Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the effect of interferons?

A. Interferes with host cell replication.

B. Interferes with phagocytosis.

C. Interferes with viral multiplication.

D. Interferes with bacterial multiplication.

Answer Key: C

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a physical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from
infection?

A. Layers of cells

B. Tears

C. Saliva

D. Lysozyme

Answer Key: D

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The function of the ciliary escalator is to ____.

A. kill microorganisms

B. remove microorganisms from body cavities

 C. remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract

D. remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract

Answer Key: D

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Innate immunity ________.

A. is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens

B. is nonspecific and present at birth

C. involves a memory component

D. involves T cells and B cells

E. provides increased susceptibility to disease

Answer Key: B

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is
called ____.

A. exocytosis

B. elimination

C. chemotaxis

D. adherence
 E. digestion

Answer Key: C

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which is not an outcome of complement activation?

A. Opsonization

B. Inflammation

C. Fever

D. Cytolysis

Answer Key: C

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is involved in initializing inflammation?

A. Basophil

B. Eosinophil

C. Lymphocyte

D. Monocyte

E. Neutrophil

Answer Key: A

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body
fluid?

A. lysozyme tears and saliva

B. ciliary escalator intestines

C. very acidic pH stomach

D. keratin and tightly packed cells skin

E. lacrimal apparatus eyes

Answer Key: B

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

A. Basophil

B. Eosinophil

C. Lymphocyte

D. Monocyte

E. Neutrophil

Answer Key: B

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these is not a characteristic of innate immunity?

A. Always present, always available

 B. Has memory component

C. Acts against all microbes the same way

D. First to respond to infection

Answer Key: B

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following exhibits highest phagocytic activity?

A. neutrophils

B. basophils

C. eosinophils

D. monocytes

Answer Key: A

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding.
Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating
microbes?

A. ciliary escalator

B. normal skin flora

C. phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

 D. acidic skin secretions

E. lysozyme

Answer Key: C

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?

A It allows for an increase in oxygen to the site of damage.

.

B. It allows more phagocytes to travel to the site of damage.

C. It allows more nutrients to be delivered to the site of damage.

D It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site
. of damage.
Answer Key: D

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these cells is not phagocytic?

A. Neutrophils

B. NK cells

C. Macrophages

D. Dendritic cells

Answer Key: B

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other?

A. They involve unique cells that attack invading pathogens.

B. They involve the production of antibodies.

C. They are physical barriers against invading pathogens.

D. They recognize specific pathogens.

E. They are effective only against viruses.

Answer Key: C

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following white blood cells is most likely to be involved in the destruction of a
tumor cell?

A. Macrophages

B. Lymphocytes

C. Neutrophils

D. Basophils

E. Eosinophils

Answer Key: B

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which one of the following is not an effect of fever?

A. Increases production of T cells.

 B. Increases interferon production.

C. Kills pathogens.

D. All are effects of fever.

Answer Key: C

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation?

A. Redness

B. Pain

C. Local heat

D. Fever

Answer Key: D

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Adherence of phagocytes may be accomplished by all of the following except _______.

A. opsonization

B. lysozyme

C. complement

Answer Key: B
Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)
Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause
damage to the bacterial _________.

A. cell membrane.

B. capsule.

C. cell wall.

D. DNA.

E. ribosomes.

Answer Key: C

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not an effect of complement activation?

A. Interference with viral replication

B. Bacterial cell lysis

C. Opsonization

D. Increased phagocytic activity

Answer Key: A

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Adherence of phagocytes may be accomplished by all of the following except _______.

A. opsonization
 B. lysozyme

C. complement

Answer Key: B

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following does not provide protection from phagocytic digestion?

A. Preventing formation of phagolysosomes

B. Killing white blood cells

C. Lysing phagolysosomes

D. None of the above

Answer Key: D

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

A. Basophil

B. Eosinophil

C. Lymphocyte

D. Monocyte

E. Neutrophil
 Answer Key: B

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to ____.

A. move by chemotaxis

B. migrate

C. digest microbes

D. live

E. ingest microbes

Answer Key: C

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Innate immunity ________.

A. is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens

B. is nonspecific and present at birth

C. involves a memory component

D. involves T cells and B cells

E. provides increased susceptibility to disease

Answer Key: B

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding.
Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating
microbes?

A. ciliary escalator

B. normal skin flora

C. phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

D. acidic skin secretions

E. lysozyme

Answer Key: C

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?

A It allows for an increase in oxygen to the site of damage.

.

B. It allows more phagocytes to travel to the site of damage.

C. It allows more nutrients to be delivered to the site of damage.

D It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site
. of damage.
Answer Key: D

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Normal microbiota provide protection from infection by all of the following except ____.

A. they provide antibacterial chemicals

 B. they out-compete newcomers

C. they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria

D. they produce lysozyme

Answer Key: D

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is involved in initializing inflammation?

A. Basophil

B. Eosinophil

C. Lymphocyte

D. Monocyte

E. Neutrophil

Answer Key: A

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Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which cells directly attack abnormal cells in the body?

A. Phagocytes
 B. Natural Killer cells

C. B cells

D. Basophils

E. Neutrophils

Answer Key: B

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

One of the responses against bacterial infection is the overproduction of white blood cells, which
is also known as ________.

A. complement activation

B. histamine generation

C. leukopenia

D. leukocytosis

Answer Key: D

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

In a bacterial infection, what type of white blood cell is the first to arrive at the site of infection?

A. neutrophils

B. basophils

C. eosinophils
 D. monocytes

E. lymphocytes

Answer Key: A

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The function of the ciliary escalator is to ____.

A. kill microorganisms

B. remove microorganisms from body cavities

C. remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract

D. remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract

Answer Key: D

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following can be determined from a differential white blood cell count except _____.

A. the number of total white blood cells

B. the numbers of each type of white blood cell

C. the numbers of red blood cells

D. the type of infection or disease

Answer Key: C

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements is true?

A. There are at least 30 complement proteins.

B. Complement proteins are produced by pathogenic bacteria.

C. Complement activity is pathogen specific.

D. Complement increases after immunization.

Answer Key: A

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A fever is a _____ response to infection.

A. local

B. systemic

C. adaptive

D. specific

Answer Key: B

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Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

A. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microbes.

 B. Increased motility of phagocytes.

C. Increased digestion of microbes by phagocytes.

D. Inflammation

E. Fever

Answer Key: A

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the effect of interferons?

A. Interferes with host cell replication.

B. Interferes with phagocytosis.

C. Interferes with viral multiplication.

D. Interferes with bacterial multiplication.

Answer Key: C

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT _______.

A. vasodilation

B. fever

C. swelling

D. redness
 E. pain

Answer Key: B

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause
damage to the bacterial _________.

A. cell membrane.

B. capsule.

C. cell wall.

D. DNA.

E. ribosomes.

Answer Key: C

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

One of the responses against bacterial infection is the overproduction of white blood cells, which
is also known as ________.

A. complement activation

B. histamine generation

C. leukopenia

D. leukocytosis
 Answer Key: D

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Mucous membranes are a part of ____.

A. the complement system

B. innate immunity

C. humoral immunity

D. cell-mediated immunity

E. adaptive immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following can be determined from a differential white blood cell count except _____.

A. the number of total white blood cells

B. the numbers of each type of white blood cell

C. the numbers of red blood cells

D. the type of infection or disease

Answer Key: C

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body
fluid?
 A. lysozyme tears and saliva

B. ciliary escalator intestines

C. very acidic pH stomach

D. keratin and tightly packed cells skin

E. lacrimal apparatus eyes

Answer Key: B

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a function of inflammation?

A. To destroy an injurious agent

B. To remove an injurious agent

C. To wall off an injurious agent

D. None of the above

Answer Key: D

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

A. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microbes.

B. Increased motility of phagocytes.

C. Increased digestion of microbes by phagocytes.

 D. Inflammation

E. Fever

Answer Key: A

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Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the effect of interferons?

A. Interferes with host cell replication.

B. Interferes with phagocytosis.

C. Interferes with viral multiplication.

D. Interferes with bacterial multiplication.

Answer Key: C

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Innate immunity ________.

A. is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens

B. is nonspecific and present at birth

C. involves a memory component

 D. involves T cells and B cells

E. provides increased susceptibility to disease

Answer Key: B

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The first step of inflammation is vasodilation. What is the purpose of vasodilation?

A. To repair the damaged tissue.

B. To remove the injurious agent.

C. To make the skin red at the site of infection.

D. To increase the flow of blood to the area.

Answer Key: D

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Adherence of phagocytes may be accomplished by all of the following except _______.

A. opsonization

B. lysozyme

C. complement

Answer Key: B

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Chlamydia can prevent the formation of the phagolysosome, and therefore Chlamydia can ____.
 A. avoid being ingested by a phagocyte

B. avoid destruction by complement

C. avoid being digested

D. prevent opsonization

E. avoid lysis by antimicrobial peptides

Answer Key: C

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following exhibits highest phagocytic activity?

A. neutrophils

B. basophils

C. eosinophils

D. monocytes

Answer Key: A

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Innate immunity is _______.

A. the body's ability to cure infection

B. the body's defenses against any kind of pathogen

C. the body's defense against a particular pathogen

 D. the lack of resistance

Answer Key: B

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The mechanism of action of interferon includes all of the following except ____.

A. it binds to the surface of uninfected cells

B. it inactivates viruses

C. it initiates manufacture of another antiviral protein

D. it works in cells not producing INF

Answer Key: B

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Macrophages arise from which of the following?

A. Basophil

B. Macrocyte

C. Monocyte

D. Neutrophil

E. Lymphocyte

Answer Key: C
Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)
Crisis is a sign that ____.

A. body temperature is falling

B. body temperature is rising

C. body temperature will remain the same

D. shivering will follow

Answer Key: A

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is
called ____.

A. exocytosis

B. elimination

C. chemotaxis

D. adherence

E. digestion

Answer Key: C

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Chills is a sign that ____.

A. body temperature is falling

 B. body temperature is rising

C. body temperature will remain the same

D. sweating will follow

Answer Key: B

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these is not a characteristic of innate immunity?

A. Always present, always available

B. Has memory component

C. Acts against all microbes the same way

D. First to respond to infection

Answer Key: B

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Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular immunity?

A. The cells originate in bone marrow.

B. Cells are processed in the thymus gland.

C. The cells kill via apoptosis.

 D. T cells react with extracellular antigens.

Answer Key: D

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Cytotoxic T cells kill by _____.

A. neutralization

B. phagocytosis

C. apoptosis

D. plasmolysis

E. Cytolysis

Answer Key: C

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

A. Cancerous cells

B. Cytotoxic T-cells

C. Bacterial cells

D. Helper T-cells

E. Neutrophils

Answer Key: B

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these is not a result of antibody binding to an antigen?
 A. Neutralization

B. Agglutination

C. Opsonization

D. Formation of membrane channels

E. Complement activation

Answer Key: D

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Ig refers to _____.

A. induced-globulin

B. immunoglobulin

C. innate-globulin

D. immunograbulin

Answer Key: B

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A. Innate immunity

B. Naturally acquired active immunity

C. Naturally acquired passive immunity

D. Artificially acquired active immunity

E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

 Answer Key: D

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

A. Innate immunity

B. Naturally acquired active immunity

C. Naturally acquired passive immunity

D. Artificially acquired active immunity

E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of antibody is produced in breast milk?

A. IgA

B. IgE

C. IgG

D. IgM

E. IgD

Answer Key: A

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?
 A. They destroy virus-infected cells.

B. They destroy tumor cells.

C. They are a type of lymphocyte.

D. They are stimulated by an antigen.

E. None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.

Answer Key: D

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patients
primary immune response?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

E. e
 Answer Key: B

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The secondary antibody response is typically ____.

A. fast and intense

B. slow and relatively weak

C. non-specific

Answer Key: A

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes?

A. Cytotoxic T cells

B. Helper T cells

C. NK cells

D. M cells

E. B cells

Answer Key: D

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity?

A. Both humoral and cell-mediated

B. Humoral

C. Neither humoral nor cell-mediated

 D. Cell-mediated

E. Innate Immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

B cells generate antibodies when activated by a(n) _____.

A. memory cell

B. neutrophil

C. B cell

D. antigen

Answer Key: D

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antigens bind to antibodies at _____.

A. the V region

B. the C region

C. the hinge region

D. the stem region

E. the loop region

Answer Key: A

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?

A. a and b

B. a and c

C. c and d

D. b and d

Answer Key: A

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are ______.

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgE

E. IgD

Answer Key: C
Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)
The best definition of an antigen is ____.

A. something foreign in the body

B. a chemical that combines with antibodies

C. a chemical that activates an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

D. a pathogen

Answer Key: C

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Chemical signals sent between leukocytes (WBC) are _____

A. TCRs

B. interferons

C. interleukins

D. TNF

Answer Key: C

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

A. Helper T-cells produce cytotoxic T-cells.

B. Cytotoxic T-cells produce cytokines to activate helper T-cells.

C. Cytotoxic T-cells attack abnormal body cells, while helper T-cells attack virally infected cells.

D. Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate cytotoxic T cells.

 Answer Key: D

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are ______.

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgG

E. IgM

Answer Key: C

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patients
primary immune response?

A. a

B. b

C. c
 D. d

E. e

Answer Key: B

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?

A. They originate in bone marrow.

B. They have antibodies on their surfaces.

C. They are responsible for antibody formation.

D. They recognize antigens associated with MHC.

Answer Key: D

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A. Innate immunity

B. Naturally acquired active immunity

C. Naturally acquired passive immunity

D. Artificially acquired active immunity

E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer Key: D

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antibody producing B cells are called _____.
 A. memory cells

B. antibody cells

C. T cells

D. plasma cells

Answer Key: D

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular immunity?

A. The cells originate in bone marrow.

B. Cells are processed in the thymus gland.

C. The cells kill via apoptosis.

D. T cells react with extracellular antigens.

Answer Key: D

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Ig refers to _____.

A. induced-globulin

B. immunoglobulin

C. innate-globulin

D. immunograbulin

Answer Key: B

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by T cells is known as _____.

A. humoral immunity

B. cellular immunity

C. innate immunity

D. antibody immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of antibody can cross from the blood into surrounding tissues?

A. IgA

B. IgE

C. IgG

D. IgM

E. IgD

Answer Key: C

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves T cells?

A. Humoral

B. Neither humoral nor cell-mediated

C. Cell-mediated

D. Both humoral and cell-mediated

 Answer Key: C

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The secondary antibody response is typically ____.

A. fast and intense

B. slow and relatively weak

C. non-specific

Answer Key: A

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Cytokines released by Helper T cells can _____.

A. activate T cytotoxic cells

B. form membrane channels

C. kill pathogens

D. kill virus infected cells

Answer Key: A

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by B cells is known as _______.

A. humoral immunity

B. cellular immunity

C. innate immunity

D. antibody immunity
 Answer Key: A

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The best definition of an antibody is _____.

A. a serum protein

B. a protein that inactivates or kills an antigen

C. a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen

D. an immunoglobulin

Answer Key: C

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

A. They destroy virus-infected cells.

B. They destroy tumor cells.

C. They are a type of lymphocyte.

D. They are stimulated by an antigen.

E. None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.

Answer Key: D

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are ______.

A. IgG

B. IgM
 C. IgA

D. IgE

E. IgD

Answer Key: C

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as ________.

A. agglutination

B. opsonization

C. ADCC

D. apoptosis

E. neutralization

Answer Key: E

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these cells are responsible for humoral immunity?

A. B cells

B. T cells

C. NK cells

D. CTL

Answer Key: A

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The primary antibody response is typically ____.

A. slow and relatively weak

B. fast and intense

C. non-specific

Answer Key: A

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Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity?

A. Both humoral and cell-mediated

B. Humoral

C. Neither humoral nor cell-mediated

D. Cell-mediated

E. Innate Immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as ____.

A. antibodies

B. T-dependent antigens

C. T-independent antigens
 Answer Key: C

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Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are ______.

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgE

E. IgD

Answer Key: C

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by
means of injection?

A. Innate immunity

B. Naturally acquired active immunity

C. Naturally acquired passive immunity

D. Artificially acquired active immunity

E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer Key: E
Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)
Immunity mediated by B cells is known as _______.

A. humoral immunity

B. cellular immunity

C. innate immunity

D. antibody immunity

Answer Key: A

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a feature of adaptive immunity?

A. It responds slower than innate immunity.

B. It responds the same way to every pathogen.

C. It has a memory component.

D. It involves lymphocytes.

Answer Key: B

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Chemical signals sent between leukocytes (WBC) are _____

A. TCRs

B. interferons

C. interleukins

D. TNF
 Answer Key: C

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by T cells is known as _____.

A. humoral immunity

B. cellular immunity

C. innate immunity

D. antibody immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

A. They destroy virus-infected cells.

B. They destroy tumor cells.

C. They are a type of lymphocyte.

D. They are stimulated by an antigen.

E. None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.

Answer Key: D

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as ________.

A. agglutination

B. opsonization
 C. ADCC

D. apoptosis

E. neutralization

Answer Key: E

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?

A. They originate in bone marrow.

B. They have antibodies on their surfaces.

C. They are responsible for antibody formation.

D. They recognize antigens associated with MHC.

Answer Key: D

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Ig refers to _____.

A. induced-globulin

B. immunoglobulin

C. innate-globulin

D. immunograbulin

Answer Key: B

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

These antibodies are often involved in allergic reactions.
 A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

E. IgD

Answer Key: D

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The secondary antibody response is typically ____.

A. fast and intense

B. slow and relatively weak

C. non-specific

Answer Key: A

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

A. HIV reprograms these cells to attack the body cells.

B. HIV transforms the T-cells into cancer cells.

C Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the
. body.

D HIV causes cytokines to be produced at much higher levels, altering the normal function of the
. immune system.

Answer Key: C
Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)
Which statement is not true of apoptosis?

A. Induces cell shrinking and imploding.

B. Doesn't further stimulate immune response.

C. Preferred way to kill bacteria.

D. Easier to clean up than cell lysis.

Answer Key: C

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

T-dependent antigens ________.

A. provide a weaker response than T-independent antigens

B. require T helper cells to activate B cells

C. require T cytotoxic cells to activate B cells

D. are found only in mucus secretions

Answer Key: B

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patients
primary immune response?
 A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

E. e

Answer Key: B

Review

Check to review before finishing (will be flagged in Table of Contents)

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following do not enhance phagocytosis?

A. Opsonization

B. Agglutination

C. Neutralization
 Answer Key: C

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

A. They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

B. They spread viruses to other cells.

C. They engulf virally infected cells.

D. They produce antibodies.

E. They produce cytokines.

Answer Key: A

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular immunity?

A. The cells originate in bone marrow.

B. Cells are processed in the thymus gland.

C. The cells kill via apoptosis.

D. T cells react with extracellular antigens.

Answer Key: D

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

A Helper T-cells produce cytotoxic T-cells.

.

B Cytotoxic T-cells produce cytokines to activate helper T-cells.

 .

C Cytotoxic T-cells attack abnormal body cells, while helper T-cells attack virally
. infected cells.

D Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate cytotoxic T cells.

.

Answer Key: D

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known

as ____.

A antibodies
.

B T-dependent
 . antigens

C T-independent
. antigens

Answer Key: C

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

A Innate immunity
.

B Naturally acquired active

. immunity

C Naturally acquired passive

. immunity
 D Artificially acquired active
. immunity

E Artificially acquired passive

. immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antibody mediated adaptive immunity is known as _____.

A humoral
. immunity

B cellular
. immunity

C innate
 . immunity

D antibody
. immunity

Answer Key: A

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular immunity?

A The cells originate in bone marrow.

.

B Cells are processed in the thymus

. gland.

C The cells kill via apoptosis.

.
 D T cells react with extracellular
. antigens.

Answer Key: D

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A Innate immunity
.

B Naturally acquired active

. immunity

C Naturally acquired passive

. immunity

D Artificially acquired active

 . immunity

E Artificially acquired passive

. immunity

Answer Key: D

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?
 A a and
. b

B a and
. c

C c and
. d

D b and
. d

Answer Key: A
Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

B cells generate antibodies when activated by a(n) _____.

A memory
. cell

B neutrophi
. l

C B cell
.

D antigen
.

Answer Key: D

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

T-dependent antigens ________.

A provide a weaker response than T-independent

. antigens

B require T helper cells to activate B cells

.

C require T cytotoxic cells to activate B cells

.

D are found only in mucus secretions

.

Answer Key: B

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

A They destroy virus-infected cells.

.

B They destroy tumor cells.

.

C They are a type of lymphocyte.

.

D They are stimulated by an antigen.

.

E None of the answers are correct; all of these statements

. are true.

Answer Key: D

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by B cells is known as _______.

A humoral
. immunity

B cellular
. immunity

C innate
. immunity

D antibody
. immunity

Answer Key: A

Question 12 of 20 (worth 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which areas are the same for all IgG antibodies?
A a and
. b

B a and
. c

C c and
. d

D b and
. d
Question 13 of 20 (worth 2 points)

______ are cytokines that protect against viral infected cells.

A CTL
.

B Interleuki
. ns

C Chemokin
. es

D Interferon
. s

E TNF
.
Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antigen processing and presentation ____.

A is a way for a cell to inform the immune system of

. invaders

B is a way for viruses to infect cells

.

C is only accomplished by bacterial cells

.

D is the way foreign cells engulf macrophages

.

Answer Key: A

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which statement is not true of apoptosis?

A Induces cell shrinking and imploding.

.

B Doesn't further stimulate immune

. response.

C Preferred way to kill bacteria.

.

D Easier to clean up than cell lysis.

.

Answer Key: C

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as
________.

A agglutinati
. on

B opsonizati
. on

C ADCC
.

D apoptosis
.

E neutralizat
. ion

Answer Key: E

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of antibody can cross from the blood into surrounding tissues?

A Ig
. A

B Ig
. E

C Ig
. G

D Ig
. M

E Ig
. D

Answer Key: C

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of antibody is produced in breast milk?

A Ig
. A

B Ig
. E

C Ig
. G

D Ig
. M

E Ig
. D

Answer Key: A

Question 19 of 20 (worth 2 points)

Antibodies inactivate viruses via _____

A opsonization
.

B agglutination
.

C neutralization
.

D activation of
. complement

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The best definition of an antigen is ____.

A something foreign in the body

.

B a chemical that combines with antibodies

.

C a chemical that activates an antibody response and can combine with these
. antibodies

D a pathogen
.

Answer Key: C

The best definition of an antibody is _____.

A a serum protein
.

B a protein that inactivates or kills an antigen

.

C a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with

. that antigen

D an immunoglobulin
.

Answer Key: C
Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The best definition of an antigen is ____.

A something foreign in the body

.

B a chemical that combines with antibodies

.

C a chemical that activates an antibody response and can combine with these
. antibodies

D a pathogen
.

Answer Key: C
Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?

A They originate in bone marrow.

.

B They have antibodies on their surfaces.

.

C They are responsible for antibody

. formation.

D They recognize antigens associated with

. MHC.

Answer Key: D
Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antigens bind to antibodies at _____.

A the V region
.

B the C region
.

C the hinge
. region

D the stem
. region

E the loop
. region

Answer Key: A
Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

When B cells become activated they first undergo ______.

A clonal expansion
.

B plasma cell
. differentiation

C clonal selection
.

D memory selection
.

Answer Key: A

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Cytotoxic T cells kill by _____.

A neutralizat
. ion

B phagocyto
. sis

C apoptosis
.

D plasmolysi
. s

E Cytolysis
.

Answer Key: C

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The cellular component of the adaptive immune response is mediated by
_____.

A lymphocyt
. es

B neutrophil
. s

C macropha
. ges

D antibodies
.

E eosinophil
. s

Answer Key: A
Question 8 of 20 (worth 2 points)

Which of the following best characterizes clonal expansion?

A The birth of identical B cells in the bone marrow.

.

B The production of identical B cells producing the same

. antibody.

C The production of different antigens by the same B cell.

.

D The production of identical B cells producing different

. antibodies.

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

T-dependent antigens ________.

A provide a weaker response than T-independent

. antigens

B require T helper cells to activate B cells

.

C require T cytotoxic cells to activate B cells

.

D are found only in mucus secretions

.

Answer Key: B

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves T cells?

A Humoral
.

B Neither humoral nor cell-

. mediated

C Cell-mediated
.

D Both humoral and cell-

. mediated

Answer Key: C

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity?

 A Both humoral and cell-
. mediated

B Humoral
.

C Neither humoral nor cell-

. mediated

D Cell-mediated
.

E Innate Immunity
.

Answer Key: B

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by T cells is known as _____.

 A humoral
. immunity

B cellular
. immunity

C innate
. immunity

D antibody
. immunity

Answer Key: B

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Ig refers to _____.

A induced-
 . globulin

B immunoglobu
. lin

C innate-
. globulin

D immunograb
. ulin

Answer Key: B

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these cells are responsible for humoral immunity?

AB
. cells
 BT
. cells

C NK
. cells

D CTL
.

Answer Key: A

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A Innate immunity
.

B Naturally acquired active

 . immunity

C Naturally acquired passive

. immunity

D Artificially acquired active

. immunity

E Artificially acquired passive

. immunity

Answer Key: D

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

A They present antigens from engulfed

. foreign cells.
 B They spread viruses to other cells.
.

C They engulf virally infected cells.

.

D They produce antibodies.

.

E They produce cytokines.

.

Answer Key: A

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of antibody is produced in breast milk?

A Ig
 . A

B Ig
. E

C Ig
. G

D Ig
. M

E Ig
. D

Answer Key: A

Question 18 of 20 (worth 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which areas are the same for all IgG antibodies?
A a and
. b

B a and
. c

C c and
. d

D b and
. d
Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

View the attached figure. Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?

A a and
. b

B a and
. c

C c and
. d

D b and
. d

Answer Key: A
Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The presence of _______ in the blood is often an indicator that an infection

is in its early stages.

A Ig
. A

B Ig
. G

C Ig
. M

D Ig
. E

E Ig
. D

Answer Key: C
View the attached figure. Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?

Answer Key: A

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Ig refers to _____.

Answer Key: B

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by B cells is known as _______.

Answer Key: A

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

A. HIVreprogramsthesecellstoattack


B. HIVtransformstheTcellsintocance

C. CytotoxicTcellsbegintoattackthe

D. HIVcausescytokinestobeproduced

Answer Key: C

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

Answer Key: D

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are ______.

Answer Key: C

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Antigen processing and presentation ____.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer Key: A
Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves T cells?

Answer Key: C

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Cytokines can _____.

Answer Key: C
Question 10 of 20 (worth 2 points)

The most abundant antibodies in blood are _____.

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which type of antibody is produced in breast milk?

Answer Key: A

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following destroys virus infected cells?

Answer Key: A

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer Key: D
Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The primary antibody response is typically ____.

Answer Key: A

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Answer Key: A
Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible
individual by means of injection?

Answer Key: E

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

B cells generate antibodies when activated by a(n) _____.

Answer Key: D

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunity mediated by T cells is known as _____.

Answer Key: B

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Cytokines released by Helper T cells can _____.

Answer Key: A

Question 20 of 20 (worth 2 points)

Antibodies inactivate viruses via _____

A opsonization
.

B. agglutination

C. neutralization

D activationofcomplement
.

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A The patient may have the disease.

.

B The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
.

C The patient may have been vaccinated.

.

D A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the

. antibodies.

E The patient was near someone who had the disease.

.

Answer Key: E
Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A Hives
.

B Hay
. fever

C Shock
.

D Asthm
. a

Answer Key: C

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an _____.

A Rh+ mother with an Rh-

. fetus.

B Rh- mother with an Rh+

. fetus.

C AB mother with a B fetus.

.

D AB mother with an O
. fetus.

E Rh- mother and an A

. fetus.

Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity except ______.

A it occurs in the presence of an antigen

.

B it is synonymous with allergy

.

C it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the

. first time

D it is due to an altered immune response

.

E it requires previous exposure to an antigen

.

Answer Key: C

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of vaccine is the live influenza virus?

A Conjugated vaccine
.

B Subunit vaccine
.

C Nucleic acid vaccine

.

D Attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine
 E Toxoid vaccine
.

Answer Key: D

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

An Rh- mother can never have an Rh+ child.

A True.
.

B False.
.

C She can have one Rh+

. child.

D Only if the father is Rh-.

.

Answer Key: C

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

A Conjugated vaccine
.

B Subunit vaccine
.

C Nucleic acid vaccine

.

D Attenuated whole-agent
 . vaccine

E Toxoid vaccine
.

Answer Key: C

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following are generally used in active vaccinations except

_______.

A toxoids.
.

B parts of bacterial
. cells.

C live, attenuated
. bacteria.

D inactivated viruses.
.

E antibodies.
.

Answer Key: E

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The only known treatment to cure allergies is ________.

A epinephrine
.

B antibiotics
 .

C antihistamin
. es

D desensitizati
. on

E sensitization
.

Answer Key: D

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not an advantage of live attenuated vaccine?

A They elicit lifelong immunity.

.

B They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.

.

C They occasionally revert to virulent forms.

.

D They require few or no booster immunizations.

.

E The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real

. infection.

Answer Key: C

Review
Check to review before finishing (will be flagged in Table of Contents)

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to ______.

A destruction of the
. antigen

B complement fixation
.

C phagocytosis
.

D antibodies against
. self

E cytokines
.

Answer Key: B

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The MMR vaccine employs non-virulent strains of the measles, mumps

and rubella viruses. This is an example of a(n) _____ vaccine.

A attenuated whole-
. agent

B inactivated whole-
. agent

C subunit
.

D toxoid
.

E conjugated
 .

F nucleic acid
.

Answer Key: A

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Dead Bordetella pertussis used as a vaccine is an example of a(n) ____.

A Inactivated whole-agent
. vaccine

B Attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine

C Conjugated vaccine
.

D Subunit vaccine
.

E Toxoid vaccine
.

Answer Key: A

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is an advantage of a live attenuated vaccine?

A They are safer than other vaccines.

.

B They are less expensive than other vaccines.

.

C They can never cause disease.

 .

D The immune response is strong enough to provide life-long

. protection.

Answer Key: D

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus elicit
a(n) ______.

A Dendritic cell proliferation

.

B Antibody response against gram-positive

. bacteria

C Antibody response against these bacterial

. toxins

D Immune complex
.

Answer Key: C

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura.

Which occurs first?

A Antibodies and complement react with

. platelets.

B Antibodies against haptens are formed.

.

C Drug binds to platelets.

 .

D Platelets are destroyed.

.

E Purpura occurs on the skin.

.

Answer Key: C

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?

A anti-A, anti-B, anti-

. Rh

B anti-A, anti-Rh
.

C anti-A
.

D anti-B, anti-Rh
.

E anti-B
.

Answer Key: C

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Transplant rejection is an example of _____.

A Type I
. hypersensitivity
 B Type II
. hypersensitivity

C Type III
. hypersensitivity

D Type IV
. hypersensitivity

Answer Key: D

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is false?

A They involve helper T cells.

.

B They involve IgE antibodies.

.

C The symptoms are due to histamine.

.

D Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.

.

E The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an

. antigen.

Answer Key: A

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following except ____.

A HIV infection
 .

B cyclosporine
.

C DiGeorge
. syndrome

D autoimmune
. diseases

Answer Key: D

Module 12 Quiz Total Grade: 40 (of possible 40 points)

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A Hives
.

B Hay
. fever

C Shock
.

D Asthm
. a

Answer Key: C

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Treatment for anaphylactic shock involves _____.

 A epinephrine
.

B antibiotics
.

C vaccination
.

D immunoglobul
. ins

E toxoids
.

Answer Key: A

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an _____.

A Rh+ mother with an Rh-

. fetus.

B Rh- mother with an Rh+

. fetus.

C AB mother with a B fetus.

.

D AB mother with an O
. fetus.

E Rh- mother and an A

. fetus.

Answer Key: B
Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Transplant rejection is an example of _____.

A Type I
. hypersensitivity

B Type II
. hypersensitivity

C Type III
. hypersensitivity

D Type IV
. hypersensitivity

Answer Key: D

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

_______ is an example of a respiratory Type I Anaphylaxis

A Tuberculosis
.

B Influenza
.

C HIV
.

D Contact
. dermatitis

E Hay Fever
.

Answer Key: E
Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity

except _____.

A asthma
.

B dust allergies
.

C penicillin allergic
. reactions

D pollen allergies
.

E transplant rejections
.

Answer Key: E

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause

____.

A Immunologic
. enhancement

B Immunologic
. surveillance

C Immunotherapy
.

D Immunosuppression
.

Answer Key: D
Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Dead Bordetella pertussis used as a vaccine is an example of a(n) ____.

A Inactivated whole-agent
. vaccine

B Attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine

C Conjugated vaccine
.

D Subunit vaccine
.

E Toxoid vaccine
.

Answer Key: A

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

When exposure to tetanus is suspected, the treatment involves injections

of Human Tetanus Immunoglobulin. What does this do?

A It stimulates the immune response in order to provide lasting protection against

. tetanus.

B It helps activate both B and T cell responses against the tetanus pathogen.
.

C It neutralizes the tetanus toxin.

.

D It triggers the secondary immune response.

.
 Answer Key: C

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are ______.

A the proteins of the complement

. system

B antibodies
.

C antigens
.

D found in basophils and mast cells

.

Answer Key: D

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is an advantage of a live attenuated vaccine?

A They are safer than other vaccines.

.

B They are less expensive than other vaccines.

.

C They can never cause disease.

.

D The immune response is strong enough to provide life-long

. protection.

Answer Key: D
Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine?

A They contain the DNA from a pathogenic virus.

.

B These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic
. polysaccharide.

C They contain only the non-pathogenic elements of a pathogen, not the entire ce
.

D They contain live pathogens.

.

Answer Key: B

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Type IV Hypersensitivity is associated with _______.

A contact
. dermatitis

B tuberculin skin
. test

C all of the above

.

D none of the
. above

Answer Key: C

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The only known treatment to cure allergies is ________.

A epinephrine
.

B antibiotics
.

C antihistamin
. es

D desensitizati
. on

E sensitization
.

Answer Key: D

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the function of boosters?

A Boosters are vaccines containing no pathogenic portions of the

. pathogen.

B Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain

. immunity.

C Boosters help to kill the pathogens used in inactivated killed

. vaccines.

D Boosters are the highly antigenic portions of the conjugated

. vaccines.

Answer Key: B
Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type A?

A Anti
. A

B Anti
. B

C Both
.

D Neith
. er

Answer Key: B

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor

antibody and immunotoxin?

A Immunologic
. enhancement

B Immunologic
. surveillance

C Immunotherapy
.

D Immunosuppression
.

E Immune complex
.

Answer Key: C
 Review

Check to review before finishing (will be flagged in Table of Contents)

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n) ____.

A Inactivated whole-agent
. vaccine

B Attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine

C Conjugated vaccine
.

D Subunit vaccine
.

E Nucleic acid vaccine

.

Answer Key: C

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to ______.

A destruction of the
. antigen

B complement fixation
.

C phagocytosis
.
 D antibodies against
. self

E cytokines
.

Answer Key: B

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n) ____.

A Conjugated vaccine
.

B Subunit vaccine
.

C Nucleic acid vaccine

.

D Inactivated whole-agent
. vaccine

E Toxoid vaccine
.

Answer Key: E

Module 12 Quiz Total Grade: 40 (of possible 40 points)

Question 1 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A Hives
 .

B Hay
. fever

C Shock
.

D Asthm
. a

Answer Key: C

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is false?

A They involve helper T cells.

.

B They involve IgE antibodies.

.

C The symptoms are due to histamine.

.

D Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.

.

E The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an

. antigen.

Answer Key: A

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

An antigenic protein from B. pertussis, the causative agent for whooping

cough, is an example of a(n) ____ vaccine.

A attenuated whole-
. agent

B inactivated whole-
. agent

C subunit
.

D toxoid
.

E conjugated
.

F nucleic acid
.

Answer Key: C

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of _____.

A delayed cell-mediated
. immunity

B autoimmunity
.

C acute contact dermatitis

.

D psoriasis
.
 E innate immunity
.

Answer Key: A

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected
into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n) _______.

A subunit vaccine
.

B conjugated vaccine
.

C nucleic acid vaccine

.

D attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine

E live whole-agent vaccine

.

Answer Key: C

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following could result in a Type II Hypersensitivity?

A A patient with A blood given B blood during a

. transfusion.

B An Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive

. fetus.
 C An Rh negative mother carrying an Rh negative
. fetus.

D Both A and B
.

E Both A and C
.

F None of the above.

.

Answer Key: D

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

When exposure to tetanus is suspected, the treatment involves injections

of Human Tetanus Immunoglobulin. What does this do?

A It stimulates the immune response in order to provide lasting protection against

. tetanus.

B It helps activate both B and T cell responses against the tetanus pathogen.
.

C It neutralizes the tetanus toxin.

.

D It triggers the secondary immune response.

.

Answer Key: C

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Transplant rejection is an example of _____.

 A Type I
. hypersensitivity

B Type II
. hypersensitivity

C Type III
. hypersensitivity

D Type IV
. hypersensitivity

Answer Key: D

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A hypersensitivity reaction occurs _____.

A on a second or subsequent exposure to an

. antigen

B in individuals with diseases of the immune

. system

C in immunologically tolerant individuals

.

D during the first exposure to an antigen

.

Review
Check to review before finishing (will be flagged in Table of Contents)

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Inhalation of an allergen often results in _____.

A systemic
. anaphylaxis

B localized
. anaphylaxis

C prophylaxis
.

D immunity
.

Answer Key: B

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity

except _____.

A asthma
.

B dust allergies
.
 C penicillin allergic
. reactions

D pollen allergies
.

E transplant rejections
.

Answer Key: E

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n) ____.

A Inactivated whole-agent
. vaccine

B Attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine

C Conjugated vaccine
.

D Subunit vaccine
.

E Nucleic acid vaccine

.

Answer Key: C

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity except ______.

A it occurs in the presence of an antigen

 .

B it is synonymous with allergy

.

C it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the

. first time

D it is due to an altered immune response

.

E it requires previous exposure to an antigen

.

Answer Key: C

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause

____.

A Immunologic
. enhancement

B Immunologic
. surveillance

C Immunotherapy
.

D Immunosuppression
.

Answer Key: D

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are ______.

A the proteins of the complement

. system

B antibodies
.

C antigens
.

D found in basophils and mast cells

.

Answer Key: D

Review

Check to review before finishing (will be flagged in Table of Contents)

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Type IV Hypersensitivity is associated with _______.

A contact
. dermatitis

B tuberculin skin
. test

C all of the above

.

D none of the
. above

Answer Key: C
Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine?

A They contain the DNA from a pathogenic virus.

.

B These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic
. polysaccharide.

C They contain only the non-pathogenic elements of a pathogen, not the entire ce
.

D They contain live pathogens.

.

Answer Key: B

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

An Rh- mother can never have an Rh+ child.

A True.
.

B False.
.

C She can have one Rh+

. child.

D Only if the father is Rh-.

.

Answer Key: C
 Review

Check to review before finishing (will be flagged in Table of Contents)

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the primary benefit of vaccination?

A Unvaccinated persons can never mount an immune response to a

. pathogen.

B Vaccinated persons get used to the symptoms of a disease.

.

C Vaccines provide antibodies against the pathogen that persist forever in

. the body.

D An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the

. pathogen.

Answer Key: D

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What type of vaccine is the live influenza virus?

A Conjugated vaccine
.

B Subunit vaccine
.

C Nucleic acid vaccine

.
 D Attenuated whole-agent
. vaccine

E Toxoid vaccine
.

Answer Key: D
Whichofthefollowingstatementsistrue?

A.

B.

C.

D.

AnswerKey:A

Question2of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Whatistheeffectofinterferons?

AnswerKey:C

Question3of20(worth2points)

Ifanewbacterialpathogenenteredahumanbodythroughanaccidentalneedlestick,thefirstcellthatwouldtryto
killthepathogenwouldlikelybe____.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Question4of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Themechanismofactionofinterferonincludesallofthefollowingexcept____.

A.

B.

C.

D.

 AnswerKey:B

Question5of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Whichcellsdirectlyattackabnormalcellsinthebody?

AnswerKey:B

Question6of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Activationofbasophilswillleadto______.

AnswerKey:A

Question7of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Whichofthefollowingexhibitshighestphagocyticactivity?

AnswerKey:A

Question8of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Firstlinedefenseshavewhataspectincommonwitheachother?

A.

B.

C.

 D.

E.

AnswerKey:C

Question9of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Whichofthefollowingisinvolvedinadaptiveimmunity?

AnswerKey:C

Question10of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Whichoftheseisnotacharacteristicofinnateimmunity?

AnswerKey:B

Question11of20(worth2points)

Normalmicrobiotaprovideprotectionfrominfectionbyallofthefollowingexcept____.

A. theyprovideantibacterialchemicals

B. theyoutcompetenewcomers

C. theymakethechemicalenvironmen

D. theyproducelysozyme

Question12of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Macrophagesarisefromwhichofthefollowing?

AnswerKey:C

Question13of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Bacteriaarefirstingestedintoa_____duringphagocytosis.

AnswerKey:A

Question14of20(worth2points)

Neutrophilswithdefectivelysosomesareunableto____.

Question15of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Oneoftheresponsesagainstbacterialinfectionistheoverproductionofwhitebloodcells,whichisalsoknownas
________.

AnswerKey:D

Question16of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Whereinthephagocytedoesthemicrobegetdigested?

AnswerKey:C

Question17of20(worth2points)

Whichoneofthefollowingisnotaneffectoffever?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question18of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

Chillsisasignthat____.

AnswerKey:B

Question19of20(worth2points)

Whichofthesecellsisnotphagocytic?

Question20of20Score:2(ofpossible2points)

The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is
called ____.

A exocytos
. is

B eliminati
. on

C chemota
. xis

D adherenc
. e

E digestion
.


One of the responses against bacterial infection is the overproduction of white blood cells, which
is also known as ________.

Answer Key: D

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The mechanism of action of interferon includes all of the following except ____.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer Key: B
Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following white blood cells is most likely to be involved in the destruction of a tumor
cell?

Answer Key: B

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which one of the following is not an effect of fever?

Answer Key: C

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following statements about interferons is not true?

Answer Key: D

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

A fever is a _____ response to infection.

Answer Key: B

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Where in the phagocyte does the microbe get digested?

Answer Key: C

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a function of inflammation?

Answer Key: D

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Macrophages arise from which of the following?

Answer Key: C

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause
damage to the bacterial _________.

Answer Key: C

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is found normally in blood?

Answer Key: A

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is not a chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from
infection?


Answer Key: C

Question 13 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Answer Key: A
Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is
called ____.

Answer Key: C

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Activation of basophils will lead to ______.

Answer Key: A

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Inflammation is a ____ response to infection.

Answer Key: A

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Bacteria are first ingested into a _____ during phagocytosis.

Answer Key: A

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Mucous membranes are a part of ____.

Answer Key: B

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which cells directly attack abnormal cells in the body?

Answer Key: B

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Crisis is a sign that ____.

Answer Key: A
A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding.
Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating
microbes?

Answer Key: C

Question 2 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The function of the ciliary escalator is to ____.

A.

B.

C.

D.

 Answer Key: D

Question 3 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the effect of interferons?

Answer Key: C

Question 4 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Where in the phagocyte does the microbe get digested?

Answer Key: C

Question 5 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Chills is a sign that ____.

Answer Key: B

Question 6 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

The mechanism of action of interferon includes all of the following except ____.

A.

B.

C.

 D.

Answer Key: B

Question 7 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is involved in initializing inflammation?

Answer Key: A

Question 8 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause
damage to the bacterial _________.

Answer Key: C

Question 9 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

What is the role of opsonins?

A. Theyattractphagocytestothelocatio

B. Theyarepresentonthesurfaceofpha

C. Theycreatehandlesthatmakeiteasie

D. Theyaidintheformationofthephag

Answer Key: C

Question 10 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which one of the following is not an effect of fever?

Answer Key: C

Question 11 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

All of the following can be determined from a differential white blood cell count except _____.

Answer Key: C

Question 12 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body
fluid?

Answer Key: B

Question 13 of 20 (worth 2 points)

What is a phagolysosome?

A. Aproteinthatcoversthesurfaceofaninvadingmicrobe,mak

B. Avesiclecontainingonlydigestiveenzymesandotherantimic

C. Avesiclecontainingonlyanengulfedinvadingmicroorganism

D. Thestructurethatresultsfromthefusionofaphagosomeand

Question 14 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following exhibits highest phagocytic activity?

Answer Key: A

Question 15 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Macrophages arise from which of the following?

Answer Key: C

Question 16 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these is not a characteristic of innate immunity?



Answer Key: B

Question 17 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of these cells is not phagocytic?

Answer Key: B

Question 18 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to ____.



Answer Key: C

Question 19 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

Answer Key: B

Question 20 of 20 Score: 2 (of possible 2 points)

Which of the following does not provide protection from phagocytic digestion?

Answer Key: D