Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2017
COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)
2. Two free charges q and 4q are placed at a distance d apart. A third charge Q is placed between
them at a distance x from charge q such that the system is in equilibrium. Then
4q d 4q d 4q d 4q d
(1) Q ;x (2) Q ;x (3) Q ;x (4) Q ;x
9 3 9 4 9 3 9 4
3. Two point charges q1=+2C and q2= 1 C are separated by a distance d. The position on the line
joining the two charges when a third charge q=+1 C will be in equilibrium is at a distance
d d
(1) from q1 between q1 and q2 (2) from q1 away from q2
2 2
d d
(3) from q2 between q1 and q2 (4) from q2 away from q1
2 1 2 1
4. Three charges each of the value q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle.
A fourth charge Q is placed at the centre of the triangle. If Q= q:
(1) The charges will move towards the centre
(2) The charges will move away from the centre
(3) The charges will remain stationary
(4) The charges may move in any direction
5. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of
the other two corners. If resultant electric force on q is zero, then q/Q is
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 2 2
2 2 2
6. Two small balls having equal positive charge Q (Coulomb) on each are suspended by two
insulating strings of equal length L metre, from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole setup is taken in
a satellite into space where there is no gravity (state of weightlessness). Then the angle between
the two strings is
(1) 00 (2) 900 (3) 1800 (4) 00<<1800
7. Two identical charges +Q are kept fixed some distance apart. A small particle P with charge q is
placed midway between them. If P is given a small displacement , it will undergo simple
harmonic motion if
(i) q is positive and is along the line joining the charges.
(ii) q is positive and is perpendicular to the line joining the charges.
(iii) q is negative and is perpendicular to the line joining the charges.
l 1 1 1
2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2 1/2
(1) g g qE g qE 2 qE 2
m m g
m
13. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the work done on moving a charge 0.2 C through a
distance of 2 m along a line making an angle 600 with the X-axis is 4 J, what is the value of E?
1 2q 1 2q 1 1 2q 1
(1) Zero (2) (1 5) (3) (1 ) (4) 1
4 0 L 4 0 L 5 4 0 L 5
16. Two fixed charges 2 Q and Q are located at the points with coordinates (3a, 0) and (3a, 0) in
the x-y plane. The locus of all points in the x-y plane where the electric potential due to the
charges is zero is a
(1) Straight line (2) ellipse (3) circle (4) parabola
17. If identical charges (-q) are placed at each corner of a cube of side b, then electric potential energy
of charge (+q) which is placed at centre of the cube will be
8 2q 2 8 2q 2 4 2q 2 4q 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 0b 0b 0b 3 0b
18. Identify the wrong statement.
(1) The electrical potential energy of a system of two protons shall increase if the separation
between the two is decreased
(2) The electrical potential energy of a proton, electron system will increase if the separation
between the two is decreased
(3) The electrical potential energy of a proton, electron system will increase if the separation
between the two is increased
(4) The electrical potential energy of a system of two electrons shall increase if the separation
between the two is decreased
19. Positive and negative point charges of equal magnitude are kept at a , 0, 0 and , 0, 0
a
2 2
respectively. The work done by the electric field when another positive point charge is moved from
(-a, 0, 0) to (a, 0, 0) is
(1) Positive (2) negative (3) zero
(4) Depends on the path connecting the initial and final positions
20. Four identical charges are placed at the points (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0).
(i) The potential at the origin is zero
(ii) The field at the origin is zero
(iii) The potential at all points on the z-axis, other than the origin, is zero
(iv) The potential at all points on the z-axis, other than the origin, acts along the z-axis
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)
21. Six point charges are kept at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side L and
1 q
centre O, as shown in the figure. Given that K , which of the
4 0 L2
following statement is wrong?
(1) The electric field at O is 6 K along OD
(2) The potential at O is zero
(3) The potential at all points on the line PR is same
(4) The potential at all points on the line ST is same
22. A point charge +q is at a distance d/2 from a square surface of side d and is directly above the
centre of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux through the square is
q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero
0 6 0 0
23. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero,
(i) The electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(ii) The electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(iii) The charge inside the surface must be zero
(iv) The charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii)
24. Charges Q1 and Q2 lie inside and outside respectively of a closed surface S. Let E be the field at
any point on S and be the flux of E over S. (Choose incorrect option)
(1) If Q1 charges, both E and will change
(2) If Q2 charges, E will change but will not change
(3) If Q1 = 0 and Q2 0 then E 0 but = 0
(4) If Q1 0 and Q2 0 then E = 0 but 0
25. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge
densities , and respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then,
for c=a+b, we have
(1) VC=VA VB (2) VC=VB VA (3) VC VA VB (4) VC = VB = VA
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COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)
26. Two concentric thin metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 > R2) bear charges Q1 and Q2
respectively. Then potential at radius r between R1 and R2 will be
Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2 Q2 Q1 Q1 Q2
(1) k (2) k (3) k (4) k
r r R2 r r R1 r
27. A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting
cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral
(1) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the
inner cylinder
(2) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the
outer cylinder
(3) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept
along the axis of the cylinders
(4) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when same charge density is given
to both the cylinders
28. A positively charged thin metal ring of radius R is fixed in the x-y plane, with its centre at the
origin O. A negatively charged particle P is released from rest at the point (0, 0, z0), where z0>0.
Then the motion of P is (Choose incorrect option).
(1) Periodic , for all value of z0 satisfying 0 < z0 <
(2) Simple harmonic, for all value of z0 satisfying 0 < z0 R
(3) Approximately simple harmonic provided z0 << R
(4) Such that P crosses O and continuous to move along the negative z-axis towards z=
29. A and B are two points on the axis and the perpendicular bisector respectively of an electric dipole.
A and B are far away from the dipole and at equal distances from it. The fields at A and B are EA
and EB .
1 ar
(1) EA = EB (2) EA =2 EB (3) EA = 2 EB (4) EB E A , EB E A
2
30. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a
position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of the field. Assuming
that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when =900, the torque and the potential energy
of the dipole will respectively be
(1) pE sin , pE cos (2) pE sin , 2pE cos
(3) pE sin , 2pE cos (4) pE cos , pE cos
31. The electric field at the origin is along the position X-axis. A small circle is drawn with the centre at
the origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C and D having coordinates (a, 0), (0, a), (a, 0), (0, a)
respectively. Out of the points on the periphery of the circle, the potential is minimum at
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
32. An electric field E 20i 30 j N / C exists in the space. If the potential at the origin is taken to
be zero, the potential at the point (2 m ,2 m) is
(1) 50 V (2) 100 V (3) 100 V (4) 200 V
33. The electric potential decreases uniformly from 120 V to 80 V as one moves on the X-axis from
x=1 cm to x=+1 cm. The electric field at the origin
(i) Must be equal to 20 V/cm (ii) May be equal to 20 V/cm
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COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)
(iii) May be greater than 20 V/cm (iv) May be less than 20 V/cm
(1) (i) only (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (iii), (iv)
34. A thin, metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of
the shell and another charge q1 is placed outside it as shown in figure. All the three charges are
positive. The force on the charge at the centre is
(1) Towards left (2) towards right (3) upward (4) zero
35. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric
conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid
sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge
of 3Q, the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is
(1) V (2) 2 V (3) 4 V (4) 2 V
36. A, B and C are three concentric metallic shells. Shell A is the innermost and shell C is the
outermost. A is given some charge
(i) The inner surfaces of B and C will have the same charge
(ii) The inner surfaces of B and C will have the same charge density
(iii) The outer surfaces of A, B and C will have the same charge
(iv) The outer surfaces of A, B and C will have the same charge density
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii)
37. A positively charged oil dropped remains stationary in the electric field between two horizontal
plates separated by a distance of 1 cm. The charge on the drop is 1015 C and mass of the
droplet is 1011 g, the potential difference between the plates and if the polarity is reversed, the
instantaneous accelerations of the droplet are
(1) 1 V, 9.8 m/sec2 (2) 1 V, 0 m/sec2 (3) 1 V, 19.6 m/sec2 (4) 2 V, 19.6 m/sec2
38. A large solid sphere with uniformly distributed positive charge has a smooth narrow tunnel
through its centre. A small particle with negative charge, initially at rest far from the sphere,
approaches it along the line of the tunnel, reaches its surface with a speed v and passes through
the tunnel, its speed at the centre of sphere will be
(1) 0 (2) 3 v (3) 2 v (4) 1.5 v
39. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with its centre at the origin, carrying uniform positive
surface charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field E (r ) and the electric
potential V(r) with the distance r from the centre, is best represented by which graph.
41. Point charges 4 q, q and 4 q are kept on the x-axis at points x=0, x=a and x=2 a
respectively.
(1) Only q is in stable equilibrium
(2) None of the charges are in equilibrium
(3) All the charges are unstable equilibrium
(4) All the charges are in stable equilibrium
42. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential at the points between
A and B (excluding these points) is studied while moving from A to B. The potential
(1)Continuously increases (2) continuously decreases
(3) Increases then decreases (4) decreases then increases
43. Four charges, all of the same magnitude, are placed at the four corners of a square. At the centre
of the square, the potential is V and the field is E. By suitable choice of the signs of the four
charges, which of the following can be obtained?
(i) V=0, E=0 (ii) V=0, E 0 (iii) V 0, E =0 (iv) V 0, E 0
(1)(i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) (4) all
3R
44. The electric field at a distance from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius
2
R
R is E. The electric field at a distance from the centre of the sphere is
2
(1) Zero (2) E (3) E/2 (4) E/3
45. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R are given charges Q 1, Q2, Q3
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells, Q1:Q2:Q3, is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 (3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 8 : 18
Part B (Chemistry)
46. Dipole moment of CH3CH2CH3(I), CH3CH2OH (II) and CH3CH2F(III) is in order
(1) I II III (2) I II III
(3) I III II (4) III I II
47. The strongest acid among the following aromatic compounds is
(1) p-chlorophenol (2) p-nitrophenol
(3) m-nitrophenol (4) o-nitrophenol
48. The boiling points to isomeric alcohols follow the order
(1) primary secondary tertiary (2) tertiary secondary primary
(3) secondary tertiary primary (4) does not follow any order
49. Phenol can be distinguished from alcohol with
(1) Tollens reagent (2) Schiff's base
(3) Neutral FeCl3 (4) HCl
50. Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
(1) Butan 2-ol (2) Butan 1-ol
(3) Propan -2-ol (4) 2-Dimethylhexane-4-ol
51. Which of the following are isomers
(1) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (2) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(3) Acetone and acetaldehyde (4) Propionic acid and propanone
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COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)
H 3O
63. Ester A (C4H8O2) + CH3 MgBr B C4 H10 O .
(2 parts) (alcohol)
64. CH3
cold
alkaline KMnO
A
CrO3
AcOH
B. A and B are
4
OH O OH O
CH3
CH3
(4) No formation of a and b
OH
(3) ,
OH OH
CH3 OH
A is:
CH3 Br Br CH3
OH H3C
Pyridine
Cl
O
O
(1) CH3
(2)
OH
O
O
(4) CH3
(3) CH3
72. Predict the product of the reaction below
O
OH H3C
AlCl3
Cl
OH
OH O
H3C O
O
O CH3
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(3)
O O
CH3 (4)
(3) H3C
H3C CH3
CH3
H3C
76. H3C
CO, H 2 [CoH(CO) 4 ]
H2
product
125, pressure Cu Zn
CH2
79. Which of the following compounds give most stable carbonium ion on dehydration?
CH3
CH3CHCH2OH
(1) CH3 C OH (2)
CH3
CH3
CH3CHCH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) (4)
OH
80. Dehydration of alcohols by conc. H2SO4 takes place according to following steps:
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
+ +
H3C H
step 1
H3C H2O
step 2
H3C CH2 1,2 H shift
step 3
H C C CH
+ 3 3
H OH H OH2 H
CH3
H
step 4
H2C CH 3
CH2 CH3
(1) (2)
+
OH2 OH
+
CH2
(3) (4) All the three
OH
83. OD
D
NaOH
[ ]
i) CO2
ii)D
P.
Here P is
OH OD OD OD
D D
(1) O (2) O
OD OH
D
(3) O (4) Reaction not possible
84. CH2
14
O
D D heat
X; X is
OD OD
D D D
(1) (2)
CH2 CH2
14 14
OD OH
D 14 CH2 D 14 CH2
(3) (4)
85. Which of the following is correct order for the decreasing rate of solvolysis?
(1) tert-BuCl tert-BuBr tert-BuI (2) tert-BuI tert-BuBr tert-BuCl
(3) tert-BuBr tert-BuiI tert-BuCl (4) tert-BuCl = tert-BuBr = tert-BuI
86. H 3 C 18
CH OH
B 3
CH 3ONa
H O
2
H
A
H3C O
A and B are
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
R R
(1) R (2) CH3
HO HO
R R
(3) (4)
R OH OH
C6 H5CO3H
A
HCl
B
CH2
OH
O
(1) (2)
Cl
Cl O
(3) (4)
OH OH
89. OH
H2SO4
OH
CHO OH
(1) (2)
OH O
(3) (4)
Part C (Biology)
91. Most recent branch of Taxonomy is
(1) Karyotaxonomy (based on nucleus and number, structure and arrangement of chromosomes)
(2) Biochemical taxonomy (based on biochemicals)
(3) Numerical taxonomy (based on number of shared characters using statisti cal methods)
(4) Classical systematics (based on morphological features).
92. In binomial nomenclature proposed by Linnaeus, every organism has
(1 ) two names, one Latin and other common
(2) two names, one scientific and other ver-nacular
(3) one scientific name, given by two scientists
(4) one scientific/biological name with two words- a genus and a species
93. Phenetic classification is based on
(1) dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(2) sexual characteristics
(3) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms (4) observable characteristics of existing organisms
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COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)
94. Linnaeus sexual system of classification of plants on the basis of number and arrangement of
stamens and carpels / morphology of floral parts is
(1) artificial (2) natural
(3) phylogentic (4) partly natural and partly artificial
95. Hutchinson's phylogenetic classification is based on Bessey's 22 principles. It states that
(1) evolution in downward direction cause reduction and suppression.
(2) evolution does not necessarily involve all organs at same time
(3) monocots are advanced over dicots (4) all of the above
96. A parasite which becomes saprophytic in the absence of host is called
(1) Obligate parasite (2) Facultative parasite
(3) Obligate saprophyte (4) Facultative saprophyte.
97. Mucopeptide is abundant in cell wall of
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Gram (+) bacteria (3) Gram (-) bacteria (4) Bacteriophage.
98. Bacteria obtaining energy by oxidation of inorganic substances are
(1) Chemo-lithotrophs (2) Chemo-organotrophs
(3) Photo-lithotrophs (4) Photo-organotrophs.
99. Which one does not evolve oxygen
(1) Photosynthetic bacteria (2) Blue Green algae
(3) Green algae (4) Autotrophic plants
100. Nitrogen fixation is performed by
(1) Green algae and fungi (2) Ferns and cycads
(3) Legumes and cereals (4) Blue-green algae and bacteria.
101. Match items of column I with those of column II and choose the correct combinations
Column-l Column-II
(a) Pneumonia (p) Vibrio comma
(b) Citrus Canker (q) Mycobacterium leprae
(c) Cholera (r) Yersinia pestis
(d) Leprosy (s) Xanthomonas citri
(t) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(1) a-t, b-s, c-p, d-q (2) a-t, b-p , c-s , d-q (3) a-t, b-s, c-q, d-p (4) a-t, b-q, c-p, d-s.
102. Cell wall of Gram (+) bacteria is formed of
(1) Cellulose (2) Murein (3) Lipid and protein (4) Cellulose and lipid.
103. Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to Bacteria
(a) Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom Monera.
(b) Bacteria occur almost everywhere
(c) Bacteria are the most abundant micro organism
(d) 80 S type of Ribosome are present in bacteria
(1) a & d (2) b & d (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d.
104. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to Archaebacteria.
(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
(b) feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of sereral ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo.
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils.
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell wall
(1) a and e (2) b and e (3) a, b and c (4) only e
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105. The Blue-green algae also referred to as _____(i)_______have chlorohyll similar to green plants.
Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cell
called______(ii)________eg. Nostock & Anabaena._______(iii)________bacteria oxidise various
inorganic substance such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia & use the released energy for their ATP
production in above question (i), (ii) & (iii) are respectively.(1) (i) Cyanobacteria
(ii) Chromatophores (iii) Heterotrophic bacteria
(2) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Chromatophores (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
(3) (i) Eubacteria (ii) Heterocysts (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
(4) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Heterocysts (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
106. The diatomaceous earth is used for insulating boilers and steam pipes because
(1) The diatomaceous earth is very cheap (2) It is a good conductor of heat
(3) It is a bad conductor of heat (4) It is composed of calcium carbonate
107. Diatoms do not decay as readily as most other algae because
(1) They are non living cells (2) They have waterproof cell walls
(3) They have siliceous cell walls (4) They have mucilaginous cell walls
108. Paraflagellar body occurs in Euglena
(1) Near base of flagella (2) Region of union of flagellar branches
(3) Area of basal granules (4) On reservoir wall.
109. Eye spot granules of Euglena are formed of
(1) Fucoxanthin (2) Astaxanthin (3) a-carotene (4) b-carotene.
110. Mesokaryon is
(1) A nucleus like structure (2) Nucleoid with condensed chromosomes
(3) A nucleus with condensed chromosomes (4) A nucleoid with distinct chromosomes.
111. The storage product of chrysophytes is
(1) Oil and leucosin (2) Starch (3) Paramylum (4) Glycogen.
112. Mixotrophic nutrition is present in
(1) Navicula (2) Amoeba (3) Paramecium (4) Euglena.
113. Protistans are connecting link between
(1) Plants and animals (2) Fungi and plants
(3) Monoerans and kingdoms of multicellular organisms
(4) Fungi and animals.
114. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to kingdom protista.
(i) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista
(ii) The boundaries of this kingdom are not well defined.
(iii) Chrysophytes, dinoflagellated, Euglenoids, slimemoulds and protozoans are included under
protista.
(iv) All protista are eukaryotic, achlorophyllous, heterotrophic, nonvascular organism.
(1) only (ii) (2) only (iii) (3) only (iv) (4) None of these
115. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
(i) Chrysophytes (a) Absence of cell wall
(ii) Dinoflagellates (b) Golden algae
(iii) Euglenoids (c) Gonyaulax
(iv) Slime moulds (d) Saprophytic protists.
149. Callase enzyme which dissolves callose of tetrad of microspores to separate 4 microspores is
prodvided by -
(1) Pollen grains (2) Middle layer (3) Tapetum (4) Endothecium
150.
In the above diagrams identify i, ii, iii & iv and select the suitable options.
(1) i - Vacuole; ii - symmetrical spindle, iii - Vegetative cell; iv - generative cell
(2) i - Cytoplasm; ii - Asymmetrical spindle, iii - Generative cell; iv - Vegetative cell
(3) i - Nuclei; ii - Symmetrical spindle, iii - Tube cell; iv - Vegetative cell
(4) i - Vacuole; ii -Asymmetrical spindle, iii - Vegetative cell; iv - generative cell
151. Choose incorrect statement.
(1) In western countries, a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets & syrups are
available in market.
(2) Some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lost viability within one year of their
release.
(3) It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for year in liquid nitrogen
(196C).
(4) Store pollen grains can be used in crop breeding programme.
152. An orthrotropous ovule is one, in which micropyle and chalaza are
(1) At right angles to funicle (2) Parallel to the funicle
(3) In straight line of funicle (4) Parallel along with ovule
153. Polar nuclei are located in-
(1) Pollen tube (2) Embryo sac (3) Ovule (4) Thalamus
154. The ovule of capsella is-
(1) Bitegmic (2) Unitegmic (3) Ategmic (4) Polytegmic
155. Group of lingnified cells above the vascular supply of funiculus, which acts as barrier for the
growing embryo sac into the base is called-
(1) Nucellar beak (2) Epistase (3) Hypostase (4) Perisperm
156. Filiform apparatus is the feature of-
(1) Egg (2) Synergids (3) Antipodal (4) None of these
157. The given figure shows a typical anatropous ovule. What do A, B, C & D represents.
D
(1) A gEmbryosac, B gSynergids, C gCentral cell, D gMicropylar end
(2) A gCentral cell, B gSynergids, CgCentral cell, DgMicropylar end
(3) A gCentral cell, B gPolar nuclei, C gCentral cell, D gFiliform apparatus
(4) A gCentral cell, B gSynergids, CgPolar nuclei, D gFiliform apparatus
162. Match the column
Column I Column II
(a) Chiropterophily (i) Bombax ceiba.
(b) Cleistogamy (ii) Calotropis procera
(c) Herkogamy (iii) Kigelia pinnata
(d) Ornithophily (iv) Triticum aestivum
(e) Anemophily (v) Commelina benghalensis
(1) (a) (V), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i), (e) (iv) (2) (a) (iii), (b) (v), (c) (ii), (d) (i), (e) (iv)
(3) (a) (ii), (b) (v), (c) (iv), (d) (i), (e) (iii) (4) (a) (iii), (b) (v), (c) (ii), (d) (iv), (e) (i)
163. If pollination takes place between the two flowers of same plant, It is known as
(1) Xenogamy (2) Cleistogamy (3) Geitanogamy (4) Herkogamy
164. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower of different plant, the
pollination is-
(1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Homogamy (4) Cleistogamy
165. Dichogamy favouring cross pollination is type of floral mechanism where -
(1) Anthers and stigma are placed at different levels
(2) Stamens and stigma mature at different times
(3) Structure of anther and stigma act as barrier
(4) Pollen is unable to germinate on its own stigma
166. Choose the correct statement from the following:
(1) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
(2) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
(3) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both auotogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
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CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)
167. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and
geitonogamy.
(1) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(3) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(4) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
168. A plant has 24 chromosomes in microspore mother cell. The number of chromosomes in its
endosperm will be
(1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 48
169. In pinus, Leaf cell has 2n = 12 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm cell
will be
(1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 6
170. Siphonogamy is feature of
(1) Bryophytes (2) pteridophyte
(3) Gymnosperm and Angiosperm (4) Algae
171. In angiosperms normally after fertilization
(1) The zygote divides earlier than the primary endosperm nucleus
(2) The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote
(3) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus divide simultaneously
(4) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus undergo a resting period
172. Match the column
Column-I Column-II
(a) Prepotency (i) shield shaped cotyledon of monocots.
(b) Scutellum (ii) Pinus
(c) Translator mechanism (iii) opening of floral bud
(d) Cleavage polyembryony (iv) Calotropis
(e) Anthesis (v) Apple
(1) (a) ii, (b) i, (c) iv, (d) v, (e) iii (2) (a) v, (b) i, (c) iv, (d) iii, (e) ii
(3) (a) iii, (b) v, (c) iv, (d) ii, (e) i (4) (a) v, (b) i, (c) iv, (d) ii, (e) iii
173. If Diploid embryo is directly formed by megaspore mother cell it is called.
(1) Non recurrent agamospermy (2) adventive embryony
(3) Diplospory (4) Parthenogenesis.
174. Choose correct statements
(a) Seed typically consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) & and embryo axis.
(b) Cotyledons of embryo are simple strucures, generally thick and swollen due to storage of food
reserve.
(c) Albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm e.g. pea, groundnut.
(d) Micropyle facilitates entry of O2 & water into the seed during germination.
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, d
175.
In the above diagram, Identify the correct Labelling & select the correct option
(1) a - Embryo axis, b - Endosperm, c - Coleorhiza, d - scutellum, e - coleoptile
(2) a - Radicle, b - Aleuron layer, c - Coleorhiza, d - Endosperm, e - Plumula
(3) a - Radicle, b - Endosperm, c - Coleorhiza, d - scutellum, e - Plumule
(4) a - Embryo axis, b - Aleuron layer, c - Root-cap, d - Endosperm, e - Coleoptile
176. Match the column
Column-I Column-II
(a) Helobial endosperm (i) Cucurbita
(b) Hypophysis (ii) Areca
(c) Ruminate endosperm (iii) removal of anther from floral bud
(d) Emasculation (iv) Radicle
(e) Mesogamy (v) Asphodelus
(1) a - ii ; b - v ; c - i ; d - iii ; e - iv (2) a - v ; b - iv ; c - ii ; d - iii ; e - i
(3) a - i ; b - v ; c - iv ; d - ii ; e - iii (4) a - v ; b - iv ; c - ii ; d - i ; e - iii
177.
Identify the parts labelled A,B,C,D,E from the list (i- vii) and select the correct options.
Components
(i) Scutellum (ii) Shoot apex (iii) Coleoptile (iv) Radicle
(v) Epiblast (vi) Coleorhiza (vii) Root cap.
A B C D E
(1) iii v i vi vii
(2) iii vi vii ii iv
(3) ii vii vi i v
(4) iii vi vii i iv
178. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable
cause for the above situation is :
(1) Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
(2) Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
(3) Plant is monoecious
(4) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.
179. The given figure shows false fruits of apple. What do A, B, C & D represents.