ELECTRICITY

Pre-requisite : Before going through this chapter, you = Permittivity of the medium
should be thorough with the basic concepts of the and = 0r
chapter explained in X NCERT.
r = relative Permittivity or dielectric constant of the me-
dium.
CONSERVATION OF ELECTRIC CHARGE Coulombs law is based on physical observation and
it is not logically derived from any other concept.
Whenever two bodies are charged by rubbing, one gets
positively charged and the other gets negatively ILLUSTRATIONS
charged. The net charge on the two bodies, however,
remains zerothe same as that before rubbing. In other 1. Find out the electrostatics force between two point
words, charge is conserved. It can neither be created charges placed in air (each of +1 C) if they are
nor be destroyed. The only thing that happens on separated by 1m .
rubbing is that charged particles (electrons) get
kq1q2 9 10 9 1 1
transferred from one body to the other. Sol. Fe = = = 910 9 N
2
r 12
In some phenomena, charged particles are created.
Note : From the above result we can say that 1 C
But even then the conservation of charge holds. For
charge is too large to realize. In nature, charge is
example, a free neutron converts itself into an electron
usually of the order of C
and the proton taken together is also zero. So, there is
no change in the conversion of a neutron to an electron 2. A particle of mass m carrying charge q 1 is revolving
and a proton. around a fixed charge q 2 in a circular path of radius
r. Calculate the period of revolution and its speed
also.
COULOMBS LAW
1 q1q2 4 2mr
2
Sol. = mr = '
Charles Augustine de Coulomb studied the interaction 4 0 r 2 T2
forces of charged particles in detail in 1784. He used a
torsion balance. On the basis of his experiments he ( 4 0 )r 2 ( 4 2mr )
established Coulombs law. According to this law the T2 =
q1q2
magnitude of the electric force between two point
charges is directly proportional to the product of the
magnitude of the two charges and inversely 0mr
or T = 4r
proportional to the square of the distance between q1q2
them and acts along the straight line joining the two and also we can say that
charges.
In mathematical terms, the force that each of the two q1q 2 mv 2 q1q2
= V=
point charges q1 and q2 at a distance r apart exerts on 4 0r 2 r 4 0mr
the other can be expressed as
PROPERTIES OF ELECTRIC FIELD INTENSITY
q1q2
F= k
r2 (i) It is a vector quantity. Its direction is the same
This force is repulsive for like charges and attractive as the force experienced by positive charge.
for unlike charges. (ii) Electric field due to positive charge is always
1 away from it while due to negative charge always
Where k is a constant of proportionality. k = towards it.
4 0 ,
(iii) Its S.. unit is Newton/Coulomb.
here 0 is absolute permittivity of free space.
The force is directed along the line joining the centres (iv) Electric force on a charge q placed in a region
of the two charged particles. of electric field at a point where the electric field
For any other medium except air, free space or vacuum
intensity is E is given by F qE .
coulombs law reduces to
Electric force on point charge is in the same
1 q1q2 direction of electric field on positive charge
F =
4 r 2 and in opposite direction on a negative charge.

PAGE # 1 1
 (v) It obeys the superposition principle, that is, the 4. Calculate the electric field intensity which would be
field intensity at a point due to a system of charges is just sufficient to balance the weight of a particle of
vector sum of the field intensities due to individual charge 10 c and mass 10 mg.
point charges.
Sol. As force on a charge q in an electric field E is
E E1 E 2 E 3 + .....
F q = qE
(vi) It is produced by source charges. The electric So according to given problem Fe
field will be a fixed value at a point unless we change
the distribution of source charges.
q E
A
3. Five point charges, each of value q are placed on five
vertices of a regular hexagon of side L. What is the | Fq | | W | i.e., |q|E = mg
magnitude of the force on a point charge of value q
coulomb placed at the centre of the hexagon? mg W
i.e., E = = 10 N/C., in downward direction.
|q|
L
ELECTROSTATIC EQUILIBRIUM
E D
q
q The position where the resultant force on a charged
particle becomes zero is called equilibrium position.
q O
C (a) Stable Equilibrium :
F q
-q A charge is initially in equilibrium position and is
displaced by a small distance. If the charge tries to
q return back to the same equilibrium position then this
A B equilibrium is called position of stable equilibrium.
(b) Unstable Equilibrium :

Sol. If there had been a sixth charge +q at the remaining If charge is displaced by a small distance from its
vertex of hexagon force due to all the six charges on equilibrium position and the charge has no tendency
q at O would be zero (as the forces due to individual to return to the same equilibrium position. Instead it
charges will balance each other), i.e., goes away from the equilibrium position.

FR 0 (c) Neutral Equilibrium :

If charge is displaced by a small distance and it is still
Now if f is the force due to sixth charge and F due to in equilibrium condition then it is called neutral
remaining five charges. equilibrium.

F + f =0 i.e. F =f 5. Two equal positive point charges 'Q' are fixed at points
B(a, 0) and A(a, 0). Another test charge q0 is also
1 q q 1 q2 placed at O(0, 0). Show that the equilibrium at 'O' is
or, |F| = |f| = = (i) stable for displacement along X-axis.
4 0 L2 4 0 L2
(ii) unstable for displacement along Y-axis.

1 q2 Sol. (i)
FNet = FCO 4 2 along CO
=
L

KQq0
Initially FAO + FBO = 0 | FAO | = | FBO | =
a2
When charge is slightly shifted towards + x axis by a
small distance x, then.

| FAO | < | FBO |

PAGE # 2 2
 Therefore the particle will move towards origin (its
original position) hence the equilibrium is stable.
(ii) When charge is shifted along y axis
After resolving components net force will be along y
axis so the particle will not return to its original
position so it is unstable equilibrium. Finally the
charge will move to infinity.
ELECTRIC LINES OF FORCE (ELOF)
The line of force in an electric field is an imaginary
line, the tangent to which at any point on it
represents the direction of electric field at the given
point.
(a) Properties :
(i) Line of force originates out from a positive
charge and terminates on a negative charge. If
there is only one positive charge then lines start
from positive charge and terminate at . If there
is only one negative charge then lines start from
and terminates at negative charge.
6.
Sol. No. of ELOF charge
7.
(ii) The electric intensity at a point is the number
of lines of force streaming through per unit area
normal to the direction of the intensity at that point.
The intensity will be more where the density of
lines is more.
(iii) Number of lines originating (terminating) from
(on) is directly proportional to the magnitude of
the charge.
(iv) ELOF of resultant electric field can never intersect
with each other.
(v) Electric lines of force produced by static
charges do not form close loop.
(vi ) E lec tr ic lin es of fo rc e en d o r s ta rt
perpendicularly on the surface of a conductor.
(vii) Electric lines of force never enter into
conductors.
If number of electric lines of force from charge q
are 10 then find out number of electric lines of
force from 2q charge.
10 q
20 2q
So number of ELOF will be 20.
A charge + Q is fixed at a distance of d in front of
an infinite metal plate. Draw the lines of force
indicating the directions clearly.
PAGE # 3 3
Sol. There will be induced charge on two surfaces of
conducting plate, so ELOF will start from +Q charge
and terminate at conductor and then will again start
from other surface of conductor.
ELECTRIC FLUX
Consider some surface in an electric field E . Let us
select a small area element dS on this surface.
The electric flux of the field over the
area element is given by dE = E . ds
Direction of dS is normal to the surface. It is along
n dS E charges separated by distance r as shown in figure,
or dE = EdS cos
or dE = (E cos ) dS
or dE = En dS
where En is the component of electric field in the
direction of dS .
If the electric field is uniform over that area then
E = E S
(a) Physical Meaning :
The electric flux through a surface inside an electric
field represents the total number of electric lines of
force crossing the surface in a direction normal the
surface. It is a property of electric field
(b) Unit :
(i) The SI unit of electric flux is Nm2 C1 (gauss) or J
m2 C1.
(ii) Electric flux is a scalar quantity. (It can be positive,
negative or zero)
8. The electric field in a region is given by,
3 4 3
E E 0 i E 0 j with E0 = 2.0 10 N/C. Find the
5 5
flux of this field through a rectangular surface of area
0.2m2 parallel to the YZ plane.
Sol. E = E S
2 speed computers.
3 4
= E 0 i E 0 j . 0.2i = 240 N m
5 5 C (iv) Super conductors are used for the transmission of
ELECTRIC POTENTIAL ENERGY
Consider a charge Q placed at a point P as shown in
figure. If another charge q of the same sign is now
brought from a very far away distance (infinity) to point
O near P, then charge q will experience a force of
repulsion due to charge Q. If charge q is still pushed
towards P, work is done. This work done is the potential
energy of the system of these two charges.
Q
q q
r
From infinity
P O
Thus, the electric potential energy of a system of
charges is defined as the amount of work done in
bringing the various charges from infinite separation
to their present positions to form the required
system. It is denoted by U. For the system of two
the electric potential energy is given by :
kQq
U=
r
Electric potential energy is the from of energy, therefore
it is measured in joule (J).
SUPER CONDUCTOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Prof. K. Onnes in 1911 discovered that certain metals
and alloys at very low temperature lose their
resistance considerably. This phenomenon is known
as super-conductivity. As the temperature decreases,
the resistance of the material also decreases, but when
the temperature reaches a certain critical value (called
critical temperature or transition temperature), the
resistance of the material completely
disappears i.e. it becomes zero. Then the material
behaves as if it is a super-conductor and there will be
flow of electrons without any resistance whatsoever.
The critical temperature is different for different material.
It has been found that mercury at critical temperature
4.2 K, lead at 7.25 K and niobium at critical temperature
9.2 K become super-conductor.
Applications of super conductors :
(i) Super conductors are used for making very strong
electromagnets.
(ii) Super conductivity is playing an important role in
material science research and high energy particle
physics.
(iii) Super conductivity is used to produce very high
electric power.
PAGE # 4 4
 also so that current flows through resistor R. If r is the
CELL internal resistance of the cell and V is the reading
shown by voltmeter, then
It converts chemical energy into electrical energy. E
Electrochemical cells are of three types : I= E = I (R + r)
Rr
(a) Primary cell (b) Secondary cell E = IR + Ir
(c) Fuel cell Here, IR = V the potential difference
(a) Primary Cell : So, E = V + r
EV
It is an electrochemical cell, which cannot be recharged, r= .........(i)
but the chemicals have to be replaced after a long use. I
The reactions taking place in the cell are irreversible. V
V = IR or I =
Eg. : Daniel cell, Lechlanche cell, Dry cell etc. R
So for equation (i)
(b) Secondary Cell :

Electrical energy can be converted into chemical energy (E V)R

r= ........(ii)
and chemical energy can be converted into electrical V
energy in these cells, i.e. secondary cells can be
recharged after use. Chemical reaction taking place in
these cells are reversible.
GROUPING OF CELLS
Example : Lead accumulator, Edison cell (alkali cell)
and iron nickel cell.
(a) Cells in Series :
(c) Electro Motive Force of a Cell (E.M.F.) :
E1,r1 E2,r2 E3,r3 Enrn
It is the maximum potential difference between the two
B
electrodes of the cell when no current is drawn from
the cell or cell is in the open circuit. Eeq,req
A B
(d) Potential Difference of a Cell :
Equivalent EMF
It is the difference of potential between two terminals
Eeq = E1 + E2 + ......... + En (write EMFs with polarity)
of the cell when current is drawn from it or the cell is in
Equivalent internal resistance req = r1 + r2 + r3 + r4 + ........ rn
closed circuit.
If n cells each of emf E, are arranged in series and if r is
(e) Internal Resistance of a Cell :
internal resistance of each cell, then total emf = nE
It is the resistance offered to the flow of current inside
the cell i.e. internal resistance is the resistance offered E,r E,r E,r E,r
to the flow of current by electrolyte. Internal resistance A B
decreases with the increase of the area of plates and Upto n
also with the decrease of the distance between plates.
I
R
Determination of internal resistance of a cell :

nE
So current in the circuit, I=
R nr
There may by two cases :

nE
(i) If nr << R, then I = = n current due to one cell.
R
So, series combination is advantageous.

E
(ii) If nr >> R, then I = = current due to one cell.
r
Connect a voltmeter to a cell through key K1. Also So, Series combination is not advantageous.
connect a resistor R to cell through K2. First put in key
Note : If polarity of m cells is reversed, then equivalent
K1. The reading shown by voltmeter gives us the e.m.f.
e.m.f. = (n2m) E while the equivalent resistance is
of the cell since negligible current flows through cell
still nr + R, so current in R will be
due to high resistance of the voltmeter. Insert key K2
(n 2m)E
i=
nr R
PAGE # 5 5
(b) Cells in Parallel : The combination of cells is equivalent to single cell of

mr
If m cells each of emf E and internal resistance r be emf = mE and internal resistance =
connected in parallel and if this combination is n
connected to an external resistance then the emf of
the circuit is E. mE
Current I = mr
R
r n
Internal resistance of the circuit = .
m
For maximum current, nR = mr

mr
or R = = internal resistance of the equivalent
n
battery.

nE mE
Imax = .
2r 2R
E mE using mn = N in above equation we get number of
and I =
r mR r
R
m Nr
rows n =
There may by two cases : R
mE 9. 9 cells, each having the same emf and 3 ohm internal
(i) If mR << r, then I = = m current due to one cell.
r resistance, are used to draw maximum current through
an external resistance of 3 ohm. find the combination
So, Parallel combination is advantageous.
of cells.
E Sol. For the condition of maximum current number of rows
(ii) If mR >> r, then I = = current due to one cell.
R
Nr
So, parallel combination is not advantageous. n=
R
If emf and internal resistances of each cell are different,
then, 93
so n = =3
E1 / r1 E2 / r2 .....En / rn 3
Eeq =
1/ r1 1/ r2 .....1/ rn so combination will be like 3 rows and 3 cells in each
E1r2 E2r1 row.
for two cells E = (Use emf with polarity)
r1 r2
r1 BATTERY
E1
E2 r2
Battery is an arrangement that creates a constant
E3 r3
potential difference between its terminals. It is a
rn combination of a number of cells in series.
En
The impact of battery :
(c) Cells in Multiple Arc : With the discovery of voltaic cell, it was soon realised
n = number of rows that if one constructs a number of cells and joins the
m = number of cells in each row. negative terminal of one with the positive terminal of
the other and so on, then the emf (which is the potential
difference between the electrodes in an open circuit)
of the combination of cells will be the sum of the emfs
of the individual cells. This observation led to a burst of
scientific activity in 1802. Humphrey Davy, an English
chemist, made a battery of 60 pairs of zinc and copper
plates. The large emf thus produced, was used to get
high current, which could melt iron and platinum wires.
By 1807, he had a battery of almost 300 plates with
mn = N (total number of identical cells) : which he was able to decompose chemical salts. This
led to the discovery of new elements.

PAGE # 6 6
 By 1808, Davy had assembled 2,000 pairs of plates.
or R r 4
W ith this battery, he created electric arcs and
succeeded in extracting the elements like barium, R r
calcium and magnesium from their compounds. Thus, or 4
R r
electricity took a front seat in exploring the nature of
4 0.15 % = 0.60%
matter.

ELECTRICAL RESISTANCE EFFECT OF STRETCHING OF A WIRE ON RESISTANCE

The property of a substance by virtue of which it

opposes the flow of electric current through it is In stretching, the density of wire usually does not
termed as electrical resistance. Electrical resistance change. Therefore
depends on the size, geometry, temperature and Volume before stretching = Volume after stretching
internal structure of the conductor.
1A 1 2 A 2

We known that, vd = eE R 2 2 A1
m and
R1 1 A 2
eV
= If information of lengths before and after stretching
m
A1 2
eV is given, then use
I = Anevd = Ane A 2 1
m
2
Ane2 V R2 2
I=
m R1 1

V m If information of radius r1 and r2 is given then use

I Ane 2 2 A
1
V m 1 A 2
R=
I Ane 2
2 4
R 2 A1 r
m 1
R= R1 A 2 r2
Ane 2
RA CONDUCTIVITY :
R = =
A
(a) Reciprocal of resistivity of a conductor is called
m its conductivity. It is generally represented by .
=
ne 2
1
is called resistivity (it is also called specific (b)

m 1
resis tance), and = = , is called (c) Unit : ohm 1. metre 1
ne 2
conductivity. Therefore current in conductors is
EFFECT OF TEMPERATURE ON RESISTANCE
proportional to potential difference applied across
AND RESISTIVITY
its ends. This is Ohm's Law. Units: 1m 1
also called siemens m 1. The resistance of a conductor depends upon the
temperature. As the temperature increases, the
10. If a copper wire is stretched to make its radius random motion of free electrons also increases. If
decrease by 0.15%, Find the percentage increase the number density of charge carrier electrons
in resistance (approximately). remains constant as in the case of a conductor, then
the increase of random motion increases the
Sol. Due to stretching resistance changes are in the ratio resistivity. The variation of resistance with temperature
4 is given by the following relation
R 2 r1

R1 r2 R t R 0 1 t t 2

PAGE # 7 7
where Rt and R0 are the resistance at t0C and 00C
respectively and and are constants. The
constant is very small so its may be assumed
negligible.
R t R 0 1 t
R t R0
or
R0 t
This constant is called as temperature coefficient
of resistance of the substance.
If R0 = 1 ohm, t = 10C, then
R t R 0
Thus, the temperature coefficient of resistance is
equal to the increase in resistance of a conductor
having a resistance of one ohm on raising its
temperature by 10C. The temperature coefficient of
resistance may be positive or negative.
From calculations it is found that for most of the
1 0
metals the value of is nearly / C . Hence
273
substituting in the above equation
t resistance of 2.5 ohm at 373 K. What is
R t R 0 1
273
273 t T R R0
R0 R0
273 273
where T is the absolute temperature of the conductor.
Rt T
Thus, the resistance of a pure metallic wire is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature.
The graph drawn between the resistance R t and
temperature t is found to be a straight line
Rt
R0
tC
The resistivity or specific resistance varies with
temperature. This variation is due to change in
resistance of a conductor with temperature. The
dependence of the resistivity with temperature is
represented by the following equation.
t 0 1 t
With the rise of temperature the specific resistance
or resistivity of pure metals increases and that of
semi-conductors and insulators decrease.
The resistivity of alloys increases with the rise of
temperature but less than that of metals.
On applying pressure on pure metals, its resistivity
decreases but on applying tension, the resistivity
increases.
The resistance of alloys such as eureka, manganin
etc., increases in smaller amount with the rise in
temperature. Their temperature coefficient of
resistance is negligible. On account of their high
resistivity and negligible temperature coefficient of
resistance these alloys are used to make wires for
resistance boxes, potentiometer, meter bridge etc.,
The resistance of semiconductors, insulators,
electrolytes etc., decreases with the rise in
temperature. Their temperature coefficients of
resistance are negative.
On increasing the temperature of semi conductors a
large number of electrons get free after breaking their
bonds. These electrons reach the conduction band
from valence band. Thus conductivity increases or
resistivity decreases with the increase of free electron
density.
11. A wire has a resistance of 2 ohm at 273 K and a
the temperature coefficient of resistance of the
material?
2.5 2
Sol.
R 0 T T0 2 373 273
0 .5
2.5 10 3 / 0K
200
WHEATSTONE BRIDGE
Wheatstone bridge is an arrangement of four resistors
in the shape of a quadrilateral which can be used to
measure unknown resistance in terms of the
remaining three resistances.
The arrangement of Wheatstone bridge is shown in
figure below. Out of four resistors, two resistances R1,
R2 and R3, R4 are connected in series and are joined in
parallel across two points a and c. A battery of emf E is
connected across junctions a and c and a galvanometer
(G) between junction b and d. The keys K1 and K2 are
used for the flow of current in the various branches of
bridge.
Principle of Wheatstone Bridge :
When key K1 is closed, current i from the battery is
divided at junction a in two parts. A part i1 goes through
R1 and the rest i2 goes through R3. When key K2 is
closed, galvanometer shows a deflection.
PAGE # 8 8

The direction of deflection depends on the value of
potential difference between b and d. When the value
of potential at b and d is same, then no current will flow
through galvanometer. This condition is known as the
condition of balanced bridge or null deflection
condition. This situation can be obtained by choosing
suitable values of the resistances. Thus, in null
deflection state, we have :
Va Vb = Va Vd
or i1 R1 = i2 R3 ...(i)
Similarly :
Vb Vc = Vd Vc
or i1 R2 = i2 R4 ...(ii)
On dividing equation (i) by (ii), we get
i1 R1 i2 R 3 R1 R 3
i1 R 2 = i2 R 4 or
R 2 R 4 ...(iii)
Equation (iii) states the condition of balanced bridge.
Thus, in null deflection condition the ratio of
resistances of adjacent arms of the bridge are same.
The resistor of unknown resistance is usually
connected in one of the arm of the bridge. The
resistance of one of the remaining three arms is
adjusted such that the galvanometer shows zero
deflection. If resistance of unknown resistor is R4. Then
R2
R4 = (R3)
R1
For better accuracy of the bridge one should choose
resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4 of same order.
GALVANOMETER
Galvanometer is a simple device, used to detect the
current, to find direction of current and also to compare
the currents.
With the help of galvanometer we make two
important devises known as Ammeter and voltmeter
as discussed below.
(a) Ammeter :
Ammeter is an electrical instrument which measures
the strength of current in ampere in a circuit. Ammeter
is a pivoted coil galvanometer which is always
connected in series in circuit so that total current (to be
measured) may pass through it. For an ammeter of
good quality, the resistance of its coil should be very
low so that it may measure the strength of current
accurately (without affecting the current passing
through the circuit). The resistance of an ideal ammeter
is zero (practically it should be minimum). So, to
minimize the effective resistance of an ammeter, a low
value resistance (shunt) as per requirement is
connected in parallel to the galvanometer to convert it
to ammeter of desired range.
In electric circuit, the positive terminal of an ammeter
is connected to positive plate and negative terminal is
connected to negative plate of battery.
Desired value of shunt depends on the range
(measurable maximum current) of ammeter converted
from galvanometer.
If pivoted galvanometer of resistance G is to measure
current i (as an ammeter) then from figure.
G
i ig ig i
is S
ig G
ig G = (i ig) S or S=
(i ig )
Where ig is an amount of current required for full
deflection in galvanometer. By using a low value of
resistance S (shunt) in parallel to the galvanometer
(resistance G), the effective resistance of
GS
converted ammeter RA = becomes very low..
(G S)
NOTE :
Shunt : If anyhow, the flowing current through
galvanometer becomes more than its capacity, the coil
has possibility of burning due to heat produced by
flowing current. Secondly, its pointer may break up due
to impact with stop pin as its proportional deflection
as per amount of flowing current.
In order to minimize these possibilities a low resistance
wire (or strip) is connected in parallel with galvanometer,
which is known as shunt.
(b) Voltmeter :
It is an electrical instrument which measures the
potential difference in volt between two points of
electric circuit. Its construction is similar as that of
ammeter. The only difference between ammeter and
voltmeter is that ammeter has its negligible
(approximately zero) resistance so that it may measure
current of circuit passing through it more accurately
giving the deflection accordingly, while the voltmeter
passes negligible current through itself so that potential
difference developed due to maximum current passing
PAGE # 9 9
 through circuit may be measured. Therefore, an V1 V2 + V3 V4 = 0. Boxes may contain resistor
appropriate value of high resistance is required to be or battery or any other element (linear or nonlinear).
connected in series of galvanometer to convert it into a It is also known as KVL
voltmeter of desired range.
12. Figure shows, current in a part of electrical circuit, what
Voltmeter is connected in parallel to the electric circuit.
will be the value of current (i) ?
If a galvanometer of resistance G is to be converted
into a voltmeter of range V, then required value of high
resistance RH will be
2A 1A
2A
V = ig (RH + G) A
3
V 1.
P Q R
or RH = I G S
g 3A i
V

i
ig 1A
2A 2A
G i1 i2 A
RH 3
Sol. R 1.
Connecting this value of high resistance in the series P Q
i3
of galvanometer, it will be converted to a voltmeter of S
3A i
range V. After connecting high resistance RH in series
of galvanometer of resistance G, the effective resistance
of voltmeter becomes RV = (RH + G) very high (high in From KCL, current at junction P, i1 = 2 + 3 = 5 A
comparison to G). From KCL, current at junction Q, i2 = i1 + 1 = 5 + 1 = 6 A
From KCL, current at junction R, i3 = i2 2 = 6 2 = 4 A
Ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance of its own. When From KCL, current at junction S, i = i3 1.3 = 4 1.3
ideal voltmeter is connected parallel to a part of an = 2.7 A
electric circuit, it passes zero amount of current through
itself from the circuit so that measurement of potential 13. In the circuit shown, calculate the value of R in ohm
difference across the points of connection may be that will result in no current through the 30 V battery.
perfectly accurate.

KIRCHHOFF'S LAWS

(a) Kirchhoffs Current Law (Junction law) :

This law is based on law of conservation of charge.
It states that "The algebraic sum of the currents
meeting at a point of the circuit is zero" or total
current entering a junction is equal total current
leaving the junction. Sol. Applying KVL in loop CEFDC
50 iR 20 i = 0
in = out.
50
It is also known as KCL (Kirchhoff's current law). i =
20 R
(b) Kirchhof f s Voltage Law (Loop law) :
A C i E
The algebraic sum of all the potential differences
along a closed loop is zero. IR + EMF =0. The 50V
closed loop can be traversed in any direction. While i
traversing a loop if potential increases, put a positive R
sign in expression and if potential decreases put 20
a negative sign.
B i F
10 D
Potential drop across R = Potential drop across AB
iR = 30

50
.R = 30
20 R
R = 30

PAGE # 1010
 8. 12 positive charges of magnitude q are placed on a
EXERCISE circle of radius R in a manner that they are equally
spaced. A charge +Q is placed at the centre. If one of
Charge and coulombs Law : the charges q is removed, then the force on Q is :
(KVPY/2010)
1. Conductivity of superconductor is : (A) zero
(A) infinite (B) very large
(C) very small (D) zero qQ
(B) away from the position of the removed
40R2
2. Two charges of +1 C & + 5 C are placed 4 cm apart,
the ratio of the force exerted by both charges on each charge.
other will be -
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 5 11qQ
(C) 5 : 1 (D) 25 : 1 (C) away from the position of the removed
40R2

3. A body has 80 microcoulomb of charge. Number of charge.

additional electrons on it will be :
(A) 8 x 105 (B) 80 x 1015 qQ
(D) towards the position of the removed
(C) 5 x 1014 (D) 1.28 x 1017 40R2

charge.
4. Which of the following relation is wrong ?
(A) Q = It
9. In a neon discharge tube 2.8 1018 Ne+ ions move to
1Coulomb
(B) 1 ampere = 1Second the right per second while 1.2 1018 electrons move to
the left per second. Therefore , the current in the
(C) V = Wq
discharge tube is : (IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
W (A) 0.64 A towards right
(D) V =
q (B) 0.256 A towards right
5. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when kept at a (C) 0.64 A towards left
certain distance, exert force F on each other. If distance (D) 0.256 A towards left
is reduced to half, force between them becomes :
Electric filed and Potential :
F
(A) (B) 2F
2
10. If Q = 2 coloumb and force on it is F = 100 newton,
F then the value of field intensity will be:
(C) 4F (D)
4 (A) 100 N/C (B) 50 N/C
(C) 200 N/C (D) 10 N/C
4
6. Coulomb of charge contains.............................
25
electrons : 11. In the electric field of charge Q, another charge is
(A) 1015 (B) 1018 carried from A to B. A to C, A to D and A to E, then work
20
(C) 10 (D) none of these
done will be -
7. 5 charges each of magnitude 105 C and mass 1 kg
are placed (fixed) symmetrically about a movable
central charges of magnitude 5 105C and mass 0.5 A
kg as shown. The charges at P1 is removed. The
B
acceleration of the central charge is : (KVPY/2009)
Q +
centre
P1

P2 P5
C D E
O

P3 P4 (A) minimum along path AB.

1
[Given OP1 = OP2 = OP3 = OP4 = OP5 1 m ; (B) minimum along path AD.
4 0 = 9
(C) minimum along path AE.
109 in SI units]
(D) zero along all the paths.
(A) 9 m s2 upwards (B) 9 m s2 downwards
(C) 4.5 m s2 upwards (D) 4.5 m s2 downwards

PAGE # 1111
12. A negatively charged particle initially at rest is placed in 16. In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between
an electric field that varies from point to point. There points A and B will be.
are no other fields. Then : (KVPY/2008)
(A) the particle moves along the electric line of force
passing through it.
(B) the particle moves opposite to the electric line of
force passing through it.
(C) the direction of acceleration of the particle is
tangential to the electric line of force at every instant.
(D) the direction of acceleration of the particle is normal
to the electric line of force at every instant.
8
(A) R (B) 4R
13. Two charges +q and q are placed at a distance b 3
apart as shown in the figure below. (KVPY/2009)
(C) 6R (D) 10R

17. Resistance of a conductor of length 75 cm is 3.25 .

B
What will be the length of a similar conductor whose
resistance is 13.25 ?
P A (A) 305.76 cm (B) 503.76 cm
C (C) 200 cm (D) 610 cm
b/2
18. A piece of wire of resistance 4 is bent through 1800
+q q at its mid point and the two halves are twisted together,
b then resistance is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 8
The electric field at a point P on the perpendicular
19. In how many parts (equal) a wire of 100 be cut so
bisector as shown as : that a resistance of 1 is obtained by connecting
(A) along vector
A
(B) along vector
B
them in parallel ?
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C) along vector
C
(D) Zero (C) 100 (D) 50

20. If a wire of resistance 1 is stretched to double its

14. Two charges +Q and _2Q are located at points A and B length, then the resistance will become :
on a horizontal line as shown below : 1
(A) (B) 2
2
1
(C) (D) 4
4

21. Two copper wires, one of length 1 m and the other of

The electric field is zero at a point which is located at a
length 9 m, are found to have the same resistance.
finite distance : (KVPY/2011) Their diameters are in the ratio :
(A) On the perpendicular bisector of AB (A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 9
(B) left of A on the line (C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
(C) between A and B on the line
22. Reading of ammeter in ampere for the following circuit
(D) right of B on the line is :

Resistance :

15. There are three resistance 5, 6and 8connected in

parallel to a battery of 15 V and of negligible resistance.
The potential drop across 6resistance is :
(A) 10 V (B) 15 V
(C) 20 V (D) 8 V
(A) 0.8 (B) 1
(C) 0.4 (D) 2

PAGE # 1212
23. Two resistors are joined in series, then their equivalent 29. The resistance of a wire of cross-section a and length
resistance is 90 . When the same resistors are is R ohm. The resistance of another wire of the
joined in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 20 . same material and of the same length but cross-sec-
The resistances of the two resistors will be : tion 4a will be
(A) 70 , 20 (B) 80 , 10
R
(C) 60 , 30 (D) 50 , 40 (A) 4R (B)
4
24. In the ladder network shown, current through the R
resistor 3 is 0.25 A. The input voltage V is equal (C) (D) 16 R
16
to

30. In the following circuit the value of total resistance be-

tween X and Y in ohm is :

X r r r

r r r to

Y r r r

(A) 10 V (B) 20 V
(A) (1 + 3 )R (B) ( 3 1)R
15 (C) (D) 50 r
(C) 5 V (D) V
2
25. The reading of voltmeter is 31. Wires A and B are made from the same material. Wire
A has length 12m and weight 50 g, while wire B is 18 m
long and weighs 40 g. Then the ratio (RA / RB) of their
resistances will be : (IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2008)
(A) 16 / 45 (B) 4 / 5
(C) 8 / 15 (D) 4 / 9

32. In case of the circuit arrangement shown below, the

equivalent resistance between A and B is :
(A) 50V (B) 60 V
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
(C) 40V (D) 80 V

2
10
A A B
26. 1.4A 1.4A
25 5

(A) 0.4 (B) 1 (A) 10 (B) 2.5 W

(C) 0.6 (D) 1.2
40
(C) W (D) None of the above
27. Three identical bulbs are connected in parallel with a 3
battery. The current drawn from the battery is 6 A.
If one of the bulbs gets fused, what will be the total 33. The net resistance between points P and Q in the
current drawn from the battery ?
(A) 6A (B) 2A circuit shown in fig. is
(C) 4A (D)

28. A uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly compressed

along its length, until its radius becomes n times the
original radius. Now, the resistance of the wire
becomes :
(A) R/n (B) R/n4 (A) R/2 (B) 2R/5
2
(C) R/n (D) n R
(C) 3R/5 (D) R/3

PAGE # 1313
34. A wire of resistance 10.0 ohm is stretched so as to 38. In the circuit arrangement shown, if the point A and B are
increase its length by 20%. Its resistance then would joined by a wire the current in this wire will be :
be : (IAO/Sr/Stage-I/2008) (IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) 10.0 ohm (B) 12.0 ohm
A
(C) 14.4 ohm (D) 10.2 ohm

35. In the circuit shown below, all the resistances are equal,
B
each equal to R. The equivalent resistance between
points A and C is : (IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2009) 24Volt
B C
R R R (A) 1A. (B) 2A.
(C) 4A. (D) zero.
R R

R R 39. In the following circuit, each resistor has a resistance

R
A D of 15 and the battery has an e.m.f. of 12 V with
(A) R (B) 4R negligible internal resistance. (IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
(C) R /2 (D) none of the above

36. A battery or 10 V and negligible internal resistance is

connected across the diagonally opposite corner of a
cubical network consisting of 12 resistors each of
resistance 1 . The total current 1 in the circuit external
to the network is : (KVPY/2007)

When a resistor of resistance R is connected between

D & F, no current flows through the galvanometer (not
shown in the figure) connected between C & F.
A Calculate the value of R.
(A) 10 (B) 15
10V (C) 5 (D) 30

(A) 0.83 A (B) 12 A 40. The circuit given below is for the operation of an
(C) 1 A (D) 4 A industrial fan. The resistance of the fan is 3 ohms. The
regulator provided with the fan is a fixed resistor and a
37. Figure (a) below shows a Wheatstone bridge in which
variable resistor in parallel. (IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
P, Q, R, S are fixed resistances, G is a galvanometer
and B is a battery. For this particular case the
galvanometer shows zero deflection. Now, only the
positions of B and G are interchanged,. as shown in
figure (b). The new deflection of the galvanometer.
(KVPY/2010)

Under what value of the variable resistance given

below, Power transferred to the fans will be maximum?
The power source of the fan is a dc source with internal
resistnace of 6 ohm.
(A) is to the left. (A) 3 (B) 0
(B) is to the right. (C) (D) 6
(C) is zero.
(D) depends on the values of P, Q, R, S

PAGE # 1414
41. When all the resistances in the circuit are 1 each, 46. In the circuit shown below, (IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2007)
then the equivalent resistance across points A & B will
be : (IJSO/Stage-II/2011) 10V
X

Y
(A) current flowing in the circuit is 200 mA
(B) power supplied by the battery is 2 watt
(C) current from X to Y is zero
(D) potential difference across 10 is equal to zero

47. We are given n resistors, each of resistance R. The

ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance that can
be obtained by combining them is : (KVPY/2008)
(A) nn (B) n
(C) n2 (D) logn
(A) 5/6 (B) 1/2
(C) 2/3 (D) 1/3
Cell :

42. A cylindrical copper rod has length L and resistance R. 48. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance R.
If it is melted and formed into another rod of length 2L. The potential difference between the terminals of the
the resistance will be : (KVPY/2011) cell is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell
is given as :
(A) R (B) 2R
(C) 4R (D) 8R EV
(A) R(E V) (B)
R
(E V ) (E V )
43. There are four resistors of 12 ohm each. Which of the (C) E (D) R
following values is/are possible by their combinations R V
(series and / or parallel) ? (IJSO/Stage-I/2008)
49. 24 cells, each having the same e.m.f. and 2 ohm
(A) 9 ohm (B) 16 ohm internal resistance, are used to draw maximum current
(C) 12 ohm (D) 30 ohm through an external resistance of 3 ohm. The cells
44. In case of the circuit shown below, which of the following should be connected
statements is/are true ? (IJSO/Stage-I/2009) (A) in series
(B) in parallel
+ (C) in 4 rows, each row having 6 cells
1 B (D) in 6 rows, each row having 4 cells
A 4
R1 R2 R3
2 50. The cells are joined in parallel to get the maximum
3 current when
(A) external resistance is very large as compared to
(A) R1, R2 and R3 are in series. the total internal resistance
(B) R2 and R3 are in series. (B) internal resistance is very large as compared to
(C) R2 and R3 are in parallel. the external resistance
(D) The equivalent resistance of the circuit is (C) internal resistance and external resistance are
R 2R3 equal
R1+ (D) emf of each cell is very large
R 2 R3
51. In secondary cells :
45. A current i reaching at a point in a circuit gets branched
(A) Chemical changes can be reversed by heating
and flows through two resistors R1 and R2. Then, the
electrodes
current through R1 varies as : (IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)
(B) Chemical changes can be reversed by passing
(A) R1 (B) R2
electric current
(C) (R1+ R2) (D) 1l (R1 + R2)
(C) Current is produced by photo chemical reactions
(D) None of these

PAGE # 1515
52. Three types of electric cells which provide current are : Electric Energy and Power :
(A) Button cell, solar cell & secondary cell 57. An electric iron of heating element of resistance 88
(B) Solar cell, electrolytic cell, electro chemical cell is used at 220 volt for 2 hours. The electric energy
(C) (A) and (B) both are correct spent, in unit, will be :
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct (A) 0.8 (B) 1.1
(C) 2.2 (D) 8.8
53. In which of the following cells, the potential difference 58. Two identical heater wires are first connected in series
between the terminals of a cell exceeds its emf. and then in parallel with a source of electricity. The
ratio of heat produced in the two cases is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
59. You are given three bulbs 25 W, 40 W and 60 W . Which
of them has the lowest resistance?
(A) 25 watt bulb (B) 40 watt bulb
(C) 60 watt bulb (D) insufficient data
60. If R1 and R2 are the filament resistances of a 200 W
bulb and a 100 W bulb respectively designed to operate
on the same voltage, then :
(A) R1 = 2 R2 (B) R2 = 2 R1
(A) a (B) b (C) R2 = 4 R1 (D) R1 = 4 R2
(C) c (D) d 61. If two bulbs, whose resistance are in the ratio of 1 : 2,
are connected in series. The power dissipated in them
54. A cell, an ammeter and a voltmeter are all connected in has the ratio of :
series. The ammeter reads a current I and the (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
voltmeter a potential difference V. If a torch bulb is
connected across the voltmeter, then. 62. When a voltage of 20 volt is applied between the two
(IJSO/Stage-I/2009) ends of a coil, 800 cal/s heat is produced. The value of
(A) both I and V will increase resistance of the coil is :(1 calorie = 4.2 joule) :
(A) 1.2 (B) 1.4
(B) both I and V will decrease
(C) 0.12 (D) 0.14
(C) I will increase but V will decrease
(D) I will decrease but V will increase 63. You are given two fuse wires A and B with current rating
2.5 A and 6 A respectively. Which of the two wires would
you select for use with a 1100 W, 220 V room heater ?
55. In the process of electrostatic induction.
(A) A (B) B
(IJSO/Stage-II/2011)
(C) A and B (D) none of these
(A) a conductor is rubbed with an insulator.
(B) a charge is produced by friction. 64. An electric current of 2.0 A passes through a wire of
resistance 25 . How much heat (in joule) will be
(C) negative and positive charges are separated.
developed in 1 minute ?
(D) electrons are sprayed on the object. (A) 6 (B) 6000
56. Consider the circuit below. The bulb will light up if : (C) 50 (D) 10
S1 (KVPY/2009)
65 . Two bulbs, one of 200W and the other of 100W, are
connected in series with a 100 V battery which has no
S2 internal resistance. Then, (KVPY/2009)

100V

~ S3

200W 100W

(A) the current passing through the 200W bulb is more

(A) S1 S2 and S3 are all closed.
(B) S1 is closed but S2 and S3 are open.
(C) S1 and S3 are closed but S2 is open.
(D) none of these
than that through the 100W bulb.
(B) the power dissipation in the 200W bulb is more
than that In the 100 W bulb.
(C) the voltage drop across the 200W bulb is more
than that across the 100W bulb.
(D) the power dissipation In the 100W bulb is more
than that in the 200W bulb.

PAGE # 1616
66. An electric heater consists of a nichrome coil and runs 71. The circuit shown has 3 identical light bulbs A, B, C
under 220 V, consuming 1 kW power. Part of its coil and 2 identical batteries E1, E2 . When the switch is
open, A and B glow with equal brightness. When the
burned out and it was reconnected after cutting off the
switch is closed: (KVPY/2007)
burnt portion. The power it will consume now is :
(KVPY/2010) C
E1 A
(A) more than 1 kW.
(B) less that 1 kW, but not zero.
(C) 1 kW. S
(D) 0 kW. E2 B

67. In the following circuit, the 1 resistor dissipates
power P. If the resistor is replaced by 9. the power
dissipated in it is : (KVPY/2011)
72. A student connects two lamps in the circuit shown.
(A) A and B will maintain their brightness and C will be
dimmer than A and B.
(B) A and B will become dimmer and C will be brighter
than A and B.
(C) A and B will maintain their brightness and C will not
glow.
(D) A, B and C will be equally bright.
The emf of the two batteries is different.
(IJSO/Stage-II/2011)

(A) P (B) 3P
(C) 9P (D) P/3

68. A neon lamp is connected to a voltage a.c. source. The

voltage is gradually increased from zero volt. It is
observed that the neon flashes at 50 V. The a.c. source
is now replaced by a variable dc source and the
experiment is repeated. The neon bulb will flash at :
(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)
(A) 50V (B) 70V Which of the following statements are correct?
(C) 100V (D) 35V i. When keys 1, 2, 3 and 4 are closed, bulbs
A and B will both glow
ii. When key 2 and 4 are closed bulb A will glow
69. A certain network consists of two ideal and indentical iii.When 1 and 4 are closed, bulb A will glow
voltage sources in series and a large number of ideal iv.When 2, 3 and 4 are closed, both A and B will
resistor. The power consumed in one of the resistor is glow
(A) only ii (B) only iv
4W when either of the two sources is active and other
(C) i, ii and iv (D) ii and iii
is replaced by a short circuit. The power consumed by
73. Figure below shows a portion of an electric circuit with
same resistor when both sources are simultaneously
the currents in ampere and their directions. The
active would be : (IJSO/Stage-II/2011) magnitude and direction of the current in the portion
(A) 0 or 16W (B) 4W or 8W PQ is : (KVPY/2011)
(C) 0 or 8W (D) 8W or 16W

Circuit and Other :

70. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by

connecting
(A) A high resistance in series with the galvanometer
(B) A high resistance in parallel with the galvanometer
(C) a low resistance in series with the galvanometer
(D) a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer
(A) 0A (B) 3A from P to Q
(C) 4A from Q to P (D) 6A from Q to P

PAGE # 1717
 MOLE CONCEPT

ATOMS
The symbol of Copper is Cu (from its Latin name
All the matter is made up of atoms. An atom is the Cuprum)
smallest particle of an element that can take part in a
chemical reaction. Atoms of most of the elements It should be noted that in a "two letter" symbol, the
are very reactive and do not exist in the free state (as first letter is the "capital letter" but the second letter is
single atom).They exist in combination with the atoms the small letter
of the same element or another element. Symbol Derived from English Names
Atoms are very, very small in size. The size of an atom English Name of
is indicated by its radius which is called "atomic Symbol
the Element
radius" (radius of an atom). Atomic radius is Hydrogen H
measured in "nanometres"(nm). Helium He
1 metre = 109 nanometre or 1nm = 10-9 m. Lithium Li
Atoms are so small that we cannot see them under Boron B
the most powerful optical microscope. Carbon C
Nitrogen N
Note :
Oxygen O
Hydrogen atom is the smallest atom of all , having an
Fluorine F
atomic radius 0.037nm.
Neon Ne
(a) Symbols of Elements : Magnesium Mg
Aluminium Al
A symbol is a short hand notation of an element which
Silicon Si
can be represented by a sketch or letter etc.
Phosphorous P
Dalton was the first to use symbols to represent
Sulphur S
elements in a short way but Dalton's symbols for
element were difficult to draw and inconvenient to Chlorine Cl
use, so Dalton's symbols are only of historical Argon Ar
importance. They are not used at all. Calcium Ca

Symbols Derived from Latin Names

English Name of Latin Name of

Symbol
the Element the Element

Sodium Na Natrium

It was J.J. Berzelius who proposed the modern
system of representing en element.
The symbol of an element is the "first letter" or the
"first letter and another letter" of the English name or
the Latin name of the element.
e.g. The symbol of Hydrogen is H.
The symbol of Oxygen is O.
There are some elements whose names begin with
the same letter. For example, the names of elements
Carbon, Calcium, Chlorine and Copper all begin with
the letter C. In such cases, one of the elements is
given a "one letter "symbol but all other elements are
given a "first letter and another letter" symbol of the
English or Latin name of the element. This is to be
noted that "another letter" may or may not be the
"second letter" of the name. Thus,
The symbol of Carbon is C.
The symbol of Calcium is Ca.
The symbol of Chlorine is Cl.
Potassium K Kalium
(b) Significance of The Symbol of an
Element :
(i) Symbol represents name of the element.
(ii) Symbol represents one atom of the element.
(iii) Symbol also represents one mole of the element.
That is, symbol also represent 6.023 1023 atoms of
the element.
(iv) Symbol represent a definite mass of the element
i.e. atomic mass of the element.
Example :
(i) Symbol H represents hydrogen element.
(ii) Symbol H also represents one atom of hydrogen
element.
(iii) Symbol H also represents one mole of hydrogen
atom.
(iv) Symbol H also represents one gram hydrogen
atom.

PAGE # 18

IONS
An ion is a positively or negatively charged atom or
group of atoms.
Every atom contains equal number of electrons
(negatively charged) and protons (positively charged).
Both charges balance each other, hence atom is
electrically neutral.
(a) Cation :
If an atom has less electrons than a neutral atom,
then it gets positively charged and a positively
charged ion is known as cation.
e.g. Sodium ion (Na+), Magnesium ion (Mg2+) etc.
A cation bears that much units of positive charge as
there are the number of electrons lost by the neutral
atom to form that cation.
e.g. An aluminium atom loses 3 electrons to form
aluminium ion, so aluminium ion bears 3 units of
positive charge and it is represented as Al3+.
(b) Anion :
If an atom has more number of electrons than that of
neutral atom, then it gets negatively charged and a
negatively charged ion is known as anion.
e.g. Chloride ion (Cl), oxide ion (O2-) etc.
LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT POSITIVE RADICALS
An anion bears that much units of negative charge as
there are the number of electrons gained by the
neutral atom to form that anion.
e.g. A nitrogen atom gains 3 electrons to form nitride
ion, so nitride ion bears 3 units of negative charge
and it is represented as N3-.
Note :
Size of a cation is always smaller and anion is always
greater than that of the corresponding neutral atom.
(c) Monoatomic ions and polyatomic ions :
(i) Monoatomic ions : Those ions which are formed
from single atoms are called monoatomic ions or
simple ions.
e.g. Na+, Mg2+ etc.
(ii) Polyatomic ions : Those ions which are formed
from group of atoms joined together are called
polyatomic ions or compound ions.
e.g. Ammonium ion (NH4+) , hydroxide ion (OH) etc.
which are formed by the joining of two types of atoms,
nitrogen and hydrogen in the first case and oxygen and
hydrogen in the second.
(d) Valency of ions :
The valency of an ion is same as the charge present
on the ion.
If an ion has 1 unit of positive charge, its valency is 1
and it is known as a monovalent cation. If an ion has
2 units of negative charge, its valency is 2 and it is
known as a divalent anion.

LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT NEGATIVE RADICALS

Monovalent Electronegative Bivalent Trivalent Tetravalent

Electronegative Electronegative Electronegative
2- 3- 4-
1. Fluoride F 1. Sulphate SO 4 1. Nitride N 1. Carbide C
2- 3-
2. Chloride Cl 2. Sulphite SO 3 2. Phosphide P
2- 3-
3. Bromide Br 3. Sulphide S 3. Phosphite PO 3
I 2- 3-
4. Iodide 4. Thiosulphate S 2O3 4. Phosphate PO 4
2-
5. Hydride H 5. Zincate ZnO2
2-
6. Hydroxide OH

6. Oxide O
2-
7. Nitrite NO2

7. Peroxide O2
2-
8.Nitrate NO3 8. Dichromate Cr 2O7
2-
9. Bicarbonate or Hydrogen carbonate HCO3
9. Carbonate CO 3
2-
10. Bisulphite or Hydrogen sulphite HSO3 10. Silicate SiO 3

11. Bisulphide or Hydrogen sulphide HS

12. Bisulphate or Hydrogen sulphate HSO4

13. Acetate CH3COO

Note :
Cation contains less no. of electrons and anion contains more no. of electrons than the no. of protons present in
them.

PAGE # 19

LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION
The laws of chemical combination are the
experimental laws which led to the idea of
atoms being the smallest unit of matter. The laws of
chemical combination played a significant role in the
development of Daltons atomic theory of matter.
There are two important laws of chemical combination.
These are:
(i) Law of conservation of mass
(ii) Law of constant proportions
(a) Law of Conservation of Mass or Matter :
This law was given by Lavoisier in 1774 . According to
the law of conservation of mass, matter can neither
be created nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Or
The law of conservation of mass means that in a
chemical reaction, the total mass of products is equal
to the total mass of the reactants. There is no change
in mass during a chemical reaction.
Suppose we carry out a chemical reaction between A
and B and if the products formed are C and D then,
A + B C + D
Suppose 'a' g of A and 'b' g of B react to produce 'c' g of
C and 'd' g of D. Then, according to the law of
conservation of mass, we have,
a+b = c+d
Example :
When Calcium Carbonate (CaCO 3) is heated, a
chemical reaction takes place to form Calcium Oxide
(CaO) and Carbon dioxide (CO2). It has been found
by experiments that if 100 grams of calcium carbonate
is decomposed completely, then 56 grams of Calcium
Oxide and 44 grams of Carbon dioxide are formed.
Since the total mass of products (100g ) is equal to
the total mass of the reactants (100g), there is no
change in the mass during this chemical reaction.
The mass remains same or conserved.
(b) Law of Constant Proportions / Law of
Definite Proportions :
Proust, in 1779, analysed the chemical composition
(types of elements present and percentage of
elements present ) of a large number of compounds
and came to the conclusion that the proportion of
each element in a compound is constant (or fixed).
According to the law of constant proportions: A
chemical compound always consists of the same
elements combined together in the same proportion
by mass.
Note :
The chemical composition of a pure substance is
not dependent on the source from which it is obtained.
Example :
Water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen. It can
be obtained from various sources (like river, sea, well
etc.) or even synthesized in the laboratory. From
whatever source we may get it, 9 parts by weight of
water is always found to contain 1 part by weight of
hydrogen and 8 parts by weight of oxygen. Thus, in
water, this proportion of hydrogen and oxygen always
remains constant.
Note :
The converse of Law of definite proportions that when
same elements combine in the same proportion, the
same compound will be formed, is not always true.
(c) Law of Multiple Proportions :
According to it, when one element combines with the
other element to form two or more different compounds,
the mass of one element, which combines with a
constant mass of the other, bears a simple ratio to
one another.
Simple ratio means the ratio between small natural
numbers, such as 1 : 1, 1 : 2, 1 : 3
e.g.
Carbon and oxygen when combine, can form two
oxides that are CO (carbon monoxide), CO2 (carbon
dioxide).
In CO,12 g carbon combined with 16 g of oxygen.
In CO2,12 g carbon combined with 32 g of oxygen.
Thus, we can see the mass of oxygen which combine
with a constant mass of carbon (12 g) bear simple
ratio of 16 : 32 or 1 : 2
Note :
The law of multiple proportion was given by Dalton in
1808.
Sample Problem :
1. Carbon is found to form two oxides, which contain
42.8% and 27.27% of carbon respectively. Show that
these figures illustrate the law of multiple proportions.
Sol. % of carbon in first oxide = 42.8
% of oxygen in first oxide = 100 - 42.8 = 57.2
% of carbon in second oxide = 27.27
% of oxygen in second oxide = 100 - 27.27 = 72.73
For the first oxide -
Mass of oxygen in grams that combines with 42.8 g
of carbon = 57.2
Mass of oxygen that combines with 1 g of carbon =
57.2
1.34 g
42.8
For the second oxide -
Mass of oxygen in grams that combines with 27.27 g
of carbon = 72.73
Mass of oxygen that combines with 1 g of carbon =
72.73
2.68 g
27.27
Ratio between the masses of oxygen that combine
with a fixed mass (1 g) of carbon in the two oxides
= 1.34 : 2.68 or 1 : 2 which is a simple ratio. Hence,
this illustrates the law of multiple proportion.
PAGE # 20
 (d) Law of Reciprocal Proportions :
According to this law the ratio of the weights of two
element A and B which combine separately with a
fixed weight of the third element C is either the same
or some simple multiple of the ratio of the weights in
which A and B combine directly with each other.
e.g.
The elements C and O combine separately with the
third element H to form CH4 and H2O and they combine
directly with each other to form CO2.
4 H2
CH4 H2O
12 16
C O
12 CO2 32
In CH4, 12 parts by weight of carbon combine with 4
parts by weight of hydrogen. In H2O, 2 parts by weight
of hydrogen combine with 16 parts by weight of
oxygen. Thus the weight of C and O which combine
with fixed weight of hydrogen (say 4 parts by weight)
are 12 and 32 i.e. they are in the ratio 12 : 32 or 3 : 8.
Now in CO2, 12 parts by weight of carbon combine
directly with 32 parts by weight of oxygen i.e. they
combine directly in the ratio 12 : 32 or 3 : 8 which is
the same as the first ratio.
Note :
The law of reciprocal proportion was put forward by
Ritcher in 1794.
Sample Problem :
2. Ammonia contains 82.35% of nitrogen and 17.65%
of hydrogen. Water contains 88.90% of oxygen and
11.10% of hydrogen. Nitrogen trioxide contains
63.15% of oxygen and 36.85% of nitrogen. Show that
these data illustrate the law of reciprocal proportions.
Hydrogen + Chlorine
1 vol.
n molecules.
Sol
1 molecules.
2 2
1 Atom
In NH3, 17.65 g of H combine with N = 82.35 g
82.35
1g of H combine with N = g = 4.67 g
17.65
In H2O, 11.10 g of H combine with O = 88.90 g
88.90
1 g H combine with O = g = 8.01 g
11.10
Ratio of the weights of N and O which combine
with fixed weight (=1g) of H
= 4.67 : 8.01 = 1 : 1.72
In N2O3, ratio of weights of N and O which combine
with each other = 36.85 : 63.15 = 1 : 1.71
Thus the two ratio are the same. Hence it illustrates
the law of reciprocal proportions.
(e) Gay Lussacs Law of Gaseous Volumes :
Gay Lussac found that there exists a definite
relationship among the volumes of the gaseous
reactants and their products. In 1808, he put forward
a generalization known as the Gay Lussacs Law of
combining volumes. This may be stated as follows :
When gases react together, they always do so in
volumes which bear a simple ratio to one another
and to the volumes of the product, if these are also
gases, provided all measurements of volumes are
done under similar conditions of temperature and
pressure.
e.g.
Combination between hydrogen and chlorine to form
hydrogen chloride gas. One volume of hydrogen and
one volume of chlorine always combine to form two
volumes of hydrochloric acid gas.
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl (g)
1vol. 1 vol. 2 vol.
The ratio between the volume of the reactants and
the product in this reaction is simple, i.e., 1 : 1 : 2.
Hence it illustrates the Law of combining volumes.
(f) Avogadros Hypothesis :
This states that equal volumes of all gases under
similar conditions of temperature and pressure
contain equal number of molecules.
This hypothesis has been found to explain elegantly
all the gaseous reactions and is now widely
recognized as a law or a principle known as Avogadros
Law or Avogadros principle.
The reaction between hydrogen and chlorine can be
explained on the basis of Avogadros Law as follows :
Hydrogen chloride gas
1 vol. 2 vol. (By experiment)
n molecules. 2n molecules.(By Avogadro's Law)
1 molecules.
1 molecules. (By dividing throughout by 2n)
1 Atom
1 Molecule (Applying Avogadro's hypothesis)
It implies that one molecule of hydrogen chloride gas
is made up of 1 atom of hydrogen and 1 atom of
chlorine.
(i) Applications of Avogadros hypothesis :
(A) In the calculation of atomicity of elementary
gases.
e.g.
2 volumes of hydrogen combine with 1 volume of
oxygen to form two volumes of water vapours.
Hydrogen + Oxygen Water vapours
2 vol. 1 vol. 2 vol.
PAGE # 21
 Applying Avogadros hypothesis
GRAM-ATOMIC MASS
Hydrogen + Oxygen Water vapours
2 n molecules n molecules 2 n molecules The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams
1 is called the Gram Atomic Mass of the element.
or 1 molecule molecule 1 molecule
2 The number of gram -atoms
1 Mass of the element in grams
Thus1 molecule of water contains molecule of
2 =
Gram Atomic mass of the element
oxygen. But 1 molecule of water contains 1 atom of
e.g.
1
oxygen. Hence. molecule of oxygen = 1 atom of Calculate the gram atoms present in (i) 16g of oxygen
2
oxygen or 1 molecules of oxygen = 2 atoms of oxygen and (ii) 64g of sulphur.
i.e. atomicity of oxygen = 2.
(B) To find the relationship between molecular mass (i) The atomic mass of oxygen = 16.
and vapour density of a gas.
Gram-Atomic Mass of oxygen (O) = 16 g.
Density of gas 16
Vapour density (V.D.) = Density of hydrogen No. of Gram-Atoms = =1
16
(ii) The gram-atoms present in 64 grams of sulphur.
Mass of a certain volume of the gas
=
Mass of the same volume of hydrogen at 64 64
the same temp. and pressure = Gram Atomic Mass of sulphur = =2
32
If n molecules are present in the given volume of a gas
Atomic Atomic
and hydrogen under similar conditions of temperature
and pressure. Number Element Symbol mass
1 Hydrogen H 1
Mass of n molecules of the gas
V.D. = 2 Helium He 4
Mass of n molecules of hydrogen
3 Lithium Li 7
Mass of 1 molecule of the gas 4 Beryllium Be 9
=
Mass of 1 molecule of hydrogen 5 Boron B 11
Molecular mass of the gas
6 Carbon C 12
= 7 Nitrogen N 14
Molecular mass of hydrogen
8 Oxygen O 16
Molecular mass 9 Fluorine F 19
=
2 10 Neon Ne 20
(since molecular mass of hydrogen is 2) 11 Sodium Na 23
Hence, Molecular mass = 2 Vapour density 12 Magnesium Mg 24
ATOMIC MASS UNIT 13 Aluminium Al 27
14 Silicon Si 28
The atomic mass unit (amu) is equal to one-twelfth 15 Phosphorus P 31
(1/12) of the mass of an atom of carbon-12.The mass 16 Sulphur S 32
of an atom of carbon-12 isotope was given the atomic 17 Chlorine Cl 35.5
mass of 12 units, i.e. 12 amu or 12 u.
18 Argon Ar 40
The atomic masses of all other elements are now
expressed in atomic mass units. 19 Potassium K 39
20 Calcium Ca 40
RELATIVE ATOMIC MASS
RELATIVE MOLECULAR MASS
The atomic mass of an element is a relative quantity The relative molecular mass of a substance is the
and it is the mass of one atom of the element relative mass of a molecule of the substance as compared
to one -twelfth (1/12) of the mass of one carbon-12
to one-twelfth of the mass of one carbon -12 atom
atom. Thus, Relative atomic mass
i.e.,
Mass of one atom of the element Relative molecular mass
=
1
mass of one C 12 atom Mass of one molecule of the substance
12 =
[1/12 the mass of one C-12 atom = 1 amu, 1 amu = 1
mass of one C 12 atom
1.66 1024 g = 1.66 1027 kg.] 12
Note : The molecular mass of a molecule, thus, represents
One amu is also called one dalton (Da). the number of times it is heavier than 1/12 of the
mass of an atom of carbon-12 isotope.

PAGE # 22
GRAM MOLECULAR MASS EQUIVALENT MASS

The molecular mass of a substance expressed in (a) Definition :

grams is called the Gram Molecular Mass of the
substance . The number of gram molecules
Mass of the subs tance in grams
=
Gram molecular mass of the subs t ance
e.g.
(i) Molecular mass of hydrogen (H2) = 2u.
Gram Molecular Mass of hydrogen (H2) = 2 g .
Equivalent mass of an element is the mass of the
element which combine with or displaces 1.008 parts
by mass of hydrogen or 8 parts by mass of oxygen or
35.5 parts by mass of chlorine.
(b) Formulae of Equivalent Masses of different
substances :
(i) Equivalent mass of an element =
Atomic wt. of the element
Valency of the element

(ii) Molecular mass of methane (CH4) = 16u Mol. wt. of the acid
(ii) Eq. mass an acid =
Gram Molecular Mass of methane (CH4) = 16 g. Basicity of the acid

e.g. the number of gram molecules present in 64 g of Basicity is the number of replaceable H+ ions from
one molecule of the acid.
methane (CH4).
Mol. wt. of the base
64 64 (iii) Eq. Mass of a base =
Acidity of the base
= Gram molecular mass of CH = = 4.
4 16 Acidity is the number of replaceable OH ions from
(a) Calculation of Molecular Mass : one molecule of the base

The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of (iv) Eq. mass of a salt
the atomic masses of its constituent atoms present Mol. wt. of the salt
=
in a molecule. Number of metal atoms valency of metal

Ex.1 Calculate the molecular mass of water. Formula wt. of the ion
(v) Eq. mass of an ion =
(Atomic masses : H = 1u, O = 16u). Charge on the ion
Sol. The molecular formula of water is H2O.
(vi) Eq. mass of an oxidizing/reducing agent
Molecular mass of water = ( 2 atomic mass of H)
+ (1 atomic mass of O) Mol wt. or At. wt
=
= 2 1 + 1 16 = 18 No. of electrons lost or gained by one
i.e., molecular mass of water = 18 amu. molecule of the substance

Ex.2 Find out the molecular mass of sulphuric acid. Equivalent weight of some compounds are given in
(Atomic mass : H = 1u, O = 16u, S = 32u). the table :

Sol. The molecular formula of sulphuric acid is H2SO4. Equivalent

S.No. Compound
Molecular mass of H2SO4 weight
= (2 atomic mass of H) + ( 1 atomic mass of S) 1 HCl 36.5
+ ( 4 atomic mass of O)
2 H2SO4 49
= (2 1) + (1 32) + (416) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98
i.e., Molecular mass of H2SO4= 98 amu. 3 HNO3 63

FORMULA MASS 4 45
COOH
The term formula mass is used for ionic compounds
and others where discrete molecules do not exist,
e.g., sodium chloride, which is best represented as 5 63
.2H2O
(Na+Cl)n, but for reasons of simplicity as NaCl or COOH
Na+Cl. Here, formula mass means the sum of the
6 NaOH 40
masses of all the species in the formula.
Thus, the formula mass of sodium chloride = (atomic 7 KOH 56
mass of sodium) + (atomic mass of chlorine) 8 CaCO3 50
= 23 + 35.5 9 NaCl 58.5
= 58.5 amu Na2CO3
10 53

PAGE # 23
 SOME IMPORTANT RELATIONS AND FORMULAE
(i) 1 mole of atoms = Gram Atomic mass = mass of
In Latin, mole means heap or collection or pile. A
6.023 1023 atoms
mole of atoms is a collection of atoms whose total
mass is the number of grams equal to the atomic (ii) 1 mole of molecules = Gram Molecular Mass
mass in magnitude. Since an equal number of moles = 6.023 x 1023 molecules
of different elements contain an equal number of (iii) Number of moles of atoms
atoms, it becomes convenient to express the
amounts of the elements in terms of moles. A mole Mass of element in grams
represents a definite number of particles, viz, atoms, =
Gram Atomic Mass of element
molecules, ions or electrons. This definite number is
called the Avogadro Number (now called the Avogadro (iv) Number of moles of molecules
constant) which is equal to 6.023 1023.
Mass of substance in grams
A mole is defined as the amount of a substance that =
Gram Molecular Mass of substance
contains as many atoms, molecules, ions, electrons
or other elementary particles as there are atoms in (v) Number of moles of molecules
exactly 12 g of carbon -12 (12C).
No. of molecules of element N
(a) Moles of Atoms : =
Avogadro number NA
(i) 1 mole atoms of any element occupy a mass which
is equal to the Gram Atomic Mass of that element. Ex.3 To calculate the number of moles in 16 grams of
Sulphur (Atomic mass of Sulphur = 32 u).
e.g. 1 Mole of oxygen atoms weigh equal to Gram
Atomic Mass of oxygen, i.e. 16 grams. Sol. 1 mole of atoms = Gram Atomic Mass.
So, 1 mole of Sulphur atoms = Gram Atomic Mass of
(ii) The symbol of an element represents 6.023 x 1023
Sulphur = 32 grams.
atoms (1 mole of atoms) of that element.
Now, 32 grams of Sulphur = 1 mole of Sulphur
e.g : Symbol N represents 1 mole of nitrogen atoms So, 16 grams of Sulphur
and 2N represents 2 moles of nitrogen atoms. = (1/32) x 16 = 0.5 moles
(b) Moles of Molecules : Thus, 16 grams of Sulphur constitute 0.5 mole of
Sulphur.
(i) 1 mole molecules of any substance occupy a mass
which is equal to the Gram Molecular Mass of that 22.4 litre
substance.
e.g. : 1 mole of water (H2O) molecules weigh equal to In term of
volume
Gram Molecular Mass of water (H2O), i.e. 18 grams.
23
6.023 10 6.023 10
23

(ii) The symbol of a compound represents 6.023 x (NA) Atoms In terms of (NA) molecules
10 23 molecules (1 mole of molecules) of that particles
compound. 1 Mole

e.g. : Symbol H 2O represents 1 mole of water In terms of

mass
molecules and 2 H2O represents 2 moles of water
molecules.
1 gram atom 1 gram molecule 1 gram formula
Note : of element of substance mass of substance

The symbol H2O does not represent 1 mole of H2

molecules and 1 mole of O atoms. Instead, it
represents 2 moles of hydrogen atoms and 1 mole PROBLEMS BASED ON THE MOLE CONCEPT
of oxygen atoms.
Note : Ex.4 Calculate the number of moles in 5.75 g of
The SI unit of the amount of a substance is Mole. sodium. (Atomic mass of sodium = 23 u)
Sol. Number of moles
(c) Mole in Terms of Volume :
Volume occupied by 1 Gram Molecular Mass or 1 Mass of the element in grams 5.75
mole of a gas under standard conditions of = = = 0.25 mole
Gram Atomic Mass of element 23
temperature and pressure (273 K and 1atm.
pressure) is called Gram Molecular Volume. Its value or,
is 22.4 litres for each gas. 1 mole of sodium atoms = Gram Atomic mass of
Volume of 1 mole = 22.4 litre (at STP) sodium = 23g.
23 g of sodium = 1 mole of sodium.
Note :
The term mole was introduced by Ostwald in 1896. 5.75
5.75 g of sodium = mole of sodium = 0.25 mole
23

PAGE # 24
Ex.5 What is the mass in grams of a single atom of Ex.11 What mass in grams is represented by
chlorine ? (Atomic mass of chlorine = 35.5u) (a) 0.40 mol of CO2,
Sol. Mass of 6.022 1023 atoms of Cl = Gram Atomic (b) 3.00 mol of NH3,
Mass of Cl = 35.5 g.
(c) 5.14 mol of H5IO6
35.5 g (Atomic masses : C=12 u, O=16 u, N=14 u,
Mass of 1 atom of Cl = = 5.9 1023 g.
6.022 10 23 H=1 u and I = 127 u)
Ex.6 The density of mercury is 13.6 g cm . How many 3 Sol. Weight in grams = number of moles molecular
moles of mercury are there in 1 litre of the metal ? mass.
(Atomic mass of Hg = 200 u). Hence,
Sol. Mass of mercury (Hg) in grams = Density (a) mass of CO2 = 0.40 44 = 17.6 g
(g cm3) Volume (cm3) (b) mass of NH3 = 3.00 17 = 51.0 g
= 13.6 g cm3 1000 cm3 = 13600 g. (c) mass of H5IO6 = 5.14 228 = 1171.92g
Number of moles of mercury
Ex.12 Calculate the volume in litres of 20 g of hydrogen
Mass of mercury in grams 13600 gas at STP.
= Gram Atomic Mass of mercury = = 68
200 Sol. Number of moles of hydrogen
Ex.7 The mass of a single atom of an element M is Mass of hydrogen in grams 20
3.15 1023 g . What is its atomic mass ? What = = = 10
Gram Molecular Mass of hydrogen 2
could the element be ?
Volume of hydrogen = number of moles Gram
Sol. Gram Atomic Mass = mass of 6.022 1023 atoms
= mass of 1 atom 6.022 1023 Molecular Volume.
= (3.15 1023g) 6.022 1023 = 10 22.4 = 224 litres.
= 3.15 6.022 g = 18.97 g. Ex.13 The molecular mass of H 2 SO 4 is 98 amu.
Atomic Mass of the element = 18.97u Calculate the number of moles of each element
Thus, the element is most likely to be fluorine. in 294 g of H2SO4.

Ex.8 An atom of neon has a mass of 3.35 1023 g. 294

Sol. Number of moles of H2SO4 = =3.
How many atoms of neon are there in 20 g of the 98
gas ? The formula H 2SO 4 indicates that 1 molecule of
H2SO4 contains 2 atoms of H, 1 atom of S and 4
Sol. Number of atoms
atoms of O. Thus, 1 mole of H2SO4 will contain 2
Total mass 20 moles of H,1 mole of S and 4 moles of O atoms
= = = 5.97 1023 Therefore, in 3 moles of H2SO4 :
Mass of 1 atom 3.35 10 23
Number of moles of H = 2 3 = 6
Ex.9 How many grams of sodium will have the same Number of moles of S = 1 3 = 3
number of atoms as atoms present in 6 g of Number of moles of O = 4 3 = 12
magnesium ? Ex.14 Find the mass of oxygen contained in 1 kg of
(Atomic masses : Na = 23u ; Mg =24u) potassium nitrate (KNO3).
Sol. Number of gram -atom of Mg Sol. Since 1 molecule of KNO 3 contains 3 atoms of
oxygen, 1 mol of KNO 3 contains 3 moles of
Mass of Mg in grams 6 1 oxygen atoms.
= Gram Atomic Mass = =
24 4 Moles of oxygen atoms = 3 moles of KNO3
1 1000
Gram Atoms of sodium should be = =3 = 29.7
4 101
1 Gram Atom of sodium = 23 g (Gram Molecular Mass of KNO3 = 101 g)
Mass of oxygen = Number of moles Atomic
1 1 mass
gram atoms of sodium = 23 = 5.75 g
4 4 = 29.7 16 = 475.2 g
Ex.15 You are asked by your teacher to buy 10 moles of
Ex.10 How many moles of Cr are there in 85g of Cr2S3 ?
distilled water from a shop where small bottles
(Atomic masses : Cr = 52 u , S =32 u)
each containing 20 g of such water are available.
Sol. Molecular mass of Cr2S3 = 2 52 + 3 32 = 104 How many bottles will you buy ?
+ 96 = 200 u. Sol. Gram Molecular Mass of water (H2O) = 18 g
200g of Cr2S3 contains = 104 g of Cr. 10 mol of distilled water = 18 10 = 180 g.
104 85 Because 20 g distilled water is contained in 1
85 g of Cr2S3 contains = g of Cr = 44.2g bottle,
200
180
44.2 180 g of distilled water is contained in =
Thus, number of moles of Cr = = 0.85 . 20
52 bottles = 9 bottles.
Number of bottles to be bought = 9

PAGE # 25
Ex.16 6.022 1023 molecules of oxygen (O2) is equal to (iii) If the simplest ratio is fractional, then values of
how many moles ? simplest ratio of each element is multiplied by
Sol. No. of moles = smallest integer to get the simplest whole number
for each of the element.
No. of molecules of oxygen N 6.023 10 23
= =1 (iv) To get the empirical formula, symbols of various
Avogadro' s no. of molecules N 6.023 10 23
A elements present are written side by side with their
PERCENTAGE COMPOSITION respective whole number ratio as a subscript to the
lower right hand corner of the symbol.
The percentage composition of elements in a
compound is calculated from the molecular formula (v) The molecular formula of a substance may be
of the compound. determined from the empirical formula if the molecular
The molecular mass of the compound is calculated mass of the substance is known. The molecular
formula is always a simple multiple of empirical
from the atomic masses of the various elements
formula and the value of simple multiple (n) is
present in the compound. The percentage by mass
obtained by dividing molecular mass with empirical
of each element is then computed with the help of the
formula mass.
following relations.
Molecular Mass
Percentage mass of the element in the compound n =
Empirical Formula Mass
Total mass of the element
= 100 Ex-20 A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen
Molecular mass
Ex.17 What is the percentage of calcium in calcium contains these elements in the ratio of 9:1:3.5 respectively.
Calculate the empirical formula. If its molecular mass is
carbonate (CaCO3) ?
108, what is the molecular formula ?
Sol. Molecular mass of CaCO 3 = 40 + 12 + 3 16
= 100 amu. Sol. Element
Mass Atomic Relative Number Simplest
Ratio Mass of Atoms Ratio
Mass of calcium in 1 mol of CaCO3 = 40g.
9
40 100 Carbon 9 12 0.75 0.754 = 3
12
Percentage of calcium = = 40 %
100 1
Hydrogen 1 1 1 14=4
Ex.18 What is the percentage of sulphur in sulphuric 1
acid (H2SO4) ? Nitrogen 3.5 14
3.5
0.25 0.25 4 = 1
Sol. Molecular mass of H2SO4 = 1 2 + 32 + 16 4 = 98 14

amu.
32 100 Empirical ratio = C3H4N
Percentage of sulphur = = 32.65 %
98 Empirical formula mass = (3 12) + (4 1) + 14 = 54
Ex.19 W hat are the percentage compositions of Molecular Mass 108
n= 2
hydrogen and oxygen in water (H2O) ? Empirical Formula Mass = 54
(Atomic masses : H = 1 u, O = 16 u) Thus, molecular formula of the compound
= (Empirical formula)2
Sol. Molecular mass of water, H2O = 2 + 16 = 18 amu.
= (C3H4N)2
H2O has two atoms of hydrogen.
= C6H8N2
So, total mass of hydrogen in H2O = 2 amu.
Ex.21 A compound on analysis, was found to have the
2 100
Percentage of H = = 11.11 % following composition :
18 (i) Sodium = 14.31%, (ii) Sulphur = 9.97%, (iii) Oxygen
Similarly, = 69.50%, (iv) Hydrogen = 6.22%. Calculate the
16 100 molecular formula of the compound assuming that
percentage of oxygen = = 88.88 %
18 whole hydrogen in the compound is present as water
of crystallisation. Molecular mass of the compound
is 322.
Atomic Relative Number
The following steps are involved in determining the Sol. Element Percentage
mass of atoms
Simplest ratio

empirical formula of a compound : Sodium 14.31 23

14 .31
0.622 0.622
2
23 0.311
(i) The percentage composition of each element is
9 .97 0.311
divided by its atomic mass. It gives atomic ratio of the Sulphur 9.97 32
32
0.311
0.311
1

elements present in the compound.

6 . 22 6.22
Hydrogen 6.22 1 6.22 20
(ii) The atomic ratio of each element is divided by the 1 0.311

minimum value of atomic ratio as to get the simplest 69. 50 4.34

Oxygen 69.50 16 4.34 14
16
ratio of the atoms of elements present in the 0.311

compound.

PAGE # 26
 The empirical formula = Na2SH20O14
Empirical formula mass
= (2 23) + 32 + (20 1) + (14 16)
= 322
Molecular mass = 322
Molecular formula = Na2SH20O14
Whole of the hydrogen is present in the form of water
of crystallisation. Thus, 10 water molecules are
present in the molecule.
So, molecular formula = Na2SO4. 10H2O
(d) Normality :
Normality of a solution is defined as the number of
gram equivalents of the solute dissolved per litre (dm3)
of given solution. It is denoted by N.
Mathematically,
Number of gram equivalent s of solute
N =
Volume of the solution in litre
Weight of solute in gram / equivalent weight of solute
N=
Volume of the solution in litre

CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS N can be calculated from the strength as given below :

(a) Strength in g/L : Strength in grams per litre S

N= =
Equivalent mass of solute E
The strength of a solution is defined as the amount of
the solute in grams present in one litre (or dm3) of the If w gram of the solute is present in V cm3 of a given
solution, and hence is expressed in g/litre or g/dm3. solution.
Weight of solute in gram w 1000
Strength in g/L = N = Equivalent mass of the solute
Volume of solution in litre V

(b) Molarity : e.g. A solution of sulphuric acid having 0.49 gram of

it dissolved in 250 cm 3 of solution will have its
Molarity of a solution is defined as the number of normality,
moles of the solute dissolved per litre (or dm3) of w 1000
solution. It is denoted by M. Mathematically, N = Equivalent mass of the solute
V
Number of moles of solute 0.49 1000
M= N= = 0.04
Volume of the solution in litre 49 250
(Eq. mass of sulphuric acid = 49).
Mass of solute in gram/Gram Molecular Mass of solute
Solution Semi Deci Centi
Volume of solution in litre
normal normal normal
M can be calculated from the strength as given below : Normality 1 1 1
2 10 100
Strength in grams per litre
M= Some Important Formulae :
Molecular mass of solute
3
If w gram of the solute is present in V cm of a given (i) Milli equivalent of substance = N V
solution , then where , N normality of solution
V Volume of solution in mL
w 1000
M= (ii) If weight of substance is given,
Molecular mass V
e.g. a solution of sulphuric acid having 4.9 grams of it w 1000
milli equivalent (NV) =
dissolved in 500 cm3 of solution will have its molarity, E
Where, W Weight of substance in gram
w 1000 E Equivalent weight of substance
M=
Molecular mass V
(iii) S = N E
4.9 1000 S Strength in g/L
M= = 0.1 N Normality of solution
98 500
E Equivalent weight
(c) Formality :
(iv) Calculation of normality of mixture :
In case of ionic compounds like NaCl, Na2CO3 etc., N N
formality is used in place of molarity. The formality of Ex.22 100 ml of HCl is mixed with 50 ml of H SO .
a solution is defined as the number of gram formula 10 5 2 4
Find out the normality of the mixture.
masses of the solute dissolved per litre of the
Sol. Milli equivalent of HCl + milli equivalent H 2SO 4
solution. It is represented by the symbol F. The term
= milli equivalent of mixture
formula mass is used in place of molecular mass N1 V1 + N2 V2 = N3 V3 { where, V3 =V1 + V2 )
because ionic compounds exist as ions and not as
molecules. Formula mass is the sum of the atomic 1 1
100 50 N3 150
masses of the atoms in the formula of the compound. 10 5

Mass of solute in gram/Formula Mass of solute 20 2

N3 = = = 0.133
Volume of solution in litre 150 15

PAGE # 27
 N N Ex.25 Find the molarity and molality of a 15% solution
Ex.23 100 ml of HCl is mixed with 25 ml of NaOH. of H2SO4 (density of H2SO4 solution = 1.02 g/cm3)
10 5
Find out the normality of the mixture. (Atomic mass : H = 1u, O = 16u , S = 32 u)
Sol. 15% solution of H2SO4 means 15g of H2SO4 are
Sol. Milli equivalent of HCl milli equivalent of NaOH
= milli equivalent of mixture present in 100g of the solution i.e.
N1 V1 N2 V2 = N3 V3 { where, V3 =V1 + V2 ) Wt. of H2SO4 dissolved = 15 g
Weight of the solution = 100 g
1 1
100 25 = N3 125 Density of the solution = 1.02 g/cm3 (Given)
10 5
1 Calculation of molality :
N3 = Weight of solution = 100 g
25
Weight of H2SO4 = 15 g
Note :
Wt. of water (solvent) = 100 15 = 85 g
1 milli equivalent of an acid neutralizes 1 milli
Molecular weight of H2SO4 = 98
equivalent of a base.
15
(e) Molality : 15 g H2SO4 = = 0.153 moles
98
Molality of a solution is defined as the number of
Thus ,85 g of the solvent contain 0.153 moles .
moles of the solute dissolved in 1000 grams of the
0.153
solvent. It is denoted by m. 1000 g of the solvent contain= 1000 = 1.8 mole
Mathematically, 85
Hence ,the molality of H2SO4 solution = 1.8 m
Number of moles of the solute
m= 1000 m can
Weight of the solvent in gram Calculation of molarity :
be calculated from the strength as given below :
15 g of H2SO4 = 0.153 moles
Strength per 1000 gram of solvent
m= Wt. of solution
Molecular mass of solute Vol. of solution =
Density of solution
If w gram of the solute is dissolved in W gram of the 100
solvent then = = 98.04 cm3
1.02
w 1000
m= This 98.04 cm3 of solution contain H2SO4 = 0.153
Mol. mass of the solute W
moles
e.g. A solution of anhydrous sodium carbonate
1000 cm3 of solution contain H2SO4
(molecular mass = 106) having 1.325 grams of it,
dissolved in 250 gram of water will have its molality - 0.153
= 1000 = 1.56 moles
1.325 1000 98.04
m= = 0.05
106 250
Note : Hence the molarity of H2SO4 solution = 1.56 M

Relationship Between Normality and Molarity of a (f) Mole Fraction :

Solution :
Normality of an acid = Molarity Basicity The ratio between the moles of solute or solvent to
Normality of base = Molarity Acidity the total moles of solution is called mole fraction.
Ex.24 Calculate the molarity and normality of a solution Moles of solute n
mole fraction of solute =
containing 0.5 g of NaOH dissolved in 500 cm 3 Moles of solution nN
of solvent.
Sol. Weight of NaOH dissolved = 0.5 g w/m
=
Volume of the solution = 500 cm3 w/m W/M
(i) Calculation of molarity : Moles of solvent N
Mole fraction of solvent =
Molecular weight of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 Moles of solution nN =
Weight of solute/ molecular weight of solute
Molarity = W/M
Volume of solution in litre
0.5/40 w/m W/M
= = 0.025
500/1000 where,
(ii) Calculation of normality : n number of moles of solute
Normality N number of moles of solvent
Weight of solute/ equivalent weight of solute m molecular weight of solute
=
Volume of solution in litre M molecular weight of solvent
0.5/40
= = 0.025 w weight of solute
500/1000
W weight of solvent

PAGE # 28
Ex.26 Find out the mole fraction of solute in 10% (by weight) Sol. Decomposition of KClO3 takes place as,
urea solution. 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
weight of solute (urea) = 10 g
2 mole KClO3 3 mole O2
weight of solution = 100 g
weight of solvent (water) = 100 10 = 90g 3 mole O2 formed by 2 mole KClO3
Moles of solute 2
mole fraction of solute = = 2.4 mole O 2 will be formed by 3 2.4

Moles of solution
mole KClO3 = 1.6 mole KClO3
w/m 10 / 60
= = 0.032 Mass of KClO3 = Number of moles molar mass
w/m W/M 10 / 60 90 / 18 = 1.6 122.5 = 196 g
Note : (ii) Calculations based on mass-mass relationship:
Sum of mole fraction of solute and solvent is always In making necessary calculation, following steps are
equal to one. followed -

(a) Write down the balanced chemical equation.

STOICHIOMETRY
(b) Write down theoretical amount of reactants and
(a) Quantitative Relations in Chemical products involved in the reaction.
Reactions :
(c) The unknown amount of substance is calculated
Stoichiometry is the calculation of the quantities of using unitary method.
reactants and products involved in a chemical
Ex.28 Calculate the mass of CaO that can be prepared
reaction.
by heating 200 kg of limestone CaCO3 which is
It is based on the chemical equation and on the 95% pure.
relationship between mass and moles.
95
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) Sol. Amount of pure CaCO 3 = 200 = 190 kg
100
A chemical equation can be interpreted as follows - = 190000 g
1 molecule N2 + 3 molecules H2 2 molecules CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
NH 3 (Molecular interpretation) 1 mole CaCO3 1 mole CaO
1 mol N2 + 3 mol H2 2 mol NH3 100 g CaCO3 56 g CaO
(Molar interpretation) 100 g CaCO3 give 56 g CaO
28 g N2 + 6 g H2 34 g NH3 56
(Mass interpretation) 190000 g CaCO3 will give= 190000 g CaO
100
1 volume N2 + 3 volume H2 2 volume NH3 = 106400 g = 106.4 kg
(Volume interpretation)
Ex.29 Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating
Thus, calculations based on chemical equations are manganese dioxide (MnO 2 ) with aqueous
divided into four types - hydrochloric acid according to the reaction -

(i) Calculations based on mole-mole relationship. MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
How many grams of HCl will react with 5 g MnO2 ?
(ii) Calculations based on mass-mass relationship.
Sol. 1 mole MnO2 reacts with 4 mole HCl
(iii) Calculations based on mass-volume relationship. or 87 g MnO2 react with 146 g HCl
(iv) Calculations based on volume -volume 146
5 g MnO2 will react with = 5 g HCl = 8.39 g HCl
relationship. 87
Ex.30 How many grams of oxygen are required to burn
(i) Calculations based on mole-mole relationship : completely 570 g of octane ?
In such calculations, number of moles of reactants Sol. Balanced equation
are given and those of products are required.
Conversely, if number of moles of products are given, 2C8H18 + 25O2 16CO2 + 18H2O
2 mole 25 mole
then number of moles of reactants are required. 2 114 25 32

Ex.27 Oxygen is prepared by catalytic decomposition First method : For burning 2 114 g of the octane,
of potassium chlorate (KClO 3). Decomposition oxygen required = 25 32 g
of potassium chlorate gives potassium chloride 25 32
For burning 1 g of octane, oxygen required = g
(KCl) and oxygen (O2). How many moles and how 2 114
many grams of KClO 3 are required to produce Thus, for burning 570 g of octane, oxygen required
2.4 mole O2. 25 32
= 570 g = 2000 g
2 114

PAGE # 29
 Mole Method : Number of moles of octane in 570 Ex-33 What quantity of copper (II) oxide will react with
grams 2.80 litre of hydrogen at STP ?
570 Sol. CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
= 5.0 1 mol 1 mol
114 79.5 g 22.4 litre at NTP
For burning 2.0 moles of octane, oxygen required 22.4 litre of hydrogen at STP reduce CuO = 79.5 g
= 25 mol = 25 32 g 2.80 litre of hydrogen at STP will reduce CuO
For burning 5 moles of octane, oxygen required 79.5
= 2.80 g = 9.93 g
25 32 22.4
= 5.0 g = 2000 g
2 .0 Ex-34 Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide at STP
Proportion Method : Let x g of oxygen be required for evolved by strong heating of 20 g calcium carbonate.
burning 570 g of octane. It is known that 2 114 g of Sol. The balanced equation is -
the octane requires 25 32 g of oxygen; then, the CaCO3 CaO + CO2
proportion. 1 mol 1 mol
100 g = 22.4 litre at STP
25 32 g oxygen x 100 g of CaCO3 evolve carbon dioxide = 22.4 litre
=
2 114 g oc tan e 570 g oc tane 20 g CaCO3 will evolve carbon dioxide
22.4
25 32 570 = 20 = 4.48 litre
x= = 2000 g 100
2 114
Ex.35 Calculate the volume of hydrogen liberated at 27C
Ex.31 How many kilograms of pure H 2SO 4 could be and 760 mm pressure by heating 1.2 g of magnesium
obtained from 1 kg of iron pyrites (FeS2) according to with excess of hydrochloric acid.
the following reactions ? Sol. The balanced equation is
4FeS2 + 11O2 2Fe2O3 + 8SO2 Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
2SO2 + O2 2SO3 24 g 1 mol

SO3 + H2O H2SO4 24 g of Mg liberate hydrogen = 1 mole

Sol. Final balanced equation, 1.2 g Mg will liberate hydrogen = 0.05 mole
4FeS2 + 15O2 + 8H2O 2Fe2O3 + 8H2SO4
4 mole 8 mole PV = nRT
4 120 g 8 98 g
1 V = 0.05 0.0821 300
4 120 g of FeS2 yield H2SO4 = 8 98 g
V = 1.2315 litre
8 98
1000 g of FeS2 will yield H2SO4 = 1000 (iv) Calculations based on volume volume
4 120 relationship :
= 1633.3 g These calculations are based on two laws :
(i) Avogadros law (ii) Gay-Lussacs Law
(iii) Calculations involving mass-volume relationship :
e.g.
In such calculations masses of reactants are given
N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) 2NH 3(g) (Avogadro's law)
and volume of the product is required and vice-versa. 1 mol 3 mol 2 mol
1 22.4 L 3 22.4 L 2 22.4 L
1 mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litre volume at STP.
Mass of a gas can be related to volume according to (under similar conditions of temperature and
the following gas equation - pressure, equal moles of gases occupy equal
volumes)
PV = nRT
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (Gay- Lussac's Law)
w 1 vol 3 vol 2 vol
PV = RT (under similar conditions of temperature and
m
pressure, ratio of coefficients by mole is equal to ratio
Ex-32. What volume of NH3 can be obtained from 26.75 g of coefficient by volume).
of NH4Cl at 27C and 1 atmosphere pressure.
Ex-36 One litre mixture of CO and CO2 is taken. This is
Sol. The balanced equation is - passed through a tube containing red hot charcoal.
NH4Cl(s) The volume now becomes 1.6 litre. The volume are
NH3(g) + HCl(g)
1 mol measured under the same conditions. Find the
1 mol
53.5 g composition of mixture by volume.
Sol. Let there be x mL CO in the mixture , hence, there will
53.5 g NH4Cl give 1 mole NH3 be (1000 x) mL CO2. The reaction of CO2 with red
1 hot charcoal may be given as -
26.75 g NH4Cl will give 26.75 mole NH3
53.5 CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g)
= 0.5 mole 1 vol. 2 vol.
(1000 x) 2(1000 x)
PV = nRT
Total volume of the gas becomes = x + 2(1000 x)
1 V = 0.5 0.0821 300
x + 2000 2x = 1600
V = 12.315 litre
x = 400 mL
volume of CO = 400 mL and volume of CO2 = 600 mL

PAGE # 30
Ex-37 What volume of air containing 21% oxygen by volume
is required to completely burn 1kg of carbon containing USEFUL FORMULAE FOR
100% combustible substance ? VOLUMETRIC CALCULATIONS
Sol. Combustion of carbon may be given as,
(i) milliequivalents = normality volume in millilitres.
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) (ii) At the end point of titration, the two titrants, say 1
1 mol 1 mol and 2, have the same number of milliequivalents,
12 g 32 g
i.e., N1V1 = N2V2, volume being in mL.
12 g carbon requires 1 mole O2 for complete m.e.
(iii) No. of equivalents = .
combustion 1000
(iv) No. of equivalents for a gas =
1
1000 g carbon will require 1000 mole O2 for
12 Volumeat STP
combustion, i.e. , 83.33 mole O2 equivalent volume( vol. of 1eq. at STP)
Volume of O2 at STP = 83.33 22.4 litre
(v) Strength in grams per litre = normality equivalent
= 1866.66 litre weight.
21 litre O2 is present in 100 litre air
(vi) (a) Normality = molarity factor relating mol. wt.
100
1866.66 litre O2 will be present in 1866.66 litre air and eq. wt.
21
(b) No. of equivalents = no. of moles factor relat
= 8888.88 litre or 8.89 103 litre
ing mol. wt. and eq. wt.
Ex-38 An impure sample of calcium carbonate contains Ex.39 Calculate the number of milli equivalent of H2SO4
80% pure calcium carbonate 25 g of the impure
present in 10 mL of N/2 H2SO4 solution.
sample reacted with excess of hydrochloric acid.
1
Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide at STP Sol. Number of m.e. = normality volume in mL =
10 = 5.
obtained from this sample. 2
Ex.40 Calculate the number of m.e. and equivalents of
Sol. 100 g of impure calcium carbonate contains = 80 g
pure calcium carbonate NaOH present in 1 litre of N/10 NaOH solution.
25 g of impure calcium carbonate sample will contain Sol. Number of m.e. = normality volume in mL
80 1
= 25 = 20 g pure calcium carbonate = 1000 = 100
100 10
The desired equation is - no. of m.e. 100
Number of equivalents = = = 0.10
1000 1000
CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
1 mol 22.4 litre Ex.41 Calculate number of m.e. of the acids present in
100 g at STP
(i) 100 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid solution.
100 g pure CaCO3 liberate = 22.4 litre CO2. (ii) 50 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution.
Sol. Normality = molarity basicity of acid
22.4
20 g pure CaCO3 liberate = 20 (i) Normality of oxalic acid = 0.5 2 = 1 N
100
m.e. of oxalic acid = normality vol. in mL = 1 100
= 4.48 litre CO2 = 100.
(ii) Normality of sulphuric acid = 0.1 2 = 0.2 N
VOLUMETRIC CALCULATIONS m.e. of sulphuric acid = 0.2 50 = 10

The quantitative analysis in chemistry is primarily Ex.42 A 100 mL solution of KOH contains 10
carried out by two methods, viz, volumetric analysis milliequivalents of KOH. Calculate its strength in nor-
and gravimetric analysis.In the first method the mass mality and grams/litre.
of a chemical species is measured by measurement no. of m.e. 10
Sol. Normality = volume in mL = 0 .1
of volume, whereas in the second method it is deter- 100
mined by taking the weight. strength of the solution = N/10
The strength of a solution in volumetric analysis is Again, strength in grams/litre = normality eq. wt.
generally expressed in terms of normality, i.e., num- 1
= 56 = 5.6 gram/litre.
ber of equivalents per litre but since the volume in the 10
volumetric analysis is generally taken in millilitres molecular wt. 56
eq. wt. of KOH 56
(mL), the normality is expressed by milliequivalents acidity 1
per millilitre.

PAGE # 31
Ex.43 What is strength in gram/litre of a solution of H2SO4, (b) Important terms used in volumetric
N analysis :
12 cc of which neutralises 15 cc of NaOH
10 (i) Titration : The process of addition of the known
solution ? solution from the burette to the measured volume of
1 solution of the substance to be estimated until the
Sol. m.e. of NaOH solution = 15 = 1.5 reaction between the two is just complete, is termed
10 as titration. Thus, a titration involves two solutions:
m.e. of 12 cc of H2SO4 = 1.5
(a) Unknown solution and (b) Known solution or stan-
1.5
normality of H2SO4 = dard solution.
12
Strength in grams/litre = normality eq. wt. (ii) Titrant : The reagent or substance whose solu-
tion is employed to estimate the concentration of un-
1.5 known solution is termed titrant. There are two types
= 49 grams/litre
12 of reagents or titrants:
= 6.125 grams/litre.
(A) Primary titrants : These reagents can be
molecular wt. 98 accurately weighed and their solutions are not to be
eq. wt. of H2 SO 4 49 standardised before use. Oxalic acid, potassium
basicity 2 dichromate, silver nitrate, copper sulphate, ferrous
Ex.44 What weight of KMnO4 will be required to prepare ammonium sulphate, sodium thiosulphates etc., are
N the examples of primary titrants.
250 mL of its solution if eq. wt. of KMnO4 is 31.6 ?
10 (B) Secondary titrants : These reagents cannot
Sol. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 = 31.6 accurately weighed and their solutions are to be
1 standardised before use. Sodium hydroxide,
Normality of solution (N) = potassium hydroxide, hydrochloric acid, sulphuric
10
Volume of solution (V) = 250 ml acid, iodine, potassium permanganate etc. are the
examples of secondary titrants.
NEV ; W = 1 31 .6 250 31 .6 (iii) Standard solution : The solution of exactly known
W
10 1000 0.79 g
1000 40 concentration of the titrant is called the standard
Ex.45 100 mL of 0.6 N H2SO4 and 200 mL of 0.3 N HCl solution.
were mixed together. What will be the normality of the (iv) Titrate : The solution consisting the substance to
resulting solution ? be estimated is termed unknown solution. The
Sol. m.e. of H2SO4 solution = 0.6 100 = 60 substance is termed titrate.
m.e. of HCl solution = 0.3 200 = 60
(v) Equivalence point : The point at which the reagent
m.e. of 300 mL (100 + 200) of acidic mixture (titrant) and the substance (titrate) under investigation
= 60 + 60 = 120. are chemically equivalent is termed equivalence point
m.e. or end point.
Normality of the resulting solution =
total vol. (vi) Indicator : It is the auxiliary substance used for
120 2 physical (visual) detection of the completion of titration
= = N. or detection of end point is termed as indicator.
300 5 Indicators show change in colour or turbidity at the
Ex.46 A sample of Na2CO3. H2O weighing 0.62 g is added
stage of completion of titration.
to 100 mL of 0.1 N H2SO4. Will the resulting solution
be acidic, basic or neutral ? (c) Concentraion representation of solution
0.62 (A) Strength of solution : Grams of solute dissolved
Sol. Equivalents of Na2CO3. H2O = = 0.01 per litre of solution is called strength of solution'
62
124 (B) Parts Per Million (ppm) : Grams of solute
eq. wt. of Na 2 CO 3 .H2 O 62 dissolved per 10 6 grams of solvent is called
2 concentration of solution in the unit of Parts Per Million
m.e. of Na2CO3. H2O = 0.01 1000 = 10 (ppm). This unit is used to represent hardness of
m.e. of H2SO4 = 0.1 100 = 10 water and concentration of very dilute solutions.
Since the m.e. of Na2CO3. H2O is equal to that of H2SO4,
(C) Percentage by mass : Grams of solute dissolved
the resulting solution will be neutral.
per 100 grams of solution is called percentage by
mass.
(D) Percentage by volume : Millilitres of solute per
(a) Introduction :
100 mL of solution is called percentage by volume.
Volumetric analysis is a method of quantitative
For example, if 25 mL ethyl alcohol is diluted with
analysis. It involves the measurement of the volume
water to make 100 mL solution then the solution thus
of a known solution required to bring about the obtained is 25% ethyl alcohol by volume.
completion of the reaction with a measured volume
of the unknown solution whose concentration or (E) Mass by volume percentage :Grams of solute
strength is to be determined. By knowing the volume present per 100 mL of solution is called percentage
of the known solution, the concentration of the solution mass by volume.
under investigation can be calculated. Volumetric For example, let 25 g glucose is dissolved in water to
analysis is also termed as titrimetric analysis. make 100 mL solution then the solution is 25% mass
by volume glucose.

PAGE # 32
 (d) Classification of reactions involved in
volumetric analysis
(A) Neutralisation reactions
The reaction in which acids and bases react to form
salt called neutralisation.
e.g., HCI + NaOH NaCI + H2O
H+(acid) + OH(base) H2O (feebly ionised)
The titration based on neutralisation is called
acidimetry or alkalimetry.
(B) Oxidation-reduction reactions
The reactions involving simultaneous loss and gain
of electrons among the reacting species are called
oxidation reduction or redox reactions, e.g., let us
consider oxidation of ferrous sulphate (Fe2+ ion) by
potassium permanganate (MnO 4 ion) in acidic
medium.
MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e Mn2+ + 4H2O
(Gain of electrons or reduction)
5 [Fe2+ Fe3+ + e]
(Loss of electrons or oxidation)
MnO4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
________________________________________________________________
In the above reaction, MnO4 acts as oxidising agent
and Fe2+ acts as reducing agent.
The titrations involving redox reactions are called redox
titrations. These titrations are also called according
to the reagent used in the titration, e.g., iodometric,
cerimetric, permanganometric and dichromometric
titrations
(C) Precipitation reactions :
A chemical reaction in which cations and anions
combine to form a compound of very low solubility (in
the form of residue or precipitate), is called
precipitation.
BaCl2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(white precipitate)
The titrations involving precipitation reactions are
called precipitation titrations.
(D) Complex formation reactions :
These are ion combination reactions in which a
soluble slightly dissociated complex ion or
compound is formed.
Complex compounds retain their identity in the
solution and have the properties of the constituent
ions and molecules.
e.g. CuSO4 + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(complex compound)
AgNO3 + 2KCN K[Ag(CN)2] + KNO3
(complex compound)
2CuSO4 + K4[Fe(CN)6] Cu2[Fe(CN)6] + 2K2SO4
(complex compound)
The titrations involving complex formation reactions
are called complexometric titrations.
The determination of concentration of bases by
titration with a standard acid is called acidimetry and
the determination of concentration of acid by titration
with a standard base is called alkalimetry.
The substances which give different colours with
acids and base are called acid base indicators. These
indicators are used in the visual detection of the
equivalence point in acid-base titrations.
The acid-base indicators are also called pH
indicators because their colour change according to
the pH of the solution.
In the selection of indicator for a titration, following
two informations are taken into consideration :
(i) pH range of indicator
(ii) pH change near the equivalence point in the
titration.
The indicator whose pH range is included in the pH
change of the solution near the equivalence point, is
taken as suitable indicator for the titration.
(i) Strong acid-strong base titration : In the titration
of HCl with NaOH, the equivalence point lies in the
pH change of 410. Thus, methyl orange, methyl red
and phenolphthalein will be suitable indicators.
(ii) Weak acid-strong base titration : In the titration
of CH3COOH with NaOH the equivalence point lies
between 7.5 and 10. Hence, phenolphthalein (8.3
10) will be the suitable indicator.
(iii) Weak base-strong acid titration : In the titration
of NH4OH (weak base) against HCl (strong acid) the
pH at equivalence point is about 6.5 and 4. Thus,
methyl orange (3.14.4) or methyl red (4.26.3) will
be suitable indicators.
(iv) Weak acid-weak base titration : In the titration of
a weak acid (CH3COOH) with weak base (NH4OH)
the pH at the equivalence point is about 7, i.e., lies
between 6.5 and 7.5 but no sharp change in pH is
observed in these titrations. Thus, no simple indica-
tor can be employed for the detection of the equiva-
lence point.
(v) Titration of a salt of a weak acid and a strong
base with strong acid:
H2CO3 + 2NaOH Na2CO3 + 2H2O
Weak acid Strong base
Na 2CO3 when titrated with HCl, the following two
stages are involved :
Na2CO3 + HCl NaHCO3 + NaCl (First stage)
pH = 8.3, near equivalence point
NaHCO3 + HCl NaCl + H2CO3 (Second stage)
pH = 4, near equivalence point
For first stage, phenolphthalein and for second stage,
methyl orange will be the suitable indicator.
PAGE # 33
 TITRATION OF MIXTURE OF NaOH, Na2CO3 AND
NaHCO3 BY STRONG ACID LIKE HCl
In this titration the following indicators are mainly used :
(i) Phenolphthalein (weak organic acid) : It shows
colour change in the pH range (8 10)
(ii) Methyl orange (weak organic base) : It shows
colour change in the pH range (3.1 4.4). Due to
lower pH range, it indicates complete neutralisation
of whole of the base.

Let for complete neutralisation of Na2CO3, NaHCO3 and NaOH, x,y and z mL of standard HCl are required. The
titration of the mixture may be carried by two methods as summarised below :

Volume of HCl Volume of HCl used

used with
Mixture Phenlphthalein Methyl orange Phenolphthalein Methyl orange
from from from after first end
beginning beginning beginning point

1. NaOH z + (x/2) (x + z) z + x/2 x/2 (for remaining 50%

+ Na2CO3 Na2CO3)

2. NaOH z+0 (z + y) z+0 y (for remaining 100%

+ NaHCO3 NaHCO3
3. Na2CO3 (x/2) + 0 (x + y) (x/2) + 0 x/2 + y (for remaining 50%
+ NaHCO3 of Na2CO3 and 100%
NaHCO3 are indicated)

Theory of acid-base indicators : Two theories have

been proposed to explain the change of colour of
An indicator is a substance which is used to deter- acid-base indicators with change in pH.
mine the end point in a titration. In acid-base titra-
tions organic substances (weak acids or weak bases) 1. Ostwald's theory:
are generally used as indicators. They change their According to this theory
colour within a certain pH range. The colour change (a) The colour change is due to ionisation of the acid-
and the pH range of some common indicators are base indicator. The unionised form has different
tabulated below: colour than the ionised form.
________________________________________
Indicator pH range Colour (b) The ionisation of the indicator is largely affected in
change acids and bases as it is either a weak acid or a weak
________________________________________ base. In case, the indicator is a weak acid, its
Methyl orange 3.2 4.5 Orange to red ionisation is very much low in acids due to common
ions while it is fairly ionised in alkalies. Similarly if the
Methyl red 4.4 6.5 Red to yellow
indicator is a weak base, its ionisation is large in
Litmus 5.5 7.5 Red to blue
acids and low in alkalies due to common ions.
Phenol red 6.8 8.4 Yellow to red
Phenolphthalein 8.3 10.5 Colourless to pink Considering two important indicators phenolphtha-
________________________________________ lein (a weak acid) and methyl orange (a weak base),
Ostwald's theory can be illustrated as follows:

PAGE # 34
Phenolphthalein: It can be represented as HPh. It This theory also explains the reason why phenol-
ionises in solution to a small extent as: phthalein is not a suitable indicator for titrating a weak

HPh H+ + Ph base against strong acid. The OH ions furnished by
a weak base are not sufficient to shift the equilibrium
Colourless Pink
towards right hand side considerably, i.e., pH is not
Applying law of mass action, reached to 8.3. Thus, the solution does not attain
[H ][Ph ] pink colour. Similarly, it can be explained why methyl
K= orange is not a suitable indicator for the titration of
[HPh]
weak acid with strong base.
The undissociated molecules of phenolphthalein are
colourless while ph ions are pink in colour. In pres- SOLUBILITY
ence of an acid, the ionisation of HPh is practically
negligible as the equilibrium shifts to left hand side The solubility of a solute in a solution is always
due to high concentration of H+ ions. Thus, the solu- expressed with respect to the saturated solution.
tion would remain colourless. On addition of alkali,
hydrogen ions are removed by OH ions in the form of (a) Definition :
water molecules and the equilibrium shifts to right The maximum amount of the solute which can be
hand side. Thus, the concentration of ph ions in- dissolved in 100g (0.1kg) of the solvent to form a
creases in solution and they impart pink colour to the saturated solution at a given temperature.
solution. Suppose w gram of a solute is dissolved in W gram
Let us derive Hendetson's equation for an indicator of a solvent to make a saturated solution at a fixed
temperature and pressure. The solubility of the solute
HIn + H2O H3+O + In
will be given by -
'Acid form' 'Base form'
w Mass of the solute
100 = 100
Conjugate acid-base pair W Mass of the solvent

[In ][H3 O] For example, the solubility of potassium chloride in

KIn =
[HIn] water at 20C and 1 atm. is 34.7 g per 100g of water.
This means that under normal conditions 100 g of
KIn = Ionization constant of indicator
water at 20C and 1 atm. cannot dissolve more than
[HIn]
[H3+O] = KIn 34.7g of KCl.
[In ]
(b) Effect of Temperature and Pressure on
+
[HIn]
pH = log10 [H3 O] = log10 [KIn] log10 Solubility of a Solids :
[In ]
The solubility of a substance in liquids generally
[In ]
pH = pKIn + log10 (Henderson's equation for increases with rise in temperature but hardly changes
[HIn] with the change in pressure. The effect of temperature
indicator)
depends upon the heat energy changes which
At equivalence point ;
accompany the process.
[In] = [HIn] and pH = pKIn
Note :
Methyl orange : It is a very weak base and can be
represented as MeOH. It is ionised in solution to give If heat energy is needed or absorbed in the process,
Me+ and OH ions. it is of endothermic nature. If heat energy is evolved
or released in the process, it is of exothermic nature.
MeOH Me+ +OH
(i) Effect of temperature on endothermic dissolution
Orange Red
process : Most of the salts like sodium chloride,
Applying law of mass action, potassium chloride, sodium nitrate, ammonium
[Me ][OH ] chloride etc. dissolve in water with the absorption of
K= heat. In all these salts the solubility increases with
[MeOH]
rise in temperature. This means that sodium chloride
In presence of an acid, OH ions are removed in the
becomes more soluble in water upon heating.
form of water molecules and the above equilibrium
shifts to right hand side. Thus, sufficient Me+ ions are (ii) Effect of temperature on exothermic dissolution
produced which impart red colour to the solution. On process : Few salts like lithium carbonate, sodium
addition of alkali, the concentration of OH ions in- carbonate monohydrate, cerium sulphate etc.
creases in the solution and the equilibrium shifts to dissolve in water with the evolution of heat. This
left hand side, i.e., the ionisation of MeOH is practi- means that the process is of exothermic nature. In
cally negligible. Thus, the solution acquires the colour
these salts the solubility in water decreases with rise
of unionised methyl orange molecules, i.e. orange.
in temperature.

PAGE # 35
 Note :
1. While expressing the solubility, the solution must EXERCISE
be saturated but for expressing concentration (mass
percent or volume percent), the solution need not to 1. The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16 g at 50C. The
be saturated in nature. minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4 g
2. While expressing solubility, mass of solvent is K2SO4 is -
considered but for expressing concentration the (A) 10 g (B) 25 g
mass or volume of the solution may be taken into (C) 50 g (D) 75 g
consideration.
2. Molarity of H2SO4 (density 1.8g/mL) is 18M. The
(c) Ef fect of Temperature on the Solubility molality of this solution is -
of a Gas
(A)36 (B) 200
(i) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with (C) 500 (D) 18
the rise in temperature.
3. 8g of sulphur are burnt to form SO2, which is oxidised
(ii) The solubility of gases in liquids increases on
by Cl 2 water. The solution is treated with BaCl 2
increasing the pressure and decreases on decreas-
solution. The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is -
ing the pressure.
(A) 1.0 mole (B) 0.5 mole
SAMPLE PROBLEMS (C) 0.75 mole (D) 0.25 mole

4. In a compound AxBy -
Ex.47 12 grams of potassium sulphate dissolves in
75 grams of water at 60C. What is the solubility (A) Mole of A = Mole of B = mole of AxBy
of potassium sulphate in water at that temperature ? (B) Eq. of A = Eq. of B = Eq. of AxBy
mass of solute (C) X mole of A = y mole of B = (x + y) mole of AxBy
Sol. Solubility = 100
mass of solvent (D) X mole of A = y mole of B
12
= 100 = 16 g 5. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal
75
labelled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is -
Thus, the solubility of potassium sulphate in
(A) 11% (B) 1.10%
water is 16 g at 60C.
(C) 0.110% (D) 110%
Ex.48 4 g of a solute are dissolved in 40 g of water to
6. Two elements A (at. wt. 75) and B (at. wt. 16) combine
form a saturated solution at 25C. Calculate the
solubility of the solute. to yield a compound. The % by weight of A in the
compound was found to be 75.08. The empirical
Mass of solute
Sol. Solubility = 100 formula of the compound is -
Mass of solvent
(A) A2B (B) A2B3
Mass of solute = 4 g
(C) AB (D) AB2
Mass of solvent = 40 g
4 7. No. of oxalic acid molecules in 100 mL of 0.02 N
Solubility = 100 = 10 g
40 oxalic acid are -
Ex.49 (a) What mass of potassium chloride would be (A) 6.023 1020 (B) 6.023 1021
needed to form a saturated solution in 50 g of (C) 6.023 1022 (D) 6.023 1023
water at 298 K ? Given that solubility of the salt is
8. Which of the following sample contains the maximum
46g per 100g at this temperature.
number of atoms -
(b) What will happen if this solution is cooled ? (A) 1 mg of C4H10 (B) 1 mg of N2
Sol. (a) Mass of potassium chloride in 100 g of water (C) 1 mg of Na (D) 1 mL of water
in saturated solution = 46 g
9. The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons
Mass of potassium chloride in 50 g of water in
12
saturated solution. in 12 g of 6 C is -
46 (A) 1.084 10 25
(B) 6.022 1023
= (50g) = 23 g
100 (C) 6.022 1022 (D) 18
(b) When the solution is cooled, the solubility of
10. 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are mixed in a
salt in water will decrease. This means, that upon
cooling, it will start separating from the solution container. The total number of molecules present in
in crystalline form. the container will be -
(A) 6.022 1023 (B) 1.2044 1023
(C) 2 mole (D) 6.023 1024

PAGE # 36
11. Which is not a molecular formula ? 21. How many atoms are contained in a mole of Ca(OH)2 -
(A) C6H12O6 (B) Ca(NO3)2 (A) 30 6.02 1023 atoms/mol
(C) C2H4O2 (D) N2O (B) 5 6.02 1023 atoms/mol
(C) 6 6.02 1023 atoms/mol
12. The hydrated salt, Na2SO4. nH2O undergoes 55.9%
(D) None of these
loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of n will be - 22. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur. The minimum
(A) 5 (B) 3 molecular weight of insulin is -
(C) 7 (D) 10 (A) 941.176 u (B) 944 u
(C) 945.27 u (D) None of these
13. W hich of the following mode of expressing
concentration is independent of temperature - 23. Number of moles present in 1 m3 of a gas at NTP are -
(A) Molarity (B) Molality (A) 44.6 (B) 40.6
(C) Formality (D) Normality (C) 42.6 (D) 48.6

14. The haemoglobin of the red blood corpuscles of most 24. Weight of oxygen in Fe2O3 and FeO is in the simple
of the mammals contains approximately 0.33% of ratio of -
iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin (A) 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 2
is 67,200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
of haemoglobin is (Atomic weight of iron = 56) -
25. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated
(A) 2 (B) 3
yield a residue weighing -
(C) 4 (D) 5
(A) 2.16g (B) 2.48 g
15. An oxide of metal have 20% oxygen, the eq. wt. of (C) 2.32 g (D) 2.64 g
metal oxide is -
26. How many gram of KCl would have to be dissolved in
(A) 32 (B) 40
60 g of H2O to give 20% by weight of solution -
(C) 48 (D) 52 (A) 15 g (B) 1.5 g
16. How much water is to be added to dilute 10 mL of 10 (C) 11.5 g (D) 31.5 g
N HCl to make it decinormal ?
27. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately
(A) 990 mL (B) 1010 mL
with excess of H2SO4 and excess of NaOH, the ratio
(C) 100 mL (D) 1000 mL of volumes of H2 evolved is -
17. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is - (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (C) 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 4
(B) Na2SO3 and NaHCO3 28. Amount of oxygen required for combustion of 1 kg of a
(C) Na2CO3 and NaOH mixture of butane and isobutane is -
(D) NaHCO3 and NaCl (A) 1.8 kg (B) 2.7 kg
18. If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5 g H2SO4 the (C) 4.5 kg (D) 3.58 kg
molarity and normality respectively are - 29. Rakesh needs 1.71 g of sugar (C12H22O11) to sweeten
(A) 1 M, 2 N (B) 1M,0.5 N his tea. What would be the number of carbon atoms
(C) 0.5 M, 1N (D) 2M, 1N present in his tea ?
19. The mole fraction of NaCl, in a solution containing 1 (A) 3.6 1022 (B) 7.2 1021
mole of NaCl in 1000 g of water is - (C) 0.05 1023 (D) 6.6 1022

(A) 0.0177 (B) 0.001 30. The total number of AlF3 molecule in a sample of AlF3
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.244 containing 3.01 1023 ions of F is -
20. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ (A) 9.0 1024 (B) 3.0 1024
23
mL. The molarity of the solution is - (C) 7.5 10 (D)1023

(A) 2.9732 (B) 3.05 31. The volume occupied by one molecule of water
(C) 3.64 (D) 3.0504 (density 1 g/cm3) is -
(A) 18 cm3 (B) 22400 cm3
(C) 6.023 10 23
(D) 3.0 1023 cm3

PAGE # 37
 43. The number of molecules present in 11.2 litre CO2 at
32. 224 mL of a triatomic gas weigh 1 g at 273 K and 1
STP is -
atm. The mass of one atom of this gas is -
(A) 6.023 1032 (B) 6.023 1023
(A) 8.30 1023 g (B) 2.08 1023 g
23
(C) 3.011 10 (D) None of these
(C) 5.53 1023 g (D) 6.24 1023 g
44. 250 ml of 0.1 N solution of AgNO3 are added to 250
33. The percentage of P2O5 in diammonium hydrogen
ml of a 0.1 N solution of NaCl. The concentration of
phosphate is -
nitrate ion in the resulting solution will be -
(A) 77.58 (B) 46.96
(A) 0.1N (B) 1.2 N
(C) 53.78 (D) 23.48
(C) 0.01 N (D) 0.05 N
34. The mole fraction of water in 20% (wt. /wt.) aqueous
solution of H2O2 is - 45. Amount of BaSO4 formed on mixing the aqueous
solution of 2.08 g BaCl2 and excess of dilute H2SO4 is -
77 68
(A) (B) (A) 2.33 g (B) 2.08 g
68 77
(C) 1.04 g (D) 1.165 g
20 80
(C) (D) 46. 2g of NaOH and 4.9 g of H2SO4 were mixed and
80 20
volume is made 1 litre. The normality of the resulting
35. Which of the following has the maximum mass ?
solution will be -
(A) 25 g of Hg
(A) 1N (B) 0.05 N
(B) 2 moles of H2O
(C) 0.5 N (D) 0.1N
(C) 2 moles of CO2
(D) 4 g atom of oxygen 47. 1g of a metal carbonate neutralises completely 200
mL of 0.1N HCl. The equivalent weight of metal
36. Total mass of neutrons in 7mg of 14C is -
carbonate is -
(A) 3 1020 kg (B) 4 106 kg
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 5 107 kg (D) 4 107 kg
(C) 100 (D) 75
37. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its oxide
48. 100 mL of 0.5 N NaOH were added to 20 ml of 1N
contains 53% metal. The atomic weight of metal is -
HCl and 10 mL of 3 N H2SO4. The solution is -
(A) 21 (B) 54
(A) acidic (B) basic
(C) 26.74 (D) 2.086
(C) neutral (D) none of these
38. The number of atoms in 4.25 g NH3 is approximately -
49. 1M solution of H2SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to 5 litres ,
(A) 1 1023 (B) 1.5 1023
the normality of the resulting solution will be -
(C) 2 1023 (D) 6 1023
(A) 0.2 N (B) 0.1 N
39. The modern atomic weight scale is based on - (C) 0.4 N (D) 0.5 N
(A) C12 (B) O16
(C) H1 (D) C13 50. The volume of 7g of N2 at S.T.P. is -
(A) 11.2 L (B) 22.4 L
40. Amount of oxygen in 32.2g of Na2SO4. 10H2O is - (C) 5.6 L (D) 6.5 L
(A) 20.8 g (B) 22.4 g
(C) 2.24 g (D) 2.08 g 51. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with
excess of water gives -
41. Which of the followings does not change on dilution ?
(A) three moles of phosphine
(A) Molarity of solution
(B) one mole phosphoric acid
(B) Molality of solution
(C) two moles of phosphine
(C) Millimoles and milli equivalent of solute
(D) one mole of P2O5
(D) Mole fraction of solute
52. Mg (OH)2 in the form of milk of magnesia is used to
42. Equal masses of O2, H2 and CH4 are taken in a
neutralize excess stomach acid. How many moles of
container. The respective mole ratio of these gases
stomach acid can be neutralized by 1 g of Mg(OH)2 ?
in container is -
(Molar mass of Mg(OH)2 = 58.33)
(A) 1 : 16 : 2 (B) 16 : 1 : 2
(A) 0.0171 (B) 0.0343
(C) 1 : 2 : 16 (D) 16 : 2 : 1
(C) 0.686 (D) 1.25

PAGE # 38
53. Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating 60. The volume of CO2 (in litres) liberated at STP when
according to the following equation - 10 g of 90% pure limestone is heated completely, is-
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) (A) 22.4 L (B) 2.24 L
How many moles of CO 2 will be obtained by (C) 20.16 L (D) 2.016 L
decomposition of 50 g CaCO3 ? 61. A metal oxide has the formula Z2O3. It can be reduced
3 5 by hydrogen to give free metal and water. 0.1596 g of
(A) (B)
2 2 the metal requires 6 mg of hydrogen for complete
1
(C) (D) 1 reduction. The atomic mass of the metal is -
2
(A) 27.9 (B) 159.6
54. Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two (C) 79.8 (D) 55.8
reactions - Question number 62, 63, 64 and 65 are based on the
S8(s) + 8O2(g) 8SO2(g) following information :
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
Q. Dissolved oxygen in water is determined by using a
How many grams of SO3 are produced from 1 mole
redox reaction. Following equations describe the
of S8 ?
procedure -
(A) 1280 (B) 640
(C) 960 (D) 320 I 2Mn2+(aq) + 4OH(aq) + O2 (g) 2MnO2(s) + 2H2O( )
I MnO2(s)+2I(aq)+4H+(aq) Mn2+(aq)+I2(aq) + 2H2O( )
55. PH 3 (g) decomposes on heating to produce
phosphorous and hydrogen. The change in volume III 2S 2O32 (aq) + I2(aq) 2S 4 O 26 (aq) + 2I(aq)
when 100 mL of such gas decomposed is - 62. How many moles of S 2O 23 are equivalent to each
(A) + 50 mL (B) + 500 mL mole of O2 ?
(C) 50 mL (D) 500 mL (A) 0.5 B) 1
56. What amount of BaSO4 can be obtained on mixing (C) 2 (D) 4
0.5 mole BaCl2 with 1 mole of H2SO4 ? 63. What amount of I2 will be liberated from 8 g dissolved
(A) 0.5 mol (B) 0.15 mol oxygen ?
(C) 0.1 mol (D) 0.2 mol (A) 127 g (B) 254 g
57. In the reaction , CrO5 + H2SO4 Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + O2 (C) 504 g (D) 1008 g
one mole of CrO5 will liberate how many moles of O2 ? 64. 3 10 moles O2 is dissolved per litre of water, then
3

(A) 5/2 (B) 5/4 what will be molarity of I produced in the given
(C) 9/2 (D) None reaction ?
(A) 3 103 M (B) 4 3 103 M
58. Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating
1
according to the equation - (C) 2 3 103 M 3 10 3 M
(D)
2
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) 65. 8 mg dissolved oxygen will consume -
(A) 5 104 mol Mn+2
At STP the volume of CO 2 obtained by thermal
decomposition of 50 g of CaCO3 will be - (B) 2.5 104 mol Mn2+
(A) 22.4 litre (B) 44 litre (C) 10 mol Mn2+
(C) 11.2 litre (D) 1 litre (D) 2 mol Mn2+

66. 2 g of a base whose eq. wt. is 40 reacts with 3 g of an

59. When FeCl 3 is ignited in an atmosphere of pure
oxygen, the following reaction takes place- acid. The eq. wt. of the acid is-
(A) 40 (B) 60
4FeCl3(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(s) + 6Cl2(g)
(C) 10 (D) 80
If 3 moles of FeCl3 are ignited in the presence of 2
moles of O2 gas, how much of which reagent is 67. Normality of 1% H2SO4 solution is nearly -
present in excess and therefore, remains unreacted ? (A) 2.5 (B) 0.1
(A) 0.33 mole FeCl3 remains unreacted (C) 0.2 (D) 1
(B) 0.67 mole FeCl3 remains unreacted 68. What volume of 0.1 N HNO3 solution can be prepared
(C) 0.25 mole O2 remains unreacted from 6.3 g of HNO3 ?
(D) 0.50 mole O2 remains unreacted (A) 1 litre (B) 2 litres
(C) 0.5 litre (D) 4 litres

PAGE # 39
69. The volume of water to be added to 200 mL of 80. A 3 N solution of H2SO4 in water is prepared from
seminormal HCl solution to make it decinormal is - Conc. H2SO4 (36 N) by diluting [KVPY-PartII-2007]
(A) 200 mL (B) 400 mL (A) 20 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 240 ml
(C) 600 mL (D) 800 mL (B) 10 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 240 ml
(C) 1 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 36 ml
70. 0.2 g of a sample of H2O2 required 10 mL of 1N KMnO4
(D) 20 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 36 ml
in a titration in the presence of H2SO4. Purity of H2O2 is-
(A) 25% (B) 85% 81. The solubility curve of KNO3 as a function of tempera-
(C) 65% (D) 95% ture is given below [KVPY-Part-II-2007]
250
71. Which of the following has the highest normality ?

Solubility (g/100 ml water)

(A) 1 M H2SO4 (B) 1 M H3PO3 200

(C) 1 M H3PO4 (D) 1 M HNO3 150

72. The molarity of 98% H2SO4(d = 1.8g/mL) by wt. is - 100

(A) 6 M (B) 18.74 M 50

(C) 10 M (D) 4 M 0

73. 0.7 g of Na2CO3 . xH2O is dissolved in 100 mL. 20 mL 0 20 40 60 80 100

Temperature (C)
of which required to neutralize 19.8 mL of 0.1 N HCl.
The value of x is - The amount of KNO3 that will crystallize when a satu-
(A) 4 (B) 3 rated solution of KNO3 in 100 ml of water is cooled
(C) 2 (D) 1 from 90C to 30 C, is
(A) 16 g (B) 100 g
74. 0.45 g of an acid of molecular weight 90 was
(C) 56 g (D)160 g
neutralised by 20 mL of 0.5 N caustic potash. The
basicity of the acid is - 82. The volume of 0.5 M aqueous NaOH solution required
(A) 1 (B) 2 to neutralize 10 ml of 2 M aqueous HCl solution is :
(C) 3 (D) 4 [KVPY-Part-I-2008]
(A) 20ml (B) 40ml
75. 1 litre of 18 molar H2SO4 has been diluted to 100
(C) 80ml (D) 120ml
litres. The normality of the resulting solution is -
(A) 0.09 N (B) 0.18 83. 3.011023 molecules of elemental Sulphur will react
(C) 1800 N (D) 0.36 with 0.5 mole of oxygen gas completely to produce
N
[KVPY-Part-I-2008]
76. 150 ml of HCl is required to react completely with (A) 6.02 1023 molecules of SO3
10
1.0 g of a sample of limestone. The percentage purity (B) 6.02 1023 molecules of SO2
of calcium carbonate is - (C) 3.01 1023 molecules of SO3
(A) 75% (B) 50% (D) 3.01 x 1023 molecules of SO2
(C) 80% (D) 90% 84. The solubility of a gas in a solution is measured in
N N three cases as shown in the figure given below where
77. 50 ml of HCl is treated with 70 ml NaOH.
10 10 w is the weight of a solid slab placed on the top of the
Resultant solution is neutralized by 100 ml of cylinder lid. The solubility will follow the order :
sulphuric acid. The normality of H2SO4 - [KVPY-Part-I-2008]
(A) N/50 (B) N/25 w w w w w w

(C) N/30 (D) N/10

N gas gas
gas
78. 200 mL of HCl were added to 1 g calcium car-
10
bonate, what would remain after the reaction ?
(A) CaCO3 (B) HCl solution solution solution
(C) Neither of the two (D) Part of both

79. Equivalent mass of KMnO4, when it is converted to

MnSO4 is - (A) a > b > c (B) a < b < c
(A) M/5 (B) M/3 (C) a = b = c (D) a >b < c
(C) M/6 (D) M/2

PAGE # 40
85. The density of a salt solution is1.13 g cm3 and it Given the solubility curves of KNO3 and KCl, which of
contains 18% of NaCI by weight. The volume of the the following statements is not true ?
solution containing 36.0 g of the salt will be : (A) At room temperature the solubility of KNO3 and
[KVPY-Part-II-2008] KCI are not equal
(A) 200 cm3 (B) 217 cm3 (B) The solubilities of both KNO3 and KCI increase
3 with temperature
(C) 177 cm (D) 157cm3
(C) The solubility of KCI decreases with temperature
86. One mole of nitrogen gas on reaction with 3.01 x 1023 (D) The solubility of KNO3 increases much more com-
molecules of hydrogen gas produces - pared to that of KCl with increase in temperature
[KVPY-Part-I-2009] 88. 10 ml of an aqueous solution containing 222 mg of
(A) one mole of ammonia calcium chloride (mol. wt. = 111) is diluted to 100 ml.
(B) 2.0 x 1023 molecules of ammonia The concentration of chloride ion in the resulting so-
(C) 2 moles of ammonia lution is - [KVPY-Part-II-2009]
(D) 3.01 1023 molecules of ammonia (A) 0.02 mol/lit. (B) 0.01 mol/lit.
(C) 0.04 mol/lit (D) 2.0 mol/lit.
87. [KVPY-Part-I-2009]
Solubility
g/I
89. Aluminium reduces manganese dioxide to manga-
250 nese at high temperature. The amount of aluminium
KNO3
200 required to reduce one gram mole of manganese
150 dioxide is - [KVPY-Part-II-2009]
KCl (A) 1/2 gram mole (B) 1 gram mole
100
(C) 3/4 gram mole (D) 4/3 gram mole
50
90. One mole of oxalic acid is equivalent to
20 40 60 80 100 [IJSO-2009]
Temperature (C) (A) 0.5 mole of NaOH (B) 1 mole of NaOH
(C) 1.5 mole of NaOH (D) 2 mole of NaOH

PAGE # 41
 NUMBER SYSTEM

(vi) Real numbers : Numbers which can represent

actual physical quantities in a meaningful way are
(i) Natural numbers : known as real numbers. These can be represented
Counting numbers are known as natural numbers. on the number line. Number line is geometrical straight
N = { 1, 2, 3, 4, ... }. line with arbitrarily defined zero (origin).
(ii) Whole numbers : (vii) Prime numbers : All natural numbers that have
All natural numbers together with 0 form the collection one and itself only as their factors are called prime
of all whole numbers. numbers i.e. prime numbers are exactly divisible by
W = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ... }. 1 and themselves. e.g. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23,...etc.
(iii) Integers : If P is the set of prime number then P = {2, 3, 5, 7,...}.
All natural numbers, 0 and negative of natural numbers
(viii) Composite numbers : All natural numbers, which
form the collection of all integers.
are not prime are composite numbers. If C is the set
I or Z = { ..., 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ... }.
of composite number then C = {4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12,...}.
(iv) Rational numbers :
1 is neither prime nor composite number.
These are real numbers which can be expressed in the
p (ix) Co-prime Numbers : If the H.C.F. of the given
form of , where p and q are integers and q 0 . numbers (not necessarily prime) is 1 then they are
q
e.g. 2/3, 37/15, -17/19. known as co-prime numbers. e.g. 4, 9 are co-prime
as H.C.F. of (4, 9) = 1.
All natural numbers, whole numbers and integers are
rational. Any two consecutive numbers will always be co-prime.
Rational numbers include all Integers (without any (x) Even Numbers : All integers which are divisible by 2
decimal part to it), terminating fractions ( fractions in are called even numbers. Even numbers are denoted
which the decimal parts are terminating e.g. 0.75, by the expression 2n, where n is any integer. So, if E is
0.02 etc.) and also non-terminating but recurring a set of even numbers, then E = { ..., 4, 2, 0, 2, 4,...}.
decimals e.g. 0.666....., 2.333...., etc.
(xi) Odd Numbers : All integers which are not
Fractions :
divisible by 2 are c alled odd numbers. Odd
(a) Common fraction : Fractions whose denominator numbers are denoted by the general expression
is not 10. 2n 1 where n is any integer. If O is a set of odd
(b) Decimal fraction : Fractions whose denominator is numbers, then O = {..., 5, 3, 1, 1, 3, 5,...}.
10 or any power of 10. (xii) Imaginary Numbers : All the numbers whose
3 square is negative are called imaginary numbers.
(c) Proper fraction : Numerator < Denominator i.e. .
5
e.g. 3i, -4i, i, ... ; where i = - 1.
5
(d) Improper fraction : Numerator > Denominator i.e. .
3 (xiii) Complex Numbers : The combined form of real
(e) Mixed fraction : Consists of integral as well as and imaginary numbers is known as complex
numbers. It is denoted by Z = A + iB where A is real part
2
fractional part i.e. 3. and B is imaginary part of Z and A, B R.
7
(f) Compound fraction : Fraction whose numerator and The set of complex number is the super set of all the
2/3 sets of numbers.
denominator themselves are fractions. i.e. .
5/7
Improper fraction can be written in the form of mixed
fraction.
(v) Irrational Numbers : Squares : When a number is multiplied by itself then
the product is called the square of that number.
All real number which are not rational are irrational
numbers. These are non-recurring as well as Perfect Square : A natural number is called a perfect
non-terminating type of decimal numbers. square if it is the square of any other natural number
e.g. 1, 4, 9,... are the squares of 1, 2, 3,... respectively.
For Ex. : 2, 3
4 , 2 3 , 2 3 , 47
3 etc.

PAGE # 4242
Ex.1 Find the smallest number by which 300 must be
Ex.3 Find the square root of 3 + 2.
multiplied so that the product is a perfect square.
Sol. Given number is 300, first we resolve it into prime Sol. Let 3 2 = p + q
factors.

2 300
3+ 2 =p+q+2 pq [By squaring both sides]

2 150 p+q=3 ...(i) [By equating the parts]

3 75
2 pq = 2 ...(ii)
5 25
5 5 4pq = 2 ...(iii) [By squaring both sides ]
1
(p q)2 = (p + q)2 4 pq
300 = 2 2 3 5 5
(p q)2 = 9 2
Clearly, 3 has no pair. Thus if we multiply it by 3 then
product will be a perfect square. (p q)2 = 7
Required smallest number is 3 . pq= 7 ...(iv)

Ex.2 Find the smallest number by which 1575 must be p+q=3 [By eqn (i)]
divided so that the quotient becomes a perfect square. 1
Sol. Given number is 1575, first we write it as the product of p=
2

3 7 [On adding (i) & (iv)]
prime factors 1
q=
2

3 7 [On subtracting (i) & (iv)]
3 1575
1 3 7 3 7
3 525 3 2 =
2
5 175
5 35
7 7
1 Cube : If any number is multiplied by itself three times
1575 = 3 3 5 5 7. then the result is called the cube of that number.
Clearly, 7 has no pair, so if we divide it by 7 then quotient Perfect cube : A natural number is said to be a perfect
become a perfect square. cube if it is the cube of any other natural number.
Square roots : The square root of a number x is that
Ex.4 What is the smallest number by which 675 must be
number which when multiplied by itself gives x as the
multiplied so that the product is a perfect cube.
product. As we say square of 3 is 9, then we can also
Sol. Resolving 675 into prime factor, we get
say that square root of 9 is 3.
The symbol use to indicate the square root of a number

is , i.e. 81 = 9, 225 = 15 ...etc. 3 675

3 225
We can calculate the square root of positive numbers
3 75
only. However the square root of a positive number
5 25
may be a positive or a negative number.
5 5
e.g. 25 = + 5 or 5.
1
Properties of Square Roots :

(i) If the unit digit of a number is 2, 3, 7 or 8, then it does 675 = (3 3 3) 5 5

not have a square root in N.
(ii) If a number ends in an odd number of zeros, then it
does not have a square root in N.
(iii) The square root of an even number is even and
square root of an odd number is odd.e.g. 81 = 9,
= 16, 324 = 18 ...etc.
(iv) Negative numbers have no square root in set of
real numbers.
Grouping the factor in triplets of equal factors, we get
675 = (3 3 3) 5 5
We find that 3 occurs as a prime factor of 675 thrice but
5 occurs as a prime factor only twice. Thus, if we multiply
675 by 5, 5 will also occur as a prime factor thrice and
256
the product will be 3 3 3 5 5 5, which is a
perfect cube.
Hence, we must multiply 675 by 5 so that the product
becomes a perfect cube.

PAGE # 4343
Ex.5 What is the smallest number by which 18522 must be Laws of Surds :
divided so that the quotient is a perfect cube ? n
(i) n
a n an = a
Sol. Resolving 18522 into prime factors, we get
n
(ii) a n b n ab [Here order should be same]
2 18522
3 9261 n a
(iii) a n b n
3 3087 b
3 1029 (iv) nm
a nm a m n a
7 343 np np
(v) n
a a p or, n a m amp
7 49
[Important for changing order of surds]
7 7
1 Ex.6 If x = 1 + 21/3 + 22/3, then find the value of x3 3x2 3x 1.
Sol. x = 1 + 21/3 + 22/3
18522 = 2 3 3 3 7 7 7
x 1 = (21/3 + 22/3)
Grouping the factors in triplets of equal factors, we get
(x 1)3 = ( 21/3 + 22/3)3
18522 = 2 (3 3 3) (7 7 7)
x3 3x2 + 3x 1 = (21/3)3 + (22/3)3 + 3. 21/3. 22/3 (21/3 + 22/3)
Clearly, if we divide 18522 by 2, the quotient would be
x3 3x2 + 3x 1 = 2 + 22 + 3.21 (x 1)
3 3 3 7 7 7 = 33 73 which is a perfect cube.
x3 3x2 + 3x 1 = 6 + 6 (x 1)
Therefore, we must divide 18522 by 2 so that the
quotient 9261 is a perfect cube. x3 3x2 + 3x 1 = 6x
x3 3x2 3x 1 = 0.
3
Ex.7 Simplify : 8a 5 b 4a 2 b 2
Any irrational number of the form a is given a special n
3
Sol. 6
8 3 a15 b 3 6 4 2 a 4b 4 = 4a b6 2ab .
name Surd. Where a is called radicand, rational. Also
3
the symbol n is called the radical sign and the index Ex.8 Divide : 24 by 200

n is called order of the surd.

24 6
(24) 3 216
Sol. 3
6 .
n
a is read as nth root of a and can also be written 200 6
(200) 2 625
1
Comparison of Surds :
as an .
It is clear that if x > y > 0 and n > 1 is a (+ve) integer
Identification of Surds :
3 3 5 5
3 then n
x > n y . e.g. 16 > 12 , 36 > 25 and so
(i) 4 is a surd as radicand is a rational number..
on.
Similar examples : 3
5 , 4 12 , 5 7 , 12 , ... ,

Ex.9 Which is greater in each of the following :

(ii) 2 + 3 is a surd (as surd + rational number will
3 5 1 1
give a surd) (i) 6 and 8 (ii) and 3
2 3
Similar examples : 3 2 , 3 1, 3 3 1,... Sol. (i) L.C.M. of 3 and 5 is 15.

(iii) 7 4 3 is a surd as 7 4 3 is a perfect square

3
6 35 6 5 15 7776

of 2 3 . 5
8 35 8 3 15 512

Similar examples : 7 4 3 , 9 4 5 , 9 4 5 ,... 15 7776 15 512

1
3
5
1 3 1 6 8
3 3
(iv) 3 is a surd as 3 3 2 3 6 6 3 (ii) L.C.M. of 2 and 3 is 6.

3 2
6
1 6
1
Similar examples : 3 3
5 , 4 5 6 , ... and
2 3
(v) These are not a surds :
3 3 1 1
(A) 8 , because 3
8 23 which is a rational = 6 and 6
8 9
number.
1 1
(B) 2 3 , because 2 + 3 is not a perfect square. as 8 < 9
8 9

(C) 3 1 3 , because radicand is an irrational number.. 1 1 1 1

So, 6 6 or, > 3 .
8 9 2 3

PAGE # 4444
Ex.10 Arrange 2, 3 3 and 4
5 in ascending order.. Factorisation : It is the process of splitting any number
Sol. L.C.M. of 2, 3, 4 is 12. into form where it is expressed only in terms of the
most basic prime factors.
26
2 2 6 12 64 , For example, 36 = 22 3 2. 36 is expressed in the
factorised form in terms of its basic prime factors.
3
3 34 3 4 12 81 ,
4 3
Number of factors : For any composite number C,
and 4
5 5 3 12 125
which can be expressed as C = ap bq cr ....., where
As, 64 < 81 < 125. a, b, c ..... are all prime factors and p, q, r are positive
12
64 12 81 12 125 integers, then the number of factors is equal to
(p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1).... e.g. 36 = 22 32. So the
2 33 45
factors of 36 = (2 +1) (2 + 1) = 3 3 = 9.
Conjugate Surds : Ex.13 If N = 123 34 52, find the total number of even
R.F. of a b and a b type surds are called factors of N.
conjugate surds . Sol. The factorised form of N is
(22 31)3 34 52 26 37 52.
Ex.11 (i) 2 3 is conjugate of 2 3 . Hence, the total number of factors of N is
(6 + 1) (7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 7 8 3 = 168.
(ii) 5 1 is conjugate of 5 1.
Some of these are odd multiples and some are even.
Sometimes conjugate surd and reciprocals are same.
The odd multiples are formed only with the combination
of 3s and 5s.
Ex.12 (i) 2 3 , its conjugate is 2 3 , its reciprocal is
So, the total number of odd factors is (7 + 1)(2 + 1) = 24.
2 3 & vice versa. Therefore, the number of even factors
= 168 24 = 144.
(ii) 5 2 6 , its conjugate is 5 2 6 , its reciprocal is
Ex.14 A number N when factorised can be written
5 2 6 & vice versa.
N = a 4 b 3 c 7. Find the number of perfect squares
which are factors of N (The three prime numbers
a, b, c > 2).
Factors : a is a factor of b if there exists a relation Sol. In order that the perfect square divides N, the powers
such that a n = b, where n is any natural number. of a can be 0, 2 or 4, i.e. 3.
1 is a factor of all numbers as 1 b = b. Powers of b can be 0, 2, i.e. 2. Power of c can be 0, 2,
4 or 6, i.e. 4.
Factor of a number cannot be greater than the number
(infact the largest factor will be the number itself). Thus Hence, a combination of these powers given 3 2 4
factors of any number will lie between 1 and the number i.e. 24 numbers.
itself (both inclusive) and they are limited. So, there are 24 perfect squares that divides N.
Multiples : a is a multiple of b if there exists a relation Ex.15 Directions : (i to iv) Answer the questions based on
of the type b n = a. Thus the multiples of 6 are the given information.
6 1 = 6, 6 2 = 12, 6 3 = 18, 6 4 = 24, and so on. There are one thousand lockers and one thousand
The smallest multiple will be the number itself and the students in a school. The principal asks the first student
number of multiples would be infinite. to go to each locker and open it. Then he asks the
NOTE : second student go to every second locker and close it.
To understand what multiples are, lets just take an The third student goes to every third locker, and if it is
example of multiples of 3. The multiples are 3, 6, 9, closed, he opens it, and it is open, he closes it. The
12,.... so on. We find that every successive multiples fourth student does it to every fourth locker and so on.
appears as the third number after the previous. The process is completed with all the thousand
So if one wishes to find the number of multiples of 6
students.
less than 255, we could arrive at the number through
(i) How many lockers are closed at the end of the
255 process ?
= 42 (and the remainder 3). The remainder is of
6
no consequence to us. So in all there are 42 multiples. (ii) How many students can go to only one locker ?
255
If one wishes to find the multiples of 36, find =7 (iii) How many lockers are open after 970 students
36
(and the remainder is 3). Hence, there are 7 multiples have done their job ?
of 36. (iv) How many student go to locker no. 840 ?

PAGE # 4545
Sol. (i to iv) : Whether the locker is open or not depends on
the number of times it is accessed. If it is accessed
odd number of times, then it is open while if it is
accessed even number of times then it is closed.
How many times a locker will be accessed depends
on the locker no. If it contains odd number of factors,,
then it will be open and if it contains even number of
factors. Then it will be closed. We know that a perfect
square contains odd number of factors while a non-
perfect square contains even number of factors. Thus
the lockers with perfect square number will be open
and the number of these perfect squares from 1 to
1000 determines the no. of open lockers.
(i) No. of closed lockers = No. of non-perfect square
numbers from 1 to 1000 = 1000 31 = 969.
(ii) Upto 500 students they can go to two or more than
two lockers, while the rest 500 can go to only one locker.
(iii) The 31 perfect squares ( the last being 312 = 961)
will be open while the lockers from 971 to 1000 is yet
to be accessed last time so they all are open. The total
being = 31 + 30 = 61
(iv) The no. of students that have gone to locker no.
840 is same as the no. of factors of 840.
840 = 23 3 5 7.
So, the no. of factors = (3 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 32.
LCM (least Common Multiple) : The LCM of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the smallest
positive number which is a multiple of each of the given
numbers.
HCF (Highest Common factor) : The HCF of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the largest factor
of the given set of numbers.
Consider the numbers 12, 20 and 30. The factors and
the multiples are :
Given
Factors Multiples
numbers
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 12 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120....
1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20 20 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120.....
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30 30 30, 60, 90, 120....
The common factors are 1 and 2 and the common
multiples are 60, 120...
Thus the highest common factor is 2 and the least
common multiple is 60. Meaning of HCF is that the
HCF is the largest number that divides all the given
numbers.
Also since a number divides its multiple, the meaning
of LCM is that it is smallest number which can be
divided by the given numbers.
HCF will be lesser than or equal to the least of the
numbers and LCM will be greater than or equal to the
greatest of the numbers.
Ex.16 Find a number greater then 3 which when divided by
4, 5, and 6 always leaves the same remainder 3.
Sol. The smallest number which, when divided by 4, 5 and
6, leaves the remainder 3 in each case is
LCM (4, 5 and 6) + 3 = 60 + 3 = 63.
Ex.17 In a school 437 boys and 342 girls have been divided
into classes, so that each class has the same number
of students and no class has boys and girls mixed.
What is the least number of classes needed?
Sol. We should have the maximum number of students in
a class. So we have to find HCF (437, 342) = 19.
HCF is also the factor of difference of the number.
437 342
Number of classes = + = 23 + 18
19 19
= 41 classes.
For any two numbers x and y :
x y = HCF (x, y) LCM (x, y).
HCF and LCM of fractions :
LCM of numerators
LCM of fractions = HCF of deno min ators
HCF of numerators
HCF of fractions = LCM of deno min ators
Make sure the fractions are in the most reducible form.
Ex.18 Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8,
9 and 10 leaves remainder 1.
Sol. As the remainder is same
Required number = LCM of divisors + Remainder
= LCM (6, 7, 8, 9, 10) +1
= 2520 + 1 = 2521.
Ex.19 Six bells start tolling together and they toll at intervals
of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 sec. respectively, find.
(i) after how much time will all six of them toll together ?
(ii) how many times will they toll together in 30 min ?
Sol. The time after which all six bells will toll together must
be multiple of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12.
Therefore, required time = LCM of time intervals.
= LCM (2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12) = 120 sec.
Therefore after 120 s all six bells will toll together.
After each 120 s, i.e. 2 min, all bell are tolling together.
30
Therefore in 30 min they will toll together 1
2
= 16 times
1 is added as all the bells are tolling together at the
start also, i.e. 0th second.
Ex.20 LCM of two distinct natural numbers is 211. What is
their HCF ?
Sol. 211 is a prime number. So there is only one pair of
distinct numbers possible whose LCM is 211,
i.e. 1 and 211. HCF of 1 and 211 is 1.
Ex.21 An orchard has 48 apple trees, 60 mango trees and
96 banana trees. These have to be arranged in rows
such that each row has the same number of trees and
all are of the same type. Find the minimum number of
such rows that can be formed.
Sol. Total number of trees are 204 and each of the trees
are exactly divisible by 12. HCF of (48, 60, 96).
204
= 17 such rows are possible.
12
PAGE # 4646

Division Algorithm : General representation of result is,
Dividend Re mainder
Quotient
Divisor Divisor
Dividend = (Divisor Quotient ) + Remainder
NOTE :
(i) (xn an) is divisible by (x a) for all the values of n.
(ii) (xn an) is divisible by (x + a) and (x a) for all the
even values of n.
(iii) (xn + an) is divisible by (x + a) for all the odd values of n.
Test of Divisibility :
No. Divisiblity Test
2 Unit digit should be 0 or even
3 The sum of digits of no. should be divisible by 3
4 The no formed by last 2 digits of given no. should be divisible by 4.
5 Unit digit should be 0 or 5.
6 No should be divisible by 2 & 3 both
8 The number formed by last 3 digits of given no. should be divisible by 8.
9 Sum of digits of given no. should be divisible by 9
11
The difference between sums of the digits at even & at odd places
should be zero or multiple of 11.
25 Last 2 digits of the number should be 00, 25, 50 or 75.
Rule for 7 : Double the last digit of given number and
subtract from remaining number the result should be
zero or divisible by 7.
Ex.22 Check whether 413 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 3, remaining number = 41, 41 (3 x 2) = 35
(divisible by 7). i.e. 413 is divisible by 7.
This rule can also be used for number having more
than 3 digits.
Ex.23 Check whether 6545 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 5, remaining number 654, 654 (5 x 2)
= 644; 64 (4 x 2) = 56 divisible by 7. i.e. 6545 is
divisible by 7.
Rule for 13 : Four times the last digit and add to
remaining number the result should be divisible by
13.
Ex.24 Check whether 234 is divisible by 13 or not .
Sol. 234, (4 x 4) + 23 = 39 (divisible by 13), i.e. 234 is divisible
by 13.
Rule for 17 : Five times the last digit of the number and
subtract from previous number the result obtained
should be either 0 or divisible by 17.
Ex.25 Check whether 357 is divisible by 17 or not.
Sol. 357, (7 x 5) 35 = 0, i.e. 357 is divisible by 17.
Rule for 19 : Double the last digit of given number and
add to remaining number The result obtained should
be divisible by 19.
Ex.26 Check whether 589 is divisible by 19 or not.
Sol. 589, (9 x 2) + 58 = 76 (divisible by 19), i.e. the number
is divisible by 19.
Ex27. Find the smallest number of six digits which is exactly
divisible by 111.
Sol. Smallest number of 6 digits is which is 100000.
On dividing 100000 by 111, we get 100 as remainder.
Number to be added = (111 - 100) = 11.
Hence, required number = 100011.
Ex.28 Find the largest four digit number which when
reduced by 54, is perfectly divisible by all even natural
numbers less than 20.
Sol. Even natural numbers less than 20 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 12,
14, 16, 18.
Their LCM = 2 LCM of first 9 natural numbers
= 2 2520 = 5040
This happens to be the largest four-digit number
divisible by all even natural numbers less than 20. 54
was subtracted from our required number to get this
number.
Hence, (required number 54) = 5040
required number = 5094.
Ex.29 Ajay multiplied 484 by a certain number to get the
result 3823a. Find the value of a.
Sol. 3823a is divisible by 484, and 484 is a factor of 3823a.
4 is a factor of 484 and 11 is also a factor of 484.
Hence, 3823a is divisible by both 4 and 11.
To be divisible by 4, the last two digits have to be
divisible by 4.
a can take two values 2 and 6.
38232 is not divisible by 11, but 38236 is divisible by
11.
Hence, 6 is the correct choice.
Ex.30 Which digits should come in place of and $ if the
number 62684$ is divisible by both 8 and 5 ?
Sol. Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must
come in place of $. But, a number ending with 5 in
never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace $.
Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 40,
which becomes divisible by 8, if is replaced by 4 or 8.
Hence, digits in place of and $ are 4 or 8 and 0
respectively.
Ex.31 On dividing 15968 by a certain number, the quotient
is 89 and the remainder is 37. Find the divisor.
Dividend Re mainder 15968 37
Sol. Divisor = = 179.
Quotient 89
Ex.32 How many numbers between 200 and 600 are
divisible by 4, 5, and 6 ?
Sol. Every such number must be divisible by L.C.M. of 4, 5,
6, i.e.60.
Such numbers are 240, 300, 360, 420, 480, 540
Clearly, there are 6 such numbers.
The method of finding the remainder without actually
performing the process of division is termed as
remainder theorem.
Remainder should always be positive. For example if
we divide 22 by 7, generally we get 3 as quotient and
1 as remainder. But this is wrong because remainder
is never be negative hence the quotient should be 4
and remainder is +6. We can also get remainder 6 by
adding 1 to divisor 7 ( 71 = 6).
PAGE # 4747
Ex.33 Two numbers, x and y, are such that when divided by Sol.
6, they leave remainders 4 and 5 respectively. Find the
remainder when (x2 + y2) is divided by 6. 5 x
9 y 4
Sol. Suppose x = 6k1 + 4 and y = 6k2 + 5
13 z 8
x2 + y2 = (6k1 + 4)2 + (6k2 + 5)2 1 12
= 36k12 + 48k1 + 16 + 36k22 + 60k2 + 25
= 36k12 + 48k1 + 36k22 + 60k2 + 41 Now, 1169 when divided by 585 gives remainder
Obviously when this is divided by 6, the remainder will = 584.
be 5. To find the remainder of big number
Ex.34 A number when divided by 259 leaves a remainder
NOTE :
139. What will be the remainder when the same
number is divided by 37 ? (i) Binomial Expansion :
Sol. Let the number be P.
n n(n 1)
So, P 139 is divisible by 259. (a + b)n = an + an1b + an 2b2 + .... + bn, or
P 139 1! 2!
Let Q be the quotient then, =Q
259 n n(n 1)
P = 259Q + 139 (a b)n = an an1b + an 2b2 ... + ( 1)nbn.
1! 2!
P 259 Q 139
= Hence, first term is pure of a i.e an and last digit is pure
37 37
of b, i.e. bn.
259 is divisible by 37,
When 139 divided by 37, leaves a remainder of 28. (ii) Total number of terms in the expansion of (a + b)n is
(n + 1).
Ex.35 A number being successively divided by 3, 5 and 8
leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7 respectively. Find the Ex.38 What is the remainder when 738 is divided by 48.
19 19 19
respective remainders if the order of divisors be 7 38 72
49 48 1
reversed. Sol. = = = so by using
48 48 48 48
Sol. binomial expansion, we can say that 18 terms are
3 x completely divisible by 48 but the last term which is
5 y 1 119
8 z 4 is not divisible. So, 119 = 1 is the remainder..
1 7 48
z = (8 1 + 7) = 15 ; y (5z + 4) = (5 15 + 4) = 79 ; Ex.39 What is the remainder if 725 is divided by 4?
x = (3y + 1) = (3 79 + 1) = 238. Sol. 725 can be written (81)25. There are 26 terms in all and
first 25 terms are divisible by 8, hence also by 4. The
8 238 last term is (1)25. Hence, (8 1)25 can be written 8X 1
5 29 6 or 4Y 1 ( where Y = 2X). So, 4Y 1 divided by 4 leaves
Now, 3 5 4 the remainder 3.
1 2
Ex.40 What is the remainder if 345 is divided by 8 ?
Respective remainders are 6, 4, 2. Sol. 345 can be written 922 3. 9 can be written as (8 + 1).
Ex.36 A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5 Hence, any power of 9 can be written 8N + 1. In other
and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4. words, any power of 9 is 1 more than a multiple of 8.
Hence, (8N + 1) 3 leaves remainder 3 when divided
Then find out the number.
by 8.
Sol.
16
Ex.41 What is the remainder when 1415 is divided by 5 ?
4 x
5 y 2 1516
Sol. 14 = (15 1)odd = 15n + (1)odd, i.e. a (multiple of 5)
6 z 3 1. Thus when divided by 5 the remainder will be (1),
1 4
i.e. 4.
z = (6 1 + 4) = 10 Ex.42 What is the remainder when 357 + 27 is divided by
y = (5 z + 3) = (5 10 + 53) = 53 28?
x = (4 y + 2) = (4 53 + 2) = 214 Sol. 357 = (33)19
Hence, the required number is 214. 357 + 27 = (27)19 + 27
= (28 1)19 + 27
Ex.37 In dividing a number by 585, a student employed the = 28M + (1)19 + 27 [Expand by binomial theorem]
method of short division. He divided the number = 28M 1 + 27
successively by 5, 9 and 13 (factors of 585) and got the = 28M + 26
remainders 4, 8 and 12. If he had divided number by When 28M + 26 divided by 28, the remainder is 26.
585, then find out the remainder. Hence, the required remainder is 26.

PAGE # 4848
Ex.43 What is the remainder when 82361 + 83361 + 84361 Ex.51 In (57)9 unit digit is 7
+ 85361 + 86361 is divided by 7? Ex.52 In (97)99 unit digit is 3
Sol. 82 361 + 83 361 + 84 361 + 85 361 + 86 361 = [(84 2) 361
+ (84 1)361 + + 84361 + (84 + 1)361 + (84 + 2)361] (vii) When there is 8 in units place of any number.
Since, 84 is a multiple of 7, then the remainder will be Since, in 81 unit digit is 8, in 82 unit digit is 4, in 83 unit
when, ( 2)361 + (1)361 + 1361 + 2361 is divided by 7. digit is 2, in 84 unit digit is 6, after that units digit repeats
is ( 2)361 + (1)361 + 1361 + 2361 = 0. after a group of 4.
So the remainder is zero. (viii) When there is 9 in units place of any number.
Since, in 91 units digit is 9, in 92 units digit is 1, after
that units digit repeats after a group of 2.
(ix) When there is zero in units place of any number.
We are having 10 digits in our number systems and There will always be zero in units place.
some of them shows special characterstics like they,
Ex.53 Find the last digit of
repeat their unit digit after a cycle, for example 1 repeat
(i) 357 (ii) 1359
its unit digit after every consecutive power. So, its
cyclicity is 1 on the other hand digit 2 repeat its unit 57
Sol. (i) The cyclicity of 3 is 4. Hence, gives the remainder
digit after every four power, hence the cyclicity of 2 is 4
four. The cyclicity of digits are as follows : 1. So, the last digit of 357 is same as the last digit of 31,
i.e. 3.
Digit Cyclicity
(ii) The number of digits in the base will not make a
0, 1, 5 and 6 1 difference to the last digit. It is last digit of the base
which decides the last digit of the number itself. For
4 and 9 2 59
1359, we find which gives a remainder 3. So the
4
2, 3, 7 and 8 4 last digit of 13 is same as the last digit of 33, i.e. 7.
59

So, if we want to find the last digit of 245, divide 45 by 4. Ex.54 Find the last digit of the product 723 x 813.
The remainder is 1 so the last digit of 245 would be Sol. Both 7 and 8 exhibit a cyclicity of 4. The last digits are
71 = 7 81 = 8
same as the last digit of 21 which is 2. 2
7 =9 82 = 4
To Find the Unit Digit in Exponential Expressions : 73 = 3 83 = 2
4
7 =1 84 = 6
(i) When there is 2 in units place of any number. 5
7 =7 85 = 8
Since, in 21 unit digit is 2, in 22 unit digit is 4, in 23 unit
The cycle would repeat itself for higher powers.
digit is 8, in 24 unit digit is 6, after that the units digit
723 ends with the same last digit as 73, i.e. 3.
repeats. e.g. unit digit(12)12 is equal to the unit digit of,
813 ends with the same last digit as 81, i.e. 8. Hence,
24 i.e.6 the product of the two numbers would end with the
Ex.44 In (32)33 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 21 i.e. 2. same last digit as that of 3 8, i.e. 4.
(ii) When there is 3 in units place of any number. Ex.55Find units digit in y = 717 + 734
Since, in 31 unit digit is 3, in 32 unit digit is 9, in 33 unit Sol. 717 + 734 = 71 + 72 = 56, Hence the unit digit is 6
digit is 7, in 34 unit digit is 1, after that the units digit 6476
Ex.56What will be the last digit of (73 )75
repeats.
6476 76
Ex.45 In (23)13 unit digit be 3 Sol. Let (73 )75 = (73)x where x = 75 64 = (75)even power
Ex.46 In (43)46 unit digit be 9 Cyclicity of 3 is 4
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder
(iii) When there is 4 in units place of any number. when x is divided by 4.
Since, in 41 unit digit is 4, in 42 unit digit is 6, after that x = (75)even power = (76 1)even power , where n is divided by
the units digit repeats. 4 so remainder will be 1.
Ex.47 In (34)14 unit digit is 6 6476
Therefore, the last digit of (73 )75 will be 31 = 3.
33
Ex.48 In (34) unit digit is 4
6355

(iv) When there is 5 in units place of any number. Ex.57What will be the unit digit of (87 )75 .
Since, in 51 unit digit is 5, in 52 unit digit is 5 and so on. 55
75 63 55
Sol. Let (87 ) = (87)x where x = 75 63 = (75)odd
Ex.49 In (25)15 unit digit is 5 Cyclicity of 7 is 4.
(v) When there is 6 in units place of any number. To find the last digit we have to find the remainder
Since, in 61 unit digit is 6, in 62 unit digit is 6 & so on. when x is divided by 4.
x = (75)odd power = (76 1)odd power
Ex.50 In (46)13 unit digit is 6.
,
where x is divided by 4 so remainder will be 1 or 3, but
(vi) When there is 7 in units place of any number. remainder should be positive always
Since, in 71 unit digit is 7, in 72 unit digit is 9, in 73 unit 6355
therefore, the last digit of (87 )75 will be 73 = 343.
digit is 3, in 74 unit digit is 1, after that the units digit
repeats. 6355
Hence, the last digit is of (87 )75 is 3.

PAGE # 4949
 To Find the Last Tw o Digits in Exponential
Expressions :
We know that the binomial theorem :
n n(n 1)
(a + b)n = an + an1b +an 2b2 + .... + bn.
1! 2!
(i) Last two digits of numbers ending in 1 :
Let's start with some examples.
Ex.58What are the last two digits of 31 786 ?
Sol. 31 786 = (30 + 1) 786 = 30 786 + 786 30 785 1
786 (786 1)
+ 30 784 1 2 + .... + 1 786 .
2!
Note that all the terms excluding last two terms will
end in two or more zeroes. The last two terms are
786 30 1 785 and 1 786. Now, the second last term
will end with one zero and the tens digit of the second
last term will be the product of 786 and 3 i.e. 8.
Therefore, the last two digits of the second last term
will be 80. The last digit of the last term is 1. So the
last two digits of 31 786 are 81.
Ex.59Find the last two digits of 41 2789.
Sol. According to the previous example we can calculate
the answer 61 (4 9 = 36. Therefore, 6 will be the
tens digit and one will be the units digit).
Ex.60 Find the last two digits of 71 56747.
Sol. Last two digits will be 91 (7 7 gives 9 and 1 as
units digit)
Ex.61 Find the last two digits of 51 456 61 567.
Sol. The last two digits of 51 456 will be 01 and the last
two digits of 61 567 will be 21. Therefore, the last two
digits of 51 456 61 567 will be the last two digits of
01 21 = 21.
(ii) Last two digits of numbers ending in 3, 7 or 9 :
Ex.62 Find the last two digits of 19 266.
Sol. 19 266 = (19 2)133. Now, 19 2 ends in 61 (19 2 = 361)
therefore, we need to find the last two digits of (61)133.
Once the number is ending in 1 we can straight away
get the last two digits with the help of the previous
method. The last two digits are 81 (6 3 = 18, so
the tenth digit will be 8 and last digit will be 1).
Ex.63 Find the last two digits of 33 288.
Sol. 33 288 = (33 4)72. Now 33 4 ends in 21 (33 4 = 33 2 33 2
= 1089 1089 = xxxxx21) therefore, we need to find
the last two digits of 21 72. By the previous method,
the last two digits of 21 72 = 41 (tens digit = 2 2 = 4,
unit digit = 1)
474
Ex.64Find the last two digits of 87 . y y
474 472 2 4 118 2 118
Sol. 87 = 87 87 = (87 ) 87 = (69 69) 69
[The last two digits of 87 2 are 69]
= 61 118 69 = 81 69 = 89.
(iii) Last two digits of numbers ending in 2, 4, 6 or 8 :
There is only one even two-digit number which
always ends in itself (last two digits) - 76 i.e. 76
raised to any power gives the last two digits as 76.
Therefore, our purpose is to get 76 as last two digits
for even numbers. We know that 24 2 ends in 76 and
2 10 ends in 24. Also, 24 raised to an even power
always ends with 76 and 24 raised to an odd power
always ends with 24. Therefore, 24 34 will end in 76
and 24 53 will end in 24.
Ex.65Find the last two digits of 2 543.
Sol. 2 543 = (2 10)54 2 3 = (24) 54 (24 raised to an even
power). 2 3 = 76 8 = 08.
NOTE :
Here if you need to multiply 76 with 2 n, then you can
straightaway write the last two digits of 2 n because
when 76 is multiplied with 2 n the last two digits
remain the same as the last two digits of 2 n .
Therefore, the last two digits of 76 2 7 will be the
last two digits of 2 7 = 28.
Ex.66Find the last two digits of 64 236.
Sol. 64 236 = (2 6)236 = 2 1416 = (2 10)141 2 6 = 24 141 (24 raised
to odd power) 64 = 24 64 = 36.
Now those numbers which are not in the form of 2 n
can be broken down into the form 2 n odd number.
We can find the last two digits of both the parts
separately.
Ex.67Find the last two digits of 62 586.
Sol. 62 586 = (2 31)586 = 2 586 31 586 = (2 10)58 2 6 31 586
= 76 64 81 = 84.
Ex.68Find the last two digits of 54 380.
Sol. 54 380 = (2 3 3)380 = 2 380 3 1140 = (2 10)38 (3 4)285 = 76
81 285 = 76 01 = 76.
Ex.69Find the last two digits of 56 283.
Sol. 56 283 = (23 7)283 = 2849 7283 = (210)84 29 (74)70 73
= 76 12 (01)70 43 = 16.
Ex.70 Find the last two digits of 78 379.
Sol. 78 379 = (2 39)379 = 2 379 39 379 = (2 10)37 2 9 (39 2)189
39 = 24 12 81 39 = 92.
Factorial n : Product of n consecutive natural numbers
is known as factorial n it is denoted by n!.
So, n! = n(n 1)(n 2).............321.
e.g. 5! = 5 4 3 2 1 = 120.
The value of factorial zero is equal to the value of
factorial one. Hence 0! = 1 = 1!
The approach to finding the highest power of x dividing
y
y! is 2 3 ......., where [ ] represents just
x x x
the integral part of the answer and ignoring the fractional
part.
PAGE # 5050
Ex.71 What is the highest power of 2 that divides 20! Ex.76 How many zeros will be there at the end of 36!36! ?
completely? Sol. Highest power of 5 in 36! is 8.
Sol. 20! = 1 2 3 4 .... 18 19 20 So there will be 8 zeros at the end of 36!
= 1 (21) 3 (22) 5 (21 31) 7 (23) ..... so on. So at the end of 36!36! , there will be 8 36! zeros.
In order to find the highest power of 2 that divides the
above product, we need to find the sum of the powers
of all 2 in this expansion. All numbers that the divisible
by 21 will contribute 1 to the exponent of 2 in the product
The number system that we work in is called the
20
= 10. Hence, 10 numbers contribute 2 1 to the decimal system. This is because there are 10 digits
21 in the system 0-9. There can be alternative system that
product. Similarly, all numbers that are divisible by 22
can be used for arithmetic operations. Some of the
will contribute an extra 1 to the exponent of 2 in the
most commonly used systems are : binary, octal and
20
product, i.e = 5. Hence, 5 numbers contribute an hexadecimal.
22 These systems find applications in computing.
extra 1 to exponents. Similarly, there are 2 numbers that
Binary system has 2 digits : 0, 1.
are divisible by 23 and 1 number that is divisible by 24.
Octal system has 8 digits : 0, 1, 2..., 7.
Hence, the total 1s contributed to the exponent of 2 in
Hexadecimal system has 16 digits : 0, 1, 2,..., 9, A , B,
20! is the sum of ( 10 + 5 +2 +1) = 18. Hence, group of
C, D, E, F.
all 2s in 20! gives 218 x (N), where N is not divisible by
After 9, we use the letters to indicate digits. For instance,
2. If 20! is divided by 2x then maximum value of x is 18.
A has a value 10, B has a value 11, C has a value 12,...
Ex.72 What is the highest power of 5 that divides of so on in all base systems.
x = 100! = 100 99 98 ...... 3 2 1. The counting sequences in each of the systems would
Sol. Calculating contributions of the different powers of 5, be different though they follow the same principle.
100 100 Conversion : conversion of numbers from (i) decimal
we have 1 = 20, = 4.
5 52 system to other base system. (ii) other base system to
Hence, the total contributions to the power of 5 is 24, or decimal system.
the number 100! is divisible by 524.
(i) Conversion from base 10 to any other base :
Ex.73 How many zeros at the end of first 100 multiples of
Ex.77 Convert (122)10 to base 8 system.
10.
Sol. First 100 multiple of 10 are = 10 20 30 ...... 1000
= 10100 (1 2 3 ....... 100) 8 122
= 10100 1024 N 8 15 2
= 10124 N
Sol. 8 1 7
Where N is not divisible by 10
So, there are 124 zero at the end of first 100 multiple of 0 1
10.
The number in decimal is consecutively divided by the
Ex.74 What is the highest power of 6 that divides 9! number of the base to which we are converting the
9 9 decimal number. Then list down all the remainders in
Sol. By the normal method. = 1 and 2 = 0. Thus
6 6 the reverse sequence to get the number in that base.
answers we get is 1 which is wrong. True there is just So, here (122) 10 = (172)8.
one multiple of 6 from 1 to 9 but the product 2 3 = 6
and also 4 9 = 36, can further be divided by 6. Thus, Ex.78 Convert (169)10 in base 7
when the divisor is a composite number find the
7 169
highest power of its prime factors and then proceed. In
7 24 1
this case, 9! can be divided by 27 and 34 and thus by 64
7 3 3 Remainder
(In this case we need not have checked power of 2 as Sol. 0
3
it would definitely be greater then that of 3).
Ex.75What is the largest power of 12 that would divide 49! ? (169)10 =(331)7
Sol. To check the highest power of 12 in 49!, we need to Ex.79 Convert (0.3125)10 to binary equivalent.
check the highest powers of 4 and 3 in it. Sol. Integer
Highest power of 3 in 49! = 22 2 0.3125 = 0.625 0
Highest power of 2 in 49! = 46 2 0.625 = 1.25 1
46 2 0.25 = 0.50 0
Highest power of 4 in 49! = = 23
2 2 0.50 = 1.00 1
Highest power of 12 will be 22. (Since the common Thus
power between 3 and 4 is 22). (0.3125)10 = (0.1010)2

PAGE # 5151
Ex.80 Convert (1987.725)10 (........)8
Sol. First convert non-decimal part into base 8.
Ex.85 If a b = 2,
8 1987
8 248 3 a a
8 31 0 b b
_____
8 3 7 and then find the value of a, b and c.
cc 0
0 3
(1987)10 = (3703)8 Sol. These problems involve basic number
Now we have to convert (0.725)10 (........)8 (i) aa + bb = 11(a + b) (ii) aa, bb are two-digit numbers.

Multiply Hence, their sum cannot exceed 198. So, c must be 1.

(iii) Hence, cc0 = 110. This implies a + b = 10 or a = 6
0.725 8 = [5.8] ...5
and b = 4.
0.8 8 = [6.4] ...6
0.4 8 = [3.2] ...3 Such problems are part of a category of problems called
0.2 8 = [1.6] ...1 alphanumerices.
0.6 8 = [4.8] ...4
Keep on accomplishing integral parts after a 3b
multiplication with decimal part till decimal part is zero. a c
Ex.86 If _____ then find a, b and c if each of them is
(0.725)10 = (0.56314...)8 a a 9
(1987.725)10 = (3703.56314...)8
distinctly different digit.
(ii) Conversion from any other base to decimal system Sol. (i) since the first digit of (a 3 b) is written as it is after
subtracting ac carry over from a to 3.
Ex.81 Convert (231)8 into decimal system.
(ii) there must be a carry over from 3 to b, because if no
Sol. (231)8 , the value of the position of each of the numbers
carry over is there, it means 3 a = a.
( as in decimal system) is :
2a = 3
1 = 80 1 3
a=
3 = 81 3 2
which is not possible because a is a digit. For a carry
2 = 82 2
over 1, 2 a = a
Hence, (231)8 = (80 1 + 81 3 + 82 2)10
a=1
(231)8 = (1 + 24 + 128)10
(iii) it means b and c are consecutive digit (2, 3),
(231)8 = (153)10 (3, 4),.... (8, 9)

Ex.82 Convert (0.03125)10 to base 16.

Sol. 16 0.3125 = 0.5 0 1a4
x3b
16 0.5 = 8.0 8 Ex.87 If
8c8
So (0.03125)10 = (0.08)16 s 72

Ex.83 Convert (761.56)8 (......)16 t 5d8

Sol. In such conversion which are standard form
conversions, it is easier to then, find the value of a, b, c, d, s and t, where all of

(761.56)8 (.....)2 (.....)16 them are different digits.

Sol. Let us consider 1 a 4 3 = s72.
Converting every digit in base 8 to base 2,
a 3 results in a number ending in 6.
(111110001.10110)2 (1F1.B8)16
As 16 and 26 is ruled out, a is 2.
Ex.84 Convert (3C8.08)16 to decimal Thus, s = 3, t = 4
Now 1 a 4 b = 8c8 ; b = 2 or 7
Sol. (3C8.08)16 = 3 162 + C 161
Again 2 is ruled out because in that case, product would
+ 8 16 + 0 161 + 8 162
be much less than 800.
= 768 + 192 + 8 + 0 + 0.03125 = (968.03125)10 b = 7.
So (3C8.08)16 = (968.03125)10 Hence, a = 2, b = 7, c = 6, d = 8, s = 3 and t = 4.

PAGE # 5252
 11. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400 are
there which are divisible by
1. If the number 357y25x is divisible by both 3 and 5, then i. Both 4 and 5?
find the missing digit in the units place and the ii. 4 or 5 or 8 or 10 ?
thousand place respectively are : (A) 9, 79 (B) 10, 80
(A) 0, 6 (B) 5, 6 (C) 10, 81 (D) None of these
(C) 5, 4 (D) None of these
12. 4 61 4 62 4 63 4 64 is divisible by :
2. There are four prime numbers written in ascending
order. The product of the first three is 385 and that of (A) 3 (B) 10
the last three is 1001. The last number is : (C) 11 (D) 13
(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 19 13. If x is a whole number, then x2 (x2 1) is always divisible
by :
3. Find the square root of 7 4 3 .
(A) 12 (B) 24
(A) 2 3 (B) 5 3 (C) 12 x (D) Multiple of 12
(C) 2 5 (D) None of these
14. If 653 xy is exactly divisible by 80 then the find the value
4. The number of prime factors of (3 5)12 (2 7)10 (10)25 of (x + y)
is : (A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 47 (B) 60 (C) 4 (D) 6
(C) 72 (D) 94
15. Find the unit digit of (795 358).
5. How many three-digit numbers would you find, which
(A) 6 (B) 4
when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leave the remainders 1, 2,
(C) 3 (D) None of these
3, 4, and 5 respectively ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 16. When a number P is divided by 4 it leaves remainder
(C) 2 (D) 1 3. If the twice of the number P is divided by the same
6. Six strings of violin start vibrating simultaneously and divisor 4 than what will be the remainder ?
they vibrate at 3, 4, 5, 6,10 and 12 times in a minute, (A) 0 (B) 1
find : (C) 2 (D) 6
i. After how much time will all six of them vibrate
together ? 17. If (232 +1) is divisible by a certain number then which of
ii. How many times will they vibrate together in 30 min ? the following is also divisible by that number.
(A) 60 sec, 31 times (B) 60 min, 31 times (A) (216 1) (B) 216 + 1
(C) 120 sec, 15 times (D) None of these 96
(C) 2 + 1 (D) None of these
7. The HCF of 2 numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693. If 18. When 1! + 2! + 3! + ... + 25! is divided by 7, what will be
their sum is 176, find the numbers. the remainder ?
(A) 99,77 (B) 110, 66
(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 88,77 (D) 121, 44
(C) 1 (D) None of these
8. If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and (P + 1) is :
(A) P(P +1) (B) (P + 2)P 19. A number when divided by 342 gives a remainder 47.
(C) (P + 1)(P 1) (D) None of these When the same number is divided by 19, what would
be the remainder ?
9. Find out (A + B + C + D) such that AB x CB = DDD, where
AB and CB are two-digit numbers and DDD is a three- (A) 3 (B) 5
digit number. (C) 9 (D) None of these
(A) 21 (B) 19
20. What is the remainder when 9875347 7435789
(C) 17 (D) 18
5789743 is divided by 4 ?
1 3 (A) 1 (B) 2
10. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4 Ibs, 6 Ibs and
2 4 (C) 3 (D) None of these
1
7 Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of equal 21. P is a prime number greater than 5. What is the
5
remainder when P is divided by 6?
weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible.
If one such part is served to each guest, then what is (A) 5 (B) 1
the maximum number of guests that could be (C) 1 or 5 (D) None of these
entertained ?
22. What is the remainder when 587 is divided by 15?
(A) 54 (B) 72
(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 20 (D) 41
(C) 10 (D) None of these

PAGE # 5353
23. What is the remainder when 763 is divided by 344? 32. If only 500 guys, i.e. residents of room number 2 to
(A) 1 (B) 343 1000 do the task, then the last room that is closed is
room number
(C) 6 (D) 338
(A) 2000 (B) 1936
24. What is the remainder when 3040 is divided by 17? (C) 1849 (D) None of these
(A) 1 (B) 16 33. In the case of previous question, how many rooms
(C) 13 (D) 4 will be closed in all ?
(A) 513 (B) 31
25. What is the remainder when 7413 4113 + 7513 4213 is
(C) 13 (D) 315
divided by 66?
(A) 2 (B) 64 34. If you are a lazy person, you would like to stay in a room
whose number is :
(C) 1 (D) 0
(A) more than 500 (B) more than 1000
26. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5 leaves (C) 500 (D) 2000
remainders 1 and 4 respectively. W hen it is 35. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit
successively divided by 5 and 4, then the respective number such as 2525, 3232 etc. Any number of this
remainders will be : form is exactly divisible by :
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 13
(C) 3, 2 (D) 4, 1
(D) Smallest 3-digit prime number
27. How many zeros will be there at the end of the product
36. If we write all the whole numbers from 200 to 400, then
2!2! 4!4! 6!6! 8!8! 10!10! ? how many of these contain the digit 7 only once ?
(A) 10! + 6! (B) 2 (10!) (A) 32 (B) 34
(C) 10! + 8! + 6! (D) 6! + 8! + 2 (10!) (C) 35 (D) 36
37. If (12 + 22 + 32 + .....+ 102) = 385, then the value of
28. W hen Sholey screened on the TV there was a
(22 + 42 + 62 +...... + 202).
commercial break of 5 min after every 15 min of the
(A) 770 (B) 1155
movie. If from the start of the movie to the end of the (C) 1540 (D) (385 385)
movie there was in all 60 min of commercials that was
38. How many four-digit numbers are there such that the
screened what is the duration the movie ?
digits are repeated at least once, i.e. all the digits do
(A) 180 min (B) 195 min not occur only once ?
(C) 169 min (D) 165 min (A) 9000 (B) 4536
(C) 4464 (D) None of these
29. Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by
all prime numbers between 1 and 17 ? 39. Find the total number of prime factors in the expression
(A) 345345 (B) 440440 (4)11 (7)5 (11)2.
(A) 37 (B) 33
(C) 510510 (D) 515513
(C) 26 (D) 29
Directions : (32 to 36) Read the following information
40. The largest number which exactly divides the product
carefully and answer the questions given below. of any four consecutive natural numbers is :
In a big hostel, there are 1,000 rooms. In that hostel (A) 6 (B) 12
only even numbers are used for room numbers, i.e. (C) 24 (D) 120
the room numbers are 2, 4, 6, ...., 1998, 2000. All the
41. The largest natural number by which the product of
rooms have one resident each. One fine morning, the three consecutive even natural numbers is always
warden calls all the residents and tells them to go divisible, is :
back to their rooms as well as multiples of their room (A) 6 (B) 24
numbers. When a guy visits a room and finds the door (C) 48 (D) 96
open, he closes it, and if the door is closed, he opens
42. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is always
it, All 1,000 guys do this operation. All the doors were divisible by :
open initially. I. 2 II. 3 III. 5 IV. 6
(A) Only I (B) Only II
30. The last room that is closed is room number ?
(C) Only I and III (D) Only II and IV
(A) 1936 (B) 2000
(C) 1922 (D) None of these 43. A number is multiplied by 11 and 11 is added to the
31. The 38th room that is open is room number : product. If the resulting number is divisible by 13, the
smallest original number is :
(A) 80 (B) 88
(A) 12 (B) 22
(C) 76 (D) None of these
(C) 26 (D) 53

PAGE # 5454
44. A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3-digit 52. W hat is the value of the following expression
number 984 to give the four-digit number 13b7, which
1 1 1 1
is divisible by 11. Then ,(a + b) is :
(2 2 1) ( 4 2 1) (6 2 1) ..... (20 2 1) ?

(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 15 9 10
(A) (B)
45. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 19 19
gives two times their difference as quotient and 30 as 10 11
(C) (D)
the remainder. The number is : 21 21
(A) 1220 (B) 1250 53. Consider a sequence of seven consecutive integers.
(C) 22030 (D) 220030 The average of the first five integers is n. The average
46. In a 4-digit number, the sum of the first two digits is of all the seven integers is :
equal to that of the last two digits. The sum of the first (A) n
and last digits is equal to the third digit. Finally, the sum (B) n + 1
(C) k n, where k is a function of n
of the second and fourth digits is twice the sum of the
other two digits. What is the third digit of the number ? 2
(A) 5 (B) 8 (D) n +
7
(C) 1 (D) 4
54. Let N = 553 + 173 723 . N is divisible by :
47. Anita had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as (A) both 7 and 13 (B) both 3 and 13
one of the multipliers, she took 53. As a result, the (C) both 17 and 7 (D) both 3 and 17
product went up by 540. What is the new product ?
55. Convert the number 1982 from base 10 to base 12.
(A) 1050 (B) 540
The results is :
(C) 1440 (D) 1590
(A) 1182 (B) 1912
48. Three friends, returning from a movie, stopped to eat (C) 1192 (D) 1292
at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bill and 56. The LCM of two numbers is 864 and their HCF is 144.
noticed a bowl of mints at the front counter. Sita took 1/ If one of the numbers is 288, then the other
3 of the mints, but returned four because she had a number is :
monetary pang of guilt. Fatima then took 1/4 of what (A) 576 (B) 1296
was left but returned three for similar reasons. Eswari (C) 432 (D) 144
then took half of the remainder but threw two back into
the bowl. The bowl had only 17 mints left when the raid 57. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If
the difference between the two numbers is 18, find the
was over. How many mints were originally in the bowl?
two numbers :
(A) 38 (B) 31
(A) 36 and 18 (B) 78 and 60
(C) 41 (D) 48
(C) 63 and 81 (D) 52 and 34
49. In a number system, the product of 44 and 11 is 3414.
58. If the product of n positive real numbers is unity, then
The number 3111 of this system, when converted to
their sum is necessarily :
the decimal number system, becomes :
1
(A) 406 (B) 1086 (A) a multiple of n (B) equal to n
n
(C) 213 (D) 691
(C) never less than n (D) a positive integer
50. A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1 59. How many even integers n, where 100 n 200, are
is written on the blackboard. A student came and erased divisible neither by seven nor by nine ?
one number. The average of the remaining numbers (A) 40 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 38
7
is 35 . What was the number erased?
17 60. In a certain examination paper, there are n question. For
(A) 7 (B) 8 j = 1, 2....n, there are 2n-j students who answered j or
(C) 9 (D) None of these more questions wrongly. If the total number of wrong
answers is 4095, then the value of n is :
51. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0. a1 a2 a1 (A) 12 (B) 11
a2 a1 a2 ....., where digits a1 and a2 lie between 0 and 9. (C) 10 (D) 9
Further, at most one of them is zero. Which of the
61. The number of positive n in the range 12 n 40 such
following numbers necessarily produces an integer, that the product (n 1) (n 2).... 3.2.1 is not divisible by
when multiplied by D? n is :
(A) 18 (B) 108 (A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 198 (D) 288 (C) 13 (D) 14

PAGE # 5555
62. The owner of a local jewellery store hired 3 watchmen 70. What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal 25
to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole digit number (100.....001)16 ?
some diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each (A) 223 + 1 (B) 224 + 1
(C) 292 + 1 (D) 296 + 1
1
watchman, one at a time. To each he gave of the
2 71. The square root of a perfect square containing n digits
diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He has ............ digits.
escaped with one diamond. How many did he steal n 1
originally ? (A) (B) n/2
2
(A) 40 (B) 36 (C) A or B (D) None
(C) 25 (D) none of these
72. If the decimal number 2111 is written in the octal system,
63. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did then what is its unit place digit ?
not want any body to know about him. One day, his wife (A) 0 (B) 1
asked, How many gold coins do we hire? After (C) 2 (D) 3
pausing a moment he replied, Well ! if divide the the 73. The 288th term of the series a, b, b, c, c, c, d, d, d, d, e,
coins into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the e, e, e, e, f, f, f, f, f, f,....is :
difference between the two numbers equals the (A) u (B) v
difference between the square of the two numbers. (C) x (D) w
The wife looked puzzled. Can you help the merchants
wife by finding out how many gold coins the merchant 74. If n = 67 then find the unit digit of [3n + 2n ].
(A) 1 (B) 10
has ?
(C) 5 (D) None
(A) 96 (B) 53
(C) 43 (D) 48 75. The number of 2-digit numbers n such that 3
divides n 2 and 5 divides n 3 is : [KVPY 2007]
64. A child was asked to add first few natural numbers (A) 5 (B) 6
(that is 1 + 2 + 3.....) so long his patience permitted. As (C) 7 (D) 10
he stopped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher
76. How many 4-digit numbers are there with the property
declared the result wrong, the child discovered he had that it is a square and the number obtained by
missed one number in the sequence during addition. increasing all its digits by 1 is also a square ?
The number he missed was : [KVPY 2007]
(A) less than 10 (B) 10 (A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 15 (D) more than 15 (C) 2 (D) 4

65. 76n 66n, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by : 77. The number of positive fractions m/n such that
(A) 13 (B) 127 1/3 < m/n < 1 and having the property that the fraction
(C) 559 (D) All of these remains the same by adding some positive integer to
the numerator and multiplying the denominator by the
66. The value of is : same positive integer is : [KVPY 2007]
10 25 108 154 225 (A) 1 (B) 3
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 6 (D) infinite
(C) 8 (D) 10
78. If a and b are any two real numbers with opposite
67 When (55) 10 is represented in base 25 then the signs, which of the following is the greatest ?
expression is : [KVPY 2008]
(A) (25)25 (B) (35)25 (A) (ab)2 (B) (|a| |b|)2
(C) (55)25 (D) none of these (C) |a 2 b 2| (D) a 2 + b 2
79. The number (1024)1024 is obtained by raising (16)16
68. Arrange the following numbers in ascending order to the power n. What is the value of n ?
3 4 7 1 [KVPY 2008]
, , , . (A) 64 (B) 64 2
7 5 9 2
(C) 64 64 (D) 160
4 7 3 1 3 1 7 4
(A) , , , (B) , , , 80. The number of integers a such that 1 a 100 and
5 5 9 2 7 2 9 5
a a is a perfect square is : [KVPY 2008]
4 7 1 3 1 3 7 4 (A) 50 (B) 53
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
5 9 2 7 2 7 9 5 (C) 55 (D) 56
69. Which of the following surds is greatest in magnitude : 81. The sum of 7 consecutive positive integers is equal
6
17 , 2,12 25 , 3 4 to the sum of the next five consecutive integers. What
(A) 6 17 (B) 12 is the largest among the 12 numbers ? [KVPY 2008]
25
(A) 24 (B) 23
(C) 3
4 (D) 2 (C) 22 (D 21

PAGE # 5656
82. Let 0 < a < b < c be 3 distinct digits. The sum of all 90. When the number 72010 is divided by 25, the remainder
3-digit numbers formed by using all the 3 digits will be : [IAO 2009]
once each is 1554. The value of c is : [KVPY 2008] (A) 1 (B) 7
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 18 (D) 24
(C) 5 (D) 6 91. P, Q and R are three natural numbers such that P and
83. If the decimal 0.d25d25d25 is expressible in the Q are primes and Q divides PR. Then out of the
following the correct statement is : [IJSO 2008]
form n/27, then d + n must be : [KVPY 2008]
(A) Q divides R (B) P divides R
(A) 9 (B) 28
(C) P divides QR (D) P divides PQ
(C) 30 (D) 34

84. Let S n be the sum of all integers k such that 92. The expression (5a 3b)3 + (3b 7c)3 (5a 7c)3 is
2n < k < 2n+1, for n 1. Then 9 divides Sn if and only if : divisible by : [IJSO 2008]
[KVPY 2009] (A) (5a + 3b + 7c) (B) (5a 3b 7c)
(A) n is odd (C) (3b 7c) (D) (7c 5a)
(B) n is of the form 3k+1 93. If a2 + 2b = 7, b2 + 4c = 7 and c2 + 6a = 14, then the
(C) n is even value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is : [IJSO 2009]
(D) n is of the form 3k + 2 (A) 14 (B) 25
(C) 36 (D) 47
85. The number of ways in which 1440 can be expressed
as a product of two positive integers is : [IAO 2007] 94. In the familiar decimal number system the base is 10.
In another number system using base 4, the counting
(A) 17 (B) 18
proceeds as 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21 .... The
(C) 35 (D) 36
twentieth number in this system will be:
86. Let N = 28 , the sum of all distinct factors of N is : [IJSO 2010]
[IAO 2008] (A) 40 (B) 320
(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 210 (D) 110
(C) 55 (D) 56 95. If the eight digit number 2575d568 is divisible by 54
2 3 2009
87. The units digit of (1 + 9 + 9 + 9 + --------- + 9 ) is : and 87, the value of the digit d is: [IJSO 2011]
[IAO 2009] (A) 4. (B) 7.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 0. (D) 8.
(C) 9 (D) 3
96. The number of distinct prime divisors of the number
88. The biggest among the following is : [IAO 2009] 5123 2533 2593 is : [KVPY 2011]
(A) 21/2 (B) 31/3
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 61/6 (D) 81/8
89. W hen a positive integer x is divided by 47, the (C) 6 (D) 7
remainder is 11. Therefore, when x2 is divided by 47,
the remainder will be : [IAO 2009]
(A) 7 (B) 17
(C) 27 (D) 37

PAGE # 5757
 LO G A R I T H M

(ii) If 0 < a < 1, then

The logarithm of the number N to the base ' a ' is the (a) loga x < 0 for all x > 1
exponent indicating the power to which the base (b) loga x = 0 for x = 1
' a ' must be raised to obtain the number N. This
number is designated as log a N. Hence: (c) logax > 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1
logaN = x a x = N , a > 0, a 1 & N > 0 (d) x > y logax < loga y i.e. loga x is a decreasing

Systems of Logarithm : function.

There are two systems of logarithm which are generally graph of y = loga x, 0 < a < 1.
used.
y
(i) Common logarithm : In this system base is always y = logax, 0 < a < 1.
taken as 10.
If a = 10, then we write log b rather than log 10 b. (1,0)
x' 0 x
(ii) Natural logarithm : In this system the base of the
logarithm is taken as e. Where e is an irrational
number lying between 2 and 3.
If a = e, we write nb rather than log e b. Here ' e ' is y'
called as Napiers base & has numerical value equal
to 2.7182.

Let m & n are arbitrary positive numbers, a > 0,

REMEMBER
a 1, b > 0, b 1 and is any real number then ;
log 102 = 0.3010 ; log 103 = 0.4771 ;
(i) loga (mn) = loga m + logan
n 2 = 0.693 ; n 10 = 2.303
[Where m and n are +ve numbers]
REMARK : in general log a(x1 x2 ......xn) = log ax1 + log a x2 + ........+
log a xn
The existence and uniqueness of the number
log a N can be determined with the help of set of m
(ii) loga = logam logan
conditions, a > 0 and a 1 and N > 0. n

(iii) loga(m)n = n logam

Some Useful Results :
log m
(i) If a > 1 then (iv) logam b
(a) loga x < 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1 log a
b
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1 (v) logam . logma = 1

(c) loga x > 0 for x > 1 (vi) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive
rational number, then
(d) x > y loga x > loga y i.e. logax is an increasing
function. a loga n n
(vii) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive
graph of y = loga x, a > 1 rational number, then
y
logaq np p loga n
q
y = logax, a > 1
(viii) p loga q qloga p
x' 0 (1,0) x
Ex.1 If log3a = 4, find value of a.
Sol. log3a = 4
a = 34
y' a = 81.

PAGE # 5858
 Ex.7 Find the value of the following :
9 27 3
Ex.2 Find the value of log log log
8 32 4 (i) log 48 (ii) log 1024
2 2

9 27 3 (iii) log 1/49343 (iv) log( 2 (2 3 )

9 27 3 3)
Sol. Given log log log log log
8 32 4 8 32 4 (v) log 0.001 0.0001

9 32 3 Sol. (i) Let x = log 48 4x = 8

log 2 2x = 2 3 x = 3/2.
8 27 4
= log1 = 0. [ loga1 = 0] (ii) Let x = log2 2
1024
x
(2 2 ) = 1024
Ex.3 If 2log4x = 1 + log4(x 1), find the value of x.
2 3x/2 = 2 10 x = 20/3.
Sol. Given 2log4x = 1 + log4(x 1)
log4x2 log4(x 1) = 1 (iii) Let x = log 1/49 343
2 7 2x = 7 3 x = 3/2.
x
log4 =1
x 1 (iv) Let x = log( 2 3) (2 3 )
x2
41 = (2 3 ) x = 2 3
x 1
x2 = 4x 4 (2 3 ) (2 3 ) 1
(2 3 ) x = = (2 3 )
x2 4x + 4 = 0 2 3
(x 2)2 = 0 x=2 x = 1.
2 log 3 5 (v) Let x = log 0.001 0.0001 (0.001)x = 0.0001
Ex.4 Evaluate : 3 .
2 log 3 5 10 3x = 10 4 x = 4/3.
Sol. Given, 3 2 log3 5 = 3 .3 [am + n = am.an]

= 9. 3 log3 5
1
Ex.8 Find the value of the following :

= 9 51 (i) log sec 30

(sin 2 60 cos 2 60 )
9
= .
5 (ii) log tan 45 cot 45 (iii) log 20 1
Ex.5 Find the value of log25125 log84. Sol. (i) For (i) and (ii) log is not defined because base is
Sol. Given log25125 log84 equal to 1.
(iii) log 201 = 0.
= log 5 2 5 3 log 23 2 2
Fun dame ntal Log arit hmic Ide ntit y :
3 2
= log55 log2 2
2 3 alogaN = N, a > 0, a 1 & N > 0
3 2 REMARKS :
= [ loga a 1 ]
2 3 (i) log a1 = 0
5
= . (ii) loga a = 1 [As a1 = a]
6
log11 13 log11 7 (iii) loga 0 = not defined
Ex.6 If A = log27625 + 7 and B = log9125 + 13 , [As an = 0 is not possible, where n is any number]
then find the relation between A and B.
(iv) loga (ve no.) = not defined.
log11 13 4 log11 13
Sol. A = log27625 + 7 = log 3 3 5 + 7 [As in loga N, N will always be (+ ve)]
1
4 (v) log 1/a a = 1 (vi) log ba =
or, A= log35 + 7 log11 13 ...(i) loga b
3
(vii) a x = ex na
and, B = log9125 + 13 log11 7
Ex.9 Find the value of the following
or, B = log 3 2 5 3 + 7 log11 13 1 1
log 2 3 121
(i) 81 log 53 (ii) 8 3
3 1
or, B= log35 + 7 log11 13 ...(ii) log 53
2 Sol. (i) Let x = 81 = (3 4 )log3 5
By (i) and (ii) we have,
log3 5
4 3 = 3 = 5 4 = 625.
A log35 = B log35
3 2
1
4 3 log 2 3 121 3
log35 < log35 (ii) Let x = 8 3 = 2 3 log 2
121 1
3 2
A < B.
= 2.2log2 121 = 2(121) = 242.

PAGE # 5959
Ex.10 Find the value of
(i) log 3 4. log 4 5. log 5 6. log 67 . log 78. log 89.
The equality log a x = log a y is possible if and only if
(ii) log tan1 + log tan2 + log tan3 + .... + log tan89. x = y i.e. loga x = loga y x = y
Sol. (i) log 3 4. log 4 5. log 5 6. log 67 . log 78. log 89
Always check that the solutions should satisfy x > 0,
log 4 log 5 log 6 log 7 log 8 log 9 y > 0, a > 0, a 1.
log 3 . log 4 . log 5 . log 6 . log 7 . log 8
Ex.13 Solve the following equations :
log 9 (i) log 3(x + 1) + log 3 (x + 3) = 1
= log 3 = 2. (ii) log 2 log 4 log 5 x = 0
(ii) log tan1 + log tan2 +.......+ log tan89 (iii) log 3 [5 + 4 log 3 (x 1)] = 2
= log(tan1. tan2. tan3 .... tan45 ..... tan89) Sol. (i) log 3(x + 1) + log 3 (x + 3) = log 3 (x + 1) (x + 3) = 1
= log (tan1 tan2 tan3 ... tan45 ... cot3 cot2 cot1) (x + 1) (x + 3) = 3
= log (1.1.1 ....... 1) = log 1 = 0. x2 + 4x = 0
Ex.11 Find the value of : x = 0, 4.
Also x + 1 > 0 or x>1
(i) 2log3 5 5 log3 2
And x + 3 > 0 or x>3
75 5 32 Hence solution is x = 0.
(ii) log 2 2 log 2 + log 2
16 9 243
(ii) log 2 log 4 log 5x = 0
(iii) log3 0. 1 log 4 log 5x = 1
Sol. (i) 2log3 5 5 log 3 2 log 5x = 4
x = 5 4 = 625.
log 25
Here 2log3 5 = 2 log 2 3 (iii) log 3 [5 + 4log 3 (x 1)] = 2
5 + 4 log 3 (x 1) = 9
log3 2
= 2log2 5
= 5log3 2
log 3 (x 1) = 1
x 1 = 3 x = 4.
Hence 2log3 5 5 log3 2 = 0.
Ex.14 Find the total number of digits in the number
75 5 32
(ii) log 2 2 log 2 + log 2 6 100 (Given log 102 = 0.3010 ; log 103 = 0.4771).
16 9 243
Sol. Let x = 6 100
75 32 81 log 10x = 100 log106
= log 2 . = log 22 = 1 log 10x = 100 [log 102 + log 103]
16 243 25
= 100 [0.3010 + 0.4771]
(iii) log3 0. 1 = log 31/9 = log 33 2 = 2 = 100 (0.7781)
Ex.12 If log 615 = a, log 1218 = b, then find log 2524 in terms = 77.81
of a and b. The number of digits = 78.
log3 15 1 log3 5 Ex.15 Prove that log 35 is irrational.
Sol. log 615 = log 6 = 1 log 2 = a ...(i)
3 3 Sol. Let log 35 is rational.
log3 18 2 log3 2
log 1218 = log 12 = 1 2 log 2 = b ...(ii)
3 3 p
From (i) and (ii) log35 = [where p and q are co-prime numbers]
q
2b
log 32 = 3 p/q = 5 3 p = 5 q.
2b 1
ab a 2b 1 which is not possible, hence our assumption is
And log 35 = wrong and log 35 is irrational.
2b 1
log3 24 1 3 log3 2
log 2524 = log 25 = 2 log 5
3 3

2b 1. Given log2 = 0.3010, then log 16 is :

1 3
2b 1 (A) 2.4080 (B) 1.2040
=
ab a 2b 1 (C) 0.2408 (D) 1.9030
2
2b 1
2. If logxy = 100 and log2x = 10, then the value of y is :
5b
= 2 (a 2b ab 1) . (A) 21000 (B) 2100
(C) 22000 (D) 210000

PAGE # 6060
3. The value of [log10 (5 log10 100)]2 is : 11. Find the number of different values of x that satisfy the
(A) 0 (B) 1 log log x

equation: 2 27 3 4 = (log4x)2 + 5(log4 x) + 2.
(C) 2 (D) 10 (A) 1
(B) 2
4. log10 p + log10 q = log10 (pq), then :
(C) 3
q
(A) p = q = 0 (B) p = (D) No real value of x exists
1 q
q 12. If log30 3 = x and log30 5 = y, then log8 30 is equal to :
(C) p = q = 1 (D) p =
1 q
1
1 (A) (B) 3 (1 - x - y)
3(1 x y )
5. If log 3 M 3 log 3 N = 1+ log0.0085, then :
3
3 1 x y
9 9 9 9 (C) (D)
(A) M (B) N (1 x y ) 3
N M
3 3 9 3 13. If logyx = 10, then logx 3 (y6) is equal to :
(C) M (D) N
N M
1
(A) 5 (B)
6. The value of x, when log3(log2 x) + 2 log9(log7 8) = 2, is : 5
(A) 243 (B) 27 1
(C) 6 (D)
6
(C) 343 (D) 64
14. If log 2 = a and log3 = b then [log(1) + log(1 + 3) + log
7. Find all the real values of x, which satisfy the equation (1 + 3 + 5) + .......+ .....+ log (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ..... + 19)]
2 5
2[log 1 + log2 + log3 + ....... log7] = p + qa + rb where
2
log2 x log2 x 4 p,q,r are constants. What is the value of p + 2q + 3r if all
x3 2.
logs are in base 10 ?
1 1 1 (A) 12
(A) 2, (B) 2, and
2 2 2 2 (B) 26
1 1 (C) 18
(C) , ,1 (D) 2
2 2 2 (D) Cannot be determined

15. The sum to 2n terms of the series,

8. If ap = bq = cr = ds, then loga (bcd) is equal to :
log3 1 log33 + log3 9 log3 27 ...... is :
1 1 1
(A) p (B) 1 2n 1 n 1
q r s
(A) (B)
n 1 2n 1
1 1 1
(C) (D) 0 (C) 1 n (D) n
q r s
16. When the curves y = log10x and y = x 1 are drawn in the
9. Va l u e of the following summation x-y plane. How many times do they intersect for values
x 1 ?
1 1 1 (A) Never (B) Once
...
log2 x log3 x log43 x i s e q u a l t o :
(C) Twice (D) More than twice

17. Solve : log (x + 4) +log (x 4) = log 3.

1 1
(A) log x (B) (A) x = 19 (B) x = + 19
e e
(C) x = 19
1 43! (D) Cannot be determined
(C) log (D) log e
( 43!) x x
18. Find x from the equation ax c 2x = b3x + 1.
2 log b
10. Solve for x if 2logx 7 + log7x7+3log49x7 = 0. (A) log a 2 log c 3 log b
log b
4 (B) log a 2 log c 3 log b
(A) x (B) x 7 1/ 2
3
log b
(C) log a 2 log c 3 log b
(C) x 7 4 / 3 (D) (B) or (C) only
(D) Cannot be determined

PAGE # 6161
19. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, then find the
1 1 1
number of digits in 617 . 30. log 10 1 + log 10 1 + log 10 1 + ... +
(A) 12 (B) 14 2 3 4
(C) 18 (D) 17
1
20. Express 3 log 105 4 log10 x + log10y2 as the log of a log10 1 . When simplified has the value equal to
1999
single number.
(A) 1 (B) 3
25 y 2 125 y 3 (C) 10 (D) 100

(A) log10 x4 (B) log10 x4
31. [(log x log y)(logx2 + logy2)] [(logx2 logy2)(logx + log y)]
125 y 2 125 y 2 is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) log10 3 (D) log10 4
x x (C) log x/y (D) log xy
a3 32. If log10 [log10(log10x)] = 0.
21. Express the log in terms of log a, log b and
(A) x = 103 (B) x = 1010
c 5b 2
(C) x = 155 (D) None
log c.
3 33. The number of solutions for real x, which satisfy the
(A) log a 5 log c 2 log b
2 equation 2log 2 log 2 x + log 1/2 log 2 (2 2 x ) = 1 :
(B) 3 log a 5 log c 2 log b
(A) 1 (B) 2
3 2 (C) 4 (D) none of these
(C) log a 5 log c log b
2 3
34. Find the number of integral pairs for (x, y) from the
3 following equations :
(D) log a 5 log c log b
2
1
22. Find x if log10 1250 + log1080 = x. log 100|x + y| = & log 10 y log 10|x| = log 100 4
2
(A) 5 (B) 4
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 8 (D) 7
(C) 2 (D) none of these
23. If logx2 = a, logx3 = b, logx5 = c, then find the value of the
35. How many positive real numbers x are there such that
following in terms of a, b and c.
(i) logx16 (ii) logx75 (iii) logx60 x
xx x
?
x x [KVPY 2007]
(A) 4a, 2a + b, 2a + b + c
(B) 4a, 2c + b, 2a + b + c (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4a, 2c + b, 2c + b + a (C) 4 (D) infinite
(D) 4a, 2c + b, 2a + 3b + c 36. Let logab = 4, logcd = 2 where a, b, c, d are natural
24. Find the value of log (1 + 2 + 3) = numbers. Given that b d = 7, the value of c a is :
(A) log1 + log2 log3 (B) log1 + log2 + log3 [KVPY 2009]
(C) log1 log2 + log3 (D) log1 + log2 + log3 (A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 2
25. log418 is :
(A) an irrational number (B) a rational number 37. The value of log10(3/2) + log10 (4/3) + ------ up to 99
(C) natural number (D) whole number terms. [IAO 2008]
(A) 0 (B) 2
xy 1 (C) 2.5 (D) none of the above
26. If log = (log x + log y), then :
2 2
38. If a, b 1, ab > 0, a b and logba = logab, then ab = ?
(A) x = y (B) x = y [IAO 2008]
(C) x = 2y (D) 2x = yZ
(A) 1/2 (B) 1
27. Find the value of (yz)logy logz (zx)logz logx (xy)logx logy = ? (C) 2 (D) 10
(A) 3 (B) 2
39. Find x, if 100.3010 = 2, 100.4771 = 3 and 10x = 45.
(C) 0 (D) 1 [IAO 2009]
28. The number of solutions for the equation in (A) 0.6532 (B) 1.6532
logex + x 1 = 0 is : (C) 1.6570 (D) 1.7781
(A) 1 (B) 2
40. If x < 0 and log7 (x2 5x 65) = 0, then x is :
(C) 4 (D) None of the above
[IJSO-2011]
(A) 13 (B) 11
29. If log 10N 2.5 then, find out total number of digits in
(C) 6 (D) 5
N.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5
(D) Cannot be determined

PAGE # 6262
 NUTRITION
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
It includes alimentary canal and digestive glands.
Alimentary canal starts from mouth and ends into
anus.
Mouth or Buccal Cavity : An adult has 16 teeth on
each jaw.
In each half of jaws starting from middle to backward
these are, incisors - 2, canine - 1, premolar - 2, molars
- 3 (2 + 1 + 2 + 3).
Dental formula is 2123/2123.
Last molars are called wisdom teeth.
Milk teeth start erupting after 6 months of birth and
appear between 6 to 24 months.
Dental formula of milk teeth is 2102/2102.
Stomach : Inner mucosa of stomach is raised into
larger number of longitudinal folds called gastric
rugae.
It helps in mechanical churning and chemical
digestion of food.
The stomach of ruminant (cud chewing) animals have
compound stomach and consists of 4 chambers
rumen, reticulum; omasum and abomasum.
Rumen and reticulum harbour numerous bacteria
and Protozoa which help in digestion of cellulose
called symbiotic digestion.
Abomasum is true stomach as it secretes gastric juice
containing HCl and pepsin.
Small Intestine : Villi and microvilli increase the
surface area of digestion and absorption of food.
Pancreatic duct release few enzymes which act on
carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Large Intestine : In some herbivores (like horse and
ass), caecum is large and is a site of microbial
digestion of cellulose.
In man caecum very small vestigial organ and is called
appendix.

Table : Vitamins Necessary for Normal Cell Functioning

Deficiency Disease Deficient Nutrient Deficiency Disease Deficient Nutrient

10. Megaloblastic
1. Xerophthalmia Vitam in A / Retinol Folic acid and Vitam in B 12
anaemia
11. Pernicious
2. Night-blindness Vitam in A Vitam in B 12 (Cyanocobalam ine)
anaemia

3. Rickets (in children) Vitam in D/ Sun-Shine Vitam in 12. Scurvy Vitam in C/ As corbic acid

4. Osteomalacia (adults) Vitam in D 13. Tetany Calcium

5. Sterility Vitam in E (Tocopherol) 14. Anaemia Iron

6. Bleeding disease Vitam in K (Phylloquinone) 15. Goitre Iodine

7. Beri beri Vitam in B 1 (Thiam ine) 16. Fluorosis Exces s of fluorine

8. Cheilosis Vitam in B 2 (Riboflavin) 17. Kw ashiorkor Proteins

9. Pellagra Vitam in B 3 (Niacin) 18. Marasmus Proteins and food calories

Knowledge Boosters : (a) Cardiac glands : secrete an alkaline mucus.

(1) Salivary Glands : It produces saliva. In man only
three pairs of salivary glands are present.
(a) Parotid glands : largest glands present just below
the external ear. In this glands, virus causes mumps
disease.
(b) Submaxillary glands : these lie beneath the jaw-
angles.
(b) Pyloric glands : secrete an alkaline mucus.
(c) Fundic glands : each gland has 4 types of cells.
1. Peptic / Zymogen cells - secrete pepsinogen,
prorennin
2. Oxyntic cells - secrete HCI
3. Goblet cells - secrete mucus

(c) Sublingual glands : smallest glands which lie
beneath the tongue and open at the floor of buccal
cavity.
(2) Gastric Glands: Present in the mucosa of the
stomach. These are of 3 types :
4. Argentaffin cells - produces serotonin, somatostatin
and histamine
(3) Liver : It is the largest gland and consists of a
large right lobe, a small left lobe and two small lobes.
On the right lobe lies gall bladder, which, stores bile
juice secreted by the liver.

PAGE # 63
 Bile juice contains no enzyme but possesses bile Secretions of blood anticoagulant named heparin.
salts and bile pigments (bilirubin-yellow and Synthesis of blood or plasma proteins, (fibrinogen
biliverdin-green). and prothrombin)
Formation of glucose from excess organic acids. Secretion of bile, detoxification of harmful chemicals.
Storage of vitamins : A, D, E, K Elimination of pathogens and foreign particles through
Synthesis of vitamin A from carotene. phagocytic cells called Kupffers cells.
Table : Various Enzymes Involved in Digestion

5. Stomach is protected from HCl and gastric juice

EXERCISE because :
(A) The two are dilute
1. In human digestion is : (B) Epithelial lining is resistant to them
(A) Intercellular (B) Intracellular (C) Wall has neutralizing agents
(C) Extracellular (D) Both A & B (D) Stomach lining is covered by mucus
2. The enzyme rennin converts 6. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty acids are
(A) Proteins to proteoses (B) Fats to fatty acids combined to form fats, coated with proteins, and then
(C) Casein to paracasein (D) Proteins to peptones transported to the :
(A) Lacteal
3. Digestion in Amoeba is : (B) Capillaries
(A) Intercellular (B) Intracellular (C) Lumen of the small intestine
(C) Both of these (D) None of these (D) Lumen of the large intestine
4. Statements true or false is: 7. Among mammals, an herbivore has :
(i) No absorption of food takes place in mouth and (A) More teeth than a carnivore
oesophagus (B) Fewer teeth than a carnivore
(ii) Absorption of H2O, alcohol, simple salts, glucose (C) Flatter teeth than a carnivore
and chloride takes place in the stomach to slight (D) Teeth that are more pointed than a carnivore
extent.
8. Gastric juice has a pH of about :
(iii) Whole protein particles can be absorbed by
(A) 1 (B) 2
pinocytosis.
(C) 6 (D) 10
(A) (i) and (ii) true (iii) rarely true
(B) All true 9. Softness and deformities of bones like bowlegs and
(C) (i) and (iii) true B false pigeon-chest are symptoms of the disease :
(D) (i) and (ii) true (iii) false (A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia
(C) Goitre (D) Beri-Beri

PAGE # 64
10. In rabbit when a dilute solution of glucose reaches 18. B.M.R. for a normal human adult is :
small intestine is : (A) 1600 Kcal/day (B) 2000 Kcal/day
(A) Absorbed rapidly by the active transport with (C) 2500 Kcal/day (D) 3000 Kcal/day
sodium ions 19. Cholesterol rich diet is undesirable because it :
(B) Absorbed by facilitated diffusion (A) Makes person obese
(C) Lost to outside with undigested food (B) Causes heart ailments
(D) Absorbed rapidly by active transport independent (C) Is difficult to remove it from body
of sodium ions (D) All of the above
11. Chymotrypsin acts on : 20. If all bacteria of intestine die, then what will be the
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins effect on body:
(C) Fats (D) Starch (A) Man will feel tired all the body
(B) It will cause blindness
12. The vermiform appendix is made up of :
(C) There will be no synthesis of vitamin -B Complex
(A) Striated muscles (B) Excretory tissue
(D) Excretion will be effected
(C) Lymphatic tissue (D) Stem cells
21. The gall bladder is involved in
13. Digestion is completed in :
[KVPY 2011]
(A) Ileum (B) Duodenum (A) synthesizing bile
(C) Stomach (D) Rectum (B) storing and secreting bile
14. One of the following is not an enzyme of digestive (C) degrading bile
system : (D) producing insulin
(A) Trypsin (B) Amylase 22. In the 16th century, sailors who travelled long
(C) Enterogastrone (D) Enterokinase distances had diseases related to malnutrition,
15. Fat soluble vitamins are : because they were not able to eat fresh vegetables
(A) A, D and E (B) B, C and D and fruits for months at a time scurvy is a result of
(C) B,D and E (D) A, B and C deficiency of [KVPY 2011]
(A) carbohydrates (B) proteins
16. Sunshine vitamin is : (C) vitamin C (D) vitamin D
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E 23. Several mineral such as iron, iodine, calcium and
phosphorous are important nutrients. Iodine is
17. Which of the vitamins is essential for normal vision : found in [KVPY 2011]
(A) Folic acid (B) Biotin (A) thyroxine (B) adrenaline
(C) Riboflavin (D) Retinol (C) insulin (D) testosterone

PAGE # 65
 SERIES COMPLETION
Series completion problems deals with numbers, Ex 5. 8, 12, 21, 46, 95, ?
alphabets and both together. While attempting to (A) 188 (B) 214
solve the question, you have to check the pattern of (C) 148 (D) 216
the series. Series moves with certain mathematical Sol. (D) The pattern is + 22, + 32, + 52, + 72, .......
operations. You have to check the pattern. missing number = 95 + 112 = 216
Type of questions asked in the examination : Ex 6. 3, 9, 36, 180, ?
(i) Find the missing term(s). (A) 1080 (B) 900
(ii) Find the wrong term(s). (C) 720 (D) None of these
Sol. (A) Each term is multiplied by 3, 4, 5 and so on
NUMBER SERIES respectively. Therefore, the next term would be
180 6 = 1080.
(a) Some Important Patterns :
(b) Multiple Series :
(i) a, a d, a 2d, a 3d.......(Arithmetic Progression)
A multiple series is a mixture of more than one
(ii) a, ak, ak2, ak3, ................(Geometric Progression) series :

Ex 7. 4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ?
a a a (A) 0 (B) 1
(iii) a, , 2 , 3 , .............(Geometric Progression)
k k k (C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (B) The sequence is a combination of two series
(iv) Series of prime numbers i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ...... I 4, 3, 2, ?
II 7, 6, 5
(v) Series of composite numbers
The pattern followed in I is 1, 1, 1
i.e. 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, .................
missing number = 2 1 = 1
Directions : (1 to 10) Find the missing numbers : Ex 8. 14, 15, 12, 16, 9, 18, 4, 21, ?
Ex 1. 16, 19, 22, 25, ? (A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 3 (D) 5
Sol. (C) The sequence is a combination of two series.
(C) 29 (D) 25
14, 12, 9, 4, (....) and
Sol. (B) As per series a, a + d, a + 2d,.........
15. 16, 18, 21
a = 16
The pattern followed in is 2, 3, 5, .......
d=3
missing number = 4 7 = 3
a + 4d = 16 + 4 3
Ex 9. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
Ex 2. 9, 18, 36, ?, 144 (A) 21 (B) 27
(A) 70 (B) 56 (C) 25 (D) 28
(C) 54 (D) 72 Sol. (B) (i) 1, 4, 9, 16 [12, 13, 22, 23, 32, 33.............]
Sol. (D) As per series, a, ak, ak2, ak3, ........ (ii) 1, 8, __, 64 mixed combination
a = 9, k = 2
Ex 10. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, 132
ak3 = 9 23 = 72
(A) 58 (B) 42
Ex 3. 2, 6, 14, 26, ? (C) 90 (D) 120
(A) 92 (B) 54 Sol. (D) The difference between the terms is given
(C) 44 (D) 42 below as :
Sol. (D) The pattern is +4, +8, +12, +16, .......
3 6 24 30 63 72 ? 132
Ex 4. 240, ? , 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 120 (B) 240 Difference 3 18 6 33 9 48 ?
(C) 40 (D) 10
Difference
3 15 3 15 ?
1 1 1 1
Sol. (B) The pattern is 1, , , , Therefore, alternate difference between the
2 3 4 5
difference is 3 and 15 respectively.
missing term = 240 1 = 240
Hence, the next term would be 72 + 48 = 120.

PAGE # 66
Directions : (11 to 12) Find the wrong term(s) Ex 13. 12 28 64 140
37 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Ex 11. 5, 8, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20, 23 Which number will come in place of (T) ?
(A) 8 (B) 12 (A) 1412 (B) 164
(C) 15 (D) 18 (C) 696 (D) 78
Sol. (B)

Sol. (A)
Therefore, number 12 is wrong and should be
replaced by 13. Similarly (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
37 78 164 340 696 1412
Ex 12. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184
2+4 2+8 2+12 2+16 2+20
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 19 (D) 88 Therefore, the number 1412 will come in place of (T).
Sol. (D)
Ex 14. 2 9 57 337
1 3 8 19 42 89 184 3 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
2 5 11 23 47 95 Which number will come in place of (Q) ?
3 6 12 24 48 (A) 113 (B) 17
(C) 3912 (D) 8065
Hence, number 88 is wrong and should be
replaced by 89.
or 1 2 + 1, 3 2 + 2, 8 2 +3, 19 2 + 4, 42 2 + 5, Sol. (A)
89 2 + 6
Similarly,
Directions : (13 to 14) In each of the following questions, a (P) (Q) (R) (S)
number series is given. After the series, below it in 3 17 113 673 3361
the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q), 87 76 65 54
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
Therefore, the number 113 will come in place of (Q).
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.

ALPHABET SERIES

(a) Pattern of Alphabets Show Variation Based on :

(i) Position of the letters (ii) Difference between the alphabets

(i) Position of alphabets :

Alphabets in order :

Alphabets in reverse order :

Directions : (15 to 24) Find the missing term(s) : Ex 17. A, Y, D, W, G, U, J, ?

(A) R (B) T
Ex 15. B, E, H, ?
(A) K (B) L (C) S (D) P
(C) J (D) M Sol. (C) The given sequence consists of two series :
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three . A, D, G, J in which each letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters steps forward to obtain the next term
of the next term. So, the missing term is K. . Y, W, U, ? in which each letter is moved two steps
Ex 16. Q, N, K, ?, E backward to obtain the next term.
(A) H (B) I So, the missing term would be S.
(C) J (D) G
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three Ex 18. AG, LR, WC, HN, ?
steps backward to obtain the corresponding letters (A) SX (B) RY
of the next term. So, the missing term is H. (C) SY (D) TX

PAGE # 67
Sol. (C) The first letter of each group and the second Ex 24. (ABC) 6, (DEF) 15, (GHI) 24, ?
letter of each group differs by 11 letters between (A) (IJK) 33 (B) (JKM) 33
them. (C) (IJK) 32 (D) (JKL) 33
A L W H Sol. (D) In a given series
1 12 23 8 Alphabetical
positions Let A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6, and so on

11 11 11 Difference in A B C 6 D E F 15 G H I 24
, 4 5 6 ,
Alphabetical 1 2 3 7 8 9
positions
G R C N
7 18 3 14 Alphabetical
positions
So, the missing term would be J K L 33
10 11 12
Similarly, 11 Difference in
11 11 Directions : (25 to 27) Find the wrong term (s) :
Alphabetical
positions
Therefore, the next group of letter would be SY. Ex 25. ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW
H S N Y (A) NTB (B) DGK
And (C) SBL (D) ZKW
11 11 Sol. (A) First letter of first, second, third,.........terms is
Ex 19. AD, EI, JO, PV, ? moved three, four, five, ........steps forward
(A) VD (B) WC respectively. Similarly, second letter is moved five,
(C) WD (D) VE six, seven,......steps forward respectively and third
Sol. (C) The first letter of subsequent groups have a letter is moved seven, eight, nine,........steps
difference of 4, 5 and 6 places respectively, whereas forward respectively. Hence, NTB is the wrong term
the second letter of the subsequent groups has a and should be replaced by MTB.
difference of 5, 6, and 7 places respectively,
Therefore, on following the same pattern, we get Ex 26. EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
WD as the next term which would replace the (A) FQW (B) GRX
question mark. (C) HTY (D) ITZ
Sol. (C) In every term, first second and third letter is in
Ex 20. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?
alphabetical order to its next term respectively.
(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ
(C) SQRP (D) RSQP Fourth term is not following the same rule. Hence,
Sol. (A) The first term is reversed to get second term. HTY is the wrong term and should be replaced by
The third term is reversed to get the fourth term. HSY.
Similarly, to get the sixth term, we reverse the fifth
term. So, the missing term would be SRQP. Ex 27. D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N
(A) P90N (B) G10T
Ex 21. HEJ, JGL, LIN, NKP, ? (C) J20R (D) D4V
(A) MOR (B) PNS
Sol. (B) First letter of every term is moved three steps
(C) PMR (D) NPT
forward in each next term. Second number of every
Sol. (C) First letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Second letter of each group differs by 2 letters. term of the pattern 2 + 1, 2 + 2, 2 + 3,............and
Third letter of each group differs by 2 letters. All the third letter of every term is moved two steps
letters differ in the forward direction. Hence, the backward. Hence, G10T is the wrong term and
next choice would be PMR. should be replaced by G9T.
Ex 22. XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ?
(A) GFU (B) FUG LETTER REPEATING SERIES
(C) FZU (D) FGU
Sol. (D) Here, first two terms of every group of letters Pattern of such questions is that some letters in
are in continuation, like XY, ZA, BC, DE, and the sequence are missing.
third letter of each group is again in forward
(i) The letters may be in cyclic order (clockwise or
continuation,
anti-clockwise).
i.e. Q, R, S, T. Hence, the term replacing the
(ii) To solve a problem, we have to select one of the
question mark would be FGU.
alternative from the given alternatives. The
Ex 23. 17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1 alternative which gives a sequence form of letters
(A) 11S2 (B) 11T2 is the choice.
(C) 11U2 (D) 11T3
Directions : (28 to 32) Find the missing term(s) :
Sol. (B) The first number & second letter of every term
is moved two steps backward & the third number Ex 28. a a _ b a a _ b b b _ a
of every term is moved one step backward. So, the (A) baa (B) abb
missing term would be 11T2. (C) bab (D) aab

PAGE # 68
Sol. (A) we proceed step by step to solve the above Ex 35. a_h_ _c_ ne_ h_ eac_ _ _ _ _
series: 21_4 3_5 __2 54 ____ _ _ _ _
Steps : The last five terms in the series are
(A) 32524 (B) 43215
1. The first blank space should be filled in by 'b' so
that we have two a's followed by two b's. (C) 25314 (D) 32541
Sol. (B) By taking a = 2, c = 1, n = 4, h = 5 and e = 3, the
2. Second blank space should be filled in by 'a' so numbers series runs as 21543 15432 54321
that we have three a's followed by three b' s. 43215. If first digit of a group of five digits is placed
as the last digit, we obtain the second group of five
3. The last blank space must be filled in by 'a' to keep
the series in sequence. digits and so on.
Ex 29. _ bca _ ca _ c _ b _
Ex 36. _ m y e _ _ y l x _ y l m _ _ l _ _ _ _
(A) aabbc (B) abbbc
4 6 _ 5 8 6 _ __ 5 7_ 6 5 8 __ _ _ _
(C) aabcc (D) abbac
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 46758 (B) 74658
Sol. (D) (C) 76485 (D) 46785
Sol. (D) By taking e = 5, l = 4, m = 6, y = 7 and x = 8 the
number series runs as 46758 67485 74658 46785.
Series is abc/ abc/ abc/ abc. So, pattern abc is By taking the digits in the groups of five, we find
repeated. that first digit of the first group (i.e. 4) is the third
digit of the second group and the last two digits
Ex. 30 a _ abb _ aa _ ba _ a _ b have interchanged their positions. The same rule
(A) ababa (B) aabba applies in others groups also.
(C) aabab (D) aaabb
Sol- (C) Series is aaabb/ aaabb/ aaabb. So, pattern Direction : (37) In the following question, three sequences
aaabb is repeated. of letter/numbers are given which correspond to
each other in some way. In the given question, you
Ex 31. a _ c _ abb _ ca _ a
(A) baca (B) bbca have to find out the letter/numerals that come in
(C) bacc (D) bacb the vacant places marked by (?). These are given
Sol- (A) Series is abc/ aabbcc/ aaa as one of the four alternatives under the question.
Mark your answer as instructed.
Ex 32. bc _ b _ c _ b _ ccb
(A) cbcb (B) bbcb Ex 37. C B _ _ D _ B A B C C B
(C) cbbc (D) bcbc _ _ 2 3 5 4 _ _ ? ? ? ?
Sol- (A) Series is bccb / bccb / bccb. So, pattern bccb is p _ p q _ r _ q _ _ _ _
repeated (A) 4 5 5 4 (B) 4 3 3 4
Directions : (33 to 34) The question given below is based (C) 4 2 2 4 (D) 2 5 5 2
on the letter series, In series, some letters are Sol. (C) Comparing the positions of the capital letters,
missing. Select the correct alternative. If more than numbers and small letters, we find p corresponds
five letters are missing, select the last five letters to C and 2 corresponds to p. So, p and 2 correspond
of the series. to C. q corresponds to A and 3 corresponds to q.
So, q and 3 corresponds to A. Also, 5 corresponds
Ex 33. xyzu _ yz _ v _ _ uv _ _ _ _ _ _ _
to D. So, the remaining number i.e., 4 corresponds
(A) uvxyz (B) vuzyx
to B. So, BCCB corresponds to 4, 2, 2, 4.
(C) uvzyx (D) vuxyz
Sol. (A) The series is x y z u v / y z u v x/ z u v x y/u v x y z
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order. MISSING TERMS IN FIGURES
EX 34. abcd _ bc _ e _ _ de _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Directions : (38 to 47) Find the missing number(s) :
(A) deabc (B) edcba
(C) decba (D) edabc
Sol. (A) The series is a b c d e / b c d e a / c d e a b / b e a b c 6 9 15
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order. 8 12 20
Ex 38.
Direction : (35 to 36) There is a letter series in the first row 4 6 ?
and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in (A) 5 (B) 10
the letter series. Since in each of that series some (C) 15 (D) 21
term are missing you have to find out as to what Sol. (B) In the first row, 6 + 9 = 15
those terms are, and answer the questions based In the second row, 8 + 12 = 20
on these as given below in the series.
In the third row, missing number = 4 + 6 = 10.

PAGE # 69
 3 5 5
Ex 39. Ex 43. 6 10 2 9 30 3 6 ? 5
4 5 2

(A) 11 (B) 6 (A) 15 (B) 20

(C) 3 (D) 2 (C) 25 (D) 40
6 4 Sol. (B) Clearly
Sol. (C) Clearly, in the column, 8 In first figure] 6 3 4 2 = 18 8 = 10
3
18 3 In second figure] 9 5 5 3 = 45 15 = 30
In the column, 27 We take x in place of ? In third figure] 6 5 2 5 = 30 10 = 20
2
15 x 95
Similarly in the column, 9 ,x 3
5 15 5 26 4 6 ? 3 8 29 3
Ex 44.
6 4 5
3C 27D 9E
(A) 32 (B) 22
7I 21K 3M (C) 18 (D) 27
Ex 40.
4D ? 7J Sol. (B) In first figure] 5 4 + 6 = 26
In second figure] 8 3 + 5 = 29
(A) 11E (B) 28G missing number in third figure] 6 3 + 4 = 22
(C) 35I (D) 48F
Sol. (B) The letters in the first row form a series C, D, E 5
8 3 7 5 2 5
(a series consecutive letters). The letters in the 6 3
second row form a series I, K, M (a series of Ex 45.
alternate letters). Similarly, the letters in the third 174 336 ?
row will form the series D, G, J (a series in which
each letter is three steps ahead of the previous 3 2 9 2 7 9 6 4 5
one). So, the missing letter is G. Also, the (A) 140 (B) 150
number in the second column is equal to the (C) 200 (D) 180
product of the numbers in the first and third Sol. (B) In first figure]8 5 3 + 3 2 9 = 120 + 54 =
columns. So, missing number is (4 7) i.e. 28. 174
Thus, the answer is 28G. In second figure]6 7 5 + 2 7 9= 210 + 126
= 336
missing number in third figure]
3 2 5 + 6 4 5 = 30 + 120 = 150
4 5
Ex 41. 11 9 15 7 25 21
41
6 ? 5 2 Ex 46.
40 176 ?
7 1
(A) 184 (B) 210
(A) 16 (B) 9
(C) 241 (D) 425
(C) 85 (D) 112
Sol. (C) Hint ; 42 + 52 = 16 + 25 = 41 Sol. (A) The number at the bottom is the difference of
12 + 22 = 1 + 4 = 5 squares of two numbers given at top
62 + 72 = 36 + 49 = 85 In first figure] 112 92 = 121 81 = 40
In second figure] 152 72 = 225 49 = 176
84 81 88 In third figure] 252 212 = 625 441 = 184
Ex 42.
14 12 18 9 ? 11
(A) 16 (B) 21
3 5 4 7 3 5
(C) 61 (D) 81
14 33 48 ?
Ex 47.
Sol. (A) In first figure, 12 = 84. 6 3 5 4 4
2 5
18
In second figure, 9 = 81. (A) 47 (B) 45
2 (C) 37 (D) 35
Let the missing number In third figure be x.
Sol. (D) In first figure, 6 3 + 3 5 = 33
x 88 2
In second figure, 5 4 + 4 7 = 48
Then, 11 = 88 or x = = 16.
2 11 In third figure, 5 4 + 3 5 = 35

PAGE # 70
 17. 0, 6, 20, 42, 72, ?
EXERCISE-1 (A) 106 (B) 112
(C) 110 (D) 108
Directions : (1 to 25) Find the missing numbers :
18. 2, 9, 28, 65, ?
1. 2, 8, 18, 32, ? (A) 121 (B) 195
(A) 62 (B) 60 (C) 126 (D) 103
(C) 50 (D) 46
19. 1, 11, ?, 11, 11, 11, 16, 11
2. 16, 54, 195, ? (A) 1 (B) 11
(A) 780 (B) 802 (C) 6 (D) 192
(C) 816 (D) 824
20. 137, 248, 359, 470, ?
3. 14, 316, 536, 764, ?
(A) 981 (B) 1048 (A) 582 (B) 581
(C) 8110 (D) 9100 (C) 571 (D) 481

4. 8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203 21. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143
(A) 80 (B) 53 (A) 63 (B) 77
(C) 58 (D) 69 (C) 69 (D) 81
5. 2, 3, 6, 18, ?, 1944 22. 9, 16, 30, 58, ?
(A) 154 (B) 180 (A) 104 (B) 114
(C) 108 (D) 452
(C) 116 (D) 118
6. 7,19, 55, 163, ?
23. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?
(A) 387 (B) 329
(C) 527 (D) 487 (A) 192 (B) 183
(C) 162 (D) 147
7. 1, 2, 9, 4, 25, 6, ?
(A) 51 (B) 49 24. 1, 4, 12, 30, ?
(C) 50 (D) 47 (A) 60 (B) 62
(C) 64 (D) 68
8. 16, 33, 67, 135, ?
(A) 371 (B) 175 25. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912
(C) 271 (D) 287
(A) 3610 (B) 1644
9. 8, 24, 16, ?, 7, 14, 6, 18, 12, 5, 5, 10 (C) 1026 (D) 516
(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 7 (D) 5 Directions : (26 to 28) In each of the following questions, a
number series is given. After the series, below it in
10. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ? the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q),
(A) 194 (B) 210 (R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
(C) 252 (D) 258 starting with the number given following the
11. 101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46 sequence of the given series. Then answer the
(A) 92 (B) 88 question given below it.
(C) 89 (D) 96
26. 2 3 8 27
12. 100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? 16, 8 5 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(A) 30 (B) 36 Which of the following numbers will come in place
(C) 14 (D) 32 of (T) ?
13. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, ?, 720 (A) 184 (B) 6
(A) 496 (B) 502 (C) 925 (D) 45
(C) 504 (D) 498
27. 5 18 48 112
14. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ? 7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(A) 32 (B) 37 Which number will come in place of (S) ?
(C) 41 (D) 28 (A) 172 (B) 276
(C) 270 (D) 376
15. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ?
(A) 720 (B) 1080 28. 15 159 259 323
(C) 1600 (D) 2160 7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which of the following numbers will come in place
16. 78, 79, 81, ?, 92, 103, 119
(A) 88 (B) 85 of (R) ?
(C) 84 (D) 83 (A) 251 (B) 315
(C) 176 (D) 151

PAGE # 71
Directions : (29 to 35) Find the wrong term(s) 8. DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?
(A) KBN (B) KBO
29. 9, 11, 15, 23, 39, 70, 135 (C) LBO (D) LBN
(A) 23 (B) 39
(C) 70 (D) 135 9. JXG, HTJ, FPN, ?, BHY
(A) EKS (B) ELS
30. 3, 9, 36, 72, 216, 864, 1728, 3468 (C) DLR (D) DLS
(A) 3468 (B) 1728
(C) 864 (D) 216 10. CYD, FTH, IOL, LJP, ?
(A) PET (B) OET
31. 2, 5, 11, 20, 30, 47, 65 (C) OEY (D) PEV
(A) 5 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 47 11. ZGL, XHN, VIQ, TJU, ?
(A) RKX (B) RKY
32. 121, 143, 165, 186, 209 (C) RLZ (D) RKZ
(A) 143 (B) 165
(C) 186 (D) 209 12. MTH, QRK, UPN, YNQ, ?
(A) CKT (B) ELT
33. 9, 15, 24, 34, 51, 69, 90 (C) CLT (D) EKT
(A) 15 (B) 24
13. ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ?
(C*) 34 (D) 51 (A) VZZ (B) ZVX
(A) 15 (B) 24 (C) VWZ (D) VZX
(C) 34 (D) 51
14. RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?
34. 9, 13, 21, 37, 69, 132, 261 (A) HDC (B) CHI
(A) 21 (B) 37 (C) HCD (D) DIC
(C) 69 (D) 132 15. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(A) ELS (B) FMR
35. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, 45, 90
(C) GKS (D) FLR
(A) 85 (B) 45
(C) 105 (D) 0 16. MAD, OBE, SCH, YDM, ?
(A) HET (B) HES
(C) GET (D) UAE
EXERCISE-2
17. 2B, 4C, 8E, 14H, ?
Directions : (1 to 24) Find the missing term(s) : (A) 22L (B) 24L
(C) 22K (D) 2M
1. X, U, S, P, N, K, I, ?
(A) J (B) K 18. 1 BR, 2 EO, 6 HL, 15 KI, ?
(C) M (D) F (A) 22 NF (B) 31 NF
(C) 31 NE (D) 28 NF
2. Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(A) F (B) K 19. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(C) G (D) E (A) Y17O (B) X17M
(C) X17O (D) X16O
3. A, H, N, S, W, ?
(A) A (B) Y 20. Z 15 A, W 13 C, ?, Q 9 G, N 7 I
(C) B (D) Z (A) T 12 E (B) R 11F
(C) T 11E (D) R 13 D
4. Q, T, V, Y, A, ?
21. B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?
(A) B (B) C
(A) N65A (B) O63A
(C) D (D) F
(C) N63A (D) N63Z
5. X, A, D, G, J, ?
22. 5X9, 8U12, 11R15, 14O18, ?
(A) N (B) O
(A) 17L21 (B) 17K21
(C) M (D) P
(C) 17M21 (D) 17L23
6. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
23. 6C7, 8F10, 11J14, 15O19, ?
(A) R, D (B) R, E
(A) 19U24 (B) 20U25
(C) S, E (D) Q, D
(C) 19U25 (D) 20U24
7. AZ, YB, CX, WD, ?
24. B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?
(A) VE (B) UE
(A) J58Q (B) J56Q
(C) EU (D) EV
(C) J57Q (D) J56P

PAGE # 72
Directions : (25 to 30) Find the wrong term(s) : 9. a _ cab _ a _ c _ b c
(A) bbac (B) abab
25. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU
(C) abba (D) bcba
(A) ECA (B) JHF
(C) TQP (D) YWU 10. ba _ cb _ b _ bab _
(A) acbb (B) bcaa
26. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ
(C) cabb (D) bacc
(A) FJW (B) LGQ
(C) JHJ (D) HIT 11. a _ bc _ a _ bcda _ ccd _ bcd _
(A) abddbd (B) acbdbb
27. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO (C) adbbad (D) bbbddd
(A) DVG (B) JNM
(C) HPK (D) LJO 12. cc _ ccdd _ d _ cc _ ccdd _ dd
(A) dcdcc (B) dcddc
28. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI (C) dccdd (D) None of these
(A) CDF (B) DEG
(C) FHI (D) EFH 13. a_baa_baa _ba
(A) a a b (B) b a b
29. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS (C) b b a (D) b b b
(A) ZLA (B) BMY
(C) FOU (D) CNW 14. babbb_b_b_bb
(A) b b a (B) b a a
30. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L (C) a b a (D) a a a
(A) G4T (B) J10R
15. m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(C) M20P (D) P43N
(A) lmmm (B) lmlm
(C) lmml (D) mllm
EXERCISE-3 Directions : (16 to 19) The questions given below are based
on the letter series, In each of these series, some
Directions : (1 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed letters are missing. Select the correct alternative. If
at the blanks one after the other will complete the more than five letters are missing, select the last
given letter series ? five letters of the series.
1. a_baa_aa__ab 16. _ _ r _ ttp _ _ s _ tp _ _ _ s _ _ _
(A) a a a a (B) b a a a (A) rstqp (B) tsrqp
(C) b b a a (D) a b b a (C) rstpq (D) None
2. _aabb_a_ab_b 17. _ _ x _ zbxazyxabyz _ _ _ _ _
(A) b b a a (B) b a b a (A) abxzy (B) abzxy
(C) b a a b (D) a b a b (C) abxyz (D) bxayz
3. aab_aaa_bba_ 18. x _ xxy _ x _ xy _ yxx _ _ yy _ y
(A) b a a (B) a b b
(A) xyyyy (B) xxyyx
(C) b a b (D) a a b
(C) yxxyx (D) xyxyx
4. a__b_a_ab_aa
19. _ _ r _ tqrptsrpqst _ _ _ _ _
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a
(A) pqrts (B) pqtrs
(C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
(C) pqrst (D) qrpst
5. abc _ d _ bc _ d _ b _ cda
Directions : (20 to 23) There is a letter series in the first row
(A) bacdc (B) cdabc
and a number series in the second row. Each
(C) dacab (D) dccbd
number in the number series stands for a letter in
6. a _ bbc _ aab _ cca _ bbcc the letter series. Since in each of that series some
(A) bacb (B) acba term are missing you have to find out as to what
(C) abba (D) caba those terms are, and answer the questions based
on these as given below in the series.
7. _bc__bb_aabc
(A) acac (B) babc 20. ab_cd_a_abd_dba_
(C) abab (D) aacc 1_3_32_1___4____
8. _ b c c _ ac _ a a b b _ a b _ c c The last four terms in the series are
(A) aabca (B) abaca (A) 1234 (B) 3112
(C) bacab (D) bcaca (C) 3211 (D) 4312

PAGE # 73
21. _bnt _ _nam _nab_ _a__ _ _
13_25 3__ 5 24_32 5__ _ __
The last five terms in the series are 3.
(A) 13425 (B) 41325
(C) 34125 (D) 13452 (A) 112 (B) 92
(C) 82 (D) 102
22. n _ g f _ t _ f h t n _ _ t _ b _ f
1 3_ 2 4 5 0 _ 4 _ _ 3 _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 50123 (B) 40321
(C) 40231 (D) 51302 4.
23. _ m i a x _ i r x a _ _ma _ _ _ _ _ _
4 _ 5 _7 3 _ _ _6 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five term of the letter series are (A) 235 (B) 141
(A) r m x i a (B) x m r a i (C) 144 (D) 188
(C) x r m a i (D) r m i x a

Directions : (24 to 26) In each of the following questions, 12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27

three sequences of letter/numbers are given which
5.
correspond to each other in some way. In each
question, you have to find out the letter/numerals ?
6 8
that come in the vacant places marked by (?). These
are given as one of the four alternatives under the (A) 18 (B) 12
question. Mark your answer as instructed. (C) 9 (D) 6

24. _ A C _ B D _ CD C D
2 _4 1 _ 1 4 _ _ _ _
r s _ q r _ p ? ? ? ? 5 6 6 7 4 8
(A) p q p q (B) p r p r 6. 12 21 ?
(C) r q r q (D) r s r s 4 5 10
25. A _ B A C _ D _ B C D C (A) 14 (B) 22
_ 4 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 ? ? ? ? (C) 32 (D) 320
d c _ _ b a c b _ _ _ _
(A) 2 4 5 4 (B) 2 5 4 5
5 9 8
(C) 3 4 5 4 (D) 4 5 2 5
7. 5 15 ?
26. _ A D A C B _ _ B D C C
2 4 _ _2 3 5 3 _ _ _ _ 3 5 6
p _ _ q _ _ r s ? ? ? ? (A) 12 (B) 11
(A) p r s s (B) p s r r (C) 16 (D) 26
(C) r p s s (D) s r p p

EXERCISE-4
8.

Directions : (1 to 39) Find the missing term in the given

figures (A) 72 (B) 18
(C) 9 (D) 19

1.
9.

(A) 36 (B) 9
(C) 25 (D) 64 (A) 1 (B) 18
(C) 90 (D) 225

2. 10.

(A) 14 (B) 18 (A) 20 (B) 22

(C) 11 (D) 13 (C) 24 (D) 12

PAGE # 74
 7 11 49
11. 12 8 54
15 4 ?
18.
(A) 36 (B) 7
(C) 25 (D) 0

18 24 32 (A) 28 (B) 36
12 14 16 (C) 81 (D) 49
12. 3 ? 4
72 112 128 2 5
6
(A) 2 (B) 3 2 ? 8
6 8 6
(C) 4 (D) 5 19. 72 6 140
4 12 3 1 4 3 4 10 7
2 4 8
(A) 16 (B) 14
13. 4 C26 3 10 H70 5 6 J90 ? (C) 20 (D) 22

5 4 6
5 4 3 8 9 4
(A) 1 (B) 3 20.
20 9 24 11 ? 13
(C) 4 (D) 5
(A) 117 (B) 36
29 27 29 30 59 40 (C) 32 (D) 26
14. 39 80 33 42 70 31 ? 80 10
45 43 43 44 39 20
(A) 69 (B) 49 21.
(C) 50 (D) 60

101 43 48 34 (A) 26 (B) 25

(C) 27 (D) 30
15. 38 ?
35 15 56 184
12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 34
(A) 127 (B) 142
(C) 158 (D) 198 22.

30 44 ?
1 7 6 (A) 48 (B) 9
16. 3 3 ? (C) 44 (D) 64
5 4 8
35 74 104

(A) 1 (B) 2 5 21 51
(C) 3 (D) 4 23. 16 109 2 22 53 19 17 ? 48

6 15 13
(A) 25 (B) 129
17. (C) 7 (D) 49

2 3 6

(A) 33 (B) 145 24. 3 33 2 4 54 2 3 ? 5

(C) 135 (D) 18 4 5 4
(A) 78 (B) 82
(C) 94 (D) 86

PAGE # 75
 2 5 1 3 8 10 2 ? 1
25. 4 28 5 34.
7 38 4 2 ? 3 6 56 90 2 20 0

3 3 7 (A) 0 (B) 3
(A) 14 (B) 18 (C) 5 (D) 7
(C) 11 (D) 26
15 2 9 7 13 16
35. 80 65 ?
5 6 4 6 11 8
26.
(A) 48 (B) 72
(C) 35 (D) 120

(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 12

27. BIG - 792 HCA - 138 FED - 456 E?H - 87? 36.

(A) G, 6 (B) I, 9
(C) G, 5 (D) I, 5 (A) 38 (B) 64
(C) 4 (D) 16
36 9 25
28. 49 26 64 81 21 25 64 ? 144
101 43 48 34
25 16 36
(A) 19 (B) 23 37. 38 ?
(C) 25 (D) 31 35 15 56 184
(A) 127 (B) 142
2 3 6
(C) 158 (D) 198
29. 3 2 8 4 1 6 12 ? 8
6 8 4
12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
38.
29 27 29 30 59 40
6 8 ?
30. 39 80 33 42 70 31 ? 80 10 (A) 18 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 6
45 43 43 44 39 20
(A) 69 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 60 4 9 9 16 16 ?
39.

6 12 20
31.
(A) 60 (B) 50
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 21 (D) 25
(C) 3 (D) 1
40. Find the value of X in the following figure :

32. 15 4
33 2

(A) 12 (B) 9 27 2
(C) 14 (D) 10 36 8

33 Find the missing letters from left to right. 32 X

18 9
22 11
12 3

(A) JSN (B) JNS (A) 3 (B) 4

(C) JRS (D) KRS (C) 8 (D) 12

PAGE # 76
 PUZZLE TEST
Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully Names University Subject
and answer the questions given below it. Dr. Joshi Delhi History
(i). Five professors (Dr. Joshi, Dr. Davar, Dr. Dr. Davar Osmania Geology
Natrajan, Dr. Choudhary and Dr. Zia) teach five Dr. Natrajan Gujarat Botany
different subjects (zoology, physics, botany, geology
Dr. Choudhary Mumbai Zoology
and history) in four universities ( Delhi, Gujarat,
Dr. Zia Gujarat Physics
Mumbai, and Osmania). Do not assume any
specific order.
(ii). Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in Mumbai On the basis of the above table, rest of the questions
University . can be solved very easily.
(iii). Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania University
nor in Delhi University and he teaches neither 1. (C) Dr. Davar teaches geology.
geology nor history. 2. (A) Dr. Zia is from Gujarat university.
(iv). Dr. Zia teaches physics but neither in Mumbai
University nor in Osmania University. 3. (D) Dr. Natrajan teaches botany.
(v). Dr. Joshi teaches history in Delhi University.
(vi). Two professors are from Gujarat University. 4. (B) Dr. Davar is from Osmania University.
(vii). One professor teaches only one subject and
5. (D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University is the correct
in one University only.
combination.
Ex 1. Who teaches geology ?
(A) Dr Natrajan (B) Dr. Zia Ex 6. Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as
(C) Dr. Davar (D) Dr. Joshi Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter
than Vinay. Who among them is the tallest ?
Ex 2. Which university is Dr. Zia from ? (A) Ramesh (B) Karan
(A) Gujarat (B) Mumbai (C) Vinay (D) Cannot be determined
(C) Delhi (D) Osmania Sol. (D) In this question ranking of Karan is not defined.
Ex 3. Who teaches botany ? Consequently, either Ram or Karan occupies the
(A) Dr. Zia (B) Dr. Davar top position with regard to height. Hence,
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Natrajan option (d) is the correct choice.

Ex 4. Who is from Osmania University ?
(A) Dr. Natrajan (B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Zia
Ex 5. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(A) Delhi University - Dr. Zia
(B) Dr. Choudhary - geology
(C) Dr. Davar - Mumbai University
(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University
Sol. : (1 to 5)
From the given information in the question :
From II, we get Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in
Mumbai University.
From III, We get Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania
nor in Delhi University. Therefore, he will be either
at Mumbai or Gujarat University. Similarly, as he Ex 7.
teaches neither geology nor history, therefore, he
must be teaching physics or botany. ..........(1)
From IV, Dr. Zia Physics but as he is not teaching
in either Mumbai or Osmania University, he must
be teaching either in Delhi or Gujarat University...(2) Sol.
Form V, we get Dr Joshi teaches history in Delhi
University Form (1) and (2), we conclude that Dr
Natarajan teaches botany. And from (1), (2) and VI,
we get both Natarajan and Zia teach in Gujarat
University. Finally, On summarisation we can
prepare the following table.
Directions : (7 to 11) Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it :
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women
P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates; C, D,
P, Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers.
Some teams are to be selected from amongst
these eleven persons subject to the following
conditions :
A, P and U have to be together.
B cannot go with D or R.
E and Q have to be together.
C and T have to be together.
D and P cannot go together.
C cannot go with Q.
If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two
lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the
team are
(A) A B P Q U (B) A B P U S
(C) A P R S U (D) B E Q R S
(B) The male advocates are A and B, lady doctors
are P, Q and S ; teachers are E, T and U.
Now, A and B will be selected.
A, P and U have to be together. Now, we have to
select one lady doctor more. It can be Q or S. But Q
and E have to be together. Since E is not selected,
so S will be selected. Thus, the team is A B P U S.

PAGE # 77
Ex 8. If the team is to consist of one advocate, two Directions : (12 to 15) Read the following paragraph
carefully :
doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T,
Four women A, B, C and D and three men E, F and
the members of the team are : G play bridge, a game for four players.
(A) A E P Q S U (B) A E P Q T U (i) The group consists of three married couples
(C) B E Q S T U (D) E Q R S T U and a widow.
(ii) Spouses are never partners in a game.
Sol. (B) The advocates are A, B and R ; doctors are
(iii) No more than one married couple ever plays in
C, D, P, Q, S ; teachers are E, T and U. The team the same game.
consists of 3 teachers i.e. E, T, U. Now, A, P and U (iv) One day they played four games as follows.
have to be together. E and Q have to be together. A and E versus B and F.
A and G versus D and F.
Thus, the team is A E P Q T U. B and C versus F and G.
C and E versus D and G.
Ex 9. If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one
male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers, the Ex 12. Whom is E married to ?
members of the team are : (A) A (B) B
(A) A C P T U (B) A D E P T (C) C (D) D
(C) A D E P U (D) B C E Q U Ex 13. Whom is F married to ?
Sol. (A) The male advocates are A and B ; male doctors (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
are C and D ; lady doctors are P, Q and S ; teachers
are E, T and U. If A is selected, P and U will be Ex 14. Whom is G married to ?
selected. D and P cannot go together. So, a male (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
doctor C will be selected. C and T have to be
together. Thus, the team is A C P T U. If B is Ex 15. Which of the following is a widow ?
(A) A (B) B
selected, D will not be selected. So, male doctor C
(C) C (D) D
will be chosen. C and T have to be together. Now,
Sol. : (12 to 15)
the second teacher to be selected is E or U. But, U
From (iv), is married either to A or to C. If F is married
cannot go without A. So, E will be selected. E and Q to A, then G is married to B or to C. If G is married to
have to be together. Thus, the team can also be B, then E is married to D ; if G is married to C, then
B C E Q T. E is married to B or to D. If F is married to C, then G
is married to B ; then E is married to D. Hence, the
Ex 10. If the team is to consist of one advocate, three married couples are : FA, GB, ED or FA, GC, EB or
FA, GC, ED or FC, GB, ED. Of these, only FA, GB,
doctors and one male teacher, the members of ED does not contradict any of the statements.
the team are:
12. (D) E is married to D.
(A) A D P S U (B) C D R S T
(C) D E Q R S (D) D E Q R T 13. (A) F is married to A.
Sol. (C) The advocates are A, B and R ; the doctors are 14. (B) G is married to B.
C, D, P, Q and S ; male teacher is E. Clearly, E will
15. (C) C is a widow.
be selected. E and Q have to be together. C and Q
cannot be together. So, C will not be selected. P Ex 16. A vagabond runs out of cigarettes. He searches for
the stubs, having learnt that 7 stubs can make a
also cannot be selected because U is not selected.
new cigarette, good enough to be smoked, he
So, two other doctors D and S will be selected. P is gathers 49 stubs, If he smokes 1 cigarette every
not selected, so A will not be selected. D is three - quarters of an hour, how long will his supply
selected, so B cannot be selected. Thus, the team last ?
(A) 5.25 hr (B) 6 hr
is D E Q R S.
(C) 4.5 hr (D) 3 hr
Ex 11. If the team is to consist of two advocates, two Sol. 49
(B) He has got = 7 cigarettes.
doctors, two teachers and not more than three 7
The duration of time he will take to smoke these
ladies, the members of the team are :
3
(A) A B C P T U (B) A C P R T U 7 cigarettes = 7 hr = 5.25 hr (i.e. 5 hr and 15
4
(C) A E P Q R T (D) B C E Q R T min). Now note that after he has smoked these 7
Sol. (A) A C P R T U and A E P Q R T are wrong because cigarettes, he will collect 7 more stubs (one form
each of these combinations consists of four ladies. each), form which he will be able to make another

B C E Q R T is incorrect because B and R cannot 3

cigarette. This will take him another hr (45 min)
go together. 4
to smoke. Therefore, total time taken = 6hr.

PAGE # 78
Directions : (17 to 18) Read the following information and 1. Who stays in locality Q ?
answer the questions that follow. (A) A (B) B
There are 70 clerks working with M/s. Jha Lal (C) C (D) E
Khanna & Co. chartered accountants, of which 30
are female. 2. What is Es occupation ?
(i) 30 clerks are married. (A) Business (B) Engineer
(ii) 24 clerks are above 25 years of age (C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
(iii) 19 Married clerks are above 25 years of age;
among them 7 are males. 3. Agewise who among the following lies between A
(iv) 12 males are above 25 years of age and C ?
(v) 15 males are married. (A) Lawyer (B) Doctor
Ex 17. How many unmarried girls are there ? (C) Cloth merchant (D) Engineer
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 18 (D) 10 4. What is Bs occupation ?
(A) Business (B) Engineer
Ex 18. How many of these unmarried girls are above 25 ? (C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 4 (D) 0 5. What is Cs occupation ?
Sol. (17 to 18) : From the given data, we can make the (A) Doctor (B) Lawyer
following table with the help of which rest of the (C) Engineer (D) Business
questions can be solved very easily.
Directions : (6 to 10) Study the given information carefully
Male (40) Female (30)
and answer the questions that follow.
Above 25 There are four people sitting in a row : one each
Married 7 12 from India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in
Unmarried 5 0 that order,
. They are wearing caps of different colours - green,
Below 25
yellow, red and white, not necessarily in that order.
married 8 3 II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.
unmarried 20 15 III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
IV. The American is not seated at either end.
Total 40 30
V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting
next to each other.
17. There are 15 unmarried girls. VI. The persons with kurta wears a red cap and
18. In these 15 unmarried girls no one is above 25. sits next to the Japanese.
VII. The Japanese wears a shirt and is not seated
at either end.
EXERCISE VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is
seated at one end.

Directions : (1 to 5) Study the following information carefully 6. Who wears the T-shirt ?
and answer the questions given below it : (A) Indian (B) Japanese
There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. Two of them
(C) American (D) German
are businessmen while the other three belong to
different occupations viz. medical, engineer and 7. Who is wearing a kurta ?
legal. One businessman and the lawyer stay in
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
the same locality S, while the other three stay in
(C) American (D) German
three different localities P, Q and R. Two of these
five persons are Hindus while the remaining three 8. What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?
come from three different communities viz. Muslim,
(A) Red (B) Green
Christian and Shikh. The lawyer is the oldest in
(C) Yellow (D) White
age while one of the businessmen who runs a
factory is the youngest. The other businessman is 9. Who precedes the man wearing T-shirt ?
a cloth merchant and agewise lies between the
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
doctor and the lawyer. D is a cloth merchant and
(C) American (D) German
stays in locality S while E is a Muslim and stays in
locality R. The doctor is a Christian and stays in
10. Who precedes the man wearing jacket ?
locality P, B is a Shikh while A is a Hindu and runs
(A) Indian (B) German
a factory.
(C) Japanese (D) Cannot say

PAGE # 79
Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information Directions : (19 to 23) Read the information given below
carefully and answer the questions that follow. and answer the questions.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a The age and height of six children in a class are as
group. Each student can opt for only three choices follows :
out of the six which are music, reading, painting, (i) A is taller and older than B but shorter and
badminton, cricket and tennis. younger than C.
II. A, C and F like reading. (ii) D is taller than E who is not as tall as B.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music. (iii) The oldest is the shortest.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music. (iv) The youngest would be fourth if the children
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket. stood in a line according to their height and one
VI. All student except one like badminton. started counting from the tallest.
VII. Two students like tennis. (v) D is younger than F but older than E who is
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis. older than C.

11. Which pair of students has the same combination 19. Who among them is the tallest ?
of choices ? (A) B (B) E
(A) A and C (B) C and D (C) C (D) Data inadequate
(C) B and E (D) D and F
20. Who is older than B but younger than C ?
12. Who among the following students likes both (A) F (B) D
tennis and cricket ? (C) A (D) Data inadequate
(A) A and B (B) C
(C) B and D (D) D 21. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(A) D is the most old person
13. How many students like painting and badminton ? (B) B has the max. height
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) A is older than D
(C) 3 (D) 4 (D) F is the shortest
14. Who among the following do not like music ? 22. Which of the following is the correct order of height
(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C in descending order?
(C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F (A) A, C, D, B, E, F (B) F, D, E, C, A, B
(C) D, C, A, B, E, F (D) C, D, A, B, E, F
15. Which of the following is the most popular choice?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton 23. W hose Rank in height cannot be positioned
(C) Reading (D) Painting definitely ?
(A) B (B) D
16. R earns more than H but not as much as T, M
(C) C (D) E
earns more than R. Who earns least among
them? Directions : (24 to 28) Study the information given below
(A) R (B) T and answer the questions that follow.
(C) H (D) M (i) Six Plays P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be organised
from Monday to Saturday i.e. 10 to 15 one play each
17. Harish is taller than Manish but shorter than
Suresh. Manish is shorter than Anil but taller than day.
Raghu. Who among them is the shortest having (ii) There are two plays between R and S and one
regard to height ? play between P and R.
(A) Anil (B) Manish (iii) There is one play between U and T and T is to
(C) Raghu (D) Cannot be determined be organised before U.
(iv) Q is to be organised before P, not necessarily
Direction : (18) Examine the following statements : immediately.
I. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older (v) The organisation does not start with Q.
than B.
II. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older 24. The organisation would start from which play ?
than C. (A) P (B) S
III. B is older than C. (C) T (D) None

18. Which one of the following conclusions can be 25. On which date is play T to be organised ?
drawn from the above statements ? (A) 10th (B) 11th
th
(A) A is older than B (C) 12 (D) None
(B) B and D are of the same age 26. The organisation would end with which play ?
(C) D is older than C (A) P (B) Q
(D) A is older than C (C) S (D) None

PAGE # 80
27. Which day is play Q organised ? 31. If it is sure that Henna will go to the fair, then who
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday among the following will definitely go ?
(C) Thursday (D) None (A) Rama (B) Shamma
(C) Reena (D) Rama and Reena
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
organising plays ? 32. If Tina does not go to the fair, which of the following
(A) PTRUQS (B) QSTURP statements must be true ?
(C) SUTRQP (D) None (i) Henna cannot go
(ii) Shamma cannot go
Directions : (29 to 30) Read the following information
(iii) Reena cannot go
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
(iv) Rama cannot go
I. Seven books are placed one above the other in a
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
particular way .
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
II. The history book is placed directly above the
civics book. Directions : (33 to 37) Read the following paragraph
III. The geography book is fourth from the bottom carefully and choose the correct alternative.
and the English book is fifth from the top. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently
IV. There are two books in between the civics and consists of three females A, B, C and five males D,
economics books. E, F, G and H. The management is planning to
29. To find the number of books between the civics open a new office in another city using three males
and the science books, which other extra piece of and two females of the present staff. To do so they
information is required, from the following ? plan to separate certain individuals who do not
(A) There are two books between the geography function well together. The following guidelines
and the science books. were established
(B) There are two books between the mathematics I. Females A and C are not to be together
and the geography books . II. C and E should be separated
(C) There is one book between the English and III. D and G should be separated
the science books. IV. D and F should not be part of a team.
(D) The civics book is placed before two books
33. If A is chosen to be moved, which of the following
above the economics book.
cannot be a team ?
30. To know which three books are kept above the (A) ABDEH (B) ABDGH
English book, which of the following additional (C) ABEFH (D) ABEGH
pieces of information, if any, is required?
(A) The economics book is between the English 34. If C and F are to be moved to the new office, how
and the science books. many combinations are possible ?
(B) There are two books between the English and (A) 1 (B) 2
the history books. (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) The geography book is above the English book.
35. If C is chosen to the new office, which number of
(D) No other information is required.
the staff cannot be chosen to go with C ?
Directions : (31 to 32) A five-member team that includes (A) B (B) D
Rama, Shamma, Henna, Reena, and Tina, is (C) F (D) G
planning to go to a science fair but each of them
36. Under the guidelines, which of the following must
put up certain conditions for going .They are as
be chosen to go to the new office ?
follows.
(A) B (B) D
I. If Rama goes, then at least one amongst
(C) E (D) G
Shamma and Henna must go.
II. If Shamma goes, then Reena will not go.
37. If D goes to the new office, which of the following
III. If Henna will go, then Tina must go.
is/are true ?
IV. If Reena goes, then - Henna must go.
I. C cannot be chosen
V. If Tina goes, then Rama must go but Shamma
II. A cannot be chosen
cannot go.
III. H must be chosen.
VI. If Reena plans not to go the fair, then Rama will
(A) I only (B) II only
also not go.
(C) I and II only (D) I and III only

PAGE # 81
Directions : (38 to 42) Study the following information Directions : (45 to 49) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions that follow : carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There is a family of six persons- L, M, N, O, P
A team of five is to be selected from amongst five
and Q. They are professor, businessman,
boys A, B, C, D and E and four girls P, Q, R and S.
chartered account, bank manager, engineer and
Some criteria for selection are : medical representative, not necessarily in that
A and S have to be together order.
P cannot be put with R. (ii) There are two married couples in the family.
D and Q cannot go together. (iii) O, the bank manager is married to the lady
C and E have to be together. professor.
(iv) Q, the medical representative, is the son of M
R cannot be put with B.
and brother of P.
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are (v) N, the chartered accountant, is the daughter - in
applicable to all the questions below : law of L.
(vi) The businessman is married to the chartered
38. If two of the members have to be boys, the team acconuntant.
will consist of : (vii) P is an unmarried engineer.
(A) A B S P Q (B) A D S Q R (viii) L is the grandmother of Q
(C) B D S R Q (D) C E S P Q
45. How is P related to Q.
(A) Brother (B) Sister
39. If R be one of the members, the other members of
(C) Cousin (D) Either brother or sister
the team are :
(A) P S A D (B) Q S A D 46. Which of the following is the profession of M ?
(C) Q S C E (D) S A C E (A) Professor
(B) Chartered accountant
40. If two of the members are girls and D is one of the (C) Businessman
members, the members of the team other than D (D) Medical representative
are : 47. Which of the following is the profession of L ?
(A) P Q B C (B) P Q C E (A) Professor (B) Charted accountant
(C) P S A B (D) P S C E (C) Businessman (D) Engineer

41. If A and C are members, the other members of the 48. Which of the following is one of the couples ?
(A) QO (B) OM
team cannot be :
(C) PL (D) None of these
(A) B E S (B) D E S
(C) E S P (D) P Q E 49. How is O related to Q?
(A) Father (B) Grandfather
42. If including P at least three members are girls, the (C) Uncle (D) Brother
members of the team other than P are :
Directions : (50 to 54)
(A) Q S A B (B) Q S B D I. There is a group of six persons P,Q, R, S, T and U
(C) Q S C E (D) R S A D from a family. They are Psychologist, Manager,
Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
Directions : (43 to 44) Read the given information carefully II. The Doctor is grandfather of U, who is a
and answer the questions that follow : Psychologist.
Ratan, Anil, Pinku and Gaurav are brothers of Rakhi, III. The Manager S is married to P.
Sangeeta, Pooja and Saroj, not necessarily in that IV. R, the Jeweller is married to the Lawyer.
V. Q is the mother of U and T.
order. Each boy has one sister and the names of
VI. There are two married couples in the family.
bothers and sisters do not begin with the same
letter. Pinku and Gaurav are not Sarojs or 50. What is the profession of T ?
Sangeetas brothers. Saroj is not Ratans sister. (A) Doctor (B) Jeweller
(C) Manager (D) None of these
43. Poojas brother is
51. How is P related to T ?
(A) Ratan (B) Anil
(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Pinku (D) Gaurav (C) Father (D) Grandfather

44. Which of the following are brother and sister ? 52. How many male members are their in the family ?
(A) Ratan and Pooja (B) Anil and Saroj (A) One (B) Three
(C) Pinku and Sangeeta (D) Gaurav and Rakhi (C) Four (D) Data inadequate

PAGE # 82
53. What is the profession of P ? III. Two persons from the same side of the roads
(A) Doctor (B) Lawyer cannot move in consecutive movements.
(C) Jeweller (D) Manager
IV. If one person crosses the road in a particular
54. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples movement, he or she cannot immediately move
in the family ? back to the other side.
(A) PQ (B) PR V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3
(C) PS (D) Cannot be determined movements.
Direction : (55) The ages of Mandar, Shivku, Pawan and
56. W hat is the minimum possible number of
Chandra are 32, 21, 35 and 29 years, not in order,
Whenever asked they lie of their own age but tell movements that took place in the entire game ?
the truth abut others. (A) 3 (B) 4
(i) Pawan says, My age is 32 and Mandars age is (C) 5 (D) 6
not 35
(ii) Shivku says, My age is not 2 9 and Pawans 57. If number of movements are minimised in the
age in not 21 game, then which of the following combination of
(iii) Mandar says, My age is 32. friends can never be together on one particular
55. What is Chandras age ? side of the road during the course of the game ?
(A) 32 years (B) 35 years (A) Nitin, Reema amd Deepti
(C) 29 years (D) 21 years (B) Nitin, Jai and Deepti
(C) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh
Directions : (56 to 57) Answer the questions on the basis
(D) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti
of the information given below. 5 friends Nitin,
Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a
58. You have 12 similar looking coins. 11 of them weigh
game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin,
Reema and Ashutosh are on the one side of the the same. One of them has a different weight, but
road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At you dont know whether it is heavier or lighter. You
the end of the game, it was found that Reema and also have a scale. You can put coins on both sides
Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and of the scale and itll tell you which side is heavier or
Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules will stay in the middle if both sides weigh the same.
of the game are as follows : What is the minimum number of weighing required
I. One movement means only one person crosses
to find out the odd coin.
the road from any side to the other side.
II. No two persons can cross the road (A) 3 (B) 4
simultaneously from any side to the other side. (C) 5 (D) 6

PAGE # 83
 CALENDAR AND CLOCK TEST
Similarly, 200 years = 10 odd days = 03 odd days
15
300 years = = 1 odd day..
We are to find the day of the week on a mentioned 7
date. Certain concepts are defined as under. 20 1
400 years = = 0 odd day (1 is added as 400
7
An ordinary year has 365 days. is a leap year)
Similarly, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 2400 years
In an ordinary year, first and last day of the year are
contain 0 odd days.
same.
After counting the odd days, we find the day
A leap year has 366 days. Every year which is according to the number of odd days.
divisible by 4 is called a leap year. For example
Sunday for 0 odd day, Monday for 1 odd day and so
1200, 1600, 1992, 2004, etc. are all leap years.
on as shown in the following table.
For a leap year, if first day is Monday than last day Table : 1 (Odd days for week days)
will be Tuesday for the same year.
Days Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
In a leap year, February is of 29 days but in an
ordinary year, it has only 28 days.
Odd Days 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Year ending in 00's but not divisiable by 400 is not
considered a leap year. e.g., 900, 1000, 1100, 1300, Table : 2 (Odd days for months in a year)
1400, 1500, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2100 are not leap Ordinary Odd Odd
years. Days Leap year Days
Year Days Days

The day on which calendar started (or the very first January 31 3 January 31 3

day ) i.e., 1 Jan, 0001 was Monday. February 28 0 February 29 1

March 31 3 March 31 3
Calendar year is from 1 Jan to 31 Dec. Financial
April 30 2 April 30 2
year is from 1 April to 31 March.
May 31 3 May 31 3
June 30 2 June 30 2
ODD DAYS
Total 181 days 6 Total 182 days 0

The no. of days exceeding the complete no. of July 31 3 July 31 3

weeks in a duration is the no. of odd days during August 31 3 August 31 3

that duration. September 30 2 September 30 2
October 31 3 October 31 3
COUNTING OF ODD DAYS November 30 2 November 30 2
December 31 3 December 31 3
Every ordinary year has 365 days = 52 weeks +1 day. Total 184 days 1 Total 184 days 2
Ordinary year has 1 odd day.
Table : 3 (Odd days for every quarter)
Every leap year 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 days.
Leap year has 2 odd days. M onths
I st three IInd three IIIrd three Iv th three
Total year
m onths m onths m onths m onths
of 1 Jan to
Odd days of 100 years = 5, 1 Jan to 1 Apr to 1 July to 1 Oct. to
years 31 Dec.
31 M arch 30 June 30 Sep. 31 Dec.
Odd days of 200 years = 3,
Odd days of 300 years = 1, 90 / 91 365 / 366
Total days 91 92 92
Ord. / Leap Ord. / Leap
Odd days of 400 years = 0. 6 /0 0 1 1 1 /2
Odd days
Ord. / Leap O dd day Odd day Odd day Ord. / Leap
Explanation :
100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years Ex 1. If it was Saturday on 17th December 1982 what
( The year 100 is not a leap year) will be the day on 22nd December 1984 ?
= 76 odd days + 2 24 odd days = 124 odd days. Sol. Total number of odd days between 17 Dec.1982
to 17 Dec.1984 the number of odd days = 1+2 = 3.
124
Odd days = = 5 odd days. From 17 to 22 Dec. number of odd days = 5
7 3 + 5 = 8 odd days = 1 odd day.
Saturday + 1 odd day = Sunday.

PAGE # 84
Ex 2. Find the day of the week on 16 January, 1969.
Sol. 1600 years have 0 odd day. .....................(A)
300 years have 1 odd day. ......................(B) Sol.
68 years have 17 leap years and 51 ordinary years.
Thus = (17 2 + 51 1 ) = 85 odd days
' 01' odd day ...(C)
16 January has = ' 02' odd days..(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 01 +01 +02 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday
Ex 3. Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap Sol.
year).
Sol. Here 1600 years have 0 odd day.....................(A)
100 years have 5 odd days..............................(B)
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years)
= (18 2 + 57 1)
= 93 odd days
= (7 13 + 2) = 2 odd days.............................(C)
Now, the no. of days from 1st January to 18 July,
1776
= 182 + 18 = 200 days
= (28 7 + 4) days = 4 odd days.....................(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 5 + 2 + 4 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday
Ex 4. On what dates of October, 1975 did Tuesday fall ?
Sol. For determining the dates, we find the day on 1st
Oct, 1975.
1600 years have 0 odd days.....................(A).
300 years have 01 odd days.....................(B).
74 years have (18 leap years + 56 ordinary years)
2 18 + 1 56 = 92 odd days
= 01 odd days.............(C)
Days from 1st January to 1st Oct., 1975
1st Jan 30 June + 1st July to 1st Oct.
181 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 1 = 274 days
= 01 odd days......(D) (274/7= 01 days)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D) = 0 + 01 +01 +01
= '03' odd days
Ans. Wednesday( 1st Oct), hence 7,14,21,28 Oct. will
Tuesday fall.
Ex 5. Calendar for 1995 will serve for 2006, prove ?
Sol. The Calendar for 1995 and 2006 will be the same
,if day on 1st January of both the years is the same.
This is possible only if the total odd days between
31st Dec. 1994 and 31st Dec.2005 is 0. [one day
before both the years as we want to know the day
on 1st January of both the years i.e. same]
During this period, we have
3 leap years
(1996, 2000, 2004) and
08 ordinary years
(1995,1997,1998,1999, 2001, 2002, 2003,2005)
Total odd days = (2 3 + 1 8) = 14 = 0 odd
days (Thus Proved)
Ex 6. The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar
will be -
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
2 1 1 1 2
Total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 7= 0 odd days
Hence, year 2001 will have the same calendar as
year 1996.
Ex 7. Prove that last day of a century cannot be Tuesday,
Thursday or Saturday.
100 years have = 5 odd days
Last day of st century is Friday
200 years have = 10 odd days
Last day of IInd century is Wednesday
= 3 odd days
300 years have = 15 odd days
Last day of rd century is Monday
= 01 odd day
400 years have = (5 4 + 1)
Last day of 4th century is Sunday
= 21 odd days
= 0 odd days
Since the order keeps on cycling, we see that the
last day of the century cannot be Tuesday, Thursday
or Saturday.
Important Notes :
Minute hand and hour hand coincides once in every
hour. They coincide 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.
They coincide only one time between 11 to 1 O
clock. at 12 O clock.
Minute hand and hour hand are opposite once in
every hour. They do it 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.
They opposite only one time between 5 to 7 O
clock. at 6 O clock.
Both hands (minute and hour) are perpendicular
twice in every hour. 22 times in 12 hours and 44
times in 24 hours.
In one minute, hour hand moves 1/2 and minute
hand moves 6. In one hour, hour hand moves 30
and minute hand moves 360.
In an hour, minute hand moves 55 minutes ahead
of hour hand.
PAGE # 85
 Case-II When the time taken (20 + 15) = 35 min.
HANDS COINCIDE
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Ex.8 At what time between 3 OClock and 4 OClock will 60 min.
the two hands coincide ? Minute hand is 35 min. ahead of hour hand in
Sol. At 3 Oclock the distance between the two hands is 60 35 420 2
= = 38 min.
15 minutes when they coincide with each other the 55 11 11
distance between the two hands will be 0 min. 2
Hence, the right time is 38 min. past 4.
So, the time taken (15 + 0 ) = 15 minutes. 11
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min. MIRROR IMAGE OF CLOCK
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
55 If the time is between 1 Oclock to 11 Oclock, then
Minute hand is 15 min. ahead of hour hand in to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
11 : 60.
60 15 180 4
= = 16 min.
55 11 11 If the time is between 11 Oclock to 1 Oclock, then
4 to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
Hence the right time is 16 minute past 3.
11 23 : 60.

HANDS ARE OPPOSITE Ex.11 The time in the clock is 4 : 46, what is the mirror image ?
Sol. (11 : 60) (4 : 46) = 7 : 14.
Ex.9 At what time between 2 Oclock and 3 Oclock will
Ex.12 The time in the clock is 12 : 35, then find its mirror
the two hands be opposite ?
image.
Sol. At 2 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
Sol. (23 : 60) (12 : 35) = 11 : 25.
10 minutes. When they are at 30 minutes distance,
they are opposite to each other. The time taken
(30 + 10 ) = 40 min.
TO FIND THE ANGLE BETWEEN TWO HANDS
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Angle are of two types :
60 min.
Positive angle : It is obtained by moving from hour
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
hand to minute hand moving in clockwise direction.
60
min. Negative angle : It is obtained by moving from
55
Minute hand is 40 minutes ahead of hour hand minute hand to hour hand.
60 40 480 7 Both types of angles are 360 in total. If one angle
in = = 43 min.
55 11 11 is known, other can be obtained by subtracting from
7 360.
Hence, the right time is 43 min. past 2.
11
Ex.13 At 4 : 30, what is the angle formed between hour
HANDS ARE PERPENDICULAR hand and minute hand ?
Sol. At 4 O clock angle between hour and min. hand is
Ex.10 At what time between 4 Oclock and 5 Oclock will of 120.
the hands are perpendicular ? In 30 min. minute hand make an angle of 180.
Sol. At 4 Oclock the distance between the two hands is So, the resultant angle is 180 120 = 60.
20 min. When they are at 15 minutes distance, But in 30 min. hour hand will also cover an angle of 15.
they are perpendicular to each other.
Hence, the final angle between both hands is
Case-I When the time taken (20 15) = 5 min. 60 15 = 45.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Short trick
60 min.
Minute hand is 5 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 5 60 5
= = 5 min.
55 11 11
5
Hence, the right time is 5 min. past 4.
11

PAGE # 86
 9. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day
will fall on the day after tomorrow ?
(A) Friday (B) Thursday
Ex.14 A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus
stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday
had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will
leave at 9.35 A.M. At what time did the enquiry clerk 10. If February 1, 1996 is Wednesday, what day is March
give this information to the passenger ? 10, 1996 ?
Sol. Bus leaves after every 30 minutes. (A) Monday (B) Sunday
The next bus will leave at 9 : 35 A.M. (C) Saturday (D) Friday
The last bus left at 9 : 35 0 : 30 = 9 : 05 A.M.
but clerk said that bus had left 10 minutes earlier. 11. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier
9 : 05 + 0 : 10 = 9 : 15 A.M.
than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth
day of the month ?
EXERCISE (A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday (D) Friday
1. Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950.
12. Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday
to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
week is today ?
2. W hich two months in a year have the same (A) Thursday (B) Saturday
calendar ? (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
(A) June, October (B) April, November
13. At what time are the hands of a clock together
(C) April, July (D) October, December
between 5 and 6 ?
3. Are the years 900 and 1000 leap years ?
3 3
(A) Yes (B) No (A) 33 min. past 5 (B) 28 min. past 5
11 11
(C) Can't say (D) None of these
3 3
4. If it was Saturday on 17th November, 1962 what (C) 27 min. past 5 (D) 26 min. past 5
11 11
will be the day on 22nd November, 1964 ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday
14. At what time between 9 and 10 will the hands of a
(C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
clock be in the straight line, but not together ?
5. Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday (A) 16 minutes past 9
was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of 4
(B) 16 minutes past 9
December. Her sister Natasha remembers that 11
their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but 6
(C) 16 minutes past 9
before fourteenth of December. On which date of 11
9
December was their father's birthday ? (D) 16 minutes past 9
11
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) Data inadequate 15. At what time between 5 & 5 : 30 will the hands of a
clock be at right angle ?
6. Find the day of the week on 15 August, 1947.
10
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday (A) 10 minutes past 5
11
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday 5
(B) 11 minutes past 5
11
7. Karan was born on Saturday 22nd March 1982. On
10
what day of the week was he 14 years 7 months (C) 9 minutes past 5
11
and 8 days of age ? 9
(A) Sunday (B) Tuesday (D) 10 minutes past 5
11
(C) Wednesday (D) Monday
16. Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier
8. If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, what than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop.
day of the week will fall on 10th Dec. of the same He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does
year ? he usually leave home for the bus stop ?
(A) Friday (B) Wednesday (A) 8.30 a.m. (B) 8.45 a.m.
(C) Thursday (D) Tuesday (C) 8.55 a.m. (D) Data inadequate

PAGE # 87
17. The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is 26. The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half
rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last hours from New Delhi Railway Station. An
bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is announcement was made at the station that the
due to be rung at 7.45 a.m." At what time did the train for Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the
priest give this information to the devotee ? next train will leave at 18. 00 hrs. At what time was
(A) 7.40 a.m. (B) 7.05 a.m.
the announcement made ?
(C) 6.55 a.m. (D) None of these
(A) 15.30 hrs (B) 17.10 hrs
18. There are twenty people working in an office. The (C) 16.00 hrs (D) None of these
first group of five works between 8.00 A.M. and 2.00
P.M. The second group of ten works between 10.00 27. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each
A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the third group of five works hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20
between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three feet before he again starts climbing in the
computers in the office which all the employees beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent
frequently use. During which of the following hours at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at
the computers are likely to be used most ? 120 feet from the ground ?
(A) 10.00 A.M. 12 noon (A) 4 p.m. (B) 5 p.m.
(B) 12 noon 2.00 P.M. (C) 6 p.m. (D) None of these
(C) 1.00 P.M. 3.00 P.M.
(D) 2.00 P.M. 4.00 P.M. 28. If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00 noon
at correct time, when will both the watches show
19. A tired worker slept at 7.45 p.m.. If he rose at 12
the correct time for the first time given that the first
noon, for how many hours did he sleep ?
watch gains 1 min in 1 hour and second watch
(A) 5 hours 15 min. (B) 16 hours 15 min.
(C) 12 hours (D) 6 hours 45 min. loses 4 min in 2 hours :
(A) 6 pm, 25 days later
20. How many times are the hands of a clocks (B) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later
perpendicular in a day ? (C) 12 noon, 15 days later
(A) 42 (B) 48 (D) 6 am 45 days later
(C) 44 (D) 46
29. Rajeev and Sanjeev are too close friends Rajeev's
21. If a clock shows 04: 28 then its mirror image will
watch gains 1 minute in an hour and Sanjeev's
be ?
watch loses 2 minutes in an hour. Once they set
(A) 07: 42 (B) 07: 32
(C) 08: 32 (D) 08: 42 both the watches at 12 : 00 noon, with my correct
watch. When will the two incorrect watches of
22. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow Rajeev and Sanjeev show the same time together?
at noon on Monday and is 3 minutes 48 seconds (A) 8 days later (B) 10 days later
fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. What time it (C) 6 days later (D) can't be determined
was correct ?
(A) 2 p.m. On Tuesday 30. At a railway station a 24 hour watch loses 3 minutes
(B) 2 p.m. On Wednesday in 4 hours. If it is set correctly on Sunday noon
(C) 3 p.m. On Thursday when will the watch show the correct time ?
(D) 1 p.m. On Friday. (A) 6 pm after 40 days
23. How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide (B) 12 noon after 75 days
in a day ? (C) 12 pm after 100 days
(A) 10 (B) 11 (D) 12 noon after 80 days
(C) 12 (D) 22
31. A swiss watch is being shown in a museum which
24. At what time between 2 and 3 O clock the hands of has a very peculiar property. It gains as much in
a clock will make an angle of 160 ? the day as it loses during night between 8 pm to 8
(A) 20 minutes past 2 (B) 30 minutes past 2 am. In a week how many times will the clock show
(C) 40 minutes past 2 (D) 50 minutes past 2 the correct time ?
25. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in (A) 6 times (B) 14 times
the morning, reaches Kunals house in 25 minutes, (C) 7 times (D) 8 times
they finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes
and leave for their office which takes another 35 32. A wrist watch which is running 12 minutes late on
minutes. At what time do they leave Kunals house a Sunday noon is 16 minutes ahead of the correct
to reach their office ? time at 12 noon on the next Sunday. When is the
(A) 7.40 am (B) 7.20 am clock 8 minutes ahead of time ?
(C) 7.45 am (D) 8.15 am (A) Thursday 10 am (B) Friday noon
(C) Friday 8 pm (D) Tuesday noon

PAGE # 88
33. A clock loses 2 minutes in a hour and another clock 38. Kumbhakarna starts sleeping between 1 pm and
gains 2 minutes in every 2 hours. Both these clocks 2 pm and he wakes up when his watch shows
are set correctly at a certain time on Sunday and
such a time that the two hands (i.e., hour-hand
both the clocks stop simultaneously on the next
and minute-hand) interchange the respective
day with the time shown being 9 am and 10 : 06
AM. What is the correct time at which they stopped? places. He wakes up between 2 pm and 3 PM on
(A) 9 : 54 am (B) 9 : 44 pm the same night. How long does he sleep ?
(C) 9 : 46 am (D) 9 : 44 am 5 10
(A) 55 min (B) 110 min
13 13
34. David sets his watch at 6 : 10 am on Sunday, which
6
gains 12 minutes in a day. On Wednesday if this (C) 54 min (D) None of these
13
watch is showing 2 : 50 pm. What is the correct
time ? 39. A clock loses 3% time during the first week and
(A) 1 : 50 pm (B) 2 : 10 pm
then gains 2% time during the next one week. If the
(C) 2 : 30 pm (D) 3 : 30 pm
clock was set right at 12 noon on a Sunday, what
35. Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch will be the time that the clock will show exactly 14
which is very costly. In this watch the minute-hand days from the time it was set right ?
3 (A) 1 : 36 : 48 (B) 1 : 40 : 48
and hour hand coincide after every 65 minutes.
11
How much time does the watch lose or gain per (C) 1 : 41 : 24 (D) 10 : 19 : 12
day ?
Direction : (40 to 41) A 12 dial clock has its minute hand
(A) 4 min (B) 5 min
(C) 4 min, 20 sec (D) none of these defective. W henever it touches dial 12, it
immediately falls down to 6 instead of running
36 My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday smoothly (the hour hand remains unaffected during
but within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was 7
that fall). It was set right at 12 O clock in the noon.
minutes ahead of time. During this period at which
time this watch has shown the correct time :
40. What was the actual time when the minute hand of
(A) Tuesday 10 : 24 am
the clock touched dial 9 for the 5th time?
(B) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm
(C) It cannot show the correct time during this period (A) 2 : 15 (B) 3 : 00
(D) None of the above (C) 5 : 15 (D) 6 : 45

37. Out of the following four choices which does not 41. If the actual time is 10 : 10, what is the position of
show the coinciding of the hour hand and minute- the hour hand in that defective clock ?
hand : (A) Between 2 and 3 (B) Between 4 and 5
(A) 3 : 16 : 2 (B) 6 : 32 : 43
(C) Between 10 and 11 (D) Between 3 and 4
(C) 9 : 59 : 05 (D) 5 : 27 : 16

PAGE # 89
 CUBE AND DICE-TEST

CUBES
A cube is three dimensional figure, having 8
corners, 6 surfaces and 12 edges. If a cube is
painted on all of its surfaces with any colour and
further divided into various smaller cubes, we get
following results. Smaller cubes with three
surfaces painted will be present on the corners of
the big cube.
side of big cube 4
Here n= 4
3 2 2 3
side of small cube 1
2 1 1 2
2 1 3
1 2
3 2 2 3
2
2 2
3 2 2 3 3
1 Ex 1. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
1
2 2 painted ?
2 1 1 2 1
1 3
2 1 1 2 2
2 (A) 4 (B) 8
2
3 2 2 3 3 (C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
Smaller cubes with two surface painted will be painted = 8
present on the edges of the big cube. Smaller
cubes with one surface painted will be present on Ex 2. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
the surfaces of the big cube. Smaller cubes with painted ?
no surface painted will be present inside the big (A) 4 (B) 8
cube.
(C) 16 (D) 24
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with a Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
colour and then divided into smaller cubes of equal
painted = (n 2) 12 = (4 2) 12 = 24
size then after separation, number of smaller cubes
so obtained will be calculated as under :
Ex 3. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8 painted ?
Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces (A) 8 (B) 16
painted = (n 2) 12 (C) 24 (D) 32
Number of smaller cubes with one surfaces
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = (n 2)2 6
Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted painted = (n 2)2 6 = (4 2)2 6 = 4 6 = 24
= (n 2)3
Ex 4. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted ?
Where n = No of divisions on the surfaces of the (A) 18 (B) 16
bigger cube
(C) 22 (D) 8
length of edge of big cube Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with no surface
=
length of edge of one smaller cube painted = (n 2)3 = (4 2)3 = (2)3 = 8

TYPE I
TYPE II
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with single
colour and then divided into various smaller cubes If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with
of equal size. different colours and then divided into various
Directions : ( 1 to 4) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on smaller cubes of equal size.
all of its surfaces and then divided into various
smaller cubes of side 1 cm each. The smaller Directions : ( 5 to 7 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on
cubes so obtained are separated. the pair of one opposite surfaces, blue on the pair
of another opposite surfaces and red on remaining
444
Total cubes of obtained = 64 pair of opposite surfaces. The cube is now divided
1 1 1
into smaller cubes of equal side of 1 cm each.

PAGE # 90
 Ex 9. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of cubes present at the corners
+ Numbers of cubes present at 4 edges
= 8 + (n 2) 4 = 8 + 8 = 16

Ex 5. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
(These smaller cubes will have all three surfaces
painted with different colour blue, black and red.)

Ex 6. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 Ex 10.
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted Sol.
with black and blue colour = 8.
(b) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with blue and red colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and red color = 8. Ex 11.
Ex 7. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with black colour =8.
(b) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with blue colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with red colour = 8.
TYPE III
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of opposite surfaces is left unpainted.
Directions : ( 8 to 11 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one opposite surfaces, green on the
pair of another opposite surfaces and one pair of
opposite surfaces is left unpainted. Now the cube
is divided into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
(D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = Number of cubes present at the 8 edges
+ number of cubes present at the four surfaces=
(n 2) 8 + (n 2)2 4
= 2 8 + 4 4 = 16 + 16 = 32
How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with no side painted
= Number of cubes on the two unpainted surfaces +
number of cubes present inside the cube.
= (n 2)2 2 + (n 2)3 = 4 2 + (2)3 = 8 + 8 = 16.
TYPE IV
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of adjacent surfaces is left unpainted.
Directions : (12 to 15 )A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one adjacent surfaces, green on the
pair of other adjacent surfaces and two adjacent
surfaces are left unpainted. Now the cube is divided
into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.

Ex 8. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 20
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces Ex 12. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted = 0 (Because each smaller cube at the painted ?
corner is attached to a surface which is unpainted.) (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6

PAGE # 91
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
Type-II
painted = Number of smaller cubes at two corners
=2 Ex 17. The figures given below show the two different
positions of a dice. Which number will appear
Ex 13. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces opposite to number 2 ?.
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 14
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four corners
(A) 3 (B) 4
+ Number of smaller cubes at 5 edges.
(C) 5 (D) 6
= 4 + (n 2) 5 = 4 + 2 5 Sol. (C) The above question,
= 4 + 10 = 14 where only two positions of
a dice are given, can easily
Ex 14. How many smaller cubes have only one surface be solved with the
painted ? following method.
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 30 Step I. The dice, when unfolded, will appear as shown in
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface the figure given on the right side.
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four Step II. Write the common number to both the dice in the
surfaces + Number of smaller cubes at 6 edges + middle block. Since common number is 4, hence
Number of smaller cubes at two corners. number 4 will appear in the central block.
= (n 2)2 4 + (n 2) 6 + 2 Step III. Consider the figure (i) and write the first number in
= 4 4 + 2 6 + 2 = 16 + 12 = 28 + 2 = 30 the anti-clockwise direction of number 4,
(common number) in block I and second number
Ex 15. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted in block II. Therefore, numbers 3 and 2 being the
? first and second number to 4 in anticlockwise
(A) 18 (B) 16 directions respectively, will appear in block I & II
(C) 22 (D) 8 respectively.
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces Step IV. Consider figure (ii) and wire first and second
painted = Number of smaller cubes from inside number in the anticlock-wise direction to number
the big cube + Number of cubes at two surfaces + 4, (common number) in block (III) & (IV). Hence
Number of cubes at one edge. numbers 6 and 5 will appear in the blocks III and IV
3 2 respectively.
= (n 2) + (n 2) 2 + (n 2)
3 2
= (2) + (2) + 2 Step V. Write remaining number in the remaining block.
= 8 + 8 + 2 = 18 Therefore, number 1 will come in the remaining
block. Now, from the unfolded figures we find that
DICES number opposite to 6 is 3, number opposite to 2 is
5 and number opposite to 4 is 1. Therefore, option
Type-I (C) is our answer.
( Short Trick : From the given dice, we will take the
General Dice : In a general dice the sum of numbers common number as the base and then in its
on the any two adjacent faces is 7. respect move clockwise direction and write as
Standard Dice : In a standard dice the sum of follows : 4 2 3
numbers on the opposite faces is '7'. 4 5 6.
Here,we find that number opposite to 6 is 3, number
Ex 16. Which number is opposite 4 in a standard dice opposite to 2 is 5 and number opposite to 4 is
given below ? remaining number 1.
Therefore, option (C) is our answer. )
1
5 Ex 18. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell
4
what number will be on the opposite face of number
(A) 1 (B) 3 5?
(C) 5 (D) Cant be determined

Sol. Clearly , from the standard dice the sum of

numbers on the opposite faces is '7', so number
opposite to 4 is 3.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6

PAGE # 92
Sol. (D) The above question where only two positions
of a dice are given, can easily be solved with the Type-V
following method :
If in the given dice, there are two numbers common, Ex 21. Which of the following dices is identical to the
then uncommon numbers will always be opposite unfolded figure as shown here ?
of each other.
Therefore, option (D) is our answer.

Type-III

Ex 19. From the following figures of dice, find which

number will come in place of ?
(X)

(A) (B)

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (D) If the above dice is unfolded, it will look like as (C) (D)
the figure (i) given below.
Sol. (A) From the unfolded figure of dice, we find that
number opposite to 2 is 4, for 5 it is 3 and for 1 it is
6. From this result we can definitely say that figure
(B), (C) and (D) can not be the answer figure as
Figure (i) numbers lying on the opposite pair of surfaces are
present on the adjacent surfaces.

Now the number in place of ? can be obtained by

making a slight change in the figure as given here. EXERCISE
Now comparing figure (ii) with third dice as above,
we get that number in place of ? is 3.
Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured orange on one face,
pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and
silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The
other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut
into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Now answer
the following questions based on the above
statements.
Figure (ii) 1. How many cubes have at least one face coloured
pink ?
Type-IV (A) 1 (B) 9
(C) 16 (D) 25
Ex 20. A dice has been thrown four times and produces
following results. 2. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?
(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 48 (D) 64

3. How many cubes have at least two faces coloured ?

(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 23

4. How many cubes are coloured orange on one face

and have the remaining faces uncoloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 12
Which number will appear opposite to the number (C) 14 (D) 16
3?
(A) 4 (B) 5 5. How many cubes one coloured silver on one face,
(C) 6 (D) 1 orange or pink on another face and have four
Sol. (A) From the figures (i), (ii) and (iv) we find that uncoloured faces ?
numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2 appear on the adjacent (A) 8 (B) 10
surfaces to the number 3. Therefore, number 4 (C) 12 (D) 16
will be opposite to number 3.

PAGE # 93
Directions : (6 to 11) A cube is painted red on two adjacent Directions : (17 to 21) The outer border of width 1 cm of a
surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to cube with side 5 cm is painted yellow on each side
red surfaces and green on the remaining faces.
and the remaining space enclosed by this 1 cm
Now the cube is cut into sixty four smaller cubes of
equal size. path is painted pink. This cube is now cut into 125
smaller cubes of each side 1 cm. The smaller
6. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ? cubes so obtained are now seperated.
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32 17. How many smaller cubes have all the surfaces
uncoloured ?
7. How many smaller cubes will have no surface
painted ? (A) 0 (B) 9
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 18 (D) 27
(C) 8 (D) 16
18. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
8. How many smaller cubes have less than three
surfaces painted ? coloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 24 (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 28 (D) 48 (C) 8 (D) 10
9. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
19. How many cubes have at least two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 coloured yellow ?
(C) 16 (D) 24 (A) 24 (B) 44

10. How many smaller cubes with two surfaces (C) 48 (D) 96
painted have one face green and one of the
20. How many cubes have one face coloured pink and
adjacent faces black or red ?
(A) 8 (B) 16 an adjacent face yellow ?
(C) 24 (D) 28 (A) 0 (B) 1

11. How many smaller cubes have at least one surface (C) 2 (D) 4
painted with green colour ?
21. How many cubes have at least one face coloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 24
(C) 32 (D) 56 (A) 27 (B) 98
(C) 48 (D) 121
Directions : (12 to 16) A cube of 4 cm has been painted on
its surfaces in such a way that two opposite Directions : (22 to 31) A solid cube has been painted yellow,
surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent
blue and black on pairs of opposite faces. The
surfaces have been painted red. Two remaining
cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes such that
surfaces have been left unpainted. Now the cube
32 cubes are of the same size while 4 others are
is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
of bigger sizes. Also no faces of any of the bigger
12. How many cubes will have no side painted ? cubes is painted blue.
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8 22. How many cubes have at least one face painted
blue ?
13. How many cubes will have at least red colour on (A) 0 (B) 8
its surfaces ? (C) 16 (D) 32
(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 28 (D) 32 23. How many cubes have only one faces painted ?
(A) 24 (B) 20
14. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on
its surfaces ? (C) 8 (D) 12
(A) 20 (B) 8
24. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?
(C) 24 (D) 32
(A) 24 (B) 20
15. How many cubes will have only two surfaces (C) 16 (D) 8
painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
(A) 8 (B) 12 25. How many cubes have atleast two faces painted ?
(C) 24 (D) 30 (A) 36 (B) 34
(C) 28 (D) 24
16. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 26. How many cubes have only three faces painted ?
(C) 2 (D) 16 (A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 0

PAGE # 94
27. How many cubes do not have any of their faces 37. How many cubes will be formed?
painted yellow ? (A) 6 (B) 12
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 24
(C) 8 (D) 16
38. If cubes having only black as well as green colour
28. How many cubes have at least one of their faces are removed then how many cubes will be left?
painted black ? (A) 4 (B) 8
(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 30
(C) 16 (D) 20
39. How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and
29. How many cubes have at least one of their faces
2 sides without colour?
painted yellow or blue ?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(A) 36 (B) 32
(C) 16 (D) 10
(C) 16 (D) 0

30. How many cubes have no face painted ? 40. How many cubes will have two sides with green
(A) 8 (B) 4 colour and remaining sides without any colour?
(C) 1 (D) 0 (A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 4
31. How many cubes have two faces painted yellow
and black respectively ?
(A) 0 (B) 8 41. Which alphabet is opposite D ?
(C) 12 (D) 16

Directions : (32 to 35) Some equal

cubes are arranged in the
form of a solid block as
shown in the adjacent (A) E (B) C
figure. All the visible (C) F (D) A
sufaces of the block (except
the bottom) are then 42. What should be the number opposite 4 ?
painted.

32. How many cubes do not have any of the faces

painted ?
(A) 27 (B) 8 (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) 10 (D) 12
(A) 5 (B) 1
33. How many cubes have one face painted ? (C) 3 (D) 2
(A) 9 (B) 24
(C) 22 (D) 20

34. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?

(A) 0 (B) 16 43.
(C) 20 (D) 24

35. How many cubes have only three faces painted ? (i) (ii)
(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) 6 (D) 20
Directions : (36 to 40) A cuboid of dimensions
(6 cm 4 cm 1 cm) is painted black on both the
surfaces of dimensions (4 cm 1 cm), green on the (iii) (iv)
surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 4 cm). and red on Which letter will be opposite to letter D ?
the surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 1 cm). Now the (A) A (B) B
block is divided into various smaller cubes of side
(C) E (D) F
1 cm. each. The smaller cubes so obtained are
separated.
Directions : (44 to 45) The figure (X) given below is the
36. How many cubes will have all three colours black, unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
green and red each at least on one side? following questions this unfolded figure is followed
(A) 16 (B) 12 by four different figures of dice. You have to select
(C) 10 (D) 8 the figure which is identical to the figure (X).

PAGE # 95
 50. Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface
to the symbol x?

44. (X)

(A) (B) =
(A) (B)
(C) (D) O

51. Three positions of the same dice are given below.

Observe the figures carefully and tell which number
(B) (D) will come in place of ?

1 3 4
6 3 5 4 2 ?
(i) (ii) (iii)
45. (X) (A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 5

52. On the basis of the following figures you have to

tell which number will come in place of ?

(A) (B) 3 4 ?
6 1 2 6 1 5
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) (D) (C) 6 (D) 4

Directions : (53 to 55) Choose from the alternatives, the

Directions : (46 to 48) In each of the following questions, boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is folded:
select the correct option for the question asked.

53. (X)
(i) (ii)

46. Which number will come opposite to number 2?

(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 6 (D) 3 (A) (B)

47. Which number will come opposite to number 6?

(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) (D)
(C) 4 (D) 3

48. Which number will come opposite to number 4?

(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 2
+
49. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell what 54. (X)
number will be on the opposite face of number 5?

(A) (B) +
(i) (ii)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6 (C) + (D)

PAGE # 96
 59.
55. (X)
(i) (ii)

(A) (B)

(iii) (iv)
Which number is opposite to number 5?
(C) (D) (A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 3

Directions : (60 to 64) Choose the cube from the options

that will unfold to give the figure on the left
Direction : (56) The six faces of a cube have been marked
with numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. This
cube is rolled down three times. The three X
60.
positions are given. Choose the figure that will be
formed when the cube is unfolded. M

56.
M X M
M X

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B)

4 1 8

61. 3
7
9
(C) (D)
9 7 8
1 8 4 1 7 7 8 7 4
57. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
given below ?

62.
(A) 1 (B) 4 8
(C) 5 (D) Cant be determined
D

58. Which number is opposite 4 ?

8 8 D

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1 63.

Directions : (59) In the following question four positions of B

the same dice have been shown. You have to see
these figures and select the number opposite to
B
the number as asked in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

PAGE # 97
 66. Which number/letter is opposite 2 ?
J

64. 3 I C
A
B
2

J (A) A (B) C
J
(C) 1 (D) 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the following questions, a 67. Which number/letter is opposite O?
diagram has been given which can be folded into
a cube. The entries given in the squares indicate L
the entries on the face of the cube. In each question N M 2
a number or a letter has been given . Of the four I O
alternatives given below it, you have to find the one
that would appear on the face opposite to it in the (A) L (B) M
cube. (C) N (D) 2
65. Which letter is opposite Q ?
68. Which letter is opposite R?
Q Q R
O P L S P
N U T
M
(A) L (B) M (A) P (B) S
(C) N (D) P (C) T (D) U

PAGE # 98
 ANSWER KEY
ELECTRICITY(PHYSICS)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A A C C C B A D A B D C A B B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A A A D D B C B C B C B B A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A D B C D B C D A B D C ABCD CD BD
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. ABD C D C B B C B C C B B D C B
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73
Ans. B C B B D A A B A A C D D

MOLE CONCEPT(CHEMISTRY)
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C D B C B A D A B B D B C B
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A A A A B A A D A A A D A D
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C C B C B C D A B C A C D A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B C C C C B C B A A D C A D
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. C D A B A B C A D B C B C B D
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. A A C A A D B D B C B C C D D

NUMBER SYSTEM(MATHEMATICS)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B A D C B A A A D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A B A A B C C B C A
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B B A D B D B C C
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B A A B D D C C D C
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. C B A A D A D D A A
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C C B D C C C C C A
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. B B D D D A A B A D
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C A C C B B B A D C
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. B B D C D D A B C D
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96
Ans. A&D C&D A D B C

PAGE # 9999
 LOGARITHM (MATHEMATICS)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A B D B C B A C D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A B B D D B C B D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A B B A A D A A B
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B A B B A D B B C

NUTRITION(BIOLOGY)

Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C B D D A C B A A
Que s. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B C A C A B D A D C
Que s. 21 22 23
Ans. B C A

SERIES COMPLETION(MENTAL ABILITY)

EXERCISE-1 (Number Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C D D A C D B C C C D C C B D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C C B A B D D A C B B C A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. C C C D D

EXERCISE- 2 (Alphabet Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D A D C C A D C D B D C C C D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A B C C C A B A C D B C D B

EXERCISE- 3 (Letter Repeating Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D D A A C B A C D D C B D C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. C A A A C D D D A B D

PAGE # 100
100
 EXERCISE- 4 (Missing Term In Figure)
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . B D B D C C C D A D D B C A B
Que . 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans . B C A B B A C A D D A C D B A
Que . 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . B B A C A C B C D B

PUZZLE-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B D C A D C C C C C D C C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C D D C D D B B C A A D C D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C B A B A D A D C D A C B D
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. C A D B D D D A C A A D B

CALENDAR AND CLOCK-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C B D D B C B C C A B C B A
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B B B C B C D C B D C B B D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. D B D B A A C A D A C

CUBE AND DICE TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C C D A C C D B B C A C D B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D C B A B D D A D C A D C B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C D C D C A D C B C B B A D B
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D A B C D A B D B D C B A C C
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. A D E D C A B B

PAGE # 101
101