly
(B) Microsomal chain elongation coupled in it
(C) Mitochondrial chain elongation (D) Dinitrophenol has no effect on it
(D) All of these 239. Lovastatin and mevastatin lower
231. Sphingomyelins: (A) Serum triglycerides
(A) Phospholipids (B) Nitrolipids (B) Serum cholesterol
(C) Alcohols (D) None of these (C) Serum phospholipids
(D) All of these
232. All of the following statements about
hypoglycin are true except 240. Lovastatin is a
(A) It is a plant toxin (A) Competitive inhibitor of acetyl CoA carboxylase
(B) It causes hypoglycaemia (B) Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA synthetase
(C) It inhibits oxidation of short chain fatty acids (C) Non-competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA
reductase
(D) It inhibits oxidation of long chain fatty acids
(D) Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase
233. Synthesis of prostaglandins is inhibited
by 241. Abetalipoproteinaemia occurs due to a
block in the synthesis of
(A) Glucocorticoids (B) Aspirin
(A) Apoprotein A (B) Apoprotein B
(C) Indomethacin (D) All of these
(C) Apoprotein C (D) Cholesterol
88 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

242. All of the following statements about (B) Saturated fatty acids
Tangier disease are true except (C) Integral proteins
(A) It is a disorder of HDL metabolism (D) Cholesterol
(B) Its inheritance is autosomal recessive
251. Transition temperature of membranes
(C) Apoproteins A-I and A-II are not synthesised may be affected by the following consti-
(D) Plasma HDL is increased tuent of membranes:
243. Genetic deficiency of lipoprotein lipase (A) Peripheral proteins (B) Integral proteins
causes hyperlipoproteinaemia of following (C) Cholesterol (D) Oligosachharides
type:
252. Acetyl CoA formed from pyruvate can be
(A) Type I (B) Type IIa used for the synthesis of all the following
(C) Type IIb (D) Type V except
244. Chylomicrons are present in fasting (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acids
blood samples in hyperlipoproteinaemia (C) Cholesterol (D) Steroid hormones
of following types:
253. Which of the following can be used as a
(A) Types I and IIa (B) Types IIa and IIb source of energy in extrahepatic tissues?
(C) Types I and V (D) Types IV and V
(A) Acetoacetate (B) Acetone
245. Glutathione is a constituent of (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Leukotriene A4 (B) Thromboxane A1 254. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit
(C) Leukotriene C4 (D) None of these
(A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2
246. Prostaglandins are inactivated by (C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-oxygenase
(A) 15-Hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase 255. Cyclo-oxygenase is involved in the
(B) Cyclo-oxygenase synthesis of
(C) Lipo-oxygenase (A) Prostaglandins (B) Thromboxanes
(D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
247. Phenylbutazone and indomethacin 256. Leukotrienes cause
inhibit
(A) Increase in capillary permeability
(A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2
(B) Aggregation of platelets
(C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-oxygenase
(C) Bronchodilatation
248. Prostaglandins stimulate (D) None of these
(A) Aggregation of platelets 257. Prostaglandins decrease all of the following
(B) Lipolysis in adipose tissue except
(C) Bronchodilatation (A) Gastric acid secretion
(D) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure
249. For extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis, (C) Uterine contraction
acetyl CoA may be obtained from (D) Platelet aggregation
(A) Citrate (B) Isocitrate 258. Hypocholesterolaemia can occur in
(C) Oxaloacetate (D) Succinate
(A) Hyperthyroidism
250. Fluidity of membranes is increased by (B) Nephrotic syndrome
the following constituent except (C) Obstructive jaundice
(A) Polyunsaturated fatty acids (D) Diabetes mellitus
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 89

259. De novo synthesis and oxidation of fatty 266. The enzyme deficient in Fabrys disease is
acids differ in the following respect: (A) -Galactosidase (B) -Galactosidase
(A) Synthesis occurs in cytosol and oxidation in (C) -Glucosidase (D) -Glucosidase
mitochondria
(B) Synthesis is decreased and oxidation 267. Highest protein content amongst the
increased by insulin following is present in
(C) NADH is required in synthesis and FAD in (A) Wheat (B) Rice
oxidation (C) Pulses (D) Soyabean
(D) Malonyl CoA is formed during oxidation but
268. Daily protein requirement of an adult man
not during synthesis
is
260. Free fatty acids released from adipose (A) 0.5 gm/kg of body weight
tissue are transported in blood by
(B) 0.8 gm/kg of body weight
(A) Albumin (B) VLDL (C) 1.0 gm/kg of body weight
(C) LDL (D) HDL (D) 1.5 gm/kg of body weight

261. -Galactosidase is deficient in 269. Daily protein requirement of an adult


woman is
(A) Fabrys disease
(A) 0.5 gm/kg of body weight
(B) Krabbes disease
(B) 0.8 gm/kg of body weight
(C) Gauchers disease
(C) 1.0 gm/kg of body weight
(D) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
(D) 1.5 gm/kg of body weight
262. The enzyme deficient in metachromatic
270. Cysteine can partially meet the require-
leukodystrophy is
ment of
(A) Arylsulphatase A (B) Hexosaminidase A
(A) Phenylalanine (B) Threonine
(C) Ceramidase (D) Sphingomyelinase
(C) Methionine (D) None of these
263. All of the following statements about
271. Invisible fat is present in
generalized gangliosidosis are true
except (A) Milk (B) Coconut oil
(C) Groundnut oil (D) Hydrogenated oils
(A) It results from deficiency of G M1 --
Gangliosidase 272. Visible fat is present in
(B) Breakdown of GM1 ganglioside is impaired (A) Milk (B) Pulses
(C) GM2 ganglioside accumulates in liver and (C) Coconut oil (D) Egg yolk
elsewhere
273. Fat content of eggs is about
(D) It leads to mental retardation
(A) 7% (B) 10%
264. Hexosaminidase A is deficient in
(C) 13% (D) 16%
(A) Tay-Sachs disease
274. Fat content of pulses is about
(B) Gauchers disease
(C) Niemann-Pick disease (A) 5% (B) 10%
(D) Fabrys disease (C) 15% (D) 20%

265. Mental retardation occurs in 275. Predominant fatty acids in meat are

(A) Tay-Sachs disease (A) Saturated


(B) Monounsaturated
(B) Gauchers disease
(C) Polyunsaturated
(C) Niemann-Pick disease
(D) Mono and poly-unsaturated
(D) All of these
90 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

276. Oils having more than 50 % polyunsatu- 286. In Ames assay, addition of a carcinogen
rated fatty acids include all of the follow- to the culture medium allows S. typhimu-
ing except rium to grow
(A) Groundnut oil (B) Soyabean oil (A) In the presence of histidine
(C) Sunflower oil (D) Safflower oil (B) In the presence of arginine
277. Cholesterol is present in all of the follow- (C) In the absence of histidine
ing except (D) In the absence of arginine
(A) Egg (B) Fish
287. In Ames assay, liver homogenate is
(C) Milk (D) Pulses
included in the culture medium because
278. Which of the following has the highest (A) It converts pro-carcinogens into carcinogens
cholesterol content?
(B) Liver can metabolise histidine
(A) Meat (B) Fish
(C) Salmonella mainly infects liver
(C) Butter (D) Milk
(D) Liver is very susceptible to cancer
279. Which of the following has the highest
cholesterol content? 288. Bile pigments are present and urobilino-
gen absent in urine in
(A) Egg yolk (B) Egg white
(C) Meat (D) Fish (A) Haemolytic jaundice
(B) Hepatocellular jaundice
280. The following contains the least
(C) Obstructive jaundice
cholesterol:
(D) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
(A) Milk (B) Meat
(C) Butter (D) Cheese 289. Bile pigments are absent and urobilino-
gen increased in urine in
281. Which of the following constitutes fibre
or roughage in food? (A) Haemolytic jaundice
(A) Cellulose (B) Pectin (B) Hepatocellular jaundice
(C) Inulin (D) All of these (C) Obstructive jaundice
(D) Rotors syndrome
282. The starch content of wheat is about
(A) 50% (B) 60% 290. In obstructive jaundice, urine shows
(C) 70% (D) 80% (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
283. The starch content of pulses is about (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
(A) 50% (B) 60% (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of
(C) 70% (D) 80% urobilinogen
(D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of
284. A significant source of starch among
urobilinogen
vegetables is
(A) Radish (B) Spinach 291. In haemolytic jaundice, urine shows
(C) Potato (D) Cauliflower (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen

285. The cyclic ring present in all the steroids: (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
(C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of
(A) Cyclopentano perhydrophenanthrene
urobilinogen
(B) Nitropentano
(D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of
(C) both (A) and (B)
urobilinogen
(D) None of these
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 91

292. Serum albumin may be decreased in 301. All the following statements about
(A) Haemolytic jaundice obstructive jaundice are true except
(B) Hepatocellular jaundice (A) Prothrombin time may be prolonged due to
(C) Obstructive jaundice impaired absorption of vitamin K
(D) All of these (B) Serum alkaline phosphatase may be raised
due to increased release of the enzyme from
293. Normal range of serum albumin is liver cells
(A) 2.03.6 gm/dl (B) 2.03.6 mg/dl (C) Bile salts may enter systemic circulation due
(C) 3.55.5 gm/dl (D) 3.55.5 mg/dl to biliary obstruction
(D) There is no defect in conjugation of bilirubin
294. Normal range of serum globulin is
(A) 2.03.6 mg/dl (B) 2.03.6 gm/dl 302. A test to evaluate detoxifying function of
liver is
(C) 3.55.5 mg/dl (D) 3.55.5 gm/dl
(A) Serum albumin: globulin ratio
295. Serum albumin: globulin ratio is altered in
(B) Galactose tolerance test
(A) Gilberts disease (B) Haemolytic jaundice (C) Hippuric acid test
(C) Viral hepatitis (D) Stones in bile duct (D) Prothrombin time
296. Esterification of cholesterol occurs mainly 303. Hippuric acid is formed from
in
(A) Benzoic acid and alanine
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver
(B) Benzoic acid glycine
(C) Muscles (D) Kidneys
(C) Glucuronic acid and alanine
297. Galactose intolerance can occur in (D) Glucuronic acid and glycine
(A) Haemolytic jaundice 304. An enzyme which is excreted in urine is
(B) Hepatocellular jaundice (A) Lactase dehydrogenase
(C) Obstructive jaundice (B) Amylase
(D) None of these (C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
298. Prothrombin is synthesised in (D) None of these
(A) Erythrocytes 305. Serum gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
(B) Reticulo-endothelial cells is raised in
(C) Liver (A) Haemolytic jaundice
(D) Kidneys (B) Myocardial infarction
299. Prothrombin time remains prolonged (C) Alcoholic hepatitis
even after parenterals administration of (D) Acute cholecystitis
vitamin K in 306. Oliguria can occur in
(A) Haemolytic jaundice (A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Liver damage (B) Diabetes insipidus
(C) Biliary obstruction (C) Acute glomerulonephritis
(D) Steatorrhoea (D) Chronic glomerulonephritis
300. All the following statements about 307. Urea clearance is the
obstructive jaundice are true except
(A) Amount of urea excreted per minute
(A) Conjugated bilirubin in serum is normal
(B) Amount of urea present in 100 ml of urine
(B) Total bilirubin in serum is raised
(C) Volume of blood cleared of urea in one minute
(C) Bile salts are present in urine
(D) Amount of urea filtered by glomeruli in one
(D) Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised minute
92 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

308. Inulin clearance is a measure of 316. Esters of fatty acids with higher alcohols
(A) Glomerular filtration rate other than glycerol are said to be
(B) Tubular secretion flow (A) Waxes (B) Fats
(C) Tubular reabsorption rate (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) Renal plasma flow 317. The combination of an amino alcohol,
309. Phenolsulphonephthalein excretion test is fatty acid and sialic acid form
an indicator of (A) Phospholipids (B) Sulpholipids
(A) Glomerular filtration (C) Glycolipids (D) Aminolipids
(B) Tubular secretion
318. Hydrolysis of fats by alkali is called
(C) Tubular reabsorption
(A) Saponification number
(D) Renal blood low
(B) Saponification
310. Para-amino hippurate excretion test is an (C) Both (A) and (B)
indicator of
(D) None of these
(A) Glomerular filtration
(B) Tubular secretion 319. The number of milliliters of 0.1 N KOH
required to neutralize the insoluble fatty
(C) Tubular reabsorption
acids from 5 gms of fat is called
(D) Renal plasma flow
(A) Acid number (B) Acetyl number
311. Renal plasma flow of an average adult
(C) Halogenation (D) Polenske number
man is
(A) 120130 ml/minute 320. The rate of fatty acid oxidation is
increased by
(B) 325350 ml/minute
(C) 48052 ml/minute (A) Phospholipids (B) Glycolipids
(D) 560830 ml/minute (C) Aminolipids (D) All of these

312. Filtration fraction can be calculated from 321. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base
named as
(A) Standard urea clearance and PSP excretion
(B) Maximum urea clearance and PSP excretion (A) Ethanolamine (B) Choline
(C) Maximum urea clearance and PAH (C) Inositol (D) All of these
clearance 322. Lecithins contain an unsaturated fatty
(D) Inulin clearance and PAH clearance acid at position:
313. Normal filtration fraction is about (A) (B) and
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) (D) None of these
(C) 0.6 (D) 0.8 323. Lecithins are soluble in ordinary solvents
314. Filtration fraction is increased in except
(A) Acute glomerulonephritis (A) Benzene (B) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Methyl alcohol (D) Acetone
(C) Hypertension 324. Lecithins combine with protein to form
(D) Hypotension
(A) Phosphoprotein (B) Mucoprotein
315. Among the following, a test of Glomeru- (C) Lipoprotein (D) Glycoprotein
lar function is
325. Instead of ester link plasmalogens
(A) Urea clearance
possess an other link in position:
(B) PSP excretion test
(A) (B)
(C) PAH clearance
(C) (D) None of these
(D) Hippuric acid excretion test
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 93

326. The alkyl radical in plasmalogen is an 336. Lipoprotiens may be identified more
alcohol: accurately by means of
(A) Saturated (B) Unsaturated (A) Electrophoresis
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (B) Ultra centrifugation
327. The concentration of sphingomyelins are (C) Centrifugation
increased in (D) Immunoelectrophoresis
(A) Gauchers disease
337. Very low density lipoproteins are also
(B) Fabrys disease known as
(C) Fabrile disease
(A) -lipoproteins (B) Pre --lipoproteins
(D) Niemann-Pick disease
(C) -lipoproteins (D) None of these
328. Sphingomyelins contain a complex amino
alcohol named as 338. The protein moiety of lipoprotein is known
as
(A) Serine (B) Lysolecithin
(C) Sphingosine (D) Glycol (A) Apoprotein (B) Pre-protein
(C) Post-protein (D) Pseudoprotein
329. The types of sphingomyelins are
339. The -lipoprotein fraction increases in
(A) 1 (B) 3
severe
(C) 4 (D) 5
(A) Diabetes Mellitus (B) Uremia
330. Glycolipids contain an amino alcohol: (C) Nephritis (D) Muscular dystrophy
(A) Sphingosine (B) Iso-sphingosine
340. 9 indicates a double bond between
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
carbon atoms of the fatty acids:
331. Cerebrosides may also be classified as (A) 8 and 9 (B) 9 and 10
(A) Sphingolipids (B) Sulpholipids (C) 9 and 11 (D) 9 and 12
(C) Aminolipids (D) Glycolipids
341. The number of carbon atoms in decanoic
332. Gaucher s disease is characterized acid present in butter:
specially by the increase in (A) 6 (B) 8
(A) Lignoceric acid (C) 10 (D) 12
(B) Nervonic acid
342. Arachidonic acid contains the number of
(C) Cerebomic acid
double bonds:
(D) Hydroxynervonic acid
(A) 2 (B) 3
333. Gangliosides are the glycolipids occurring in (C) 4 (D) 5
(A) Brain (B) Liver
343. The prostaglandins are synthesized from
(C) Kidney (D) Muscle
(A) Arachidonic acid (B) Oleic acid
334. Lipoprotein present in cell membrane is
(C) Linoleic acid (D) Linolenic acid
by nature:
(A) Hydrophilic (B) Hydrophobic 344. The Iodine number of essential fatty acids
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these of vegetable oils:
(A) High (B) Very high
335. The density of lipoproteins increases as
the protein content (C) Very low (D) Low

(A) Increases 345. Cholesterol is a


(B) Decreases (A) Animal sterol (B) M.F. C27 H46O
(C) Highly decreases (C) 5 methyl groups (D) All of these
(D) Slightly and promptly decreases
94 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

346. Waxes contain higher alcohols named as 356. Carboxylation of acetyl CoA to malonyl
(A) Methyl (B) Ethyl CoA takes place in presence of
(C) Phytyl (D) Cetyl (A) FAD+ (B) Biotin
(C) NAD+ (D) NADP+
347. Lieberman-Burchard reaction is performed
to detect 357. Malonyl-CoA reacts with the central
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycerol (A) SH group (B) NH2 group
(C) Fatty acid (D) Vitamin D (C) COOH group (D) CH2OH group
348. Lipose present in the stomach cannot 358. Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the
hydrolyze fats owing to presence of the coenzyme:
(A) Alkalinity (B) Acidity (A) NAD+ (B) Reduced NAD
(C) High acidity (D) Neutrality (C) NADP+ (D) Reduced NADP
349. Fatty acids are oxidized by 359. Fatty acids are activated to acyl CoA by
(A) -oxidation (B) -oxidation the enzyme thiokinase:
(C) -oxidation (D) All of these (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
(C) CoA (D) FAD+
350. The fatty acids containing even number
and odd number of carbon atoms as well 360. Phospholipids help the oxidation of
as the unsaturated fatty acids are (A) Glycerol (B) Fatty acids
oxidized by
(C) Glycerophosphates(D) None of these
(A) -oxidation (B) -oxidation
(C) -oxidation (D) All of these 361. The desaturation and chain elongation
system of polyunsaturated fatty acids are
351. Long chain fatty acids are first activated greatly diminished in the absence of
to acyl CoA in the (A) Insulin (B) Glycagon
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochodria (C) Epinephrine (D) Thyroxine
(C) Ribosomes (D) Microsome
362. Prostaglandins are liberated in the
352. Long chain acyl CoA penetrates mitochon- circulation by the stimulation of
dria in the presence of (A) Anterior pituitary glands
(A) Palmitate (B) Carnitine (B) Posterior pituitary glands
(C) Sorbitol (D) DNP (C) Adrenal gland
353. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase converts Acyl (D) Thyroid gland
CoA to - unsaturated acyl-CoA in 363. Prostaglandins have a common structure
presence of the coenzyme: based on prostanoic acid which contains
(A) NAD+ (B) NADP+ carbon atoms:
(C) ATP (D) FAD (A) 12 (B) 16
354. For the activation of long chain fatty acids (C) 18 (D) 20
the enzyme thiokinase requires the 364. The carbon chains of prostanoic acid are
cofactor: bonded at the middle of the chain by a
(A) Mg ++ (B) Ca ++ (A) 5-membered ring (B) 6-membered ring
(C) Mn++ (D) K + (C) 8-membered ring (D) None of these
355. -oxidation takes place by the 365. All active prostaglandins have atleast one
hydroxylase in microsomes involving double bond between positions:
(A) Cytochrome b (B) Cytochrome c (A) 7 and 8 (B) 9 and 10
(C) Cytochrome p-4500(D) Cytochrome a3 (C) 11 and 12 (D) 13 and 14
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 95

366. The enzyme systems for lengthening and 374. Which of the following is not an unsat-
shortening for saturating and desaturat- urated fatty acid?
ing of fatty acids occur in (A) Oleic acid (B) Stearic acid
(A) Intestine (B) Muscle (C) Linaoleic acid (D) Palmitic acid
(C) Kidney (D) Liver
375. All the following are functions of prostag-
367. Which of the following are classified as landins except
essential fatty acids? (A) Lowering of B.P
(A) Arachidonic acid (B) Oleic acid (B) Introduction of labour
(C) Acetic acid (D) Butyric acid (C) Anti inflammatory
368. Prostaglandins are synthesized in the (D) Prevention of myocardial infraction
body from 376. Calorific value of lipids per gm is
(A) Myristic acid (B) Arachidonic acid (A) 4 Kcal (B) 8 Kcal
(C) Stearic acid (D) Lignoceric acid (C) 9 Kcal (D) None of these

369. All the following saturated fatty acids are 377. Fatty acid present in kerotin is
present in buffer except (A) Lignoceric acid (B) Cerebromic acid
(A) Butyric acid (B) Capryllic acid (C) Nervonic acid (D) Hydroxynervonic acid
(C) Caproic acid (D) Capric acid 378. All the following are ketones except
370. Biological functions of lipids include (A) Xylulose (B) Ribolose
(A) Source of energy (C) Erythrose (D) Fructose
(B) Insulating material 379. Saponification:
(C) Maintenance of cellular integrity (A) Hydrolysis of fats by alkali
(D) All of these (B) Hydrolysis of glycerol by liposes
(C) Esterification
371. Saponification number is
(D) Reduction
(A) mg of KOH required to saponify one gm of
fat or oil 380. Number of ml of 0.1 N KOH required to
neutralize fatty acids from 5 gms of fat:
(B) mg of KOH required to neutralize free fatty
acids of one gms of fat (A) Iodine number
(C) mg of KOH required to neutralize the acetic (B) Polenske number
acid obtained by saponification of one gm (C) Reichert-Miessl number
of fat after it has been acetylated (D) None of these
(D) None of these 381. Hydrated density of HD lipoproteins is
372. Lipids have the following properties: (A) 0.94 gm/ml
(A) Insoluble in water and soluble in fat solvent (B) 0.941.006 gm/ml
(C) 1.0061.063 gm/ml
(B) High energy content
(D) 1.0631.21 gm/ml
(C) Structural component of cell membrane
(D) All of these 382. Saponification number indicates
(A) Unsaturation in fat
373. Carbohydrate moiety in cerebrosides is
(B) Average M.W of fatty acid
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Acetyl number
(C) Galactose (D) Maltose (D) Acid number
96 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

383. Acrolein Test is positive for 392. The smell of fat turned rancid is due to
(A) Glycerol (B) Prostaglandins (A) Presence of vit E (B) Presence of quinones
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Proteins (C) Phenols (D) Volatile fatty acids
384. Iodine number denotes 393. Phospholipids are important cell mem-
(A) Degree of unsaturation brane components because
(B) Saponification number (A) They have glycerol
(C) Acid number (B) They can form bilayers in water
(D) Acetyl number (C) They have both polar and non polar potions
385. Maximum energy produced by (D) They combine covalently with proteins
(A) Fats (B) Carbohydrates 394. Which one of the following is not a phos-
(C) Proteins (D) Nucleic acids pholipid?
386. Lecithins are composed of (A) Lecithin (B) Plasmalogen
(A) Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + (C) Lysolecithin (D) Gangliosides
Choline
395. A fatty acid which is not synthesized in
(B) Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +
human body and has to be supplied in
Ethanolamine
the diet:
(C) Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +
Serine (A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic acid
(D) Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + (C) Linoleic acid (D) Stearic acid
Beaine
396. In cephalin, choline is replaced by
387. Sphingomyelins are composed of fatty (A) Serine (B) Ethanolamine
acids, phosphoric acid and
(C) Betaine (D) Sphingosine
(A) Sphingosine and choline
(B) Glycerol and sphingosine 397. The triacyl glycerol present in plasma
lipoproteins are hydrolyzed by
(C) Glycerol and Serine
(D) Glycerol and Choline (A) Linqual lipase (B) Pancreatic lipase
(C) Colipase (D) Lipoprotein lipase
388. Depot fats of mammalian cells comprise
mostly of 398. Amphiphatic lipids are
(A) Cholesterol (B) Cholesterol esters (A) Hydrophilic (B) Hydrophobic
(C) Triacyl glycerol (D) Phospholipids (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Lipophilic
389. When choline of lecithine is replaced by 399. Which of the following is not essential
ethanolamine the product is fatty acid?
(A) Sphingomyelin (B) Cephalin
(A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic acid
(C) Plasmalogens (D) Lysolecithine
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) Linolenic acid
390. Which of the following is a hydroxy fatty
400. The calorific value of lipid is
acid?
(A) Oleic acid (B) Ricinoleic acid (A) 4.0 Kcal/gm (B) 6.0 Kcal/gm
(C) Caproic acid (D) Stearic acid (C) 9.0 Kcal/gm (D) 15 Kcal/gm

391. Acrolein test is answered by 401. Rancidity of butter is prevented by the


addition of
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycerol
(C) Glycosides (D) Sphingol (A) Vitamin D (B) Tocopherols
(C) Presence of priotin (D) Presence of Cu
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 97

402. Sphingomyelins on hydrolysis yields 410. Cholesterol is the precursor for the bio-
(A) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and synthesis of
choline (A) fatty acid (B) prostaglandins
(B) Glycerol, sphingosine, choline and fatty acids (C) bile acids (D) sphingmyelin
(C) Sphingosine, phosphoric acid, Glycerol and
inositol 411. Which of the following condition is
characterized by ketonuria but without
(D) Sphingosine, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and
glycosuria?
choline
(A) Diabetes mellitus
403. Inherited deficiency of enzyme cerebro-
(B) Diabetes insipidus
sidase produces
(C) Prolonged starvation
(A) Fabrys disease
(D) Addisons disease
(B) Niemann pick disease
(C) Gauchers disease 412. Ketone bodies are formed in
(D) Tay-sachs disease (A) Kidney (B) Liver
404. Phosphatidic acid on hydrolysis yields (C) Heart (D) Intestines

(A) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, choline 413. Changes in serum high density lipoproteins
(B) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid (HDL) are more truly reflected by those of
(C) Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, (A) HDL-1 (B) HDL-2
Glucose (C) HDL-3 (D) HDLC
(D) Sphingol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid
414. Mitochondrial lipogenesis requires
405. The maximum number of double bonds (A) bicarbonate
present in essential fatty acid is
(B) biotin
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) acetyl CoA carboxylase
(C) 3 (D) 4 (D) NADPH
406. Cerebrosides are composed of 415. Fatty acids having chain length of 10
(A) Sphingosine, fatty acids, glycerol and carbon atoms enter the
phosphoric acid
(A) Portal ciruclation (B) Lacteals
(B) Sphingosine, fatty acids, galactose
(C) Systemic circulation (D) Colon
(C) Glycerol, fatty acids, galactose
(D) Glycerol, fatty acids, galactose, sphingol 416. A soluble system for synthesis of fatty
acids have been isolated from avian liver,
407. Acetoacetic acid and -OH butyric acid are required for the formation of long chain
formed as fatty acids by this system is
(A) Kidneys (B) Heart (A) ATP (B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Liver (D) Intestine (C) NADPH (D) All of these
408. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor? 417. Most animal tissues contain appreciable
(A) Lysine (B) Leucine amounts of lipid, when in the form of
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine depot fat it consists largely of
(A) Cholesterol ester (B) Phosphatides
409. The class of lipoproteins having a
beneficial effect in atherosclerosis is (C) Chylomicrons (D) Triacylglycerol

(A) Low density of lipoproteins 418. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is
(B) very low density lipoproteins (A) Oleic (B) Palmitic
(C) High density lipoproteins (C) Linoleic (D) Stearic
(D) Chylomicrons
98 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

419. The free fatty acids (FFA) of plasma: 425. In the type II (a) hyper lipoproteinemia
(A) metabolically inert there is increase in
(B) mainly bound to -lipoproteins (A) Chylomicron bond (B)
(C) stored in the fat (C) Pre beta (D)
(D) mainly bound to serum albumin 426. Normal fat content of liver is about _______
420. Adipose tissue which is a store house for gms %.
triacyl glycerol synthesis the same using (A) 5 (B) 8
(A) The glycerol released by hydrolysis of triacyl (C) 10 (D) 15
glycerol
427. Obesity is accumulation of _______ in the
(B) The glycerol-3-phosphate obtained in the body.
metabolism of glucose
(A) Water (B) NaCl
(C) 2-phosphoglycerate
(C) Fat (D) Proteins
(D) 3-phosphoglycerate
428. The first lipoprotein to be secreted by the
421. Increase in blood of this class of lipopro-
liver is
teins is beneficial to ward off coronary
heart disease: (A) VLDL (B) nascent VLDL
(A) HDL (B) LDL (C) LDL (D) IDL
(C) VLDL (D) IDL 429. This lipoprotein removes cholesterol from
the body
422. In the extra mitochondrial synthesis of
fatty acids, CO2 is utilized (A) HDL (B) VLDL
(A) To keep the system anaerobic and prevent (C) IDL (D) Chylomicrons
regeneration of acetyl CoA 430. When the stired triacylglycerol is lipolysed
(B) In the conversion of malonyl to CoA in the adipose tissue blood levels of _____
hydroxybutyryl CoA increased.
(C) In the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl (A) FFA only
CoA
(B) Glycerol only
(D) In the formation of acetyl CoA from 1 carbon
(C) Free fatty acids (FFA) and Glycerol
intermediates
(D) Triacyl glycero
423. Current concepts concerning the intestinal
absorption of triacylglycerols are that 431. All long chain fatty acids with even
number of carbon atoms are oxidized to
(A) They must be completely hydrolysed before a pool of _________ by -oxidation.
the constituent fatty acids can be absorbed
(A) CO2 (B) Propionic acid
(B) They are hydrolysed partially and the material
absorbed consists of free fatty acids, mono (C) Acetic acid (D) Acetyl CoA
and diacyl glycerols and unchanged triacyl 432. The level of free fatty acids in plasma is
glycerols increased by
(C) Fatty acids with less than 10 carbon atoms
(A) Insulin (B) Caffeine
are absorbed about equally via lymph and
via portal blood (C) Glucose (D) Niacin
(D) In the absence of bile the hydrolysis of triacyl 433. Cholesterol is excreted as such into
glycerols is absorbed ________.
424. Main metabolic end product of cholesterol: (A) Urine (B) Faeces
(A) Coprosterol (B) 5-pregnenolone (C) Bile (D) Tears
(C) Bile acid (D) Glycine
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 99

434. LCAT is 442. Cholesterol circulates in blood stream


chiefly as
(A) Lactose choline alamine transferse
(B) Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase (A) Free cholesterol
(C) Lecithin carnitine acyl transferase (B) Ester cholesterol
(D) Lanoleate carbamoyl acyl transferase (C) Low density lipoproteins
(D) Low density lipoproteins and high density
435. Cholesterol molecule has _______ carbon lipoproteins
atoms.
443. What is the sub cellular site for the -
(A) 27 (B) 21 oxidation of fatty acids?
(C) 15 (D) 12
(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria
436. A hydrocarbon formed in cholesterol (C) Lysosome (D) Cytosol
synthesis is
444. A diet containing this fat is helpful in
(A) Mevalonate (B) HMG CoA lowering the blood cholesterol level.
(C) Squalene (D) Zymosterol (A) Unsaturated (B) Saturated
437. While citrate is converted to isocitrate in (C) Vitamin enriched (D) Refined
the mitochondria, it is converted to _______ 445. Phospholipase A2 is an enzyme which
in the cytosol. removes a fatty acid residue from lecithin
(A) Acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate to form
(B) Acetyl CoA + malonyl CoA (A) Lecithin fragments
(C) Acetyl CoA + Pyruvate (B) Phosphotidic acid
(D) Acetyl CoA + acetoacetyl CoA (C) Glyceryl phosphate
(D) Lysolecithin
438. Avidin is antigonistic to
(A) Niacin (B) PABA 446. Pancreatic lipose is an enzyme which
hydrolyzes facts. It acts as a/an
(C) Biotin (D) Pantothenic acid
(A) peptidase (B) hydrolase
439. CTP is required for the synthesis of (C) carbohydrates (D) dehydrogenase
(A) Fatty acids (B) Proteins
447. This interferes with cholesterol absorption
(C) Phospholipids (D) Cholesterol
(A) Lipoprotein lipase
440. Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by the (B) Creatinase
action of (C) 7-dehydrocholesterol
(A) Phospholipase A1 (B) Phospholipase A2 (D) -sitosterol
(C) Phospholipase C (D) Phospholipase D
448. The carbon chain of fatty acids is shortened
441. Fatty acids can not be converted into by 2 carbon atoms at a time. This involves
carbohydrates in the body, as the successive reactions catalysed by 4-enzy-
following reaction is not possible: mes. These act the following order:

(A) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into (A) Acetyl CoA dehydrogenase, -OH acyl CoA
dehydrogenase, enoyl hydrase, thiolose
glucose
(B) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolase, enoyl
(B) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate to fructose-6-
hydrase, -OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase
phosphate
(C) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolose, enoyl
(C) Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate
hydrase, -OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase
(D) Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids (D) Enoyl hydrase, -OH acyl CoA dehydroge-
nase, acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolose,
100 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

449. Acyl carrier protein is involved in the 457. Very low density lipoproteins are relatively
synthesis of rich in
(A) protein (A) Cholesterol (B) Triacyl glycerol
(B) glycogen (C) Free fatty acids (D) Phospholipids
(C) fatty acid outside the mitochondria 458. Neutral fat is stored in
(D) fatty acid in the mitochondria (A) Liver (B) Pancreas
450. 1 molecule of palmitic acid on total (C) Adipose tissue (D) Brain
oxidation to CO2 will yield molecules of
459. A pathway that requires NADPH as a
ATP (as high energy bonds):
cofactor is
(A) 129 (B) 154
(A) Fatty acid oxidation
(C) 83 (D) 25
(B) Extra mitochondrial denovo fatty acid
451. HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of synthesis
(C) Ketone bodies formation
(A) Cholesterol, ketones and leucine
(D) Glycogenesis
(B) Cholesterol, fatty acid and Leucine
(C) Lysine, Lecuine and Isoleucine 460. The Committed step in the biosynthesis
(D) Ketones, Leucine and Lysine of cholesterol from acetyl CoA is
(A) Formation of acetoacetyl CoA from acetyl CoA
452. NADPH is produced when this enzyme
acts
(B) Formation of mevalonate from HMG CoA
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (C) Formation of HMG CoA from acetyl CoA and
(B) Malic enzyme acetoacetyl CoA
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase (D) Formation of squalene by squalene synthetase
(D) Malate dehydrogenase
461. In -Oxidation of fatty acids, which of the
453. As a result of each oxidation a long chain following are utilized as coenzymes?
fatty acid is cleaved to give (A) NAD+ and NADP+
(A) An acid with 3-carbon less and propionyl CoA (B) FADH2 and NADH + H+
(B) An acid with 2-carbon less and acetyl CoA (C) FAD and FMN
(C) An acid with 2-carbon less and acetyl CoA (D) FAD and NAD+
(D) An acid with 4 -carbon and butyryl CoA 462. The most important source of reducing
454. Liposomes are equivalents for FA synthesis on the liver
is
(A) Lipid bilayered (B) Water in the middle
(A) Glycolysis
(C) Carriers of drugs (D) All of these
(B) HMP-Shunt
455. Long chain fatty acyl CoA esters are (C) TCA cycle
transported across the mitochondrial (D) Uronic acid pathway
membrane by
463. All of the following tissue are capable of
(A) cAMP (B) Prostaglandin
using ketone bodies except
(C) Carnitine (D) Choline
(A) Brain (B) Renal cortex
456. The acetyl CoA formed on -oxidation of (C) R.B.C. (D) Cardiac muscle
all long chain fatty acids is metabolized
under normal circumstances to 464. The major source of cholesterol in arterial
smooth muscle cells is from
(A) CO2 and water (B) Cholesterol
(A) IDL (B) LDL
(C) Fatty acids (D) Ketone bodies
(C) HDL (D) Chylomicrons
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 101

465. Ketone bodies are synthesized from fatty 472. In synthesis of Triglyceride from -Glycero
acid oxidation products by which of the phosphate and acetyl CoA, the first
following organs? intermediate formed is
(A) Liver (B) Skeletal muscles (A) -diacyl glycerol (B) Acyl carnitine
(C) Kidney (D) Brain (C) Monoacyl glycerol (D) Phosphatidic acid
466. Chain elongation of fatty acids occurring 473. During each cycle of -oxidation of fatty
in mammalian liver takes place in which acid, all the following compounds are
of the following subcellular fractions of generated except
the cell?
(A) NADH (B) H2O
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosomes
(C) FAD (D) Acyl CoA
(C) Lysosomes (D) Microsomes
474. The energy yield from complete oxidation
467. Which of the following cofactors or their of products generated by second reaction
derivatives must be present for the
cycle of -oxidation of palmitoyl CoA will
conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA
be
extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis?
(A) 5 ATP (B) 12 ATP
(A) Biotin (B) FAD
(C) 17 ATP (D) 34 ATP
(C) FMN (D) ACP
475. -Oxidation of odd-carbon fatty acid
468. Which of the following statement regar-
chain produces
ding -oxidation is true?
(A) Requires -ketoacyl CoA as a substrate (A) Succinyl CoA (B) Propionyl CoA
(B) Forms CoA thioesters (C) Acetyl CoA (D) Malonyl CoA
(C) Requires GTP for its activity 476. Brown adipose tissue is characterized by
(D) Yields acetyl CoA as a product which of the following?

469. All statements regarding 3-OH-3 methyl (A) Present in large quantities in adult humans
glutaryl CoA are true except (B) Mitochondrial content higher than white
(A) It is formed in the cytoplasm adipose tissue
(B) Required in ketogenesis (C) Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly
coupled
(C) Involved in synthesis of Fatty acid
(D) Absent in hibernating animals
(D) An intermediate in cholesterol biosynthesis
477. Ketosis in partly ascribed to
470. Which of the following lipoproteins
would contribute to a measurement of (A) Over production and Glucose
plasma cholesterol in a normal individual (B) Under production of Glucose
following a 12 hr fast? (C) Increased carbohydrate utilization
(A) Chylomicrons (D) Increased fat utilization
(B) VLDL
478. The free fatty acids in blood are
(C) Both VLDL and LDL
(D) LDL (A) Stored in fat depots
(B) Mainly bound to -lipoproteins
471. All the following statements regarding
(C) Mainly bound to serum albumin
ketone bodies are true except
(D) Metabolically most inactive
(A) They may result from starvation
(B) They are formed in kidneys 479. Carnitine is synthesized from
(C) They include acetoacetic acid and acetone (A) Lysine (B) Serine
(D) They may be excreted in urine (C) Choline (D) Arginine
102 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

480. A metabolite which is common to path- the correct ordering of these particles from
ways of cholesterol biosynthesis from the lowest to the greatest density?
acetyl-CoA and cholecalciferol formation (A) LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicron
from cholesterol is
(B) Chylomicron, VLDL, IDL, LDL
(A) Zymosterol (C) VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicron
(B) Lumisterol (D) Chylomicron, IDL, VLDL, LDL
(C) Ergosterol
488. A compound normally used to conjugate
(D) 7 Dehydrocholesterol bile acids is
481. Acetyl CoA required for extra mitochondrial (A) Serine (B) Glycine
fatty acid synthesis is produced by (C) Glucoronic acid (D) Fatty acid
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
489. Which of the following lipoproteins
(B) Citrate lyase would contribute to a measurement of
(C) Thiolase plasma cholesterol in a normal person
(D) Carnitine-acyl transferase following a 12 hr fast?
(A) High density lipoprotiens
482. Biosynthesis of Triglyceride and Lecithine
both require an intermediate: (B) Low density lipoproteins
(C) Chylomicron
(A) Monoacyl glycerol phosphate
(D) Chylomicron remnants
(B) Phosphatidic acid
(C) Phosphatidyl ethanol amine 490. Which of the following products of
triacylglycerol breakdown and subsequent
(D) Phosphatidyl cytidylate
-Oxidation may undergo gluconeo-
483. The rage limiting step cholesterol biosyn- genesis?
thesis is (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Porpionyl CoA
(A) Squalene synthetase (C) All ketone bodies (D) Some amino acids
(B) Mevalonate kinase 491. Which of the following regulates lipolysis
(C) HMG CoA synthetase in adipocytes?
(D) HMG CoA reductase (A) Activation of fatty acid synthesis mediated by
484. All the following are constituents of CAMP
ganglioside molecule except (B) Glycerol phosphorylation to prevent futile
esterification of fatty acids
(A) Glycerol (B) Sialic acid
(C) Activation of triglyceride lipase as a result of
(C) Hexose sugar (D) Sphingosine hormone stimulated increases in CAMP levels
485. An alcoholic amine residue is present in
which of the following lipids? (D) Activation of CAMP production by Insulin
(A) Phosphatidic acid (B) Cholesterol 492. Which one of the following compounds is
(C) Sphingomyelin (D) Ganglioside a key intermediate in the synthesis of both
triacyl glycerols and phospholipids?
486. Sphingosine is the backbone of all the
(A) CDP Choline (B) Phosphatidase
following except
(C) Triacyl glyceride (D) Phosphatidyl serine
(A) Cerebroside (B) Ceramide
(C) Sphingomyelin (D) Lecithine 493. During each cycle of on going fatty acid
oxidation, all the following compounds
487. Chylomicron, intermediate density are generated except
lipoproteins (IDL), low density lipoproteins (A) H2O (B) Acetyl CoA
(LDL) and very low density lipoproteins
(C) Fatty acyl CoA (D) NADH
(VLDL) all are serum lipoproteins. What is
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 103

494. All the following statements describing 500. Mitochondrial -ketoglutarate dehydro-
lipids are true except genase complex requires all the follow-
(A) They usually associate by covalent interactions ing to function except
(A) CoA (B) FAD
(B) They are structurally components of (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+
membranes
501. Each of the following can be an inter-
(C) They are an intracellular energy source
mediate in the synthesis of phosphatidyl
(D) They are poorly soluble in H2O choline except
495. All the following statements correctly (A) Phosphatidyl inositol
describe ketone bodies except (B) CDP-choline
(A) They may result from starvation (C) Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
(B) They are present at high levels in uncontrolled (D) Diacylglycerol
diabetes
(C) They includeOH -butyrate and acetone 502. High iodine value of a lipid indicates
(D) They are utilized by the liver during long term (A) Polymerization (B) Carboxyl groups
starvation (C) Hydroxyl groups (D) Unsaturation
496. Which of the following features is 503. Cholesterol, bile salts, vitamin D and sex
predicted by the NicolsonSinger fluid hormones are
mosaic model of biological membranes?
(A) Mucolipids (B) Glycolipids
(A) Membrane lipids do not diffuse laterally (C) Phospholipids (D) Isoprenoid lipids
(B) Membrane lipid is primarily in a monolayer
form 504. Water soluble molecular aggregates of
lipids are known as
(C) Membrane lipids freely flip-flop
(D) Membrane proteins may diffuse laterally (A) Micelle (B) Colloids
(C) Sphingol (D) Mucin
497. Oxidative degradation of acetyl CoA in
the citric acid cycle gives a net yield of all 505. Hypoglycemia depresses insulin secretion
the following except and thus increases the rate of
(A) FADH2 (B) 3 NADH (A) Hydrolysis (B) Reduction
(C) 2 ATP (D) 2CO2 (C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Respiratory acidosis
498. All the following correctly describe the 506. The process of breakdown of glycogen to
intermediate 3-OH-3-methyl glutaryl CoA glucose in the liver and pyruvate and
except lacate in the muscle is known as
(A) It is generated enzymatically in the (A) Glyogenesis (B) Glycogenolysis
mitochondrial matrix (C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Cellular degradation
(B) It is formed in the cytoplasm
507. Across a membrane phospholipids act as
(C) It inhibits the first step in cholesterol synthesis
carrier of
(D) It is involved in the synthesis of ketone bodies
(A) Organic compounds
499. Intermediate in the denovo synthesis of (B) Inorganic ions
triacyl glycerols include all the following
(C) Nucleic acids
except
(D) Food materials
(A) Fatty acyl CoA
(B) CDP diacyl glycerol 508. Osteomalacia can be prevented by the
administration of calcium and a vitamin:
(C) Glycerol-3-phosphate
(D) Lysophosphatidic acid (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
104 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

509. Milk sugar is known as 519. The majority of absorbed fat appears in
(A) Fructose (B) Glucose the forms of
(C) Sucrose (D) Lactose (A) HDL (B) Chylomicrone
(C) VLDL (D) LDL
510. The Instrinisic Factor (HCl and mucopro-
teins) present in the gastric juice help in 520. Daily output of urea in grams is
the absorption of
(A) 10 to 20 (B) 15 to 25
(A) Vitamin B2 (B) Tocopherols (C) 20 to 30 (D) 35 to 45
(C) Folic acid (D) Vitmain B12
521. Uremia occurs in
511. Lipase can act only at pH:
(A) Cirrohsis of liver (B) Nephritis
(A) 2.54 (B) 3.55 (C) Diabetes mellitus (D) Coronary thrombosis
(C) 4 to 5 (D) 57
522. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed by
512. Bile is produced by
(A) CO (B) CO2
(A) Liver (B) Gall-bladder
(C) HCO3 (D) HCN
(C) Pancreas (D) Intestine
523. Methemoglobin is formed as a result of
513. Non-protein part of rhodopsin is the oxidation of haemoglobin by oxida-
(A) Retinal (B) Retinol tion agent:
(C) Carotene (D) Repsin (A) Oxygen of Air (B) H2O2
514. A pathway that requires NADPH as a co- (C) K4Fe(CN)6 (D) KMnO4
factor is
524. Methemoglobin can be reduced to haemo-
(A) Extramitochondrial folic acid synthesis globin by
(B) Ketone body formation (A) Removal of hydrogen
(C) Glycogenesis (B) Vitamin C
(D) Gluconeogenesis (C) Glutathione
515. LCAT activity is associated with which of (D) Creatinine
the lipo-protein complex?
525. Fats are solids at
(A) VLDL (B) Chylomicrones
(A) 10C (B) 20C
(C) IDL (D) HDL
(C) 30C (D) 40C
516. In
oxidation of fatty acids which of the
following are utilized as co-enzymes? 526. Esters of fatty acids with higher alcohol
other than glycerol are called as
(A) NAD+ and NADP+
(A) Oils (B) Polyesters
(B) FAD H2 and NADH + H+
(C) Waxes (D) Terpenoids
(C) FAD and FMN
(D) FAD and NAD+ 527. The main physiological buffer in the blood is
517. The lipoprotein with the fastest electro- (A) Haemoglobin buffer
phoretic mobility and lowest TG content (B) Acetate
are (C) Phosphate
(A) VLDL (B) LDL (D) Bicarbonate
(C) HDL (D) Chylomicrones
528. All of the following substances have been
518. The essential fatty acids retard used to estimate GFR except
(A) Atherosclerosis (B) Diabetes mellitus (A) Inulin (B) Creatinine
(C) Nepritis (D) Oedema (C) Phenol red (D) Mannitol
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 105

529. Relationship between GFR and seum 538. For the activity of amylase which of the
creatinine concentration is following is required as co-factor?
(A) Non-existent (B) Inverse (A) HCO3 (B) Na +
(C) Direct (D) Indirect (C) K + (D) Cl

530. Urine turbidity may be caused by any of 539. Which of the following hormone
the following except increases the absorption of glucose from
G.I.T?
(A) Phosphates (B) Protein
(A) Insulin (B) Throid hormones
(C) RBC (D) WBC
(C) Glucagon (D) FSH
531. Urine specific gravity of 1.054 indicates
540. Predominant form of storage:
(A) Excellent renal function
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Fats
(B) Inappropriate secretion of ADH
(C) Lipids (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) Extreme dehydration
(D) Presence of glucose or protein 541. Degradations of Hb takes place in
(A) Mitochondrion (B) Erythrocytes
532. In hemolytic jaundice, the urinary
bilirubin is (C) Cytosol of cell (D) R.E. cells

(A) Normal 542. Biluveridin is converted to bilirubin by the


(B) Absent process of
(C) More than normal (A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(D) Small amount is present (C) Conjugation (D) Decarboxylation

533. In obstructive jaundice, urinary bilirubin 543. Amylase present in saliva is


is (A) -Amylase (B) -Amylae
(A) Absent (C) -Amylase (D) All of these
(B) Increased 544. Phospholipids are important cell mem-
(C) Present brane components since
(D) Present in small amount (A) They have glycerol
534. In hemolytic jaundice, bilirubin in urine is (B) Form bilayers in water
(C) Have polar and non-polar portions
(A) Usually absent
(D) Combine covalently with proteins
(B) Usually present
(C) Increased very much 545. Which of the following is not a phospho-
(D) Very low lipids?
(A) Lecithin (B) Plasmalogen
535. The pH of gastric juice of infants is
(C) Lysolecithin (D) Gangliosides
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
546. A fatty acid which is not synthesized in
(C) 4.5 (D) 5.0
human body and has to be supplied in
536. The pH of blood is about 7.4 when the the diet is
ratio between (NaHCO3) and (H2CO3) is (A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic acid
(A) 10 : 1 (B) 20 : 1 (C) Linoleic acid (D) Stearic acid
(C) 25 : 1 (D) 30 : 1 547. Phospholipids occur in
537. The absorption of glucose is decreased by (A) Myelin sheath
the deficiency of (B) Stabilizes chylomicrans
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Erythrocyte membrane
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12 (D) All of these
106 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

548. Which of the following is not essential 553. Spermatozoa in seminal fluid utilises the
fatty acids? following sugar for metabolism:
(A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic acid (A) Galactose (B) Glucose
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) Linolenic acid (C) Sucrose (D) Fructose

549. The caloric value of lipids is 554. Depot fats of mammalian cells comprise
mostly of
(A) 6.0 Kcal/g (B) 9.0 Kcal/g
(A) Cholesterol (B) Phospholipid
(C) 15.0 Kcal/g (D) 12.0 Kcal/g
(C) Cerebrosides (D) Triglycerol
550. The maximum number of double bonds
555. When choline of lecithin is replaced by
present in essential fatty acid is ethanolamine, the product is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) Spingomyelin (B) Cephalin
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) Plasmalogens (D) Lysolecithin
551. Prostaglandin synfhesis is increased by 556. Which of the following is a hydroxyl fatty
activating phospholipases by acid?
(A) Mepacrine (B) Angiotensin II (A) Oleic Acid (B) Ricinoleic acid
(C) Glucocorticoids (D) Indomenthacin (C) Caproic acid (D) Arachidonic acid
552. Selwanofs test is positive in 557. Acroleic test is given by
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (A) Cholesterol (B) Glycerol
(C) Galactose (D) Mannose (C) Glycosides (D) Sphingol
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 107

ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. A
7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. D
19. C 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C
25. A 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. A 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. D 42. A
43. B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. B
49. C 50. C 51. A 52. B 53. D 54. B
55. C 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. D 60. C
61. A 62. A 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. A
67. A 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B
73. A 74. D 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. A
79. B 80. C 81. C 82. A 83. A 84. A
85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. D 90. C
91. D 92. B 93. A 94. D 95. B 96. A
97. B 98. D 99. A 100. A 101. C 102. B
103. A 104. B 105. C 106. C 107. B 108. A
109. B 110. C 111. D 112. A 113. A 114. A
115. D 116. A 117. A 118. D 119. C 120. D
121. D 122. A 123. A 124. D 125. B 126. A
127. B 128. A 129. B 130. C 131. B 132. C
133. C 134. B 135. D 136. A 137. C 138. C
139. C 140. B 141. B 142. B 143. C 144. D
145. B 146. D 147. C 148. B 149. A 150. A
151. A 152. A 153. C 154. B 155. D 156. D
157. D 158. D 159. D 160. C 161. B 162. B
163. D 164. C 165. D 166. B 167. D 168. B
169. C 170. A 171. D 172. C 173. A 174. B
175. B 176. C 177. D 178. B 179. B 180. C
181. C 182. B 183. C 184. D 185. D 186. D
187. C 188. B 189. D 190. B 191. C 192. D
193. C 194. C 195. A 196. D 197. B 198. D
199. A 200. C 201. A 202. D 203. C 204. B
205. D 206. A 207. D 208. A 209. C 210. C
211. B 212. A 213. C 214. D 215. D 216. C
217. C 218. D 219. A 220. C 221. D 222. C
223. D 224. D 225. B 226. D 227. D 228. A
229. D 230. B 231. A 232. A 233. D 234. B
235. C 236. C 237. D 238. C 239. B 240. D
241. B 242. D 243. A 244. C 245. C 246. A
108 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

247. C 248. C 249. A 250. A 251. C 252. A


253. A 254. B 255. C 256. A 257. C 258. A
259. A 260. A 261. B 262. A 263. C 264. A
265. D 266. A 267. D 268. C 269. C 270. C
271. A 272. C 273. C 274. A 275. A 276. A
277. D 278. C 279. A 280. A 281. D 282. C
283. B 284. C 285. A 286. C 287. A 288. C
289. A 290. D 291. C 292. B 293. C 294. B
295. C 296. B 297. B 298. C 299. B 300. A
301. B 302. C 303. B 304. C 305. C 306. A
307. A 308. B 309. D 310. D 311. D 312. A
313. C 314. A 315. D 316. A 317. C 318. B
319. D 320. A 321. B 322. C 323. D 324. C
325. B 326. A 327. B 328. C 329. B 330. C
331. A 332. C 333. A 334. A 335. A 336. D
337. B 338. A 339. A 340. B 341. C 342. C
343. A 344. D 345. D 346. D 347. A 348. C
349. D 350. B 351. A 352. B 353. D 354. B
355. C 356. C 357. A 358. D 359. C 360. B
361. A 362. C 363. D 364. B 365. A 366. D
367. A 368. D 369. C 370. D 371. C 372. D
373. B 374. B 375. D 376. C 377. A 378. C
379. A 380. B 381. D 382. B 383. A 384. A
385. A 386. A 387. A 388. C 389. B 390. B
391. B 392. D 393. C 394. D 395. C 396. B
397. D 398. C 399. A 400. C 401. B 402. D
403. C 404. B 405. D 406. B 407. C 408. D
409. C 410. C 411. C 412. B 413. B 414. D
415. A 416. D 417. D 418. C 419. D 420. B
421. A 422. C 423. B 424. C 425. B 426. A
427. C 428. B 429. A 430. C 431. D 432. B
433. C 434. B 435. A 436. C 437. A 438. C
439. C 440. B 441. C 442. D 443. B 444. A
445. D 446. B 447. D 448. B 449. C 450. A
451. A 452. B 453. B 454. D 455. C 456. A
457. B 458. C 459. B 460. B 461. D 462. B
463. C 464. B 465. A 466. D 467. A 468. A
469. B 470. D 471. B 472. D 473. B 474. D
475. D 476. B 477. D 478. C 479. A 480. D
481. B 482. B 483. D 484. A 485. C 486. D
487. B 488. B 489. A 490. B 491. C 492. B
493. A 494. A 495. D 496. D 497. C 498. C
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 109

499. B 500. D 501. A 502. D 503. D 504. A


505. C 506. B 507. B 508. D 509. D 510. D
511. D 512. A 513. A 514. A 515. D 516. D
517. C 518. A 519. B 520. C 521. B 522. A
523. C 524. B 525. B 526. C 527. D 528. C
529. B 530. B 531. D 532. C 533. B 534. A
535. D 536. B 537. C 538. D 539. B 540. D
541. D 542. B 543. A 544. C 545. D 546. C
547. D 548. A 549. B 550. C 551. B 552. B
553. D 554. D 555. B 556. B 557. B
110 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS


5. D The fatty acids that cannot be synthesized by 285. A Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene (CPPP), it
the body and therefore should be supplied consists of a phenanthrene nucleus to which a
through the diet are referred to as essential fatty cyclopentene ring is attached.
acids (EFA). Linoleic acid and linolenic acid are
345. D Cholesterol is an animal sterol with a molecular
essential. Some workers regard arachidonic
acid as an EFA although it can be synthesized formula C27H46O. it has one hydroxyl group at
from linoleic acid. C3 and a double bond between C5 and C6. An
8 carbon aliphatic side chain is attached to
61. A Phrynoderma (toad skin) is an essential fatty acid
C17, Cholesterol contains of total 5 methyl
deficiency disorder. It is characterized by the
presence of horny eruptions on the posterior and groups.
the lateral parts of the limbs, on the back and 398. C The lipids which possess both hydrophobic and
buttocks. hydrophilic groups are known as amphipathic
120. D The hydrolysis of triacylglycerols by alkali to lipids (Greek: amphi- both; pathos- passion).
produce glycerol and soaps is known as 454. D Liposomes have an intermittent aqueous phase
saponification. in lipid bilayer. They are produced when
173. A Reichert-Meissl number is defined as the number amphipathic lipids in aqueous medium are
of moles of 0.1 N KOH required to completely subjected to sonification. Liposomes are used
neutralize the soluble volatile fatty acids distilled as carriers of drugs to target tissues.
from 5 g fat. 540. D Fats (triacyglycerols) are the most predominant
231. A Sphingomyelins (sphingophospholipids) are a storage form of energy, since they are highly
group of phospholipids containing sphingosine concentrated form of energy (9 Cal/g) and can
as the alcohol (in place of glycerol in other be stored in an anhydrous form (no association
phospholipids). with water).
VITAMINS 111

CHAPTER 5

VITAMINS
ITAMINS

1. Vitamins are 6. Retinol and retinal are interconverted


(A) Accessory food factors requiring dehydrogenase or reductase in
(B) Generally synthesized in the body the presence of
(C) Produced in endocrine glands (A) NAD or NADP (B) NADH + H+
(D) Proteins in nature (C) NADPH (D) FAD

2. Vitamin A or retinal is a 7. Fat soluble vitamins are


(A) Steroid (A) Soluble in alcohol
(B) Polyisoprenoid compound containing a (B) one or more Propene units
cyclohexenyl ring (C) Stored in liver
(C) Benzoquinone derivative (D) All these
(D) 6-Hydroxychromane
8. The international unit of vitamin A is
3. -Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is equivalent to the activity caused by
oxidatively cleaved by
(A) 0.3 g of Vitamin A alcohol
(A) -Carotene dioxygenase
(B) 0.344 g of Vitamin A alcohol
(B) Oxygenase
(C) 0.6 g of Vitamin A alcohol
(C) Hydroxylase
(D) 1.0 g of Vitamin A alcohol
(D) Transferase
9. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at tempera-
4. Retinal is reduced to retinol in intestinal
mucosa by a specific retinaldehyde ture below
reductase utilising (A) 10C (B) 20C
(A) NADPH + H +
(B) FAD (C) 40C (D) 50C
(C) NAD (D) NADH + H+
10. Retinol is transported in blood bound to
5. Preformed Vitamin A is supplied by (A) Aporetinol binding protein
(A) Milk, fat and liver (B) 2-Globulin
(B) All yellow vegetables (C) -Globulin
(C) All yellow fruits (D) Albumin
(D) Leafy green vegetables
112 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

11. The normal serum concentration of 20. Vitamin D absorption is increased in


vitamin A in mg/100 ml is (A) Acid pH of intestine
(A) 510 (B) 1560 (B) Alkaline pH of intestine
(C) 100150 (D) 05 (C) Impaired fat absorption
(D) Contents of diet
12. One manifestation of vitamin A deficiency
is 21. The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is
(A) Painful joints (A) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) Night blindness (B) 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
(C) Loss of hair (C) 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
(D) Thickening of long bones (D) 7-Dehydrocholesterol

13. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes 22. The normal serum concentration of


25-hydroxycholecalciferol in ng/ml is
(A) Xeropthalmia
(B) Hypoprothrombinemia (A) 08 (B) 60100
(C) Megaloblastic anemia (C) 100150 (D) 855
(D) Pernicious anemia 23. The normal serum concentration of 1,25-
dihydroxycholecalciferol in pg/ml is
14. An important function of vitamin A is
(A) 2665 (B) 15
(A) To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes
(C) 520 (D) 80100
(B) To play an integral role in protein synthesis
(C) To prevent hemorrhages 24. The normal serum concentration of 24,25-
dihydroxycholecalciferol in ng/ml is
(D) To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue

15. Retinal is a component of (A) 820 (B) 2550


(A) Iodopsin (B) Rhodopsin (C) 15 (D) 60100
(C) Cardiolipin (D) Glycoproteins 25. A poor source of Vitamin D is
16. Retinoic acid participates in the synthesis (A) Egg (B) Butter
of (C) Milk (D) Liver
(A) Iodopsin (B) Rhodopsin 26. Richest source of Vitamin D is
(C) Glycoprotein (D) Cardiolipin
(A) Fish liver oils (B) Margarine
17. On exposure to light rhodopsin forms (C) Egg yolk (D) Butter
(A) All trans-retinal (B) Cis-retinal 27. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
(C) Retinol (D) Retinoic acid (A) Ricket and osteomalacia
18. Carr-Price reaction is used to detect (B) Tuberculosis of bone
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Hypthyroidism
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Vitamin E (D) Skin cancer

19. The structure shown below is of 28. One international unit (I.U) of vitamin D
is defined as the biological activity of
(A) Cholecalciferol
(A) 0.025 g of cholecalciferol
(B) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) 0.025 g of 7-dehydrocholecalciferol
(C) Ergocalciferol
(C) 0.025 g of ergosterol
(D) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
(D) 0.025 g of ergocalciferol
VITAMINS 113

29. The -ring of 7-dehydrocholesterol is 38. All the following conditions produce a real
cleaved to form cholecalciferol by or functional deficiency of vitamin K
except
(A) Infrared light
(B) Dim light (A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic
therapy
(C) Ultraviolet irridation with sunlight
(B) Total lack of red meat in the diet
(D) Light of the tube lights
(C) The total lack of green leafy vegetables in
30. Calcitriol synthesis involves the diet
(A) Both liver and kidney (D) Being a new born infant
(B) Intestine 39. Vitamin K is found in
(C) Adipose tissue (A) Green leafy plants (B) Meat
(D) Muscle (C) Fish (D) Milk
31. Insignificant amount of Vitamin E is 40. Function of Vitamin A:
present in
(A) Healing epithelial tissues
(A) Wheat germ oil (B) Sunflower seed oil
(B) Protein synthesis regulation
(C) Safflower seed oil (D) Fish liver oil (C) Cell growth
32. The activity of tocopherols is destroyed (D) All of these
by
41. Vitamin K2 was originally isolated from
(A) Commercial cooking
(A) Soyabean (B) Wheat gram
(B) Reduction
(C) Alfa Alfa (D) Putrid fish meal
(C) Conjugation
(D) All of these 42. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the
intestine is
33. The requirement of vitamin E is increased (A) A (B) C
with greater intake of
(C) D (D) K
(A) Carbohydrates
43. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational
(B) Proteins
modification of the blood clotting factors
(C) Polyunsaturated fat by acting as cofactor for the enzyme:
(D) Saturated fat
(A) Carboxylase (B) Decarboxylase
34. Vitamin E reduces the requirement of (C) Hydroxylase (D) Oxidase
(A) Iron (B) Zinc 44. Vitamin K is a cofactor for
(C) Selenium (D) Magnesium
(A) Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid
35. The most important natural antioxidant residue
is (B) -Oxidation of fatty acid
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin E (C) Formation of -amino butyrate
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) Vitamin K (D) Synthesis of tryptophan

36. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of 45. Hypervitaminosis K in neonates may


cause
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(A) Porphyria (B) Jaundice
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
(C) Pellagra (D) Prolonged bleeding
37. Creatinuria is caused due to the deficiency
46. Dicoumarol is antagonist to
of vitamin
(A) Riboflavin (B) Retinol
(A) A (B) K
(C) Menadione (D) Tocopherol
(C) E (D) D
114 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

47. In the individuals who are given liberal 56. Both Wernickes disease and beriberi can
quantities of vitamin C, the serum ascorbic be reversed by administrating
acid level is (A) Retinol (B) Thiamin
(A) 11.4 g/100 ml (C) Pyridoxine (D) Vitamin B12
(B) 24 g/100 ml
57. The Vitamin B1 deficiency causes
(C) 110 g/100 ml
(A) Ricket (B) Nyctalopia
(D) 1020 g/100 ml
(C) Beriberi (D) Pellagra
48. The vitamin which would most likely
become deficient in an individual who 58. Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic
develop a completely carnivorous life acid in blood is increased due to deficiency
style is of the vitamin

(A) Thiamin (B) Niacin (A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin


(C) Niacin (D) Pantothenic acid
(C) Vitamin C (D) Cobalamin
59. Vitamin B1 coenzyme (TPP) is involved in
49. In human body highest concentration of
ascorbic acid is found in (A) Oxidative decarboxylation
(A) Liver (B) Adrenal cortex (B) Hydroxylation
(C) Adrenal medulla (D) Spleen (C) Transamination
(D) Carboxylation
50. The vitamin required for the formation of
hydroxyproline (in collagen) is 60. Increased glucose consumption increases
the dietary requirement for
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E (A) Pyridoxine (B) Niacin
(C) Biotin (D) Thiamin
51. Vitamin required for the conversion of p-
hydroxyphenylpyruvate to homo- 61. Thiamin is oxidized to thiochrome in
gentisate is alkaline solution by
(A) Folacin (B) Cobalamin (A) Potassium permanganate
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin (B) Potassium ferricyanide
(C) Potassium chlorate
52. Vitamin required in conversion of folic
(D) Potassium dichromate
acid to folinic acid is
(A) Biotin (B) Cobalamin 62. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in the reaction
catalysed by the enzyme
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin
(A) Acyl CoA synthetase
53. Ascorbic acid can reduce (B) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
(A) 2, 6-Dibromobenzene (C) -Hydroxy acyl CoA
(B) 2, 6-Diiodoxypyridine (D) Enoyl CoA dehydrogenase
(C) 2, 6-Dichlorophenol indophenol
63. The daily requirement of riboflavin for
(D) 2, 4-Dinitrobenzene adult in mg is
54. Sterilised milk lacks in (A) 01.0 (B) 1.21.7
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) 2.03.5 (D) 4.08.0
(C) Vitamin C (D) Thiamin 64. In new born infants phototherapy may
55. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of cause hyperbilirubinemia with deficiency
of
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Pantothenic acid
VITAMINS 115

65. Riboflavin deficiency causes 75. Pellagra occurs in population dependent


(A) Cheilosis on
(B) Loss of weight (A) Wheat (B) Rice
(C) Mental deterioration (C) Maize (D) Milk
(D) Dermatitis 76. The enzymes with which nicotinamide act
66. Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency as coenzyme are
of the vitamin (A) Dehydrogenases (B) Transaminases
(A) Riboflavin (B) Thiamin (C) Decarboxylases (D) Carboxylases
(C) Nicotinic acid (D) Pyridoxine 77. Dietary requirement of Vitamin D:
67. Corneal vascularisation is found in defi- (A) 400 I.U. (B) 1000 I.U.
ciency of the vitamin: (C) 6000 I.U. (D) 700 I.U.
(A) B1 (B) B2
78. The Vitamin which does not contain a ring
(C) B3 (D) B6
in the structure is
68. The pellagra preventive factor is (A) Pantothenic acid (B) Vitamin D
(A) Riboflavin (B) Pantothenic acid (C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamin
(C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
79. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the
69. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency coenzyme involved in
of (A) Decarboxylation (B) Dehydrogenation
(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Pantothenic acid (C) Acetylation (D) Oxidation
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Niacin
80. The precursor of CoA is
70. Niacin or nicotinic acid is a monocarbox- (A) Riboflavin (B) Pyridoxamine
ylic acid derivative of
(C) Thiamin (D) Pantothenate
(A) Pyridine (B) Pyrimidine
81. Burning foot syndrome has been
(C) Flavin (D) Adenine
ascribed to the deficiency of
71. Niacin is synthesized in the body from (A) Pantothenic acid (B) Thiamin
(A) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine (C) Cobalamin (D) Pyridoxine
(C) Glutamate (D) Aspartate
82. Pyridoxal phosphate is central to
72. The proteins present in maize are deficient
(A) Deamination (B) Amidation
in
(C) Carboxylation (D) Transamination
(A) Lysine (B) Threonine
(C) Tryptophan (D) Tyrosine 83. The vitamin required as coenzyme for the
action of transaminases is
73. Niacin is present in maize in the form of
(A) Niacin
(A) Niatin (B) Nicotin (B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Niacytin (D) Nicyn (C) Pyridoxal phosphate
74. In the body 1 mg of niacin can be (D) Riboflavin
produced from
84. Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during
(A) 60 mg of pyridoxine therapy with
(B) 60 mg of tryptophan
(A) Isoniazid (B) Terramycin
(C) 30 mg of tryptophan
(C) Sulpha drugs (D) Aspirin
(D) 30 mg of pantothenic acid
116 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

85. Deficiency of vitamin B6 may occur in 93. The cofactor or its derivative required for
the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl-
(A) Obese person (B) Thin person
CoA is
(C) Alcoholics (D) Diabetics
(A) FAD (B) ACP
86. Xanthurenic acid index is a reliable (C) NAD+ (D) Biotin
criterion for the deficiency of the vitamin
94. A cofactor required in oxidative decarbox-
(A) Pyridoxal (B) Thiamin ylation of pyruvate is
(C) Pantothenic acid (D) Cobalamin (A) Lipoate
87. Epileptiform convulsion in human infants (B) Pantothenic acid
have been attributed to the deficiency of (C) Biotin
the vitamin (D) Para aminobenzoic acid
(A) B1 (B) B2 95. The central structure of B12 referred to as
(C) B6 (D) B 12 corrin ring system consists of
(A) Cobalt (B) Manganese
88. Biotin is a coenzyme of the enzyme
(C) Magnesium (D) Iron
(A) Carboxylase (B) Hydroxylase
(C) Decarboxylase (D) Deaminase 96. The central heavy metal cobalt of vitamin
B12 is coordinately bound to
89. The coenzyme required for conversion of (A) Cyanide group (B) Amino group
pyruvate to oxaloacetate is (C) Carboxyl group (D) Sulphide group
(A) FAD (B) NAD
97. Vitamin B12 has a complex ring structure
(C) TPP (D) Biotin (corrin ring) consisting of four
90. In biotin-containing enzymes, the biotin (A) Purine rings (B) Pyrimidine rings
is bound to the enzyme by (C) Pyrrole rings (D) Pteridine rings
(A) An amide linkage to carboxyl group of 98. Emperical formula of cobalamin is
glutamine
(A) C63H 88N 12O14P.CO
(B) A covalent bond with CO2 (B) C61H 82N 12O12P.CO
(C) An amide linkage to an amino group of lysine (C) C61H 88N 12O14P.CO
(D) An amide linkage to -carboxyl group of (D) C63H 88N 14O14P.CO
protein
99. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes
91. A molecule of CO2 is captured by biotin (A) Beri-Beri
when it acts as coenzyme for carboxyla-
(B) Scurvy
tion reaction. The carboxyl group is co-
(C) Perniciuos anemia
valently attached to
(D) Ricket
(A) A nitrogen (N1) of the biotin molecule
(B) Sulphur of thiophene ring 100. Vitamin B12 deficiency can be diagnosed
by urinary excretion of
(C) -Amino group of lysine
(A) Pyruvate (B) Methylmalonate
(D) -Amino group of protein
(C) Malate (D) Lactate
92. Consumption of raw eggs can cause
deficiency of 101. Subacute combined degeneration of cord
is caused due to deficiency of
(A) Biotin (B) Pantothenic acid
(A) Niacin (B) Cobalamin
(C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamin
(C) Biotin (D) Thiamin
VITAMINS 117

102. Vitamin required for metabolism of diols 110. Thiamin deficiency includes
e.g. conversion of ethylene glycol to (A) Mental depression (B) Fatigue
acetaldehyde is
(C) Beriberi (D) All of these
(A) Thiamin (B) Cobalamin
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Folic acid 111. Thiamin diphosphate is required for
oxidative decarboxylation of
103. Both folic acid and methyl cobalamin
(A) -Keto acids (B) -Amino acids
(vitamin B12) are required in
(C) Fatty acids (D) All of these
(A) Deamination of serine
(B) Deamination of threonine 112. Loss of thiamin can be decreased by using
(C) Conversion of pyridoxal phosphate to (A) Unpolished rice
pyridoxamine phosphate (B) Parboiled rice
(D) Methylation of homocystein to methionine (C) Whole wheat flour
104. Folic acid or folate consists of the (D) All of these
(A) Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and 113 . Daily requirement of thiamin is
asparate (A) 0.1 mg/1,000 Calories
(B) Base purine, p-amino benzoic acid and (B) 0.5 mg/1,000 Calories
glutamate
(C) 0.8 mg/1,000 Calories
(C) Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and
(D) 1.0 mg/1,000 Calories
glutamate
(D) Base purine, p-hydroxy benzoic acid and 114. Thiamin requirement is greater in
glutamate (A) Non-vegetarians
105. Folate as a coenzyme is involved in the (B) Alcoholics
transfer and utilization of (C) Pregnant women
(A) Amino group (D) Both B and C
(B) Hydroxyl group
115. People consuming polished rice as their
(C) Single carbon moiety staple food are prone to
(D) Amido group
(A) Beriberi (B) Pellagra
106. Folic acid deficiency can be diagnosed by (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
increased urinary excretion of
116. Riboflavin is heat stable in
(A) Methylmalonate (B) Figlu
(A) Acidic medium (B) Alkaline medium
(C) Cystathionine (D) Creatinine
(C) Neutral medium (D) Both (A) and (C)
107. Sulpha drugs interfere with bacterial
synthesis of 117. FAD is a coenzyme for
(A) Lipoate (B) Vitamin E (A) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Tetrahydrofolate (D) Ascorbic acid (B) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(C) Sphingosine reductase
108. Folate deficiency causes
(D) All of these
(A) Microcytic anemia
(B) Hemolytic anemia 118. Riboflavin deficiency can cause
(C) Iron deficiency anemia (A) Peripheral neuritis (B) Diarrhoea
(D) Megaloblastic anemia (C) Angular stomatitis (D) None of these

109. Thiamin is heat stable in 119. Pellagra preventing factor is


(A) Acidic medium (B) Alkaline medium (A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
118 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

120. Niacin contains a 130. Sulphydryl group of coenzyme a is contri-


(A) Sulphydryl group (B) Carboxyl group buted by
(C) Amide group (D) All of these (A) -Alanine
121. NADP is required as a coenzyme in (B) -Aminoisobutyric acid
(A) Glycolysis (B) Citric acid cycle (C) Methionine
(C) HMP shunt (D) Gluconeogenesis (D) Thioethanolamine

122. NAD is required as a coenzyme for 131. Coenzyme A contains a nitrogenous base
which is
(A) Malate dehydrogenase
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase (A) Adenine (B) Guanine
(C) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (C) Choline (D) Ethanolamine
(D) HMG CoA reductae 132. The following is required for the formation
123. NAD is required as a conenzyme in of coenyzme A:
(A) Citric acid cycle (A) ATP (B) GTP
(B) HMP shunt (C) CTP (D) None of these
(C) -Oxidation of fatty acids
133. Coenzyme A is required for catabolism of
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine
124. Niacin can be synthesised in human
(C) Valine (D) All of these
beings from
(A) Histidine (B) Phenylalanine 134. Deficiency of pantothenic acid in human
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan beings can affect
(A) Nervous system (B) Digestive system
125. Daily requirement of niacin is
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg
(C) 20 mg (D) 30 mg 135. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for
126. Niacin deficiency is common in people (A) Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase
whose staple food is (B) Glutamate pyruvate transaminase
(A) Wheat (C) Tyrosine transaminase
(B) Polished rice (D) All of these
(C) Maize and /or sorghum
136. Pyridoxal phosphate is required as a
(D) None of these
coenzyme in
127. In pellagra, dermatitis usually affects (A) Transamination (B) Transulphuration
(A) Exposed parts of body (C) Desulphydration (D) All of these
(B) Covered parts of body
137. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for
(C) Trunk only
(D) All parts of the body (A) Glycogen synthetase
(B) Phosphorylase
128. Niacin deficiency can occur in
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Hartnup disease (B) Phenylketonuria
(D) None of these
(C) Alkaptonuria (D) None of these
138. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed
129. Pantothenic acid contains an amino acid
by measuring urinary excretion of
which is
(A) Pyruvic acid (B) Oxaloacetic acid
(A) Aspartic acid (B) Glutamic acid
(C) Xanthurenic acid (D) None of these
(C) -Alanine (D) -Aminoisobutyric acid
VITAMINS 119

139. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed 147. Folic acid contains


by measuring the urinary excretion of (A) Pteridine
xanthurenic acid following a test dose of
(B) p-Amino benzoic acid
(A) Glycine (B) Histidine (C) Glutamic acid
(C) Tryptophan (D) Pyridoxine (D) All of these
140. Pyridoxine requirement depends upon 148. Conversion of folate into tetrahydrofolate
the intake of requires
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (A) NADH (B) NADPH
(C) Fats (D) None of these (C) FMNH2 (D) FADH2
141. Anti-egg white injury factor is 149. Riboflavin deficiency symptoms are
(A) Pyridoxine (B) Biton (A) Glossitis (B) stomatis
(C) Thiamin (D) Liponic acid (C) Vomitting (D) Both (A) and (B)

142. When eggs are cooked 150. Vitamin B12 forms coenzymes known as
(A) Biotin is destroyed but avidin remains (A) Cobamide (B) Transcobalamin I
unaffected (C) Transcobalamin II (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Avidin is inactivated but biotin remains 151. Methylcobalamin is required for forma-
unaffected tion of
(C) Both avidin and biotin are inactivated (A) Serin from glycine
(D) Both avidin and biotin remain unaffected (B) Glycine from serine
143. Biotin is required as a coenzyme by (C) Methionine from homocysteine
(D) All of these
(A) Anaerobic dehydrogenases
(B) Decarboxylases 152. Absorption of Vitamin B12 requires the
presence of
(C) Aerobic dehydrogenases
(A) Pepsin (B) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Carboxylases
(C) Intrinsic factor (D) Boh (B) and (C)
144. Biotin is a coenzyme for
153. Intrinsic factor is chemically a
(A) Pyruvate carboxylase
(A) Protein
(B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
(B) Glycoprotein
(C) Propionyl CoA carboxylase
(C) Mucopolysaccaride
(D) All of these
(D) Peptide
145. Lipoic acid is a conenzyme for 154. Chemically, Extrinsic Factor of Castle is a
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (A) Mucoprotein
(B) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenae (B) Glycoprotein
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Mucopolysaccharide
(D) None of these (D) Cyanocobalaminm
146. Chemically, lipoic acid is 155. Vitamin B12 is
(A) Saturated fatty acid (A) Not stored in the body
(B) Unsaturated fatty acid (B) Stored in bone marrow
(C) Amino acid (C) Stored in liver
(D) Sulphur containing fatty acid (D) Stored in RE cells
120 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

156. Vitamin B12 is transported in blood by 165. Deficiency of vitamin C causes


(A) Albumin (B) Transcortin (A) Beriberi
(C) Transcobalamin I (D) Transcobalamin II (B) Pellagra
(C) Pernicious anaemia
157. Vitamin B12 is synthesized by
(D) Scurvy
(A) Bacteria only (B) Plants only
(C) Animals only (D) Both (A) and (C) 166. An early diagnosis of vitamin C deficiency
can be made by
158. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because
(A) Measuring plasma ascorbic acid
of
(B) Measuring urinary ascorbic acid
(A) Decreased intake of vitamin B12
(C) Ascorbic acid saturation test
(B) Atrophy of gastric mucosa
(D) All of these
(C) Intestinal malabsorption
(D) All of these 167. Daily requirement of vitamin C in adults
is about
159. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can be diagonised
(A) 100 mg (B) 25 mg
by
(C) 70 mg (D) 100 mg
(A) Carr-Price reaction
(B) Ames assay 168. The vitamin having the highest daily
requirement among the following is
(C) Watson-Schwartz test
(D) Schilling test (A) Thiamin (B) Ribovflavin
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Ascorbic acid
160. Gastyrectomy leads to megaloblastic
anaemia within a few 169. Anaemia can occur due to the deficiency
of all the following except
(A) Days (B) Weeks
(C) Months (D) Years (A) Thiamin (B) Pyridoxine
(C) Folic acid (D) Cyanocobalamin
161. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesise all
of the following except 170. A vitamin which can be synthesized by
human beings is
(A) Collagen (B) Bile acids
(C) Bile pigments (D) Epinephrine (A) Thiamin (B) Niacin
(C) Folic acid (D) Cyanocobalamin
162. Vitamin C enhances the intestinal
absorption of 171. Laboratory diagnosis of vitamin B 12
(A) Potassium (B) Iodine deficiency can be made by measuring the
urinary excretion of
(C) Iron (D) None of these
(A) Xanthurenic acid
163. Vitamin C activity is present in
(B) Formiminoglutamic acid
(A) D-Ascorbic acid (C) Methylmalonic acid
(B) D-Dehydroascorbic acid (D) Homogentisic acid
(C) L-Ascorbic acid
(D) Both A and B 172. The molecule of vitamin A1 contains
(A) Benzene ring (B) -Ionone ring
164. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of
(C) -Carotene ring (D) None of these
(A) Bile acids from cholesterol
(B) Bile salts from bile acids 173. Precursor of Vitamin A is
(C) Vitamin D from cholesterol (A) -Carotene (B) -Carotene
(D) All of these (C) -Carotene (D) All of these
VITAMINS 121

174. Two molecules of vitamin A can be formed 183. Retinol isomerase is present in
from 1 molecule of (A) Retina (B) Liver
(A) -Carotene (B) -Carotene (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) -Carotene (D) All of these
184. Anti-oxidant activity is present in
175. Conversion of -carotene into retinal (A) -Carotene (B) Retinol
requires the presence of (C) Retinoic acid (D) All of these
(A) -Carotene dioxygenase
185. One international Unit of vitamin A is the
(B) Bile salts activity present in
(C) Molecular oxygen
(A) 0.3 g of -Carotene
(D) All of these
(B) 0.3 g of retinol
176. Conversion of retinal into ritonal requires (C) 0.6 g of retinoic acid
the presence of (D) All of these
(A) NADH (B) NADPH 186. Daily requirement of vitamin A in an adult
(C) FADH2 (D) Lipoic acid man can be expressed as
177. Retinal is converted into retinoic acid in (A) 400 IU (B) 1,000 IU
the presence of (C) 5,000 IU (D) 10,000 IU
(A) Retinal oxidase (B) Retinal carboxylase 187. Vitamin B6 includes
(C) Retinene reductase(D) Spontaneously (A) Pyridoxal (B) Pyridoxamine
178. Vitamin A absorbed in intestine is (C) Pyridoxine (D) All of these
released into 188. An early effect of vitamin a deficiency is
(A) Portal circulation (B) Lacteals (A) Xerophthalmia
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (B) Keratomalacia
179. Vitamin A is stored in the body in (C) Prolonged dark adaptation time
(D) Follicular hyperkeratosis
(A) Liver
(B) Adipose tissue 189. Nyctalopia is
(C) Reticuloendothelial cells (A) Drying of eyes
(D) All of these (B) Destruction of cornea
(C) Blindness
180. Rhodopsin contains opsin and
(D) Inability to see in dimlight
(A) 11-cis-retinal (B) 11-trans-retinal
(C) All-cis-retinal (D) All trans-retinal 190. Rod cells possess a trans-membrane
protein which is
181. When light falls on rod cells
(A) Adenylate cyclase (B) Transducin
(A) All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal (C) Rhodopsin (D) B as well as C
(B) 11-cis-retinal is converted into 11-trans-retinal
191. Provitamins A include
(C) 11-trans-retinal is converted into all-trans-
retinal (A) Retinal (B) Retionic acid
(C) Carotenes (D) All of these
(D) 11-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal
192. Retinoic acid can
182. Conversion of all-trans-retinal into all-
trans-retinol requires (A) Act as a photo receptor
(A) NAD (B) NADH (B) Support growth and differentiation
(C) Act as an anti-oxidant
(C) NADP (D) NADPH
(D) None of these
122 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

193. Prosthetic group in cone cell phototrecep- 202. Calcitriol inhibits the conversion of
tors is
(A) Cholesterol into 7-dehydrocholesterol
(A) Iodine (B) Opsin (B) Cholecalciferol into 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) 11-cis-retinal (D) all-trans-retinal (C) Cholecalciferol into 25-hydroxycholecalcifer-
194. Retinoic acid is involved in the synthesis ol
of (D) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol into 1,25- dihydrox-
(A) Rhodopsin (B) Iodopsin ycholecalciferol
(C) Porphyrinopsin (D) Glycoproteins 203. Bowlegs and knock-knees can occur in
195 Transducin is a (A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia
(A) Signal transducer (B) Stimulatory G-protein (C) Both A and B (D) Hypervitaminosis D
(C) Trimer (D) All of these 204. Calcification of soft tissues can occur in
196. Provitamin D3 is (A) Osteomalacia
(A) Cholecalciferol (B) Rickets
(B) Ergosterol (C) Hypervitaminosis D
(C) 7-Dehydrocholesterol (D) None of these
(D) Ergocaliferol 205. Levels of serum calcium and inorganic
197. Ergosterol is found in phosphorus are increased in
(A) Animals (B) Plants (A) Hypervitaminosis D
(C) Bacteria (D) All of these (B) Hypoparathyroidism
(C) Hypovitaminosis D
198. A provitamin D synthesized in human
beings is (D) None of these
(A) Ergosterol 206. Requirement of vitamin E increases with
(B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol the increasing intake of
(C) Cholecalciferol (A) Calories (B) Proteins
(D) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol (C) PUFA (D) Cholesterol
199. 25-Hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs in 207. In human beings, vitamin E prevents
(A) Skin (B) Liver (A) Sterility
(C) Kidneys (D) Intestinal mucosa
(B) Hepatic necrosis
200. Tubular reabsorption of calcium is (C) Muscular dystrophy
increased by (D) None of these
(A) Cholecalciferol
208. Vitamin E protects
(B) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) Calcitriol (A) Polyunsaturated fatty acids against
aperoxidation
(D) All of these
(B) Vitamin A and carotenes against oxidation
201. Parathormone is required for the conver-
(C) Lung tissue against atmospheric pollutants
sion of
(D) All of these
(A) Cholecalciferol into 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) Cholecalciferol into 25-hydroxycholecalcifer- 209. Intestinal bacteria can synthesise
ol (A) Phyllogquinone (B) Farnoquinone
(C) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol into calcitriol (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Menadione
(D) Cholesterol into 7-dehydrocholesterol
VITAMINS 123

210. A water soluble form of vitamin K is 220. The performed Vitamin A is supplied by
foods such as
(A) Phylloquinone (B) Farnoquinone
(C) Menadione (D) None of these (A) Butter (B) Eggs
(C) Fish liver oil (D) All of these
211. Prothrombin time is prolonged in
221. The non-protein part of rhodopsin is
(A) Vitamin K deficiency
(A) Retinal (B) Retinol
(B) Liver damage
(C) Carotene (D) Repsin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these 222. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at a
temperature below
212. A synthetic form of vitamin K is
(A) 35C (B) 40C
(A) Menadione (B) Farnoquinone
(C) 45C (D) 50C
(C) Phylloquinone (D) None of these
223 The normal concentration of vitamin A in
213. Retinal is reduced to retinol by retinene blood in I.V/dl:
reductase in presence of the coenzyme
(A) 2055 (B) 2460
(A) NAD+ (B) NADP+ (C) 3065 (D) 3570
(C) NADH + H+ (D) NADPH + H+
224. Continued intake of excessive amounts of
214. Retinal exists as an ester with higher fatty vitamin A especially in children produces
acids in the (A) Irritability (B) Anorexia
(A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Headache (D) All of these
(C) Lung (D) All of these
225. Vitamin D2 is also said to be
215. Retinol is transported to the blood as (A) Activated ergosterol
retinol attached to
(B) Fergocalciferol
(A) 1-globulin (B) 2-globulin (C) Viosterol
(C) -globulin (D) -globulin (D) All of these
216. Carotenes are transported with the 226. The poor sources of vitamin D:
(A) Minerals (B) Proteins (A) Eggs (B) Butter
(C) Lipids (D) Lipoproteins (C) Milk (D) Liver
217. The drugs that form complexes with 227. The activity of tocopherols is destroyed
pyridoxal are by
(A) Isoniazid (B) Penicillamine (A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(C) Rifampicin (D) Both (A) and (B) (C) Conjugation (D) All of these
218. In the blood the vitamin esters are 228 Some tocopherols are
attached to (A) Terpenoid in structure
(A) 1-lipoproteins (B) 2-lipoproteins (B) Dional in structure
(C) -lipoproteins (D) -lipoproteins (C) Isoprenoid in structure
219. The percentage of Vitamin A in the form (D) Farnesyl in structure
of esters is stored in the liver: 229. The methyl groups in the aromatic nucleus
(A) 80 (B) 85 of a tocopherols are
(C) 90 (D) 95 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
124 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

230. Vitamin E stored in 240. The number of nutritionally essential


(A) Mitochondria (B) Microsomes amino acids for man is
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
231. Vitamin E protects the polyunsaturated
fatty acids from oxidation by molecular 241. Avidin is present in
oxygen in the formation of (A) Cows milk
(A) Superoxide (B) Peroxide (B) Raw egg
(C) Trioxide (D) All of these (C) Green leafy vegetables
232. The tocopherols prevent the oxidation of (D) Carrots
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D 242. Marasmus is due to malnutrition of
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C (A) Proteins
233. Vitamin E protects enzymes from des- (B) Proteins and calories
truction in (C) Proteins and vitamins
(A) Muscles (B) Nerves (D) Proteins and minerals
(C) Gonads (D) All of these 243. Energy value in kilocalorie per gram of
fat in the body is
234. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood
clotting factors: (A) 1 (B) 4
(A) VII (B) IX (C) 9 (D) 18
(C) X (D) All of these 244. Which among the following is an essential
amino acid for man?
235. Ascorbic acid can reduce
(A) Alanine (B) Serine
(A) 2, 4-dinitro benzene
(C) Valine (D) Glutamic acid
(B) 2, 6-Dichlorophenol Indophenol
(C) 2, 4-dibromobenzene 245. Under what condition to basal metabolic
(D) 2, 6-dibromo benzene rate goes up?
(A) Cold environment
236. Sterilized milk is devoid of
(B) Hot environment
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B1
(C) Intake of base forming foods
(C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D
(D) Hypothyroidism
237. The symptoms of scurvy are
246. What is the major form of caloric storage
(A) Poor healing of wounds in human body?
(B) Loosening of teeth (A) ATP
(C) Anaemia (B) Glycogen
(D) All of these (C) Creatine phosphate
238. Kwashiorkor results from (D) triacylglycerol
(A) Vitamin A deficiency 247. The phosphoprotein of milk is
(B) Vitamin D deficiency (A) Lactalbumin (B) Lactoglobulin
(C) Deficiency of minerals in diet (C) Vitellin (D) Caein
(D) Protein and caloric deficiency in diet
248. Dictary deficiency of this vitamin leads to
239. Which among the following fatty acids is night blindness:
an essential fatty acid for man?
(A) Retinol (B) Niacin
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic acid
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Cholecalciferol
(C) Linoleic acid (D) None of these
VITAMINS 125

249. A non essential amino acid is not 257. Milk contains very poor amounts of
(A) Absorbed in the intestines (A) Calcium (B) Phosphate
(B) Required in the diet (C) Iron (D) Riboflavin
(C) Incorporated into the protein 258. Egg contains very little
(D) Metabolized by the body
(A) Fat
250. The deficiency of Vitamin B12 leads to (B) Proteins
(A) Pernicious anaemia (C) Carbohydrates
(B) Megablastic anaemia (D) Calcium and phosphorus
(C) Both (A) and (B) 259. BMR (Basal Metabolic rate) is elevated in
(D) None of these (A) Hyper thyroidism (B) Under nutrition
251. Which among the following is a nutrition- (C) Starvation (D) Hypothyroidism
ally essential amino acid for man? 260. Soyabean proteins are rich in
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine (A) Lysine (B) Alanine
(C) Tyrosine (D) Isoleucine (C) Glcyine (D) Aspartic acid
252. The maximum specific dynamic action of 261. Corn and gliadin are low in
food stuff is exerted by
(A) Lysine (B) Alanine
(A) carbohydrates (B) fats (C) Glycine (D) Aspartic acid
(C) proteins (D) vitamins
262. What is the disease caused by thiamine
253. The essential amino acids deficiency?
(A) must be supplied in the diet because the (A) Nycalopia (B) Scurvy
organism has lost the capacity to aminate the (C) Rickets (D) Beriberi
corresponding ketoacids
263. Retinol and retinol binding protein (RBP)
(B) must be supplied in the diet because the
bound with this protein:
human has an impaired ability to synthesize
the carbon chain of the corresponding (A) Albumin (B) Prealbumin
ketoacids (C) 2-globulin (D) -globulin
(C) are identical in all species studied 264. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the
(D) are defined as these amino acids which deficiency of
cannot be synthesized by the organism at a (A) Folic acid (B) Vitamin B6
rate adequate to meet metabolic requirements
(C) Iron (D) Protein
254. Fibre in the diet is beneficial in
265. This vitamin acts as anti-oxidant:
(A) Hyper glycemia (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(B) Hyper cholseteremia (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
(C) Colon cancer
266. Calcitriol is
(D) All of these
(A) 1-OH-cholecalciferol
255 Sucrose intolerance leads to
(B) 25-OH-cholecalciferol
(A) Hyper glycemia (B) Glycosuria (C) 24, 25-diOH cholecalciferol
(C) Diarrhoea (D) Hypoglycemia (D) 1, 25-diOH cholecalciferol
256. There can be intolerance with respect to 267. 1-hydroxylation of 25-OH vitamin D3
the following sugar: takes place in
(A) Glucose (B) Lactose (A) Liver (B) Kidneys
(C) Maltose (D) Xylose (C) Intestine (D) Pancreas
126 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

268. 25-hydroxylation of vitamin D3 takes 279. This abnormal metabolite may be respon-
place in sible for the neurological manifestation
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys of pernicious anemia:
(C) Intestine (D) Pancreas (A) Taurine (B) Methyl malonic acid
(C) Xantherunic acid (D) Phenyl pyruvic acid
269. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy chole-
calciferol is promoted by 280. The vitamin in leafy vegetables:
(A) Cytochrome - a (B) Parathyroid hormone (A) D (B) K
(C) Cytochrome-b (D) CAMP (C) A (D) Both (B) and (C)
270. The egg injury factor in raw egg white is 281. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide given in the
(A) Biotin (B) Avidin treatment of tuberculosis may lead to a
deficiency of
(C) Albumin (D) Calcium salts
(A) Vitamin A (B) Pyridoxin
271. The following has cyanide:
(C) Folate (D) Inositol
(A) Vitamin B12
282. Biotin is required for the reaction of CO2
(B) Adenyl cobamide
with
(C) Benzimidazole cobamide
(A) Water
(D) Methyl cobamide
(B) Acetyl CoA
272. The human species can biosynthesize (C) NH3
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin B12 (D) Incorporation of carbon 6 in purine
(C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
283. A deficiency of folate leads to
273. Retina contains this photosensitive (A) Megaloblastic anemia
pigment: (B) Aplastic anemia
(A) Rhodopsin (B) Opsin (C) Pernicious anemia
(C) Retinol (D) Melanin (D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
274. Anti xerophthalmic vitamin is 284. A deficiency of Iron leads to
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2 (A) Megaloblastic anemia
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin A (B) Aplastic anemia
275. One of the following is not a symptom of (C) Pernicious anemia
addisons disease. (D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(A) Hypoglycemia (B) Hyponatremia 285. Corninoid coenzymes are coenzymes of
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Hypochoremia (A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin B6
276. Gammaxane is an antimetabolite of (C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin B1
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin 286. Vitamin B12 initially binds to the proteins
(C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol known as
(A) Transcobalamin I
277. Pyridoxin deficiency may lead to convul-
sions as it is needed for the synthesis of (B) R-Proteins
(C) Transcobalamin II
(A) GABA (B) PABA
(D) Intrinsic factor of castle
(C) EFA (D) SAM
287. Extrinsic factor of castle is
278. Sulpha drugs are antimetabolities of
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein
(A) Vitamin K (B) Pyridoxin
(C) R-Proteins (D) Sigma protein
(C) Folic acid (D) Vitamin B2
VITAMINS 127

288. Intrinsic factor of castle is 297. Convulsive episodes occur when there is
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein a severe deficiency of
(C) R-Proteins (D) Sigma protein (A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid
(C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
289. Pernicious means
298. Metastatic classification is seen in hyper-
(A) Prolonged (B) Dangerous
vitaminosis:
(C) Intermittent (D) Idiopathic
(A) A (B) K
290. Reduction of D-ribonucleotides to D- (C) D (D) E
deoxy ribonucleotides in prokaryotes
requires 299. The anti vitamin for para aminobenzoic
acid is
(A) 5, 6 dimethyl benzimidazole cobamide
(B) Thioredoxin (A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumarol
(C) Tetra hydrobiopterin (C) Sulphonamides (D) Thiopanic acid
(D) Tetra hydrofolate 300. Several pantothenic acid deficiency in
man has been reported to cause
291. Biotin is also known as
(A) Burning feet syndrome
(A) Anti egg white injury factor
(B) Scurvy
(B) Rutin
(C) Cataract
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Xerophthalmia
(D) None of these
301. Cholesterol is a precursor in the biogene-
292. Angular stomatosis is due to sis of
(A) Ariboflavinoses (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(B) Deficiency of Vitamin C (C) Vitamin E (D) None of these
(C) Deficiency of Vitamin B1
302. This vitamin is a potent antioxidant of
(D) Deficiency of folate
vitamin A:
293. One of the main functions of Vitamin K is (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin E
cofactor for
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin D
(A) Carboxylate for the formation of
carboxyglutamate 303. In retinal rickets, the following hydro-
xylation of Vitamin D3 does not take place:
(B) Methylation of -adenosyl methionine
(C) Carboxylation of biotin (A) 25 (B) 1
(C) 24 (D) 7
(D) One carbon transfer by tetrahydrofolate
304. The following does not have phosphorous:
294. Prothrombin time is prolonged by
administering (A) Riboflavin (B) TPP
(A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C) NAD+ (D) COASH
(C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin 305. Convulsions and delirium could be caused
by a severe deficiency of
295. This vitamin acts as antioxidant.
(A) Thiamine (B) Glutamate
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Niacin (D) Magnesium
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
306. Rice polishings contain this vitamin:
296. This is a photo-labile vitamin.
(A) Riboflavin (B) Niacin
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
(C) Niacin (D) Cholecalciferol
128 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

307. In beri beri there will be accumulation of 316. Taurinuria may be encountered in
_______ in blood. (A) Permicious anemia (B) Beriberi
(A) Aceto acetic acid (B) -OH butyric acid (C) Pellegra (D) Folate deficiency
(C) Pyruvic acid (D) Methyl malonic acid 317. The three vitamins which are specially
308. Symptoms of pellagra are required for proper nerve functions are
acid:
(A) Dermatitis and diarrhea only
(A) Thiamine, niacin and riboflavin
(B) Dermatitis and dementia only
(B) Thiamine, folic acid, choline
(C) Diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia
(C) Thiamine, riboflavin, patothenic acid
(D) Diarrhea and elements only
(D) Thiamine, pyridoxin, vitamin B12
309. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to
318. This is a rich source for vitamin C.
(A) Megaloblastic anemia
(A) Rice (B) Milk
(B) Aplastic anemia
(C) Egg (D) Lemon
(C) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(D) Permicious anemia 319. The following vitamin is involved in
coenzyme function in transaminations:
310. The significant ocular lesion in arbo (A) Nicotinamide (B) Pyridoxine
flovinosis:
(C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
(A) Keratomalacia
320. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in the
(B) Bitots spots
deficiency of
(C) Vascularisation of the cornea
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Folic acid
(D) lachrymal metaplasia
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
311. Irradiation of foods raises the content of
321. Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(A) Rickets (B) Scurvy
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K (C) Night blindness (D) All of these
312. An anti-vitamin for folic acid is 322. If no primer DNA was given, the following
(A) Amethoptesin (B) Dicoumarol scientist could not have synthesized DNA.
(C) Pyrithoamine (D) Isoniazid (A) Ochoa (B) Okazaki
313. Thymine is (C) Kornberg (D) Monod

(A) Water soluble vitamin 323. Antisterility vitamin is


(B) Fat soluble vitamin (A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
(C) Purine base (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
(D) Pyrimidine base 324. All the following vitamins give rise to
314. The anti-vitamin for para amino benzoic cofactors that are phosphorylated in the
acid is active form except
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B1
(A) Aminopterrin (B) Dicoumarol
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
(C) INH (D) Sulphonamides
325. Molecular Iron, Fe, is
315. The sulphur-containing vitamins among
the following B-Vitamin is (A) Stored in the body in combination with Ferritin
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (B) Stored primarily in the spleen
(C) Excreted in the urine as Fe2+
(C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
(D) absorbed in the intestine by albumin
VITAMINS 129

326. Humans most easily tolerate a lack of 335. Vitamins that function as dinucleotide
which of the following nutrients? derivatives include all the following
except
(A) Protein (B) Iodine
(C) Carbohydrate (D) Lipid (A) Thiamine (B) Niacin
(C) Nicotinate (D) Vitamin B2
327. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes
336. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a
(A) Cheliosis (B) Beriberi
deficiency of
(C) Pernicious anemia (D) Scurvy
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Folic acid
328. In adults a severe deficiency of vitamin D (C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
causes
337. What is the disease caused by thiamine
(A) Night blindness (B) Osteomalacia
deficiency?
(C) Rickets (D) Skin cancer
(A) Nyctalopia (B) Scurvy
329. Which of the following vitamins would (C) Rickets (D) Beriberi
most likely become deficient in a person
who develops a completely carnivorous 338. Retinol and Retinol binding protein are
life style? bound with this protein:

(A) Thiamine (B) Niacin (A) Albumin (B) Prealbumin


(C) -globulin (D) -globulin
(C) Cobalamine (D) Vitamin C
339. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the
330. Which of the following statements
deficiency of
regarding Vitamin A is true?
(A) Folic acid (B) Vitamin B6
(A) It is not an essential Vitamin
(C) Iron (D) Protein
(B) It is related to tocopherol
(C) It is a component of rhodopsin 340. This vitamin acts as anti oxidant.
(D) It is also known as Opsin (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
331. Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase
depends upon the presence of 341. Calcitriol is
(A) Malate and Niacin (A) 1-hydroxy cholecalciferol
(B) Acetyl CoA and biotin (B) 25-hydroxy cholecalciferol
(C) Acetyl CoA and thiamine pyrophosphate (C) 24, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol
(D) Oxaloacetate and biotin (D) 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol
332. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of 342. 1-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy Vitamin
coenzyme involved in D3 takes place in
(A) Acetylation (B) Decarboxylation (A) Liver (B) Kidneys
(C) Dehydrogenation (D) Oxidation (C) Intestine (D) Pancreas
333. Biotin is involved in which of the following 343. 25-hydroxylation of Vitamin D3 takes
types of reactions? place in
(A) Hydroxylation (B) Carboxylation (A) Liver (B) Kidneys
(C) Decarboxylation (D) Deamination (C) Intestines (D) Pancreas

334. Which of the following vitamins is the 344. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy cholecalcif-
precurssor of CoA? erol is promoted by
(A) Riboflavin (B) Pantothenate (A) Cytochrome A (B) Panthyroid hormone
(C) Thiamine (D) Cobamide (C) Cytochrome b (D) cAMP
130 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

345. The egg injury factor in raw egg white is 356. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide given in the
(A) Biotin (B) Avidin treatment of tuberculosis may lead to a
deficiency of
(C) Albumin (D) Calcium salts
(A) Vitamin A (B) Pyridoxin
346. The following has cyanide: (C) Folate (D) Inositol
(A) Vitamin B12
357. Steroidal prohormone is
(B) Adenyl cobamide
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
(C) Benzimidazole cobamide
(C) Vitamin D (D) None of these
(D) Methyl cobamide
358. A deficiency of folate leads to
347. The human species can biosynthesize
(A) Megaloblastic anemia
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin B12
(B) Aplastic anemia
(C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
(C) Pernicious anemia
348. Retina contains this photo sensitive pigment. (D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(A) Rhodopsin (B) Opsin 359. Deficiency of Iron leads to
(C) Retinol (D) Malanin (A) Megaloblastic anemia
349. Antixerophthalmic vitamin is (B) Aplastic anemia
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2 (C) Pernicious anemia
(D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin A
360. Corrinoid coenzymes are coenzymes of
350. One of the following is not symptom of
Addisons disease: (A) Vitamin B6 (B) Vitamin B12
(A) Hypoglycemia (B) Hyponatremia (C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin B1
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Hypochloremia 361. Vitamin B12 initially binds to the proteins
known as
351. Gammaxine is an antimetabolite of
(A) Transcobalamin I
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(B) R-proteins
(C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol
(C) Transcobalamin II
352. Pyridoxine deficiency may lead to con- (D) Intrinsic factor of castle
vulsions as it is needed for the synthesis
362. Extrinsic factor of castle is
of
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein
(A) GABA (B) PABA
(C) R-proteins (D) Sigma protein
(C) EFA (D) SAM
363. Intrinsic factor of castle is
353. Sulpha drugs are antimetabolites of
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein
(A) PABA (B) Pyridoxin
(C) R-proteins (D) Sigma protein
(C) Vitamin B2 (D) Pantothenic acid
364. Pernicious means
354. This abnormal metabolite may be respon-
(A) Prolonged (B) Dangerous
sible for the neurological manifestation
of pernicious anemia. (C) Intermittent (D) Idiopathic

(A) Taurine (B) Methyl malonic acid 365. Reduction of D-ribonucleotides to D-deoxy
(C) Xanthurenic acid (D) Phenyl pyruvic acid ribonucleotides in prokaryotes requires
(A) 5, 6 dimethyl benzimindazole cobamide
355. Choline is not required for the formation of
(B) Thiredoxin
(A) Lecithins (B) Acetyl choline (C) Tetra hydrobiopterin
(C) Sphingomyelin (D) Cholic acid (D) Tetra hydrofolate
VITAMINS 131

366. Antirachitic vitamin is 376. Cholesterol is a precursor in the biogenesis


(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D of
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E (D) None of these
367. Angular stomatitis is due to
(A) Ariboflavinosis 377. Which of the vitamins is a potent anti-
(B) Deficiency of Vitamin C oxidant of Vitamin A?
(C) Deficiency of Vitamin B1 (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin E
(D) Deficiency of folate (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin D
368. One of the main functions of Vitamin K is 378. In renal rickets, the following hydroxyla-
the cofactor for tion of Vitamin D3 does not take place:
(A) Carboxylase for the formation of --carboxy (A) 25 (B) 1
glutamate (C) 24 (D) 7
(B) Methylation by S-adenosyl methionine
(C) Carboxylation by biotin 379. Which of the following does not have
phosphorous?
(D) One carbon transfer by tetra hydrofolate
(A) Riboflavin (B) TPP
369. Prothrombin time is prolonged by admini-
(C) NAD+ (D) CaASH
stering
(A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol 380. Rice-polishings contain whcih of the
(C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin following Vitamin?
(A) Riboflavin (B) Niacin
370. This Vitamin acts as antioxidant:
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K 381. In beri beri there will be accumulation of
_________ in blood.
371. This is photo labile vitamin:
(A) Aceto acetic acid
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(B) hydroxy butyric acid
(C) Niacin (D) Cholecalciferol
(C) Pyruvic acid
372. Convulsive episodes occur when there is (D) Methyl malonic acid
a severe deficiency of:
382. Symptoms of pellagra are
(A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid
(C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin (A) Dermatitis and diarrhea only
(B) Dermatitis and Dermentia only
373. Metastatic calcification is seen in hyper-
(C) Diarrhea and dermentia only
vitaminosis:
(D) Diarrhea, Dermatitis and dementia
(A) A (B) K
(C) D (D) E 383. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to

374. The anti-vitamin for para amino benzoic (A) Megaloblastic anemia
acid is (B) Aplastic anemia
(A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumasol (C) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(C) Sulphanomides (D) Thiopamic acid (D) Pernicious anemia

375. Severe patothemic acid deficiency in man 384. The significant ocular lesion in a ribofla-
has been reported to cause vinosis is
(A) Burning feet syndrome (A) Keratomalacia
(B) Scurvy (B) Bitots spots
(C) Cataract (C) Vascularisation of the cornea
(D) Xeropththalmia (D) Lachrynal metaplasia
132 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

385. An anti-vitamin for folic acid is 395. Anti sterility Vitamin is


(A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumarol (A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
(C) Pyrithiamine (D) Isoniazid (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
386. Thiamine is 396. Biotin deficiency is characterized by the
(A) Water-soluble vitamin following except
(B) Fat soluble vitamin (A) Muscular pain (B) Anaemia
(C) Purine base (C) Nausea (D) Dermatitis
(D) Pyrimidine base 397. Deficiency of thiamine causes
387. The anti-vitamin for para amino benzoic (A) Beri beri (B) Scurvy
acid is (C) Night blindness (D) Rickets
(A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumarol 398. Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to
(C) INH (D) Sulphanomides
(A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia
388. The sulphur containing vitamins among (C) Xeropthalmia (D) Both (A) and (B)
the following B Vitamin is
399. The vitamin that is useful in cancer is
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(A) A (B) B complex
(C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
(C) C (D) E
389. Taurinuria may be encountered in
400. Vitamin A over dosage causes injury to
(A) Pernicious anemia (B) Beriberi
(A) Mitochondria (B) Microtubules
(C) Pellegra (D) Folate deficiency
(C) Lysosomes (D) E.R
390. The three vitamins which are specially
401. Which is a pro vitamin or vitamin that has
required for proper nerve functions are
antioxidant properties?
(A) Thiamine, Niacin and Riboflavin
(A) Beta carotene (B) Vitamin E
(B) Thiamin, Folic acid, Choline
(C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D
(C) Thiamine, Riboflavin, Pantothenic acid
(D) Thiamine, Pyridoxin, Vitamin B12 402. The vitamin required for carboxylation
reaction is
391. This is a rich source for Vitamin C: (A) Vitamin B2 (B) Vitamin B6
(A) Rice (B) Milk (C) Biotin (D) Vitamin B12
(C) Egg (D) Lemon
403. Biological activity of tocopherols has been
392. Which ot the following vitamin is involved attributed in part to their action as
in coenzyme function in transaminations? (A) Antioxidant
(A) Nicotinamide (B) Pyridoxine (B) Anticoagulents
(C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin (C) Provitamin
(D) Carriers in electron transport system
393. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a
deficiency of 404. Biotin is essential for
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Folic acid (A) Translation (B) Carboxylation
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12 (C) Hydroxylation (D) Transamination
394. In pernicious anemia, Urine contains high 405. Which of the following vitamin act as a
amounts of respiratory catalyst?
(A) Methyl malonic acid (B) FIGLU (A) B2 (B) Pyridoxine
(C) VMA (D) 5 HIAA (C) B 12 (D) C
VITAMINS 133

406. Metal in Vitamin B12 is 416. During deficiency of thiamine the concen-
(A) Copper (B) Cobalt tration of the following compound rises
in blood and intracellular fluid:
(C) Iron (D) Zinc
(A) Glycogen (B) Sugar
407. Whole wheat is an excellent source of
(C) Amino acids (D) Pyruvic acid
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin C
417. The conversion of carotenoids to Vitamin
(C) Vitamin A (D) Thiamine
A takes place in
408. Vitamin used in the treatment of homo- (A) Intestine (B) Liver
cystinuria is (C) Kidney (D) Skin
(A) B1 (B) B5
418. Man cannot synthesize vitamin:
(C) B 12 (D) B6
(A) A (B) B
409. Which of the following is not a component (C) C (D) D
of coenzyme A?
419. Vitamin A is required for the formation
(A) Pantothenic acid (B) Adenylic acid
of a light receptor protein known as
(C) Acetic acid (D) Sulfhydryl group
(A) Globulin (B) Lypoprotein
410. The most active form of Vitamin D is (C) Chomoprotein (D) Rhodospin
(A) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
420. Excessive vitamin A in children produces
(B) 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
(A) Irritability (B) Anorexia
(C) 25-dihydroxyergocalciferol
(C) Headache (D) All of these
(D) None of these
421. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of
411. The important part in the structure of
flavoprotein is (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Vitamin B2
(C) Vitamin B1 (D) Vitamin A 422. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood
clotting factors.
412. Vitamin essential for transamination is
(A) VII (B) IX
(A) B1 (B) B2 (C) X (D) All of these
(C) B6 (D) B 12
423. The colour of cyanomethmoglobin is
413. The action of Vitamin K in formation of
(A) Pale yellow (B) Pink
clotting factor is through
(C) Brown (D) Bright red
(A) Post transcription
424. Transketolase activity is affected in
(B) Post translation
(C) Golgi complex (A) Bitoin deficiency
(B) Pyridoxine deficiency
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) PABA deficiency
414. Vitamin necessary for CoA synthesis: (D) Thiamine deficiency
(A) Pantothenic acid (B) Vitamin C
425. The hydrolysis of glucose-6-PO4 is cata-
(C) B6 (D) B 12 lyzed by a phosphatase that is not found
415. Cofactor for transamination is in which of the following?
(A) Liver (B) Kidney
(A) Thymine (B) Riboflavin
(C) Muscle (D) Small intestine
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Niacin
134 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

426. Vitamin K2 was originally isolated from (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavine
(A) Soyabean (B) Putrid fishmeal (C) Folic acid (D) Nicotininic acid
(C) Alfa alfa (D) Oysters 430. The deficiency of which one of the
427. The following form of vitamin A is used following vitamin causes creatinuria?
in the visual cycle: (A) Vitamin E (B) Vitamin K
(A) Retinol (B) Retinoic acid (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin B6
(C) Retinaldehyde (D) Retinyl acetate 431. A biochemical indication of vitamin B12
428. Increased carbohydrate consumption deficiency can be obtained by measuring
increases the dietary requirement for the urinary excretion of

(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavine (A) Pyruvic acid


(C) Pyridoxine (D) Folic acid (B) Malic acid
(C) Methyl malonic acid
429. Increased protein intake is accompanied
(D) Urocanic acid
by an increased dietary requirement for
VITAMINS 135

ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A
7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. A
19. A 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. A
37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. D 42. D
43. A 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. C
49. B 50. A 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. C
55. D 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. A 60. D
61. B 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. A 66.A
67. B 68. C 69. D 70. A 71. A 72. C
73. C 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. A 78. A
79. C 80. D 81. A 82. D 83. C 84. A
85. C 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. C
91. A 92. A 93. D 94. A 95. A 96. A
97. C 98. D 99. C 100. B 101. B 102. B
103. D 104. C 105. C 106. B 107. C 108. D
109. A 110. D 111. A 112. D 113. B 114. D
115. A 116. D 117. D 118. C 119. C 120. B
121. C 122. A 123. D 124. D 125. C 126. C
127. A 128. A 129. C 130. D 131. A 132. A
133. D 134. C 135. D 136. D 137. B 138. C
139. C 140. B 141. B 142. B 143. D 144. D
145. C 146. D 147. D 148. B 149. D 150. A
151. C 152. D 153. B 154. D 155. C 156. D
157. A 158. D 159. D 160. D 161. C 162. C
163. C 164. A 165. D 166. C 167. C 168. D
169. A 170. B 171. C 172. B 173. D 174. B
175. D 176. B 177. D 178. B 179. A 180. A
181. D 182. D 183. B 184. A 185. B 186. C
187. D 188. C 189. D 190. C 191. C 192. B
193. C 194. D 195. D 196. C 197. B 198. B
199. B 200. C 201. C 202. D 203. A 204. C
205. A 206. C 207. D 208. D 209. B 210. C
211. C 212. A 213. C 214. D 215. A 216. D
217. D 218. C 219. D 220. D 221. A 222. D
223. B 224. D 225. D 226. C 227. A 228. A
229. B 230. C 231. B 232. A 233. D 234. D
235. B 236. C 237. B 238. D 239. C 240. B
241. B 242. B 243. C 244. C 245. A 246. C
136 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

247. D 248. A 249. B 250. C 251. D 252. C


253. B 254. D 255. C 256. B 257. C 258. C
259. A 260. B 261. D 262. D 263. B 264. A
265. C 266. D 267. B 268. A 269. B 270. B
271. A 272. D 273. A 274. D 275. C 276. D
277. A 278. C 279. A 280. D 281. D 282. B
283. B 284. A 285. D 286. B 287. B 288. A
289. B 290. B 291. A 292. B 293. A 294. A
295. B 296. C 297. B 298. A 299. C 300. C
301. A 302. B 303. B 304. A 305. D 306. D
307. C 308. C 309. C 310. B 311. C 312. A
313. D 314. D 315. A 316. A 317. D 318. D
319. B 320. D 321. C 322. C 323. C 324. B
325. A 326. C 327. C 328. B 329. D 330. C
331. B 332. A 333. B 334. B 335. A 336. D
337. D 338. B 339. A 340. D 341. D 342. B
343. A 344. B 345. B 346. A 347. D 348. A
349. D 350. C 351. D 352. A 353. A 354. B
355. D 356. B 357. C 358. A 359. D 360. B
361. B 362. A 363. B 364. B 365. A 366. B
367. A 368. A 369. B 370. C 371. B 372. A
373.C 374. C 375. A 376. B 377. B 378. B
379. A 380. C 381. C 382. D 383. C 384. C
385. A 386. D 387. D 388. A 389. A 390. D
391. D 392. B 393. D 394. A 395. C 396. B
397. A 398. D 399. A 400. C 401. B 402. C
403. B 404. B 405. A 406. B 407. D 408. D
409. C 410. A 411. B 412. C 413. B 414. A
415. C 416. D 417. A 418. C 419. D 420. D
421. A 422. D 423. D 424. D 425. C 426. B
427. C 428. A 429. A 430. C 431. C
VITAMINS 137

EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS 250. C The liver can store up to six years worth of vitamin
B12, hence deficiencies in this vitamin are rare.
7. D The four fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are
Penicious anemia is a megaloblastic anemia
soluble in fats, oils and fat solvents (alcohol,
resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency that develops
acetone etc.). Their occurrence in the diet,
as a result a lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach
absorption and transport are associated with fat.
leading to malabsorption of the vitamin.
All the fat soluble vitamins contain one or more
291. A Biotin is also called anti-egg white injury factor
of isoprene units (5 carbon units). They can be
because, egg white contains a protein called
stored in liver and adipose tissue.
avidin, which combines with biotin in the
40. D Vitamin A is essential to maintain healthy
intestinal tract and prevents absorption of biotin
epithelial tissues and proper immunity. Retinol
from intestines.
and retinoic acid functions like steroid hormones.
321. B Deficiency in Vitamin C leads to the disease
They regulate protein synthesis and thus are
scurvy due to the role of the vitamin in the post-
involved in cell growth and differentiation. -
translational modification of collagens. Scurvy is
Carotene functions as an antioxidant and reduces
characterized by easily bruised skin, muscle
the risk for heart attack, cancers etc.
fatigue, soft swollen gums, decreased wound
77. A The recommended dietary allowances for vitamin
healing and hemorraging, osteoporosis and
D is around 400 I.U. In countries with good
anemia.
sunlight (like India), it is much lower. i.e., 200
357. C Vitamin D is a steroid prohormone. It is
I.U. The good sources include fatty fish, fish liver
represented by steroids that occur in animals,
oils, egg yolk.
plants and yeast. Active form of the hormone is
110. D The earliest symptoms of thiamin deficiency include
1, 25-dihydroxy vitamin D3 (1, 25-(OH)2D3, also
constipation, appetite suppression, nausea as well
termed calcitriol). Calcitriol functions primarily
as mental depression, peripheral neuropathy and
to regulate calcium and phosphorous
fatigue. Chronic thiamin deficiency leads to more
homeostasis.
severe neurological symptoms including ataxia,
398. D The main symptom of vitamin D deficiency in
mental confusion and loss of eye coordination.
children is rickets and in adults is osteomalacia.
Other clinical symptoms of prolonged thiamin
Rickets is characterized by improper
deficiency are related to cardiovascular and
mineralization during the development of the
muscular defects. The severe thiamin deficiency
bones resulting in soft bones. Osteomalacia is
disease is known as Beriberi.
characterized by demineralization of previously
149. D Riboflavin deficiency is often seen in chronic
formed bone leading to increased softness and
alcoholics due to their poor diabetic habits.
susceptibility to fracture.
Symptoms associated with riboflavin deficiency
include, glossitis, seborrhea, angular stomatitis,
cheilosis and photophobia. Riboflavin
decomposes when exposed to visible light.
187. D Pyridoxal, pyridoxamine and pyridoxine are
collectively known as vitamin B6. All three
compounds are efficiently converted to the
biologically active form of vitamin B6, pyridoxal
phosphate. This conversion is catalyzed by the
ATP requiring enzyme, pyridoxal kinase.
217. D Isoniazid (anti-tuberculosis drug) and
penicillamine (used to treat rheumatoid arthritis
and cystinurias) are two drugs that complex with
pyridoxal and pyridoxal phosphate resulting in
a deficiency in this vitamin.
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CHAPTER 6

ENZYMES

1. The compound which has the lowest 7. Krabbes disease is due to the deficiency
density is of the enzyme:
(A) Chylomicron (B) -Lipoprotein
(A) Ceramide lactosidase
(C) -Lipoprotein (D) pre -Lipoprotein
(B) Ceramidase
2. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs, (C) -Galactosidase
such as aspirin act by inhibiting the
activity of the enzyme: (D) GM1 -Galactosidase
(A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase 8. Fabrys disease is due to the deficiency of
(C) Phospholipase A2 (D) Lipoprotein lipase the enzyme:
3. From arachidonate, synthesis of prostag- (A) Ceramide trihexosidase
landins is catalysed by
(B) Galactocerebrosidase
(A) Cyclooxygenase
(C) Phytanic acid oxidase
(B) Lipoxygenase
(D) Sphingomyelinase
(C) Thromboxane synthase
(D) Isomerase 9. Farbers disease is due to the deficiency
4. A Holoenzyme is of the enzyme:

(A) Functional unit (B) Apo enzyme (A) -Galactosidase


(C) Coenzyme (D) All of these (B) Ceramidase
5. Gauchers disease is due to the deficiency (C) -Glucocerebrosidase
of the enzyme: (D) Arylsulphatase A.
(A) -Fucosidase (B) -Galactosidase
10. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in
(C) -Glucosidase (D) Sphingomyelinase
organ transplantation as a suppressor of
6. Neimann-Pick disease is due to the defi- immunologic rejection of grafts is
ciency of the enzyme:
(A) Theophylline
(A) Hexosaminidase A and B
(B) Cytarabine
(B) Ceramidase
(C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine
(C) Ceramide lactosidase
(D) Sphingomyelinase (D) 6-Mercaptopurine
140 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

11. Example of an extracellular enzyme is 18. From the Lineweaver-Burk plot of


(A) Lactate dehydrogenase Michaelis-Menten equation, Km and
Vmax can be determined when V is the
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
reaction velocity at substrate concentra-
(C) Pancreatic lipase tion S, the X-axis experimental data are
(D) Hexokinase expressed as
12. Enzymes, which are produced in inactive (A) 1/V (B) V
form in the living cells, are called (C) 1/S (D) S
(A) Papain (B) Lysozymes
19. A sigmoidal plot of substrate concentra-
(C) Apoenzymes (D) Proenzymes tion ([S]) verses reaction velocity (V) may
13. An example of ligases is indicate

(A) Succinate thiokinase (A) Michaelis-Menten kinetics


(B) Alanine racemase (B) Co-operative binding
(C) Fumarase (C) Competitive inhibition
(D) Aldolase (D) Non-competitive inhibition

14 An example of lyases is 20. The Km of the enzyme giving the kinetic


data as below is
(A) Glutamine synthetase
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.25
(B) Fumarase
(C) +0.25 (D) +0.33
(C) Cholinesterase
(D) Amylase 21. The kinetic effect of purely competitive
inhibitor of an enzyme
15. Activation or inactivation of certain key
regulatory enzymes is accomplished by (A) Increases Km without affecting Vmax
covalent modification of the amino acid: (B) Decreases Km without affecting Vmax
(A) Tyrosine (B) Phenylalanine (C) Increases Vmax without affecting Km
(C) Lysine (D) Serine (D) Decreases Vmax without affecting Km

16. The enzyme which can add water to a 22. If curve X in the graph (below) represents
carbon-carbon double bond or remove no inhibition for the reaction of the
water to create a double bond without enzyme with its substrates, the curve
breaking the bond is representing the competitive inhibition, of
the same reaction is
(A) Hydratase (B) Hydroxylase
(C) Hydrolase (D) Esterase (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
17. Fischers lock and key model of the
enzyme action implies that 23. An inducer is absent in the type of enzyme:
(A) The active site is complementary in shape to (A) Allosteric enzyme
that of substance only after interaction. (B) Constitutive enzyme
(B) The active site is complementary in shape to (C) Co-operative enzyme
that of substance (D) Isoenzymic enzyme
(C) Substrates change conformation prior to active
site interaction 24. A demonstrable inducer is absent in
(D) The active site is flexible and adjusts to (A) Allosteric enzyme (B) Constitutive enzyme
substrate (C) Inhibited enzyme (D) Co-operative enzyme
ENZYMES 141

25. In reversible non-competitive enzyme 32. An enzyme catalyzing oxidoreduction,


activity inhibition using oxygen as hydrogen acceptor is
(A) Vmax is increased (A) Cytochrome oxidase
(B) Km is increased (B) Lactate dehydrogenase
(C) Km is decreased (C) Malate dehydrogenase
(D) Concentration of active enzyme is reduced (D) Succinate dehydrogenase
26. In reversible non-competitive enzyme 33. The enzyme using some other substance,
activity inhibition not oxygen as hydrogen acceptor is
(A) Inhibitor bears structural resemblance to (A) Tyrosinase
substrate (B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(B) Inhibitor lowers the maximum velocity (C) Uricase
attainable with a given amount of enzyme (D) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) Km is increased
34. An enzyme which uses hydrogen acceptor
(D) Km is decreased
as substrate is
27. In competitive enzyme activity inhibition (A) Xanthine oxidase
(A) The structure of inhibitor generally resembles (B) Aldehyde oxidase
that of the substrate (C) Catalase
(B) Inhibitor decreases apparent Km (D) Tryptophan oxygenase
(C) Km remains unaffective
35. Enzyme involved in joining together two
(E) Inhibitor decreases Vmax without affecting Km
substrates is
28. In enzyme kinetics Vmax reflects (A) Glutamine synthetase
(A) The amount of an active enzyme (B) Aldolase
(B) Substrate concentration (C) Gunaine deaminase
(C) Half the substrate concentration (D) Arginase
(D) Enzyme substrate complex
36. The pH optima of most of the enzymes is
29. In enzyme kinetics Km implies (A) Between 2 and 4 (B) Between 5 and 9
(A) The substrate concentration that gives one half (C) Between 8 and 12(D) Above 12
Vmax
37. Coenzymes are
(B) The dissocation constant for the enzyme
substrate comples (A) Heat stable, dialyzable, non protein organic
(C) Concentration of enzyme molecules
(D) Half of the substrate concentration required (B) Soluble, colloidal, protein molecules
to achieve Vmax (C) Structural analogue of enzymes
(D) Different forms of enzymes
30. In competitive enzyme activity inhibition
(A) Apparent Km is decreased 38. An example of hydrogen transferring
coenzyme is
(B) Apparent Km is increased
(C) Vmax is increased (A) CoA (B) NAD+
(D) Vmax is decreased (C) Biotin (D) TPP

31. In non competitive enzyme activity inhi- 39. An example of group transferring
bition, inhibitor coenzyme is

(A) Increases Km (B) Decreases Km (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+


(C) Does not effect Km (D) Increases Km (C) FAD (D) CoA
142 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

40. Cocarboxylase is 48. The normal serum GOT activity ranges


from
(A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(B) Pyridoxal phosphate (A) 3.015.0 IU/L (B) 4.017.0 IU/L
(C) Biotin (C) 4.060.0 IU/L (D) 0.94.0 IU/L
(D) CoA 49. The normal GPT activity ranges from
41. A coenzyme containing non aromatic (A) 60.0250.0 IU/L (B) 4.017.0 IU/L
hetero ring is (C) 3.015.0 IU/L (D) 0.114.0 IU/L
(A) ATP (B) NAD 50. The normal serum acid phosphatase
(C) FMN (D) Biotin activity ranges from

42. A coenzyme containing aromatic hetero (A) 5.013.0 KA units/100 ml


ring is (B) 1.05.0 KA units/100 ml
(C) 13.018.0 KA units/100 ml
(A) TPP (B) Lipoic acid
(D) 0.20.8 KA units/100 ml
(C) Coenzyme Q (D) Biotin
51. The normal serum alkaline phosphatase
43. Isoenzymes are
activity ranges from
(A) Chemically, immunologically and electro- (A) 1.05.0 KA units/100 ml
phoretically different forms of an enzyme
(B) 5.013.0 KA units/100 ml
(B) Different forms of an enzyme similar in all
(C) 0.82.3 KA units/100 ml
properties
(D) 13.021.0 KA units/100 ml
(C) Catalysing different reactions
(D) Having the same quaternary structures like 52. In early stages of myocardial ischemia the
the enzymes most sensitive indicator is the
measurement of the activity of
44. Isoenzymes can be characterized by
(A) CPK (B) SGPT
(A) Proteins lacking enzymatic activity that are (C) SGOT (D) LDH
necessary for the activation of enzymes
53. Serum acid phosphatase level increases
(B) Proteolytic enzymes activated by hydrolysis
in
(C) Enzymes with identical primary structure
(A) Metastatic carcinoma of prostate
(D) Similar enzymes that catalyse different
reaction (B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Wilsons disease
45. The isoenzymes of LDH (D) Liver diseases
(A) Differ only in a single amino acid
54. Serum alkaline phosphatase level
(B) Differ in catalytic activity increases in
(C) Exist in 5 forms depending on M and H
(A) Hypothyroidism
monomer contents
(B) Carcinoma of prostate
(D) Occur as monomers
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
46. The normal value of CPK in serum varies (D) Myocardial ischemia
between
55. Serum lipase level increases in
(A) 460 IU/L (B) 60250 IU/L
(A) Pagets disease (B) Gauchers disease
(C) 417 IU/L (D) > 350 IU/L
(C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Diabetes mellitus
47. Factors affecting enzyme activity:
56. Serum ferroxidase level decreases in
(A) Concentration (B) pH
(A) Gauchers disease (B) Cirrhosis of liver
(C) Temperature (D) All of these
(C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Wilsons disease
ENZYMES 143

57. The isoenzymes LDH5 is elevated in 65. The pH optima for salivary analyse is
(A) Myocardial infarction (A) 6.66.8 (B) 2.07.5
(B) Peptic ulcer (C) 7.9 (D) 8.6
(C) Liver disease 66. The pH optima for pancreatic analyse is
(D) Infectious diseases (A) 4.0 (B) 7.1
58. On the third day of onset of acute myo- (C) 7.9 (D) 8.6
cardial infarction the enzyme elevated is 67. The pH optima for sucrase is
(A) Serum AST (B) Serum CK (A) 5.07.0 (B) 5.86.2
(C) Serum LDH (D) Serum ALT (C) 5.46.0 (D) 8.6
59. LDH1 and LDH2 are elevated in 68. The pH optima for maltase is
(A) Myocardial infarction (A) 1.02.0 (B) 5.26.0
(B) Liver disease (C) 5.86.2 (D) 5.46.0
(C) Kidney disease
69. The pH optima for lactase is
(D) Brain disease
(A) 1.0-2.0 (B) 5.46.0
60. The CK isoenzymes present in cardiac (C) 5.07.0 (D) 5.86.2
muscle is
70. The substrate for amylase is
(A) BB and MB (B) MM and MB
(A) Cane sugar (B) Starch
(C) BB only (D) MB only
(C) Lactose (D) Ribose
61. In acute pancreatitis, the enzyme raised
71. The ion which activates salivary amylase
in first five days is activity is
(A) Serum amylase (A) Chloride (B) Bicarbonate
(B) Serum lactic dehydrogenase (C) Sodium (D) Potassium
(C) Urinary lipase
72. The pancreatic amylase activity is in-
(D) Urinary amylase
creased in the presence of
62. Acute pancreatitis is characterised by (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Bile salts
(A) Lack of synthesis of zymogen enzymes (C) Thiocyanate ions (D) Calcium ions
(B) Continuous release of zymogen enzymes into 73. A carbohydrate which can not be digest-
the gut ed in human gut is
(C) Premature activation of zymogen enzymes (A) Cellulose (B) Starch
(D) Inactivation of zymogen enzymes (C) Glycogen (D) Maltose
63. An example of functional plasma enzyme is 74. The sugar absorbed by facilitated
(A) Lipoprotein lipase diffusion and requiring Na independent
transporter is
(B) Amylase
(C) Aminotransferase (A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(D) Lactate dehydrogenase (C) Galactose (D) Ribose
75. In the intestine the rate of absorption is
64. A non-functional plasma enzyme is
highest for
(A) Psudocholinesterase
(A) Glucose and galactose
(B) Lipoprotein lipase
(B) Fructose and mannose
(C) Proenzyme of blood coagulation (C) Fructose and pentose
(D) Lipase (D) Mannose and pentose
144 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

76. Glucose absorption is promoted by 84. In the glycolytic pathway, enolpyruvate


(A) Vitamin A (B) Thiamin is converted to ketopyruvate by
(C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin K (A) Pyruvate kinase
77. The harmone acting directly on intestinal (B) Phosphoenolpyruvate
mucosa and stimulating glucose absorption (C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
is (D) Spontaneously
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon 85. In erythrocytes, 2, 3-biphosphoglycerate
(C) Thyroxine (D) Vasopressin is derived from the intermediate:
78. Given that the standard free energy (A) Glyeraldehyde-3-phosphate
change (G) for the hydrolysis of ATP is (B) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
7.3 K cal/mol and that for the hydrolysis
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
of Glucose 6-phosphate is 3.3 Kcal/mol,
the G for the phosphorylation of (D) 2-Phosphoglycerate
glucose is Glucose + ATP Glucose 6 86. 2, 3-Biphosphoglycerate in high concen-
Phosphate + ADP. trations, combines with hemoglobin,
(A) 10.6 Kcal/mol (B) 7.3 Kcal/mol causes
(C) 4.0 Kcal/mol (D) +4.0 Kcal/mol (A) Displacement of the oxyhemoglobin
79. At low blood glucose concentration, brain dissociation curve to the left
but not liver will take up glucose. It is due (B) Displacement of the oxyhemoglobin
to the dissociation curve to the right
(A) Low Km of hexokinase (C) No change in oxy hemoglobin dissociation curve
(B) Low Km of glucokinase (D) Increased affinity for oxygen
(C) Specificity of glucokinase
87. Erythrocytes under normal conditions and
(D) Blood brain barrier microorganisms under anaerobic condi-
80. In the reaction below, Nu TP stands for tions may accumulate
NuTP + glucose Glucose 6Phosphate (A) NADPH
+ NuDP. (B) Pyruvate
(A) ATP (B) CTP (C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(C) GTP (D) UTP (D) Lactate
81. In the figures shown below, fructose 1,6- 88. Enzymes leading to the high energy
biphosphate is located at point:
phosphorylation of substrates during
(A) A (B) B glycolysis include which of the following?
(C) C (D) D (A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
82. The enzyme of the glycolic pathway, (B) Enolase
sensitive to inhibiton by fluoride ions is (C) Pyruvate Kinase
(A) Hexokinase (B) Aldolase (D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(C) Enolase (D) Pyruvate kinase
89. Lineweaver Burk double reciprocal plot
83. In glycolytic pathway, iodacetate inhibits is related to
the activity of the enzyme: (A) Substrate concentration
(A) Phosphotriose isomerase (B) Enzyme activity
(B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (C) Temperature
(C) Pyruvate kinase (D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Phosphofructokinase
ENZYMES 145

90. Phosphofructokinase key enzyme in 97. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity is


glycolysis is inhibited by inhibited by
(A) Citrate and ATP (B) AMP (A) Mercury (B) Zinc
(C) ADP (D) TMP (C) Calcium (D) Sodium
98. In the normal resting state of humans,
91. One of the enzymes regulating glycolysis
most of the blood glucose burned as fuel
is
is consumed by
(A) Phosphofructokinase (A) Liver (B) Adipose tissue
(B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (C) Muscle (D) Brain
(C) Phosphotriose isomerase
99. All the enzymes of glycolysis pathway are
(D) Phosphohexose isomerase found in
92. Hexokinase is inhibited in an allosteric (A) Extramitochondrial soluble fraction of the cell
manner by (B) Mitochondria
(A) Glucose-6-Phosphate (C) Nucleus
(B) Glucose-1-Phosphate (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Fructose-6-phosphate 100. Most major metabolic pathways are con-
(D) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate sidered mainly either anabolic or cata-
bolic. Which of the following pathway
93. A reaction which may be considered an is most correctly considered to be am-
isomerisation is phibolic?
(A) Citric acid cycle (B) Gluconeogenesis
(A) Glucose 6-Phosphate fructose 6 phosphate
(C) Lipolysis (D) Glycolysis
(B) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-phosphoglycerate
101. The enzymes of the citric acid cycle are
(C) 2-phosphoglycerate phosphoenol- located in
pyruvate (A) Mitochondrial matrix
(B) Extramitochondrial soluble fraction of the cell
(D) Pyruvate Lactate
(C) Nucleus
94. The net number of ATP formed per mole (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
of glucose in anaerobic glycolysis is
102. The initial step of the citric acid cycle is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
(C) 6 (D) 8 (B) Condensation of acetyl-CoA with oxaloacetate
95. Pyruvate dehydrogenase a multienzyme (C) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate
complex is required for the production of (D) Formation of -ketoglutarate catalysed by
isocitrate dehydrogenase
(A) Acetyl-CoA
(B) Lactate 103. The substance which may be considered
to play a catalytic role in citric acid cycle is
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(A) Oxaloacetate (B) Isocitrate
(D) Enolpyruvate
(C) Malate (D) Fumarate
96. Dietary deficiency of thiamin inhibits the
104. An enzyme of the citric acid cycle also
activity of the enzyme:
found outside the mitochondria is
(A) Pyruvate kinase (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (B) Citrate synthetase
(C) Phosphofructokinase (C) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(D) Enolase (D) Malate dehydrogenase
146 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

105. The reaction catalysed by -ketoglutarate 111. Formation of succinyl-CoA from -Keto-
dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle glutarate is inhibited by
requires
(A) Fluoroacetate (B) Arsenite
(A) NAD (B) NADP (C) Fluoride (D) Iodoacetate
(C) ADP (D) ATP
112. The number of ATP molecules generated
106. If all the enzymes, intermediates and for each turn of the citric acid cycle is
cofactors of the citric acid cycle as well as
an excess of the starting substrate acetyl- (A) 8 (B) 12
CoA are present and functional in an (C) 24 (D) 38
organelle free solution at the appropriate
113. Oxidation of one molecule of glucose
pH, which of the following factors of the
yields
citric acid cycle would prove to be rate
limiting? (A) 12 ATP (B) 24 ATP
(A) Molecular oxygen (C) 38 ATP (D) 38 ATP
(B) Half life of enzyme 114. Which of the following intermediates of
(C) Turnover of intermediates metabolism can be both a precursor and
(D) Reduction of cofactors a product of glucose?
107. In TCA cycle, oxalosuccinate is converted (A) Lactate (B) Pyruvate
to -ketoglutarate by the enzyme: (C) Alanine (D) Acetyl-CoA
(A) Fumarase 115. Mitochondrial membrane is freely
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase preamble to
(C) Aconitase (A) Pyruvate (B) Malate
(D) Succinase
(C) Oxaloacetate (D) Fumarate
108. The enzyme -ketoglutarate dehydrogena-
116. The reaction of Krebs cycle which does
se in the citric acid cycle requires
not require cofactor of vitamin B group is
(A) Lipoate (B) Folate
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Inositol (A) Citrate isocitrate

109. The example of generation of a high (B) -Ketoglutarate succinate


energy phosphate at the substrate level (C) Malate oxaloacetate
in the citric acid cycle is the reaction:
(D) Succinate fumarate
(A) Isocitrate -Ketoglutarate
(B) Succinate -fumarate 117. The coenzyme not involved in the
formation of acetyl-CoA from pyruvate is
(C) Malate -oxaloacetate
(A) TPP (B) Biotin
(D) Succinyl CoA -Succinate (C) NAD (D) FAD

110. Fluoroacetate inhibits the reaction of citric 118. A carrier molecule in the citric acid cycle is
acid cycle: (A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Citrate
(A) Isocitrate -Ketoglutarate (C) Oxaloacetate (D) Malate

(B) Fumarate -Malate 119. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydro-


genase is
(C) Citrate -cis-aconitate
(A) Arsenine (B) Arsenite
(D) Succinate -fumarate (C) Citrate (D) Fluoride
ENZYMES 147

120. The rate of citric acid cycle is controlled 127. In glycogenolysis, the enzyme which
by the allosteric enzyme: transfers a trisaccharide unit from one
(A) Aconitase 6 branch
branch to the other exposing 1
(B) Fumarase point is
(C) Fumarase (A) Phosphorylase
(D) Malate dehydrogenase (B) -[1 4] -[1 4] Glucan transferase
(C) Amylo [1 6] glucosidase
121. In the erythrocytes, the net production of
ATP molecules by the Rapport-Leubering (D) Amylo[1 4] [1 6] transglucosidase
pathway is 128. In the synthesis of glycogen from glucose
(A) 0 (B) 2 the reversible step is
(C) 4 (D) 8 (A) Glucose glucose 6-phosphate
122. The ratio that most closely approximates (B) Glucose 6-phosphate glucose 1-phosphate
the number of net molecules of ATP (C) Glucose 1-phosphate UDP glucose
formed per mole of glucose utilized under (D) UDP glucose glycogen
aerobic conditions to the net number
formed under anaerobic conditions is 129. The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) 4:1 (B) 13:1 which catalyses the conversion of glucose
6-phosphate to glucose is not found in
(C) 18:1 (D) 24:1
(A) Liver (B) Muscle
123. The pathway of glycogen biosynthesis
(C) Intestine (D) Kidney
involves a special nucleotide of glucose.
In the reaction below, NuDP stands for 130. Allosteric activator of glycogen synthase
NuDP Glucose + glycogenn NuDP + glycogenn+1 is

(A) ADP (B) GDP (A) Glucose (B) Glucose-6-Phosphate


(C) UDP (D) CDP (C) UTP (D) Glucose-1-phosphate

124. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to glu- 131. Action of glycogen synthase is inhibited by
cose 1-phosphate in a reaction catalysed (A) Insulin (B) Glucose
by the enzyme phosphoglucomutase,
(C) Mg 2+ (D) Cyclic AMP
which is
(A) Phosphorylated 132. The hormone activating the glycogen
synthase activity is
(B) Dephosphorylated
(C) Phosphorylated-dephosphorylated (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
(D) Phosphorylated-dephosphorylatedrephos- (C) Epinephrine (D) ACTH
phorylated
133. Characteristic features of active site are
125. The glycogen content of the liver is upto (A) Flexible in nature (B) Site of binding
(A) 6% (B) 8% (C) Acidic (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 10% (D) 12%
134. Von Gierkes disease is characterized by
126. In glycogenesis a branch point in the the deficiency of
molecule is established by the enzyme
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) Amylo[1 4][1 6] transglucosidase
(B) -1 4 Glucosidase
(B) [1 4] [1 4] Glucan transferase
(C) 1 6 Glucosidase
(C) Amylo [1 6] glucosidase
(D) Liver phosphorylase
(D) Glycogen synthase
148 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

135. Cori disease (Limit dextrinosis) is caused 142. The hydrogen acceptor used in pentose
due to absence of phosphate pathway is
(A) Branching enzyme (A) NAD (B) NADP
(B) Debranching enzyme (C) FAD (D) FMN
(C) Glycogen synthase
143. The enzymes of the pentose phosphate
(D) Phosphorylase
pathway are found in the
136. Mc Ardles syndrome is characterized by
(A) Cytosol
the absence of
(B) Mitochondria
(A) Liver phosphorylase
(C) Nucleus
(B) Muscle phosphorylase
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Branching enzyme
(D) Debranching enzyme 144. In pentose phosphate pathway, D-ribulose-
137. Pompes disease is caused due to 5-phosphate is converted to D-ribose-5-
deficiency of phosphate by the enzyme:

(A) Lysosomal -14 and 16-glucosidase (A) Fumarase (B) Ketoisomerase


(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase (C) G-6-PD (D) Epimerase
(C) Glycogen synthase
145. The transketolase enzyme in the pentose
(D) Phosphofructokinase phosphate pathway requires the B
138. Amylopectinosis is caused due to absence vitamin.
of (A) Pantothenic acid (B) Thiamin
(A) Debranching enzyme (C) Riboflavin (D) Nicotinic acid
(B) Branching enzyme
146. Xylulose-5-phosphate serves as a donar
(C) Acid maltase
of active glycolaldehyde, the acceptor is
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) Erythrose 4-phosphate
139. Hers disease is characterized by deficien-
cy of (B) Ribose 5-phosphate
(C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(A) Muscle phosphorylase
(B) Liver phosphorylase (D) Sedoheptulose 7-phosphate
(C) Debranching enzyme 147. Pentose phosphate pathway is of signif-
(D) Glycogen synthase icance because it generates
140. Tarui disease is characterized by the (A) NADPH for reductive synthesis
deficiency of the enzyme: (B) Regenerates glucose 6-phosphate
(A) Liver phosphorylase (C) Generates fructose 6-phosphate
(B) Muscle phosphorylase (D) Forms glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(C) Muscle and erythrocyte phosphofructokinase
148. The pentose phosphate pathway protects
(D) Lysosomal acid maltase
erythrocytes against hemolysis by assis-
141. The hexose monophosphate pathway ting the enzyme:
includes the enzyme:
(A) Superoxide dismutase
(A) Maltase dehydrogenase
(B) Catalase
(B) Hexokinase
(C) Glutathionic peroxidase
(C) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
ENZYMES 149

149. Hemolytic anemia is caused by the 157. For conjugation with many enogenous
deficiency of certain enzymes of the and exogenous substances before eli-
pentose phosphate pathway, the mination in urine, the uronic acid path-
principal enzyme involved is way provides
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (A) Active glucuronate (B) Gulonate
(B) Aldolase (C) Xylulose (D) Xylitol
(C) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase
158. UDP glucose is converted to UDP
(D) Phosphohexose isomerase
glucurronate, a reaction catalysed by UDP
150. The sites for gluconeogenesis are glucose dehydrogenase requires
(A) Liver and kidney (A) NAD+ (B) FAD
(B) Skin and pancreas (C) NADP (D) FMN
(C) Lung and brain
159. Pentosuria is a rare hereditary disease is
(D) Intestine and lens of eye
characterized by increased urinary
151. An enzyme involved in gluconeogenesis is excretion of
(A) Pyruvate kinase (A) L-xylulose
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase (B) Xylitol
(C) Hexokinase (C) Xylulose 5-phosphate
(D) Phosphohexose isomerase (D) Ribose 5-phosphate
152. The enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is 160. The enzyme involved in essential
present in pentosuria is
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria (A) Reductase (B) Hydroxylase
(C) Nucleus (D) Golgi bodies (C) Isomerase (D) Racemase
153. The enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate
161. Galactose is synthesized from glucose in
carboxykinase catalyses the conversion
of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (A) Mammary gland (B) Intestine
requires (C) Kidney (D) Adipose tissue
(A) ATP (B) ADP 162. Galactose is readily converted to glucose in
(C) AMP (D) GTP
(A) Liver (B) Intestine
154. The enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase is (C) Kidney (D) Adipose tissue
present in
163. Galactose 1-phosphate is converted to
(A) Liver (B) Muscle
uridine diphosphate galactose, the
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Brain
reaction is catalysed by the enzyme:
155. In gluconeogensis, an allosteric activator (A) Glactokinase
required in the synthesis of oxaloacetate
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
from bicarbonate and pyruvate, which is
catalysed by the enzyme pyruvate (C) Uridine diphospho galactose 4-epimerase
carboxylase is (D) UDP glucose pyrophosphorylase
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Succinate 164. The best known cause of galactosemia is
(C) Isocitrate (D) Citrate the deficiency of
156. The number of ATP molecules required to (A) Galactose 1-phosphate and uridyl transferase
convert 2 molecules of lactate into glucose (B) Phosphoglucomutase
in mammalian liver is (C) Galactokinase
(A) 2 (B) 4 (D) Lactose synthase
(C) 5 (D) 6
150 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

165 Conversion of fructose to sorbitol is 172. Phlorizin inhibits


catalysed by the enzyme:
(A) Renal tubular reabsorption of glucose
(A) Sorbitol dehydrogenase (B) Glycolysis
(B) Aldose reductase (C) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Fructokinase (D) Glycogenolysis
(D) Hexokinase
173. Renal glycosuria is characterized by
166. A specific fructokinase present in liver has
a very high affinity for its substrate (A) Hyperglycemia
because (B) Hyperglycemia with glycosuria
(A) Km for fructose is very high (C) Normal blood glucose level with glycosuria
(B) Km for fructose is very low (D) Hyperglycemia with ketosis
(C) Activity is affected by fasting 174. Acute hemolytic anemia in persons sen-
(D) Activity is affected by insulin sitive to the Fava beans is due to the defi-
167. Insulin has no effect on the activity of the ciency of the enzyme:
enzyme: (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) Glycogen synthetase (B) G-6-PD
(B) Fructokinase (C) Aconitase
(C) Pyruvate kinase (D) Transketolase
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
175 Acute hemolytic episode after administra-
168. The pathogenesis of diabetic cataract tion of antimalarial, primaquin, is due to
involves accumulation of deficiency of the enzyme:
(A) Galactose (B) Mannitol (A) 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(C) Sorbitol (D) Pyruvate (B) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
169. Hereditary fructose intolerance involves (C) Epimerase
the absence of the enzyme: (D) Transketolase
(A) Aldalose B 176. The pH optima of gastric lipase is
(B) Fructokinase
(A) 3.06.0 (B) 1.02.0
(C) Triokinase
(C) 8.0 (D) 8.6
(D) Phosphotriose isomerase
177. The optimum pH of pancreatic lipase is
170. Essential fructosuria is characterized by
the lack of the hepatic enzyme: (A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
(A) Phosphohexose isomerase (C) 6.0 (D) 8.0
(B) Aldalose A 178. Gastric lipae is activated in the presence
(C) Aldolase B of
(D) Fructokinase (A) Bile salts (B) Cu ++
+
171. In normal individuals glycosuria occurs (C) K (D) Na +
when the venous blood glucose concen-
tration exceeds 179. An example of enzyme inhibition:

(A) 56 mmol/L (A) Reversible inhibition


(B) 78 mmol/L (B) Irreversible inhibition
(C) 8.59 mmol/L (C) Allosteric inhibition
(D) 9.510 mmol/L (D) All of these
ENZYMES 151

180. The formation of 2-trans-enoyl-CoA from 189. The concentration of ketone bodies in the
acyl-CoA requires the enzyme: blood does not normally exceed
(A) Acyl-CoA synthetase (A) 0.2 mmol/L (B) 0.4 mmol/L
(B) Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (C) 1 mmol/L (D) 2 mmol/L
(C) 3-Hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase 190. In humans under normal conditions loss
(D) Thiolase of ketone bodies via urine is usually less
than
181. In -oxidation 3-ketoacyl-CoA is splitted
at the 2, 3 position by the enzyme: (A) 1 mg/24 hr (B) 4 mg/24 hr
(A) Hydratase (B) Dehydrogenase (C) 8 mg/24 hr (D) 10 mg/24 hr
(C) Reducatse (D) Thiolase 191. The structure which appears to be the only
organ to add significant quantities of
182. Fatty acids with odd number of carbon
ketone bodies to the blood is
atoms yield acetyl-CoA and a molecule of
(A) Brain (B) Erythrocytes
(A) Succinyl-CoA (B) Propionyl-CoA
(C) Liver (D) Skeletal muscle
(C) Malonyl-CoA (D) Acetoacetyl-CoA
192. The starting material for ketogenesis is
183 For each of the first 7-acetyl-CoA molecules
formed by -oxidation of palmitic acid, (A) Acyl-CoA (B) Acetyl-CoA
the yield of high energy phosphates is (C) Acetoacetyl-CoA (D) Malonyl-CoA
(A) 12 (B) 24 193. Enzymes responsible for ketone body
(C) 30 (D) 35 formation are associated mainly with the

184. The net gain of ATP/mol of palmitic acid (A) Mitochondria


on complete oxidation is (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(A) 88 (B) 105 (C) Nucleus
(C) 129 (D) 135 (D) Golgi apparatus

185. -oxidation is normally a very minor 194. The synthesis of 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-


pathway and is brought by hydroxylase glutaryl-CoA can occur
enzymes involving (A) Only in mitochondria of all mammalian tissues
(A) Cytochrome a (B) Cytochrome b (B) Only in the cytosol of all mammalian tissue
(C) Cytochrome c (D) Cytochrome p-450 (C) In both cytosol and mitochondria
(D) In lysosomes
186. -Oxidation i.e., the removal of one
carbon at a time from the carboxyl end 195. In the pathway leading to biosynthesis
of the molecule has been detected in of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in liver,
the immediate precursor of aceotacetate
(A) Brain tissue (B) Liver
is
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Intestine
(A) Acetoacetyl-CoA
187. In -oxidation, the coenzyme for acyl-CoA (B) 3-Hydroxybutyryl-CoA
dehydrogenase is (C) 3-Hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA
(A) FMN (B) NAD (D) 3-Hydroxybutyrate
(C) NADP (D) FAD
196. Ketone bodies serve as a fuel for
188. The coenzyme involved in dehydrogena- (A) Extrahepatic tissues
tion of 3-hydroxy acyl-CoA is
(B) Hepatic tissues
(A) FAD (B) FMN (C) Erythrocytes
(C) NAD (D) NADP (D) Mitochondria
152 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

197. In extra hepatic tissues, one mechanism 205. The fatty acid synthase complex catalyses
for utilization of acetoacetate involves (A) 4 sequential enzymatic steps
(A) Malonyl-CoA (B) Succinyl-CoA (B) 6 sequential enzymatic steps
(C) Propionyl-CoA (D) Acetyl-CoA (C) 7 sequential enzymatic steps
(D) 8 sequential enzymatic steps
198. Ketosis reflects
(A) Increased hepatic glucose liberation 206. The main source of reducing equivalents
(NADPH) for lipogenesis is
(B) Increased fatty acid oxidation
(A) Pentose phosphate pathway
(C) Increased carbohydrate utilisation
(B) Citric acid cycle
(D) Incresed gluconeogenesis
(C) Glycolysis
199. Ketosis is associated with the disease: (D) Glycogenolysis
(A) Nephritis 207. In fatty acids synthase of both bacteria
(B) Diabetes mellitus and mammals, ACP (acyl carrier protein)
(C) Edema contain the vitamin:
(D) Coronary artery diseases (A) Thiamin (B) Pyridoxine
(C) Riboflavin (D) Pantothenic acid
200. The main pathway for denovo synthesis
of fatty acids occur in 208. Carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-
CoA requires the enzyme:
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
(C) Microsomes (D) Nucleus (A) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase
201. Chain elongation of fatty acids in (C) Acetyl transacylase
mammalian liver occurs in (D) Acyl CoA-synthetase
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosomes
209. The rate limiting reaction in the lipogenic
(C) Lysosomes (D) Microsomes pathway is
202. Acetyl-CoA is the principal building block (A) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase step
of fatty acids. It is produced within the (B) Ketoacyl synthase step
mitochondria and does not diffuse readily (C) Ketoacyl reductase step
into cytosol. The availability of acetyl CoA (D) Hydratase step
involves
210. Conversion of fatty acyl-CoA to an acyl-
(A) Carnitine acyl transferase
CoA derivative having 2 more carbon
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase atoms involves as acetyl donar:
(C) Citrate lyase (A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Succinyl-CoA
(D) Thiolase (C) Propionyl-CoA (D) Malonyl-CoA
203. The synthesis of fatty acids is often termed 211. A cofactor required for the conversion of
reductive synthesis. acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA in extramito-
(A) NADP+ (B) NADH chondrial fatty acid synthesis is
(C) FADH2 (D) NADPH (A) Biotin (B) FMN
(C) NAD (D) NADP
204. The protein, which is in fact a multifunc-
tional enzyme complex in higher organ- 212. The glycerol for fatty acid esterification in
ism is adipocytes is
(A) Acetyl transacylase (A) For the most part, derived from glucose
(B) Malonyl transacylase (B) Obtained primarily from phosphorylation of
glycerol by glycerol kinase
(C) 3-Hydroxy acyl-ACP dehyratase
(C) Formed from gluconeogenesis
(D) Fatty acid synthase
(D) Formed from glycogenolysis
ENZYMES 153

213. In the biosynthesis of triglycerides from 221. Synthesis of phosphatidylinositol by


glycerol 3-phosphate and acyl-CoA, the transfer of inositol to CDP diacylglycerol
first intermediate formed is is catalysed by the enzyme:
(A) 2-Monoacylglycerol (A) CTP phosphatidate cytidyl transferase
(B) 1, 2-Diacylglycerol (B) Phosphatidate phosphohydrolase
(C) Lysophosphatidic acid (C) CDP-diacylglycerol inositol transferase
(D) Phosphatidic acid (D) Choline kinase

214. The enzyme glycerol kinase is low activity 222. Synthesis of sphingosine requires the
in cofactor
(A) Liver (B) Kidney (A) NAD (B) NADP
(C) Intestine (D) Adipose tissue (C) NADPH+ (D) ATP

215. The common precursor in the biosynthesis 223. Ceramide is formed by the combination
of triacylglycerol and phospholipids is of sphingosine and
(A) 1, 2-Diacylglycerol phosphate (A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Acyl-CoA
(B) 1-Acylglycerol 3-phosphate (C) Malonyl-CoA (D) Propionyl-CoA
(C) Glycerol 3-phosphate 224. The amino alcohol sphingosine is
(D) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate synthesized in

216. Synthesis of polyunsaturated fatty acids (A) Mitochondria


involves the enzyme systems: (B) Cytosol
(C) Nucleus
(A) Acyl transferase and hydratase
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Desaturase and elongase
(C) Ketoacyl-CoA reductase and hydratase 225. The output of free fatty acids from adipose
(D) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate tissue is reduced by
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
217. The desaturation and chain elongation
system of polyunsaturated fatty acid are (C) Growth hormone (D) Epinephrine
enhanced by 226. The principal action of insulin in adipose
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon tissue is to inhibit the activity of the
(C) Epinephrine (D) Thyroxine (A) Hormone sensitive lipoprotein lipase
(B) Glycerol phosphate acyltransferase
218. Higher rate of lipogenesis is associated
with (C) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) High proportion of carbohydrate in diet
(B) Restricted caloric intake 227. In non shivering thermogenesis
(C) High fat diet (A) Glucose is oxidized to lactate
(D) Deficiency of insulin (B) Fatty acids uncouple oxidative phosphoryla-
tion
219. Example of enzyme specificity:
(C) Ethanol is formed
(A) Stereo specificity (B) Reaction specificity (D) ATP is burned for heat production
(C) Substrate specificity(D) All of these
228. Brown adipose tissue is
220. Phospholipase C attacks the ester bond (A) A prominent tissue in human
liberating 1, 2-diacylglycerol and a
(B) Characterised by high content of mitochon-
phosphoryl base at position
dria
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) Associated with high activity of ATP synthase
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) 3 (D) Characterised by low content of cytochromes
154 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

229. Fatty liver is caused due to accumulation 238. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, the step
of which controls the rate and locus of
metabolic regulation is
(A) Fatty acids (B) Cholesterol
(C) Phospholipids (D) Triacylglycerol (A) Geranyl pyrophosphate farnesyl pyro-
phosphate
230. A lipotropic factor is (B) Squalene lanosterol
(A) Choline (B) Palmitic acid (C) HMG CoA mevalonate
(C) Calcium (D) Vitamin C (D) Lanosterol 1, 4-desmethyl lanosterol

231. Fatty liver is also caused by 239. The cyclisation of squalene in mammals
results in the direct formation of the sterol.
(A) CH3Cl (B) CCl4
(A) Cholesterol (B) Lanosterol
(C) Na2SO4 (D) Riboflavin
(C) Sistosterol (D) Zymosterol
232. All the enzymes involved in the synthesis
240. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, the rate
of cholesterol are found in
limiting enzyme is
(A) Mitochondria (A) Mevalonate kinase
(B) Golgi apparatus (B) HMG-CoA synthetase
(C) Nucleus (C) HMG-CoA reductase
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum and cytosol (D) Cis-prenyl transferase
233. The source of all the carbon atoms in 241. Cholesterol by a feed back mechanism
cholesterol is inhibits the activity of
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Bicarbonate (A) HMG-CoA synthetase
(C) Propionyl-CoA (D) Succinyl-CoA (B) HMG-CoA reductase
(C) Thilase
234. Two molecules of acetyl-CoA condense to
(D) Mevalonate kinase
form acetoacetyl-CoA catalysed by
(A) Thiolase (B) Kinase 242. The activity of HMG-CoA reductase is
inhibited by
(C) Reductase (D) Isomerase
(A) A fungal inhibitor mevastatin
235. Acetoacetyl-CoA condenses with one (B) Probucol
more molecule of acetyl-CoA to form
(C) Nicotinic acid
(A) Mevalonate (D) Clofibrate
(B) Acetoacetate
243. Hypolipidemic drugs reduce serum
(C) -Hydroxybutyrate cholesterol and triacylglycerol. The effect
(D) 3-Hydroxy 3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA of clofibrate is attributed to
236. HMG-CoA is converted to mevalonate by (A) Block in absorption from G.I.T.
reduction catalysed by (B) Decrease in secretion of triacylglycerol and
cholesterol containing VLDL by liver
(A) HMG-CoA synthetase
(C) Block in the reabsorption of bile acids
(B) HMG-CoA reductase
(D) Decreased synthesis of cholesterol
(C) Mevalonate kinase
(D) Thiolase 244. In biosynthesis of cholesterol triparanol
inhibits the activity of the enzyme:
237. For reduction enzyme HMG-CoA reductase
requires cofactor: (A) 24 Reductase
(B) Oxidosqualene-lanosterol cyclase
(A) NADPH (B) NADP
(C) Isomerase
(C) NAD (D) FAD
(D) Squalene epoxidase
ENZYMES 155

245. HMG-CoA reductase activity is increased 253. Defective enzyme in Hunters syndrome
by administration of the hormone: is
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (A) -L-iduronidase (B) Iduronate sulphatase
(C) Epinephrine (D) Glucocorticoids (C) Arylsulphatase B (D) C-acetyl transferase

246. The principal sterol excreted in feces is 254. In Hunters syndrome


(A) Coprostanol (B) Zymosterol (A) There is progressive corneal opacity
(C) Lanosterol (D) Desmosterol (B) Keratan sulphate is excreted in the urine
(C) Enzyme defective is arylsulphatase B
247. The principal rate limiting step in the
(D) Hearing loss is perceptive
biosynthesis of bile acids is at the
(A) 7-Hydroxylase reaction 255. An important feature of Von-Gierkes
disease is
(B) 12 -Hydroxylase reaction
(A) Muscle cramps (B) Cardiac failure
(C) Conjugation reaction
(C) Hypoglycemia (D) Respiratory alkalosis
(D) Deconjugation reaction
256. The affected organ in Mc Ardles syndrome
248. Hypercholesterolemia is found in
is
(A) Xanthomatosis (A) Liver (B) Kidney
(B) Thyrotoxicosis (C) Liver and Heart (D) Skeletal muscle
(C) Hemolytic jaundice
257. Refsums disease is due to deficiency of
(D) Malabsorption syndrom
the enzyme:
249. Hypocholesterolemia is found in (A) Pytantate--oxidase
(A) Thyrotoxicosis (B) Glucocerebrosidase
(B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Galactocerebrosidase
(C) Obstructive jaundice (D) Ceramide trihexosidase
(D) Nephrotic syndrome 258. An important finding in Refsums disease
250. The major source of extracellular is
cholesterol for human tissue is (A) Accumulation of ceramide trihexoside in the
kidney
(A) Very low density lipoprotein
(B) Accumulation of phytanic acid in the blood
(B) High density lipoprotein
and tissues
(C) Low density lipoprotein
(C) Accumulation of gangliosides in brain and
(D) Albumin spleen
251. Correct ordering of lipoprotein molecules (D) Skin eruptions
from lowest to the greater density is 259. -Galactosidase enzyme is defective in
(A) LDL, IDL, VLDL, chylomicron (A) Tay-sachs disease
(B) Chylomicron, VLDL, IDL, LDL (B) Refsums disease
(C) VLDL, IDL, LDL, chylomicron (C) Sandhoffs disease
(D) LDL, VLDL, IDL, chylomicron (D) Fabrys disease
252. In Hurlers syndrome, urine shows the 260. The hypothesis to explain enzyme
presence of substrate complex formation:
(A) Keratan sulphate I (A) Lock and key model
(B) Chondroitin sulphate (B) Induced fit theory
(C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan sulphate (C) Proenzyme theory
(D) Keratan sulphate II (D) Both (A) and (B)
156 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

261. An important finding in Tay-sachs disease is 269. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome is due to


(A) Renal failure (A) Absence of Apo-C-II
(B) Accumulation of gangliosides in brain and (B) Defect in Apo-B synthesis
spleen (C) Absence of Apo-E
(C) Cardiac failure (D) Absence of Apo-D
(D) Anemia
270. Enzyme deficient in Hyperammonemia
262. The enzyme deficient in Krabbes disease is type II is
(A) Hexosaminidase A (B) Arylsuphatase A (A) Glutamine synthetase
(C) -Galactosidase (D) -Fucosidase (B) Glutaminase
263. The enzyme ceramidase is deficient in (C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
(A) Farbers disease (B) Fabrys disease (D) Carbamoylphosphate synthetase
(C) Sandhoffs disease(D) Refsums disease 271. An important finding in Hyperammone-
mia type II is
264. Niemann-Pick disease is due to deficiency
of the enzyme (A) Increased serum gluatmine level
(A) Ceramidase (B) Enlarged liver
(B) Glucocerebrosidase (C) Mental retardation
(C) Galactocerebrosidase (D) Increased carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
level
(D) Sphingomyelinase
272. Absence of the enzyme argininosuccinate
265. Wolmans disease is due to deficiency of
synthetase causes
(A) Cholesteryl ester hydrolase
(A) Argininosuccinic aciduria
(B) Hexosaminidase A
(B) Hyperargininemia
(C) -Fucosidase
(C) Tricorrhexis nodosa
(D) Arylsulphatase A
(D) Citrullinemia
266. The enzyme deficient in Sandhoffs disease
273. Tricorrhexis nodosa is a characteristic find-
is
ing of
(A) -Fucosidase
(A) Argininosuccinic aciduria
(B) Hexosaminidase A and B
(B) Citrullinemia
(C) -Galactosidase
(C) Phenylketonuria
(D) -Glucosidase
(D) Hyperargininemia
267. Jamaican vomiting sickness is due to
274. Elevated blood argininosuccinate level is
inactivation of the enzyme
found in
(A) Pyruvate carboxylase
(A) Hyperargininemia
(B) Acyl-Co-A synthetase
(B) Argininosuccinic aciduria
(C) Acyl-Co-A dehydrogense
(C) Citrullinemia
(D) Thiolase
(D) Tyrosinosis
268. Zellwegers syndrome is due to inherited 275. Hyperargininemia, a defect in urea syn-
absence of thesis develops due to deficiency of the
(A) Peroxisomes enzyme:
(B) Phospholipase A1 (A) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
(C) Acyl-Co-A dehydrogenase (B) Argininosuccinase
(D) Thiolase (C) Arginase
(D) Argininosuccinate synthetase
ENZYMES 157

276. Albinism is due to deficiency of the enzyme: 284. A coenzyme required in transamination
(A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase reactions is
(B) Tyrosinase (A) Coenzyme A (B) Coenzyme Q
(C) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid oxidase (C) Biotin (D) Pyridoxal phosphate
(D) Tyrosine dehydrogenase 285. Coenzyme A contains a vitamin which is
277. Neonatal tyrosinemia is due to deficiency (A) Thiamin (B) Ascorbic acid
of the enzyme: (C) Pantothenic acid (D) Niacinamide
(A) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase
286. Cobamides contain a vitamin which is
(B) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
(A) Folic acid (B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(C) Pantothenic acid (D) Vitamin B12
(D) Tyrosine dehydrogenase
287. A coenzyme required in carboxylation
278. Which of the following is a substrate-
reactions is
specific enzyme?
(A) Hexokinase (B) Thiokinase (A) Lipoic acid (B) Coenzyme A
(C) Lactase (D) Aminopeptidase (C) Biotin (D) All of these

279. Coenzymes combine with 288. Which of the following coenzyme takes
part in tissue respiration?
(A) Proenzymes (B) Apoenzymes
(A) Coenzyme Q (B) Coenzyme A
(C) Holoenzymes (D) Antienzymes
(C) NADP (D) Cobamide
280. Coenzymes are required in which of the
following reactions? 289. The enzyme hexokinase is a
(A) Oxidation-reduction (A) Hydrolase (B) Oxidoreductase
(B) Transamination (C) Transferase (D) Ligase
(C) Phosphorylation 290. Which of the following is a proteolytic
(D) All of these enzyme?
281. Which of the following coenzyme takes (A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin
part in hydrogen transfer reactions? (C) Chymotrypsin (D) All of these
(A) Tetrahydrofolate (B) Coenzyme A 291. Enzymes which catalyse binding of two
(C) Coenzyme Q (D) Biotin substrates by covalent bonds are known as
282. Which of the following coenzyme takes (A) Lyases (B) Hydrolases
part in oxidation-reduction reactions? (C) Ligases (D) Oxidoreductases
(A) Pyridoxal phosphate 292. The induced fit model of enzyme action
(B) Lipoic acid was proposed by
(C) Thiamin diphosphate (A) Fischer (B) Koshland
(D) None of these (C) Mitchell (D) Markert
283. In conversion of glucose to glucose-6- 293. Allosteric inhibition is also known as
phsophate, the coenzyme is
(A) Competitive inhibition
(A) Mg ++
(B) Non-competitive inhibition
(B) ATP
(C) Feedback inhibition
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
(D) None of these
158 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

294. An allosteric enzyme is generally inhibit- 302. Serum lactate dehydrogenase rises in
ed by (A) Viral hepatitis
(A) Initial substrate of the pathway (B) Myocardial infarction
(B) Substrate analogues (C) Carcinomatosis
(C) Product of the reaction catalysed by allosteric (D) All of these
enzyme
303. Which of the following serum enzyme
(D) Product of the pathway
rises in myocardial infarction:
295. When the velocity of an enzymatic reaction
(A) Creatine kinase (B) GOT
equals Vmax, substrate concentration is
(C) LDH (D) All of these
(A) Half of Km (B) Equal to Km
(C) Twice the Km (D) Far above the Km 304. From the following myocardial infarction,
the earliest serum enzyme to rise is
296. In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the y-intercept
(A) Creatine Kinase (B) GOT
represents
(C) GPT (D) LDH
(A) Vmax (B) Km
(C) Km (D) 1/Km 305. Proenzymes:
(A) Chymotrysinogen (B) Pepsinogen
297. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Competes with the enzyme
(B) Irreversibly binds with the enzyme 306. Alkaline phosphatase is present in
(C) Binds with the substrate (A) Liver (B) Bones
(D) Competes with the substrate (C) Placenta (D) All of these

298 Competitive inhibitors 307. Which of the following isoenzyme of


lactate dehydrogenase is raised in serum
(A) Decrease the Km (B) Decrease the Vmax
in myocardial infarction:
(C) Increase the Km (D) Increase the Vmax
(A) LD1 (B) LD2
299. Competitive inhibition can be relieved by (C) LD1 and LD2 (D) LD5
raising the
308. Enzymes which are always present in an
(A) Enzyme concentration
organism are known as
(B) Substrate concentration
(A) Inducible enzymes
(C) Inhibitor concentration
(B) Constitutive enzymes
(D) None of these
(C) Functional enzymes
300. Physostigmine is a competitive inhibitor (D) Apoenzymes
of
309. Inactive precursors of enzymes are known
(A) Xanthine oxidase as
(B) Cholinesterase (A) Apoenzymes (B) Coenzymes
(C) Carbonic anhydrase (C) Proenzymes (D) Holoenzymes
(D) Monoamine oxidase
310. Whcih of the following is a proenzyme?
301. Carbonic anhydrase is competitively
(A) Carboxypeptidase
inhibited by
(B) Aminopeptidase
(A) Allopurinol (B) Acetazolamide (C) Chymotrypsin
(C) Aminopterin (D) Neostigmine (D) Pepsinogen
ENZYMES 159

311. Allosteric enzymes regulate the formation 321. Alkaline phosphatase is present in
of products by
(A) Liver (B) Bones
(A) Feedback inhibition (C) Intestinal mucosa (D) All of these
(B) Non-competitive inhibition
(C) Competitive inhibition 322. All of the following are zinc-containing
enzymes except
(D) Repression-derepression
(A) Acid Phosphatase
312 Regulation of some enzymes by covalent
(B) Alkaline Phosphatase
modification involves addition or removal
of (C) Carbonic anhydrase
(A) Acetate (B) Sulphate (D) RNA polymerase
(C) Phosphate (D) Coenzyme 323. All of the following are iron-containing
enzymes except
313. Covalent modification of an enzyme
generally requires a (A) Carbonic anhydrase
(A) Hormone (B) cAMP (B) Catalase
(C) Protein kinase (D) All of these (C) Peroxidase
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
314. An inorganic ion required for the activity
of an enzyme is known as 324. Biotin is a coenzyme for
(A) Activator (B) Cofactor (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) Coenzyme (D) None of these (B) Pyruvate carboxylase
315. The first enzyme found to have iso- (C) PEP carboxykinase
enzymes was (D) Glutamate pyruvate transminase
(A) Alkaline Phosphatase 325. Enzymes accelerate the rate of reactions
(B) Lactate dehydrogenase by
(C) Acid Phosphatase
(A) Increasing the equilibrium constant of reactions
(D) Creatine kinase
316. Lactate dehydrogenase is located in (B) Increasing the energy of activation
(A) Lysosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Decreasing the energy of activation
(C) Cytosol (D) Microsomes (D) Decreasing the free energy change of the
reaction
317. Lactate dehydrogenase is a
326. Kinetics of an allosteric enzyme are
(A) Monomer (B) Dimer
explained by
(C) Tetramer (D) Hexamer
(A) Michaelis-Menten equation
318. Ceruloplasmin is absent in (B) Lineweaver-Burk plot
(A) Cirrhosis of liver (B) Wilsons disease (C) Hill plot
(C) Menkes disease (D) Copper deficiency (D) All of these
319. Ceruloplasmin oxidizes 327. Covalent modification of an enzyme
(A) Copper (B) Iron usually involves phosphorylation /
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these dephosphorylation of

320. Creatine kinase is present in all of the (A) Serine residue


following except (B) Proline residue
(A) Liver (B) Myocardium (C) Hydroxylysine residue
(C) Muscles (D) Brain (D) Hydroxyproline residue
160 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

328. Vmax of an enzyme may be affected by 335. The highest energy level is present
(A) pH amongst the following in
(B) Temperature (A) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
(C) Non-competitive inhibitors (B) Creatine phosphate
(D) All of these (C) Carbamoyl phosphate
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate
329. In enzyme assays, all the following are
kept constant except 336. Daily urinary urobilinogen excretion in
adult men is
(A) Substrate concentration
(A) 04 mg (B) 58 mg
(B) Enzyme concentration
(C) 912 mg (D) 1320 mg
(C) pH
(D) Temperature 337. In obstructive jaundice, faecal urobilino-
gen is
330. If the substrate concentration is much
below the km of the enzyme, the velocity (A) Absent (B) Decreased
of the reaction is (C) Increased (D) Normal

(A) Directly proportional to substrate concentration 338. Acetyl-CoA can be formed from
(B) Not affected by enzyme concentration (A) Pyruvate (B) Fatty acids
(C) Nearly equal to Vmax (C) ketone bodies (D) All of these
(D) Inversely proportional to substrate concentration
339. Pyruvate is converted into acetyl-CoA by
331. Enzymes requiring NAD as co-substrate (A) Decarboxylation
can be assayed by measuring change in (B) Dehydrogenation
absorbance at
(C) Oxidative decarboxylation
(A) 210 nm (B) 290 nm (D) Oxidative deamination
(C) 340 nm (D) 365 nm
340. Conversion of pyruvate into acetyl CoA
332. Different isoenzymes of an enzyme have is catalysed by
the same (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) Amino acid sequence (B) Didrolipoyl acetyl transferase
(B) Michaelis constant (C) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
(C) Catalytic activity (D) All the 3 acting in concert
(D) All of these
341. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is
333. From the pentapeptide, phe-ala-leu-lys- located in
arg, phenylalanine residue is split off by (A) Cytosol
(A) Trypsin (B) Chymotrypsin (B) Lysosomes
(C) Aminopeptidase (D) Carboxypeptidase (C) Mitochondria
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
334. A high-energy phosphate among the
following is 342. A flavoprotein in pyruvate dehydrogena-
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate se complex is
(B) Glucose-1-phosphate (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) 1, 3-Biphoglycerate (B) Didrolipoyl acetyl transferase
(D) All of these (C) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
(D) None of these
ENZYMES 161

343. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is 352. All of the following are intermediates of
regulated by citric acid cycle except
(A) Covalent modification (A) Oxalosuccinate (B) Oxaloacetate
(B) Allosteric regulation (C) Pyruvate (D) Fumarate
(C) Both (A) and (B)
353. All of the following intermediates of citric
(D) None of these
acid cycle can be formed from amino acids
344. An allosteric inhibitor of pyruvate dehy- except
drogenase is (A) -Ketoglutarate (B) Fumarate
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) ATP (C) Malate (D) Oxaloacetate
(C) NADH (D) Pyruvate
354. Glycolytic pathway is located in
345. Ribozymes:
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol
(A) RNA enzyme (B) Non-protein enzymes (C) Microsomes (D) Nucleus
(C) Catalyst function (D) All of these
355. End product of aerobic glycolysis is
346. In citric acid cycle, NAD is reduced in
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Lactate
(A) One reactions (B) Two reactions
(C) Pyruvate (D) CO2 and H2O
(C) Three reactions (D) Four reactions
356. During fasting, glucose is phosphorylated
347. Among citric acid cycle enzymes, a flavo-
mainly by
protein is
(A) Hexokinase (B) Glucokinase
(A) Malate
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(B) Fumarase
(C) Succinate dehrogenase 357. Glucokinase is found in
(D) Isocitrate dehrogenase (A) Muscles (B) Brain
348. In citric acid cycle, GDP is phosphorylated (C) Liver (D) All of these
by
358. In anaerobic glycolysis, energy yield
(A) Succinate dehydrogenase from each molecule of glucose is
(B) Aconitase (A) 2 ATP equivalents (B) 8 ATP equivalents
(C) Succinate thiokinase (C) 30 ATP equivalents(D) 38 ATP equivalents
(D) Fumarse
359. Which of the following is an allosteric
349. Malonate is an inhibitor of enzyme?
(A) Malate dehydrogenase (A) Phosphohexose isomerase
(B) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (B) Phosphotriose isomerase
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase (C) Lactate dehydrogenase
(D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (D) Phosphofructokinase
350. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is allosterically 360. Glycolysis is anaerobic in
inhibited by
(A) Liver (B) Brain
(A) Oxalosuccinate (B) -Ketoglutarate
(C) Kidneys (D) Erythrocytes
(C) ATP (D) NADH
361. Phosphofructokinase is allosterically
351. All of the following are allosteric enzymes inhibited by
except
(A) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
(A) Citrate synthetase
(B) Lactate
(B) a-Ketoglutarate dehdrogenase
(C) Pyruvate
(C) Succinate thiokinase
(D) Citrate
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
162 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

362. Glucose-6-phosphate is an allosteric 370. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is


inhibitor of induced by
(A) Glucokinase (A) 6-Phosphogluconolactone
(B) Hexokinase (B) Glucose-6-phosphate
(C) Phosphohexose isomerase (C) Ribose-5-phosphate
(D) None of these (D) Insulin
363. ATP is a co-substrate as well as an allos-
371. The decarboxylation reaction in HMP
teric inhibitor of
shunt is catalysed by
(A) Phosphofructokinase
(A) Gluconolactone hydrolase
(B) Hexokinase
(B) 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(C) Glucokinase
(C) 6-Phosphogluconate decarboxylase
(D) None of these
(D) Transaldolase
364. Complete oxidation of one molecule of
glucose into CO2 and H2O yields 372. The first pentose formed in HMP shunt is
(A) 8 ATP equivalents (A) Ribose-5-phosphate (B) Ribulose-5-phosphate
(B) 15 ATP equivalents (C) Xylose-5-phosphate (D) Xylulose-5-phosphate
(C) 30 ATP equivalents
373. The regulatory enzyme in HMP shunt is
(D) 38 ATP equivalents
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
365. A unique by-product of glycolysis in (B) 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
erythrocytes is
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Lactate
(D) None of these
(B) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
(C) 2, 3-Biphosphoglycerate 374. The rate of HMP shunt reactions is
(D) All of these (A) Increased by Insulin
(B) Increased in diabetes mellitus
366. Which of the following enzymes incorpo-
rates inorganic phosphate into the sub- (C) Increased by glucagons
strate? (D) Increased in starvation
(A) Phosphoglycerate kinase 375. Glycogenesis requires
(B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (A) GTP (B) CTP
(C) Pyruvate kinase (C) UTP (D) None of these
(D) Enolase
376. Glycogen synthetase catalyses the
367. Rapoport-Luebering cycle is located in formation of
(A) Liver (B) Muscles (A) 1, 4-Glycosidic bonds
(C) Brain (D) Erythrocytes (B) 1, 6-Glycosidic bonds
368. Glycerol can enter glycolytic pathway via (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(B) 1, 3-Biphospoglycerate 377. Glycogenoloysis is increased by
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate (A) Glucagon (B) Insulin
(D) 2-Phosphoglycerate (C) Epinephrine (D) cAMP
369. HMP shunt is present in 378. Hepatic glycogenoloysis is increased by
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Liver (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
(C) Testes (D) All of these (C) Epinephrine (D) Glucocorticoids
ENZYMES 163

379. Glycogen phosphorylase liberates the 388. Gluconeogenesis does not occur in
following from glycogen (A) Brain (B) Kidneys
(A) Glucose (C) Muscles (D) Liver
(B) Glucose-6-phosphate
389. Glucose cannot be synthesized from
(C) Glucose-1-phosphate
(A) Glycerol (B) Lactate
(D) Maltose
(C) Alanine (D) Leucine
380. After the action of phosphorylase, glyco-
gen is converted into 390. Coenzyme for phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase is
(A) Amylopectin (B) dextrin
(A) ATP (B) ADP
(C) Amylose (D) Maltose
(C) GTP (D) GDP
381. Glucose-1-phosphate liberated from
glycogen cannot be converted into free 391. Therapeutic enzymes:
glucose in (A) Streptokinase (B) Asparaginase
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys (C) Riboflavinase (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Muscles (D) Brain 392. A gluconeogenic enzyme among the
382. A coenzyme present in phosphorylase is following is
(A) NAD (A) Phosphofructokinase
(B) Pyridoxal phosphate (B) Pyruvate kinase
(C) Thiamin pyrophosphate (C) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
(D) Coenzyme A (D) Glucokinase

383. If glucose-1-phosphate formed by 393. Glucose-6-phosphatase and PEP carboxy


glycogenoloysis in muscles is oxidized to kinase are regulated by
CO2 and H2O, the energy yield will be (A) Covalent modification
(A) 2 ATP equivalents (B) 3 ATP equivalents (B) Allosteric regulation
(C) 4 ATP equivalents (D) 8 ATP equivalents (C) Induction and repression
(D) All of these
384. A molecule of phosphorylase kinase is
made up of 394. The maximum possible chain length of
(A) 4 subunits (B) 8 subunits fatty acids formed in the pathway of de
novo synthesis is
(C) 12 subunits (D) 16 subunits
(A) 16 Carbon atoms (B) 18 Carbon atoms
385. Cyclic AMP binds to
(C) 20 Carbon atoms (D) 24 Carbon atoms
(A) Catalytic subunits of protein kinase
395. Acetyl CoA required for de novo synthesis
(B) Regulatory subunits of protein kinase
of fatty acids is obtained from
(C) Catalytic subunits of phosphorylase kinase
(A) Breakdown of existing fatty acids
(D) Regulatory subunits of phosphorylase kinase
(B) Ketone bodies
386. Glucose is the only source of energy for (C) Acetate
(A) Myocardium (B) Kidneys (D) Pyruvate
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Thrombocytes
396. Formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvate
387. Glycerol-3-phosphate for the synthesis of for de novo synthesis of fatty acids requires
triglycerides in adipose tissue is derived (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
from
(B) Citrate synthetase
(A) Phosphatidic acid (B) Diacylglycerol (C) ATP citrate lyase
(C) Glycerol (D) Glucose (D) All of these
164 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

397. The major site for elongation of medium 405. Which one of the following cofactors must
chain fatty acids is be utilized during the conversion of acetyl
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol CoA to malonyl CoA?
(C) Microsomes (D) All of these (A) TPP (B) ACP
398. -oxidation of fatty acids is inhibited by (C) NAD+ (D) Biotin

(A) NADPH (B) Acetyl CoA 406. Which one of the following enzymes
(C) Malonyl CoA (D) None of these requires a coenzyme derived from the
vitamin whose structure is shown below?
399. The enzyme regulating extramitochondri-
(A) Enoyl CoA hydratase
al fatty acid synthesis is
(B) Phosphofructokinase
(A) Thioesterase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(C) Acyl transferase
(D) Multi-enzyme complex 407. Coenzymes derived from the vitamin
shown below are required by enzymes
400. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is activated by
involved in the synthesis of which of the
(A) Citrate (B) Insulin following?
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (A) ATP (B) UTP
401. All the following statements about acetyl (C) CTP (D) NADH
CoA carboxylase are true except:
408. Coenzymes derived from the vitamin
(A) It is activated by citrate shown below are required by which of
(B) It is inhibited by palmitoyl CoA the following enzymes?
(C) It can undergo covalent modification (A) Lactate dehydrogenase
(D) Its dephosphorylated form is inactive (B) Glutamate dehydrogenase
402. All the following statements about acetyl (C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
CoA carboxylase are true except (D) Malate dehydrogenase
(A) It is required for de novo synthesis of fatty 409. All the following are coenzymes except
acids
(A) Ubiquinone
(B) It is required for mitochondrial elongation of
fatty acids (B) CoA
(C) It is required for microsomal elongation of fatty (C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
acids (D) Lipoic acid
(D) Insulin converts its inactive form into its active 410. Which of the following is not a cofactor?
form
(A) Mg (B) Iron
403. Both Acyl carrier protein (ACP) of fatty (C) Cu (D) Methylcobalamine
acid synthetase and coenzyme (CoA) are
411. All the following compounds are
(A) Contain reactive phosphorylated
members of the electron transport chain
(B) Contain thymidine except
(C) Contain phosphopantetheine reactive groups
(A) Ubiquinone (B) Carnitine
(D) Contain cystine reactive groups
(C) NAD (D) FAD
404. Which one of the following transfers acyl
412. Thiamine is essential for
groups?
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Lipomide
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) ATP
(D) Acetyl CoA synthetase
(D) NADH
ENZYMES 165

413. Adenylate cyclase is activated by 422. A substrate for the enzyme aldolase is
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (A) galactose-6-phosphate
(C) Prostaglandin E1 (D) Ca2+ ions (B) isocitric acid
(C) Glucose-1-phosphate
414. Maximum enzyme activity is observed at
(D) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate
(A) Acidic pH (B) Neutral pH
(C) Basic pH (D) Optimum pH 423. Decarboxylation of -keto acids requires
(A) Thiamine pyrophosphate, FAD, NAD+
415. Which of the following is known as bone
forming enzyme? (B) Flavin mononucleotide
(C) NADP+
(A) Alkaline phosphatase
(D) NAD+ only
(B) Acid phosphatase
(C) Leucine aminopeptidase 424. Coenzyme A contains the vitamin:
(D) -glutamyl transpeptidase (A) Riboflavin (B) Pantothenic acid
416. Conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin is (C) Pyridoxine (D) Thiamine

(A) Intra molecular rearrangement 425. Which of the following is not a component
(B) Breaking of hydrogen bonds of coenzyme A?
(C) Covalent modification (A) Adenylic acid
(D) Polymerisation (B) Pantothenic acid
(C) -mercaptoethylamine
417. Which of the following is not having an
apoenzyme and coenzyme? (D) Deoxyadenylic acid

(A) Lactate dehydrogenase 426. Malic enzyme convers malic acid, in the
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase presence of NADP+ to Pyruvic acid. This
reaction is a/an
(C) Malate dehydrogenase
(D) Pepsin (A) Decarboxylation
(B) Decarboxylation and Dehydrogenation
418. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a/an (C) Dehydrogenation
(A) Isomerase (B) Lyase (D) Oxidation
(C) Ligase (D) Oxido reductase
427. The following reaction is characteristic of
419. Homogentisic oxidase is an what type of enzymes?
(A) Oxidase 2H2O2 2H2O + O2
(B) Monooxygenase (A) Peroxides
(C) Dioxygenase (B) Catalase
(D) Anaerotic dehydrogenase (C) Dehydrogenase
420. Isocitrate dehydrogenase can use (D) Copper containing oxidases
__________ as a cofactor. 428. Of Which warburgs yellow enzyme
(A) NAD+ only (B) NADP+ only contains as a prosthetic group?
(C) NAD+ or NADP+ (D) FMN and FAD (A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
421. The rate of most enzyme catalysed (B) Biotin
reactions changes with pH. As the pH (C) NAD+
increases, this rate (D) Riboflavin-5-phosphate
(A) reaches a minimum, then increases 429. Dehydrogenases utilize, as coenzymes, all
(B) reaches a maximum, then decreases of the following except
(C) increases (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
(D) decreases (C) FAD (D) FH4
166 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

430. Urea is produced physiologically by the 438. Immobilized enzymes:


action of the enzyme: (A) Potentiation of activity
(A) Urease (B) Glutaminase (B) Presentation of activity
(C) Arginase (D) None of these (C) Preparation of activity
431. Urease is a (D) All of these

(A) Lyase (B) Ligase 439. This catalyzes formation of CoA deriva-
(C) Isomerase (D) Hydrolase tives from fatty acid, CoA and ATP:
(A) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
432. Velocity maximum for an enzyme at half
the substrate concentration gives (B) Enoyl hydrase
(C) -OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase
(A) The molecular weight of the enzyme
(D) Thio kinase
(B) Km value
(C) Isoelectric pH 440. Fructose 2, 3 bi phosphate is a powerful
(D) Pk value allosteric activator of
(A) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphatase
433. Which of the following amino acid has
(B) Phosphofructokinase
been shown as one of the active site of
phosphoglucomutase? (C) Hexokinase
(D) Fructokinase
(A) Lysine (B) Tyrosine
(C) Serine (D) Histidine 441. Clearing factor is
434. The inhibition of succinate dehydro- (A) Lipoprotein lipase
genase by malonate by (B) Crotonase
(A) Competitive inhibition (C) 7-dehydro cholesterol
(B) Non-competitive inhibition (D) -sitosterol
(C) Uncompetitive inhibition 442. Maltase attacks only
(D) Feedback inhibition (A) -glucosides (B) -glucosides
435. Cobamide coenzymes are (C) Starch (D) Dextrins
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Riboflavin 443. Pepsin is
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Vitamin B12 (A) Exo-peptidase (B) Endo-peptidase
436. The isozyme CK-MB is specifically (C) Carboxy peptidase(D) Amino peptidase
increased in the blood of patients who
444. An enzyme in saliva which hydrolyzes
had
starch is
(A) Skeletal muscle disease
(A) Pepsinogen (B) Chymotrysin
(B) Recent myocardial infarction
(C) -Amylase (D) Malate
(C) Infective hepatitis
(D) Myxoedema 445. If a coenzyme is required in an enzyme
reaction, the former usually has the
437. FAD containing enzyme, catalyzing function of
formation of , unsaturated fatty acyl
(A) Acting as an acceptor for one of the cleavage
CoA derivative.
products of the substrate
(A) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase (B) Enhancing the specificity of the apo enzyme
(B) Enoyl hydrase (C) Increasing the number of receptor sites of the
(C) -OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase apo enzyme
(D) Thiolase (D) Activating the substrate
ENZYMES 167

446. The Michaehis-Menten hypothesis: (B) Changing the specificity of the enzyme for
(A) Postulates the formation of an enzyme the substrate
substrate complex (C) Changing the conformation of the enzyme by
binding to a site other than catalytic site
(B) Enables us to calculate the isoelectric point of
an enzyme (D) Changing the nature of the products formed
(C) States that the rate of a chemical reaction may 454. Which of the following regulatory
be independent of substrate concentration reactions involves a reversible covalent
(D) States that the reaction rate is proportional to modification of an enzyme?
substrate concentration (A) Phosphorylation of serine OH on the enzyme
447. Schardingers enzyme is (B) Allosteric modulation
(C) Competitive inhibition
(A) Lactate dehydrogenase
(D) Non-competitive inhibition
(B) Xanthine dehydrogenase
(C) Uric oxidase 455. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has
(D) L amino acid dehydrogenase which of the following properties?
(A) It is frequently a feedback inhibitor
448. Tryptophan pyrolase is currently known
(B) It becomes covalently attached to an enzyme
as
(C) It decreases the Vmax
(A) Tryptophan deaminase
(D) It interferes with substrate binding to the
(B) Tryptophan dioxygenase enzyme
(C) Tryptophan mono oxygenase
456. When [s] is equal to Km, which of the
(D) Tryptophan decarboxylase
following conditions exist?
449. An enzyme which brings about lysis of (A) Half the enzyme molecules are bound to
bacterial cell wall is substrate
(A) Amylase (B) Lysozyme (B) The velocity of the reaction is equal to Vmax
(C) Trypsin (D) Lipase (C) The velocity of the reaction is independent of
substrate concentration
450. Trypsin has no action on
(D) Enzyme is completely saturated with substrate
(A) Hemoglobin (B) Albumin
457. Which of the following statements about
(C) Histone (D) DNA
an enzyme exhibiting allosteric kinetics
451. Multiple forms of the same enzymes are with cooperative interaction is false?
known as (A) A plot of V-Vk [s] has a sigmaidal shape
(A) Zymogens (B) Isoenzymes (B) An inhibitor may increase the apparent Km
(C) Proenzymes (D) Pre-enzymes (C) Line weaver Bnrk plot is useful for determining
Km and Vmax
452. In non-competitive enzyme action
(D) Removal of allosteric inhibitor may result in
(A) Vmax is increased hyperbolic V-S [s] plot
(B) Apparent km is increased
458. Pantothenic acid acts on
(C) Apparent km is decreased
(A) NADP (B) NADPH
(D) Concentration of active enzyme molecule is
(C) FAD (D) CoA
reduced
459. Vitamin deficiency that causes fatty liver
453. An allosteric enzyme influences the
includes all except
enzyme activity by
(A) Vitamin E (B) Pyridoxine
(A) Competiting for the catalytic site with the
(C) Retionic acid (D) Pantothenic acid
substrate
168 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

460. In which of the following types of 467. The best test for acute pancreatitis in the
enzymes an inducer is not required? presence of mumps is
(A) Inhibited enzyme (B) Cooperative enzyme (A) A serological test for mumps
(C) Allosteric enzyme (D) Constitutive enzyme (B) Serum amylase
(C) Urinary amylase
461. In which of the following types of enzyme
water may be added to a CC double (D) Serum lipase
bond without breaking the bond? 468. The slow moving fraction of LDH is
(A) Hydrolase (B) Hydratase typically increased in pancreas with
(C) Hydroxylase (D) Esterase (A) Cerebrovascular accidents
462. Lock and Key model of enzyme action (B) Acute myocardial infarction
proposed by Fisher implies that (C) Acute pancreatitis
(D) Acute viral hepatits
(A) The active site is flexible and adjusts to
substrate 469. Which of the following enzyme typically
(B) The active site requires removal of PO4 group elevated in alcoholism?
(C) The active site is complementary in shape to (A) Serum ALP
that of the substrate (B) Serum GOT
(D) Substrates change conformation prior to active (C) Serum -GT
site interaction
(D) Serum acid phosphatase
463. In competitive inhibition of enzyme action 470. Patients with hepatocellular jaundice, as
(A) The apparent Km is decreased compared to those with purely obstruc-
(B) The apparent Km is increased tive jaundice tend to have
(C) Vmax is decreased (A) Lower serum ALP, LDH and AST activity
(D) Apparent concentration of enzyme molecules (B) Lower serum ALP, Higher LDH and AST activity
decreased (C) Higher serum ALP, LDH and AST activity
464. In competitive inhibition which of the (D) Higher serum ALP, Lower LDH and AST activity
following kinetic effect is true ? 471. If results of the serum bilirubin, serum ALP,
(A) Decreases both Km and Vmax LDH and AST determinations suggest
(B) Increases both Km and Vmax obstructive jaundice, the best confirmatory
test would be the estimation of
(C) Decreases Km without affecting Vmax
(D) Increases Km without affecting Vmax (A) Serum ALT
(B) Serum 5 nucleotidase
465. Enzymes increase the rates of reactions
(C) Serum Pseudo cholinesterase
by
(D) None of these
(A) Increasing the free energy of activation
(B) Decreasing the energy of activation 472. Which enzyme estimation will be helpful
in differentiating the elevated serum ALP
(C) Changing the equilibrium constant of the found in obstructive jaundice as well as
reaction bone disorders?
(D) Increasing the free energy change of the
(A) Serum AST (B) Serum ALT
reaction
(C) Serum LDH (D) Serum -GT
466. The most useful test for the diagnosis of
acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis during 473. Cardiac muscle contains which of the
the first few days is following CK osoenzyme?
(A) Urinary lipase test (B) Serum calcium (A) BB only (B) MM and BB only
(C) Urinary amylase (D) Serum amylase (C) MM, BB and MB (D) MM and MB only
ENZYMES 169

474. Liver and skeletol measle disorders are 482. Diastase can be used for the hydrolysis
characterized by on disk proportionate can be used for the hydrolysis of
increase in which of the LDH isoenzyme
fraction? (A) Sucrose (B) Starch
(C) Cellulose (D) Maltose
(A) LDH-1 (B) LDH-1 and LDH-2
(C) LDH-3 and LDH-4 (D) LDH-2 and LDH-3 483. Which of the following statements is true?
(E) LDH-5 (A) Enzymes have names ending ase
475. On the third day following onset of acute (B) Enzymes are highly specific in their action
myocardial infarction, which enzyme (C) Enzymes are living organisms
estimation will have the best predictive
value? (D) Enzymes get activated on heating

(A) Serum AST (B) Serum CK 484. Enzymes activity is controlled by


(C) Serum ALT (D) Serum LDH (A) pH of the solution
476. Serum AST activity is not characteristically (B) Temperature
elevated as the result of (C) Concentration of the enzyme
(A) Myocardial infarction (D) Concentration of the substrate
(B) Passive congestion of liver (E) All of these
(C) Muscular dystrophies
485. Which of the following is not true regard-
(D) Peptic ulcer
ing enzymes?
477. On which day following acute myocardial
(A) They catalyze only a particular type of reaction
infarction the estimation of serum AST will
be of greatest significance? (B) They remain active even after separation from
the source
(A) First day (B) Second day
(C) Third day (D) Fourth day (C) They are destroyed after the completion of
the reaction they catalyse
478. In which diseases of the following organs,
(D) They are irreversibly destroyed at high
isoenzymes LDH-1 and LDH-2 will be
temperature
released in plasma?
(E) Their activity depends on the pH of the solution
(A) Kidney, R.B.C and Liver
(B) Heart, Kidney and R.B.C 486 The number of enzymes known is about
(C) Heart, Kidney and Liver (A) 10,000 (B) 100
(D) Heart, Lungs and Brain (C) 50 (D) 26
479. Plasma non-functional enzymes are
487. Nicotine present in tobacco is a/an
(A) totally absent
(A) Alkaloid (B) Terpene
(B) low concentration in plastic
(C) Steroid (D) Protein
(C) important for diagnosis of several disease
(D) All of these 488. The poisonous alkaloid present in the oil
of hemlock is
480. Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all
except (A) Cocaine (B) Nicotine
(A) Biotin (B) NAD (C) Quinine (D) Morphine
(C) FAD (D) CoA 489. Alkaloids are usually purified by extrac-
481. An increase in LDH-5 enzyme is seen in tion with
the following except (A) Ether (B) Dil HCl
(A) Acute hepatitis (B) Muscular distrophies (C) NaOH (D) Chloroform
(C) Breast carcinoma (D) Pulmonary embolism
170 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

490. The number of N-MC groups in alkaloids (D) Be localized intracellularly


is best estimate with the help of (E) Be a catalyst
(A) HI (B) H2SO4
497. LDH assays are most useful in diagnosing
(C) (CH3CO)2 CO (D) CH3 Mg I diseases of the
491. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme (A) Heart (B) Pancreas
(A) Increases Km without affecting Vmax (C) Brain (D) Kidney
(B) Decreases Km without affecting Vmax
498. The chemical forces that bind most
(C) Increases Vmax without affecting Km coenzymes and substrates to enzymes
(D) Decreases both Vmax and Km such as LDH are
492. The Michaelis constant, Km is (A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Peptide bonds
(A) Numerically equal to Vmax (C) Coordinate bonds (D) Covalent bonds
(B) Dependent on the enzyme concentration 499. How many different proteins may be
(C) Independent of pH present in normal LDH?
(D) Numerically equal to the substrate concen- (A) One (B) Two
tration that gives half maximal velocity
(C) Three (D) Four
493. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction
was measured using several substrate 500. All the isoenzymes function with the
concentrations that were much lower coenzyme:
than K m, the dependence of reaction (A) NADP+ (B) FAD
velocity on substrate concentration can (C) Lipoate (D) NAD+
best be described as
501. Lock and Key theory was proposed by
(A) Independent of enzyme concentration
(B) A constant fraction of Vmax (A) Sorenson (B) Fischer
(C) Equal to Km (C) Mehler (D) Sanger
(D) Proportional to the substrate concentration 502. Which of the following forms part of a
494. The presence of a non competitive inhibitor coenzyme?
(A) Leads to both an increase in the Vmax of a (A) Zn 2+ (B) Lipase
reaction and an increase in Km (C) Vitamin B2 (D) Lysine
(B) Leads to a decrease in the observed Vmax
503. The shape of an enzyme and conse-
(C) Leads to a decrease in Km and Vmax quently its activity can be reversibly
(D) Leads to an increase in Km without affecting altered from moment to moment by
Vmax
(A) Heat (B) Amino acid substrate
495. Which one of the following statements is (C) Allosteric subunits (D) Sulfur substitutions
not characteristic of allosteric enzymes?
504. Which one of the following regulatory
(A) They frequently catalyze a committed step
actions involves a reversible covalent
early in a metabolic pathway
modification of the enzyme?
(B) They are often composed of subunits
(C) They follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics (A) Phosphorylation of ser-OH on the enzyme
(D) They frequently show cooperativity for (B) Allosteric modulation
substrate binding (C) Competitive inhibition
(D) Non-competitive inhibition
496. The abnormal isoenzyme need not
(A) Be an oxidoreductase 505. An enzyme is a
(B) Have any coenzyme (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid
(C) Require ATP (C) Protein (D) Nucleic acid
ENZYMES 171

506. An enzyme promotes a chemical reaction (C) Carboxyl group of the amino acids
by (D) Exposed sulfur bonds
(A) Lowering the energy of activation 513. Allosteric enzymes contain
(B) Causing the release of heat which acts as a
(A) Multiple subunits (B) Single chain
primer
(C) Two chains (D) Three chains
(C) Increasing molecular motion
(D) Changing the free energy difference between 514. Isoenzymes of lactate dehydrogenase are
substrate and product useful for the diagnosis of
(A) Heart disease (B) Kidney disease
507. In most metabolic pathways, all needed
enzymes are arranged together in a (C) Liver disease (D) Both (A) and (C)
multienzyme complex within a 515. IUB had divided enzymes into how many
(A) Solution of ATP classes?
(B) Membrane (A) 6 (B) 5
(C) Quanternary protein (C) 8 (D) 4
(D) Coenzyme 516. The first enzyme isolated, purified and
508. An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of an crystallied from Jack bean (Canavalia) by
aldose sugar to a ketose sugar would be summer in 1926 was
classified as one of the (A) Urease (B) Insulin
(A) Transferases (B) Isomerases (C) Ribonuclease (D) Zymase
(C) Oxido reductases (D) Hydrolases 517. Who suggested that enzymes are protein-
aceous?
509. The function of an enzyme is to
(A) Buchner (B) Kuhne
(A) Cause chemical reactions that would not
otherwise take place (C) Sumner (D) Pasteur
(B) Change the rates of chemical reactions 518. Feedback inhibition of enzyme action is
(C) Control the equilibrium points of reactions affected by
(D) Change the directions of reactions (A) Enzyme (B) Substrate
(C) End products (D) None of these
510. In which of the following types of
enzymes, water may be added to a C C 519. The enzyme that converts glucose to
double bond without breaking the bond? glucose-6-phosphate is
(A) Hydrolase (B) Hydratase (A) Phosphatase (B) Hexokinase
(C) Hydroxylase (D) Oxygenase (C) Phosphorylase (D) Glucose synthetase

511. Enzymes increases the rate of reactions 520. Enzymes are required in traces because
by they
(A) Increasing the free energy of activation (A) Have high turnover number
(B) Decreasing the energy of activation (B) Remain unused at the end of reaction and
(C) Changing the equilibrium constant of the are re used
reaction (C) Show cascade effect
(D) Increasing the free energy change of the (D) All correct
reaction 521. An organic substance bound to an
512. The active site of an enzyme is formed by enzyme and essential for the activity of
a few of the enzymes: enzyme is called

(A) R groups of the amino acids (A) Holoenzyme (B) Apoenzyme


(B) Amino groups of the amino acids (C) Coenzyme (D) Isoenzyme
172 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

522. Enzyme catalysed reactions occur in (C) Dry seeds have more reserve food
(A) Pico seconds (B) Micro seconds (D) Seedlings are tender
(C) Milli seconds (D) None of these 531. Coenzymes FMN and FAD are derived
523. An enzyme can accelerate a reaction up to from vitamin
(A) 1010 times (B) 101 times (A) C (B) B6
(C) 10 100
times (D) 10 times (C) B1 (D) B2

524. In plants, enzymes occur in 532. Template/lock and key theory of enzyme
action is supported by
(A) Flowers only (B) Leaves only
(C) All living cells (D) Storage organs only (A) Enzymes speed up reaction
(B) Enzymes occur in living beings and speed
525. Zymogen is a up certain reactions
(A) Vitamin (B) Enzyme precursor (C) Enzymes determine the direction of reaction
(C) Modulator (D) Hormone (D) Compounds similar to substrate inhibit enzyme
activity
526. Cofactor (Prosthetic group) is a part of
holoenzyme, it is 533. Combination of apoenzyme and
(A) Inorganic part loosely attached coenzyme produces
(B) Accessory non-protein substance attached (A) Prosthetic group
firmly (B) Holoenzyme
(C) Organic part attached loosely (C) Enzyme substrate complex
(D) None of these (D) Enzyme product complex
527. A protein having both structural and 534. Enzyme inhibition caused by a substance
enzymatic traits is resembling substrate molecule is
(A) Myosin (B) Collagen (A) Competitive inhibition
(C) Trypsin (D) Actin (B) Non-competitive inhibition
528. Enzymes are different from catalysts in (C) Feedback inhibition

(A) Being proteinaceous (D) Allosteric inhibition


(B) Not used up in reaction 535. An enzyme brings about
(C) Functional at high temperature (A) Decrease in reaction time
(D) Having high rate of diffusion (B) Increase in reaction time
529. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are (C) Increase in activation energy
common in (D) Reduction in activation energy
(A) Being proteinaceous 536. Feedback inhibition of enzyme is influen-
(B) Being synthesized in the body of organisms ced by
(C) Enhancing oxidative metabolism (A) Enzyme (B) External factors
(D) Regulating metabolism (C) End product (D) Substrate
530. Dry seeds endure higher temperature 537. Coenzyme is
than germinating seeds as
(A) Often a vitamin (B) Always an inorganic
(A) Hydration is essential for making enzymes compound
sensitive to temperature
(C) Always a protein (D) Often a metal
(B) Dry seeds have a hard covering
ENZYMES 173

538. Genetic engineering requires enzyme: 545. Vitamin B2 is component of coenzyme:


(A) DNA ase (A) Pyridoxal phosphate
(B) Amylase (B) TPP
(C) Lipase (C) NAD
(D) Restriction endonuclease (D) FMN/FAD

539. Which is not true about inorganic cata- 546. Km value of enzyme is substrate concen-
lysts and enzymes? tration at
(A) They are specific (A) Vmax (B) 2 Vmax
(B) Inorganic catalysts require specific not (C) Vmax (D) 4 Vmax
needed by enzymes
547. Part of enzyme which combines with non-
(C) They are sensitive to pH protein part to form functional enzyme is
(D) They speed up the rate of chemical reaction
(A) Apoenzyme (B) Coenzyme
540. Key and lock hypothesis of enzyme action (C) Prosthetic group (D) None of these
was given by
548. Who got Nobel Prize in 1978 for working
(A) Fischer (B) Koshland on enzymes?
(C) Buchner (D) Kuhne
(A) Koshland (B) Arber and Nathans
541. An example of feedback inhibition is (C) Nass and Nass (D) H.G. Khorana
(A) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose- 549. Site of enzyme synthesis in a cell is
6-phosphate
(A) Ribosomes (B) RER
(B) Cyanide action on cytochrome
(C) Golgi bodies (D) All of these
(C) Sulpha drug on folic acid synthesizer bacteria
550. The fruit when kept is open, tastes bitter
(D) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase after 2 hours because of
and succinic acid (A) Loss of water from juice
542. Feedback term refers to (B) Decreased concentration of fructose in juice
(A) Effect of substrate on rate of enzymatic (C) Fermentation by yeast
reaction (D) Contamination by bacterial enzymes
(B) Effect of end product on rate reaction 551. Hexokinase (Glucose + ATP Glucose-6
(C) Effect of enzyme concentration on rate of P + ADP) belongs to the category:
reaction
(A) Transferases (B) Lysases
(D) Effect of external compound on rate of
(C) Oxidoreductases (D) Isomerases
reaction
552. Which enzyme is concerned with transfer
543. Allosteric inhibition
of electrons?
(A) Makes active site unifit for substrate
(A) Desmolase (B) Hydrolase
(B) Controls excess formation and end product
(C) Dehydrogenase (D) Transaminase
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these 553. The best example of extracellular enzymes
(exoenzyme) is
544. The ratio of enzyme to substrate mole-
(A) Nucleases
cules can be as low as
(B) Digestive enzymes
(A) 1 : 100,000 (B) 1 : 500,000
(C) Succinic dehydrogenase
(C) 1 : 10,000 (D) 1 : 1,000
(D) None of these
174 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

554. Which mineral element controls the (B) NH2 group of amino acids
activity of Nitrate reductase ? (C) CO group of amino acids
(A) Fe (B) Mo (D) Sulphur bonds which are exposed
(C) Zn (D) Ca
563. Carbonic anhydrase enzyme has maxi-
555. Name the enzyme that acts both as mum turn over number (36 million). Min-
carboxylase at one time and oxygenase imum turn over number for an enzyme:
at another time.
(A) DNA polymerase
(A) PEP carboxylase
(B) RuBP carboxylase (B) Lysozyme
(C) Carbonic anyhdrase (C) Penicillase
(D) None of these (D) Lactase dehydrogenase
556. A metabolic pathways is a 564. In cell, digestive enzymes are found
(A) Route taken by chemicals mainly in
(B) Sequence of enzyme facilitated chemical (A) Vacuoles (B) Lysosomes
reactions (C) Ribosomes (D) Lomasomes
(C) Route taken by an enzyme from one reaction
to another 565. Substrate concentration at which an
(D) Sequence of origin of organic molecules enzyme attains half its maximum velocity
is
557. The energy required to start an enzymatic
reaction is called (A) Threshold value
(A) Chemical energy (B) Metabolic energy (B) Michaelis-Menton constant
(C) Activation energy (D) Potential energy (C) Concentration level
558. Out of the total enzymes present in a cell, (D) None of these
a mitochondrion alone has 566. Which enzyme hydrolyses starch?
(A) 4% (B) 70%
(A) Invertase (B) Maltase
(C) 95% (D) 50%
(C) Sucrase (D) Diastase
559. Creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme is a
marker for 567. Enzymes functional in cell or mitochondria
are
(A) Kidney disease
(B) Liver disease (A) Endoenzymes (B) Exoenzymes
(C) Myocardial infarction (C) Apoenzymes (D) Holoenzymes
(D) None of these
568. The enzymes present in the membrane of
560. Which inactivates an enzyme by occu- mitochondria are
pying its active site?
(A) Flavoproteins and cytochromes
(A) Competitive inhibitor (B) Fumarase and lipase
(B) Allosteric inhibitor
(C) Enolase and catalase
(C) Non-competitive inhibitor
(D) Hexokinase and zymase
(D) All of these
569. A mitochondrial marker enzyme is
561. Which one is coenzyme?
(A) Aldolase
(A) ATP (B) Vitamin B and C
(B) Amylase
(C) CoQ and CoA (D) All of these
(C) Succinic dehydrogenase
562. The active site of an enzyme is formed by (D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) R group of amino acids
ENZYMES 175

570. The enzyme used in polymerase chain 579. Transaminase activity needs the Co-
reaction (PCR) is enzyme:
(A) Taq polymerase (B) RNA polymerase (A) ATP (B) B6-PO4
(C) Ribonuclease (D) Endonuclease (C) FADT (D) NAD+

571. Which of the following is a microsomal en- 580. The biosynthesis of urea occurs mainly in
zyme inducer? the liver:
(A) Indomethacin (B) Clofibrate (A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
(C) Tolbutamide (D) Glutethamide (C) Microsomes (D) Nuclei

572. Identify the correct molecule which 581. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for
controls the biosynthesis of proteins in the action of
living organisms. (A) Amylose (B) Lipase
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin
(C) Purines (D) Pyrimidines
582. All of the following compounds are
573. The tear secretion contains an antibac- intermediates of TCA cycle except
terial enzyme known as (A) Maleate (B) Pyruvate
(A) Zymase (B) Diastase (C) Oxaloacetate (D) Fumarate
(C) Lysozyme (D) Lipase
583. In conversion of lactic acid to glucose,
574. Identify one of the canbonic anhydrase three reactions of glycolytic pathway are
inhibitor that inhibit only luminal circumvented, which of the following
carbonic anhydrase enzyme. enzymes do not participate?
(A) Methazolamide (B) Acetazolamide (A) Pyruvate carboxylase
(C) Dichlorphenamide (D) Benzolamide (B) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase
(C) Pyruvate kinase
575. Group transferring Co-enzyme is
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) CoA (B) NAD+
(C) NADP+ (D) FAD+ 584. In the normal resting state of human most
of the blood glucose burnt as fuel is
576. The co-enzyme containing an automatic consumed by
hetero ring in the structure is
(A) Liver (B) Brain
(A) Biotin (B) TPP
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Muscles
(C) Sugar Phosphate (D) Co-enzyme
585. A regulator of the enzyme glucogen
577. The example of hydrogen transferring synthase is
Co-enzyme is:
(A) Citric Acid (B) Pyruvate
(A) B6-PO4 (B) NADP+
(C) Glucose-6-PO4 (D) GTP
(C) TPP (D) ATP
586. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydro-
578. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins genase is
produces amino acid of the form
(A) Arsenite (B) Malonate
(A) D (B) DL
(C) Citrate (D) Fluoride
(C) L (D) Racemic
176 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. D
7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. D
13. A 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C
19. B 20. D 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. B
25. D 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. C 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. B
37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. D 42. A
43. A 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. D 48. B
49. C 50. B 51. B 52. A 53. A 54. C
55. C 56. D 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. B
61. A 62. C 63. A 64. D 65. A 66. D
67. A 68. C 69. B 70. B 71. A 72. B
73. A 74. B 75. A 76. B 77. C 78. C
79. A 80. A 81. C 82. C 83. B 84. D
85. B 86. B 87. D 88. D 89. D 90. A
91. A 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. B
97. A 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. B
103. A 104. C 105. A 106. D 107. B 108. A
109. D 110. C 111. B 112. B 113. D 114. A
115. B 116. A 117. B 118. C 119. B 120. C
121. A 122. C 123. C 124. D 125. A 126. A
127. B 128. B 129. B 130. B 131. C 132. A
133. D 134. A 135. B 136. B 137. A 138. B
139. B 140. C 141. D 142. B 143. A 144. B
145. B 146. A 147. A 148. C 149. A 150. A
151. B 152. B 153. D 154. A 155. A 156. D
157. A 158. A 159. A 160. A 161. A 162. A
163. B 164. A 165. A 166. B 167. B 168. C
169. A 170. D 171. D 172. A 173. C 174. B
175. B 176. A 177. C 178.A 179. D 180. B
181. D 182. B 183. D 184. C 185. C 186. A
187. D 188. C 189. A 190. A 191. C 192. C
193. A 194. C 195. A 196. A 197. B 198. B
199. B 200. A 201. D 202. C 203. D 204. D
205. B 206. A 207. D 208. A 209. A 210. D
211. A 212. A 213. D 214. D 215. A 216. A
217. A 218. A 219. D 220. D 221. C 222. C
223. B 224. D 225. A 226. A 227. B 228. B
229. D 230. A 231. B 232. D 233. A 234. A
235. D 236. B 237. A 238. C 239. B 240. C
241. B 242. A 243. B 244. A 245. A 246. A
247. A 248. A 249. A 250. C 251. B 252. C
ENZYMES 177

253. B 254. D 255. C 256. D 257. A 258. B


259. D 260. C 261. B 262. C 263. A 264. D
265. A 266. B 267. C 268. A 269. B 270. C
271. C 272. A 273. D 274. A 275. B 276. C
277. B 278. C 279. B 280. D 281. C 282. B
283. B 284. D 285. C 286. D 287. C 288. A
289. C 290. D 291. C 292. B 293. C 294. D
295. D 296. B 297. D 298. C 299. B 300. B
301. B 302. D 303. D 304. A 305. B 306. D
307. C 308. B 309. C 310. D 311. A 312. C
313. D 314. B 315. B 316. C 317. C 318. B
319. B 320. A 321. D 322. A 323. A 324. B
325. C 326. C 327. A 328. D 329. B 330. A
331. C 332. C 333. C 334. C 335. D 336. A
337. A 338. D 339. C 340. D 341. C 342. C
343. C 344. A 345. D 346. C 347. C 348. C
349. C 350. C 351. C 352. C 353. C 354. B
355. C 356. A 357. C 358. A 359. D 360. D
361. D 362. B 363. A 364. D 365. C 366. A
367. D 368. A 369. D 370. D 371. C 372. B
373. C 374. A 375. C 376. A 377. B 378. B
379. C 380. B 381. C 382. B 383. B 384. D
385. B 386. C 387. D 388. C 389. D 390. C
391. D 392. C 393. C 394. A 395. D 396. D
397. C 398. C 399. B 400. C 401. D 402. B
403. C 404. B 405. D 406. D 407. A 408. C
409. C 410. D 411. B 412. B 413. B 414. D
415. A 416. C 417. D 418. D 419. C 420. C
421. B 422. D 423. A 424. B 425. D 426. B
427. B 428. D 429. D 430. C 431. D 432. B
433. C 434. A 435. D 436. B 437. A 438. B
439. D 440. B 441. A 442.A 443. B 444. C
445. A 446. A 447. B 448. B 449. B 450. D
451. B 452. C 453. C 454. A 455. D 456. A
457. D 458. B 459. C 460. D 461. B 462. C
463. B 464. D 465. B 466. D 467. D 468. D
469. C 470. B 471. B 472. D 473. D 474. C
475. D 476. D 477. B 478. B 479. D 480. A
481. D 482. B 483. B 484. C 485. C 486. C
487. A 488. A 489. B 490. A 491. A 492. D
493. C 494. B 495. C 496. A 497. A 498. D
499. D 500. D 501. D 502. C 503. C 504. A
505. C 506. A 507. B 508. B 509. B 510. A
178 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

511. B 512. C 513. A 514. D 515. A 516. A


517. C 518. C 519. B 520. D 521. C 522. C
523. A 524. C 525. B 526. B 527. A 528. A
529. D 530. A 531. D 532. D 533. B 534. A
535. D 536. C 537. A 538. D 539. B 540. A
541. A 542. B 543. C 544. A 545. D 546. D
547. C 548. A 549. B 550. D 551. C 552. A
553. C 554. A 555. B 556. B 557. C 558. B
559. C 560. A 561. D 562. A 563. B 564. B
565. B 566. D 567. A 568. A 569. C 570. D
571. D 572. A 573. C 574. B 575. A 576. C
577. D 578. C 579. B 580. B 581. B 582. B
583. B 584. B 585. C 586. B
ENZYMES 179

EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS


4. D The functional unit of an enzyme is referred to theory): The substrate fits to active site of an
as a holoenzyme. It is often made up of an enzyme just as a key fits into a proper lock. Thus,
apoenzyme (the protein part) and a coenzyme the active site of the enzyme is rigid and
(the non-protein part). preshaped where only a specific substrate can
47. D Concentration of enzyme, concentration of bind.
substrate, temperature, pH, presence of products, (b) Induced fit theory (Koshland model): As per
activators and inhibitors are some of the important this, the substrate induces a conformational
factors that influence enzyme activity. change in the enzyme resulting in the formation
89. D It is a straight line graphic representation of substrate binding (active) site.
depicting the relation between substrate 305. C Some enzymes are synthesized in an inactive
concentration and enzyme velocity. This plot is form which are referred to as proenzymes (or
commonly employed for the calculation of Km zymogens). They undergo irreversible
values for enzymes. modification to produce active enzymes. e.g.,
133. D Active site is the small region of an enzyme where proenzymes chymotr ypsinogen and
substrate binds. It is flexible in nature and it exists pepsinogen are respectively converted to
due to the tertiary structure of proteins. Acidic, chymotrypsin and pepsin.
basic and hydroxyl amino aicds are frequently 345. D The RNAs that can function as enzymes are
found at the active site. referred to as ribozymes. They are thus non-
179. D There are three broad categories of enzyme protein enzymes. It is believed that RNAs were
inhibition: functioning as catalysts before the occurance of
(a) Reversible inhibition: The inhibitor binds non- proteins during evolution.
covalently with the enzyme and the inhibition is 391. D Streptokinase is used for clearing blood clots.
reversible. Competitive, non-competitive and Asparaginase is employed in the treatment
uncompetitive come under this category. of leukemias.
(b) Irreversible inhibition: The inhibitor 438. B Certain enzymes can be made to bind to
covalently binds with the enzyme which is insoluble inorganic matrix (e.g., cyanogens
irreversible. bromide activated sepharose) to preserve their
(c) Allosteric inhibition: Certain enzymes catalytic activity for long periods. Such enzymes
possessing allosteric sites are regulated by are referred to as immobilized enzymes.
allosteric effectors. 479. D These enzymes are either totally absent or present
219. D Enzymes are highly specific in their action at a low concentration in plasma compared to
compared with chemical catalysts. Three types their levels found in tissues. Estimation of plasma
of enzyme specificities are well-recognized. non-functional enzymes is important for the
(a) Stereospecificity: The enzymes act only on diagnosis and prognosis of several diseases.
one isomer and therefore exhibit stereoisomerism. 514. D Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) gas five distinct
e.g., L-amino acid oxidase on L-amino acids; isoenzymes (LDH1 LDH5). Each one is an
hexokinase on D-hexose (Note: isomerases do oligomeric protein composed of 4 subunits (N
not exhibit stereospecificity). and/ or H). Isoenzymes of LDH are important for
the diagnosis of heart and liver related disorders
(b) Reaction specificity: The same substrate can
i.e., serum LDH1 is elevated in myocardial
undergo different types of reactions, each catal-
infarction while LDH5 is increased in liver
ysed by a separate enzyme e.g., amino acids
diseases.
undergoing transamination, decarboxylation etc.
559. C Creatine kinase (CK) or creatine phosphokinase
(c) Substrate specifity: This may be absolute,
relative or broad e.g., urease, ligase, (CPK) exists as 3 isoenzymes. Each isoenzyme is
hexokinase. a dimmer composed of two subunits (M or B or
both). Elevation of CPK2 (MB) in serum is an
260. D
early reliable diagnostic indication of myocardial
(a) Lock and Key model (Fischers Template infarction.
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CHAPTER 7

MINERAL METABOLISM
ETABOLISM

1. When ATP forms AMP 7. If G= 2.3RT log Keq, the free energy
(A) Inorganic pyrophosphate is produced for the reaction will be
(B) Inorganic phosphorous is produced A + B C
(C) Phsophagen is produced 10moles 10moles 10moles
(D) No energy is produced (A) 4.6 RT (B) 2.3 RT
G) of hydrolysis
2. Standard free energy ( (C) +2.3 RT (D) +4.6 RT
of ATP to ADP + Pi is
8. Redox potential (EO volts) of NAD+/NADH
(A) 49.3 KJ/mol (B) 4.93 KJ/mol is
(C) 30.5 KJ/mol (D) 20.9 KJ/mol
(A) 0.67 (B) 0.32
G) of hydrolysis
3. Standard free energy ( (C) 0.12 (D) +0.03
of ADP to AMP + Pi is
9. Redox potential (EO volts) of ubiquinone,
(A) 43.3 KJ/mol (B) 30.5 KJ/mol ox/red system is
(C) 27.6 KJ/mol (D) 15.9 KJ/mol
(A) +0.03 (B) +0.08
G) of hydrolysis
4. Standard free energy ( (C) +0.10 (D) +0.29
of phosphoenolpyruvate is
10. Redox potential (EO volts) of cytochrome
(A) 61.9 KJ/mol (B) 43.1 KJ/mol
C, Fe3+/Fe2+ is
(C) 14.2 KJ/mol (D) 9.2 KJ/mol
(A) 0.29 (B) 0.27
G) of hydrolysis
5. Standard free energy ( (C) 0.08 (D) +0.22
of creatine phosphate is
(A) -51.4 KJ/mol (B) 43.1 KJ/mol 11. The prosthetic group of aerobic dehydro-
genases is
(C) 30.5 KJ/mol (D) 15.9 KJ/mol
(A) NAD (B) NADP
6. The oxidation-reduction system having
(C) FAD (D) Pantothenic acid
the highest redox potential is
(A) Ubiquinone ox/red 12. Alcohol dehydrogenase from liver con-
(B) Fe3+ cytochrome a/Fe2+ tains
(C) Fe3+ cytochrome b/Fe2+ (A) Sodium (B) Copper
(D) NAD+/NADH (C) Zinc (D) Magnesium
182 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

13. A molybdenum containing oxidase is 22. The sequence of the redox carrier in
(A) Cytochrome oxidase respiratory chain is
(B) Xanthine oxidase (A) NADFMNQcyt bcyt c1cyt ccyt
(C) Glucose oxidase aa3 O2
(D) L-Amino acid oxidase
(B) FMNQNADcyt bcyt aa3cyt c1
14. A copper containing oxidase is cyt c O2
(A) Cytochrome oxidase (C) NADFMNQcyt c1cyt ccyt bcyt
(B) Flavin mononucleotide
aa3 O2
(C) Flavin adenine dinucleotide
(D) NADFMNQcyt bcyt aa3cyt ccyt
(D) Xanthine oxidase
c1 O2
15. The mitochondrial superoxide dismutase
contains 23. The correct sequence of cytochrome
(A) Mg ++
(B) Mn ++ carriers in respiratory chain is
(C) Co++ (D) Zn ++ (A) Cyt bcyt ccyt c1cyt aa3
(B) Cyt aa3 cyt bcyt ccyt c1
16. Cytosolic superoxide dismutase contains
(C) Cyt bcyt c1cyt ccyt aa3
(A) Cu2+ and Zn2+ (B) Mn 2+
(D) Cyt bcyt aa3cyt c1 cyt c
(C) Mn2+ and Zn2+ (D) Cu2+ and Fe2+
24. Reducing equivalents from pyruvate enter
17. Cytochrome oxidase contains
the mitochondrial respiratory chain at
(A) Cu2+ and Zn2+ (B) Cu2+ and Fe2+
(A) FMN (B) NAD
(C) Cu2+ and Mn2+ (D) Cu 2+
(C) Coenzyme Q (D) Cyt b
18. Characteristic absorption bands exhibited
by ferrocytochrome: 25. Reducing equivalents from succinate enter
the mitochondrial respiratory chain at
(A) band (B) band
(C) and bands (D) , and bands (A) NAD (B) Coenzyme Q
(C) FAD (D) Cyt c
19. Monooxygenases are found in
(A) Cytosol (B) Nucleus 26. The respiratory chain complexes acting as
proton pump are
(C) Mitochondira (D) Microsomes
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV
20. A component of the respiratory chain in
(C) I, III and IV (D) I and II
mitochondria is
(A) Coenzyme Q 27. If the reducing equivalents enter from FAD
(B) Coenzyme A in the respiratory chain, the phos-
(C) Acetyl coenzyme phate.oxygen ration (P:O) is
(D) Coenzyme containing thiamin (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4
21. The redox carriers are grouped into
respiratory chain complex 28. If the reducing equivalents enter from
(A) In the inner mitochondrial membrane NAD in the respiratory chain, the
(B) In mitochondiral matrix phsphate/oxygen (P:O) is
(C) On the outer mitochondrial membrane (A) 1 (B) 2
(D) On the inner surface of outer mitochondrial (C) 3 (D) 4
membrane
MINERAL METABOLISM 183

29. One of the site of phsosphorylation in 37. The chemical inhibiting oxidative phos-
mitochondrial respiratory chain is phorylation, Adependent on the transport
(A) Between FMN and coenzyme Q of adenine nucleotides across the inner
mitochondrial membrane is
(B) Between coenzyme Q and cyt b
(C) Between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1 (A) Oligomycin (B) Atractyloside
(D) Between cytochrome c1 and cytochrome c (C) Dinitrophenol (D) Pentachlorophenol

30. Rotenone inhibits the respiratory chain at 38. Porphyrins are synthesized in
(A) FMN coenzyme Q (A) Cytosol
(B) NAD FMN (B) Mitochondria
(C) Coenzyme Q cyt b (C) Cytosol and mitochondria
(D) Cyt b Cyt c1 (D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

31. Activity of cytochrome oxidase is inhibited 39. Heme is synthesized from


by (A) Succinyl-CoA and glycine
(A) Sulphite (B) Sulphate (B) Active acetate and glycine
(C) Arsenite (D) Cyanide (C) Active succinate and alanine
32. Transfer of reducing equivalents from (D) Active acetate and alanine
succinate dehydrogenase to coenzyme Q
40. In the biosynthesis of the iron protopor-
is specifically inhibited by
phyrin, the product of the condensation
(A) Carboxin (B) Oligomycin between succinyl-CoA and glycine is
(C) Piericidin A (D) Rotenone (A) -Amino -ketoadipic acid
33. Chemiosmotic theory for oxidative (B) -Aminolevulinate
phosphorylation has been proposed by (C) Hydroxymethylbilane
(A) Chance and Williams (D) Uroporphyrinogen I
(B) Pauling and Corey
41. Porphyrin synthesis is inhibited in
(C) S. Waugh
(A) Mercury poisoning
(D) P. Mitchell
(B) Lead poisoning
34. The number of ATP produced in the (C) Manganese poisoning
oxidation of 1 molecule of NADPH in
(D) Barium poisoning
oxidative phosphorylation is
(A) Zero (B) 2 42. During synthesis of porphyrins, synthesis
of -amino levulinic acid occurs in
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Mitochondria
35. The coupling of oxidation and phosphory-
(B) Cytosol
lation in intact mitochondria:
(C) Both in mitochondria and cytosol
(A) Puromycin (B) Oligomycin
(D) Ribosomes
(C) Streptomycin (D) Gentamycin
43. In the biosynthesis of heme, condensation
36. An uncoupler of oxidative phosphoryla-
between succinyl CoA and glycine requires
tion is
(A) NAD+ (B) FAD
(A) Carboxin (B) Atractyloside +
(C) NADH + H (D) B6-phosphate
(C) Amobarbital (D) Dinitrocresol
184 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

44. In mammalian liver the rate controlling 51. The synthesis of heme from protophyrin
enzyme in porphyrin biosynthesis is III is catalysed by the enzyme:
(A) ALA synthase (A) ALA synthase (B) Ferroreductase
(B) ALA hydratase (C) Ferrooxidase (D) Ferrochelatase
(C) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase 52. Many xenobiotics
(D) Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase (A) Increase hepatic ALA synthase
45. The condensation of 2 molecules of (B) Decrease hepatic ALA sythase
-aminolevulinate dehydratase contains (C) Increase hepatic ALA dehydrase
(D) Decrease hepatic ALA dehydrase
(A) ALA synthase
(B) ALA hydratase 53. Acute intermittent porphyria (paraoxymal
porphyria) is caused due to deficiency of
(C) Uroporphyrinogen synthase I
(D) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III (A) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
(B) ALA synthase
46. The enzyme -aminolevulinate dehy- (C) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
dratase contains (D) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(A) Zinc (B) Manganese
54. The major symptom of acute intermittent
(C) Magnesium (D) Calcium porphyria includes
47. A cofactor required for the activity of the (A) Abdominal pain
enzyme ALA dehydratase is (B) Photosensitivity
(A) Cu (B) Mn (C) No neuropsychiatric signs
(C) Mg (D) Fe (D) Dermatitis
55. The characteristic urinary finding in acute
48. The number of molecules of porphobili-
intermittent porphyria is
nogen required for the formation of a tet-
rapyrrole i.e., a porphyrin is (A) Increased quantity of uroporphyrin
(B) Increased quantity of coproporphyrin I
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) Increased quantity of coproporphyrin III
(C) 3 (D) 4
(D) Massive quantities of porphobilinogen
49. Conversion of the linear tetrapyrrole 56. The enzyme involved in congenial eryth-
hydroxymethylbilane to uroporphyrino- ropoietic porphyria is
gen III
(A) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
(A) Occurs spontaneously (B) Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
(B) Catalysed by uroporphyrinogen I synthase (C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
(C) Catalysed by uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase (D) Ferrochelatase
(D) Catalysed by combined action of uroporphy-
57. Main symptoms of congenital erythropoi-
rinogen I synthase and uroporphyrinogen III etic porphyria is
cosynthase
(A) Yellowish teeth (B) Photosensitivity
50. Conversion of uroporphyrinogen III to (C) Abdominal pain (D) Brownish urine
coprophyrinogen III is catalysed by the
58. The probable cause of porphyria cutanea
enzyme.:
tarda is deficiency of
(A) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(A) Uroporphyrinogen oxidase
(B) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase (B) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
(C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase (C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
(D) Ferrochelatase (D) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
MINERAL METABOLISM 185

59. The characteristic urinary finding in por- 66. All immunoglobulins contain
phyria cutanea tarda is (A) 4 L chains
(A) Increased quantity of porphobilinogen (B) 4 H chains
(B) Increased quantity of red cell protoporphyrin (C) 3 L chains
(C) Increased quantity of uroporphyrin (D) 2 L chains and 2 H chains
(D) Increased quantity of -ALA 67. An immunoglobulin molecule always
contains
60. Hereditary coproporphyria is caused due
to deficiency of (A) 1 and 3 type of chains
(B) 2 and 2 type of chains
(A) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
(C) 3 and 1 type of chains
(B) ALA synthase
(D) 2 and 2 chains
(C) ALA dehydratase
68 . The number of types of H chains identified
(D) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
in human is
61. The enzyme involved in variegate por- (A) 2 (B) 3
phyria is (C) 4 (D) 5
(A) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
69. The number of hypervariable region in L
(B) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase chain is
(C) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (A) 1 (B) 2
(D) ALA decarboxylase (C) 3 (D) 4
62. Protoporphyria (erythrohepatic) is char- 70. The number of hypervariable region in H
acterized by the deficiency of chain is
(A) ALA synthase (A) 1 (B) 2
(B) ALA hydratase (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Protophyrinogen oxidae 71. Type H chain is present in
(D) Ferrochelatase (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
63. The amount of coproporphyrins excreted (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
per day in feces is about 72. Type H chain is present in
(A) 1050 gs (B) 100150 gs (A) Ig E (B) Ig A
(C) 200250 gs (D) 3001000 gs (C) Ig M (D) Ig D

64. The immunoglobulins are differentiated 73. Type H chain is present in


and also named on the basis of (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(A) Electrophoretic mobility (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(B) Heat stability 74. Type H chain is present in
(C) Molecular weight (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(D) Sedimentaiton coefficient like 7 S, 19 S etc. (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
65. The immunoglobulins are classified on the 75. Type H chain is present in
basis of
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M
(A) Light chains (C) Ig D (D) Ig E
(B) Heavy chains
76. A J chain is present in
(C) Carbohydrate content
(A) Ig D (B) Ig M
(D) Electrophoretic mobility
(C) Ig G (D) Ig E
186 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

77. A secretory protein T chain (T protein) is 85. The immunoglobulin which can cross the
present in placenta is
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M (A) Ig A (B) Ig M
(C) Ig D (D) Ig E (C) Ig G (D) Ig D
78. A pentamer immunoglobulin is 86. The immunoglobulin possessing lowest
(A) Ig G (B) Ig A concentration of carbohydrate is
(C) Ig M (D) Ig E (A) Ig A (B) Ig E
79. The portion of the immunoglobulin (C) Ig M (D) Ig G
molecule that binds the specific antigen 87. The normal serum level of Ig G is
is formed by
(A) 1200 mg% (B) 500 mg%
(A) Variable regions of H and L chains
(C) 300 mg% (D) 200 mg%
(B) Constant region of H chain
(C) Constant region of L chain 88. The half life of Ig G is
(D) Hinge region (A) 28 days (B) 14 days
80. The class specific function of the different (C) 1924 days (D) 6 days
immunoglobulin molecules is constituted 89. Most heat labile immunoglobulin is
by
(A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(A) Variable region of L chain
(C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(B) Constant region of H chain
(C) Variable region of H chain 90. The immunoglobulin possessing highest
concentration of carbohydrate is
(D) Constant region particularly CH2 and CH3 of
H chain (A) Ig G (B) Ig M
81. Hinge region, the region of Ig molecule (C) Ig A (D) Ig D
which is flexible and more exposed to 91. The normal serum level of Ig D is
enzymes is the
(A) 1 mg% (B) 2 mg%
(A) Region between first and second constant
(C) 3 mg% (D) 5 mg%
regions of H chain (domains CH1 and CH2)
92. The half life of Ig D is
(B) Region between second and third constant (A) 1 day (B) 28 days
regions of H chain (CH2 and CH3)
(C) 1015 days (D) 2024 days
(C) Variable regions of H chain
(D) Variable regions of L chain 93. The carbohydrate content of Ig M is about
(A) 2.8% (B) 6.4%
82. The smallest immunoglobulin is
(C) 8.0% (D) 10.2%
(A) Ig G (B) Ig E
(C) Ig D (D) Ig A 94. The immunoglobulin having highest
sedimentation coefficient is
83. The number of sub classes of Ig G is
(A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(C) 4 (D) 8
95. The immunoglobulin having highest
84. Most abundant Ig G subclass in the serum
molecular weight is
is
(A) Ig G (B) Ig M
(A) Ig G1 (B) Ig G2
(C) Ig E (D) Ig A
(C) Ig G3 (D) Ig G4
MINERAL METABOLISM 187

96. The half life of Ig M is 107. The normal serum level of phosphorus in
(A) 2 days (B) 4 days human adult is
(C) 5 days (D) 8 days (A) 12 mg (B) 23 mg
(C) 34.5 mg (D) 57 mg
97. The normal serum level of Ig M is
(A) 50 mg% (B) 120 mg% 108. An increase in carbohydrate metabolism
(C) 200 mg% (D) 300 mg% is accompanied by temporary decrease in
serum:
98. The immunoglobulin associated with
reginic antibody is (A) Calcium (B) Phosphate
(C) Iron (D) Sodium
(A) Ig E (B) Ig D
(C) Ig M (D) Ig A 109. In rickets of the common low-phosphate
variety, serum phosphate values may go
99. The immunoglobulin having least concen-
as low as
tration in serum is
(A) 12 mg/100 ml (B) 23 mg/100 ml
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M
(C) Ig D (D) Ig E (C) 34 mg/100 ml (D) 45 mg/100 ml

100. The half life of Ig E protein is 110. The normal serum level of phosphorous
in children varies from
(A) 16 days (B) 28 days
(A) 12 mg/100 ml (B) 23 mg/100 ml
(C) 10 days (D) 20 days
(C) 34 mg/100 ml (D) 47 mg/100 ml
101. The immunoglobulin which provides
highest antiviral activity is 111. An inherited or acquired renal tubular
defect in the reabsorption of phosphate
(A) Ig D (B) Ig E
(Vit D resistant ricket) is characterized
(C) Ig A (D) Ig G
with
102. The half life of Ig A is (A) Normal serum Phosphate
(A) 6 days (B) 24 days (B) High serum phosphate
(C) 510 days (D) 1220 days (C) A low blood phosphorous with elevated
alkaline Phosphate
103. The normal serum level of Ig A is
(D) A high blood phosphorous with decreased
(A) 100 mg% (B) 200 mg%
alkaline phosphatase
(C) 300 mg% (D) 400 mg%
112. The total magnesium content in gms of
104. Calcium is excreted by
human body is about
(A) Kidney
(A) 5 (B) 10
(B) Kidney and intestine
(C) 15 (D) 21
(C) Kidney and liver
(D) Kidney and pancreas 113. Iron is a component of
(A) Hemoglobin (B) Ceruloplasmin
105. A decrease in the ionized fraction of serum
calcium causes (C) Transferase (D) Transaminase
(A) Tetany (B) Rickets 114. Daily requirement of iron for normal
(C) Osteomalacia (D) Osteoporosis adult male is about

106. A rise in blood calcium may indicate (A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg


(C) 15 mg (D) 20 mg
(A) Pagets disease (B) Rickets
(C) Osteomalacia (D) Hypervitaminosis D
188 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

115. The normal content of protein bound iron 123. The best source of iron is
(PBI) in the plasma of males is (A) Organ meats (B) Milk
(A) 120140 g/100 ml (C) Tomato (D) Potato
(B) 200300 g/100 ml 124. An increased serum iron and decreased
(C) 120140 g/100 ml iron binding capacity is found in
(D) 200300 g/100 ml (A) Fe deficiency anemia
116. In iron deficiency anemia (B) Sideroblastic anemia
(A) The plasma bound iron is low (C) Folate deficiency anemia
(B) The plasma bound iron is high (D) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Total iron binding capacity is low 125. The absorption of iron is increased 210
(D) Both the plasma bound iron and total iron times of normal in
binding capacity are low (A) Iron deficiency anemia
117. The total iron content of the human body (B) Pregnancy
is (C) Spherocytosis
(A) 400500 mg (B) 12 g (D) Sickle cell anemia
(C) 23 g (D) 45 g 126. Iron is mainly absorbed from
118. In hepatic diseases (A) Stomach and duodenum
(B) Ileum
(A) Both the bound iron and total iron binding
capacity of the plasma may be low (C) Caecum
(B) Both the bound iron and total iron binding (D) Colon
capacity of the plasma may be high 127. The iron containing nonporphyrin is
(C) Only bound iron may be high (A) Hemosiderin (B) Catalase
(D) Only the total iron binding capacity may be (C) Cytochrome C (D) Peroxidase
high
128. Molecular iron is
119. The recommended daily requirement of
iron for women of 1855 yrs age is (A) Stored primarily in the spleen
(B) Exreted in the urine as Fe2+
(A) 5 mg (B) 8 mg
(C) Stored in the body in combination with ferritin
(C) 10 mg (D) 15 mg
(D) Absorbed in the ferric form
120. The percent of total iron in body in
129. In hemochromatosis, the liver is infiltrated
hemoglobin is
with
(A) 1020 (B) 2030
(A) Iron (B) Copper
(C) 3040 (D) 6070 (C) Molybdenum (D) Fats
121. A hypochromic microcytic anemia with 130. An acquired siderosis-Bantu siderosis is
increased iron stores in the bone marrow due to
may be
(A) Foods cooked in iron pots
(A) Iron responsive
(B) Diet high in phosphorous
(B) Pyridoxine responsive (C) Diet high in calcium
(C) Vitamin B12 responsive (D) High fat diet
(D) Folate responsive
131. The amount of copper in the human body
122. A good source of iron is is
(A) Spinach (B) Milk (A) 5080 mg (B) 100150 mg
(C) Tomato (D) Potato (C) 400500 mg (D) 5001000 mg
MINERAL METABOLISM 189

132. The amount of copper in muscles is about 142. Menkes disease is due to an abnormality
(A) 10 mg (B) 30 mg in the metabolism of
(C) 64 mg (D) 100 mg (A) Iron (B) Manganese
(C) Magnesium (D) Copper
133. The amount of copper in bones is about
(A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg 143. Menkes disease (Kinky or steel hair dis-
ease) is a X-linked disease characterized
(C) 15 mg (D) 23 mg
by
134. The normal serum of concentration of (A) High levels of plasma copper
copper in mg/100 ml varies between (B) High levels of ceruloplasmin
(A) 05 (B) 50100 (C) Low levels of plasma copper and of ceulo-
(C) 100200 (D) 200300 plasmin
(D) High level of hepatic copper
135. The normal serum concentration of ceru-
loplasmin in mg/100 ml varies between 144. The trace element catalyzing hemoglobin
(A) 510 (B) 1020 synthesis is
(C) 2543 (D) 50100 (A) Manganese (B) Magnesium
136. Recommended daily dietary requirement (C) Copper (D) Selenium
of copper for adults is 145. The total body content of manganese is
(A) 0.51 mg (B) 1.53.0 mg about
(C) 3.54.5 mg (D) 4.55.5 mg (A) 2 mg (B) 4 mg
137. The richest source of copper is (C) 8 mg (D) 10 mg
(A) Liver 146. In blood the values of manganese in g /
(B) Milk 100 ml varies between
(C) Legumes (A) 04 (B) 24
(D) Green leafy vegetables (C) 35 (D) 420
138. The cytosolic superoxide dismutase 147. The adequate daily dietary requirement
enzyme contains of manganese is
(A) Cu2+ (B) Cu2+ and Zn2+ (A) 12 mg (B) 25 mg
(C) Zn 2+ (D) Mn 2+ (C) 510 mg (D) 1020 mg
139. The deficiency of copper decreases the
148. Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase
activity of the enzyme:
contains
(A) Lysine oxidase (B) Lysine hydroxylase
(A) Zinc (B) Copper
(C) Tyrosine oxidase (D) Proline hydroxylase
(C) Magnesium (D) Manganese
140. Wilsons disease is a condition of toxicosis
149. Mitochondrial pyruvate carboxylase
of
contains
(A) Iron (B) Copper
(A) Zinc (B) Zinc
(C) Chromium (D) Molybdenum
(C) Manganese (D) Magnesium
141. In Wilsons disease
150. The adequate daily dietary requirement
(A) Copper fails to be excreted in the bile
of molybdenum for normal human adult
(B) Copper level in plasma is decreased is
(C) Ceruloplasmin level is increased
(A) 1020 g (B) 2550 g
(D) Intestinal absorption of copper is decreased
(C) 5070 g (D) 75200 g
190 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

151. In human beings molybdenum is mainly 161. Total body content of selenium is about
absorbed from (A) 12 mg (B) 24 mg
(A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) 410 mg (D) 50100 mg
(C) Intestine (D) Pancreas
162. Normal serum level of selenium is
152. In human beings molybdenum is mainly
(A) 5 g /100 ml (B) 8 g /100 ml
excreted in
(C) 10 g /100 ml (D) 13 g /100 ml
(A) Feces (B) Sweat
(C) Urine (D) Tears 163. Selenium is a constituent of the enzyme:
(A) Glutathione peroxidase
153. Molybdenum is a constituent of
(B) Homogentisate oxidase
(A) Hydroxylases (B) Oxidases
(C) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(C) Transaminases (D) Transferases
(D) Phenylalanin hydroxylase
154. Safe and adequate daily dietary intake
164. A nonspecific intracellular antioxidant is
of chromium in adults in mg is
(A) 0.010.02 (B) 0.020.03 (A) Chromium (B) Magnesium
(C) 0.030.04 (D) 0.050.2 (C) Selenium (D) Nickel

155. Richest source of chromium is 165. Cobalt forms an integral part of the
vitamin:
(A) Brewers yease
(A) B1 (B) B6
(B) Milk and milk products
(C) B 12 (D) Folate
(C) Yellow vegetables
(D) Green vegetables 166. Cobalt may act as cofactor for the enzyme:

156. Metallic constituent of Glucose tolerance (A) Glycl-glycine dipeptidase


factor is (B) Elastase
(A) Sulphur (B) Cobalt (C) Polynucleotidases
(C) Chromium (D) Selenium (D) Phosphatase

157. Intestinal absorption of chromium is 167. Excess intake of cobalt for longer periods
shared with leads to
(A) Mn (B) Mg (A) Polycythemia
(C) Ca (D) Zn (B) Megaloblastic anemia
(C) Pernicious anemia
158. Serum level of chromium in healthy adult
is about (D) Microcytic anemia

(A) 2-5 g/100 ml (B) 6-20 g/100 ml 168. The total sulphur content of the body is
(C) 30-60 g/100 ml (D) 50-100 g/100 ml (A) 2550 gm (B) 5075 gm
159. Chromium is potentiator of (C) 100125 gm (D) 150200 gm

(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon 169. Sulphur is made available to the body by
(C) Thyroxine (D) Parathromone the amino acids:
(A) Cystine and methionine
160. Recommended daily dietary allowance of
selenium for adult human in g is (B) Taurine and alanine
(C) Proline and hydroxyproline
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 50 (D) 70 (D) Arginine and lysine
MINERAL METABOLISM 191

170. Sulphur containing coenzyme is 179. Dental caries occur due to


(A) NAD (A) Drinking water containing less than 0.2 ppm
(B) FAD of fluorine
(C) Pyridoxal phosphate (B) Drinking water containing greater than 1.2
(D) Biotin ppm of fluorine
171. Iodine is stored in (C) Drinking water containing high calcium
(A) Thyroid gland as thyroglobulin (D) Drinking water containing heavy metals
(B) Liver 180. Total zinc content of human body is about
(C) Intestine
(A) 800 mg (B) 1200 mg
(D) Skin
(C) 2000 mg (D) 3200 mg
172. Iodine is the constituent of
181. Metal required for polymerization of
(A) T3 and T4 (B) PTH
insulin is
(C) Insulin (D) Adrenaline
(A) Copper (B) Chromium
173. Goitrogenic substance present in cabbage (C) Cobalt (D) Zinc
is
(A) 5-vinyl-2 thio oxalzolidone 182. Metalloenzyme-retinene for polymeriza-
tion of insulin is
(B) Pyridine-3-carboxylic acid
(C) 3-Hydroxy-4, 5-dihydroxymethyl12-methyl (A) Copper (B) Zinc
pyridine (C) Cobalt (D) Manganese
(D) -ALA dehydratase
183. An important zinc containing enzyme is
174. For an adult male daily requirement of (A) Carboxypeptidase A
iodine is
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(A) 2550 g (B) 50100 g (C) Cholinesterate
(C) 100150 g (D) 200250 g (D) Lipoprotein lipase
175. Recommended daily intake of fluoride for
184. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to
a normal adult is
defective absorption of
(A) 1.54.0 mg (B) 01 mg
(A) Manganese (B) Molybdenum
(C) 510 mg (D) 1020 mg
(C) Iodine (D) Zinc
176. The percentage of fluoride present in
normal bone is 185. Hypogonadism develops due to deficiency
of
(A) 0.010.03 (B) 0.040.08
(A) Sulphur (B) Cobalt
(C) 0.100.12 (D) 0.150.2
(C) Zinc (D) Manganese
177. The percentage of fluoride present in
dental enamel is 186. Psychotic symptoms and parkinsonism
like symptoms develop due to inhalation
(A) 0.010.02 (B) 0.050.10
poisoning of
(C) 0.150.20 (D) 0.200.40
(A) Manganese (B) Phosphorous
178. Fluorosis occurs due to
(C) Magnesium (D) Zinc
(A) Drinking water containing less than 0.2 ppm
of fluorine 187. One gram of carbohydrate on complete
(B) Drinking water containing high calcium oxidation in the body yields about
(C) Drinking water containing greater than 1.2 (A) 1 Kcal (B) 4 Kcal
ppm of fluroine (C) 6 Kcal (D) 9 Kcal
(D) Drinking water containing heavy metals
192 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

188. One gram of fat on complete oxidation 199. B.M.R. is subnormal in


in the body yields about (A) Addisons disease
(A) 4 Kcal (B) 6 Kcal (B) Adrenal tumour
(C) 9 Kcal (D) 12 Kcal (C) Cushings syndrome
(D) Fever
189. One gram of protein on complete oxida-
tion in the body yields about 200. A healthy 70 kg man eats a well balanced
(A) 2 Kcal (B) 4 Kcal diet containing adequate calories and
62.5 g of high quality protein per day.
(C) 8 Kcal (D) 12 Kcal
Measured in grams of nitrogen, his daily
190. R.Q. of mixed diet is about nitrogen balance would be
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.80 (A) +10 g (B) +6.25 g
(C) 0.85 (D) 1.0 (C) 0 g (D) 6.25 g

191. R.Q. of proteins is about 201. The percentage of nitrogen retained in the
body after absorption of diet represents
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.75
(A) Digestibility coefficient of proteins
(C) 0.80 (D) 0.85
(B) Biological value of proteins
192. R.Q. of carbohydrates is about (C) Protein efficiency ratio
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.80 (D) Net protein utilisation
(C) 0.85 (D) 1.0 202. In a person increase in weight in gms per
193. R.Q. of fats is about gm of protein consumption represents
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.80 (A) Protein efficiency ratio
(C) 0.85 (D) 1.0 (B) Digestibility value of proteins
(C) Biological value of proteins
194. Proteins have the SDA: (D) Net protein utilisation
(A) 5% (B) 10%
203. The percentage of food nitrogen that is
(C) 20% (D) 30% retained in the body represents
195. Humans most easily tolerate a lack of the (A) Digestibility coefficient
nutrient: (B) Biological value of proteins
(A) Protein (B) Lipid (C) Protein efficiency ratio
(C) Iodine (D) Carbohydrate (D) Net protein utilisation
196. The basal metabolic rate (B.M.R.) is 204. The chemical score of different proteins is
measurement of calculated in terms of
(A) Energy expenditure during sleep (A) Egg proteins (B) Milk proteins
(B) Energy expenditure after 100 m walk (C) Fish proteins (D) Wheat proteins
(C) Energy expenditure after a meal 205. Biological value of egg protein is
(D) Energy expenditure under certain basal
(A) 94 (B) 60
(Standard) conditions
(C) 51 (D) 40
197. B.M.R. is raised in
206. Biological value of protein of cows milk is
(A) Polycythemia (B) Starvation
(A) 95 (B) 60
(C) Lipid nephrosis (D) Hypothyroidism
(C) 71 (D) 67
198. B.M.R. is lowered in
207. Biological value of soyabean protein is
(A) Hypothyroidism (B) Leukemia
(A) 86 (B) 71
(C) Cardiac failure (D) Hyperthyroidism
(C) 64 (D) 54
MINERAL METABOLISM 193

208. Plasma bicarbonate is decreased in 216. Respiratory acidosis occurs in


(A) Respiratory alkalosis (A) Any disease which impairs respiration like
(B) Respiratory acidosis emphysema
(C) Metabolic alkalosis (B) Renal disease
(D) Metabolic acidosis (C) Poisoning by an acid
209. Plasma bicarbonate is increased in (D) Pyloric stenosis
(A) Respiratory alkalosis 217. Metabolic alkalosis occurs
(B) Metabolic alkalosis
(A) As consequence of high intestinal obstruction
(C) Respiratory acidosis
(B) In central nervous system disease
(D) Metabolic acidosis
(C) In diarrhoea
210. Total CO2 is increased in
(D) In colitis
(A) Respiratory acidosis
(B) Metabolic alkalosis 218. Respiratory alkalosis occurs in
(C) Both respiratory acidosis and metabolic (A) Hysterical hyperventilation
alkalosis (B) Depression of respiratory centre
(D) Respiratory alkalosis (C) Renal diseases
211. Respiratory acidosis is caused by (D) Loss of intestinal fluids
(A) Increase in carbonic acid relative to 219. Morphine poisoning causes
bicarbonate
(B) Decrease in bicarbonate fraction (A) Metabolic acidosis
(C) Increase in bicarbonate fraction (B) Respiratory acidosis
(E) Decrease in the carbonic acid fraction (C) Metabolic alkalosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
212. Respiratory alkalosis is caused by
(A) An increase in carbonic acid fraction 220. Salicylate poisoning in early stages causes
(B) A decrease in bicarbonic fraction (A) Metabolic acidosis
(C) A decrease in the carbonic acid fraction (B) Respiratory acidosis
(D) An increase in bicarbonate fraction (C) Metabolic alkalosis
213. Meningitis and encephalitis cause (D) Respiratory alkalosis
(A) Metabolic alkalosis 221. The compound having the lowest redox
(B) Respiratory alkalosis potential amongst the following is
(C) Metabolic acidosis
(A) Hydrogen (B) NAD
(D) Respiratory acidosis
(C) Cytochrome b (D) Cytochrome a
214. Metabolic acidosis is caused in
222. All the oxidases contain a metal which is
(A) Uncontrolled diabetes with ketosis
(B) Pneumonia (A) Copper (B) FAD
(C) Intestinal Obstruction (C) Manganese (D) None of these
(D) Hepatic coma 223. Isocitrate dehydrogenases is
215. Metabolic acidosis is caused in (A) Aerobic dehydrogenase
(A) Pneumonia (B) Anaerobic dehydrogenase
(B) Prolonged starvation (C) Hydroperoxidase
(C) Intestinal obstruction (D) Oxygenase
(D) Bulbar polio
194 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

224. Iron-pophyrin is present as prosthetic 234. The porphyrin present in haem is


group in (A) Uroporphyrin (B) Protoporphyrin I
(A) Cytochromes (B) Catalases (C) Coproporphyrin (D) Protoporphyrin II
(C) Peroxidase (D) None of these
235. An amino acid required for porphyrin
225. Microsomal hydroxylase system contains synthesis is
a
(A) Proline (B) Glycine
(A) Di-oxygenase (B) Mono-oxygenase (C) Serine (D) Histidine
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of thse
236. Which of the following coenzyme is
226. Superoxide radicals can be detoxified by required for porphyrin synthesis?
(A) Cytochrome c (B) Cytochrome b (A) Coenzyme A
(C) Cytochrome a (D) None of these (B) Pyridoxal phosphate
227. A copper containing cytochrome is (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Cytochrome a (B) Cytochrome P-450 (D) None of these
(C) Cytochrome a3 (D) None of these 237. The regulatory enzyme for haem
synthesis is
228. Rate of tissue respiration is raised when
the intracellular concentration of (A) ALA synthetase
(A) ADP increases (B) ATP increases (B) haem synthetase
(C) ADP decreases (D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
229. Which of the following component of
respiratory chain is not attached to the 238. Regulation of haem synthesis occurs by
inner mitochondrial membrane? (A) Covalent modification
(A) Coenzyme Q (B) Cytochrome c (B) Repression - derepression
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Induction
230. In some reactions, energy is captured in (D) Allosteric regulation
the form of 239. Sigmoidal oxygen dissociation curve is a
(A) GTP (B) UTP property of
(C) CTP (D) None of these (A) Haemoglobin
231. Substrate-linked phosphorylation occurs (B) Carboxyhaemoglobin
in (C) Myoglobin
(A) Glycolytic pathway (B) Citric acid cycle (D) Methaemoglobin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 240. Cyanmethaemoglobin can be formed
232. Hydrogen peroxide may be detoxified in from
the absence of an oxygen acceptor by (A) Oxy Hb (B) Met Hb
(A) Peroxidase (B) Catalase (C) Carboxy Hb (D) All of these
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 241. In thalassemia, an amino acid is substituted
233. Superoxide radicals can be detoxified by in
(A) Cytochrome c (A) Alpha chain
(B) Superoxide dismutase (B) Beta chain
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Alpha and beta chains
(D) None of these (D) Any chain
MINERAL METABOLISM 195

242. Haem synthetase is congenitally deficient 249. Bilirubin UDP-glucuronyl transferase is


in absent from liver in
(A) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I
(B) Protoporphyria (B) Gilberts disease
(C) Hereditary coproporphyria (C) Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type II
(D) Variegate porphyria (D) Rotors syndrome

243. During breakdown of haem, the methenyl 250. Unconjugated bilirubin in serum is
bridge between the following two pyrrole soluble in
rings is broken: (A) Water (B) Alkalis
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) Acids (D) Methanal
(C) III and IV (D) IV and I 251. Excretion of conjugated bilirubin from liver
cells into biliary canaliculi is defective in
244. Pre- hepatic jaundice occurs because of
(A) Gilberts disease
(A) Increased haemolysis
(B) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
(B) Liver damage
(C) Lucey-Driscoll syndrome
(C) Biliary obstruction
(D) Rotors syndrome
(D) None of these
252. Breakdown of 1gm haemoglobin pro-
245. kernicterus can occur in duces
(A) Haemolytic jaundice (A) 20 mg of bilirubin (B) 35 mg of bilirubin
(B) Hepatic jaundice (C) 50 mg of bilirubin (D) 70 mg of bilirubin
(C) Obstructive jaundice
253. Variable regions are present in
(D) All of these
(A) Immunoglobulins
246. Bile pigments are not present in urine in (B) -Chains of T cell receptors
(A) Haemolytic jaundice (C) -Chains of T cell receptors
(B) Hepatic jaundice (D) All of these
(C) Obstructive jaundice
254. The total amount of calcium in an average
(D) Rotors syndrome adult man is about
247. Serum alkaline phosphatase is greatly (A) 100 gm (B) 500 gm
increased in (C) 1 kg (D) 10 kg
(A) Haemolytic jaundice 255. The following proportion of the total body
(B) Hepatic jaundice calcium is present in bones and teeth:
(C) Obstructive jaundice (A) 75% (B) 90%
(D) None of these (C) 95% (D) 99%
248. The active transport system for hepatic 256. The normal range of plasma calcium is
uptake of bilirubin is congenitally
(A) 3-5 mg/dl (B) 5-10 mg/dl
defective in
(C) 9-11 mg/dl (D) 11-15 mg/dl
(A) Gilberts disease
257. Which of the normal range of ionized
(B) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
calcium in plasma is
(C) Rotors syndrome
(A) 2-4 mg/dl (B) 2-4 mEq/L
(D) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
(C) 4-5 mg/dl (D) 4-5 mEq/L
196 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

258. Tetany can occur in 266. Hypocalcaemia can occur in all the follow-
ing except
(A) Hypocalcaemia
(B) Hypercalcaemia (A) Rickets
(C) Alkalosis (B) Osteomalacia
(D) Hypocalcaemia and alkalosis (C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Intestinal malabsorption
259. Intestinal absorption of calcium occurs by
267. The major calcium salt in bones is
(A) Active takeup
(B) Simple diffusion (A) Calcium carbonate
(C) Facilitated diffusion (B) Calcium chloride
(D) Endocytosis (C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Calcium phosphate
260. Intestinal absorption of calcium is
hampered by 268. The correct statement about serum
inorganic phosphorous concentration is
(A) Phosphate (B) Phytate
(C) Proteins (D) Lactose (A) It is higher in men than in women
(B) It is higher in women than in men
261. Calcitriol facilitates calcium absorption by
increasing the synthesis of the following (C) It is higher in adults than in children
in intestinal mucosa: (D) It is higher in children than in adults
(A) Calcium Binding Protein 269. The product of serum calcium concentra-
(B) Alkaline Phosphatase tion (mg/dl) and serum inorganic phos-
(C) Calcium-dependent ATPase phorous concentration (mg/dl) in adults
(D) All of these is about
(A) 30 (B) 40
262. A high plasma calcium level decreases
(C) 50 (D) 60
intestinal absorption of calcium by
(A) Stimulating the secretion of parathormone 270. The product of serum calcium concentra-
(B) Inhibiting the secretion of parathormone tion (mg/dl) and serum inorganic phos-
phorous concentration (mg/dl) in children
(C) Decreasing the synthesis of cholecalciferol
is about
(D) Inhibiting the secretion of thyrocalcitonin
(A) 30 (B) 40
263. The daily calcium requirement of an adult (C) 50 (D) 60
man is about
(A) 400 mg (B) 600 mg 271. The product of serum calcium concentration
(mg/dl) and serum inorganic phosphorous
(C) 800 mg (D) 1,000 mg
concentration (mg/dl) is decreased in
264. The daily calcium requirement in preg- (A) Rickets
nancy and lactation is about
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
(A) 600 mg (B) 800 mg (C) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) 1,200 mg (D) 1,500 mg (D) Renal failure
265. Hypercalcaemia can occur in all the fol-
272. Serum inorganic phosphorous rises in all
lowing except
the following conditions except
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(A) Hypoparathyroidism
(B) Hypervitaminosis D
(B) Hypervitaminosis D
(C) Milk alkali syndrome
(C) Chronic renal failure
(D) Nephrotic syndrome
(D) After a carbohydrate-rich meal
MINERAL METABOLISM 197

273. Serum inorganic phosphorous decreases 282. Serum potassium level decreases in
in all the following conditions except (A) Familial periodic paralysis
(A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Addisons disease
(B) Intestinal malabsorption (C) Renal failure
(C) Osteomalacia (D) All of these
(D) Chronic renal failure
283. Concentration of the following is higher
274. Serum magnesium level ranges between in intracellular fluid than in extracellular
(A) 23 mg/dl (B) 35 mg/dl fluid:
(C) 68 mg/dl (D) 911 mg/dl (A) Sodium (B) Potassium
275. Magnesium ions are required in the (C) Chloride (D) Bicarbonate
reactions involving 284. Normal range of serum potassium is
(A) NAD (B) FAD (A) 2.1-3.4 mEq/L (B) 3.5-5.3 mEq/L
(C) ATP (D) CoA (C) 5.47.4 mEq/L (D) 7.59.5 mEq/L
276. Normal range of serum sodium is 285. Normal range of serum chloride is
(A) 3070 mEq/L (B) 70110 mEq/L (A) 2427 mEq/L (B) 7080 mEq/L
(C) 117135 mEq/L (D) 136145 mEq/L (C) 100106 mEq/L (D) 120140 mEq/L
277. Sodium is involved in the active uptake
286. An extracellular fluid having a higher
of
concentration of chloride than serum is
(A) D-Glucose (B) D-Galactose
(A) Bile (B) Sweat
(C) L-Amino acids (D) All of these
(C) CSF (D) Pancreatic juice
278. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of
287 Total amount of iron in an adult man is
sodium in
about
(A) Proximal convoluted tubules
(A) 12 gm (B) 23 gm
(B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(C) 34 gm (D) 67 gm
(C) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(D) Distal convoluted tubules 288. Haemoglobin contains about

279. Restriction of sodium intake is commonly (A) 30% of the total body iron
advised in (B) 50% of the total body iron
(A) Addisons disease (B) Diarrhoea (C) 75% of the total body iron
(C) Hypertension (D) None of these (D) 90% of the total body iron

280. Serum sodium level rises in all of the 289. About 5% of the total body, iron is present
following except in
(A) Renal failure (A) Transferrin (B) Myoglobin
(B) Prolonged steroid therapy (C) Cytochromes (D) Haemosiderin
(C) Aldosteronism 290. Each haemoglobin molecule contains
(D) Dehydration
(A) One iron atom (B) Two iron atoms
281. Hyponatraemia occurs in the following (C) Four iron atoms (D) Six iron atoms
condition:
291. Each myoglobin molecule contains
(A) Addisons disease (B) Chronic renal failure
(C) Severe diarrhoea (D) All of these (A) One iron atom (B) Two iron atoms
(C) Four iron atoms (D) Six iron atoms
198 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

292. Apoferritin molecule is made up of 302. Daily iron requirement of an adult man
(A) Four subunits (B) Eight subunits is about
(C) Ten subunits (D) Twenty-four subunits (A) 1 mg (B) 5 mg
(C) 10 mg (D) 18 mg
293. Ferritin is present in
(A) Intestinal mucosa (B) Liver 303. Daily iron requirement of a woman of
reproductive age is about
(C) Spleen (D) All of these
(A) 1 mg (B) 2 mg
294. Iron is stored in the form of (C) 10 mg (D) 20 mg
(A) Ferritin and transferrin
304. All the following are good sources of iron
(B) Transferrin and haemosiderin
except
(C) Haemoglobin and myoglobin
(A) Milk (B) Meat
(D) Ferritin and haemosiderin
(C) Liver (D) Kidney
295. Iron is transported in blood in the form
305. Relatively more iron is absorbed from
of
(A) Green leafy vegetables
(A) Ferritin (B) Haemosiderin
(B) Fruits
(C) Transferrin (D) Haemoglobin
(C) Whole grain cereals
296. Molecular weight of transferrin is about (D) Organ meats
(A) 40,000 (B) 60,000
306. Iron absorption from a mixed diet is about
(C) 80,000 (D) 1,00,000
(A) 15 % (B) 510 %
297. Normal plasma iron level is
(C) 2025 % (D) 2550 %
(A) 50100 g/dl (B) 100150 g/dl
307. Iron deficiency causes
(C) 50175 g/dl (D) 250400 g/dl
(A) Normocytic anaemia
298. Iron is present in all the following except
(B) Microcytic anaemia
(A) Peroxidase (B) Xanthine oxidase (C) Megaloblastic anaemia
(C) Aconitase (D) Fumarase (D) Pernicious anaemia
299. Total daily iron loss of an adult man is 308. Prolonged and severe iron deficiency can
about cause astrophy of epithelium of
(A) 0.1 mg (B) 1 mg (A) Oral cavity (B) Oesophagus
(C) 5 mg (D) 10 mg (C) Stomach (D) All of these
300. Iron absorption is hampered by 309. All of the following statements about
(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Succinic acid bronzed diabetes are true except
(C) Phytic acid (D) Amino acid (A) It is caused by excessive intake of copper
301. Iron absorption is hampered by (B) Skin becomes pigmented
(C) There is damage to cells of Islets of Langerhans
(A) In achlorhydria
(D) Liver is damaged
(B) When ferritin content of intestinal mucosa is
low 310. The total amount of iodine in the body of
(C) When saturation of plasma transferring is low an average adult is
(A) 1015 mg (B) 2025 mg
(D) When erythropoietic activity is increased (C) 4550 mg (D) 75100 mg
MINERAL METABOLISM 199

311. Iodine content of thyroid gland in an 320. All the following statements about
adult is about Wilsons disease are correct except
(A) 13 mg (B) 48 mg (A) It is a genetic disease
(C) 1015 mg (D) 2530 mg (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-type
ATPase
312. Daily iodine requirement of an adult is
about (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia
and around cornea
(A) 50 g (B) 100 g
(D) Plasma copper level is increased in it
(C) 150 g (D) 1 mg
321. Which of the following statements about
313. Consumption of iodised salt is recom- Menkes disease are true.
mended in
(A) It is an inherited disorder of copper metabolism
(A) Patients with hyperthyroidism
(B) It occurs only in males
(B) Patients with hypothyroidism
(C) Plasma copper is increased in it
(C) Pregnant women
(D) Hair becomes steely and kinky in it
(D) Goitre belt areas
322. The total amount of zinc in an average
314. All the following statements about
adult is
endemic goiter are true except
(A) 0.250.5 gm (B) 0.51.0 gm
(A) It occurs in areas where soil and water have
low iodine content (C) 1.52.0 gm (D) 2.55.0 gm
(B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland 323. Plasma zinc level is
(C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism
(A) 1050 g/dl (B) 50150 g/dl
(D) It can be prevented by consumption of
(C) 150250 g/dl (D) 250500 g/dl
iodised salt
324. Zinc is a cofactor for
315. The total amount of copper in the body
of an average adult is (A) Acid phosphatase
(A) 1 gm (B) 500 mg (B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) 100 mg (D) 10 mg (C) Amylase
(D) Lipase
316. The normal range of plasma copper is
(A) 2550 g/dl (B) 50100 g/dl 325. Zinc is involved in storage and release of
(C) 100200 g/dl (D) 200400 g/dl (A) Histamine (B) Acetylcholine
(C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin
317. Copper deficiency can cause
(A) Polycythaemia (B) Leukocytopenia 326. Intestinal absorption of zinc is retarded
by
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Microcytic anaemia
(A) Calcium (B) Cadmium
318. Daily requirement of copper in adults is
(C) Phytate (D) All of these
about
(A) 0.5 mg (B) 1 mg 327. The daily zinc requirement of an average
(C) 2.5 mg (D) 5 mg adult is
(A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg
319. All the following statements about
ceruloplasmin are correct except (C) 15 mg (D) 25 mg

(A) It is a copper-containing protein 328. Zinc deficiency occurs commonly in


(B) It possesses oxidase activity (A) Acrodermatitis enteropathica
(C) It is synthesised in intestinal mucosa (B) Wilsons disease
(D) Its plasma level is decreased inWilsons (C) Xeroderma pigmentosum
disease (D) Menkes disease
200 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

329. Hypogonadism can occur in deficiency of 340. 1 kcal is roughly equal to


(A) Copper (B) Chromium (A) 4.2 J (B) 42 J
(C) Zinc (D) Manganese (C) 4.2 KJ (D) 42 KJ
330. Healing of wounds may be impaired in
341. Calorific value of proteins as determined
deficiency of
in a bomb calorimeter is
(A) Selenium (B) Copper
(A) 4 kcal/gm (B) 4.8 kcal/gm
(C) Zinc (D) Cobalt
(C) 5.4 kcal/gm (D) 5.8 kcal/gm
331. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia can
occur in 342. Calorific value of proteins in a living per-
(A) Zinc (B) Copper son is less than that in a bomb calorime-
(C) Manganese (D) None of these ter because
(A) Digestion and absorption of proteins is less
332. The daily requirement for manganese in
adults is about than 100%
(A) 12 mg (B) 25 mg (B) Respiratory quotient of proteins is less than 1
(C) 25 g (D) 520 g (C) Specific dynamic action of proteins is high
(D) Proteins are not completely oxidized in living
333. Molybdenum is a cofactor for
persons
(A) Xanthine oxidase (B) Aldehyde oxidase
(C) Sulphite oxidase (D) All of these 343. Calorific value of alcohol is

334. A trace element having antioxidant (A) 4 kcal/gm (B) 5.4 kcal/gm
function is (C) 7 kcal/gm (D) 9 kcal/gm
(A) Selenium (B) Tocopherol 344. Energy expenditure of a person can be
(C) Chromium (D) Molybdenum measured by
335. Selenium is a constituent of (A) Bomb calorimetry
(A) Glutathione reductase (B) Direct calorimetry
(B) Glutathione peroxidase (C) Indirect calorimetry
(C) Catalase (D) Direct or indirect calorimetry
(D) Superoxide dismutase
345. Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
336. Selenium decreases the requirement of
about
(A) Copper (B) Zinc
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.7
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0
337. Upper safe limit of fluorine in water is
346. Respiratory quotient of fats is about
(A) 0.4 ppm (B) 0.8 ppm
(C) 1.2 ppm (D) 2 ppm (A) 0.5 (B) 0.7
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0
338. The daily fluoride intake should not
exceed 347. Respiratory quotient of proteins is about
(A) 0.5 mg (B) 1 mg (A) 0.5 (B) 0.7
(C) 2 mg (D) 3 mg
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0
339. In adults, water constitutes about
348. Respiratory quotient of an average mixed
(A) 50% of body weight diet is about
(B) 55% of body weight
(A) 0.65 (B) 0.7
(C) 60% of body weight
(D) 75% of body weight (C) 0.75 (D) 0.85
MINERAL METABOLISM 201

349. At a respiratory quotient of 0.85, every 359. All following are essential trace elements
litre of oxygen consumed represents an except
energy expenditure of (A) Iron (B) Iodine
(A) 5.825 kcal (B) 4.825 kcal (C) Zinc (D) Cadmium
(C) 3.825 kcal (D) 2.825 kcal
360. Maximum quantity of sodium is excreted
350. BMR of healthy adult men is about through
(A) 30 kcal/hour/square metre (A) Urine (B) Faeces
(B) 35 kcal/hour/square metre (C) Sweat (D) None of these
(C) 40 kcal/hour/square metre
361. All followings are rich sources of
(D) 45 kcal/hour/square metre
magnesium, except
351. BMR of healthy adult women is about (A) Milk (B) Eggs
(A) 32 kcal/hour/square metre (C) Meat (D) Cabbage
(B) 36 kcal/hour/square metre
362. All followings are poor sources of iron
(C) 40 kcal/hour/square metre except
(D) 44 kcal/hour/square metre
(A) Milk (B) Potatoes
352. BMR is higher in (C) Wheat flour (D) Liver
(A) Adults than in children
363. The Iron deficient children, absorption of
(B) Men than in women Iron from GIT is
(C) Vegetarians than in non-vegetarians
(A) Unaltered
(D) Warmer climate than in colder climate
(B) Double than in normal child
353. BMR is decreased in (C) Manifold than in normal child
(A) Pregnancy (B) Starvation (D) Lesser than in normal child
(C) Anaemia (D) Fever 364. Main source of fluoride for human beings
354. BMR is increased in is
(A) Starvation (B) Hypothyroidism (A) Milk (B) Water
(C) Addisons disease (D) Pregnancy (C) Vegetables (D) Eggs

355. BMR is decreased in all of the following 365. Quantity of copper present in the body
except of an adult is
(A) Fever (B) Addisons disease (A) 050 mg (B) 50100 mg
(C) Starvation (D) Hypothyroidism (C) 100150 mg (D) 150250 mg
356. BMR is increased in all of the following 366. A level of 310340 mg per 1000 ml of
except blood is normal for the
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Anaemia (A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) Addisons disease (D) Pregnancy (C) Potassium (D) Sodium
357. Specific dynamic action of carbohydrates 367. Daily requirement of phosphorous for an
is about infant is
(A) 5% (B) 13% (A) 240400 mg (B) 1.2 gms
(C) 20% (D) 30% (C) 800 mg (D) 8001200 mg
358. Specific dynamic action of proteins is 368. Maximum quantity of Zinc is present in
about the body in
(A) 5% (B) 13% (A) Prostate (B) Choroid
(C) 20% (D) 30% (C) Skin (D) Bones
202 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

369. Average concentration of chloride ions in 378. A deficiency of copper effects the formation
cerebrospinal fluid per 100 ml is of normal collagen by reducing the activity
(A) 40 mg (B) 440 mg of which of the following enzyme?
(C) 160 mg (D) 365 mg (A) Prolyl hydroxylase

370. Total iron content of the normal adult is (B) Lysyl oxidase
(C) Lysyl hydroxylase
(A) 1-2 gm (B) 3-4 gm
(D) Glucosyl transferase
(C) 4-5 gm (D) 7-10 gm
379. Molecular iron (Fe) is
371. Absorption of phosphorous from diet is
favoured by (A) Stored primarily in spleen
(A) Moderate amount of fat (B) Absorbed in the intestine
(B) Acidic environment (C) Absorbed in the ferric, Fe+++ form
(C) High calcium content (D) Stored in the body in combination with ferritin
(D) High phytic acid 380. All the following statements regarding
372. Daily intake of potassium for a normal calcium are correct except
person should be (A) It diffuses as a divalent cation
(A) 1 gm (B) 2 gm (B) It freely diffuses across the endoplasmic
(C) 3 gm (D) 4 gm reticulum of muscle cells
(C) It can exist in the blood as ionic form and
373. Absorption of calcium decreases if there
also protein bound
is high concentration in the diet of
(D) It is found in high concentration in bones
(A) Copper (B) Sodium
(C) Magnesium (D) Cadmium 381. Iron is absorbed from

374. Of the following highest concentration of (A) Stomach


calcium is seen in (B) Duodenum and jejunum
(A) Blood (B) CSF (C) Ileum
(C) Muscle (D) Nerve (D) Noen of the above

375. Cobalt is essential component of 382. The normal route of calcium excretion is
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B6 (A) Kidney
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) All of these (B) Kidney and Liver
(C) Kidney and Intestine
376. Iodine is required in human body for
(D) Kidney, Intestine and Pancreas
(A) Formation of thyroxine
(B) Formation of Glutathione 383. Hypocalcaemia affects
(C) Formation of potassium iodide (A) Skeletal muslces
(D) Adrenalin (B) Smooth muscles
377. A hypochromic necrocytic anaemia with (C) Cardiac muscles
increase Fe stores in the bone marrow (D) Skeletal muscles + smooth muscles + cardiac
may be muscles
(A) Folic acid responsive 384. Transferrin is a type of
(B) Vitamin B12 responsive
(A) Albumin (B) -globulin
(C) Pyridoxine responsive
(C) 1 globulin (D) -globulin
(D) Vitamin C responsive
MINERAL METABOLISM 203

385. In case of wilsons disease, the features 393. Which of the following is true? Hypochro-
include all of the following except mic anaemia is not due to iron deficiency
(A) Progressive hepatic cirrhosis except
(B) Keyser Fleisher ring (A) Serum Fe is high
(C) Aminoaciduria (B) Normal/low transferrin
(D) Urinary excretion of Cu is decreased (C) Stainable iron in bone marrow
386. In Vitamin D poisoning (hyper-vitaminosis) (D) Iron therapy is affective

(A) Both serum and urinary Ca 394. Cytosolic superoxide dismutase contains
(B) The serum Ca is low and urinary calcium high (A) Zn only (B) Cu only
(C) The serum Ca is increased and urinary (C) Zn and Cu (D) Mn
Ca is normal
395. A rise in blood Ca may indicate
(D) Both serum and urinary Ca are low
(A) Pagets disease (B) Vitamin D deficiency
387. The % of K in Extracellular fluid is about
(C) Cushings disease (D) Hypervitaminosis D
(A) 1% (B) 2 to 3%
(C) 10% (D) 15% 396. The essential trace element which cata-
lyzes the formation of Hb in the body is
388. The Fe containing pigments is
(A) Mn (B) Se
(A) Haematoidin (B) Bilirubin (C) Mg (D) Cu
(C) Hemasiderin (D) Urobilinogen
397. Zinc is a constituent of the enzyme:
389. All of the following are true of Wilsons
(A) Succinate dehydrogenase
disease except
(B) Carbonic anhydrase
(A) Low total plasma Cu
(C) Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase
(B) Elevated urinary copper
(D) Aldolase
(C) Arthritis
(D) Aminoaciduria 398. The active transport of Ca is regulated
by __________ which is synthesized in
390. An increased serum Iron and decreased
kidnyes.
Fe binding capacity are found in
(A) Cholecalciferol
(A) Fe-deficiency anaemia
(B) Ergosterol
(B) Sideroblastic anaemia
(C) 25-OH cholecalciferol
(C) Thalassaemia
(D) 1, 25-di OH-Cholecalciferol
(D) Anaemia of chromic disorders
391. Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the 399. Ceruloplasmin shows the activity
following conditions: (A) As ferroxidase (B) As reductase
(A) Chronic blood loss (C) As ligase (D) As transferase
(B) Inadequate Fe intake 400. The principal cation of extra cellular fluid:
(C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy
(A) K + (B) Na +
(D) Thalassaemia minor
(C) H+ (D) Ca 2+
392. In hoemochromatosis, the liver is infiltrat-
401. What is the principal cation of intracellular
ed with
fluid?
(A) Copper (B) Iron
(A) K + (B) Na +
(C) Manganese (D) Chromium
(C) Ca2+ (D) Mg 2+
204 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

402. What is the normal level of K+ in the serum ? (C) It is the stored form of iron
(A) 137148 mEq/L (B) 120160 mEq/L (D) Non-protein moiety
(C) 3.95.0 mEq/L (D) 0.30.59 mEq/L 409. What is ceruloplasmin?
403. The general functions of minerals are (A) Plasma protein (B) Stored form of copper
(A) The structural components of body tissues (C) Both A and B (D) None of these
(B) In the regulation of body fluids 410. The following are the functions of copper:
(C) In acid-base balance
(A) Constituent of cytochromes
(D) All of these
(B) Catalase
404. What are the functions of potassium? (C) Tyrosinase
(A) In muscle contraction (D) All of these
(B) Cell membrane function 411. Zn is present as prosthetic group in this
(C) Enzyme action enzyme:
(D) All of these (A) Carbonic anhydrase
405. The daily requirement of calcium is (B) Carboxy peptidase
(A) 200 mg (B) 400 mg (C) Lactate dehydrogenase
(C) 800 mg (D) 600 mg (D) All of these

406. The normal serum inorganic phosphorous 412. Fluorosis is caused due to
level is (A) Excessive intake of fluorine
(A) 1.52.5 mg/100 ml (B) Low intake of fluorine
(B) 2.54.5 mg/100 ml (C) Discoloration of the teeth due to low intake
(C) 4.56.5 mg/100 ml (D) All of these
(D) 0.51.5 mg/100 ml 413. What is the state of iron in transferrin?
407. When phosphorous level is lowered ? (A) Ferrous form (B) Ferric form
(A) In hyper thyroidism (B) Cirrosis of liver (C) Both A and B (D) None of these
(C) Leukemia (D) Hypothyroidism
414. Haemoglobin formation needs both
408. Ferritin is (A) Iron and Zinc (B) Iron and Calcium
(A) Coenzyme (C) Iron and Copper (D) Iron and Magnesium
(B) One of the component of photophosphorylation
MINERAL METABOLISM 205

ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B
7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. D
19. D 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. C 24. B
25. C 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. D
37. B 38. C 39. A 40. A 41. B 42. A
43. D 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. D
49. D 50. A 51. D 52. A 53. A 54. A
55. D 56. B 57. B 58. A 59. C 60. D
61. A 62. D 63. D 64. D 65. B 66. D
67. D 68. D 69. C 70. D 71. A 72. B
73. C 74. D 75. D 76. B 77. A 78. C
79. A 80. D 81. A 82. A 83. C 84. A
85. C 86. D 87. A 88. C 89. D 90. D
91. C 92. B 93. D 94. C 95. B 96. C
97. B 98. A 99. D 100. A 101. C 102. A
103. B 104. B 105. A 106. D 107. C 108. B
109. A 110. D 111. C 112. D 113. A 114. B
115. A 116. A 117. D 118. A 119. D 120. D
121. B 122. A 123. A 124. B 125. A 126. A
127. A 128. C 129. A 130. A 131. B 132. C
133. D 134. C 135. C 136. C 137. A 138. B
139. A 140. B 141. A 142. D 143. C 144. C
145. D 146. D 147. B 148. D 149. C 150. D
151. C 152. C 153. B 154. D 155. A 156. C
157. D 158. B 159. A 160. D 161. C 162. D
163. A 164. C 165. C 166. A 167. A 168. D
169. A 170. D 171. A 172. A 173. A 174. A
175. B 176. A 177. A 178. C 179. A 180. C
181. D 182. B 183. A 184. D 185. C 186. A
187. B 188. C 189. B 190. C 191. C 192. D
193. A 194. D 195. D 196. D 197. A 198. A
199. A 200. C 201. B 202. A 203. D 204. A
205. A 206. B 207. C 208. D 209. B 210. C
211. A 212. C 213. B 214. A 215. B 216. A
217. A 218. A 219. B 220. D 221. A 222. A
223. B 224. D 225. B 226. A 227. C 228. A
229. C 230. A 231. C 232. B 233. C 234. D
235. A 236. C 237. A 238. B 239. A 240. B
241. D 242. B 243. A 244. A 245. A 246. A
247. C 248. A 249. A 250. D 251. D 252. B
206 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

253. D 254. C 255. D 256. C 257. C 258. D


259. A 260. B 261. D 262. B 263. C 264. C
265. D 266. C 267. D 268. D 269. A 270. C
271. A 272. D 273. D 274. A 275. C 276. D
277. D 278. D 279. C 280. A 281. D 282. A
283. B 284. B 285. C 286. C 287. C 288. C
289. B 290. C 291. A 292. D 293. D 294. D
295. C 296. C 297. C 298. D 299. B 300. C
301. A 302. C 303. D 304. A 305. D 306. B
307. B 308. D 309. A 310. C 311. C 312. C
313. D 314. C 315. C 316. C 317. D 318. C
319. C 320. D 321. C 322. C 323. B 324. B
325. D 326. D 327. C 328. D 329. C 330. C
331. B 332. B 333. D 334. A 335. B 336. D
337. C 338. D 339. C 340. C 341. C 342. D
343. C 344. D 345. D 346. B 347. C 348. D
349. B 350. C 351. B 352. B 353. B 354. D
355. A 356. C 357. A 358. D 359. D 360. A
361. C 362. D 363. B 364. B 365. C 366. D
367. A 368. C 369. B 370. C 371. B 372. D
373. C 374. C 375. C 376. A 377. C 378. B
379. D 380. B 381. B 382. C 383. D 384. B
385. D 386. A 387. A 388. C 389. C 390. B
391. D 392. B 393. D 394. C 395. D 396. D
397. B 398. D 399. A 400. B 401. A 402. C
403. D 404. D 405. C 406. B 407. A 408. C
409. C 410. D 411. D 412. A 413. B 414. C
HORMONE METABOLISM 207

CHAPTER 8

HORMONE METABOLISM
ETABOLISM

1. Hormones 6. The number of amino acids in human


(A) Act as coenzyme growth hormone is
(B) Act as enzyme (A) 91 (B) 151
(C) Influence synthesis of enzymes (C) 191 (D) 291
(D) Belong to B-complex group 7. Growth hormone causes hyperglycemia.
2. Hormone that binds to intracellular It is a result of
receptor is (A) Decreased peripheral utilization of glucose
(A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (B) Decreased hepatic production via gluconeo-
(B) Thyroxine genesis
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone (C) Increased glycolysis in muscle
(D) Glucagon (D) Decrersed lipolysis

3. Hormone that bind to cell surface receptor 8. Acromegaly results due to excessive
and require the second messenger camp release of
is (A) Thyroxine (B) Growth hormone
(A) Antidiuretic hormone (C) Insulin (D) Glucagon
(B) Cholecystokinin
9. Growth hormone is released by
(C) Calcitriol
(D) Gastrin (A) Somatostatin
(B) Growth hormone releasing hormone
4. A hormone secreted from anterior pituitary
(C) Prolactin release inhibiting hormone
is
(D) Luteinizing releasing hormone
(A) Growth hormone (B) Vasopressin
(C) Oxytocin (D) Epinephrine 10. The number of amino acids in prolactin is
(A) 134 (B) 146
5. A hormone secreted from posterior pituitary
is (C) 172 (D) 199
(A) Vasopressin 11. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a
(B) Thyrotropic hormone single polypeptide containing
(C) Prolactin (A) 25 amino acid (B) 39 amino acid
(D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (C) 49 amino acid (D) 52 amino acid
208 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

12. Biological activity of ACTH requires 20. A specific cortisol binding protein, trans-
(A) 10-N-terminal amino acid cortin is a
(B) 24-N-terminal amino acid (A) Albumin (B) 1-Globulin
(C) 24-C-terminal amino acid (C) 2-Globulin (D) -Globulin
(D) 15-C-terminal amino acid 21. Cortisol is synthesized in
13. ACTH stimulates the secretion of (A) Zona fasiculata (B) Zona glomerulosa
(C) Zona reticularis (D) Chromaffin cells
(A) Glucocorticoids (B) Epinephrine
(C) Thyroxine (D) Luteinizing hormone 22. All mammalian steroid hormones are
formed from
14. Excessive secretion of ACTH causes
(A) Purine (B) Pyrimidine
(A) Cushings syndrome
(C) Cholesterol (D) Pyrrole
(B) Addisons disease
(C) Myxoedema 23. A very efficient inhibitor of steroid
biosynthesis is
(D) Thyrotoxicosis
(A) Aminoglutethimide
15. In Cushings syndrome-a tumour associ- (B) Aminoimidazole
ated disease of adrenal cortex, there is
(C) Aminoimidazolesuccinyl carboxamine
(A) Decreased epinephrine production (D) Aminopterin
(B) Excessive cortisol production
24. In adrenal gland the cholesterol is stored
(C) Excessive epinephrine production
(A) Mostly in the free form
(D) Decreased cortsoil production
(B) Mostly in esterified form
16. ACTH induces rise in (C) Large amount of free form and less amount
(A) Cyclic AMP (B) Cyclic GMP of esterified form
(C) Calcium (D) Magnesium (D) Equal amounts of free and esterified form

17. The circulating concentration of ACTH in 25. Aldosterone synthesis occurs in


plasma is (A) Zona reticularis (B) Zona fasciculata
(A) 0.05 m /100 ml (C) Zona glomerulosa (D) Chromaffian cells
(B) 0.12.0 m /100 ml 26. In the biosynthesis of cortiol, the sequence
(C) 2.53.5 m /100 ml of enzymes involved is
(D) 3.05.0 m /100 ml (A) Hydroxylasedehydrogenase + isomerase
hydroxylase
18. Hyperglycemic effect of glucocorticoids is
due to (B) Dehydrogenasehydroxylaseisomerase
(C) Hydroxylaselyasedehydrogenase isomerase
(A) Inactivation of protein phosphatase
(D) Isomeraselyasehydroxylasedehydro-
(B) Inactivation of fructose 1,6-biphosphatase genase
(C) Stimulation of synthesis of pyruvate carboxylase
27. The defect in adrenal cortex responsible
(D) Stimulation of synthesis of eltroxykinase
for lack of glucocorticoids and mineralcor-
19. The predominant glucocorticoid is ticoids is
(A) Cortisol (A) Androstenedione deficiency
(B) Aldosterone (B) 17 -OH progesterone deficiency
(C) Dehydroephiandrosterone (C) C-21 hydroxylase deficiency
(D) Androstenedione (D) Testosterone deficiency
HORMONE METABOLISM 209

-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase and


28. 3- 36. Catecholamine hormones are
5,4 isomerase catalyse the conversion of
(A) 3, 4-Dihydroxy derivatives of phenylethylamine
the weak androgen DHEA to
(B) p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenylacetate
(A) Androstenedione (B) Testosterone
(C) p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenylpyruvate
(C) Progesterone (D) Estrone
(D) p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenyllactate
29. In the resting state plasma concentration
of cortisol is 37. The sequential steps in the conversion of
tyrosine to epinephrine are
(A) 0.42.0 g/100 ml
(B) 2.04.0 g/100 ml (A) Ring hydroxylation-decarboxylation-side chain
(C) 5.015.0 g/100 ml hydroxylation-N-methylation
(D) 18.025.0 g/100 ml (B) Side chain hydroxylation-decarboxylation-ring
hydroxylation N-methylation
30. The most important effect of aldosterone
is to (C) Decarboxylation-ring hydroxylation-side chain
hydroxylation-N-methylation
(A) Increase the rate of tubular reabsorption of
sodium (D) N-methylation-decarboxylation-ring and side
chain hydroxylation
(B) Decrease the rate of tubular reabsorption of
potassium 38. The hormone required for uterine muscle
(C) Decrease the reabsorption of chloride contraction for child birth is
(D) Decrease the renal reabsorption of sodium (A) Progesterone (B) Estrogen
31. One of the potent stimulators of (C) Oxytocin (D) Vasopressin
aldosterone secretion is
39. The number of amino acids in the hormone
(A) Increased sodium concentration
oxytocin is
(B) Decreased potassium concentration
(C) Increased potassium concentration (A) 7 (B) 9
(D) Increased ECF volume (C) 14 (D) 18

32. In the rennin-angiotensin system the 40. Vasopressin and oxytocin circulate un-
primary hormone is bound to proteins and have very short
(A) Angiotensinogen (B) Angiotensin I plasma half lives, on the order of
(C) Angiotensin II (D) Angiotensin III (A) 12 minutes (B) 24 minutes
(C) 58 minutes (D) 1012 minutes
33. Aldosterone release is stimulated by
(A) 2-Globulin (B) Renin 41. Melanogenesis is stimulated by
(C) Angiotensin II (D) Growth hormone (A) MSH (B) FSH
34. In the synthesis of Angiotensin I, rennin (C) LH (D) HCG
acts on Angiotensinogen and cleaves the
42. The number of amino acids in antidiuretic
(A) Leucine leucine at 10 and 11 position hormone is
(B) Valine tyrosine at 3 and 4 position
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) Isoleucine histidine at 5 and 6 position
(C) 27 (D) 36
(D) Proline histidine at 7 and 8 position
43. ADH
35. Catecholamine hormones are synthesized
in the (A) Reabsorbs water from renal tubules
(A) Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla (B) Excretes water from renal tubules
(B) Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex (C) Excretes hypotonic urine
(C) Zona fasciculate of adrenal cortex (D) Causes low specific gravity of urine
(D) Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex
210 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

44. Increased reabsorption of water from the 52. In the synthetic pathway of epinephrine,
kidney is the major consequence of the disulfiram (antabuse) inhibits the
secretion of the hormone? enzyme:
(A) Cortisol (B) Insulin (A) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(C) Vasopressin (D) Aldosterone (B) Dopamine -hydroxylase
45. An increase in the osmolality of extracel- (C) DOPA decarboxylase
lular compartment will (D) N-methyl transferase
(A) Inhibit ADH secretion 53. The biosynthesis of both Catecholamine
(B) Stimulate ADH secretion and serotonin require
(C) Cause no change in ADH secretion (A) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(D) Stimulate the volume and osmoreceptor and (B) N-methyl transferase
inhibit ADH secretion (C) Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
46. For Catecholamine biosynthesis the rate (D) Tryptophan pyrrolase
limiting enzyme is
54. Epinephrine stimulates glycogenolysis in
(A) DOPA decarboxylase
(A) Liver (B) Muscle
(B) DOPAMINE -hydroxylase
(C) Liver and muscle (D) Kidney
(C) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 55. A cup of strong coffee would be expected
to
47. A hormone which cannot cross the blood
(A) Interfere with the synthesis of prostaglandins
brain barrier is
(B) Decrease the effect of glucagon
(A) Epinephrine (B) Aldosterone
(C) Enhance the effect of epinephrine
(C) ACTH (D) TSH
(D) Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid
48. The plasma level of epinephrine is less
56. Epinephrine is derived from norepineph-
than
rine by
(A) 0.1 ng/ml (B) 0.2 ng/ml
(A) Decarboxylation (B) Hydroxylation
(C) 0.4 ng/ml (D) 0.8 ng/ml
(C) Oxidation (D) N-methylation
49. Epinephrine is rapidly metabolized by
57. 5 HIAA test is negative if patient is taking
(A) Monoamine oxidase
(A) Aspirin (B) Colchicine
(B) Deaminase
(C) Phenothiazone (D) Methotrexate
(C) Transminase
(D) Decarboxylase 58. Presence of significant amount of 5-HIAA
in urine indicates
50. Pheochromocytomas are tumours of
(A) Carcinoid in liver
(A) Adrenal cortex (B) Adrenal medulla
(B) Carcinoid in appendix
(C) Pancreas (D) Bone
(C) Metastasis of carcinoma of liver
51. A characteristic of pheochromocytoma is (D) Hepatoma
elevated urinary excretion of
59. The normal serum level of triiodothyro-
(A) Dopamine nine (T3) is
(B) Tyrosine
(A) 0.20.5 ng/ml (B) 0.72.0 ng/ml
(C) Vinylmandelic acid
(C) 2.04.0 ng/ml (D) 5.08.0 ng/ml
(D) Phenylalanine
HORMONE METABOLISM 211

60. The normal serum level of thyroxine (T4) 69. TSH stimulates the synthesis delete
is (A) Thyroxine (B) Adrenocorticoids
(A) 2.04.0 g/100 ml (C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin
(B) 5.513.5 g/100 ml
70. Thyroid hormones are synthesized by the
(C) 14.020.3 g/100 ml
iodination of the amino acid:
(D) 20.025.0 g/100 ml
(A) Glycine (B) Phenylalanine
61. Excess secretion of thyroid hormones
(C) Alanine (D) Tyrosine
causes
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Myxoedema 71. The tyrosine residues per molecule of
(C) Cretinism (D) Cushing syndrome thyroglobulin is
(A) 85 (B) 95
62. Insufficient free T3 and T4 results in
(C) 115 (D) 135
(A) Graves disease (B) Mysoedema
(C) Cushing syndrome (D) Gigantism 72. The percentage of inactive precursors
(monoidotyrosine and diiodotyrosine) in
63. In primary hypothyroidism the useful thyroglobulin is
estimation is of
(A) 30 (B) 40
(A) T 3 (B) T 4
(C) 50 (D) 70
(C) TBG (D) Autoantibodies
73. The number of amino acids in parathor-
64. When iodine supplies are sufficient the T3
mone is
and T4 ratio in thyroglobulin is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (A) 65 (B) 84
(C) 1 : 7 (D) 1 : 10 (C) 115 (D) 122

65. A substance which competes with iodide 74. The sequence of amino acid in which the
uptake mechanism by thyroid gland is biological value of parathormone is
(A) Thiocynate (B) Iodoacetate (A) 115 (B) 134
(C) Fluoride (D) Fluoroacetate (C) 3050 (D) 5084

66. Thyroperoxidase enzyme contains 75. PTH


(A) Heme (B) Copper (A) Reduces the renal clearance or excretion of
(C) Zinc (D) Magnesium calcium
(B) Increases renal phosphate clearance
67. Thyroproxidase requires hydrogen
peroxide as oxidizing agent. The H2O2 is (C) Increases the renal clearance of calcium
produced by (D) Decreases the renal phosphate clearance
(A) FADH2 dependent enzyme 76. The number of amino acids in the peptide
(B) NADH dependent enzyme hormone calcitonin is
(C) NADP dependent enzyme
(A) 16 (B) 24
(D) NADPH dependent enzyme
(C) 32 (D) 40
68. Thyroid stimulating hormone is a dimer.
77. Calcitonin causes
The -subunits of TSH, LH, FSH are
identical. Thus the biological specificity (A) Calcinuria and phosphaturia
must therefore be subunit in which the (B) Decrease in urinary calcium
number of amino acids is
(C) Decrease in urinary phosphorous
(A) 78 (B) 112 (D) Increase in blood calcium level
(C) 130 (D) 199
212 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

78. The characteristic of hyperparathyroidism 86. In the B chain of insulin molecule, the N-
is terminal amino acid is
(A) Low serum calcium (A) Proline (B) Threonine
(B) High serum phosphorous (C) Phenylalanine (D) Lysine
(C) Low serum calcium and high serum phos-
phorous 87. In the B chain of insulin molecule, the
(D) High serum calcium and low serum C-terminal amino acid:
phosphate (A) Threonine (B) Tyrosine
79. Parathyroid hormone (C) Glutamate (D) Valine
(A) Is released when serum Ca++ is too high 88. In the insulin molecule, the number of
(B) Inactivates vitamin D interchain disulphide brides is
(C) Is secreted when Ca++ is too low (A) 1 (B) 2
(D) Depends on vitamin K for adequate activity (C) 3 (D) 4
80. -Cells of islet of langerhans of pancreas
89. In the insulin molecule, the number of
produce
intrachain disulphide bridges is
(A) Pancreatic polypeptide
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Pancreatic lipase
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Somatostatin
(D) Steapsin 90. Insulin exists in polymeric forms, for
polymerization it requires
81. -cells of islet of langerhans of the
pancreas secrete (A) Calcium (B) Magnesium
(A) Insulin (C) Manganese (D) Zinc
(B) Glucagon 91. The number of amino acids in pre-pro
(C) Somatostatin insulin is
(D) Pancreatic polypeptide
(A) 51 (B) 86
82. Target tissue of insulin is (C) 109 (D) 132
(A) Red blood cells
92. Proinsulin has
(B) Renal tubular cells
(A) 74 amino acids (B) 86 amino acids
(C) GI tract epithelial cells
(D) Liver (C) 105 amino acids (D) 109 amino acids

83. Insulin is a dimmer. The number of amino 93. Daily secretion of insulin in a normal adult
acids in the A and B chain respectively is man is about
(A) 19 and 28 (B) 21 and 30 (A) 10 units (B) 20 units
(C) 25 and 35 (D) 29 and 38 (C) 30 units (D) 50 units
84. In A chain of the insulin molecule the N- 94. The insulin content of pancreas is about
terminal amino acid is
(A) 5070 units (B) 100150 units
(A) Glycine (B) Valine
(C) 150180 units (D) 200250 units
(C) Serine (D) Phenylalanine
95. The half life of insulin is
85. In the A chain of insulin molecule the C-
terminal amino acid is (A) < 35 minutes (B) < 810 minutes
(A) Asparagine (B) Threonine (C) < 15 minutes (D) < 15 minutes
(C) Valine (D) Tyrosine
HORMONE METABOLISM 213

96. Insulin stimulates 103. Deficiency of insulin results in


(A) Hepatic glycogenolysis (A) Rapid uptake of sugar
(B) Hepatic glycogenesis (B) Low blood glucose level
(C) Lipolysis (C) Decrease urine output
(D) Gluconeogenesis (D) Presence of glucose in urine

97. Action of insulin on lipid metabolism is 104. The primary stimulus for insulin secretion
is increased.
(A) It increases lipolysis and increases triglyceride
synthesis (A) Blood level of epinephrine
(B) Blood level of glucagon
(B) It decreases lipolysis and increases trigly-
ceride synthesis (C) Blood level of glucose
(C) It decreases lipolysis and decreases trigly- (D) Water intake
ceride synthesis 105. The -cells of pancreas islets produce
(D) It increases synthesis of triglyceride and increa- (A) Insulin
sed ketogenesis
(B) Glucagon
98. Insulin increases the activity of (C) Somatostatin
(A) Pyruvate kinase (D) Pancreatic polypeptide
(B) Phosphorylase 106. The number of amino acids in single chain
(C) Triacylglycerol kinase polypeptide glucagons is
(D) Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphatase (A) 21 (B) 29
(C) 31 (D) 39
99. Insulin decreases the activity of
(A) cAMP dependent protein kinase 107. The half life of glucagons is
(B) HMG CoA-reductas (A) ~5 (B) ~7
(C) Phosphodiesterase (C) ~10 (D) ~12
(D) Acetyl CoA-carboxylase 108. Glucagon enhances
100. The human insulin gene located on the (A) Hepatic glycogenolysis
short arm of chromosome: (B) Muscle glycogenolysis
(A) 11 (B) 17 (C) Hepatic glycogenesis
(C) 18 (D) 20 (D) Lipogenesis

101. Normal serum insulin level varies 109. Normal serum glucagons level in fasting
between state varies between

(A) 425 U/ml (B) 2550 U/ml (A) 0-10 pg/ml (B) 20100 pg/ml
(C) 200300 pg/ml (D) 400500 pg/ml
(C) 7090 U/ml (D) 100120 U /ml
110. Glucagon
102. Following is a normal overnight fast and
a cup of black coffee, a diabetic woman (A) Increases protein synthesis
feels slightly nausious and decides to skip (B) Inhibits lipolysis in adipocytes
breakfast. However she does take her (C) Increases gluconeogenesis in liver
shot of insulin. This may result in (D) Stimulates muscle glycogenolysis
(A) Heightened glycogenolysis 111. Normal serum free testosterone in adult
(B) Hypoglycemia men varies between
(C) Increased lipolysis (A) 15 ng/dl (B) 69 ng/dl
(D) Glycosuria (C) 1030 ng/dl (D) 50100 ng/dl
214 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

112. Normal serum free testosterone in adult 121. Serum progesterone level during preg-
women varies between nancy is
(A) 0.00.2 ng/dl (B) 0.32 ng/dl (A) < 12 ng/ml (B) > 12 ng/ml
(C) 1030 ng/dl (D) 50100 ng/dl (C) < 20 ng/ml (D) >24 ng/ml
113. The prepubertal total serum testosterone 122. Serum progesterone level during luteal
is phase is
(A) <100 ng/100 ml (B) < 200 ng/100 ml (A) 0.2203 ng/ml (B) 3.05.0 ng/ml
(C) <300 ng/100 ml (D) < 400 ng/100 ml (C) 6.030 ng/ml (D) 750 ng/ml
114. The total serum testosterone in adult men 123. Androgens are produced by
is (A) Cells of sertoli
(A) 50100 ng/100 ml (B) Leydig cells
(B) 150250 ng/100 ml (C) Rete testis
(C) 3001000 ng/100 ml (D) Efferent ductules
(D) 10003000 ng/100 ml
124. The leyding cell activity is controlled by
115. The total serum testosterone in adult (A) Intestitial cell stimulating hormone
women is
(B) Adernocortex stimulating hormone
(A) 05 ng/100 ml (C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
(B) 1015 ng/100 ml (D) Melanocyte stimulating harmone
(C) 2080 ng/100 ml
125. Stein-leventhal syndrome is due to over-
(D) 100200 ng/100 ml
production of
116. The serum estradiol level in men is (A) Estrogens (B) Androgens
(A) 05 pg/ml (B) 510 pg/ml (C) Gastogens (D) Ethinyl estradiol
(C) 2468 pg/ml (D) 4060 pg/ml
126. The production of progesterone by corpus
117. The serum estradiol level in women during luteum cell is stimulated by
110 days of menstrual cycle is (A) LH (B) TSH
(A) 010 pg/ml (B) 1220 pg/ml (C) ACTH (D) MSH
(C) 2468 pg/ml (D) 80100 pg/ml
127. In the biosynthesis of testosterone the
118. The serum estradiol level in women during rate limiting step is conversion of
1120 days of menstrual cycle is (A) Cholesterol to pregnenolone
(A) 530 pg/ml (B) 50300 pg/ml (B) Pregnenolone to progesterone
(C) 500900 pg/ml (D) 1000 pg/ml (C) Progesterone to 17 -hydroxy progesterone
119. The serum estradiol level in women during (D) 17 -Hydroxy progesterone to androstene-
2130 days of menstrual cycle is dione

(A) 10-20 pg/ml (B) 22-66 pg/ml 128. The enzyme catalyzing conversion of an-
(C) 73-149 pg/ml (D) 1000 pg/ml drostenedione to testosterone is a
(A) Oxygenase (B) Dehydrogenase
120. The serum progesterone level in follicular
(C) Isomerase (D) Decarboxylase
phase is about
(A) 0.21.5 ng/100 ml 129. Conversion of testosterone to estradiol
(B) 2.02.5 ng/100 ml requires the enzyme:
(C) 3.54.5 ng/100 ml (A) Aromatase (B) Dehydrogenase
(D) 5.06.5 ng/100 ml (C) Lyase (D) Isomerase
HORMONE METABOLISM 215

130. The precursor of testosterone is 138. The only correct statement about hormone
(A) Aldosterone (B) Methyl testosterone receptors is
(C) Estrone (D) Pregnenolone (A) Receptors for protein hormones are present
in cytosol
131. Urinary 17 ketosteroids
(B) Receptors for steroid hormones are membrane
(A) Are not found in women
bound
(B) Reflect the total production of androgenic
(C) Hormone-receptor binding is irreversible
substances
(C) Indicate the total production of sex hormone (D) Receptors can undergo down regulation and
up regulatoin
(D) Are highly active androgens
139. Down regulation is
132. The hormone measured in urine to test
pregnancy is (A) Increased destruction of a hormone
(A) Anterior pituitary luteinizing hormone (B) Feed back inhibition of hormone secretion
(B) Androgen (C) Decreased concentration of a hormone in
(C) Progesterone blood
(D) Choroinic gonadotropin (D) Decrease in number of receptors for a
hormone
133. Total number of amino acids in human
chorionic gonadotropin is 140. All the following statements about
(A) 53 (B) 92 hormones are true except
(C) 145 (D) 237 (A) All of them require specific carriers in plasma
134. A hormone produced by corpus luteum (B) All of them require specific receptors in target
and placenta, concerned with relaxation cells
of pelvis tissue is (C) Some of them are subject to feedback
(A) HCG regulation
(B) Chorionic somatommotropin (D) Some of them increase the transcription of
(C) Relaxin certain genes
(D) Progestins 141. All the following statements about steroid
135. Synthetic progesterone used in oral hormones are true except
contraceptive is (A) They are hydrophobic
(A) Norethindrone (B) Pregnenolone (B) They require carriers to transport them in
(C) Androstenodione (D) Stilbestrol circulation

136. Young women are protected against (C) Their receptors are intracellular
myocardial infaracation because of the (D) They require cyclic AMP as second messenger
activity of
142. Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger
(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone for
(C) Growth hormone (D) Oxytocin
(A) ADH (B) Glucagon
137. Hormone receptors possess all the (C) Calcitonin (D) All of these
following properties except
143. Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger
(A) All of them are proteins
for all of the following except
(B) They possess a recognition domain
(C) They bind hormones with a high degree of (A) Oxytocin (B) TSH
specificity (C) ACTH (D) FSH
(D) Number of receptors in a target cell is constant
216 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

144. Cyclic GMP acts as the second messenger 153. Tyrosine kinase activity is present in
for (A) -Adrenergic receptors
(A) Nerve growth factor (B) -Adrenergic receptors
(B) Atrial natriuretic factor (C) Cholinergic receptors
(C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin receptors
(D) Norepinephrine 154. Insulin receptor is a
145. Some hormones produce their intra- (A) Monomer (B) Dimer
cellular effects by activating (C) Trimer (D) Tetramer
(A) Phospholipae A1 (B) Phospholipase B 155. Tyrosine kinase activity is present in
(C) Phospholipase C (D) All of these (A) Acetylcholine receptor
146. Inositol triphosphate is the second (B) PDGF receptor
messenger for (C) ADH receptor
(A) Gastrin (B) Cholecystokinin (D) All of these
(C) Oxytocin (D) All of these 156. Protein kinase C is activated by
147. G-proteins act as (A) Cyclic AMP (B) Cyclic GMP
(C) Diacyl glycerol (D) Inositol triphosphate
(A) Hormone carriers
(B) Hormone receptors 157. Melatonin is synthesised in
(C) Second messengers (A) Hypothalamus
(D) Signal transducers (B) Posterior pituitary gland
(C) Pineal gland
148. Signal transducer for glucagons is a
(D) Melanocytes
(A) Cyclic nucleotide
158. Melatonin is synthesised from
(B) Phosphoinositide
(A) Phenylalanine (B) Tyrosine
(C) Stimulatory G-protein
(C) Tryptophan (D) None of these
(D) Inhibitory G-protein
159. Melanocyte stimulating hormone is
149. G-proteins are secreted by
(A) Monomers (B) Dimers (A) Pineal gland
(C) Trimers (D) Tetramers (B) Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
150. G-proteins have a nucleotide binding site (C) Posterior lobe of pituitary gland
for (D) Intermediate lobe of pituitary gland
(A) ADP/ATP (B) GDP/GTP 160. MSH causes
(C) CDP/CTP (D) UDP/UTP (A) Dispersal of melanin granules in melanocytes
151. The nucleotide binding site of G-proteins (B) Increase in melanin concentration in melano-
cytes
is present on their
(C) Decerease in melanin concentration in melano-
(A) -Subunit (B) -Subunit - and - cytes
(C) -Subunit (D) -Subunit (D) Increase in number of melanocytes
152. Adenylate cyclase is activated by 161. Secretion of MSH is regulated by
(A) GDP-bearing -Subunit of G-protein (A) Feedback mechanism
(B) GTP-bearing -Subunit of G-protein (B) Melatonin
(C) GDP-bearing -Subunit of G-protein (C) Hypothalamic hormones
(D) GTP-bearing -Subunit of G-protein (D) ACTH
HORMONE METABOLISM 217

162. A hormone synthesised in the hypothal- 171. Secretion of somatotrophin is promoted


amus is by
(A) Melatonin (A) Somatomedin C
(B) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (B) Somatostatin
(C) Vasopressin (C) Growth hormone releasing hormone
(D) Prolactin (D) Hypoglycaemia

163. Posterior pituitary gland secretes 172. Human growth hormone has
(A) Catecholamines (A) One polypeptide chain and one intra-chain
disulphide bond
(B) Oxytocin
(B) One polypeptide chain and two intra-chain
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone
disulphide bond
(D) Serotonin (C) Two polypeptide chains joined by one
164. A nonapeptide among the following is disulphide bond
(D) Two polypeptide chains joined by two
(A) Antidiuretic hormone
disulphide bond
(B) Insulin
(C) ACTH 173. Number of amino acid residues in human
growth hormone is
(D) Thyrotropin releasing hormone
(A) 51 (B) 84
165. Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficient (C) 191 (D) 198
secretion of
174. Number of amino acid residues in
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
prolactin is
(C) Vasopressin (D) Oxytocin
(A) 51 (B) 84
166. Peripheral vasoconstriction is caused by (C) 191 (D) 198
high concentrations of
175. Secretion of prolactin is regulated by
(A) Antidiuretic hormone
(A) Feedback inhibition
(B) Melatonin
(B) Prolactin releasing hormone
(C) Glucagon
(C) Prolactin release inhibiting hormone
(D) Oxytocin
(D) All of these
167. Somatotropin is secreted by
176. Precursor of ACTH is
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Anterior pituitary
(A) Cholesterol (B) Pregnenolone
(C) Posterior pituitary (D) Thyroid gland
(C) Corticotropin (D) Pro-opiomelanocortin
168. Secretion of Insulin-like Growth Factor-I
177. All of the following can be formed from
is promoted by pro-opiomelanocortin except
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (A) -and -MSH (B) -and -Lipotropins
(C) Growth hormone (D) Somatomedin C (C) -and -Endorphins(D) FSH
169. Growth hormone increases 178. All the following statements about pro-
(A) Protein synthesis (B) Lipogenesis opiomelanocortin are true except
(C) Glycogenolysis (D) All of these (A) It is made up of 285 amino acids
(B) It is synthesised in pars intermedia and
170. Secretion of growth hormone is inhibited
anterior lobe of pituitary gland
by
(C) It is the precursor of ACTH and melatonin
(A) Somatomedin C (B) Somatostatin
(D) It is the precursor of corticotropin like
(C) Feedback inhibition(D) All of these intermediate lobe peptide and endorphins
218 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

179. All the following statements about ACTH 186. All the following statements about
are true except thyrotropin releasing hormone are true
(A) It is a tropic hormone except
(B) Its target cells are located in adrenal cortex (A) It is secreted by hypothalamus
(C) Its receptors are located in the cell membrane (B) It is a pentapeptide
(D) Its second messenger is inositol triphosphate (C) It increases the secretion of TSH
(D) Its secretion is inhibited by high level of T3
180. Regulation of ACTH secretion occurs
and T4 in blood
through
(A) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and 187. In males, luteinising hormone acts on
corticotropin release inhibiting hormone (CRIH) (A) Leydig cells (B) Sertoli cells
of hypothalamus (C) Prostate gland (D) All of these
(B) Feedback inhibition by cortisol
188. All the following statements about FSH
(C) CRH and feedback inhibition by cortisol
are true except
(D) CRIH and feedback inhibition by cortisol
(A) It is a tropic hormone secreted by anterior
181. ACTH is a polypeptide made up of pituitary
(A) 39 amino acids (B) 41 amino acids (B) Its secretion is increased by gonadotropin
(C) 51 amino acids (D) 84 amino acids releasing hormone
(C) It acts on Sertoli cells
182. CRH is a polypeptide made up of
(D) It increases the synthesis of testosterone
(A) 39 amino acids (B) 41 amino acids
(C) 51 amino acids (D) 84 amino acids 189. In males, secretion of luteinising hormone
is inhibited by
183. Hormonal activity of ACTH is completely
(A) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
lost on removal of
(B) FSH
(A) 5 C-terminal amino acids
(C) High blood level of testosterone
(B) 10 C-terminal amino acids
(D) Inhibin
(C) 15 C-terminal amino acids
(D) None of these 190. Secretion of luteinising hormone is in-
creased by
184. All the following statements about TSH
are true except (A) GnRH (B) FSH
(C) Testosterone (D) None of these
(A) It is a glycoprotein
(B) It is made up of - and -subunits 191. In structure and function, HCG resembles
(C) Receptor recognition involves both the subunits (A) FSH (B) LH
(D) Its subunit is identical with those of FSH and (C) GnRH (D) Progesterone
LH
192. Acromegaly results from overproduction
185. All the following statements about TSH of
are true except
(A) ACTH during childhood
(A) It is a tropic hormone
(B) TSH during adult life
(B) It acts on para-follicular cells of thyroid glands
(C) Growth hormone during childhood
(C) Its receptors are membrane-bound
(D) Growth hormone during adult life
(D) Its second messenger is cyclic AMP
HORMONE METABOLISM 219

193. Acromegaly results in all the following 202. Thyroid hormones are present in blood
except
(A) In free form
(A) Overgrowth of the bones of face, hands and (B) In association with thyroxine binding globulin
feet
(TBG)
(B) Increased stature
(C) In association with thyroxine binding pre-
(C) Enlargements of viscera
albumin (TBPA)
(D) Impaired glucose tolerance
(D) Mainly in association with TBG, partly in free
194. Overproduction of growth hormone form and sometimes in association with TBPA
during childhood causes also
(A) Acromegaly (B) Gigantism
203. When thyroxine binding globulin and
(C) Cushings disease (D) Simmonds disease thyroxine binding pre-albumin are sat-
195. Decreased secretion of growth hormone urated with thyroxine, the excess hor-
during childhood causes mone is transported by
(A) Simmonds disease (B) Cushings disease (A) Albumin (B) Gamma globulins
(C) Dwarfism (D) Cretinism (C) Transcortin (D) None of these
196. Stature is increased in 204. Receptors for thyroid hormones are present
(A) Gigantism (B) Acromegaly (A) On the cell membrane
(C) Simmonds disease(D) Cushings disease
(B) Across the cell membrane
197. An amino acid used for the synthesis of (C) Inside the cells
thyroid hormone is (D) In association with G-proteins
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
205. Binding of thyroxine to its receptors
(C) Histidine (D) Proline
(A) Activates Adenylate cyclase
198. An enzyme required for the synthesis of
thyroid hormones is (B) Activates guanylate cyclase
(C) Activates a stimulatory G-protein
(A) Iodinase (B) Deiodinase
(C) Thyroperoxidase (D) Thyroxine synthetase (D) Increases transcription

199. Thyroperoxidase iodinates 206. The most powerful thyroid hormone is

(A) Free tyrosine in thyroid gland (A) Reverse T3 (B) DIT


(B) Tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin (C) T 3 (D) T 4
(C) Tyrosine residues of thyroxine binding globulin 207. The most abundant thyroid hormone in
(D) Tyrosine residues of thyroxine binding blood is
prealbumin
(A) Free T3 (B) T3 bound to TBG
200. In thyroxine, tyrosine residues are iodi-
(C) Free T4 (D) T4 bound to TBG
nated at positions:
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 208. Secretion of thyroid hormones is regulated
(C) 3 and 5 (D) 4 and 6 by
(A) Hypothalamus
201. Thyroid gland takes up circulating iodine
(B) Anterior pituitary
(A) By simple diffusion
(C) Feedback regulation
(B) By facilitated diffusion
(C) By active uptake (D) All of these
(D) In exchange for chloride
220 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

209. Clinical features of hyperthyroidism 217. The second messenger for PTH is
include (A) Cyclic AMP (B) Cyclic GMP
(A) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and (C) Diacylglycerol (D) Inositol triphosphate
tachycardia
218. PTH causes all of the following except
(B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold
intolerance (A) Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
(C) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss (B) Increased intestinal absorption of phosphate
of appetite (C) Increased tubular reabsorption of calcium
(D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity (D) Increased tubular reabsorption of phosphate
210. All the following may occur in hyperthy- 219. Secretion of PTH is regulated by
roidism except
(A) Hypothalamus
(A) Goitre (B) Increased appetite
(B) Anterior pituitary
(C) Loss of weight (D) Low BMR
(C) Feedback effect of plasma PTH
211. All the following may occur in myxoede- (D) Feedback effect of plasma calcium
ma except
220. A high concentration of PTH in blood
(A) Cold intolerance (B) Low BMR
causes
(C) Tachycardia (D) Dry and coarse skin
(A) Increase in plasma calcium and inorganic
212. Mental retardation can occur in phosphorous
(A) Cretinism (B) Decrease in plasma calcium and inorganic
(B) Juvenile myxoedema phosphorous
(C) Myxoedema (C) Increase in plasma calcium and decrease in
(D) Juvenile thyrotoxicosis plasma inorganic phosphorous
(D) Decrease in plasma calcium and increase in
213. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is synthesised
plasma inorganic phosphorous
in
(A) Chief cells of parathyroid glands 221. Tetany can occur
(B) Oxyphil cells of parathyroid glands (A) In primary hyperparathyroidism
(C) Para follicular cells of thyroid glands (B) In secondary hyperparathyroidism
(D) Follicular cells of thyroid gland (C) In idiopathic hypoparathyroidism
214. The number of amino acid residues in PTH: (D) After accidental removal of parathyroid glands

(A) 51 (B) 84 222. Crystallisation of insulin occurs in the


(C) 90 (D) 115 presence of

215. Amino acid residues which are essential (A) Chromium (B) Copper
for the biological activity of PTH are (C) Zinc (D) Calcium
(A) N-terminal 34 amino acids 223. Daily secretion of insulin is about
(B) N-terminal 50 amino acids (A) 1020 mg (B) 4050 mg
(C) C-terminal 34 amino acids (C) 1020 units (D) 4050 units
(D) C-terminal 50 amino acids
224. Insulin receptors are decreased in number
216. Half-life of PTH is in
(A) A few seconds (B) A few minutes (A) Obesity (B) Starvation
(C) A few hours (D) A few days (C) Hyperinsulinism (D) Kwashiorkor
HORMONE METABOLISM 221

225. Insulin binding sites are present on the 234. Insulin increases
(A) -subunits of insulin receptor (A) Protein synthesis (B) Fatty acid synthesis
(B) -subunits of insulin receptor (C) Glycogen synthesis (D) All of these
(C) -subunits of insulin receptor
235. Insulin decreases the synthesis of
(D) -and subunits of insulin receptor
(A) Hexokinase (B) Glucokinase
226. -Subunits of insulin receptor are present (C) PEP carboxykinase (D) Glycogen synthetase
(A) Outside the cell membrane
236. Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of
(B) In the cell membrane the following except
(C) Across the cell membrane
(A) Deficient insulin secretion
(D) In the cytosol
(B) Tumour of cells
227. -Subunits of insulin receptor are present (C) Decrease in number of insulin receptors
(A) Outside the cell membrane (D) Formation of insulin antibodies
(B) In the cell membrane 237. Hypoglycaemic coma can occur
(C) Across the cell membrane
(A) In untreated diabetes mellitus
(D) In the cytosol
(B) In starvation
228. In the insulin receptor, tyrosine kinase (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs
domain is present in (D) After overdose of insulin
(A) -Subunits (B) -Subunits
238. Second messenger for glucagons is
(C) -Subunits (D) -Subunits
(A) Cyclic AMP (B) Diacylglycerol
229. Binding of insulin to its receptor activates (C) Cyclic GMP (D) Inositol triphosphate
(A) Adenylate cyclase (B) Guanylate cyclase
239. Number of amino acid residues in
(C) Phospholipase C (D) Tyrosine kinase
glucagons is
230. Insulin receptor is made up of (A) 29 (B) 34
(A) One -and one -subunit (C) 51 (D) 84
(B) Two -and two -subunit
240. Glucagon secretion increases
(C) Two, two -and two -subunit
(A) After a carbohydrate-rich meal
(D) One , one -one -and one -subunit
(B) After a fat-rich meal
231. Insulin is required for the active uptake (C) When blood glucose is high
of glucose by most of the cells except
(D) When blood glucose is low
(A) Muscle cells (B) Renal tubular cells
241. The maineffecting of glucagons is to
(C) Adipocytes (D) Liver cells
increase
232. Insulin decreases (A) Glycolysis in muscles
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Glycogenolysis in muscles
(B) Glyolysis (C) Glycogenolysis in liver
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Glycogenesis in liver
(D) Tubular reabsorption of glucose
242. Tyrosine is required for the synthesis of
233. Insulin increases all of the following except
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Gluconeogenesis (A) Melatonin (B) Epinephrine
(C) Lipolysis (D) Blood glucose (C) Norepinephrine (D) Thyroxine
222 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

243. Dopamine is synthesised from 251. Binding of catecholamines to 2


adrenergic receptors
(A) Dihydroxyphenylalanine
(B) Epinephrine (A) Increases the intracellular concentration of
cAMP
(C) Norepinephrine
(B) Increases the intracellular concentration of
(D) Metanephrine cGMP
244. Blood brain barrier can be crossed by (C) Decreases the intracellular concentration of
cAMP
(A) Epinephrine (B) Dopamine
(D) Decreases the intracellular concentration of
(C) Dopa (D) All of these cGMP
245. Epinephrine is synthesised in 252. Phosphoinositide cascade is activated on
(A) Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla binding of catecholamines to
(B) Sympathetic ganglia (A) 1-Adrenergic receptors
(C) Brain (B) 2-Adrenergic receptors
(D) All of these (C) 1-Adrenergic receptors
(D) 2-Adrenergic receptors
246. Immediate precursor of epinephrine is
253. Epinephrine decreases
(A) Metanephrine (B) Norepinephrine
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Dopa (D) Dopamine
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Lipolysis
247. The chief metabolite of catecholamines is
254. Epinephrine increases the concentration
(A) Metanephrine of free fatty acids in plasma by increasing
(B) Normetanephrine (A) Extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis
(C) 3, 4-Dihydroxymandelic acid (B) Mitochondrial fatty acid chain elongation
(D) Vanillylmandelic acid (C) Microsomal fatty acid chain elongation
(D) Lipolysis in adipose tissue
248. An enzyme involved in catabolism of
catecholamines is 255. Epinephrine increases all of the following
(A) Dopa decarboxylase except
(B) Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase (A) Glycogenolysis in muscles
(C) Monoamine oxidase (B) Lipolysis in adipose tissue
(C) Gluconeogenesis in muscles
(D) Catechol oxidas
(D) Glucagon secretion
249. Norepinephrine binds mainly to
256. Secretion of catecholamines is increased
(A) -Adrenergic receptors in
(B) -Adrenergic receptrors (A) Cushings syndrome
(C) Muscarinic receptors (B) Addisons disease
(D) Nicotinic receptors (C) Phaeochromocytoma
250. Astimulatory G-protein transduces the (D) Simmonds disease
signals from 257. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex syn-
(A) 1-and 1-adrenergic receptors thesises
(B) 2-and 2-adrenergic receptors (A) Glucocorticoids
(C) 1-and 2-adrenergic receptors (B) Mineralocorticoids
(D) 1-and 2-adrenergic receptors (C) Androgens
(D) Estrogen and progesterone
HORMONE METABOLISM 223

258. Cortisol is a 267. The second messenger for glucocorticoids


(A) Glucocorticoid (B) Mineralocorticoid is
(C) Androgen (D) Estrogen (A) Cyclic AMP
259. The major mineralcorticoid is (B) Cyclic GMP
(A) Hydrocortisone (B) Aldosterone (C) Inositol triphosphate
(C) Aldactone A (D) Androstenedione (D) No second messenger is required

260. Steroid hormones are synthesised in all 268. Glucocorticoids increase all of the follow-
of the following except ing except
(A) Testes (B) Ovaries (A) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Adrenal medulla (D) Adrenal cortex (B) Lipolysis in extremities
261. Steroid hormones are synthesised from (C) Synthesis of elcosanoida
(A) Cholesterol (D) Hepatic glycogenesis
(B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol 269. Glucocorticoids increase the synthesis of
(C) Calcitriol all of the following except
(D) 7-Hydroxycholesterol
(A) Glucokinase
262. A common intermediate in the synthesis (B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
of all the steroid hormones is (C) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
(A) Pregnenolone (D) Pyruvate carboxylase
(B) 17-Hydroxypregnenolone
(C) Corticosterone 270. Secretion of glucocorticoida is regulated
(D) Progesterone by all the following except
(A) Hypothalamus
263. A common intermediate in the synthesis
of cortisol and aldosterone is (B) Anterior pituitary
(A) Progesterone (B) Testosterone (C) Feedback control by blood glucose
(C) Estradiol (D) None of these (D) Feedback control by glucocorticoids

264. A common intermediate in the synthesis 271. Excessive secretion of glucocorticoids rais-
of estrogens is es blood glucose by
(A) Cortisol (A) Decreasing glycogenesis
(B) Andostenedione (B) Increasing glycogenolysis
(C) Corticosterone (C) Increasing gluconeogenesis
(D) 11-Deoxycorticosterone (D) Inhibiting HMP shunt
265. Glucocorticoids are transported in blood
272. Mineralcorticoids regulate the metabo-
(A) In association with transcortin chiefly lism of all of the following except
(B) In association with albumin to some extent
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium
(C) In free form partly
(C) Calcium (D) Chloride
(D) All of these
273. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular
266. All the following statements about trans-
cortin are true except reabsorption of

(A) It is synthesised in liver (A) Sodium and calcium


(B) It transports glucocorticoids (B) Sodium and potassium
(C) It transports aldosterone (C) Sodium and chloride
(D) It transports progesterone (D) Potassium and chloride
224 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

274. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular 283. Secretion of androgens is increased by


secretion of (A) LH (B) FSH
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) ACTH (D) Growth hormone
(C) Chloride (D) Bicarbonate
284. During late pregnancy, the major source
275. Secretion of mineralcorticoids is increased of progesterone is
by
(A) Adrenal cortex (B) Placenta
(A) ACTH (B) Angiotensin (C) Corpus luteum (D) Graafian follicles
(C) Hypokalaemia (D) Hypernatraemia
285. Progesterone is transported in blood by
276. In Addisons disease, there is excessive
retention of (A) Transcortin
(B) Sex hormone binding globulin
(A) Potassium (B) Sodium
(C) Albumin
(C) Chloride (D) Water
(D) Testosterone estrogen binding globulin
277. In adrenogenital syndrome due to total
absence of 21-hydroxylase in adrenal 286. The major metabolite of progesterone is
cortex, there is (A) Pregnenolone (B) Pregnanediol
(A) Deficient secretion of glucocorticoids (C) Estradiol (D) Norethindrone
(B) Deficient secretion of mineralcorticoids
287. Secretion of progesterone
(C) Excessive secretion of androgens
(A) Is more in first half of menstrual cycle than in
(D) All of these
second half
278. Spironolactone is an antagonist of (B) Is more in second half of menstrual cycle than
(A) Cortisol (B) Hydrocortisone in first half
(C) Aldosterone (D) Testosterone (C) Remains constant during menstrual cycle
(D) Decreases during pregnancy
279. Androgens are synthesised in
(A) Leydig cells in testes 288. Women become susceptible to osteoporo-
sis after menopause due to decreased
(B) Sertoli cells in testes
(C) Seminiferous tubules (A) Secretion of Parathormone
(D) Prostate gland (B) Conversion of vitamin D into calcitriol
(C) Secretion of estrogen
280. Testosterone is transported in blood by
(D) Secretion of progesterone
(A) Transcortin
(B) Testosterone binding globulin 289. A hormone used for detection of pregnan-
cy is
(C) Testosterone estrogen binding globulin
(D) Albumin (A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
281. The metabolites of androgens are
(C) Oxytocin
(A) 17-Hydroxysteroids (D) Chorionic gonadotropin
(B) 17-Ketosteroids
290. Placenta secretes all of the following
(C) 11-Hydroxysteroids
except
(D) 11-Ketosteroids
(A) FSH
282. An androgen which is more powerful (B) Progesterone
than testosterone is
(C) Estrogen
(A) Androstenedione (B) Dihydrotestosterone
(D) Chorionic gonadotropin
(C) Androsterone (D) Epiandrosterone
HORMONE METABOLISM 225

291. Gastrin is a polypeptide made up of 299. Tyrosine hydroxylase is inhibited by


(A) Five amino acids (A) Catecholamines (B) Methyldopa
(B) Twelve amino acids (C) Phenylalanine (D) Vanillyl mandelic acid
(C) Seventeen amino acids
300. Urinary excretion of vanillyl madelic acid
(D) Twenty amino acids
is increased in
292. Biological activity of gastrin is present in (A) Phaeochromocytoma
the
(B) Cushings syndrome
(A) Four N-terminal amino acids (C) Carcinoid syndrome
(B) Four C-terminal amino acids
(D) Aldosteronism
(C) Five N-terminal amino acids
(D) Five C-terminal amino acids 301. Iodide uptake by thyroid gland is de-
creased by
293. All the following statements about -
(A) Thicyanate (B) Thiouracil
endorphin are true except :
(C) Thiourea (D) Methimazole
(A) It is a polypeptide
(B) Its precursor is pro-opio-melanocortin 302. Binding of growth hormone to its
receptor results in phosphorylation of
(C) Its receptors are represent in brain
(D) Its action is blocked by morphine (A) JAK-2
(B) Growth hormone receptor
294. All the following statements about
epidermal growth factor are true except (C) STATs
(D) All of these
(A) It is a protein
(B) It possess quaternary structure 303. Binding of growth hormone to its
(C) Its receptor is made up of a single polypep- receptor results in increased transcription
tide chain of
(D) Its receptor possesses tyrosine kinase domain (A) c-fos gene (B) c-myc gene
295. Met-enkephalin is a (C) p-53 gene (D) None of these
(A) Tripeptide (B) Pentapeptide 304. Activation of IRS-1, PI-3 kinase and GRB-
(C) Octapeptide (D) Decapeptide 2 is brought about by

296. Vasoconstrictor effect of ADH is mediated (A) Glucagon (B) Insulin


by (C) Prolactin (D) IGF-2
(A) cAMP (B) cGMP 305. The protein IRS-1 is phosphorylated by
(C) Protein kinase C (D) Angiotensin II
(A) Protein kinase A
297. The rate limiting step in catecholamine (B) Protein kinase C
synthesis is catalysed by (C) Tyrosine kinase activity of insulin receptor
(A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (D) Tyrosine kinase activity of IGF-1 receptor
(B) Tyrosine hydroxylase
306. Phosphorylated IRS-1 activates GRB-2
(C) Dopa decarboxylase which is
(D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase
(A) G-protein receptor binding protein-2
298. Dopa decarboxylase is inhibited by (B) Growth factor receptor binding protein-2
(A) Epinephrine (B) Norepinephrine (C) Growth hormone receptor binding protein-2
(C) Methyldopa (D) None of these (D) Glucocorticoid receptor binding protein-2
226 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

307. STAT proteins are 315. Normal range of total thyroxine in serum
(A) Thermostat proteins of brain is
(B) Glucostat proteins of hepatocyte cell (A) 0.82.4 ng/dl (B) 0.82.4 g/dl
membrane (C) 512 ng/dl (D) 512 g/dl
(C) Short term activators of translation
(D) Signal transduction and activators of 316. Normal range of total tri-iodothyronine
transcription in serum is
(A) 0.10.2 ng/dl (B) 0.10.2 g/dl
308. Activated phospholipase C acts on
(C) 0.82.4 ng/dl (D) 0.82.4 g/dl
(A) Phosphatidyl inositol-4, 5-biphosphate
(B) Inositol-1, 4, 5-triphosphate 317. Administration of TSH increases serum T3
(C) Protein kinase C and T4 in
(D) Pl-3 kinase (A) Hyperthyroidism of pituitary origin
(B) Hyperthyroidism of thyroid origin
309. Phospholipase C is activated by
(C) Hypothyroidism of pituitary origin
(A) Gs proteins (B) Gi proteins
(D) Hypothyroidism of thyroid origin
(C) Gq proteins (D) G12 proteins
318. High level of T3 and T4 and low TSH in
310. Proteoglycans are made up of proteins serum indicates
and
(A) Hyperthyroidism of pituitary origin
(A) Glucosamine (B) Mannosamine
(B) Hypothyroidism of pituitary origin
(C) Sialic acid (D) Mucopolysaccharides
(C) Hyperthyroidism of thyroid origin
311 Sweat chlorides are increased in (D) Hypothyroidism of thyroid origin
(A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Pancreatic cancer 319. BMR is increased in
(C) Acute pancreatitis (D) None of these
(A) Endemic goitre (B) Thyrotoxicosis
312. All the following statements about cystic (C) Myxoedema (D) Cretinism
fibrosis are correct except
320. Which one of the following statements
(A) It is inherited as an autosomal recessive correctly describes eukaryotic DNA?
disease
(A) If uses DNA polymerase with nuclease
(B) It affects a number of exocrine glands
activities
(C) It causes increased sweating
(B) It is replicated bidirectionally at many points
(D) Sweat chlorides are above 60 mEq/L in this
(C) It contains no repetitive DNA
disease
(D) It is nonlinear
313. Radioactive iodine uptake by thyroid
321. Which one of the following causes frame
gland 24 hours of a test dose is
shift mutation?
(A) 1.515% of the test done
(A) Transition
(B) 1520% of the test done
(B) Transversion
(C) 2040% of the test done
(C) Deletion
(D) 5070% of the test done
(D) Substitution of purine to pyrimidine
314. Radioactive iodine uptake by thyroid 322. The second messenger for many hor-
gland is increased in mones is
(A) Endemic goitre (B) Hyperthyroidism (A) ATP (B) cyclic AMP
(C) Myxoedema (D) Creatinism (C) cGMP (D) UTP
HORMONE METABOLISM 227

323. The most potent hormone concerned with 331. In hyperparathyroidism there is
the retention of sodium in the body is (A) Hypocalcemia (B) Hypophophatemia
(A) Cortisone (B) Aldosterone (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyperkalemia
(C) Corticosterone (D) Cortisol
332. Insulin resistance is encountered in
324. Aspirin blocks the synthesis of (A) Addisons disease (B) Hypothyroidism
(A) Prostaglandins only (C) Hypopituctarism (D) Acromegaly
(B) Prostacyclins only
333. Richest source of prostaglandins in a
(C) Thromboxanes only human male is
(D) All of these
(A) Blood (B) Urine
325. Retention of sodium in the body leads to (C) Semen (D) C.S.F.
a retention of
334. One of the following is not used as a
(A) Potassium second messenger by hormones:
(B) Water (A) mRNA
(C) Potassium and water (B) cAMP
(D) Neither potassium nor water (C) Calcium ions
326. cAMP is so called because it is formed (D) Myoinisotol 1, 4, 5 triphosphate
during
335. This pancreatic hormone increases the
(A) TCA cycle blood-sugar level:
(B) Urea cycle (A) Insulin
(C) Rhodopsin cycle (B) Glucagon
(D) It has a cyclic structure (C) Pancreozymin
327. Protein bound iodine is _________ bound (D) Pancreatic polypeptide
to protein. 336. Which one of the following statements is
(A) Iodine (B) Thyroid hormones fully correct?
(C) Thyroxine (D) Tri iodo thyronine (A) Hormones are needed in the diet
328. In hypophysectonized animals, fasting (B) Hormones can be elaborated only by
produces endocrine glands
(C) All the hormones enter the cells and perform
(A) Severe hyperglycemia
their function
(B) Hypoglycemia
(D) Hormones are substance synthesized in the
(C) No change in blood sugar body in small quantities and control and
(D) Mild hyper glycemia regulate metabolic events
329. Calcitomica is antagonist to 337. T3 is
(A) Serotonin (A) Thyroxine
(B) Thyroxine (B) Triodo thyronine
(C) Tri iodo thyronine (C) Triodo tyrosine
(D) Para thyroid hormone (D) Reverse tri iodo thyronine
330. There is polyuria without glycosuria in 338. Whcih of the following hormone is a
this disorder peptide of less than ten amino acids?
(A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Diabetes millitus (A) Insulin (B) Growth hormone
(C) Bronze diabetes (D) Juvenile diabetes (C) Oxytocin (D) Parathyroid hormone
228 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

339. Tyrosine of thyroglobulin is acted upon 347. The blood sugar raising action of the
by ________ to give mono and diiodo hormone of suprarenal cortex is due to
tyrosines. (A) Glyconeogenesis
(A) Potassium Iodide (B) Glycogenolysis
(B) Iodine (C) Glucagon like activity
(C) Iodide I (D) due to inhibition of glomerular filtration of
(D) Higher valency state of iodine (I+) glucose
348. Hyper insulinism can cause coma since
340. Whcih of the following hormone does not
activate adenylate cyclase? (A) The chief nutrient for the brain is glucose
(A) Epinephrine (B) The chief nutrient for the heart is glucose
(C) The glucostatic role of the liver is damaged
(B) Glucagon
(D) The kidneys are damaged
(C) Parathyroid hormone
(D) Insulin 349. Which of the following property of
prostaglandins has been utilized by
341. Pheochromacytoma is a tumor of chinicians in hospital for
(A) adrenal medulla (A) Inducing fever
(B) bone (B) Causing inflammation
(C) head of Pancreas (C) Effecting smooth muscle contraction
(D) pituitary (D) Disaggregation of spermatozoa

342. Which one of the following statements is 350. A major structural difference between
incorrect? estrogens and androgens is the fact that
(A) Insulin increases glucose phosphorylation (A) The androgens are usually C21 steroids
(B) Insulin increases glycolysis (B) The estrogens are usually digitonin -
precipitable
(C) Insulin augments HMP shunt
(C) The androgens have an aromatic ring
(D) Insulin promotes gluconeogenesis
(D) The estrogens have an aromatic ring
343. Which of one ring in the structure of the
351. Alloxan can experimentally induce
following is aromatic?
diabetes mellitus due to
(A) Androgens (B) Estrogens
(A) Stimulation of cells of the islets of langerhans
(C) Cholesterol (D) Bile acids
(B) Necrosis of the cells of the islets
344. Which of one of the following is not GUT
hormone? (C) Potentiation of insulinase activity
(A) Motiline (B) Secretion (D) Epinephrine like action
(C) Gastrin (D) Calcitonin 352. Which of the following alleviates asthma?
345. Which of the following hormones are (A) PGE1 only (B) PGE1 and PGE2
synthesized as prehormones (C) PGF2 (D) PGA
(A) Vasopressin and oxytocin
353. Thyroxine is derived from
(B) Growth hormone and insulin
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tyranine
(C) Insulin and parathyroid hormone
(C) Taurine (D) Tryptaine
(D) Insulin and Glucagon
354. Adrneal cortical response is poor in
346. This hormone has disulphide group:
(A) Glucagon (B) Insulin (A) Kwashiorkor (B) Marasmus
(C) T 4 (D) Epinephrine (C) Fatty liver (D) Atherosclerosis
HORMONE METABOLISM 229

355. Protein bound iodine in blood is present 364. Which of one of the following is released
to the extent of _______ / dL by hypothalamus?
(A) 38 mg (B) 48 mg (A) Somatostatin
(C) 38 gm (D) 48 gm (B) Somatotropic hormone
356. Prostaglandins are (C) Somato medin C
(A) C2 unsaturated acids (D) Luteinising hormone
(B) C27 saturated alcohols 365. Which one of the following is not liberated
(C) C20 saturated acids by the adenohypophysis?
(D) C27 saturated alcohols (A) Growth hormone (B) TSH
357. Which of tne of the following scientists (C) ACTH (D) Gonadotropin
has not worked in the field of pros-
366. Which of the following hormone is not
taglandins?
under the control of ACTH?
(A) Voneuler (B) Sultan Karim
(A) Aldosterone (B) Cortisol
(C) Andre robet (D) Kendal
(C) Corticosterone (D) Deoxycorticosterone
358. The suffix number in the names of
prostaglandins gives the number of 367. Which of the following organ prefers
fructose to glucose
(A) OH groups (B) Double bonds
(C) Acid groups (D) Ketoacids (A) Liver (B) Testes
(C) Pancreas (D) Heart
359. One of the important functions of
prostacyclins is 368. Total synthesis of creatine can be done by
(A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (A) Liver (B) Kidneys
(B) Contraction of uterus (C) Pancreas (D) Heart
(C) Decrease of gastric secretion
369. Thyrotropin releasing hormone is a
(D) Relieving osthma
(A) Dipeptide (B) Tripeptide
360. Vasopressin is also known as (C) Octapeptide (D) Decapeptide
(A) Antidiabetogenic hormone
370. Hypthalamo _________ gonadal oxis, fill
(B) Antidiuretic hormone up the blank with the suitable word.
(C) Somatotropic hormone
(A) Adrenal (B) Thyroid
(D) Pitoxin
(C) Hypophyseal (D) Pancreatic
361. Which of the following is used for inducing
371. The sequence of amino acids in human
labour?
growth hormone and the synthesis were
(A) Prostaglandins (B) Prostacyclins done by
(C) Vasopressin (D) Thromboxanes (A) Sanger (B) Krebs
362. Which of the following does not have (C) Chah Holi (D) Molisch
disulphide bond?
372. Proopiomelanocortin is the precussor of
(A) Oxytocin (B) Vasopressin
(A) ACTH (B) -tropin
(C) Insulin (D) Glucagon
(C) Endorphins (D) All of these
363. Which is incorrect ? Epinephrin promotes
373. Adrenalin is synthesized from
the glycogenolysis in
(A) Adenine (B) Adenosine
(A) Muscle (B) Liver
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
(C) Heart (D) None of these
230 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

374. Corticotropin releasing hormone controls 382. Aldosteronism will present the chemical
the direct release of pathology of
(A) Pro-opiomelanocortin (A) Addisons (B) Cushings
(B) MSH (C) Graves (D) Hartnups
(C) MSH
383. One of the following does not bind T3 and
(D) Endorphins
T4:
375. The immediate parent of , and en-
(A) Albumin (B) TBG
dorphins is
(C) TBPA (D) Haptoglobin
(A) Pro-opiomelanocortin
(B) -lipotropin 384. Epinephrine causes in muscle:
(C) ATCH (A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Glycogenesis
(D) Lipoprotein (C) Glycolysis (D) Glycogenolysis
376. Prolactin release inhibiting hormone is 385. Reverse T3 is
believed to be
(A) A synthetic compound given counter the effects
(A) Serotonin (B) Norepinephrine of T3
(C) Dopanine (D) Acetyl choline (B) Formed from T4 but has no hormone function
377. Whcih one of the following is not a (C) Formed by isomerisation of T3
symptom of cushings disease? (D) Formed from T4 and has hormone function
(A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypernatremia
386. This pancreatic hormone promotes hypo-
(C) Hirsutism (D) Hyperkalemia
genesis:
378. Insulin increases the permeability of (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
glucose across the plasma membrane of
(C) Stomato station (D) Pancreozymine
muscle cells by
(A) Acting on adenylate cycle 387. It is unique that the following single
antidiabetogenic hormone effectively
(B) By loosening the integrity of the membrane
counter acts the several diabetogenic
(C) Through Ca2+ ions hormones:
(D) By membrane cruting the hexose carries of (A) Glucagon (B) Glucocorticoids
intracellular organelles and making them fuse (C) Insulin (D) Growth hormone
with the plasma membrane
388. Which of the following statements is
379. Somatostatin is produced by correct?
(A) Hypothalamus (A) Thyroxine inhibits utilization of glucose
(B) Pancreas (B) Insulin increases utilization of glucose
(C) Hypothalamus and pancreas (C) Glucagon promotes muscle glycogenolysis
(D) Hypothalamus and Adrenals (D) Insulin inhibits lipogenesis from carbohydrates

380. Insulin like growth hormones are pro- 389. Steroid hormones are synthesized from
duced by (A) Adenine (B) Protein
(A) Hypophysis (B) Liver (C) Vitamin (D) Cholesterol
(C) Pancreas (D) Thyroid 390. Hormones act only on specific organs or
tissues. These are called
381. In pheochromocytoma, urine will have
(A) Active sites (B) Reaction centre
(A) FILGU (B) VMA
(C) Target organ/Tissue(D) Physiological site
(C) 5 HIAA (D) Lysine and Arginine
HORMONE METABOLISM 231

391. __________ hormone is a single chain 398. Insulin regulates fatty acid synthesis by
polypeptide having 32 amino acids with (A) Dephosphorylating of acetyl CoA carboxy-
molecular weight of 3,600. lase
(A) Testosteron (B) Thyroxine (B) Activating phosphorylase
(C) Calcitonine (D) Vasopressin (C) Inhibiting malonyl CoA formation
(D) Controlling carnitine-Acyl CoA transferase
392. Which of the following is noted in activity
cushings syndrome, a tumor associated
399. Hormonal stimulation of the formation of
disease of the adrenal cortex?
the second messenger inositol 1,4,5
(A) Decreased production of epinephrine triphosphate (IP3) quickly leads to the
(B) Excessive production of epinephrine release of which other intracellular
messenger?
(C) Excessive production of vasopressin
(D) Excessive production of cortisol (A) cAMP (B) Prostaglandin
(C) Calcinon (D) Leukotriene
393. A cup of strong coffee would be expected
to 400. Hormone receptors that stimulate cAMP
production
(A) Interfere with synthesis of prostaglandins
(A) are part of a complex of two proteins that
(B) Decrease the effects of Glucagon transform the external signal into internal
(C) Enhance the effects of epinephrine cAMP production
(D) Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid (B) are proteins distinct and separate from those
that catalyze the production of cAMP
394. Increased reabsorption of water from the (C) cause release of the catalytic subunit upon
kidney is the major consequence of which binding of the hormone
of the following hormones? (D) are not very specific and bind a number of
(A) Cortisol (B) Insulin different hormones
(C) Vasopressin (D) Aldosterone 401. All the following hormones use cAMP as
395. Lack of Glucocorticoids and mineral a second messenger except
corticoids might be consequence of which (A) Estrogen (B) FSH
of the following defects in the adrenal (C) Luteinizing (D) Glucagon
cortex?
402. All the following hormones promote
(A) Androstenadione deficiency
hyperglycemia except
(B) Estrone deficiency
(A) Epinephrine (B) Norepinephrine
(C) 17 -OH progesterone deficiency
(C) Insulin (D) Glucagon
(D) C- -Hydroxylase deficiency
403. Glucagon activates the enzyme adenyl-
396. ADP ribosylation is the mode of action of cyclase which causes the increase of blood
(A) Cholera toxin sugar level. Hence this hormone is called
(B) Acetyl choline (A) Hypoglycemic factor
(C) Muscerinic receptors (B) Hyper glycemic factor
(C) Antidiauritic factor
(D) Cyclic AMP
(D) Thyrotropin-releasing factor
397. Which one of the following hormones is
404. TSH hormone biochemically is a
derived most completely from tyrosine?
(A) Protein (B) Fat
(A) Glucagon (B) Thyroxine
(C) Glycoprotein (D) Carbohydrate
(C) Insulin (D) Prostaglandins
232 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

405. The secondary sexual characters in females 409. Which of the following hormones is not
is effected by involved in carbohydrate metabolism?
(A) Estrogens (B) Gluco corticoids (A) ACTH (B) Glucagon
(C) MIS (D) None of these (C) Vasopressin (D) Growth hormone

406. A hypochromic microcytic anaemia which 410. In the process of transcription, the flow
of genetic information is from
increases Fe, store in the bone marrow
may be (A) DNA to DNA (B) DNA to protein
(C) RNA to protein (D) DNA to RNA
(A) Folic acid responsive
(B) Vitamin B12 responsive 411. Anticodon region is an important part of
(C) Pyridoxine responsive the structure of

(D) Vitamin C responsive (A) r-RNA (B) t-RNA


(C) m-RNA (D) z-DNA
407. Gastric Secretion is regulated by the
hormone: 412. Thyroid function is determined by the use
of isotopes:
(A) Glucagon (B) Gastrin
(A) Na 24 (B) K 42
(C) Epinephrin (D) ACTH
(C) Ca45 (D) I 131
408. An essential agent for converting glucose
413. Pernicious anaemia is diagnosed by the
to glycogen in liver is
radio active substance:
(A) Latic acid (B) GTP (A) Cl36 (B) P 32
(C) UTP (D) Pyruvic acid (C) CO60 (D) Fe59
HORMONE METABOLISM 233

ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C
7. A 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C
19. A 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B
25. C 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. A
31. C 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. A
37. A 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. A
43. A 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. A
49. A 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C
55. C 56. D 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. B
61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. A
67. D 68. B 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. D
73. B 74. B 75. A 76. C 77. A 78. D
79. C 80. C 81. A 82. D 83. B 84. A
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. D
91. C 92. B 93. D 94. D 95. A 96. B
97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. B
103. D 104. C 105. B 106. B 107. A 108. A
109. B 110. C 111. C 112. B 113. A 114. C
115. C 116. C 117. C 118. B 119. C 120. A
121. D 122. C 123. B 124. A 125. B 126. A
127. A 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. B 132. D
133. D 134.C 135. A 136. A 137. D 138. D
139. D 140. A 141. D 142. D 143. A 144. B
145. C 146. D 147. D 148. C 149. C 150. B
151. A 152. B 153. D 154. D 155. B 156. C
157. C 158. C 159. D 160. B 161. C 162. C
163. B 164. A 165. C 166. A 167. B 168. C
169. A 170. B 171. C 172. B 173. C 174. D
175. C 176. D 177. D 178. C 179. D 180. C
181. A 182. B 183. D 184. D 185. B 186. B
187. A 188. D 189. C 190. A 191. B 192. D
193. B 194. B 195. C 196. A 197. A 198. C
199. B 200. C 201. C 202. D 203. A 204. C
205. D 206. C 207. D 208. D 209. A 210. D
211. C 212. A 213. A 214. B 215. A 216. B
217. A 218. D 219. D 220. C 221. D 222. C
223. D 224. A 225. A 226. A 227. C 228. B
229. D 230. B 231. D 232. C 233. A 234. D
235. C 236. B 237. D 238. A 239. A 240. D
241. C 242. A 243. A 244. C 245. D 246. B
234 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

247. D 248. C 249. A 250. D 251. C 252. A


253. A 254. D 255. C 256. C 257. A 258. B
259. C 260. A 261. A 262. A 263. A 264. B
265. D 266. C 267. D 268. C 269. A 270. C
271. C 272. C 273. C 274. B 275. B 276. A
277. D 278. C 279. A 280. C 281. B 282. B
283. A 284. B 285. A 286. B 287. B 288. C
289. D 290. A 291. C 292. B 293. D 294. B
295. B 296. C 297. B 298. C 299. A 300. A
301. A 302. D 303. A 304. B 305. B 306. B
307. D 308. A 309. C 310. D 311. A 312. C
313. C 314. B 315. D 316. B 317. C 318. C
319. B 320. C 321. C 322. B 323. B 324. D
325. B 326. D 327. B 328. B 329. D 330. A
331. B 332. D 333. C 334. A 335. B 336. D
337. B 338. C 339. D 340. D 341. A 342. D
343. B 344. D 345. C 346. B 347. A 348. A
349. C 350. D 351. B 352. B 353. A 354. A
355. A 356. A 357. D 358. B 359. A 360. A
361. A 362. D 363. C 364. A 365. D 366. A
367. B 368. C 369. B 370. C 371. C 372. D
373. C 374. A 375. B 376. C 377. D 378. D
379. C 380. B 381. B 382. B 383. D 384. D
385. B 386. A 387. C 388. B 389. D 390. C
391. C 392. D 393. C 394. C 395. D 396. A
397. B 398. A 399. C 400. B 401. A 402. C
403. B 404. C 405. A 406. D 407. B 408. C
409. C 410. D 411. B 412. D 413. C
NUCLEIC ACIDS 235

CHAPTER 9

NUCLEIC ACIDS

1. A nucleoside consists of 7. The chemical name of guanine is


(A) Nitrogenous base (A) 2,4-Dioxy-5-methylpyrimidine
(B) Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar (B) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
(C) Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous (C) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
(D) Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar + (D) 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine
phosphorous
8. Nucleotides and nucleic acids concentration
2. A nucleotide consists of
are often also expressed in terms of
(A) A nitrogenous base like choline
(A) ng (B) mg
(B) Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +
(C) meq (D) OD at 260 nm
phosphorous
(C) Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar 9. The pyrimidine nucleotide acting as the
(D) Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous high energy intermediate is

3. A purine nucleotide is (A) ATP (B) UTP


(A) AMP (B) UMP (C) UDPG (D) CMP
(C) CMP (D) TMP 10. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkage
4. A pyrimidine nucleotide is with the phosphate in a nucleotide struc-
ture is
(A) GMP (B) AMP
(A) C1 (B) C3
(C) CMP (D) IMP
(C) C4 (D) C5
5. Adenine is
11. Uracil and ribose form
(A) 6-Amino purine
(B) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine (A) Uridine (B) Cytidine
(C) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine (C) Guanosine (D) Adenosine
(D) 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine 12. The most abundant free nucleotide in
6. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine is mammalian cells is
(A) Thymine (B) Cystosine (A) ATP (B) NAD
(C) Uracil (D) Guanine (C) GTP (D) FAD
236 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

13. The mean intracellular concentration of 21. The nitrogenous base present in the RNA
ATP in mammalian cell is about molecule is
(A) 1 mM (B) 2 mM (A) Thymine (B) Uracil
(C) 0.1 mM (D) 0.2 mM (C) Xanthine (D) Hypoxanthine
14. The nucleic acid base found in mRNA but 22. RNA does not contain
not in DNA is
(A) Uracil (B) Adenine
(A) Adenine (B) Cytosine
(C) Thymine (D) Ribose
(C) Guanine (D) Uracil
23. The sugar moiety present in RNA is
15. In RNA moleule Caps
(A) Ribulose (B) Arabinose
(A) Allow tRNA to be processed
(C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose
(B) Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA
(C) Occur at the 3 end of tRNA 24. In RNA molecule
(D) Allow correct translation of prokaryotic mRNA (A) Guanine content equals cytosine
16. In contrast to eukaryotic mRNA, (B) Adenine content equals uracil
prokaryotic mRNA (C) Adenine content equals guanine
(A) Can be polycistronic (D) Guanine content does not necessarily equal
(B) Is synthesized with introns its cytosine content.
(C) Can only be monocistronic 25. Methylated purines and pyrimidines are
(D) Has a poly A tail characteristically present in
17. The size of small stable RNA ranges from (A) mRNA (B) hnRNA
(A) 040 nucleotides (C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(B) 4080 nucleotides 26. Thymine is present in
(C) 90300 nucleotides
(A) tRNA (B) Ribosomal RNA
(D) More than 320 nucleotides
(C) Mammalian mRNA(D) Prokaryotic mRNA
18. The number of small stable RNAs per cell
27. The approximate number of nucleotides
ranges from
in tRNA molecule is
(A) 1050,000
(A) 25 (B) 50
(B) 50,0001,00,000
(C) 75 (D) 100
(C) 1,00,00010,00,000
(D) More than 10 lakhs 28. In every cell, the number of tRNA mole-
cules is at least
19. Molecular weight of heterogenous nuclear
RNA (hnRNA) is (A) 10 (B) 20
(A) More than 10 7 5
(B) 10 to 10 6 (C) 30 (D) 40
(C) 104 to 105 (D) Less than 104 29. The structure of tRNA appears like a
20. In RNA molecule guanine content does not (A) Helix (B) Hair pin
necessarily equal its cytosine content nor (C) Clover leaf (D) Coil
does its adenine content necessarily equal
its uracil content since it is a 30. Although each specific tRNA differs from the
(A) Single strand molecule others in its sequence of nucleotides, all tRNA
molecules contain a base paired stem that
(B) Double stranded molecule
terminates in the sequence CCA at
(C) Double stranded helical molecule
(A) 3 Termini (B) 5 Termini
(D) Polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleo-
tides (C) Anticodon arm (D) 3 5 -Termini
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237

31. Transfer RNAs are classified on the basis 41. DNA rich in G-C pairs have
of the number of base pairs in
(A) 1 Hydrogen bond (B) 2 Hydrogen bonds
(A) Acceptor arm (B) Anticodon arm (C) 3 Hydrogen bonds (D) 4 Hydrogen bonds
(C) D arm (D) Extra arm
42. The fact that DNA bears the genetic
32. In tRNA molecule D arm is named for the information of an organism implies that
presence of the base:
(A) Base composition should be identical from
(A) Uridine (B) Pseudouridine species to species
(C) Dihydrouridine (D) Thymidine (B) DNA base composition should charge with
33. The acceptor arm in the tRNA molecule has age
(A) 5 Base pairs (B) 7 Base pairs (C) DNA from different tissues in the same
organism should usually have the same base
(C) 10 Base pairs (D) 20 Base pairs
composition
34. In tRNA molecule, the anticodon arm (D) DNA base composition is altered with
possesses nutritional state of an organism
(A) 5 Base pairs (B) 7 Base pairs
43. The width (helical diameter) of the double
(C) 8 Base pairs (D) 10 Base pairs helix in B-form DNA in nm is
35. The T C arm in the tRNA molecule (A) 1 (B) 2
possesses the sequence (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) T, pseudouridine and C 44. The number of base pair in a single turn
(B) T, uridine and C of B-form DNA about the axis of the
(C) T, dihydrouridine and C molecule is
(D) T, adenine and C (A) 4 (B) 8
36. Double helical structure model of the DNA (C) 10 (D) 12
was proposed by
45. The distance spanned by one turn of B-
(A) Pauling and Corey form DNA is
(B) Peter Mitchell
(A) 1.0 nm (B) 2.0 nm
(C) Watson and Crick
(C) 3.0 nm (D) 3.4 nm
(D) King and Wooten
46. In a DNA molecule the thymine concen-
37. DNA does not contain tration is 30%, the guanosine concentra-
(A) Thymine (B) Adenine tion will be
(C) Uracil (D) Deoxyribose (A) 10% (B) 20%
38. The sugar moiety present in DNA is (C) 30% (D) 40%
(A) Deoxyribose (B) Ribose 47. IN a DNA molecule, the guanosine content
(C) Lyxose (D) Ribulose is 40%, the adenine content will be
39. DNA rich in A-T pairs have (A) 10% (B) 20%
(A) 1 Hydrogen bond (B) 2 Hydrogen bonds (C) 30% (D) 40%
(C) 3 Hydrogen bonds(D) 4 Hydrogen bonds 48. An increased melting temperature of du-
40. In DNA molecule plex DNA results from a high content of

(A) Guanine content does not equal cytosine content (A) Adenine + Guanine
(B) Adenine content does not equal thymine content (B) Thymine + Cytosine
(C) Adenine content equals uracil content (C) Cytosine + Guanine
(D) Guanine content equals cytosine content (D) Cytosine + Adenine
238 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

49. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, 4-hydro- 56. In purine biosynthesis carbon atoms at 4
xypyrazolopyrimidine is used in the and 5 position and N at 7 position are
treatment of contributed by
(A) Acute nephritis (A) Glycine (B) Glutamine
(B) Gout (C) Alanine (D) Threonine
(C) Cystic fibrosis of lung
57. N10-formyl and N5N10-methenyl tetrahy-
(D) Multiple myeloma
drofolate contributes purine carbon atoms
50. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in at position
the chemotherapy of cancer and viral (A) 4 and 6 (B) 4 and 5
infections is
(C) 5 and 6 (D) 2 and 8
(A) Arabinosyl cytosine
(B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine 58. In purine nucleus nitrogen atom at 1
(C) 6-Mercaptopurine position is derived from
(D) 6-Thioguanine (A) Aspartate (B) Glutamate
(C) Glycine (D) Alanine
51. Histamine is formed from histidine by the
enzyme histidine decarboxylase in the 59. The key substance in the synthesis of
presence of purine, phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate is
(A) NAD (B) FMN formed by
(C) HS-CoA (D) B6-PO4 (A) -D-ribose 5-phosphate
52. Infantile convulsions due to lesser (B) 5-phospho -D-ribosylamine
formation of gamma amino butyric acid (C) D-ribose
from glutamic acid is seen in the de- (D) Deoxyribose
ficiency of
60. In purine biosynthesis ring closure in the
(A) Glutamate-dehydrogenase
molecule formyl glycinamide ribosyl-5-
(B) Pyridoxine phosphate requires the cofactors:
(C) Folic acid
(A) ADP (B) NAD
(D) Thiamin
(C) FAD (D) ATP and Mg++
53. Which of the following amino acids pro-
duce a vasoconstrictor on decarboxyla- 61. Ring closure of formimidoimidazole
tion? carboxamide ribosyl-5-phosphate yields
the first purine nucleotide:
(A) Histidine (B) Tyrosine
(C) Threonine (D) Arginine (A) AMP (B) IMP
(C) XMP (D) GMP
54. The degradation of RNA by pancreatic
ribonuclease produces 62. The cofactors required for synthesis of
(A) Nucleoside 2-Phosphates adenylosuccinate are
(B) Nucleoside 5-phosphates (A) ATP, Mg++ (B) ADP
(C) Oligonucleosides (C) GTP, Mg++ (D) GDP
(D) Nucleoside 3-phosphate and oligonucleotide 63. Conversion of inosine monophosphate to
55. Intestinal nucleosidases act on nucleo- xanthine monophosphate is catalysed by
sides and produce (A) IMP dehydrogenase
(A) Purine base only (B) Phosphate only (B) Formyl transferase
(C) Sugar only (D) Purine or pyrimidine (C) Xanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
bases and sugars (D) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase
NUCLEIC ACIDS 239

64. Phosphorylation of adenosine to AMP is 71. Purine biosynthesis is inhibited by


catalysed by
(A) Aminopterin (B) Tetracyclin
(A) Adenosine kinase (C) Methotrexate (D) Chloramphenicol
(B) Deoxycytidine kinase
(C) Adenylosuccinase 72. Pyrimidine and purine nucleoside bio-
(D) Adenylosuccinate synthetase synthesis share a common precursor:
(A) PRPP (B) Glycine
65. The major determinant of the overall rate
of denovo purine nucleotide biosynthesis (C) Fumarate (D) Alanine
is the concentration of 73. Pyrimidine biosynthesis begins with the
(A) 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate formation from glutamine, ATP and CO2,
(B) 5-phospho -D-ribosylamine of
(C) Glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate (A) Carbamoyl aspartate
(D) Formylglycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate (B) Orotate
66. An enzyme which acts as allosteric reg- (C) Carbamoyl phosphate
ulator and sensitive to both phosphate (D) Dihydroorotate
concentration and to the purine nucle-
otides is 74. The two nitrogen of the pyrimidine ring
(A) PRPP synthetase are contributed by
(B) PRPP glutamyl midotransferase (A) Ammonia and glycine
(C) HGPR Tase (B) Asparate and carbamoyl phosphate
(D) Formyl transferase (C) Glutamine and ammonia
67. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase, the first (D) Aspartate and ammonia
enzyme uniquely committed to purine
75. A cofactor in the conversion of dihydro-
synthesis is feed back inhibited by
orotate to orotic acid, catalysed by the
(A) AMP (B) IMP enzyme dihydroorotate dehydrogena-
(C) XMP (D) CMP se is
68. Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl- (A) FAD (B) FMN
5-phosphate to formyl-glycinamide (C) NAD (D) NADP
ribosyl-5-phosphate is inhibited by
(A) Azaserine (B) Diazonorleucine 76. The first true pyrimidine ribonucleotide
synthesized is
(C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) Mycophenolic acid
(A) UMP (B) UDP
69. In the biosynthesis of purine nucleotides
the AMP feed back regulates (C) TMP (D) CTP

(A) Adenylosuccinase 77. UDP and UTP are formed by phosphory-


(B) Adenylosuccinate synthetase lation from
(C) IMP dehydrogenase (A) AMP (B) ADP
(D) HGPR Tase (C) ATP (D) GTP
70. 6-Mercapto purine inhibits the conversion 78. Reduction of ribonucleotide diphosphates
of (NDPs) to their corresponding deoxy
(A) IMP XMP ribonucleotide diphosphates (dNDPs)
(B) Ribose 5 phosphate PRPP involves
(C) PRPP 5-phospho -D-ribosylamine (A) FMN (B) FAD
(D) Glycinamide ribosyl 5-phosphate formylg- (C) NAD (D) NADPH
lycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate
240 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

79. Conversion of deoxyuridine monophos- 86. The enzyme aspartate transcarbamoy-


phate to thymidine monophosphate is lase of pyrimidine biosynthesis is inhibit-
catalysed by the enzyme: ed by

(A) Ribonucleotide reductase (A) ATP (B) ADP


(C) AMP (D) CTP
(B) Thymidylate synthetase
(C) CTP synthetase 87. In humans end product of purine cata-
bolism is
(D) Orotidylic acid decarboxylase
(A) Uric acid (B) Urea
80. d-UMP is converted to TMP by (C) Allantoin (D) Xanthine
(A) Methylation (B) Decarboxylation
88. In humans purine are catabolised to uric
(C) Reduction (D) Deamination acid due to lack of the enzyme:
81. UTP is converted to CTP by (A) Urease (B) Uricase
(C) Xanthine oxidase (D) Guanase
(A) Methylation (B) Isomerisation
(C) Amination (D) Reduction 89. In mammals other than higher primates
uric acid is converted by
82. Methotrexate blocks the synthesis of
(A) Oxidation to allantoin
thymidine monophosphate by inhibiting
(B) Reduction to ammonia
the activity of the enzyme:
(C) Hydrolysis to ammonia
(A) Dihydrofolate reductase (D) Hydrolysis to allantoin
(B) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
90. The correct sequence of the reactions of
(C) Ribonucleotide reductase catabolism of adenosine to uric acid is
(D) Dihydroorotase
(A) Adenosinehypoxanthinexanthineuric
83. A substrate for enzymes of pyrimidine acid
nucleotide biosynthesis is (B) Adenosinexanthineinosineuric acid
(C) Adenosineinosinehypoxanthine xanthine
(A) Allopurinol (B) Tetracylin
uric acid
(C) Chloramphenicol (D) Puromycin (D) Adenosinexanthineinosinehypo-
84. An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotide bio- xanthine uric acid
synthesis sensitive to allosteric regulation 91. Gout is a metabolic disorder of catabolism
is of
(A) Aspartate transcarbamoylase (A) Pyrimidine (B) Purine
(B) Dihydroorotase (C) Alanine (D) Phenylalanine
(C) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase 92. Gout is characterized by increased plasma
(D) Orotidylic acid decarboxylase levels of
(A) Urea (B) Uric acid
85 An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotides
biosynthesis regulated at the genetic (C) Creatine (D) Creatinine
level by apparently coordinate repression 93. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked
and derepression is recessive disorder is due to the lack of the
enzyme:
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(A) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl
(B) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
transferse
(C) Thymidine kinase
(B) Xanthine oxidase
(D) Deoxycytidine kinase (C) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase
(D) Adenosine deaminase
NUCLEIC ACIDS 241

94. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked, 101. Genetic information flows from
recessive absence of HGPRTase, may lead (A) DNA to DNA
to
(B) DNA to RNA
(A) Compulsive self destructive behaviour with (C) RNA to cellular proteins
elevated levels of urate in serum
(D) DNA to cellular proteins
(B) Hypouricemia due to liver damage
(C) Failure to thrive and megaloblastic anemia 102. Genetic code is
(D) Protein intolerance and hepatic encephalop- (A) Collection of codon
athy (B) Collection of amino acids
(C) Collection of purine nucleotide
95. The major catabolic product of pyrim-
idines in human is (D) Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide
(A) -Alanine (B) Urea 103. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that
(C) Uric acid (D) Guanine (A) Codons do not code for specific amino acid
96. Orotic aciduria type I reflects the deficien- (B) Multiple codons must decode the same amino
cy of enzymes: acids
(A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and (C) No anticodon on tRNA molecule
orotidylate decarboxylase (D) Specific codon decodes many amino acids
(B) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
104. Genetic code is
(C) Dihydroorotase
(A) Overlapping (B) Non-overlapping
(D) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(C) Not universal (D) Ambiguous
97. Orotic aciduria type II reflects the deficien-
cy of the enzyme: 105. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide
sequence of
(A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
(B) Orotidylate decarboxylase (A) Coding strand (B) Ribosomal RNA
(C) Dihydroorotase (C) tRNA (D) Template strand
(D) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase 106. In DNA replication the enzyme required
98. An autosomal recessive disorder, xanthi- in the first step is
nuria is due to deficiency of the enzymes: (A) DNA directed polymerase
(A) Adenosine deaminase (B) Unwinding proteins
(B) Xanthine oxidase (C) DNA polymerase
(C) HGPRTase (D) DNA ligase
(D) Transaminase
107. The smallest unit of DNA capable of cod-
99. Enzymic deficiency in -aminoisobutyric ing for the synthesis of a polypeptide is
aciduria is
(A) Operon (B) Repressor gene
(A) Adenosine deaminase (C) Cistron (D) Replicon
(B) Xanthine oxidase
108. Termination of the synthesis of the RNA
(C) Orotidylate decarboxylase
molecule is signaled by a sequence in the
(D) Transaminase
template strand of the DNA molecule, a
100. Polysomes lack in signal that is recognized by a termination
(A) DNA (B) mRNA protein, the
(C) rRNA (D) tRNA (A) Rho () factor (B) factor
(C) factor (D) factor
242 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

109. After termination of the synthesis of RNA 114. All pribnow boxes are variants of the
molecule, the core enzymes separate from sequence:
the DNA template. The core enzymes then (A) 5TATAAT 3 (B) 5GAGCCA 3
recognize a promoter at which the syn-
(C) 5UAACAA 3 (D) 5TCCTAG 3
thesis of a new RNA molecule commenc-
es, with the assistance of 115. 5-Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped
(A) Rho () factor (B) factor with
(C) factor (D) factor (A) Guanosine triphosphate
110. In the process of transcription in bacterial (B) 7-Methylguanosine triphophate
cells (C) Adenosine triphosphate
(A) Initiation requires rho protein (D) Adenosine diphosphate
(B) RNA polymerase incorporates methylated 116. The first codon to be translated on mRNA
bases in correct sequence is
(C) Both the sigma unit and core enzymes of RNA (A) AUG (B) GGU
polymerase are required for accurate
(C) GGA (D) AAA
promotor site binding
(D) Primase is necessary for initiation 117. AUG, the only identified codon for methio-
nine is important as
111. The correct statement concerning RNA and
DNA polymerases is (A) A releasing factor for peptide chains
(B) A chain terminating codon
(A) RNA polymerase use nucleoside diphosphates
(C) Recognition site on tRNA
(B) RNA polymerase require primers and add (D) A chain initiating codon
bases at 5 end of the growing polynucleotide 118. In biosynthesis of proteins the chain
chain terminating codons are
(C) DNA polymerases can add nucleotides at both
(A) UAA, UAG and UGA
ends of the chain
(B) UGG, UGU and AGU
(D) All RNA and DNA polymerases can add
nucleotides only at the 3 end of the growing (C) AAU, AAG and GAU
polynucleotide chain (D) GCG, GCA and GCU

112. The eukaryotic nuclear chromosomal DNA 119. The formation of initiation complex during
(A) Is a linear and unbranched molecule protein synthesis requires a factor:
(B) Is not associated with a specific membranous (A) IF-III (B) EF-I
organelle (C) EF-II (D) IF-I
(C) Is not replicated semiconservatively
120. The amino terminal of all polypeptide
(D) Is about of the same size as each prokaryotic chain at the time of synthesis in E. coli is
chromoses tagged to the amino acid residue:
113. The function of a repressor protein in an (A) Methionine (B) Serine
operon system is to prevent synthesis by (C) N-formyl methinine (D) N-formal serine
binding to
121. Initiation of protein synthesis begins with
(A) The ribosome
binding of
(B) A specific region of the operon preventing
transcription of structural genes (A) 40 S ribosomal unit on mRNA
(C) The RNA polymerase (B) 60S ribosomal unit
(D) A specific region of the mRNA preventing (C) Charging of tRNA with specific amino acid
translation to protein (D) Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA on mRNA
NUCLEIC ACIDS 243

122. Initiation of protein synthesis requires 129. The nucleophilic attack on the esterified
(A) ATP (B) AMP carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA
occupying the P site and the -amino
(C) GDP (D) GTP
group of the new amino acyl tRNA, the
123. The enzyme amino acyl tRNA synthetase number of ATP required by the amino acid
is involved in on the charged tRNA is
(A) Dissociation of discharged tRNA from 80S (A) Zero (B) One
ribosome (C) Two (D) Four
(B) Charging of tRNA with specific amino acids
130. Translocation of the newly formed
(C) Termination of protein synthesis peptidyl tRNA at the A site into the empty
(D) Nucleophilic attack on esterified carboxyl P site involves
group of peptidyl tRNA
(A) EF-II, GTP
124. In the process of activation of amino acids (B) EF-I, GTP
for protein synthesis, the number of high (C) EF-I, GDP
energy phosphate bond equivalent
(D) Peptidyl transferase, GTP
utilised is
(A) 0 (B) 1 131. In eukaryotic cells
(C) 2 (D) 4 (A) Formylated tRNA is important for initiation of
translation
125 Translation results in a product known as
(B) Cyclohexamide blocks elongation during
(A) Protein (B) tRNA translation
(C) mRNA (D) rRNA (C) Cytosolic ribosomes are smaller than those
found in prokaryotes
126. In the process of elongation of chain
binding of amino acyl tRNA to the A site (D) Erythromycin inhibits elongation during
requires translation

(A) A proper codon recognition 132. The mushroom poison amanitin is an


(B) GTP inhibitor of
(C) EF-II (A) Protein synthesis (B) mRNA synthesis
(D) GDP (C) DNA synthesis (D) Adenosine synthesis

127. The newly entering amino acyl tRNA into 133. Tetracylin prevents synthesis of polypep-
A site requires tide by
(A) EF-II (B) Ribosomal RNA (A) Blocking mRNA formation from DNA
(C) mRNA (D) EF-I (B) Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA complex
(C) Competing with mRNA for ribosomal binding
128. The -amino group of the new amino acyl
sites
tRNA in the A site carries out a nucleo-
philic attack on the esterified carboxyl (D) Preventing binding of aminoacyl tRNA
group of the peptidyl tRNA occupying the 134. In prokaryotes, chloramphenicol
P site. This reaction is catalysed by
(A) Causes premature release of the polypeptide
(A) DNA polymerase chain
(B) RNA polymerase (B) Causes misreading of the mRNA
(C) Peptidyl transferase (C) Depolymerises DNA
(D) DNA ligase (D) Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity
244 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

135 Streptomycin prevents synthesis of poly- 144. The enzyme DNA ligase
peptide by
(A) Introduces superhelical twists
(A) Inhibiting initiation process (B) Connects the end of two DNA chains
(B) Releasing premature polypeptide
(C) Unwinds the double helix
(C) Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
(D) Synthesises RNA primers
(D) Inhibiting translocation
145. Restriction endonucleases
136. Erythromycin acts on ribosomes and in-
hibit (A) Cut RNA chains at specific locations
(A) Formation of initiation complex (B) Excise introns from hnRNA
(B) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA (C) Remove Okazaki fragments
(C) Peptidyl transferase activity (D) Act as defensive enzymes to protect the host
(D) Translocation bacterial DNA from DNA of foreign organisms

137. The binding of prokaryotic DNA depen- 146. The most likely lethal mutation is
dent RNA polymerase to promoter sites
(A) Substitution of adenine for cytosine
of genes is inhibited by the antibiotic:
(B) Insertion of one nucleotide
(A) Puromycin (B) Rifamycin
(C) Deletion of three nucleotides
(C) Terramycin (D) Streptomycin
(D) Substitution of cytosine for guanine
138. The gene which is transcribed during
repression is 147. In the following partial sequence of
mRNA, a mutation of the template DNA
(A) Structural (B) Regulator
results in a change in codon 91 to UAA.
(C) Promoter (D) Operator
The type of mutation is
139 The gene of lac operon which has constitu- 88 89 90 91 92 93 94
tive expression is
GUC GAC CAG UAG GGC UAA CCG
(A) i (B) c
(A) Missene (B) Silent
(C) z (D) p
(C) Nonsense (D) Frame shit
140. The minimum effective size of an operator
for lac repressor binding is 148. Restriction endonucleases recognize and
cut a certain sequence of
(A) 5 base pairs (B) 10 base pairs
(C) 15 base pairs (D) 17 base pairs (A) Single stranded DNA
(B) Double stranded DNA
141 To commence structural gene transcrip-
(C) RNA
tion the region which should be free on
lac operation is (D) Protein
(A) Promoter site (B) Operator locus 149. Positive control of induction is best
(C) Y gene (D) A gene described as a control system in which an
operon functions
142. In the lac operon concept, a protein mole-
cule is (A) Unless it is switched off by a derepressed
(A) Operator (B) Inducer repressor protein
(C) Promoter (D) Repressor (B) Only after a repressor protein is inactivated
by an inducer
143. The catabolite repression is mediated by (C) Only after an inducer protein, which can be
a catabolite gene activator protein (CAP)
inactivated by a corepressor, switches it on
in conjunction with
(D) Only after an inducer protein, which is
(A) AMP (B) GMP
activated by an inducer, switch it on
(C) cAMP (D) Cgmp
NUCLEIC ACIDS 245

150. Interferon 158. Defective enzyme in Hurlers syndrome is


(A) Is virus specific (A) -L-diuronidase
(B) Is a bacterial product (B) Iduronate sulphatase
(C) Is a synthetic antiviral agent (C) Arylsulphatase B
(D) Requires expression of cellular genes (D) C-acetyl transferase
159. Presence of arginine can be detected by
151. Repressor binds to DNA sequence and
regulate the transcription. This sequence (A) Sakaguchi reaction
is called (B) Million-Nasse reaction
(A) Attenuator (B) Terminator (C) Hopkins-Cole reaction
(C) Anti terminator (D) Operator (D) Gas chromatography
160. A nitrogenous base that does not occur
152. Okazaki fragment is related to
in mRNA is
(A) DNA synthesis (B) Protein synthesis
(A) Cytosine (B) Thymine
(C) mRNA formation (D) tRNA formation (C) Uracil (D) All of these
153. The region of DNA known as TATA BOX is 161. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to
the site for binding of sugar by
(A) DNA polymerase (A) Salt bond (B) Hydrogen bond
(B) DNA topoisomerase (C) Ester bond (D) Glycosidic bond
(C) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 162. Cyclic AMP can be formed from
(D) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(A) AMP (B) ADP
154. Reverse transcriptase is capable of (C) ATP (D) All of these
synthesising
163. A substituted pyrimidine base of pharma-
(A) RNA DNA (B) DNA RNA cological value is
(C) RNA RNA (D) DNA DNA (A) 5-Iododeoxyuridine
155. A tetrovirus is (B) Cytisine arabinoside
(C) 5-Fluorouracil
(A) Polio virus (B) HIV
(D) All of these
(C) Herpes virus (D) Tobacco mosaic virus
164 The transforming factor discovered by
156. Peptidyl transferase activity is located in Avery, McLeod and McCarty was later
(A) Elongation factor found to be
(B) A charged tRNA molecule (A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(C) Ribosomal protein (C) DNA (D) None of these
(D) A soluble cytosolic protein 165. In DNA, the complementary base of
adenine is
157. Ultraviolet light can damage a DNA strand
causing (A) Guanine (B) Cytosine
(C) Uracil (D) Thymine
(A) Two adjacent purine residue to form a
covalently bounded dimer 166. In DNA, three hydrogen bonds are
(B) Two adjacent pyrimidine residues to form formed between
covalently bonded dimer (A) Adenine and guanine
(C) Disruption of phosphodiesterase linkage (B) Adenine and thymine
(D) Disruption of non-covalent linkage (C) Guanine and cytosine
(D) Thymine and cytosine
246 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

167. Left handed double helix is present in 177. The number of hydrogen bonds between
adenine and thymine in DNA is
(A) Z-DNA (B) A-DNA
(C) B-DNA (D) None of these (A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
168. Nuclear DNA is present in combination
with 178. The complementary base of adenine in
RNA is
(A) Histones (B) Non-histones
(A) Thymine (B) Cystosine
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) Guanine (D) Uracil
169. Number of guanine and cytosine residues
179. Extranuclear DNA is present in
is equal in
(A) Ribosomes
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) DNA (D) None of these
(C) Lysosomes
170. Alkalis cannot hydrolyse (D) Mitochondria
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA 180. Mitochondrial DNA is present in
(C) rRNA (D) DNA (A) Bacteria (B) Viruses
171. Codons are present in (C) Eukaryotes (D) All of these
(A) Template strand of DNA 181. Ribothymidine is present in
(B) mRNA (A) DNA (B) tRNA
(C) tRNA (C) rRNA (D) hnRNA
(D) rRNA 182. Ten base pairs are present in one turn of
172. Amino acid is attached to tRNA at the helix in

(A) 5-End (B) 3-End (A) A-DNA (B) B-DNA


(C) C-DNA (D) Z-DNA
(C) Anticodon (D) DHU loop
183. Transfer RNA transfers
173. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal subunits
are (A) Information from DNA to ribosomes
(B) Information from mRNA to cytosol
(A) 30 S and 40 S (B) 40 S and 50 S
(C) Amino acids from cytosol to ribosomes
(C) 30 S and 50 S (D) 40 S and 60 S
(D) Proteins from ribosomes to cytosol
174. Ribozymes are
184. Ceramidase is deficient in
(A) Enzymes present in ribosomes
(A) Fabrys disease (B) Farbers disease
(B) Enzymes which combine the ribosomal
(C) Krabbes disease (D) Tay-Sachs disease
subunits
(C) Enzymes which dissociate 185. Ceramide is present in all of the following
except
(D) Enzymes made up of RNA
(A) Plasmalogens (B) Cerebrosides
175. The smallest RNA among the following is (C) Sulphatides (D) Sphingomyelin
(A) rRNA (B) hnRNA
186. Nucleotides required for the synthesis of
(C) mRNA (D) tRNA nucleic acids can be obtained from
176. The number of adenine and thymine bases (A) Dietary nucleic acids and nucleotides
is equal in (B) De novo synthesis
(A) DNA (B) mRNA (C) Salvage of pre-existing bases and nucleosides
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA (D) De novo synthesis and salvage
NUCLEIC ACIDS 247

187. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotide 196. All of the following enzymes are unique
occurs in to purine nucleotide synthesis except
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol (A) PRPP synthetase
(C) Microsmes (D) Ribosomes (B) PRPP glutamyl amido transferase
188. The nitrogen atoms for de novo synthesis (C) Adenylosuccinate synthetase
of purine nucleotides are provided by (D) IMP dehydrogenase
(A) Aspartate and glutamate
197. PRPP synthetase is allosterically inhibited
(B) Aspartate and glycine
by
(C) Aspartate, glutamine and glycine
(D) Aspartate, glutamate and glycine (A) AMP (B) ADP
(C) GMP (D) All of these
189 For de novo synthesis of purine nucle-
otides, glycine provides 198. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP glutamyl
(A) One nitrogen atom amido transferase is
(B) One nitrogen and one carbon atom (A) AMP (B) ADP
(C) Two carbon atoms (C) GMP (D) All of these
(D) One nitrogen and two carbon atoms
199. An allosteric inhibitor of adenylosuccinate
190. For de novo synthesis of purine nucle- synthetase is
otides, aspartate provides
(A) AMP (B) ADP
(A) Nitrogen 1 (B) Nitrogen 3
(C) GMP (D) GDP
(C) Nitrogen 7 (D) Nitrogen 9
200. An allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydroge-
191. In the purine nucleus, carbon 6 is contrib-
uted by nase is

(A) Glycine (B) CO2 (A) AMP (B) ADP


(C) Aspartate (D) Glutamine (C) GMP (D) GDP

192. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is 201. GMP is an allosteric inhibitor of all the


required for the synthesis of following except
(A) Purine nucleotides (B) Pyrimidine nucleotides (A) PRPP synthetase
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (B) PRPP glutamyl amido synthetase
193. Inosine monophophate is an intermediate (C) IMP dehydrogenase
during the de novo synthesis of (D) Adenylosuccinate synthetase
(A) AMP and GMP (B) CMP and UMP
202. AMP is an allosteric inhibitor of
(C) CMP and TMP (D) All of these
(A) PRPP synthetase
194. Xanthosine monophosphate is an
(B) Adenylosucciante synthetase
intermediate during de novo synthesis of
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) TMP (B) CMP
(D) None of these
(C) AMP (D) GMP
195. In the pathway of de novo synthesis of 203. The first reaction unique to purine nucleo-
purine nucleotides, all the following are tide synthesis is catalysed by
allosteric enzymes except (A) PRPP synthetase
(A) PRPP glutamyl amido transferase (B) PRPP glutamyl amido transferase
(B) Adenylosuccinate synthetase (C) Phosphoribosyl glycinamide synthetase
(C) IMP dehydrogenase (D) Formyl transferase
(D) Adenylosuccinase
248 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

204. Free purine bases which can be salvaged 211. The enzyme common to catabolism of all
are the purines is
(A) Adenine and guanine (A) Adenosine deaminase
(B) Adenine and hypoxanthine (B) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
(C) Guanine and hypoxanthine (C) Guanase
(D) Adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine (D) None of these

205. The enzyme required for salvage of free 212. Uric acid is the end product of purine as
purine bases is well as protein catabolism in
(A) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase (A) Man (B) Fish
(B) Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl (C) Birds (D) None of these
transferase
213. Daily uric acid excretion in adult men is
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) 26 mg (B) 2040 mg
(D) None of these
(C) 150250 mg (D) 40600 mg
206. Deoxycytidine kinase can salvage
214. Dietary purines are catabolised in
(A) Adenosine
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys
(B) Adenosine and deoxyadenosine
(C) Intesitnal mucosa (D) All of these
(C) Adenosine and guanosine
(D) Adenine and adenosine 215. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucle-
otides occurs in
207. Adenosine kinase can salvage
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol
(A) Adenosine
(C) Microsomes (D) Ribosomes
(B) Adenosine and deoxyadenosine
(C) Adenosine and guanosine 216. An enzyme common to de novo synthesis
of pyrimidine nucleotides and urea is
(D) Adenine and adenosine
(A) Urease
208. Salvage of purine bases is regulated by
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(A) Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase
(C) Aspartate transcarbamoylase
(B) Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl
(D) Argininosuccinase
transferase
(C) Availability of PRPP 217. The nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine nucleus
are provided by
(D) None of these
(A) Glutamate
209. The available PRPP is used preferentially
(B) Glutamate and aspartate
for
(C) Glutamine
(A) De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides
(D) Glutamine and aspartate
(B) De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
(C) Salvage of purine bases 218. The carbon atoms of pyrimidine nucleus
are provided by
(D) Salvage of pyrimidine bases
(A) Glycine and aspartate
210. The end product of purine catabolism in
(B) CO2 and aspartate
man is
(C) CO2 and glutamate
(A) Inosine (B) Hypoxanthine
(D) CO2 and glutamine
(C) Xanthine (D) Uric acid
NUCLEIC ACIDS 249

219. Nitrogen at position 1 of pyrimidine nu- 228. For the synthesis of TMP from dump, a
cleus comes from coenzyme is required which is
(A) Glutamine (B) Glutamate (A) N10- Formyl tetrahydrofolate
(C) Glycine (D) Aspartate (B) N5- Methyl tetrahydrofolate
220. Nitrogen at position 3 of pyrimidine nu- (C) N5, N10- Methylene tetrahydrofolate
cleus comes from (D) N5- Formimino tetrahydrofolate
(A) Glutamine (B) Glutamate
229. All the enzymes required for de novo
(C) Glycine (D) Aspartate
synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides are
221. The carbon atom at position 2 of pyrimi- cytosolic except
dine nucleus is contributed by (A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(A) CO2 (B) Glycine (B) Aspartate transcarbamoylase
(C) Aspartate (D) Glutamine (C) Dihydro-orotase
222. Aspartate contributes the following (D) Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
carbon atoms of the pyrimidine nucelus:
230. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine
(A) C2 and C4 (B) C5 and C6
nucleotides, the first ring compound to be
(C) C2, C4 and C6 (D) C4, C5 and C6 formed is
223. The first pyrimidine nucleotide to be (A) Carbamoyl aspartic acid
formed in de novo synthesis pathway is
(B) Dihydro-orotic acid
(A) UMP (B) CMP (C) Orotic acid
(C) CTP (D) TMP
(D) Orotidine monophosphate
224. Conversion of uridine diphosphate into
231. Tetrahydrofolate is required as a coen-
deoxyuridine diphosphate requires all
the following except zyme for the synthesis of

(A) Ribonucleotide reductase (A) UMP (B) CMP


(B) Thioredoxin (C) TMP (D) All of these
(C) Tetrahydrobiopterin 232. All of the following statements about
(D) NADPH thioredoxin reductase are true except:
225. Amethopterin and aminopterin decrease (A) It requires NADH as a coenzyme
the synthesis of (B) Its substrates are ADP, GDP, CDP and UDP
(A) TMP (B) UMP (C) It is activated by ATP
(C) CMP (D) All of these (D) It is inhibited by dADP
226. For synthesis of CTP and UTP, the amino 233. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucle-
group comes from
otides is regulated by
(A) Amide group of Asparagine
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(B) Amide group of glutamine
(B) Aspartate transcarbamoylase
(C) -Amino group of glutamine
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) -Amino group of glutamate
(D) None of these
227. CTP synthetase forms CTP from
234. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthe-
(A) CDP and inorganic phosphate
tase is inhibited by
(B) CDP and ATP
(A) UTP (B) CTP
(C) UTP and glutamine
(C) PRPP (D) TMP
(D) UTP and glutamate
250 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

235. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate syn- 244. All the following statements about
thetase is activated by primary gout are true except
(A) Glutamine (B) PRPP (A) Its inheritance is X-linked recessive
(C) ATP (D) Aspartate (B) It can be due to increased activity of PRPP
synthetase
236. Aspartate transcarbamoylase is inhibited
by (C) It can be due to increased activity of hypox-
anthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
(A) CTP (B) PRPP
(D) De novo synthesis of purines is increased in it
(C) ATP (D) TMP
245. All of the following statements about uric
237. The following cannot be salvaged in hu- acid are true except
man beings:
(A) It is a catabolite of purines
(A) Cytidine (B) Deoxycytidine
(B) It is excreted by the kidneys
(C) Cytosine (D) Thymidine
(C) It is undissociated at pH above 5.8
238. -Aminoisobytyrate is formed from ca- (D) It is less soluble than sodium urate
tabolism of 246. In inherited deficiency of hypoxanthine
(A) Cytosine (B) Uracil guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
(C) Thymine (D) Xanthine (A) De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides is
239. Free ammonia is liberated during the decreased
catabolism of (B) Salvage of purines is decreased
(A) Cytosine (B) Uracil (C) Salvage of purines is increased
(C) Thymine (D) All of these (D) Synthesis of uric acid is decreased
247. All of the following statements about uric
240. -Alanine is formed from catabolism of acid are true except
(A) Thymine (A) It can be formed from allantoin
(B) Thymine and cytosine (B) Formation of uric acid stones in kidneys can
(C) Thymine and uracil be decreased by alkalinisation of urine
(D) Cytosine and uracil (C) Uric acid begins to dissociate at pH above 5.8
241. The following coenzyme is required for (D) It is present in plasma mainly as monosodium
catabolism of pyrimidine bases: urate
(A) NADH (B) NADPH 248. All of the following statements about
(C) FADH2 (D) None of these primary gout are true except

242. Inheritance of primary gout is (A) Uric acid stones may be formed in kidneys
(B) Arthritis of small joints occurs commonly
(A) Autosomal recessive
(B) Autosomal dominant (C) Urinary excretion of uric acid is decreased
(C) X-linked recessive (D) It occurs predominantly in males
(D) X-linked dominant 249. All of the following statements about
allopurinol are true except
243. The following abnormality in PRPP
synthetase can cause primary gout: (A) It is a structural analogue of uric acid
(A) High Vmax (B) It can prevent uric acid stones in the kidneys
(B) Low Km (C) It increases the urinary excretion of xanthine
(C) Resistance to allosteric inihbition. and hypoxanthine
(D) All of these (D) It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
NUCLEIC ACIDS 251

250. Orotic aciduria can be controlled by (B) Ribonucleoside monophosphates


(A) Oral administration of orotic acid (C) Ribonucleoside diphosphates
(B) Decreasing the dietary intake of orotic acid (D) Ribonucleoside triphosphates
(C) Decreasing the dietary intake of pyrimidines 258. An alternate substrate for orotate
(D) Oral administration of uridine phosphoribosyl transferase is
251. All of the following occur in orotic aciduria (A) Allopurinol (B) Xanthine
except (C) Hypoxanthine (D) Adenine
(A) Increased synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides 259. Mammals other than higher primates do
(B) Increased excretion of orotic acid in urine not suffer from gout because they
(C) Decreased synthesis of cytidine triphosphate (A) Lack xanthine oxidase
(D) Retardation of growth (B) Lack adenosine deaminase
252. Inherited deficiency of adenosine deami- (C) Lack purine nucleoside phosphorylase
nase causes (D) Possess uricase
(A) Hyperuricaemia and gout 260. Hypouricaemia can occur in
(B) Mental retardation
(A) Xanthine oxidase deficiency
(C) Immunodeficiency
(B) Psoriasis
(D) Dwarfism
(C) Leukaemia
253. Complete absence of hypoxanthine gua- (D) None of these
nine phospharibosyl transferase causes
261. Synthesis of DNA is also known as
(A) Primary gout (B) Immunodeficiency
(A) Duplication (B) Replication
(C) Uric acid stones (D) Lesh-Nyhan syndrome
(C) Transcription (D) Translation
254. Increased urinary excretion of orotic acid
can occur in deficiency of 262. Replication of DNA is

(A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase (A) Conservative (B) Semi-conservative


(B) OMP decarboxylase (C) Non-conservative (D) None of these
(C) Mitochondrial ornithine transcarbamoylase 263. Direction of DNA synthesis is
(D) Any of the above (A) 5 3 (B) 3 5
255. All of the following can occur in Lesch- (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Nyhan syndrome except
264. Formation of RNA primer:
(A) Gouty arthritis
(A) Precedes replication
(B) Uric acid stones
(B) Follows replication
(C) Retarted growth
(C) Precedes transcription
(D) Self-mutiliating behaviour
(D) Follows transcription
256. Inherited deficiency of purine nucleoside
265. Okazaki pieces are made up of
phosphorylase causes
(A) RNA (B) DNA
(A) Dwarfism (B) Mental retardation
(C) RNA and DNA (D) RNA and proteins
(C) Immunodeficiency (D) Gout
266. Okazaki pieces are formed during the
257. Deoxyribonucleotides are formed by
synthesis of
reduction of
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(A) Ribonucleosides
(C) rRNA (D) DNA
252 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

267. After formation of replication fork 275. The unwound strands of DNA are held
(A) Both the new strands are synthesized disconti- apart by
nuously (A) Single strand binding protein
(B) One strand is synthesized continuously and (B) Double strand binding protein
the other discontinuously (C) Rep protein
(C) Both the new strands are synthesized (D) DNAA protein
continuously
(D) RNA primer is required only for the synthesis 276. Deoxyribonucleotides are added to RNA
of one new strand primer by

268. An Okazaki fragment contains about (A) DNA polymerase I


(B) DNA polymerase II
(A) 10 Nucleotides
(C) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
(B) 100 Nucleotides
(C) 1,000 Nucleotides (D) All of these
(D) 10,000 Nucleotides 277. Ribonucleotides of RNA primer are re-
placed by deoxyribonucleotides by the
269. RNA primer is formed by the enzyme:
enzyme:
(A) Ribonuclease (B) Primase
(A) DNA polymerase I
(C) DNA polymerase I (D) DNA polymerase III
(B) DNA polymerase II
270. In RNA, the complementary base of ade- (C) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
nine is
(D) All of these
(A) Cytosine (B) Guanine
(C) Thymine (D) Uracil 278. DNA fragments are sealed by
(A) DNA polymerase II
271. During replication, the template DNA is
unwound (B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA gyrase
(A) At one of the ends (B) At both the ends
(D) DNA topoisomerase II
(C) At multiple sites (D) Nowhere
279. Negative supercoils are introduced in DNA
272. During replication, unwinding of double
helix is initiated by by

(A) DNAA protein (B) DnaB protein (A) Helicase


(C) DNAC protein (D) Rep protein (B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA gyrase
273. For unwinding of double helical DNA,
(D) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
(A) Energy is provided by ATP
(B) Energy is provided by GTP 280. Reverse transcriptase activity is present
in the eukaryotic:
(C) Energy can be provided by either ATP or GTP
(D) No energy is required (A) DNA polymerase
(B) DNA polymerase
274. Helicase and DNAB protein cause
(C) Telomerase
(A) Rewinding of DNA and require ATP as a
(D) DNA polymerase II
source of energy
(B) Rewinding of DNA but do not require any 281. DNA polymerase III holoenzyme possesses
source of energy (A) Polymerase activity
(C) Unwinding of DNA and require ATP as a (B) 35 Exonuclease activity
source of energy
(C) 53 Exonuclease and polymerase activities
(D) Unwinding of DNA but do not require any
(D) 35 Exonuclease and polymerase activities
source of energy
NUCLEIC ACIDS 253

282. DNA polymerase I possesses 289. Melting temperature of DNA is the tempera-
ture at which
(A) Polymerase activity
(B) 35 Exonuclease activity (A) Solid DNA becomes liquid
(C) 53 Exonuclease activity (B) Liquid DNA evaporates
(D) All of these (C) DNA changes from double helix into
supercoiled DNA
283. 3 5 Exonuclease activity of DNA (D) Native double helical DNA is denatured
polymerase I
290. Melting temperature of DNA is increased
(A) Removes ribonucleotides
by its
(B) Adds deoxyribonucleotides
(A) A and T content (B) G and C content
(C) Corrects errors in replication
(C) Sugar content (D) Phosphate content
(D) Hydrolyses DNA into mononucleotides
291. Buoynat density of DNA is increased by
284. All of the following statements about its
RNA-dependent DNA polymerase are true
(A) A and T content (B) G and C content
except:
(C) Sugar content (D) None of these
(A) It synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template
(B) It is also known as reverse transcriptase 292. Relative proportions of G and C versus A
and T in DNA can be determined by its
(C) It synthesizes DNA in 53 direction
(D) It is present in all the viruses (A) Melting temperature
(B) Buoyant density
285. Reverse transcriptase catalyses (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Synthesis of RNA (D) None of these
(B) Breakdown of RNA
293. Some DNA is present in mitochondria of
(C) Synthesis of DNA
(A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
(D) Breakdown of DNA
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
286. DNA A protein can bind only to
294. Satellite DNA contains
(A) Positively supercoiled DNA
(A) Highly repetitive sequences
(B) Negatively supercoiled DNA
(B) Moderately repetitive sequences
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Non-repetitive sequences
(D) None of these
(D) DNA-RNA hybrids
287. DNA topoisomerase I of E. coli catalyses
295. Synthesis of RNA and a DNA template is
(A) Relaxation of negatively supercoiled DNA known as
(B) Relaxation of positively supercoiled DNA
(A) Replication (B) Translation
(C) Conversion of negatively supercoiled DNA
(C) Transcription (D) Mutation
into positively supercoiled DNA
(D) Conversion of double helix into supercoiled 296. Direction of RNA synthesis is
DNA (A) 5 3 (B) 3 5
288. In mammalian cell cycle, synthesis of DNA (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
occurs during
297. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is a
(A) S phase (B) G1 phase
(A) Monomer (B) Dimer
(C) Mitotic Phase (D) G2 phase
(C) Trimer (D) Tetramer
254 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

298. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase requires (B) Methylation of some bases


the following for its catalytic activity: (C) Formation of pseudouridine
(A) Mg ++ (B) Mn ++ (D) Addition of C-C-A terminus at 5 end
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 307. Post-transcriptional modification does not
occur in
299. The initiation site for transcription is
recognized by (A) Eukaryotic tRNA (B) Prokaryotic tRNA
(C) Eukaryotic hnRNA (D) Prokaryotic mRNA
(A) Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(B) Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 308. A consensus sequence on DNA, called TATA
(C) Sigma factor box, is the site for attachment of
(D) Rho factor (A) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(B) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
300. The termination site for transcription is
(C) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
recognized by
(D) DNA topoisomerase II
(A) Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
309. Polyadenylate tail is not present in mRNA
(B) Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
synthesising
(C) Sigma factor
(A) Globin (B) Histone
(D) Rho factor
(C) Apoferritin (D) Growth hormone
301. Mammalian RNA polymerase I synthesises
310. Introns are present in DNA of
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA
(C) tRNA (D) hnRNA (A) Viruses (B) Bacteria
(C) Man (D) All of these
302. Mammalian RNA polymerase III synthesises
311. A mammalian DNA polymerase among
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA
the following is
(C) tRNA (D) hnRNA
(A) DNA polymerase
303. In mammals, synthesis of mRNA is (B) DNA polymerase I
catalysed by
(C) DNA polymerase II
(A) RNA polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase II
(D) DNA polymerase IV
(C) RNA polymerase III(D) RNA polymerase IV
312. Mammalian DNA polymerase is located
304. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the in
precursor of
(A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA
(C) Mitochondria (D) Cytosol
(C) tRNA (D) None of these
313. Replication of nuclear DNA in mammals
305. Post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA
is catalysed by
involves all of the following except
(A) DNA polymerase
(A) Addition of 7-methylguanosine triphosphate
cap (B) DNA polymerase
(B) Addition of polyadenylate tail (C) DNA polymerase
(C) Insertion of nucleotides (D) DNA polymerase III
(D) Deletion of introns 314. Primase activity is present in
306. Newly synthesized tRNA undergoes post- (A) DNA polymerase II
transcriptional modifications which include (B) DNA polymerase
all the following except
(C) DNA polymerase
(A) Reduction in size
(D) DNA polymerase
NUCLEIC ACIDS 255

315. The mammalian DNA polymerase (D) Are the sequences that intervene between
involved in error correction is two genes
(A) DNA polymerase 323. All of the following statements about
(B) DNA polymerase post-transcriptional processing of tRNA
are true except
(C) DNA polymerase
(A) Introns of some tRNA precursors are removed
(D) DNA polymerase (B) CCA is added at 3 end
316. Novobicin inhibits the synthesis of (C) 7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap is
added at 5 end
(A) DNA (B) mRNA
(D) Some bases are methylated
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA
324. -Amanitin inhibits
317. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of
(A) DNA polymerase II of prokaryotes
(A) DNA (B) mRNA
(B) DNA polymerase of eukaryotes
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(C) RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes
318. Ciprofloxacin inhibits (D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(A) DNA topisomerase II
325. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of
(B) DNA polymerase I
(A) DNA in prokaryotes
(C) DNA polymerase III
(B) DNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(D) DNA gyrase
(C) RNA in prokaryotes
319. Rifampicin inhibits (D) RNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(A) Unwinding of DNA
326. All of the following statements about
(B) Initiation of replication bacterial promoters are true except
(C) Initiation of translation
(A) They are smaller than eukaryotic promoters
(D) Initiation of transcription
(B) They have two consensus sequences upstream
320. Actinomycin D binds to from the transcription star site
(A) Double stranded DNA (C) TATA box is the site for attachment of RNA
polymerase
(B) Single stranded DNA
(D) TATA box has a high melting temperature
(C) Single stranded RNA
(D) DNA-RNA hybrid 327. All of the following statements about
eukaryotic promoters are true except
321. DNA contains some palindromic sequences
which (A) They may be located upstream or down stream
from the structural gene
(A) Mark the site for the formation of replication
(B) They have two consensus sequences
forks
(C) One consensus sequence binds RNA
(B) Direct DNA polymerase to turn back to
polymerase
replicate the other strand
(D) Mutations in promoter region can decrease the
(C) Are recognized by restriction enzymes
efficiency of transcription of the structural gene
(D) Are found only in bacterial DNA
328. In sangers method of DNA sequence
322. Introns in genes determination, DNA synthesis is stopped
(A) Encode the amino acids which are removed by using
during post-translational modification
(A) 1, 2- Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(B) Encode signal sequences which are removed
(B) 2, 3- Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
before secretion of the proteins
(C) Are the non-coding sequences which are not (C) 2, 4- Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
translated (D) 2, 5 - Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
256 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

329. tRNA genes have (C) They are identical in nuclear and
(A) Upstream promoters mitochondrial DNA
(D) They have no complementary anticodons
(B) Downstream promoters
(C) Intragenic promoters 337. A polycistronic mRNA can be seen in
(D) No promoters (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
330. All of the following statements about (C) Mitochondria (D) All of these
tRNA are true except 338. Non-coding sequence are present in the
(A) It is synthesized as a large precursor genes of
(B) It is processed in the nucelolus (A) Bacteria (B) Viruses
(C) It has no codons or anticodons (C) Eukaryotes (D) All of these
(D) Genes for rRNA are present in single copies 339. Non-coding sequences in a gene are known
331. Anticodons are present on as
(A) Coding strand of DNA (A) Cistrons (B) Nonsense codons
(B) mRNA (C) Introns (D) Exons
(C) tRNA 340. Splice sites are present in
(D) rRNA (A) Prokaryotic mRNA (B) Eukaryotic mRNA
332. Codons are present on (C) Eukaryotic hnRNA (D) All of these
(A) Non-coding strand of DNA 341. The common features of introns include
(B) hnRNA all the following except
(C) tRNA (A) The base sequence begins with GU
(D) None of these (B) The base sequence ends with AG
(C) The terminal AG sequence is preceded by a
333. Nonsense codons are present on
purine rich tract of ten nucleotides
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA (D) An adenosine residue in branch site partici-
(C) rRNA (D) None of these pates in splicing
334. Genetic code is said to be degenerate be- 342. A splice some contains all the following
cause except
(A) It can undergo mutations (A) hnRNA (B) snRNAs
(B) A large proportion of DNA is non-coding (C) Some proteins (D) Ribosome
(C) One codon can code for more than one amino 343. Self-splicing can occur in
acids
(A) Some precursors of rRNA
(D) More than one codons can code for the same
(B) Some precursors of tRNA
amino acids
(C) hnRNA
335. All the following statements about genetic (D) None of these
code are correct except
344. Pribnow box is present in
(A) It is degenerate (B) It is unambigous
(A) Prokaryotic promoters
(C) It is nearly universal(D) It is overlapping
(B) Eukaryotic promoters
336. All of the following statements about (C) Both (A) and (B)
nonsense codons are true except (D) None of these
(A) They do not code for amino acids 345. Hogness box is present in
(B) They act as chain termination signals (A) Prokaryotic promoters
NUCLEIC ACIDS 257

(B) Eukaryotic promoters (D) Wobble results in incorporation of incorrect


(C) Both (A) and (B) amino acids in the protein
(D) None of these
351. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiates
346. CAAT box is present in translation in eukaryotes is
(A) Prokaryotic promoters 10 bp upstream of (A) Mehtionyl tRNA
transcription start site (B) Formylmethionyl tRNA
(B) Prokaryotic promoters 35 bp upstream of (C) Tyrosinyl tRNA
transcription start site
(D) Alanyl tRNA
(C) Eukaryotic promoters 25 bp upstream of
transcription start site 352. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiates
(D) Eukaryotic promoters 7080 bp upstream of translation in prokaryotes is
transcription start site
(A) Mehtionyl tRNA
347. Eukaryotic promoters contain (B) Formylmethionyl tRNA
(A) TATA box 25bp upstream of transcription start (C) Tyrosinyl tRNA
site (D) Alanyl tRNA
(B) CAAT box 70-80 bp upstream of transcription
start site 353. In eukaryotes, the 40 S pre-initiation
(C) Both (A) and (B) complex contains all the following
(D) None of these initiation factors except
(A) eIF-1A (B) eIF-2
348. All the following statements about tRNA
are correct except (C) eIF-3 (D) eIF-4
(A) A given tRNA can be charged with only one 354. Eukaryotic initiation factors 4A, 4B and
particular amino acid 4F bind to
(B) The amino acid is recognized by the
(A) 40 S ribosomal subunit
anticodon of tRNA
(B) 60 S ribosomal subunit
(C) The amino acid is attached to end of tRNA
(D) The anticodon of tRNA finds the comple- (C) mRNA
mentary codon on mRNA (D) Amino acyl tRNA

349. All the following statements about 355. The codon which serves as translation
charging of tRNA are correct except start signal is
(A) It is catalysed by amino acyl tRNA synthetase (A) AUG (B) UAG
(B) ATP is converted into ADP and Pi in this (C) UGA (D) UAA
reaction
356. The first amino acyl tRNA approaches
(C) The enzyme recognizes the tRNA and the
40 S ribosomal subunit in association with
amino acid
(A) eIF-1A and GTP (B) eIF-2 and GTP
(D) There is a separate enzyme for each tRNA
(C) eIF-2C and GTP (D) eIF-3 and GTP
350. All the following statements about
recognition of a codon on mRNA by an 357. eIF-1A and eIF-3 are required
anticodon on tRNA are correct except (A) For binding of amino acyl tRNA to 40 S
(A) The recognition of the third base of the codon ribosomal subunit
is not very precise (B) For binding of mRNA to 40 S ribosomal
(B) Imprecise recognition of the third base results subunit
in wobble (C) For binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S subunit
(C) Wobble is partly responsible for the (D) To prevent binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S
degeneracy of the genetic code subunit
258 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

358. eIF-4 A possesses 366. Puromycin causes premature chain


(A) ATPase activity (B) GTPase activity termination in
(C) Helicase activity (D) None of these (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
359. eIF-4 B
(A) Binds to 3 chain initiation codon on mRNA 367. Diphtheria toxin inhibits
(B) Binds to 3 end of mRNA (A) Prokaryotic EF-1 (B) Prokaryotic EF-2
(C) Binds to 5 end of mRNA (C) Eukaryotic EF-1 (D) Eukaryotic EF-2
(D) Unwinds mRNA near its 5 end 368. The proteins destined to be transported
360. Peptidyl transferase activity is present in out of the cell have all the following features
except
(A) 40 S ribosomal subunit
(A) They possess a signal sequence
(B) 60 S ribosomal subunit
(B) Ribosomes synthesizing them are bound to
(C) eEF-2
endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Amino acyl tRNA
(C) After synthesis, they are delivered into Golgi
361. After formation of a peptide bond, mRNA apparatus
is translocated along the ribosome by (D) They are tagged with ubiquitin
(A) eEF-1 and GTP 369. SRP receptors involved in protein export
(B) eEF-2 and GTP are present on
(C) Peptidyl transferase and GTP (A) Ribosomes
(D) Peptidyl transferase and ATP (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
362. Binding of formylmehtionyl tRNA to 30 S (C) Golgi appartus
ribosomal subunit of prokaryotes is (D) Cell membrane
inhibited by
370. The signal sequence of proteins is cleaved
(A) Streptomycin (B) Chloramphenicol off
(C) Erythromycin (D) Mitomycin
(A) On the ribosomes immediately after synthesis
363. Tetracyclines inhibit binding of amino acyl (B) In the endoplasmic reticulum
tRNAs to (C) During processing in Golgi apparatus
(A) 30 S ribosomal subunits (D) During passage through the cell membrane
(B) 40 S ribosomal subunits
371. The half-life of a protein depends upon its
(C) 50 S ribosomal subunits
(A) Signal sequence
(D) 60 S ribosomal subunits
(B) N-terminus amino acid
364. Peptidyl transferase activity of 50 S (C) C-terminus amino acid
ribosomal subunits is inhibited by (D) Prosthetic group
(A) Rifampicin (B) Cycloheximide
372. Besides structural genes that encode
(C) Chloramphenicol (D) Erythromycin
proteins, DNA contains some regulatory
365. Erythromycin binds to 50 S ribosomal sub sequences which are known as
unit and (A) Operons (B) Cistrons
(A) Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA (C) Cis-acting elements (D) Trans-acting factors
(B) Inhibits Peptidyl transferase activity
373. Inducers and repressors are
(C) Inhibits translocation
(A) Enhancer and silencer elements respectively
(D) Causes premature chain termination
(B) Trans-acting factors
NUCLEIC ACIDS 259

(C) Cis-acting elements 381. Lac operon is a cluster of


(D) Regulatory proteins (A) Three structural genes
374. cis-acting elements include (B) Three structural genes and their promoter
(C) A regulatory gene, an operator and a
(A) Steroid hormones (B) Calcitriol
promoter
(C) Histones (D) Silencers
(D) A regulatory gene, an operator, a promoter
375. Silencer elements and three structural genes
(A) Are trans-acting factors 382. The regulatory i gene of lac operon
(B) Are present between promoters and the
(A) Is inhibited by lacotse
structural genes
(B) Is inhibited by its own product, the repressor
(C) Decrease the expression of some structural
protein
genes
(C) Forms a regulatory protein which increases
(D) Encode specific repressor proteins
the expression of downstream structural genes
376. trans-acting factors include (D) Is constitutively expressed
(A) Promoters (B) Repressors 383. RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to lac
(C) Enhancers (D) Silencers operon at the following site:
377. Enhancer elements have all the following (A) i gene (B) z gene
features except (C) Operator locus (D) Promoter region
(A) They increase gene expression through a 384. Trancription of z, y and a genes of lac
promoter operon is prevented by
(B) Each enhancer activates a specific promoter
(A) Lactose (B) Allo-lactose
(C) They may be located far away from the
(C) Repressor (D) cAMP
promoter
(D) They may be upstream or downstream from 385. Transcription of structural genes of lac
the promoter operon is prevented by binding of the
repressor tetramer to
378. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase
(A) i gene (B) Operator locus
gene may be brought about by
(C) Promoter (D) z gene
(A) High concentrations of folic acid
(B) Deficiency of folic acid 386. The enzymes encoded by z, y and a genes
(C) Low concentration of thymidylate of lac operon are inducible, and their
inducer is
(D) Amethopterin
(A) Lactose
379. Proteins which interact with DNA and
(B) Allo-lactose
affect the rate of transcription possess the
(C) Catabolite gene activator protein
following structural motif:
(D) All of these
(A) Helix-turn-helix motif
(B) Zinc finger motif 387. Binding of RNA polymerase holoenzyme
(C) Leucine zipper motif to the promoter region of lac operon is
facilitated by
(D) All of these
(A) Catabolite gene activator protein (CAP)
380. Lac operon is a cluster of genes present in
(B) cAMP
(A) Human beings (B) E. coli (C) CAP-cAMP complex
(C) Lambda phage (D) All of these (D) None of these
260 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

388. Lactose or its analogues act as positive (B) DNA polymerase I


regulators of lac operon by (C) DNA ligase
(A) Attaching to i gene and preventing its (D) All of these
expression
396. Xeroderma pigmentosum results from a
(B) Increasing the synthesis of catabolite gene defect in
activator protein
(A) uvr ABC excinuclease
(C) Attaching to promoter region and facilitating
(B) DNA polymerase I
the binding of RNA polymerase holoenzyme
(C) DNA ligase
(D) Binding to repressor subunits so that the
repressor cannot attach to the operator locus (D) All of these

389. Expression of structural genes of lac operon 397. All the following statements about
is affected by all the following except xeroderma pigmentosum are true except
(A) Lactose or its analogues (A) It is a genetic disease
(B) Repressor tetramer (B) Its inheritance is autosomal dominant
(C) cAMP (C) uvr ABC excinuclease is defective in this
(D) CAP-cAMP complex disease
(D) It results in multiple skin cancers
390. The coding sequences in lac operon
include 398. Substitution of an adenine base by guanine
(A) i gene in DNA is known as
(B) i gene, operator locus and promoter (A) Transposition (B) Transition
(C) z, y and a genes (C) Transversion (D) Frameshift mutation
(D) i, z, y and a genes
399. Substitution of a thymine base by
391. Mutations can be caused by adenine in DNA is known as
(A) Ultraviolet radiation ((A) Transposition (B) Transition
(B) Ionising radiation (C) Transversion (D) Frameshift mutation
(C) Alkylating agents
400. A point mutation results from
(D) All of these
(A) Substitution of a base
392. Mutations can be caused by
(B) Insertion of a base
(A) Nitrosamine (B) Dimethyl sulphate (C) Deletion of a base
(C) Acridine (D) All of these (D) All of these
393. Nitrosamine can deaminate 401. Substitution of a base can result in a
(A) Cytosine to form uracil (A) Silent mutation (B) Mis-sense mutation
(B) Adenine to form xanthine (C) Nonsense mutation (D) All of these
(C) Guanine to form hypoxanthine
402. A silent mutation is most likely to result from
(D) All of these
(A) Substitution of the first base of a codon
394. Exposure of DNA to ultraviolet radiation (B) Substitution of the third base of a codon
can lead to the formation of (C) Conversion of a nonsense codon into a sense
(A) Adenine dimers (B) Guanine dimers codon
(C) Thymine dimers (D) Uracil dimers (D) Conversion of a sense codon into a nonsense
codon
395. Damage to DNA caused by ultraviolet
radiation can be repaired by 403. The effect of a mis-sense mutation can be
(A) uvr ABC excinuclease (A) Acceptable (B) Partially acceptable
(C) Unacceptable (D) All of these
NUCLEIC ACIDS 261

404. Amino acid sequence of the encoded (B) Change in reading frame of downstream
protein is not changed in structural gene
(A) Silent mutation (C) Decreased efficiency of transcription
(B) Acceptable mis-sense mutation (D) All of these
(C) Both (A) and (B) 412. Mitochondrial protein synthesis is inhibited
(D) None of these by
405. Haemoglobin S is an example of a/an (A) Cycloheximide (B) Chloramphenicol
(C) Diptheria toxin (D) None of these
(A) Silent mutation
(B) Acceptable mis-sense mutation 413. All of the following statements about
(C) Unacceptable mis-sense mutation puromycin are true except
(D) Partially acceptable mis-sense mutation (A) It is an alanyl tRNA analogue
(B) It causes premature termination of protein
406. If the codon UAC on mRNA changes into
synthesis
UAG as a result of a base substitution in
DNA, it will result in (C) It inhibits protein synthesis in prokaryotes
(D) It inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes
(A) Silent mutation
(B) Acceptable mis-sense mutation 414. Leucine zipper motif is seen in some helical
(C) Nonsense mutation proteins when leucine residues appear at
every
(D) Frameshift mutation
(A) 3rd position (B) 5th position
407. Insertion of a base in a gene can cause
(C) 7th position (D) 9th position
(A) Change in reading frame
415. Zinc finger motif is formed in some
(B) Garbled amino acid sequence in the
proteins by binding of zinc to
encoded protein
(A) Two cysteine residues
(C) Premature termination of translation
(B) Two histidine residues
(D) All of these
(C) Two arginine residues
408. A frameshift mutation changes the (D) Two cysteine and two histidine residues or two
reading frame because the genetic code pairs of two cysteine residues each
(A) Is degenerate
416. Restriction endonucleases are present in
(B) Is overlapping
(A) Viruses (B) Bacteria
(C) Has no punctuations
(C) Eukaryotes (D) All of these
(D) Is universal
417. Restriction endonucleases split
409. Suppressor mutations occur in
(A) RNA
(A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions
(B) Single stranded DNA
(C) Silencer elements (D) Anticodons of tRNA
(C) Double stranded DNA
410. Suppressor tRNAs can neutralize the (D) DNA-RNA hybrids
effects of mutations in
418. Restriction endonucleases can recognise
(A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions
(A) Palindromic sequences
(C) Enhancer elements (D) All of these
(B) Chimeric DNA
411. Mutations in promoter regions of genes (C) DNA-RNA hybrids
can cause
(D) Homopolymer sequences
(A) Premature termination of translation
262 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

419. All of the following statements about (A) Southern blotting (B) Northern blotting
restriction endonucleases are true except: (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) They are present in bacteria
427. An antibody probe is used in
(B) They act on double stranded DNA
(A) Southern blotting (B) Northern blotting
(C) They recognize palindromic sequences
(C) Western blotting (D) None of these
(D) They always produce sticky ends
428. A particular protein in a mixture can be
420. Which of the following is a palindromic
detected by
sequence
A) Southern blotting (B) Northern blotting
(A) 5 ATGCAG 3
(C) Western blotting (D) None of these
(B) 3 TACGTC 5
(C) 5 CGAAGC 3 429. The first protein synthesized by recom-
(D) binant DNA technology was
3 GCTTCG 5
(A) Streptokinase
421. In sticky ends produced by restriction
(B) Human growth hormone
endonucleases
(C) Tissue plasminogen activator
(A) The 2 strands of DNA are joined to each other
(D) Human insulin

(B) The DNA strands stick to the restriction 430. For production of eukaryotic protein by
endonuclease recombinant DNA technology in bacteria,
(C) The ends of a double stranded fragment are the template used is
overlapping (A) Eukaryotic gene (B) hnRNA
(D) The ends of a double stranded fragment are (C) mRNA (D) All of these
non overlapping
431. Monoclonal antibodies are prepared by
422. All of the following may be used as ex- cloning
pression vectors except
(A) Myeloma cells (B) Hybridoma cells
(A) Plasmid (B) Bacteriophage (C) T-Lymphocytes (D) B-Lymphocytes
(C) Baculovirus (D) E. coli
432. Myeloma cells are lacking in
423. A plasmid is a
(A) TMP synthetase
(A) Single stranded linear DNA (B) Formyl transferase
(B) Single stranded circular DNA (C) HGPRT
(C) Double stranded linear DNA (D) All of these
(D) Double stranded circular DNA
433. Hybridoma cells are selected by culturing
424. Fragments of DNA can be identified by the them in a medium containing
technique of
(A) Adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine
(A) Western blotting (B) Eastern blotting (B) Adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil
(C) Northern blotting (D) Southern blotting (C) Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymine
425. A particular RNA in a mixture can be (D) Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine
identified by
434. Myeloma cells and lymphocytes can be
(A) Western blotting (B) Eastern blotting fused by using
(C) Northern blotting (D) Southern blotting (A) Calcium chloride (B) Ethidium bromide
426. A radioactive isotope labeled cDNA probe (C) Polyethylene glycol (D) DNA polymerase
is used in
NUCLEIC ACIDS 263

435. Trials for gene therapy in human beings (A) E. coli (B) Yeast
were first carried out, with considerable (C) T.aquaticus (D) Eukaryotes
success, in a genetic disease called
444. Base sequence of DNA can be determined
(A) Cystic fibrosis by
(B) Thalassemia
(A) Maxam-Gilbert method
(C) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(B) Sangers dideoxy method
(D) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(C) Both (A) and (B)
436. Chimeric DNA (D) None of these
(A) Is found in bacteriophages 445. From a DNA-RNA hybrid, DNA can be
(B) Contains unrelated genes obtained by addition of
(C) Has no restriction sites (A) DNA B protein and ATP
(D) Is palindromic (B) Helicase and ATP
437. Which of the following may be used as a (C) DNA topoisomerase I
cloning vector? (D) Alkali
(A) Prokaryotic plasmid (B) Lambda phage 446. Optimum temperature of DNA polymerase
(C) Cosmid (D) All of these of T. aquaticus is
438. The plasmid pBR322 has (A) 30C (B) 37C
(A) Ampicillin resistance gene (C) 54C (D) 72C
(B) Tetracycline resistance gene 447. In addition to Taq polymerase, poly-
(C) Both (A) and (B) merase chain reaction requires all of the
(D) None of these following except

439. Lambda phage can be used to clone DNA (A) A template DNA
fragments of the size (B) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(A) Upto 3 kilobases (B) Upto 20 kilobases (C) Primers
(C) Upto 45 kilobases (D) Upto 1,000 kilobases (D) Primase

440. DNA fragments upto 45 kilobases in size 448. DNA polymerase of T. aquaticus is
can be cloned in preferred to that of E. coli in PCR because
(A) It replicates DNA more efficiently
(A) Bacterial plasmids
(B) It doesnt require primers
(B) Lambda phage
(C) It is not denatured at the melting temperature
(C) Cosmids
of DNA
(D) Yeast artificial chromosomes
(D) It doesnt cause errors in replication
441. A cosmid is a
449. Twenty cycles of PCR can amplify DNA:
(A) Large bacterial plasmid
(A) 220 fold (B) 202 fold
(B) Viral plasmid
(C) 20 x 2 fold (D) 20 fold
(C) Hybrid of plasmid and phage
(D) Yeast plasmid 450. Transgenic animals may be prepared by
introducing a foreign gene into
442. Polymerase chain reaction can rapidly
amplify DNA sequences of the size (A) Somatic cells of young animals
(B) Testes and ovaries of animals
(A) Upto 10 kilobases (B) Upto 45 kilobases
(C) A viral vector and infecting the animals with
(C) Upto 100 kilobases(D) Upto 1,000 kilobases
the viral vector
443. The DNA polymerase commonly used in (D) Fertilised egg and implanting the egg into a
polymerase chain reaction is obtained from foster mother
264 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

451. Yeast artificial chromosome can be used (A) Cysteine (B) Aspartate
to amplify DNA sequences of the size (C) Glutamate (D) All of these
(A) Upto 10 kb (B) Upto 45 kb 459. N-Formiminoglutamate is a metabolite of
(C) Upto 100 kb (D) Upto 1,000 kb
(A) Glutamate (B) Histidine
452. DNA finger printing is based on the (C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine
presence in DNA of
460. Methylmalonyl CoA is a metabolite of
(A) Constant number of tandem repeats
(A) Valine (B) Leucine
(B) Varibale number of tandem repeats
(C) Isoleucine (D) All of these
(C) Non-repititive sequences in each DNA
(D) Introns in eukaryotic DNA 461. Homogentisic acid is formed from
(A) Homoserine (B) Homocysteine
453. All the following statements about
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
restriction fragment length polymor-
phism are true except 462. Maple syrup urine disease results from
(A) It results from mutations in restriction sites absence or serve deficiency of
(B) Mutations in restriction sites can occur in (A) Homogentisate oxidase
coding or non-coding regions of DNA (B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(C) It is inherited in Mendelian fashion (C) Branched chain amino acid transaminase
(D) It can be used to diagnose any genetic (D) None of these
disease
463. Which of the following is present as a
454. Inborn errors of urea cycle can cause all marker in lysosomal enzymes to direct
the following except them to their destination?
(A) Vomiting (B) Ataxia (A) Glucose-6-phosphate
(C) Renal failure (D) Mental retardation (B) Mannose-6-phosphate
(C) Galactose-6-phosphate
455. Hyperammonaemia type I results from (D) N-Acetyl neuraminic acid
congenital absence of
(A) Glutamate dehydrogenase 464. Marfans syndrome results from a
mutation in the gene coding:
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase (A) Collagen (B) Elastin
(D) None of these (C) Fibrillin (D) Keratin

456. Congenital deficiency of ornithine 465. All the following statements about
transcarbamoylase causes fibronectin are true except
(A) Hyperammonaemia type I (A) It is glycoprotein
(B) Hyperammonaemia type II (B) It is a triple helix
(C) Hyperornithinaemia (C) It is present in extra cellular matrix
(D) Citrullinaemia (D) It binds with integrin receptors of cell
457. A ketogenic amino acid among the fol- 466. Fibronectin has binding sites for all of the
lowing is following except
(A) Leucine (B) Serine (A) Glycophorin (B) Collagen
(C) Threonine (D) Proline
(C) Heparin (D) Integrin receptor
458. Carbon skeleton of the following amino
467. Fibronectin is involved in
acid can serve as a substance for
gluconeogenesis (A) Cell adhension (B) Cell movement
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
NUCLEIC ACIDS 265

468. Glycoproteins are marked for destruction 476. All the following statements about proto-
by removal of their oncogenes are true except
(A) Oligosaccharide prosthetic group (A) They are present in human beings
(B) Sialic acid residues (B) They are present in healthy cells
(C) Mannose residues (C) Proteins encoded by them are essential
(D) N-terminal amino acids (D) They are expressed only when a healthy cell
has been transformed into a cancer cell
469. Glycophorin is present in cell membranes of
477. Various oncogens may encode all of the
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Platelets
following except:
(C) Neutrophils (D) Liver
(A) Carcinogens
470. Selectins are proteins that can recognise (B) Growth factors
specific
(C) Receptors for growth factors
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids (D) Signal transducers for growth factors
(C) Amino acids (D) Nucleotides
478. Ras proto-oncogene is converted into
471. Hunters syndrome results from absence of oncogene by
(A) Hexosaminidase A (A) A point mutation
(B) Iduronate sulphatase (B) Chromosomal translocation
(C) Neuraminidase (C) Insertion of a viral promoter upstream of the
(D) Arylsulphatase B gene
(D) Gene amplification
472. A cancer cell is characterized by
(A) Uncontrolled cell division 479. Ras proto-oncogene encodes
(B) Invasion of neighbouring cells (A) Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
(C) Spread to distant sites (B) Receptor for EGF
(D) All of these (C) Signal transducer for EGF
(D) Nuclear transcription factor
473. If DNA of a cancer cell is introduced into a
normal cell, the recipient cell 480. P 53 gene:
(A) Destroys the DNA (A) A proto-oncogene
(B) Loses its ability to divide (B) An oncogene
(C) Dies (C) A tumour suppressor gene
(D) Changes into a cancer cell (D) None of these
474. A normal cell can be transformed into a
481. Retinoblastoma can result from a muta-
cancer cell by all of the following except
tion in
(A) Ionising radiation
(A) ras proto-oncogene
(B) Mutagenic chemicals
(B) erbB proto-oncogene
(C) Oncogenic bacteria
(C) p 53 gene
(D) Some viruses
(D) RB 1 gene
475. Proto-oncogens are present in
482 All the following statements about retino
(A) Oncoviruses
blastoma are true except
(B) Cancer cells
(A) At least two mutations are required for its
(C) Healthy human cells
development
(D) Prokaryotes
(B) One mutation can be inherited from a parent
266 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

(C) Children who have inherited one mutation (B) Amplification of dihydrofolate reducatse gene
develop retinoblastoma at a younger age (C) Mutation in the dihydrofolate reductase gene
(D) RB 1 gene promotes the development of so that the enzyme is no longer inhibited by
retinoblastoma amethopterin
(D) Developing alternate pathway of thymidylate
483. Ames assay is a rapid method for detection
synthesis
of
(A) Oncoviruses 489. The major source of NH3 produced by the
kidney is
(B) Retroviuses
(C) Chemical carcinogens (A) Leucine (B) Glycine
(D) Typhoid (C) Alanine (D) Glutamine

484. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase 490. Which of these methyl donors is not a
gene in a cancer cell makes the cell quanternary ammonium compound?

(A) Susceptible to folic acid deficiency (A) Methionine (B) Choline


(B) Less malignant (C) Betain (D) Betainaldehyde
(C) Resistant to amethopterin therapy 491. L-glutamic acid is subjected to oxidative
(D) Responsive to amethopterin therapy deaminition by
(A) L-amino acid dehydrogenase
485. Conversion of a procarcinogen into a
carcinogen often requires (B) L-glutamate dehydrogenase
(C) Glutaminase
(A) Proteolysis
(D) Glutamine synthetase
(B) Microsomal hydroxylation
(C) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation 492. A prokaryotic ribosome is made up of
(D) Exposure to X-rays ________ sub units.
(A) 20 S and 50 S (B) 30S and 50S
486. The only correct statement about onco-
viruses is (C) 30S and 60S (D) 20S and 50S

(A) All the oncoviruses are RNA viruses 493. AN Eukaryotic ribosome is made up of
________ sub unit.
(B) Reverse transcriptase is present in all
oncoviruses (A) 40S and 60S (B) 40S and 50S
(C) Viral oncogenes are identical to human (C) 40S and 80S (D) 60S and 80 S
protooncogens 494. GTP is not required for
(D) Both DNA and RNA viruses can be (A) Capping L of mRNA
oncoviruses
(B) Fusion of 40S and 60S of ribosome
487. RB 1 gene is (C) Accommodation of tRNA amino acid
(A) A tumour suppressor gene (D) Formation of tRNA amino acid complex
(B) Oncogene 495. The antibiotic which inhibits DNA
(C) Proto-oncogene dependent RNA polymerase is
(D) Activated proto-oncogene (A) Mitomycin C (B) Actinomycin d
(C) Streptomycin (D) Puromycin
488. Cancer cells may become resistant to
amethopterin by 496. The antibiotic which cleaves DNA is
(A) Developing mechanisms to destroy amethopterin (A) Actinomycin d (B) Streptomycin
(C) Puromycin (D) Mitomycin C
NUCLEIC ACIDS 267

497. The antibiotic which has a structure similar 506. Progressive transmethylation of ethano-
to the amino acyl end of tRNA tyrosine is lamine gives
(A) Actinomycin d (B) Streptomycin (A) Creatinine
(C) Puromycin (D) Mitomycin c (B) Choline
498. ATP is required for (C) Methionine
(D) N-methyl nicotinamide
(A) Fusion of 40S and 60 S of ribosome
(B) Accommodation tRNA amino acid in a site of 507. Genetic information originates from
ribosome (A) Cistron of DNA
(C) Movement of ribosome along mRNA (B) Codons of mRNA
(D) formation of tRNA amino acid complex (C) Anticodons of tRNA
499. What is the subcellular site for the bio- (D) Histones of nucleoproteins
synthesis of proteins?
508. The genetic code operates through
(A) Chromosomes (B) Lymosomes
(A) The protein moiety of DNA
(C) Ribosomes (D) Centrosomes
(B) Cistrom of DNA
500. An animal is in negative nitrogen balance (C) Nucleotide sequence of m RNA
when (D) The anticodons of tRNA
(A) Intake exceeds output
509. DNA synthesis in laboratory was first
(B) New tissue is being synthesized
achieved by
(C) Output exceeds intake
(A) Watson and crick (B) Khorana
(D) Intake is equal to output
(C) A.Kornberg (D) Ochoa
501. When NH3 is perfused through a dogs
liver ______ is formed, while ______ is 510. Among the different types of RNA, which
formed in the birds liver. one has the highest M.W.?
(A) Urea, Uric acid (B) Urea, allantoin (A) mRNA (B) rRNA
(C) Uric acid, creatinine (C) yeast RNA (D) tRNA
(D) Uric acid, Urea 511. From DNA the genetic message is trans-
502. Aspartate amino transferase uses the cribed into this compound:
following for transamination: (A) Protein (B) mRNA
(A) Glutamic acid and pyruvic acid (C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(B) Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid
512. This compound has a double helical
(C) Aspartic acid and pyruvic acid
structure.
(D) aspartic acid and keto adipic acid
(A) Deoxyribonucleic acid
503. Which among the following compounds
is not a protein? (B) RNA
(C) Flavine-adevine dinucleotide
(A) Insulin (B) Hheparin
(C) Mucin (D) Pepsin (D) Nicotinamide adamine dinucleotide

504. Almost all the urea is formed in this tissue: 513. The structural stability of the double helix
of DNA is as cribbed largely to
(A) Kidney (B) Urethra
(C) Uterus (D) Liver (A) Hydrogen bonding between adjacent purine
bases
505. A polyribosome will have about _______
(B) Hydrophobic bonding between staked purine
individual ribosomes.
and pyrinuidine nuclei
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 2
268 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

(C) Hydrogen bonding between adjacent 520. Which of the following contains a deoxy
pyrimidine bases sugar?
(E) Hydrogen bonding between purine and (A) RNA (B) DNA
pyrimidine bases (C) ATP (D) UTP
514. Which of the following statements about 521. DNA is
nucleic acid is most correct?
(A) Usually present in tissues as a nucleo protein
(A) Both pentose nucleic acid and deoxypentose and cannot be separated from its protein
nucleic acid contain the same pyrimidines component
(B) Both pentose nucleic acid and deoxypentose (B) A long chain polymer in which the
nucleic acid and deoxypentose nucleic acid internucleotide linkages are of the diester type
Contain the same purines between C-3 and C-5
(C) RNA contains cytosine and thymine (C) Different from RNA since in the latter the
(D) DNA and RNA are hydrolysed by weak alkali internucleotide linkages are between C-2 and
C-5
515. Acid hydrolysis of ribonucleic acid would (D) Hydrolyzed by weal alkali (pH9 to 100C)
yield the following major products:
522. Nobody is the name given to
(A) d- deoxyribose, cytosine, adenine
(A) Ribosome (B) Microsome
(B) d-ribose, thymine, Guanine
(C) Centrosome (D) Nucleosome
(C) d-ribose, cytosine, uracil, thymine
(D) d-ribose, uracil, adenine, guanine, cytosine 523. Transcription is the formation of

516. RNA does not contain (A) DNA from a parent DNA
(B) mRNA from a parent mRNA
(A) adenine (B) OH methyl cytosine
(C) pre mRNA from DNA
(C) d-ribose (D) Uracil
(D) protein through mRNA
517. Which of the following statements is
524. Translation is the formation of
correct?
(A) DNA from DNA
(A) a nucleo protein usually contain deoxy sugars
of the hexose type (B) mRNA from DNA
(B) Nucleoproteins are usually absent from the (C) Protein through mRNA
cytoplasm (D) mRNA from pre mRNA
(C) Nucleoproteins usually are present in the 525. Sigma and Rho factors are required for
nucleus only
(A) Replication (B) Transcription
(D) Nucleoproteins usually occur in the nucleus
and cytoplasm (C) Translation (D) Polymerisation

518. Whcih of the following compound is 526. The genine of 174 bacteriophage is
present in RNA but absent from DNA? interesting in that if contains
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine (A) No DNA
(C) Uracil (D) Guanine (B) DNA with uracil
(C) Single stranded DNA
519. Nucleic acids can be detected by means
of their absorption maxima near 260 nm. (D) Triple standard DNA
Their absorption in this range is due to 527. Okasaki fragments are small bits of
(A) Proteins (A) RNA
(B) Purines and pyrimidines (B) DNA
(C) Ribose (C) DNA with RNA heads
(D) Deoxyribose (D) RNA with DNA heads
NUCLEIC ACIDS 269

528. In addition to the DNA of nucleus there Q536. RNA synthesis requires
DNA is
(A) RNA primer (B) RNA template
(A) Mitochondrian (C) DNA template (D) DNA primer
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Golgi apparatus 537. The mRNA ready for protein synthesis has
(D) Plasma membrane the ________ cap.
(A) ATP (B) CTP
529. The mitochondrial DNA is
(C) GTP (D) UTP
(A) Like the nuclear DNA in structure
(B) Single stranded, linear 538. mRNA ready for protein synthesis has the
(C) Double stranded, circular poly _______ toil.
(D) Single stranded, circular (A) G (B) A
530. A synthetic RNA having the sequence of (C) U (D) C
UUUUUU (Poly U) will give a protein
539. The codon for phenyl Alanine is
having poly ______.
(A) Alamine (B) Phenyl alanine (A) AAA (B) CCC
(C) Glycine (D) Methionine (C) GGG (D) UUU

531. Lac operon of E. coli contains _______ is 540. Blue print for genetic information residues
continuity. in
(A) Regulator and operator genes only (A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(B) Operator and structural genes only (C) rRNA (D) DNA
(C) Regular and structural genes only
541. Genes are
(D) Regulator, operator and structural genes
(A) RNA (B) DNA
532. A mRNA of eukaryotes can code for
(C) lipoproteins and (D) Chromoproteins
(A) Only one polypeptide
(B) Two polypeptides 542. Codons are in
(C) Three polypeptides (A) DNA (B) mRNA
(D) Five polypeptides (C) tRNA (D) rRNA
533. mRNA of prokaryotes can code for 543. The genetic code operates via
(A) More than one polypeptide (A) The protein moiety of DNA
(B) Only one polypeptide (B) The base sequences of DNA
(C) Many exons and introns
(C) The nucleotide sequence of mRNA
(D) Introns only
(D) The base sequence of tRNA
534. DNA directed RNA polymerase is
544. Urine bases with methyl substituents
(A) Replicase occurring in plants are
(B) Transcriptase
(A) Caffeine (B) Theophylline
(C) Reverse transcriptase
(C) Theobromine (D) All of these
(D) Polymerase III
535. RNA directed DNA polymerase is 545. Genetic information in human beings is
stored in
(A) Replicase
(B) Transcriptase (A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) Reversetranscriptase (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) PolymeraseIII
270 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

546. All following are naturally occurring (A) Deoxyribose (B) Uracil
nucleotides except (C) Adenine (D) Thymine
(A) Cyclic AMP 555. Which of the following are nucleo proteins?
(B) ATP
(A) Protamines
(C) DNA
(B) Histones
(D) Inosine monophosphate
(C) Deoxy and Ribo nucleo proteins
547. If the amino group and a carboxylic (D) All of these
group of the amino acid are attached to
same carbon atom, the amino acid is 556. The total RNA in cell tRNA constitutes
called as (A) 110% (B) 1020%
(A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) 3050% (D) 5080%
(C) Gamma (D) Epsilon 557. Unit of genetic information:
548. If in a nucleic acid there are more than (A) DNA (B) RNA
8000 nucleotides it is most likely (C) Cistron (D) None of these
(A) RNA (B) DNA 558. Anticodon sequence are seen in
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) tRNA and transcribed DNA strand
549. Genetic information in human beings is (B) tRNA and complementary DNA strand
stored in (C) mRNA
(A) RNA (B) DNA (D) mRNA and complementary DNA strand
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) mRNA
559. cAMD is destroyed by
550. In RNA, apart from ribose and phosphate, (A) Adenylate cyclase
all following are present except (B) Phosphodiesterase
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Synthetase phosphatase
(C) Thymine (D) Cytosine (D) Synthetase kinase
551. Which of the following gives a positive 560. Restriction enzymes have been found in
Ninhydrin test? (A) Humans (B) Birds
(A) Reducing sugar (B) Triglycerides (C) Bacteria (D) Bacteriophase
(C) -amino acids (D) Phospholipids
561. Sulphur is not present in
552. A Gene is (A) Thiamine (B) Lipic acid
(A) A single protein molecule (C) Thymine (D) Biotin
(B) A group of chromosomes 562. Which one of the following binds to
(C) An instruction for making a protein molecule specific nucleotide sequences?
(D) A bit of DNA molecule (A) RNA polymerase (B) Repressor
553. In DNA, genetic information is located in (C) Inducer (D) Restriction

(A) Purine bases 563. Using written convertion which one of the
following sequences is complimentary to
(B) Pyrimidine bases
TGGCAGCCT?
(C) Purine and pyrimidine bases
(A) ACC GTC GGA (B) ACC GUC GGA
(D) sugar
(C) AGG CTG CCA (D) TGG CTC GGA
554. Which one of the following is not a
564. Ribosomes similar to those of bacterial
constituent of RNA?
found in
NUCLEIC ACIDS 271

(A) Plant nucei (A) Ribose 5 phosphate


(B) Cardiac muscle cytoplasm (B) Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
(C) Liver endoplasmic reticulum (C) Hypoxanthine
(D) Neuronal cytoplasm (D) Adenosine
565 The mechanism of synthesis of DNA and 572. Carbon 6-of purine skeleton comes from
RNA are similar in all the following ways (A) Atmospheric CO2
except
(B) 1 carbon carried by folate
(A) They involve release of pyrophosphate from (C) Betoine
each nucleotide added
(D) Methionine
(B) They require activated nucleotide precursor
and Mg2+ 573. Uric acid is the catabolic end product of
(C) The direction of synthesis is 5 3 (A) Porphyrine (B) Purines
(D) They require a primer (C) Pyrimidines (D) Pyridoxine
566. Template-directed DNA synthesis occurs in 574. Diphenylamine method is employed in the
all the following except quantitation of
(A) The replication fork (A) Nucleic acid (B) RNA
(B) Polymerase chain reaction (C) DNA (D) Proteins
(C) Growth of RNA tumor viruses
575. Orcinol method is employed in the quanti-
(D) Expression of oneogenes tation of
567. Which one of the following statements (A) Nucleic acid (B) DNA
correctly describes eukaryotic DNA? (C) RNA (D) Proteins
(A) They involve release of pyrophosphate from
576. Nucleic acid show strong absorption at
each nucleotide precussor and Mg2+
one of the wavelength:
(B) The direction of synthesis is
(A) 280 nm (B) 220 nm
(C) They require a primer 5 3
(C) 360 nm (D) 260 nm
(D) None of these
577. tRNA has
568. Which one of the following causes frame
shift mutation? (A) Clover leaf structure
(B) anticodon arm
(A) Transition
(C) poly A tay 3
(B) Transversion
(D) Cap at 5 end
(C) Deletion
(D) Substitution of purine to pyrimidine 578. Which one of the following contributes
nitrogen atoms to both purine and
569. Catabolism of thymidylate gives pyrimidine rings?
(A) -alanine (A) Aspartate
(B) -alanine (B) Carbanoyl phosphate
(C) -aminoisobutyrate (C) Carbondioxide
(D) -aminoisobutyrate (D) Tetrahydrofolate
570. Glycine gives __________ atoms of purine. 579. The four nitrogen atoms of purines are
(A) C2, C3 (B) C4, C5 and N7 derived from
(C) C4, C5 and N9 (D) C4, C6 and N7 (A) Urea and NH3
(B) NH3, Glycine and Glutamate
571. A common substrate of HGPRTase, APRTase
and PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase is (C) NH3, Asparate and Glutamate
(D) Aspartate, Glutamine and Glycine
272 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

580. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis (A) Glutamine and Carbamoyl-p
by inhibiting the enzyme Xanthine oxi- (B) Asparate and Carbamoyl-p
dase is (C) Glutamate and NH3
(A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinal (D) Glutamine and NH3
(C) Colchicine (D) Phenyl benzoate
589. All are true about lesch-nyhan syndrome
581. Glycine contributes to the following C and except
N of purine nucleus: (A) Produces self-mutilation
(A) C1, C2 and N7 (B) C8, C8 and N9 (B) Genetic deficiency of the enzyme
(C) C4, C5 and N7 (D) C4, C5 and N9 (C) Elevated levels of uric acid in blood
(D) Inheritance is autosomal recessive
582. Insoinic acid is the biological precursor of
(A) Cytosine and Uric acid 590. Synthesis of GMP and IMP requires the
following:
(B) Adenylve acid and Glucine floc acid
(A) NH3 NAD+, ATP
(C) Orotic acid and Uridylic acid
(B) Glutamine, NAD+, ATP
(D) Adenosine acid Thymidine
(C) NH3, GTP, NADP+
583. The probable metabolic defect in gents is (D) Glutamine, GTP, NADP+
(A) A defect in excretion of uric acid by kidney
591. Which pathway is correct for catabolism
(B) An overproduction of pyrimidines of purines to form uric acid?
(C) An overproduction of uric acid
(A) GuanylateAdenylateXanthinehypo-
(D) Rise in calcium leading to deposition of calcium xanthineUric acid
urate
(B) GuanylateinosinateXanthinehypo-
584. In humans, the principal break down xanthineUric acid
product of purines is (C) AdenylateInosinateXanthine hypo-
(A) NH3 (B) Allantin xanthineUric acid
(C) Alanine (D) Uric acid (D) AdenylateInosinatehypoxanthine
XanthineUric acid
585. A key substance in the committed step of
pyrimidines biosynthesis is 592. Polysemes do not contain
(A) Ribose-5-phosphate (A) Protein (B) DNA
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate (C) mRNA (D) rRNA
(C) ATP
(D) Glutamine 593. The formation of a peptide bond during
the elongation step of protein synthesis
586. In humans, the principal metabolic results in the splitting of how many high
product of pyrimidines is energy bonds?
(A) Uric acid (B) Allantoin
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) Hypoxanthine (D) -alanine
(C) 3 (D) 4
587. In most mammals, except primates, uric
acid is metabolized by 594. Translocase is an enzyme required in the
process of
(A) Oxidation to allantoin
(B) Reduction to NH3 (A) DNA replication
(C) Hydrolysis to allantoin (B) RNA synthesis
(D) Hydrolysis to NH3 (C) Initiation of protein synthesis
(D) Elongation of peptides
588. Two nitrogen of the pyrimidines ring are
obtained from 595. Nonsense codons bring about
NUCLEIC ACIDS 273

(A) Amino acid activation (D) Multiple codons for a single amino acid
(B) Initiation of protein synthesis
603. The normal function of restriction endonuc-
(C) Termination of protein synthesis leases is to
(D) Elongation of polypeptide chains
(A) Excise introns from hrRNA
596. Which of the following genes of the E.coli (B) Polymerize nucleotides to form RNA
Lac operon codes for a constitutive
(C) Remove primer from okazaki fragments
protein?
(D) Protect bacteria from foreign DNA
(A) The a gene (B) The i gene
(C) The c gene (D) The z gene 604. In contrast to Eukaryotic mRNA, pro-
karyotic mRNA is characterized by
597. In the process of transcription, the flow
(A) Having 7-methyl guanosine triphosphate at
of genetic information is from
the 5 end
(A) DNA to DNA (B) DNA to protein
(B) Being polycystronic
(C) RNA to protein (D) DNA to RNA
(C) Being only monocystronic
598. The anticodon region is an important part (D) Being synthesized with introns
of the structure of
605. DNA ligase of E. coli requires which of the
(A) rRNA (B) tRNA
following co-factors?
(C) mRNA (D) hrRNA
(A) FAD (B) NAD+
599. The region of the Lac operon which must (C) NADP+ (D) NADH
be free from structural gene transcription
to occur is 606. Which of the following is transcribed
during repression?
(A) The operator locus
(B) The promoter site (A) Structural gene (B) Promoter gene
(C) The a gene (C) Regulator gene (D) Operator gene
(D) The i gene 607. mRNA is complementary copy of
600. Another name for reverse transcriptase is (A) 5-3 strand of DNA+
(A) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (B) 3-5 strand of DNA
(C) Antisense strand of DNA
(B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(D) tRNA
(C) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 608. Synthesis of RNA molecule is terminated
by a signal which is recognised by
601. In the lac operon concept, which of the
(A) -factor (B) -factor
following is a protein?
(C) -factor (D)
(A) Operator (B) Repressor
609. The binding of prokaryotic DNA depen-
(C) Inducer (D) Vector
dent RNA polymerase to promoter sits of
602. Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes genes is inhibited by the antibiotic:
the existence of (A) Streptomycin (B) Rifamcin
(A) Base triplets that do not code for any amino (C) Aueromycin (D) Puromycin
acids 610. In E. coli the chain initiating amino acid in
(B) Codons consisting of only two bases protein synthesis is
(C) Codons that include one or more of the (A) N-formyl methionine(B) Methionine
unusual bases (C) Serine (D) Cysteine
274 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

611. Amanitin the mushroom poison inhibits upstream and most distant from the start
(A) Glycoprotein synthesis site?
(B) ATP synthesis (A) RNA polymerase (B) Repressor
(C) DNA synthesis (C) Inducer (D) Restriction
(D) mRNA synthesis 618. Using written convention which one of the
612. How many high-energy phosphate bond following sequences is complimentary to
equivalents are required for amino acid TGGCAGCCT?
activation in protein synthesis? (A) ACCGTCGGA (B) ACCGUCGGA
(A) One (B) Two (C) AGGCTGCCA (D) TGGCTCGGA
(C) Three (D) Four 619. Ribosomes similar to those of bacteria
613. Translation results in the formation of found in
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA (A) Plant nuclei
(C) rRNA (D) A protein molecule (B) Cardiac muscle cytoplasm
(C) Liver endoplasmic reticulum
614. Elongation of a peptide chain involves all
the following except (D) Neuronal cytoplasm

(A) mRNA (B) GTP 620. The mechanism of synthesis of DNA and
(C) Formyl-Met-tRNA (D) Tu, TS and G factors RNA are similar to all the following ways
except
) factor is involved
615. The rho (
(A) They involve release of pyrophosphate from
(A) To increase the rate of RNA synthesis each nucleotide added
(B) In binding catabolite repressor to the promoter (B) They require activated nucleotide precursor
region and Mg2+
(C) In proper termination of transcription (C) The direction of synthesis is
(D) To allow proper initiation of transcriptide (D) They require a primer
616. In the biosynthesis of c-DNA, the joining 621. Template-directed DNA synthesis occurs in
enzyme ligase requires all the following except
(A) GTP (B) ATP (A) The replication fork
(C) CTP (D) UTP (B) Polymerase chain reaction
617. Which one of the following binds to (C) Growth of RNA tumor viruses
specific nucleotide sequences that are (D) Expression of oncogenes
NUCLEIC ACIDS 275

ANSWERS
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C
7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A
13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. C
19. A 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. D
25. C 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C
37. C 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. C
43. B 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. C
49. B 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. B 54. D
55. D 56. A 57. D 58. A 59. A 60. D
61. B 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. A 66. A
67. A 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. A
73. C 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. C 78. D
79. B 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. A 84. A
85. A 86. D 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. C
91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. A
97. B 98. B 99. D 100. A 101. B 102. A
103. B 104. B 105. A 106. B 107. C 108. A
109. D 110. C 111. D 112. A 113. B 114. A
115. B 116. A 117. D 118. A 119. A 120. C
121. A 122. D 123. B 124. C 125. A 126. A
127. D 128. C 129. A 130. A 131. B 132. B
133. D 134. A 135. A 136. D 137. B 138. B
139. A 140. D 141. B 142. D 143. C 144. B
145. D 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. D 150. D
151. D 152. A 153. C 154. A 155. B 156. C
157. B 158. A 159. A 160. A 161. C 162. C
163. C 164. C 165. D 166. C 167. A 168. C
169. C 170. D 171. B 172. B 173. C 174. D
175. D 176. A 177. B 178. D 179. D 180. C
181. B 182. B 183. C 184. B 185. A 186. D
187. B 188. C 189. D 190. A 191. B 192. C
193. A 194. D 195. D 196. A 197. D 198. C
199. A 200. C 201. D 202. C 203. B 204. D
205. C 206. D 207. B 208. C 209. C 210. D
211. B 212. C 213. D 214. C 215. B 216. B
217. D 218. B 219. D 220. A 221. A 222. D
223. A 224. C 225. A 226. B 227. C 228. C
229. D 230. B 231. C 232. A 233. C 234. A
235. B 236. A 237. C 238. C 239. D 240. D
241. B 242. C 243. D 244. C 245. C 246. B
247. A 248. C 249. A 250. D 251. A 252. C
276 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

253. D 254. D 255. C 256. C 257. C 258. D


259. D 260. A 261. B 262. B 263. A 264. A
265. C 266. D 267. B 268. C 269. B 270. D
271. C 272. B 273. A 274. C 275. A 276. C
277. A 278. B 279. C 280. C 281. D 282. D
283. C 284. D 285. C 286. B 287. A 288. A
289. D 290. B 291. B 292. C 293. B 294. A
295. C 296. A 297. D 298. C 299. C 300. D
301. B 302. C 303. B 304. A 305. C 306. D
307. D 308. B 309. B 310. C 311. A 312. C
313. A 314. B 315. B 316. A 317. A 318. D
319. D 320. A 321. C 322. C 323. C 324. C
325. A 326. D 327. A 328. B 329. C 330. D
331. C 332. B 333. A 334. D 335. D 336. C
337. A 338. C 339. C 340. C 341. C 342. D
343. A 344. A 345. B 346. D 347. C 348. B
349. B 350. D 351. A 352. B 353. D 354. C
355. A 356. B 357. D 358. A 359. D 360. B
361. B 362. A 363. A 364. C 365. C 366. C
367. D 368. D 369. B 370. B 371. B 372. C
373. B 374. D 375. C 376. B 377. B 378. D
379. D 380. B 381. D 382. D 383. D 384. C
385. B 386. B 387. C 388. D 389. C 390. D
391. C 392. D 393. A 394. C 395. D 396. A
397. B 398. B 399. C 400. A 401. D 402. B
403. D 404. A 405. D 406. C 407. D 408. C
409. D 410. A 411. C 412. B 413. A 414. C
415. D 416. B 417. C 418. A 419. D 420. C
421. C 422. D 423. D 424. D 425. C 426. C
427. C 428. C 429. D 430. C 431. B 432. C
433. D 434. C 435. C 436. B 437. D 438. C
439. B 440. C 441. C 442. A 443. C 444. C
445. D 446. D 447. D 448. C 449. A 450. D
451. D 452. B 453. D 454. D 455. B 456. C
457. A 458. D 459. B 460. A 461. C 462. D
463. C 464. B 465. A 466. C 467. B 468. D
469. A 470. A 471. B 472. D 473. D 474. C
475. C 476. D 477.A 478. A 479. C 480. C
481. D 482. D 483. C 484. C 485. B 486. D
487. A 488. B 489. D 490. A 491. B 492. B
493. A 494. D 495. B 496. D 497. C 498. D
499. C 500. C 501. A 502. B 503. D 504. D
505. C 506. C 507. A 508. C 509. C 510. B
NUCLEIC ACIDS 277

511. B 512. A 513. D 514. B 515. D 516. B


517. D 518. C 519. B 520. B 521. B 522. C
523. C 524. B 525. C 526. C 527. C 528. A
529. C 530. B 531. D 532. A 533. A 534. B
535. C 536. C 537. C 538. B 539. D 540. D
541. B 542. B 543. C 544. D 545. A 546. C
547. A 548. B 549. B 550. C 551. C 552. D
553. C 554. A 555. D 556. B 557. C 558. A
559. B 560. C 561. C 562. A 563. A 564. A
565. A 566. C 567. C 568. C 569. D 570. B
571. B 572. A 573. A 574. C 575. C 576. D
577. A 578. A 579. D 580. B 581. C 582. B
583. C 584. D 585. B 586. D 587. A 588. B
589. B 590. B 591. D 592. B 593. B 594. D
595. C 596. B 597. D 598. B 599. A 600. C
601. B 602. B 603. D 604. A 605. B 606. C
607. B 608. D 609. B 610. A 611. D 612. B
613. D 614. C 615. C 616. B 617. A 618. A
619. A 620. D 621. C
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CHAPTER 10

WATER & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE


LECTROLYTE

1. The total body water in various subjects 7. The fluid present in bones which can not
is relatively constant when expressed as be exchanged readily because of relative
percentage of the lean body mass and is avascularity is about
about
(A) 20 ml/kg (B) 25 ml/kg
(A). 30% (B) 40%
(C) 45 ml/kg (D) 60 ml/kg
(C) 50% (D) 70%
2.. The percentage of water contained in the 8. Water derived in gm from complete
body of an individual is less because of oxidation of each gm of carbohydrate is
about
(A) High fat content (B) Low fat content
(C) High protein content(D) Low protein content (A) 0.15 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.35 (D) 0.55
3. In intracellular compartment the fluid
present in ml/kg body weight is about 9. The oxidation of 100 gm of fat yields
(A) 100 (B) 200 (A) 50 gm water (B) 107 gm water
(C) 200 (D) 330
(C) 150 gm water (D) 200 gm water
4. In extra cellular compartment, the fluid
10. Each gm of protein on complete oxidation
present in ml/kg of body weight is about
yields
(A) 120 (B) 220
(C) 270 (D) 330 (A) 0.21 gm water (B) 0.31 gm water
(C) 0.41 gm water (D) 0.51 gm water
5. Fluid present in dense connective tissue
and cartilage in ml/kg body weight is 11. The daily total body water derived from
about oxidation of food stuffs is about
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 100 ml (B) 300 ml
(C) 45 (D) 55 (C) 600 ml (D) 1000 ml
6. The total body water in ml/kg body
12. The daily water allowance for normal
weight in average normal young adult
male is about infant is about

(A) 200 (B) 400 (A) 100200 ml (B) 250300 ml


(C) 600 (D) 1000 (C) 3301000 ml (D) 10002000 ml
280 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

13. The daily water allowance for normal 22. Minimum excretory urinary volume for
adult (60 kg) is about waste products elimination during 24 hrs
(A) 200600 ml (B) 500800 ml is
(C) 8001500 ml (D) 18002500 ml (A) 200300 ml (B) 200400 ml
(C) 500600 ml (D) 800 ml
14. Insensible loss of body water of normal
adult is about 23. In primary dehydration
(A) 50100 ml (B) 100200 ml (A) Intracellular fluid volume is reduced
(C) 300500 ml (D) 6001000 ml (B) Intracellular fluid volume remains normal
(C) Extracellular fluid volume is much reduced
15. The predominant cation of plasma is
(D) Extracellular fluid volume is much increased
(A) Na+ (B) K +
(C) Ca +
(D) Mg ++ 24. An important cause of secondary dehy-
dration is
16. The predominant action of plasma is
(A) Dysphagia
(A) HCO3 (B) Cl
(B) Oesophageal varices
(C) HPO4 (D) SO4
(C) Oesophageal varices
17. Vasopressin (ADH) (D) Gastroenteritis
(A) Enhance facultative reabsorption of water 25. Important finding of secondary dehydra-
(B) Decreases reabsorption of water tion is
(C) Increases excretion of calcium (A) Intracellular oedema
(D) Decreases excretion of calcium (B) Cellular dehydration
18. Enhanced facultative reabsorption of (C) Thirst
water by Vasopressin is mediated by (D) Muscle cramps
++
(A) Cyclic AMP (B) Ca 26. Urine examination in secondary dehy-
(C) Cyclic GMP (D) Mg ++ dration shows
19. Action of kinins is to (A) Ketonuria
(A) Increase salt excretion (B) Low specific gravity
(B) Decrease salt retention (C) High specific gravity
(C) Decrease water retention (D) Albuminuria
(D) Increase both salt and water excretion 27. The total calcium of the human body is
about
20. The activity of kinins is modulated by
(A) 100150 g (B) 200300 g
(A) Prostaglandins
(C) 11.5 kg (D) 23 kg
(B) Ca++
(C) Increased cAMP level 28. Daily requirement of calcium for normal
(D) Increased cGMP level adult human is
(A) 100 mg (B) 800 mg
21. An important cause of water intoxication
is (C) 2 g (D) 4 g

(A) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 29. Normal total serum calcium level varies
(B) Renal failure between
(C) Gastroenteritis (A) 45 mg (B) 911 mg
(D) Fanconi syndrome (C) 1520 mg (D) 50100 mg
WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 281

30. The element needed in quantities greater 39. In serum product of Ca x p (in mg/100ml)
than 100 mg for human beings is in children is normally
(A) Calcium (B) Zinc (A) 20 (B) 30
(C) Selenium (D) Cobalt (C) 50 (D) 60
31. The mineral present in the human body 40. In ricket, the product of Ca x p (in mg/
in larger amounts than any other cation 100 ml) in serum is below
is
(A) 30 (B) 50
(A) Sodium (B) Calcium (C) 70 (D) 100
(C) Potassium (D) Iron
41. In man, the amount of calcium in gms
32. The percentage of the total body calcium filtered in 24 hrs period by the renal
present in bones is glomeruli is
(A) 1 (B) 11 (A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 55 (D) 99 (C) 15 (D) 20
33. The percentage of calcium present in 42. The percentage of the calcium eliminated
extracellular fluid is in feces is
(A) 1 (B) 5 (A) 1020 (B) 3040
(C) 10 (D) 50 (C) 5060 (D) 7090

34. The physiologically active form of calcium 43. The maximal renal tubular reabsorptive
is capacity for calcium (Tmca) in mg/min is
about
(A) Protein bond
(B) Ionised (A) 1.5 0.1 (B) 4.99 0.21
(C) Complexed with citrate (C) 5.5 1.2 (D) 10.2 2.2
(D) Complexed with carbonate
44. Renal ricket is caused by renal tubular
35. The normal concentration of calcium in defect (usually inherited) which interferes
C.S.F is with reabsorption of
(A) 1.52.5 mg/100 ml (A) Calcium (B) Phosphorous
(B) 2.54 mg/100 ml (C) Sodium (D) Chloride
(C) 4.55 mg/100 ml 45. After operative removal of the parathy-
(D) 910 mg/100 ml roid glands resulting into hypoparathy-
roidism the concentration of the serum
36. Absorption of calcium is increased on a
calcium may drop below
(A) High protein diet (B) Low protein diet
(A) 11 mg (B) 10 mg
(C) High fat diet (D) Low fat diet
(C) 9 mg (D) 7 mg
37. Calcium absorption is interfered by
46. One of the principal cations of soft tissue
(A) Protein in diet and body fluids is
(B) Phytic acid in cereals (A) Mg (B) S
(C) Alkaline intestinal pH (C) Mn (D) Co
(D) Vitamin D
47. The normal concentration of magnesium
38. Calcium absorption is increased by in whole blood is
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin C (A) 01 mg/100 ml (B) 12 mg/100 ml
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E (C) 24 mg/100 ml (D) 48 mg/100 ml
282 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

48. The normal concentration of magnesium 57. Hypernatremia may occur in


in C.S.F is about (A) Diabetes insipidus
(A) 1 mg/100 ml (B) 3 mg/100 ml (B) Diuretic medication
(C) 5 mg/100 ml (D) 8 mg/100 ml (C) Heavy sweating
49. The magnesium content of muscle is about (D) Kidney disease
(A) 5 mg/100 ml (B) 10 mg/100 ml 58. The metabolism of sodium is regulated by
(C) 21 mg/100 ml (D) 50 mg/100 ml the hormone:

50. Intestinal absorption of magnesium is (A) Insulin (B) Aldosterone


increased in (C) PTH (D) Somatostatin
(A) Calcium deficient diet 59. The principal cation in intracellular fluid
(B) High calcium diet is
(C) High oxalate diet (A) Sodium (B) Potassium
(D) High phytate diet (C) Calcium (D) Magnesium
51. Deficiency of magnesium may occur with 60. The normal concentration of potassium in
(A) Alcoholism whole blood is
(B) Diabetes mellitus (A) 50 mg/100 ml (B) 100 mg/100 ml
(C) Hypothyroidism (C) 150 mg/100 ml (D) 200 mg/100 ml
(D) Advanced renal failure
61. The normal concentration of potassium in
52. Hypermagnesemia may be observed in human plasma in meq/I is about
(A) Hyperparathyroidism (A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Diabetes mellitus (C) 3 (D) 5
(C) Kwashiorkar
62. The normal concentration of potassium in
(D) Primary aldosteronism cells in ng/100 ml is about
53. Na+/K+-ATPase along with ATP requires (A) 100 (B) 200
(A) Ca (B) Mn (C) 350 (D) 440
(C) Mg (D) Cl 63. Potassium content of nerve tissue in mg/
54. The principal cation in extracellular fluid 100 ml is about
is (A) 200 (B) 330
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) 400 (D) 530
(C) Calcium (D) Magnesium 64. Potassium content of muscle tissue in
55. The normal concentration of sodium (in mg/100 ml is about
mg/100 ml) of human plasma is (A) 50100 (B) 100150
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 250400 (D) 150200
(C) 250 (D) 330
65. One of the symptoms of low serum
56. A decrease in serum sodium may occur in potassium concentration includes
(A) Adrenocortical insufficiency (A) Muscle weakness
(B) Hypoparathyroidism (B) Confusion
(C) Hyperparathyroidism (C) Numbness
(D) Thyrotoxicosis (D) Tingling of extremities
WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 283

66. Potassium metabolism is regulated by the 75. The exclusive function of iron in the body
hormone: is confined to the process of
(A) Aldosterone (B) PTH (A) Muscular contraction
(C) Somatostatin (D) Estrogen (B) Nerve excitation
67. A high serum potassium, accompanied by (C) Cellular respiration
a high intracellular potassium occurs in (D) Blood coagulation
(A) Adrenal insufficiency 76. The normal pH of the blood is
(B) Any illness
(A) 7.0 (B) 7.1
(C) Gastrointestinal losses
(C) 7.2 (D) 7.4
(D) Cushings syndrome
77. The normal concentration of bicarbonate
68. Hypokalemia occurs in
in blood is
(A) Cushings syndrome
(A) 21 meq/L (B) 24 meq/L
(B) Addisons disease
(C) 26 meq/L (D) 30 meq/L
(C) Renal failure
(D) Advanced dehydration 78. At the pH of blood 7.4, the ratio between
the carbonic acid and bicarbonate
69. Cardiac arrest may occur due to over
fractions is
doses of
(A) 1 : 10 (B) 1 : 20
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium
(C) 1 : 30 (D) 1 : 40
(C) Zinc (D) Magnesium
79. A 0.22 M solution of lactic acid (pKa 3.9)
70. The normal concentration of chloride in
was found to contain 0.20 M in the disso-
mg/100 ml of whole blood is about
ciated form and 0.02 M undissociated
(A) 200 (B) 250 form, the pH of the solution is
(C) 400 (D) 450
(A) 2.9 (B) 3.3
71. The normal concentration of chloride in (C) 4.9 (D) 5.4
mg/100 ml of plasma is about
80. Important buffer system of extracellular
(A) 100 (B) 200
fluid is
(C) 365 (D) 450
(A) Bicarbonate/carbonic acid
72. The normal concentration of chlorine in
(B) Disodium hydrogen phosphate/sodium
mg/100 ml of C.S.F is about
dihydrogen phosphate
(A) 200 (B) 250 (C) Plasma proteins
(C) 300 (D) 440 (D) Organic Phosphate
73. Hypokalemia with an accompanying
81. The pH of body fluids is stabilized by
hypochloremic alkalosis may be observed
buffer systems. The compound which will
in
be the most effective buffer at physiologic
(A) Cushings syndrome(B) Addisons disease pH is
(C) Hyptothyroidism (D) Malnutrition
(A) Na2HPO4 pKa = 12.32
74. Hypercholremia is associated with (B) Na2HPO4 pKa=7.21
(A) Hyponatremia (B) Hypernatremia (C) NH4OH pKa = 7.24
(C) Metabolic alkalosis (D) Respiratory acidosis (D) Citric acid pKa = 3.09
284 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

82. The percentage of CO2 carrying capacity 90. Of the total body water, intracellular
of whole blood by hemoglobin and compartment contains about
oxyhemoglobin is
(A) 50% (B) 60%
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 70% (D) 80%
(C) 60 (D) 80
91. Osmotically active substances in plasma
83. The normal serum CO2 content is
are
(A) 1820 meq/L (B) 2429 meq/L
(A) Sodium (B) Chloride
(C) 3034 meq/L (D) 3538 meq/L
(C) Proteins (D) All of these
84. The carbondioxide carrying power of the
blood residing within the red cells is 92. Osmotic pressure of plasma is

(A) 50% (B) 60% (A) 80100 milliosmole/litre


(C) 85% (D) 100% (B) 180200 milliosmole/litre
(C) 280300 milliosmole/litre
85. Within the red blood cells the buffering
capacity contributed by the phosphates (D) 380400 milliosmole/litre
is 93. Contribution of albumin to colloid osmotic
(A) 5% (B) 10% pressure of plasma is about
(C) 20% (D) 25% (A) 10% (B) 50%
86. The normal ratio between the alkaline (C) 80% (D) 90%
phosphate and acid phosphate in plasma
is 94. The highest concentration of proteins is
present in
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 4
(A) Plasma (B) Interstitial fluid
(C) 20 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
(C) Interstitial fluid (D) Transcellular fluid
87. The oxygen dissociation curve for
hemoglobin is shifted to the right by 95. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to
(A) Decreased O2 tension (A) Proteins (B) Chloride
(B) Decreased CO2 tension (C) Sodium (D) All of these
(C) Increased CO2 tension
96. Oncotic pressure of plasma is about
(D) Increased pH
(A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 15 mm of Hg
88. Bohr effect is
(C) 25 mm of Hg (D) 50 mm of Hg
(A) Shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
to the right 97. Oedema can occur when
(B) Shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve (A) Plasma Na and Cl are decreased
to the left (B) Plasma Na and Cl are increased
(C) Ability of hemoglobin to combine with O2 (C) Plasma proteins are decreased
(D) Exchange of chloride with carbonate
(D) Plasma proteins are increased
89. Chloride shift is
98. Colloid osmotic pressure of intracellular
(A) H ions leaving the RBC in exchange of Cl- fluid is
(B) Cl leaving the RBC in exchange of bicarbonate
(A) Equal to that of plasma
(C) Bicarbonate ion returns to plasma and
(B) More than that of plasma
exchanged with chloride which shifts into the
cell (C) More than that of plasma
(D) Carbonic acid to the plasma (D) Nearly zero
WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 285

99. The water produced during metabolic 107. Furosemide inhibits reabsorption of
reactions in an adult is about sodium and chloride in
(A) 100 ml/day (B) 300 ml/day (A) Proximal convoluted tubules
(C) 500 ml/day (D) 700 ml/day (B) Loop of Henle
100. The daily water loss through gastrointes- (C) Distal convoluted tubules
tinal tract in an adult is about (D) Collecting ducts
(A) Less than 100 ml/day
108. A diuretic which is an aldosterone anta-
(B) 200 ml/day
gonist is
(C) 300 ml/day
(A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid
(D) 400 ml/day
(C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide
101. Recurrent vomiting leads to loss of
109. In a solution having a pH of 7.4, the
(A) Potassium (B) Chloride
hydrogen ion concentration is
(C) Bicarbonate (D) All of these
(A) 7.4 nmol/L (B) 40 nmol/L
102. Obligatory reabsorption of water
(C) 56 nmol/L (D) 80 nmol/L
(A) Is about 50% of the total tubular reabsorption
of water 110. At pH 7.4, the ratio of bicarbonate :
(B) Is increased by antidiuretic hormone dissolved CO2 is
(C) Occurs in distal convoluted tubules (A) 1 : 1 (B) 10 : 1
(D) Is secondary to reabsorption of solutes (C) 20 : 1 (D) 40 : 1
103. Antidiuretic hormone 111. Quantitatively, the most significant buffer
(A) Is secreted by hypothalamus system in plasma is
(B) Secretion is increased when osmolality of (A) Phosphate buffer system
plasma decreases (B) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
(C) Increases obligatory reabsorption of water
(C) Lactic acid-lactate buffer system
(D) Acts on distal convoluted tubules and
(D) Protein buffer system
collecting ducts
104. Urinary water loss is increased in 112. In a solution containing phosphate buffer,
the pH will be 7.4, if the ratio of
(A) Diabetes mellitus
monohydrogen phosphate : dihydrogen
(B) Diabetes insipidus phosphate is
(C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 5 : 1
(D) All of these
(C) 10 : 1 (D) 20 : 1
105. Diabetes insipidus results from
113. pKa of dihydrogen phosphate is
(A) Decreased insulin secretion
(B) Decreased ADH secretion (A) 5.8 (B) 6.1
(C) Decreased aldosterone secretion (C) 6.8 (D) 7.1
(D) Unresponsiveness of osmoreceptors 114. Buffering action of haemoglobin is mainly
106. Thiazide diuretics inhibit due to its
(A) Carbonic anhydrase (A) Glutamine residues
(B) Aldosterone secretion (B) Arginine residues
(C) ADH secretion (C) Histidine residues
(D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules (D) Lysine residues
286 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

115. Respiratory acidosis results from 123. Anion gap is increased in


(A) Retention of carbon dioxide (A) Renal tubular acidosis
(B) Excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (B) Metabolic acidosis resulting from diarrhoea
(C) Retention of bicarbonate (C) Metabolic acidosis resulting from intestinal
(D) Excessive elimination of bicarbonate obstruction
(D) Diabetic ketoacidosis
116. Respiratory acidosis can occur in all of the
following except 124. Anion gap in plasma is because
(A) Pulmonary oedema (A) Of differential distribution of ions across cell
(B) Hysterical hyperventilation membranes
(C) Pneumothorax (B) Cations outnumber anions in plasma
(D) Emphysema (C) Anions outnumber cations in plasma
(D) Of unmeasured anions in plasma
117. The initial event in respiratory acidosis is
(A) Decrease in pH 125. Salicylate poisoning can cause
(B) Increase in pCO2 (A) Respiratory acidosis
(C) Increase in plasma bicarbonate (B) Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
(D) Decrease in plasma bicarbonate (C) Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
118. Respiratory alkalosis can occur in
(A) Bronchial asthma 126. Anion gap of plasma can be due to the
presence of all the following except
(B) Collapse of lungs
(C) Hysterical hyperventilation (A) Bicarbonate (B) Lactate
(D) Bronchial obstruction (C) Pyruvate (D) Citrate

119. The primary event in respiratory alkalosis 127. All the following features are found in
is blood chemistry in uncompensated lactic
acidosis except
(A) Rise in pH
(A) pH is decreased
(B) Decrease in pCO2
(B) Bicarbonate is decreased
(C) Increase in plasma bicarbonate
(C) pCO2 is normal
(D) Decrease in plasma chloride
(D) Anion gap is normal
120. Anion gap is the difference in the plasma
concentrations of 128. All the following statements about renal
tubular acidosis are correct except
(A) (Chloride) (Bicarbonate)
(A) Renal tubules may be unable to reabsorb
(B) (Sodium) (Chloride)
bicarbonate
(C) (Sodium + Potassium) (Chloride +
(B) Renal tubules may be unable to secrete
Bicarbonate)
hydrogen ions
(D) (Sum of cations) (Sum of anions)
(C) Plasma chloride is elevated
121. Normal anion gap in plasma is about (D) Anion gap is decreased
(A) 5 meq/L (B) 15 meq/L 129. All the following changes in blood
(C) 25 meq/L (D) 40 meq/L chemistry can occur in severe diarrhoea
except
122. Anion gap is normal in
(A) Decreased pH
(A) Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
(B) Decreased bicarbonate
(B) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(C) Increased pCO2
(C) Lactic acidosis
(D) Increased chloride
(D) Uraemic acidosis
WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 287

130. During compensation of respiratory (C) Move a mass of 1 gm by 1 cm distance by a


alkalosis, all the following changes occur force of 1 Newton
except (D) Move a mass of 1 kg by 1 m distance by a
(A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions by force of 1 Newton
renal tubules
135. Organic compound of small molecular
(B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine size is
(C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine
(A) Urea (B) Uric acid
(D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine
(C) Creatinine (D) Phosphates
131. Blood chemistry shows the following
136. Organic substance of large molecular size
changes in compensated respiratory
is
acidosis:
(A) Starch (B) Insulin
(A) Increased pCO2
(C) Lipids (D) Proteins
(B) Increased bicarbonate
(C) Decreased chloride 137. Body water is regulated by the hormone:
(D) All of these (A) Oxytocin (B) ACTH
(C) FSH (D) Epinephrine
132. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in
(A) Severe diarrhoea 138. Calcium is required for the activation of
(B) Renal failure the enzyme:
(C) Recurrent vomiting (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(D) Excessive use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (B) Fumarase
(C) Succinate thiokinase
133. Which of the following features are present
(D) ATPase
in blood chemistry in uncompensated
metabolic alkalosis except? 139. Cobalt is a constituent of
(A) Increased pH (A) Folic acid (B) Vitamin B12
(B) Increased bicarbonate (C) Niacin (D) Biotin
(C) Normal chloride
140. Calcium absorption is inferred by
(D) Normal pCO2
(A) Fatty acids (B) Amino acids
134. One joule is the energy required to (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin B12
(A) Raise the temperature of 1 gm of water by
141. The average of pH of urine is
1C
(B) Raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by (A) 5.6 (B) 6.0
1C (C) 6.4 (D) 7.0
288 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

ANSWERS
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. C
7. C 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C
13. D 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A
19. D 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D
25. A 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A
37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. D
43. B 44. B 45. D 46. A 47. C 48. B
49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. A
55. D 56. A 57. A 58. B 59. B 60. D
61. D 62. D 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. A
67. A 68. A 69. B 70. B 71. C 72. D
73. A 74. B 75. C 76. D 77. C 78. B
79. C 80. A 81. B 82. C 83. B 84. C
85. D 86. D 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. C
91. D 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. A 96. C
97. C 98. B 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. D
103. D 104. D 105. B 106. D 107. B 108. A
109. B 110. C 111. B 112. A 113. C 114. C
115. A 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. B 120. C
121. B 122. A 123. B 124. B 125. C 126. A
127. D 128. D 129. C 130. D 131. D 132. C
133. D 134. D 135. A 136. D 137. A 138. D
139. B 140. A 141. B

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