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Page | 1

Welcome Message

Adhikary Education welcomes you once again to the journey ahead in pursuit of
success in your life. We congratulate and thank you for enrolling in the Apsc
prelim GS TEST SERIES 2017 program, which will be of immense help for your
preparation of APSC CCE (Prelim) Exam to be held in 02 July 2017. To get maximum
benefit and cover your GS syllabus on time, please do attempt these 15 tests
according to the schedule.

This Test 1 covers the Polity section, which has (1) Indian Polity and (2) Political
system in India topics of APSC GS Prelim syllabus. We are releasing the PDF format
of the Test 1 Question paper with answer keys at the end of the document,
especially for those candidates who are not able to attempt the test in Online Mode.

The Test 2 to be activated from 08 May 2017, which will cover History section of
the syllabus. Please do let us know view about the questions, and any suggestion
regarding questions for upcoming tests.
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Page | 2 APSC Pre GS Test Series 2017
Test 1 With Answer Keys

Q1. The Supreme Court is a court of record, which means

a. its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory.
b. it can punish for contempt of Supreme court.
c. it can punish for contempt of High court.
d. All of the Above

Q2. In the order of precedence, the speaker has an equal rank with
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Cabinet Ministers
d. Vice-President

Q3. Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent
to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then
a. a joint sitting is called.
b. the bill ends and becomes dead
c. legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time.
d. none of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements are true about National emergency
a. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament
within one month.
b. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament
passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 Q5. A political party shall have to apply to Election Commission of India for
registration, if any question arises in this regard, whose decision is final
a. President
b. Election Commission of India
Page | 3 c. Supreme Court
d. High Court

Q6. Which articles of the constitution does not has a bearing on the rights of
women are
a. Article 123
b. Article 42
c. Article 39
d. Article 15

Q7. With reference to regionalism, which of the statements given below is/are
correct?
(1) Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying
force.
(2) Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Civil services plays which of the following important roles in a democracy
a. policy making
b. policy implementation
c. socio-economic development
d. all of the above

Q9. India follows the First Past the Post (FPTP) system in Election process,
FPTP system which of the following advantage
a. providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes.
b. less wastage of votes.
c. establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies.
d. encourages tactical voting, as voting is often not based on likeness but
against voters dislike for the candidates.
 Q10. Apart from law making, Indian parliament does not have which of the
following function
a. custodian of Constitution of India
b. providing representation.
Page | 4 c. constraining executive power.
d. providing legitimacy to government

Q11. Kalelkar Commission set up in 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar
with regard to which of the following issues
a. Backward classes
b. State reorganisation on language basis
c. Boundary settlement between India and East Pakistan
d. Community development

Q.12. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), which of following statement is

incorrect
a. As the FC is a constitutional body
b. Its recommendations are binding on the government.
c. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment.
d. It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution

Q13. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), Which of the
statements given above is incorrect
a. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
b. The chairman can be reappointed.
c. President appoints the Chairman on the recommendation of committee headed
by the Prime Minister.
d. Justice Ranganath Misra was the first Chariman

Q14. A person can file a suit against which of the following

a. Union of India.
b. Union Government of India.
c. State Government of India.
d. Parliament of India
 Q15. Consider the following statements about delimitation commission is correct
a. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
b. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any
court.
Page | 5 c. Main task of the commission is redrawing the boundaries of the Lok Sabha
constituencies only.
d. The total representation from each State can changed during this exercise.

Q16. Which of the following statement is true about Chief Election Commissioner
(CEC)
a. CEC receive salary equal to other election commissioners (EC).
b. CEC along with other EC are provided with security of tenure.
c. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.
d. CEC is assisted by three other EC

Q17. In India, the council of ministers does not

a. Have Individual responsibility
b. Have legal responsibility
c. Have collective responsibility
d. Hold office during the pleasure of the president

Q18. The Union executive of India does not include

a. President
b. Vice-President
c. Prime Minister
d. Governor

Q19. Which of the Provision regarding the Attorney General of India is correct
a. He is a part of Union Executive
b. Provisions regarding AG have been duly enshrined in Part-VI of the
constitution
c. He has executive authority
d. He is a neutral person
 Q20. About the chairman of a state public service commission, consider the
following statements
a. He/she is appointed by governor and also can be removed by governor.
b. He/she is appointed by UPSC and also can be removed by Central Govt.
Page | 6 c. He/she is appointed by governor but can only be removed by president.
d. He/she is appointed by President and also can be removed by governor.

Q21. During the time of national emergency, the President can not
a. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
b. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
c. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
d. suspend all fundamental rights

Q22. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by which of the following authority
a. Government via a resolution
b. President
c. Parliament
d. (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension

Q23. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts

a. Special officer for linguistic minorities
b. Advocate general
c. Solicitor general
d. PSC Chairman and members

Q24. Find the wrong statement about the 21st Law Commission of India (LCI)
a. Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan is Chairman of the commission
b. Law commission is constituted for period of 3 years with effect from 1
September 2015 to 31 August 2018.
c. It is a constitutional body
d. First commission was constituted in 1955

Q25. If the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the Speaker, then which of the
following would happen
a. All pending notices would lapse.
b. All bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses.
c. All bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president get lapsed
d. None of the above
 Q26. The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government, which of
following does not contribute to make India Federal
a. Rigidity of constitution
Page | 7 b. Single citizenship
c. Separate list of subjects for Union and state govt.
d. Supremacy of constitution

Q27. Rajya Sabha does not have power equal to that of Lok Sabha in which of
the following regards
a. Approval of ordinances
b. Approval of national emergency
c. Voting on demand for grants
d. Election of President of India

Q28. With regard to the controversial legislation of Armed Forces Special powers
Act (AFSPA), which authority can declare a particular area as disturbed area
a. Governor and Chief Minister
b. Chief Minister and his council of minister only
c. President and Central Government
d. Governor and Central Government

Q29. Which of the following tax is being levied by the central govt
a. Octroi
b. Professional tax
c. Corporation tax
d. Excise duty on liquor

Q30. Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any
particular tax
a. increase it
b. decrease or abolish it
c. full power to increase, decrease or abolish it
d. Parliament has no power, only Finance ministry can take decision on tax
 Q31. With reference to starred questions, which of following statements is correct
a. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given
in written form.
b. Questions are asked and answered in the same sitting only
Page | 8 c. Can be asked and answered by private MPs only
d. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions.

Q32. Which of the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice

a. Question hour
b. Zero hour
c. Half-an-hour discussion
d. Parliament doesnt use any informal practises

Q33. Which is/are not a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR)

a. Gram Nyayalaya
b. Fast Track Courts
c. Lok Adalats
d. Both, Gram Nyayalaya and Lok Adalats

Q34. For withdrawing fund which of the following accounts, Parliamentary

authorization is required
a. Public account of India
b. Consolidated fund of India
c. Contingency Fund of India
d. Foreign Exchange Reserve

Q35. Who participates in the voting process for election of Vice-President

a. elected MPs and nominated MPs only
b. elected MPs, nominated MPs, elected MLAs and nominated MLAs
c. elected MPs and elected MLAs only
d. elected MPs only

Q36. In total how much time it took for Constituent Assembly to finalise the
constitution
a. 2 Years 11 Months 18 Days
b. 2 Years 9 Months 8 Days
c. 2 Years 7 Months 18 Days
d. 2 Years 5 Months 20 Days
 Q37. Which Article is related to Equality before law
a. Art. 15
b. Art. 16
c. Art. 14
Page | 9 d. Art. 13

Q38. Which Article is related with "Abolition of Untouchability"

a. Article 17
b. Article 21
c. Article 15
d. Article 18

Q39. Currently, how many Schedules are present in Constitution of India

a. 10 Schedules
b. 12 Schedules
c. 14 Schedules
d. 16 Schedules

Q40. Which article is related to "Equal Justice and free legal aid"
a. Article 39
b. Article 43
c. Article 43 A
d. Article 39 A

Q41. Which of the following language is not included in the Eight Schedule of
Indian constitution
a. Santali
b. Sanskrit
c. Bodo
d. English

Q42. In which Constitutional Amendment Act Sikkim was made full fledged State of
the Union of India
a. 21st Constitutional Amendment Act
b. 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975
c. 31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973
d. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974
 Q43. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided reservation in admissions in
private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled
castes/tribes and other backward classes
a. 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Page | 10 b. 94th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006
c. 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009
d. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005

Q44. According to the constitution of India, who are the ultimate Sovereign
a. People of India
b. Prime Minister of India
c. President of India
d. Parliament

45. Which of the following is not a constitutional body

a. Election Commission
b. UPSC
c. NITI Aayog
d. Inter State Council

Q46. Meghalaya was created as a separate state in the year

a. 1960
b. 1972
c. 1971
d. 1973

Q47. Which of the following is not among six fundamental rights given in our
Constitution
a. Right to equality
b. Right against exploitation
c. Right to freedom of religion
d. Right to Protest Peacefully

Q48. Article 19 provides six freedoms, which is not among them

a. Reside and settle in any part of citizens own state only.
b. Freedom of speech and expression.
c. Assemble peacefully and without arms.
d. Form associations or unions.
 Q49. When was the Right to Information Act came into force in India
a. 15 august 2005
b. 02th October 2005
c. 13th October 2005
Page | 11 d. 12th October 2005

Q50. What is the minimum age criteria to become the President of India
a. 30 years
b. 35 Years
c. 36 years
d. 22 Years

Q51. The provision of fundamental duties of Indian constitution was borrowed from
which document
a. Constitution of USA
b. United Nations Charter
c. Constitution of Socialist Countries
d. Constitution of UK

Q52. Which is the largest High court of India, in terms of number of sanctioned
Judges
a. Guwahati High Court
b. Bombay High Court
c. Madras High Court
d. Allahabad High Court

Q53. Which is the oldest High Court in the country, being established in 1862
a. Madras High Court
b. Calcutta High Court
c. Bombay High Court
d. Allahabad High Court

Q54. After the presentation of Union Budget, all money bills related are mandatorily
needed to be passed within what period
a. One month
b. Three month
c. 45 days
d. 75 days
 Q55. President of India nominates how many members in Rajya Sabha
a. 2 members
b. 24 members
c. 12 members
Page | 12 d. 10 members

Q56. The Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under jurisdiction of which High court
of India
a. Calcutta High Court
b. Madras High Court
c. Bombay High Court
d. Allahabad High Court

Q57. Which of the following kind of emergency has not been declared so far
a. National emergency under Article 352
b. President Rule under Article 356
c. Financial emergency under Article 360
d. All kinds of emergency has been declared at least once

Q58. In which parts of Indian Constitution does we find mentions of India as a

secular state
a. Directive Principles of state policy
b. Preamble
c. Fundamental Rights
d. The Union

Q59. What is mean by amicus curiae

a. An impartial adviser to a court of law in a particular case.
b. Postponement of a court session until another time or place
c. A judge's decision to end the case.

d. Testimony given by a witness who tells second or third hand information.

Q60. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3-tier
system of Panchayati Raj with what percentage of seats reserved for Scheduled
Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Women
a. 50 %
b. 33 %
c. 66.7 %
d. 25 %
 Q61. For all practical purpose, real executive authority of Union of India stay
with
Page | 13
a. President
b. Lok Sabha
c. Rajya Sabha
d. Council of Minister

Q62. What is the minimum no. of seat required for a political party to form a
majority government in the state
a. 94
b. 126
c. 64
d. 75

Q63. Who holds the record for being the Chief Minister of Assam for maximum
no. of days
a. Bimala Prasad Chaliha
b. Gopinath Bordoloi
c. Tarun Gogoi
d. Hiteswar Saikia

Q64. Assam has how many Autonomous Councils, being constituted in terms of
the Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution
a. Six
b. Two
c. Five
d. Three

Q65. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the States

a. PART II
b. Part VI
c. Part VIII
d. Part XII
 Q66. What is the minimum strength of council of ministers in a state as per the
Constitution of India
a. 15
Page | 14 b. 12
c. 8
d. 6

Q67. Which of the following set of items are available in Concurrent List of Indian
Constitution
a. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Insurance. and Economic and social
planning.
b. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Forests and Economic and social
planning.
c. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Forests and Foreign affairs
d. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Extradition and Economic and social
planning.

Q68. The 3-tier Panchayat Raj system was first introduced in which state
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Goa

Q69. The executive power of the state is with which of the following authority
a. President
b. Chief Minister
c. Governor
d. Council of Ministers in the state

Q70. Who has the power to dismiss Governor of a state

a. President
b. State Legislative Assembly
c. Parliament
d. None can remove Governor since its a constitutional post
 Q71. The Part VI of constitution of India is not applicable to
a. Goa
b. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Jammu & Kashmir
Page | 15 d. Sikkim

Q72. First Inter-state council was constituted in 1990, under which Article of
Indian constitution
a. Article 263
b. Article 143
c. Article 109
d. Article 110

Q73. Which Article of Indian Constitution is also described as the "Heart and
Soul" of it
a. Article 20
b. Article 32
c. Article 36
d. Article 50

Q74. The Preamble was recognised as a part of the constitution in which of the
following case
a. Bebubari Case
b. Golaknath Case
c. Minerva Mills Case
d. Kesavananda Case

Q75. Citizenship Act 1955 provides for how many modes for acquisition of
Citizenship of India
a. Two modes
b. Five modes
c. Three modes
d. This act does not specifies any modes of acquiring Citizenship of India

Q76. Definition of Fundamental Rights are

a. Found in Article 12 of the Constitution of India
b. Found in Article 13 of the Constitution of India
c. Found in Part III of the Constitution of India
d. Not Found in the Constitution of India
 Q77 . Fundamental Rights given under which of the following articles are available
to Citizens only
Page | 16
a. Article 15,16,19 and 30
b. Article 14,15,16,19 and 30
c. Article 16,17,19 and 30
d. Article 15,16,19,21 and 30

Q78. 77th Constitutional Amendment has added the Provision for Reservation in
matters of Promotion for SCs and STs in which Article of Indian Constitution
a. Article 14
b. Article 16
c. Article 48
d. Article 21

Q79. Which of the following constitutional remedy is commonly known as Stay

Order
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Prohibition
d. Quo Warranto

Q80. Directive Principles of State Policy of our constitution promotes the idea of a
a. Welfare State
b. Nation State
c. Police State
d. Economically developed state only

Q81. Fundamental Duties which are the Part IV of Indian Constitution, are
incorporated in
a. Article 48
b. Article 51
c. Article 39
d. Article 51A
 Q82. Parliamentary Govt or Responsible form of Govt is found in which of
following set of countries
Page | 17
a. Britain, Canada, Japan and Bangladesh
b. Britain, China, USA and Japan
c. Britain, UAE, Canada and Japan
d. Britain, USA, Canada and Bhutan

Q83. Which of the following statement is false regarding the demerits of

Presidential System of government
a. Conflict between legislature and executive
b. Non-responsible government
c. May lead to Autocracy
d. Unstable Government

Q84. Who should decide and gives final verdict regarding any disputes arising out
of election of President of India
a. Election Commission
b. Supreme Court
c. Parliament
d. Business Advisory Committee of Parliament

Q85. What types of Vero Power does the President of India has
a. Absolute veto and suspensive veto onlyAbsolute veto, pocket veto,
b. Qualified veto and suspensive veto only
c. Absolute veto, pocket veto and suspensive veto only
d. Pocket veto and suspensive veto only

Q86. Which of the following is not a discretionary power of President of India

a. Can return bill passed by the Parliament once for its reconsideration
b. Exercising pocket veto
c. Selecting Prime minister when no party has majority
d. Giving accent to money bill.
 Q87. Which of the statement is correct about resolution to remove Vice-President
of India
a. Resolution can be moved in any of the house of parliament
b. Resolution can be moved in Lok Sabha only
Page | 18 c. Resolution can be moved in Rajya Sabha only
d. Resolution can be moved only in a joint sitting of both the house of the
parliament

Q88. Who among the following acts as a link and buffer between the Politicians
and executives
a. Governor
b. Secretary of various ministries
c. Political party
d. Cabinet Secretary

Q89. On the recommendation of which committee, does the Railway budget was
separated in 1921
a. Balwantray committee
b. Butler Committee
c. Acword Committee
d. Its separately mentioned in Constitution

Q90. which of the statement regarding the Unique Identification Authority of India
(UIDAI) is correct
a. It comes under the Union Ministry of Finance
b. It is a statutory authority established by the Government of India
c. It is regarded as the world's second largest biometric ID system
d. Nandan Nilekani is the CEO of UIDAI

Q91. Which Article of Indian Constitution is related to the appointment of Attorney

General of India
a. Article 76
b. Article 53
c. Article 61
d. Article 75
 Q92. Supreme court has given the Vishaka guidelines in the Vishaka Case, this
guideline is related to
a. Child labour
b. Under-wage of women for any job
Page | 19 c. Domestic violence related to dowry case
d. sexual harassment of women at workplace

Q93. Who can include or exclude any tribe from the list of Scheduled Tribe
a. Parliament only
b. Parliament and President Only
c. Governor and State Legislative Assembly Only
d. All the Above

Q94. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED)

was established in 1987, for which of the following main purpose
a. Institutionalise trade of Minor Forest produce and Surplus Agricultural Produce
b. Developing Markets in interior tribal areas
c. Institutional Development of Tribal Area
d. Develop marketing skill of rural India

Q95. Which of the following commission was setup to examine the relationship and
balance of power between union and state govt and to recommend necessary steps
to improve the relation
a. Mandal commission
b. States Reorganisation Commission
c. Sarkaria Commission
d. Nachiket More Committee

Q96. Which of the following statement is/are not correct regarding the Panchayats
(Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
a. It ensures self governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living
in the Scheduled Areas of India.
b. It has extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to cheduled
Areas, which were not covered by the Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian
Constitution.
c. Makes prior consultation with Gram Sabhas before acquisition of any land for
developemtn purpose.
d. It made a National body for Tribal Panchayats to interact and discuss
various development works
 Q97. Which of the following is not a duty of the Public Information Officers
(PIOs), as specified under the Right To Information Act 2005
a. He/She to deal with the requests frompublic seeking information
b. He/she to provide the information within 30 days of receipt of request, if
Page | 20 the request it to be accepted
c. Wherever a request is rejected, He/She shall communicate the reason to
the information seeker.
d. His/Her decision is final with regards to the information of the concern
Public Authority, and there is no appeal for his/her action

Q98. Which committee has recommended for setting up of the Central Vigilance
Commission
a. Wanchoo Committee
b. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
c. Santhanam Committee
d. Jyoti Basu Committee

Q99. Which is the first country in the world to create the post of Ombudsman, as
an officer to handle complain against administrative and judicial action
a. India
b. Sweden
c. Norway
d. Japan

Q100. Which of the following options are not correct regarding the Ninth Schedule
of Indian Constitution
a. Added by first Amendment Act of 1951
b. This part is out of the scope of Judicial Review
c. Related to Laws relating to land reform
d. Deals with Article 31 (B) of the constitution

Answer Keys in the Next Page

 APSC Prelim GS Test Series
Answer Keys for Test 1
Page | 21
Qs Ans Qs Ans Qs Ans Qs Ans
1 D 26 B 51 C 76 D
2 A 27 C 52 D 77 A
3 C 28 D 53 B 78 B
4 D 29 C 54 D 79 C
5 B 30 B 55 C 80 A
6 A 31 D 56 A 81 D
7 D 32 B 57 C 82 A
8 D 33 D 58 B 83 D
9 C 34 B 59 A 84 B
10 A 35 A 60 B 85 C
11 A 36 A 61 D 86 D
12 B 37 C 62 C 87 C
13 B 38 A 63 C 88 D
14 A 39 B 64 D 89 C
15 B 40 D 65 B 90 B
16 A 41 D 66 B 91 A
17 B 42 B 67 B 92 D
18 D 43 D 68 B 93 B
19 A 44 A 69 C 94 A
20 C 45 C 70 A 95 C
21 B 46 B 71 C 96 D
22 C 47 D 72 A 97 D
23 C 48 A 73 B 98 C
24 C 49 D 74 D 99 B
25 D 50 B 75 B 100 B
Page | 22

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