MCQs Part 1

1. A job description is best defined as _____.

A. the organization's framework for AA compliance
B. the organization's indicator of tasks required for each job
C. the organizations principle job training tool
D. the organization's performance appraisal instrument

2. Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?

A. formal organization charts
B. clear and precise job descriptions
C. well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
D. all of the above

3. Which of the following is a good definition of a job family?

A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the
performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimension

4. Which of the following is a good definition of a job category?

A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the
performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions

5. Which of the following is a good definition of a job?

A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the
performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions

6. Which of the following is a good definition of a task?

A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in
the performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions

7. Measures of engagement reflect _________.

A. task characteristics that are readily accommodated by job analysis
B. the degree to which an employee helps co-workers voluntarily
C. the degree to which an employee identifies with and has enthusiasm for his or her work
D. the employee's tendency to reject alternative employment offers when given
8. The best approach to job analysis for traditional or evolving jobs is _____.
A. job requirements job analysis
B. competency based job analysis
C. team-based job analysis
D. functional job analysis
9. Which of the following is NOT shown by an ideal task statement?
A. what the employee does
B. to whom or what the employee does what he or she does
C. what is produced
D. how each behavior is rewarded
10. Which of the following is a component of a job requirements matrix?
A. Job tenure
B. Job pay
C. Job context
D. Job appraisal
11. Sentence analysis technique is an aid to __________.
A. writing the job summary
B. describing the KSAOs
C. drafting precise task statements
D. describing the job context
12. It can be accurately said of the "task dimension" component of a job description that it ___________.
A. provides a rating of task importance
B. is a grouping of similar tasks
C. indicates appropriate KSAOs
D. indicates the nature of KSAOs

13. The job context component of a job description does not __________.
A. encompass both tasks and KSAOs
B. describe physical demands
C. describe environmental characteristics
D. address pay scales

14. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix may be _________.

A. converted to a job specification
B. converted to a job description
C. converted to a job evaluation
D. converted into a job pay scale

15. A body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks is _______.
A. knowledge
B. skills
C. abilities
D. none of the above

16. An underlying, enduring trait of the person that is useful for performing a range of tasks is _______.
A. knowledge
B. skills
C. abilities
D. none of the above
17. An observable competence for working with or applying information to perform a particular task is
_______.
A. knowledge
B. skills
C. abilities
D. none of the above

18. If tasks/dimensions are not weighted formally, then ________.

A. the job description has no value
B. AA non-compliance will result
C. all tasks/dimensions are assessed as equally important by default
D. pay scales cannot be developed

19. The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to ______.
A. provide acceptance of job statements to guide performance on the job
B. verify statements are inclusive and accurate
C. control incumbent responses on job analysis questionnaires
D. establish pay scales

20. A limitation of observation as a means of gathering job information would be ______________.

A. access to job context
B. short job cycle
C. access to KSAOs

D. mental processes are difficult to measure

21. Which of the following is an advantage of using job task questionnaires?
A. Use with large numbers of people
B. Highly diverse job content and formats
C. Working with top management positions
D. Working with newly created jobs

22. Which of the following is not a good reason for using an outside consultant for job analysis?
A. Technical innovativeness is critical
B. Legal scrutiny of project output/processes is high
C. Knowledge of organization culture is critical
D. Data collection involves specialized statistical methods

23. Skills contained in O*Net include _____________.

A. basic skills
B. cross-functional skills
C. sensory abilities
D. all of the above

24. The best approach to job analysis for flexible jobs with changing requirements is _____.
A. job requirements job analysis
B. competency based job analysis
C. team-based job analysis
D. functional job analysis
25. A competency is _____.
A. a type of behavior that is observed on the job
B. an underlying characteristic of an individual that contributes to job or role performance
C. a latent component of the job characteristics matrix
D. a compilation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that make up a job

26. Unlike KSAOs, competencies usually describe characteristics ________.

A. of individuals that contribute to job performance
B. that are used for selecting individuals
C. that contribute to success across multiple jobs
D. of organizational reward systems

27. Competency modeling is useful for which of the following applications?

A. Identifying needs for replacement and succession planning
B. Internal promotion processes
C. Facilitating the HR planning process
D. All of the above

28. Competency modeling is strategically used to _________.

A. Create awareness of the need for stability in business
B. Enhance the skill level of the workforce
C. Encourage employees to focus on their own jobs as much as possible
D. None of the above

29. Which of the following is not one of the "great eight" competencies?
A. Mechanical knowledge
B. Creating
C. Organizing
D. Performing

30. Which of the following is not an example of an extrinsic reward?

A. Pay
B. Promotion
C. Autonomy
D. Fringe benefits

31. It is critical than when employees are interviewed about their reward preferences, the content of the
interviews is ____________.
A. made public so managers can match employee preferences immediately
B. kept confidential so employees can report honestly
C. developed through an informal process so employees feel comfortable
D. generally less important than the process used in asking questions

32. Which of the following HR outcomes arise from providing and using
rewards?
A. applicant attraction
B. employee performance
C. employee retention
D. all of the above
33. What is the "employee value proposition?"
A. the total worth of an employee's KSAOs
B. the organization's package of rewards provided to employees
C. the net worth of an organization's employees
D. none of the above

34. Which of the following best represents the order of aspects important for job satisfaction identified in
surveys, from most valued to least valued?
A. variety of work, relationship with supervisor, compensation, and networking
B. relationship with supervisor, networking, variety of work, and compensation
C. job security, benefits, opportunities to use skills and abilities, and financial stability
D. networking, variety of work, relationship with supervisor, and compensation

35. When assessing appropriate rewards, organizations can use information from _____________.
A. surveys conducted by the Department of Labor
B. surveys conducted by the Society for Human Resources Management
C. internal organizational sources
D. all of the above

36. Which of the following could harm an organization's legal defense in an EEO/AA case?
A. Written job descriptions
B. Large sample sizes employed in job analysis
C. Emphasis mostly on primary tasks
D. Emphasis mostly on secondary tasks

37. In defining essential job functions for the purposes of complying with ADA regulations, which of the
following does not convey the meaning "essential?"
A. Compensation for the function is above average
B. Position exists to perform the function
C. Incumbent expertise required to perform the function
D. There are limited numbers of employees among whom performance of the function can be distributed
38. When using job analysis to comply with the ADA, which of the following is considered most helpful by
the EEOC?
A. Focusing on the way the work is usually done
B. Focusing on the results of a function
C. Focusing on the average qualifications of job holders
D. Focusing on managerial assessments of skill relevance

39. An interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal is
called a _____.
A. project unit
B. department
C. work team
D. goal circle

40. Which of the following are unique properties of teams, from a staffing point of view?
A. Competencies are not generally useful for selection in teams because of the division of responsibility in
teams
B. KSAOs for teams involve job-spanning skills because members perform multiple roles
C. Most research shows intelligence is unrelated to team success
D. Both A and C

41. What is meant by the term 'management by

objectives?
A. A system of giving the authority to carry out certain jobs by those lower down the management
hierarchy.
B. The system of management that is based on bringing together experts into a
team
C. The setting of objectives to bring about the achievement of the corporate goals
D. The control of the organization by those in the 'head office'.

42. Workforce planning involves all of the following except

A. examining production plans in a
factory.
B. Organizing the training of
staff.
C. Forecasting future personnel
requirements
D. Preparing and maintaining personnel records.

43. An advantage of recruitment from outside the company

is
A. That it is cheaper than internal
recruitment.
B. That it brings in new experience and skills to the
firm.
C. That there is no need to advertise the
vacancy.
D. That it avoids jealousy within the firm.

44. What is meant by the term functional

management?
A. A system of business organization that is based on an individual having a wide range of
skills.
B. A type of management that is based more on
personality.
C . A system that groups together various jobs and is organized by departments, sections or
functions.
D. A system that supports a flat form of command chain.

45. Most management teams use 'appraisal' but what is meant by this
term?
A. A system used to improve the performance of personnel.
B. The main way in which an employees wages are determined.
C. A system of reward points offered by retailers to attract customer loyalty.
D. The evaluation of an individual employee's performance over a given period of time.
46. Piecework is a payment system where the worker is
A. paid overtime for any hours worked beyond 40 per week.
B. rewarded for good conduct.
C. is paid a minimum of Skk 55 per hour.
D. is paid for what he or she achieves.

47. Ineffective planning of workforce would be highlighted by

A. Recruitment and selection problems.
B. The need to out source some of the production.
C. A need to offer retraining to current employees.
D. An opportunity to increase the use of mechanization.

48. What is meant by the term delegation?

A. A system of management that relies on consulting employees before making decisions.
B. The process of using goals as the best way of motivating managers to achieve corporate
targets/objectives.
C. The giving of tasks by a manager to a subordinate.
D. A style of management supported by Taylor.

49. Which of the following will influence the method of recruitment and selection used by a
company?
A. The state of the economy.
B. The size of the organization.
C. The type of training programmes used by the company.
D. The possible expansion of business abroad.

50. Which of the following is an accurate definition of recruitment?

A. The process of attempting to fill gaps that exist in the skills of the current labor force.
B. The system of following someone around and noting how they perform their duties.
C. The process by which companies fill the need to find new employees.
D. A statement that enshrines the fundamental objectives of the company.

51. What does term authoritarian leadership mean?

A. A style of leadership where the leader keeps a very tight control on all information and decision-
making.
B. A system of leadership that allows maximum participation by all employees.
C. A chain of command that is flat and allows considerable personal freedom to make decisions.
D. The selling of debts to an agency, who take responsibility for their collection.

52. The products or services of HRM include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Organizational
restructuring
B. Job design
C. Personnel
planning
D. Evaluating
E. Manufacturing
53. Which of the following does not offer sources of uniqueness?
A. Financial or economic capability
B. Product capability
C. Technical capability
D. Equal employment capability
E. Organizational capability

54. __________ involves the arrangement of work tasks based on the interaction of people, technology, and
the tasks to be performed in the context of the mission, goals, and the strategic plan of the organization.
A. Employee and organizational development
B. Organizational design
C. Staffing
D. Performance management
E. Organizational development

55. Measurement and ________ are key to achieving organizational effectiveness and gaining and
maintaining a competitive advantage.
A. Intuitive decision making
B. subjective decision making
C. A focus on short term consequences
D. Data-driven decision making
E. A focus on organizational strengths

56. The major domains of HRM are:

A. Selection, training, performance management, and compensation.
B. Human resources planning, job and work analysis, organizational restructuring, job design, team
building, computerization, and worker-machine interfaces.
C. Organizational design, staffing, performance management and appraisal, employee training and
organizational development, and reward systems, benefits, ad compliance.
D. HR design, planning, downsizing, and restructuring.
E. Recruitment, employee orientation, selection, promotion, and termination.

57. In their research, Huselid, Becker and Beatty found that traditional financial performance measures such
as return on equity, and ROI are ________ and can be predicted by the way a company conducts its HR
practices which are ___________.
A. Opportunities, strengths
B. Lagging indicators, leading indicators
C. Qualitative, subjective
D. Measures of marginal productivity, lagging indicators
E. Leading indicators, lagging indicators

58. Graphology is associated

with:
A. Quality analysis.
B. Behavioral analysis.
C. Appraisal process analysis.
D. Handwriting analysis.
E. Actuarial model analysis.
59. Which of the following challenge for successful workforce measurement and management asks
whether managers have the access, capability, and motivation to use measurement data to communicate
strategy and monitor
progress?
A. Metrics
B. Perspective
C.Execution
D.Validation
E. Quality workforce

60. Which of the following is one of the six general steps that an organization must take to develop a
workforce scorecard:
A. View a workforce in terms of cost rather than contribution.
B. Establish a uniform incentive system.
C. Identify low performers to reduce variance in the system.
D. Translate measures into specific actions and accountabilities
E. Provide employees with brief descriptions of what is expected

61. HPWP stands for:

A. high-performance work practices
B. high-productivity work practices
C. high-profit work practices
D. high-paying work practices
E. high-product work practices

62. Which HRM domain includes affirmative action/diversity, promotion/separation, and orientation?
A. Organizational design
B. Performance management and appraisal
C. Staffing
D. Reward systems and compliance
E. Employee training and organizational development

63. Which domain would include assessment of an individual, or a departments, degree of success in
meeting or exceeding predetermined levels of productivity and/or quality.
A. Organizational design
B. Staffing
C. Performance management
D. Employee training and organizational development
E. Reward systems, benefits, and compliance

64. Which act prohibits job discrimination on the basis of race, sex, color, religion, or national origin?
A. Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. National Labor Relations Act
E. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
65. The Valley National Bank exercise demonstrated that
A. An employees length of service should not be considered when making employment decisions.
B. Issues such as discrimination suits should never be talked about directly with the employee making the
claim.
C. Understanding an organizations goals, strengths and weaknesses is critical to managing human
resources in order to gain a competitive advantage.
D. Compensation issues have no impact on employee morale.
E. Career planning is the sole responsibility of the employee, managers should never interfere.

MCQs Part 2

1) Strategic planning primarily benefits a firm's managers by ________.

A) outlining procedures for firing employees
B) creating a hierarchy of decision-makers
C) establishing goals to be accomplished
D) allowing employees to provide input
E) clarifying the supply chain network

2) Since most well-run firms utilize a hierarchy of goals to guide major decisions, ________ is especially
important to managers at every level to prevent departments from working at cross-purposes.
A) strategic planning
B) financial auditing
C) employee testing
D) employee benchmarking
E) annual personnel training

3) What is the first step in the management planning process?

A) evaluating the alternatives
B) making forecasts of trends
C) implementing a course of action
D) setting an objective
E) comparing options

4) Which of the following is the most significant difference between managerial planning and the basic
planning process?
A) evaluation of alternative methods
B) comparisons of strengths and weaknesses
C) establishment of clear objectives
D) assessment of long-term goals
E) interference from corporate hierarchies

5) Which of the following provides a comprehensive view of both a firm's current situation and its goals for
the next 3 to 5 years?
A) SWOT analysis
B) business plan
C) value proposition
D) financial plan
E) operations plan
6) The main contents of a typical business plan include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) political forecast
B) business description
C) marketing plan
D) financial plan
E) personnel plan

7) The purpose of the marketing plan that is included within a business plan is to ________.
A) clarify the projected profits of a firm's products
B) set long-term objectives for a firm's middle managers
C) assign measurable goals for a firm's sales team
D) specify the features of a firm's product or service
E) describe the benefits of performing an industry analysis

8) In order to implement a marketing plan, Apple needs a(n) ________ that will address its productive assets
like the factories, machines, and facilities required to manufacture and distribute its popular iPods.
A) balance sheet
B) pricing strategy
C) operations plan
D) income statement
E) personnel plan

9) SMART goals set by managers are ________.

A) specific, measurable, aggressive, required, and tested
B) short-term, motivational, attainable, relevant, and total
C) standardized, manageable, accurate, restrictive, and tested
D) short-term, measurable, aggressive, risky, and timely
E) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely

10) Raj and his manager meet for lunch to jointly set Raj's quarterly sales goals. Raj's manager will
periodically assess the progress Raj makes towards those goals. Raj and his manager are most likely
participating in ________.
A) strategic planning initiatives
B) corporate-level strategizing
C) management by objectives
D) human resource arbitration
E) job instruction training

11) Which of the following is the primary benefit of MBO?

A) MBO is an effective method for determining the relationship between an employee's goals and the
goals of supervisors and subordinates.
B) Feedback provided by customers who participate in an MBO program enhances a firm's marketing
efforts.
C) Implementing an MBO program requires very little time and provides extensive employee motivation.
D) MBO is an informal yet highly effective technique of documenting a firm's long-term goals and
objectives.
E) An MBO program encourages employee participation during department meetings and company
conferences.
12) A(n) ________ is a firm's method for matching its internal strengths and weaknesses with external
opportunities and threats to maintain a competitive advantage.
A) strategic plan
B) situation analysis
C) environmental scan
D) SWOT analysis
E) tactical plan

13) A course of action that a firm can pursue to achieve its strategic aims is known as a ________.
A) vision
B) goal
C) strategy
D) tactic
E) mission

14) All of the following are steps involved in the strategic management process EXCEPT ________.
A) evaluating the firm's internal and external situation
B) defining the business and developing a mission
C) translating the mission into strategic goals
D) crafting a course of action
E) offshoring low-skill jobs

15) What is the first step in the strategic management process?

A) formulating a strategy
B) defining the current business
C) translating a mission into goals
D) performing internal and external audits
E) implementing an environmental scan

16) Which of the following is a simple guide used to compile relevant information about economic,
competitive, and political trends that may affect a firm?
A) organization chart
B) workforce requirement matrix
C) environmental scanning worksheet
D) external resource system table
E) potential globalization network

17) The primary tool used by managers who are performing external and internal audits as part of the
strategic management process is the ________.
A) BCG matrix
B) QSPM matrix
C) SWOT chart
D) EPS/EBIT table
E) MBO assessment

18) Which of the following provides a summary of a firm's intended direction and shows, in broad terms,
"what we want to become"?
A) mission statement
B) strategic plan
C) code of ethics
D) vision statement
E) marketing plan

19) The sales director at WebMD is calculating annual sales revenue targets and the number of new
medical-related content providers that the firm needs to maintain a competitive advantage. In which step of
the strategic management process is the sales director involved?
A) performing external and internal audits
B) defining the business and its mission
C) translating a mission into strategic goals
D) evaluating strategic decisions
E) implementing a strategy

20) The ________ of the California Energy Commission indicates that the organization assesses and acts
through public and private partnerships to improve energy systems that promote a strong economy and a
healthy environment.
A) mission statement
B) strategic plan
C) code of ethics
D) vision statement
E) organizational code

21) A company's ________ strategy identifies the portfolio of businesses that comprise a firm and the ways
in which these businesses relate to each other.
A) functional
B) business unit
C) corporate-level
D) competitive
E) departmental

22) A diversification corporate strategy implies that a firm will ________.

A) become an industry's low-cost leader
B) expand by adding new product lines
C) reduce the company's size to increase market share
D) save money by producing its own raw materials
E) increase profits by offering one popular product

23) Harley-Davidson sells a line of boots, helmets, and leather jackets indicating that the the firm is pursuing
which of the following strategies?
A) cost leadership
B) conglomerate diversification
C) geographic expansion
D) related diversification
E) horizontal integration

24) Acquiring control of competitors in the same or similar markets with the same or similar products is
known as ________.
A) market penetration
B) product development
C) vertical integration
D) geographic expansion
E) horizontal integration

25) Winchester Rugs operates a web site called www.buyrugsdirect.com, so Winchester Rugs is most likely
using a strategy of ________.
A) consolidation
B) conglomerate diversification
C) geographic expansion
D) vertical integration
E) horizontal integration

26) Which of the following activities most likely indicates that a firm is implementing a vertical integration
strategy?
A) selling unprofitable divisions
B) offshoring low-skill jobs
C) producing raw materials
D) aggressively selling a new product
E) purchasing a competitor's firm

27) The 2008 announcement by Starbucks that it would be closing approximately 600 of its stores suggests
the firm was using a ________ strategy.
A) consolidation
B) diversification
C) geographic expansion
D) vertical integration
E) product development
Answer: A

28) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has
gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage
industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less
costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-
quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year old company has 50 employees, and its products are
available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multi-million dollar investments
which will enable the business to expand its national presence.
Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should implement a
corporate-level strategy of market penetration?
A) Sweet Leaf Tea can expand its customer base and reduce costs by selling its products directly at Sweet
Leaf stores.
B) Sweet Leaf Tea can develop a national name by adding new product lines, such as organic snack foods
and organic coffee.
C) Sweet Leaf Tea's marketing research indicates that customers would purchase the organic beverages
more frequently if the prices were lower.
D) Sweet Leaf Tea can achieve growth by aggressively selling its beverages in current markets where
loyal customers will help boost word-of-mouth.
E) Sweet Leaf Tea's competitors primarily focus their marketing and distribution efforts on regional
grocery-store chains rather than big box national retailers.
29) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has
gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage
industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less
costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-
quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year old company has 50 employees, and its products are
available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multi-million dollar investments
which will enable the business to expand its national presence.
Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should
implement a corporate-level strategy of vertical integration?
A) Sweet Leaf Tea lacks the facilities or knowledge to produce the raw ingredients for its beverages.
B) Market research suggests that Sweet Leaf Tea customers primarily purchase only one flavor of tea.
C) Most loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea purchase the beverage at neighborhood convenience stores.
D) Sweet Leaf Tea has decided to lower its prices by replacing cane sugar with corn syrup in some of its
beverages.
E) Sugar farmers used by Sweet Leaf Tea have agreed to a fixed price for the next 5 years so that the
company can keep prices low.

30) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has
gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage
industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less
costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-
quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year old company has 50 employees, and its products are
available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multi-million dollar investments
which will enable the business to expand its national presence.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the idea that Sweet Leaf Tea has implemented a competitive
strategy of differentiation?
A) New Sweet Leaf Tea customers are initially attracted to the unique labels and logo on the bottles.
B) Loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea seek products that are USDA certified organic despite the
associated higher costs.
C) Other brands of bottled iced tea compete with Sweet Leaf Tea by offering new flavors at competitive
prices.
D) Sweet Leaf Tea sells both lemonade and teas in a variety of flavors that appeal to consumers of all ages.
E) Sweet Leaf Tea has not raised its prices in several years due to fears of losing regional customers.

31) A company's ________ strategy identifies how to build and strengthen the business's long-term
competitive position in the marketplace.
A) functional
B) economic
C) corporate-level
D) horizontal
E) competitive

32) Which of the following refers to any factors that allow a company to differentiate its product or service
from those of its competitors to increase market share?
A) functional strategy
B) competitive advantage
C) distinctive competence
D) competitive focusers
E) related diversification

33) A company's business-level strategy identifies the ________.

A) ways to build and strengthen a firm's long-term competitive position in the marketplace
B) tools for diversifying a business portfolio through the acquisition of a multi-national enterprise
C) specific courses of action that each department will pursue to help a firm accomplish its vision
D) means to becoming a low-cost leader within a highly competitive industry
E) ways to carve out a market niche in order to compete for high-end customers

34) Companies like Ferrari are known as ________ because they carve out a market niche and compete by
providing a product that customers can attain in no other way.
A) cost leaders
B) focusers
C) visionaries
D) market leaders
E) complementary competitors

35) Which of the following strategies identifies the broad activities that each department will pursue in order
to help a business attain its competitive goals?
A) competitive
B) business-level
C) corporate-level
D) consolidation
E) functional

36) A firm's functional strategies identify the broad activities that each ________ will pursue in order to
help the firm accomplish its competitive goals.
A) board member
B) supplier
C) department
D) executive
E) employee

37) Strategic planning expert Michael Porter uses the term ________ to describe how a firm's departmental
strategies and competitive aims should align for the greatest impact.
A) strategic objectives
B) visionary strategy
C) vertical strategy
D) strategic management
E) strategic fit

38) All of the following are roles that departmental managers would most likely have in the strategic
planning process EXCEPT ________.
A) assisting top managers in devising a strategic plan
B) developing functional, departmental plans
C) implementing functional, departmental plans
D) deciding the businesses in which a firm will be involved
E) providing input to top management about industry trends
39) Exporting jobs from developed countries to countries with low labor force costs is known as ________.
A) freelancing
B) unionizing
C) offshoring
D) integrating
E) networking

40) Formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee
competencies and behaviors a company needs to achieve its strategic aims is known as ________.
A) strategic human resource management
B) human resource performance systems
C) strategic human resource metrics
D) high-performance personnel management
E) personnel management by objectives

41) The primary purpose of strategic human resource management is to ________.

A) develop human resource policies that align with the industry standard
B) link a company's strategic plan with its human resource strategies
C) create stringent appraisal systems that highlight employee weaknesses
D) eliminate bonuses for top management and distribute the cost savings among subordinates
E) use offshoring to reduce human resource costs and to initiate globalization

42) In order to generate the desired workforce skills, competencies, and behaviors that a firm needs to
achieve its strategic goals, human resource management must first develop ________.
A) HR consultants
B) HR strategies
C) HR databases
D) employee cultures
E) company norms

43) Which of the following most likely serves as the basis for the HR strategies developed by the majority of
firms?
A) mission statements
B) potential strengths
C) supervisory objectives
D) competitive advantages
E) workforce requirements

44) Which of the following is the final step in the strategic human resource management process?
A) formulating HR policies and practices
B) identifying a firm's workforce requirements
C) formulating an effective business strategy
D) developing detailed HR scorecard measures
E) testing current employees for skills and knowledge
45) Human resource strategies are the ________ used to support a firm's strategic goals.
A) visions and objectives
B) policies and practices
C) missions and goals
D) plans and evaluations
E) theories and tools

46) As with many failed mergers and acquisitions, the Bank of America acquisition of Merrill Lynch was
unsuccessful because of problems with ________.
A) technology
B) financing
C) geography
D) personnel
E) stock prices

47) Which of the following best explains the increased success of mergers and acquisitions in recent years?
A) improvements in wireless communication technology
B) union support of employee rights in multiple industries
C) fewer restrictions regarding corporate globalization
D) federal legislation regarding employee wages and rights
E) consistent involvement of human resource management

48) During a merger or an acquisition, due diligence reviews performed by human resource teams are most
likely to assess all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) accounting procedures
B) organizational culture
C) employee compensation
D) employee benefits
E) labor relations

49) Which of the following is the most important human resource issue to address during the first few
months of a merger?
A) interviewing and hiring low-level managers
B) modifying benefits packages
C) identifying and retaining key talent
D) modifying employee pay grades
E) eliminating annual employee reviews

50) All of the following are services that human resource consulting companies provide during mergers and
acquisitions EXCEPT ________.
A) aligning compensation programs
B) overseeing database recovery systems
C) developing change management plans
D) designing and implementing staffing models
E) managing employee communications strategies

51) Which of the following is a strategic planning tool that shows the "big picture" of how each department's
performance contributes to achieving the company's overall strategic goals?
A) HR audit
B) strategic plan
C) digital dashboard
D) strategy map
E) HR scorecard

52) Which of the following refers to a process for assigning financial and nonfinancial goals to the HR
management-related chain of activities required for achieving the company's strategic aims and for
monitoring results?
A) strategy map
B) HR scorecard
C) internal auditing
D) HR feedback scale
E) digital dashboard

53) A ________ presents a manager with desktop graphs and charts that illustrate where the company stands
on metrics from the HR scorecard process.
A) strategy map
B) HR benchmark
C) business plan
D) scanning worksheet
E) digital dashboard

54) The concise measurement system used by companies to show the quantitative standards the firm uses to
measure HR activities, employee behaviors resulting from the activities, and the strategically relevant
organizational outcomes of those employee behaviors is called a(n) ________.
A) evaluation system
B) HR scorecard
C) appraisal system
D) evaluation benchmark
E) annual report

55) Which of the following is used to manage employee performance and to align all employees with the
key objectives a firm needs to achieve its strategic goals?
A) functional planning system
B) HR Scorecard
C) annual HR benchmarks
D) high performance work system
E) MBO format

56) Which of the following terms refers to a set of human resource management policies and practices that
promote organizational effectiveness?
A) management by objectives system
B) human resource metric
C) corporate-level strategy
D) high-performance work system
E) strategic human resource map
57) High-performance work organizations are most likely characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
________.
A) multi-skilled work teams
B) empowered front-line workers
C) extensive training
D) labor management cooperation
E) commitment to high production rates

58) High-performance work systems have become necessary for U.S. firms due to ________.
A) unemployment rates
B) federal regulations
C) increased minimum wages
D) global competition
E) cost leadership

59) All of the following practices are most likely implemented by companies with high-performance work
systems EXCEPT ________.
A) hiring employees based on validated selection tests
B) filling positions with internal candidates
C) utilizing self-managing work teams
D) providing extensive training to employees
E) providing pay increases based on service years

60) Reese Enterprises seeks to fill upper-level positions internally whenever possible and uses validated
selection tests when considering external hires. This most likely suggests the company is developing a
________.
A) high-performance work system
B) scorecard management system
C) benchmark
D) management by objectives strategy
E) selection metric

61) Which of the following is most likely a true statement about high-performance companies?
A) Most employees are members of a local labor union.
B) Most employees receive regular performance appraisals.
C) Employee turnover is extremely high.
D) Only executives are eligible for incentive pay.
E) The majority of jobs are filled externally.

62) Which of the following terms refers to the quantitative measure of a human resource management
yardstick such as employee turnover or qualified applicants per position?
A) human resource audit
B) high-performance work system
C) human resource metric
D) management by objectives
E) human resource scorecard
63) The use of human resource metrics is essential for ________.
A) management by objectives
B) emergent employee behaviors
C) corporate-level strategies
D) related diversification
E) evidence-based management

64) The primary purpose of implementing high-performance practices such as recruiting, screening, and
training is to ________.
A) foster a strong organizational culture
B) eliminate the tendency to hire interns for full-time positions
C) create management opportunities for new hires
D) develop a trained and self-motivated workforce
E) utilize benchmarks to compare personnel skills within an industry

65) Which of the following terms refers to the process of comparing and analyzing the practices of one firm
with those of a high-performing company?
A) benchmarking
B) diversifying
C) offshoring
D) strategizing
E) outsourcing

66) According to studies, combining high-performance HR practices with modern technology most likely
leads to increases in all of the following areas EXCEPT ________.
A) worker productivity
B) media mentions
C) annual sales
D) product quality
E) financial performance

67) Which of the following refers to an analysis by which an organization measures where it currently
stands and determines what it has to accomplish to improve its HR functions?
A) HR methodology
B) HR benchmark
C) HR checklist
D) HR audit
E) HR ratio

68) Which of the following audits is used by HR managers to determine whether a firm is adhering to
relevant laws and regulations?
A) strategic audit
B) compliance audit
C) organizational audit
D) best practices audit
E) function specific audit
 69) What is the first step of the HR audit process?
A) planning the audit budget
B) attaining top management support
C) drafting an audit team
D) determining the scope of the audit
E) compiling internal and external checklists

70) All of the following are commonly used HR metrics EXCEPT ________.
A) communication expenses
B) absence rate
C) cost per hire
D) human capital ROI
E) health care costs per employee
MCQs Part 3 (True/False)

1. Job requirements job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular
job.
True
2. Job analysis is a primary input and support activity for most functional staffing activities.
True
3. Team-based jobs lend themselves particularly well to job requirements job analysis.
False
4. The job requirements matrix is composed of two components: tasks and KSAOs.
True
5. Task statements are objectively written descriptions of the behaviors or work activities engaged in by
employees in order to perform the job.
True
6. Task statements should reflect what the employee does, to whom or what the employee does what he or she
does, what is produced, and what is used.
True
7. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix is often converted to a job description.
False
8. The term "task dimension" has the same basic meaning as "duties" or "areas of responsibility." True
9. Sentence analysis is used to develop competencies.
False
10. Tasks should be constructed using broadly applicable verbs, such as "supports," "assists," and "handles."
False
11. It is possible to weight task dimensions using either relative time spent, percentage of time spent, or
importance to overall job performance.
True
12. Knowledge is a body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks.
True
13. Skills are underlying, enduring traits of a person that are useful for performing a range of tasks.
False
14. The work setting, attire, environmental conditions, and job hazards are associated with a job's "context."
True
15. Having two or more people independently develop task statements for a given job is a way to enhance
content validity and assess reliability.
True
16. It is not really necessary, or even advisable, to have an incumbent or supervisor serve as job analysts.
False
17. Little research has been done to identify particular job-related skills.
False
18. In general, there are few, if any, sources of job information external to the organization where the job is
performed.
False
19. Direct observation is a source for job information that is well suited for jobs with physical components, and
relatively short cycle times for job tasks.
True
20. Using managers in a job analysis lends both expertise and neutrality to the process.
False
21. When a job analysis is likely to be legally, technically or politically scrutinized, it is best to use an internal
person to do the analysis, rather than an external consultant.
False
22. In general, when rational or narrative job analysis methods are desired, it is advisable to rely on external
consultants rather than internal staff.
False
23. A valuable use of O*NET is that it serves as a starting point in preparing knowledge statements.
True
24. Subject matter experts should not include previous jobholders, private consultants, and customers/clients.
False
25. The O*Net contains work context factors pertaining to interpersonal relationships and to structural job
characteristics.
True
26. The term essential functions refers to the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual
with a disability holds or desires.
True
27. The Position Analysis Questionnaire measures extrinsic rewards such as pay, recognition, and promotional
opportunities.
False
28. Competency-based job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular
job.
False
29. Competencies are more specific than KSAOs.
False
30. Competency-based job analysis attempts to identify and describe job requirements in the form of general
KSAOs that are required across a range of jobs.
True
31. Competencies contribute to job performance, but not to organizational success.
False
32. Competency based job analysis is a way to facilitate increased staffing flexibility.
True
33. A key strategic HR reason for performing competency modeling is to create awareness and understanding
of the need for change in business.
True
34. Competency modeling is useful for improving workforce skills, but is generally of little use for
replacement or succession planning.
False
35. Although competency modeling has its advantages relative to job requirements job analysis, it does require
considerable time and effort to establish competency models in an organization.
True
36. The "Great Eight" competencies include leading, supporting, presenting, analyzing, creating, organizing,
adapting, and performing.
True
37. The legal implications of analyzing competencies beyond job specific ones are well-known.
False
38. Pay, benefits, and promotions are typical intrinsic job rewards.
False
39. Intrinsic rewards are best characterized as "inherent in the nature of the job and experienced by the
employee as an outgrowth of actually doing the job."
True
40. The employee value proposition is the bundle or package of KSAOs that the employee provides to the
organization.
False
41. Surveys and interviews with employees are a key way to gather information on job rewards preferences.
True
42. One advantage of intrinsic rewards is that they are basically costless.
False
43. Interviews and surveys of current employees on job rewards, no matter how comprehensive, miss several
relevant groups of individuals.
True
44. Surveys of employees clearly suggest that intrinsic rewards are seen as more important for job satisfaction
than extrinsic rewards.
False
45. Interviews are more personal than surveys, but the summary and analysis of interview data is more time
consuming and difficult.
True
46. One way to assess the importance of rewards to employees is to examine the rewards that other
organizations provide to their employees.
True
47. A work team is an interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific
goal.
True
48. Teams are seldom designed to absorb management functions that allow for self-management because they
inherently produce excess groupthink.
False
49. The greater the task interdependence in a team, the greater the importance of KSAOs pertaining to
interpersonal qualities and team self-management qualities.
True
50. Job specific KSAOs become largely irrelevant in team-based work.
False
51. The sample size used in job analysis is not relevant to legal defensibility.
False
52. Details regarding knowledge, skills, and abilities in a job description are important components of a legally
defensible selection system.
True
53. If an employment discrimination case involves an organization's defense of its selection procedures, the
UGESP require the conduct of job analysis.
True
54. Although some have advocated for greater use of job analysis in legal cases, the courts currently recognize
job titles as sufficiently detailed indicators of required characteristics of applicants.
False
55. Employment regulations give several specific techniques for using job analysis to identify essential job
functions.
False
56. The EEOC has provided assistance to organizations for dealing with the issue of identifying essential job
functions for the purpose of ADA compliance.
True
57. The ADA requires the performance of a job analysis to identify the essential functions of a job.
False
58. The two major principles that describe the competitive advantage that a business has are perceived
customer value and uniqueness.
True
59. Validated selection and promotion systems are related to lower productivity and high costs.
False
60. 360 degree performance appraisal and feedback is a form of multi-source performance appraisal and
feedback.
True
61. Quantitative reviews, also known as meta-analyses are used to evaluate the effectiveness of HRM
methodology.
True
62. Unlike other corporate functions, such as Finance, HRM is not concerned with quantitative analysis as a
part of decision-making preferring to rely on intuition to make decisions.
False
63. Organizational design is concerned with establishing, fostering, and maintaining employee skills based on
organizational and employee needs.
False
64. Increasing globalization of the economy and a growing competitive work environment with a premium on
product and service quality is one of the trends enhancing the importance of HRM.
True
65. Outplacement and promotional decisions are common activities under the HRM domain of Organization
Design.
False
66. One of the six steps for creating a workforce scorecard is to develop supporting HR management and
measurement systems.
True
67. The metrics challenge ascertains whether managers have the access, capability, and motivation to use the
measurement data to communicate strategy and monitor progress.
False
68. A validated method of selection is a method that is shown to predict applicant success on the job
True
69. Competitive advantage occurs if customers perceive that they receive more value from their transaction
with an organization than from its competitors.
True
70. A successful workforce scorecard should be balanced and include measurements related to both leading
and lagging indicators.
True
71. When a change is made in one functional area of HRM, such as a change in the skills needed to perform a
job, there is no need for management to consider the impact on another HRM functional area.
False
72. Corporate social or environmental performance relates to a companys ability to make profits while not
sacrificing the resources of its people, the community, and the planet.
False
73. Financial or economic capability is derived from an advantage related to costs, when a business is able to
produce or provide a good or service more cheaply than competitors.
True
74. Strategic capability represents the businesss ability to manage organizational systems and people in order
to match customer and strategic needs.
False
75. HRM includes Administrative Service and transactional work in addition to developing strategic HR
initiatives in response to business issues.
True
76. HPWP includes HRM practices that motivate employees to put forth discretionary effort.
True
77. Fair treatment of workers results in lower performance and increased costs.
False