Professional Documents
Culture Documents
16. What is the most common bacterial 26. A donor was deferred by the physician due to
contaminant in blood products? the presence of bluish purple areas under the
a. S. liquefaciens skin of the donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis
b. S. epidermidis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Y. enterocolitica c. Candidiasis
d. B. cereus d. Kaposis sarcoma
17. The first recorded blood transfusion in history 27. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:
is between this head of state and three donor. a. 1964
a. Pope John Paul I b. 1974
b. Pope Peter XV c. 1984
c. Pope Pius VII d. 1994
d. Pope Innocent XVI 28. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
18. This is known as the marker Hepatitis B a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
infectivity.
c. 10-15%
a. HBsAg
d. 75-85%
b. HBeAg 29. C3b
c. HBcAg a. Anaphylatoxin
d. None of the above b. Opsonin
19. Antibody determinant c. Chemotaxin
a. Paratope d. Cytokine
b. Epitope 30. What is the most common complement
c. Hepatope component deficiency?
d. Kininogen a. C1
20. Which of the following is the most common b. C2
immunodeficiency? c. C3
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency d. C4
31. Which of the following is the most common
b. Selective IgA deficiency
congenital immonudeficiency?
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
d. Common variable immunodeficiency b. Selective IgA deficiency
21. The presence of HLA B27 is highly associated c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
with what disease? d. Common variable immunodeficiency
a. Diabetes mellitus 32. Which disease might be indicated by
b. Arthritic spondylitis antibodies to smooth muscle?
c. Graves disease a. Chronic active hepatitis
d. SLE b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
22. CD8 c. Hashimotos thyroiditis
a. Helper cell d. Myasthenia gravis
b. Cytotoxic cell 33. The most common fungal infection for AIDS
patients is caused by:
c. Null cell
a. Candida albicans
d. Natural killer cell
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
23. CD8
c. Blastomycesdermatitidis
a. Helper cell d. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Cytotoxic cell 34. This dengue antigen has been detected in the
c. Null cell serum of dengue virus infected patients as
d. Natural killer cell early as 1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO),
24. Major advantage of gel technology: and up to 18 DPO.
a. Decreased sample volume a. NS1
b. Improved productivity b. C
c. Enhanced sensitivity c. E
d. Standardization d. prM
25. Agglutination reaction: Several large clumps 35. These are expressed in the developing fetus
with clear background and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that
a. 4+ associated with tumors, but that are absent in
b. 3+ normal adult tissue:
c. 2+ a. Oncogenes c. Sarcoma
d. 1+ b. Oncofetal antigens d. Tumor specific Ag
3
36. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ 46. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red
assay. blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. Chemical a. CD2
b. Molecular b. CD4
c. Enzymatic c. CD8
d. Biologic d. CD12
37. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism 47. Chemokines are produced from:
(RFLP) is a/an ___ assay. a. many types of cells
a. Chemical b. T cells
b. Molecular c. B cells
c. Enzymatic
d. None of the above
d. Biologic
38. Hives and itching are under what type of 48. Cytokines are released by:
hypersensitivity? a. T& B cells
a. Type I b. macrophages, T cells, B cells
b. Type II c. T cells & macrophages
c. Type III d. NK cells
d. Type IV 49. Large granular lymphocytes
39. Gamma counter uses these substances as a. NK cells
labels: c. T cells
a. Isotopes
b. B cells
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes d. All of the above
d. Immune complexes 50. Confirmatory test for Qualitative VDRL
40. Treponemapallidum immobilization (TPI) test: A. FTA ABS
10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret B.Quantitative VDRL
the result. C. Nucleic acid test (NAT)
a. Positive D. Treponemal Culture
b. Negative
51. RPR positive blood bag, what to do next?
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate A. Do confirmatory test
41. When reading for a slide agglutination for B.Discard blood bag
Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is C. Repeat the test
graded as 25%. Interpret. D. Further refrigerate blood bag
a. Non-reactive 52. POC test except?
b. Negative
A. EIA
c. Positive
d. 1+ B.Immunochromatography
42. Other name for HCV RNA: C. Sandwich method
a. Viral clade D. NAT
b. Surface antigen 53. Phagocytosis was discovered by
c. Viral load A. Jules Bordet
d. Core antigen B.Rosalyn Yallow
43. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
C. ElieMitchinokoff
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg D. BarreSinoussi
c. Anti-HBeAg 54. Uses antibody as its carrier and agglutination is
d. Anti-HBcAg observed if antigen is present
44. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated A. Direct agglutination
with which class of HLA? B.Coagglutination
a. Class I C. Passive
b. Class II
D. Reverse passive
c. Class III
d. Class IV 55. Infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae gives a
45. Which of the following activates both T and B high titer of:
cells? A. Anti- I
a. Pokeweed mitogen B.Anti- i
b. Lipopolysaccharide C. Anti-P
c. Concanavalin A
D. Anti-PPIPk
d. Phytohemagglutinin
4
B. Colorectal cancer
56. What is the screening test for HIV? C. Medullary thyroid cancer
A. RIA D. Urinary bladder cancer
B.EIA 66. Anti-microsomal antibodies are found in:
C. Either A. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Neither B. SLE
57. HIV positive if: C. thyroiditis
A. 1 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive) D. Pernicious anemia
B.2 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive) 67. Serological identity, as shown by smooth curve
C. 2 ELISA/ 1 Western Blot (positive) line, is seen on what precipitation reaction?
D. 1 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive) A. RID
58. What was the test developed by the Venereal B. Ouchterlony Double Diffusion
Disease Research Laboratory? C. Laurell technique
A. RPR D. Immunoelectrophoresis
B.VDRL 68. Which of the ff bands, when present in at least
C. FTA ABS two bands, confirm positive for HIV?
D. All of the above A. p24
59. Found in SLE: B.gp41
a. HLA-DR C. gp120/160
b. HLA-DR2 D. All of the above
c. HLA-DR3 69. HLA-B27 is seen on what condition?
d. HLA-DR4 A. SLE
60. How long is the normal transfusion takes place? B. RA
A. 6 hrs C. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. 4 hrs D. Sjogrens syndrome
C. 3 hrs 70. A titer of 80 in RF latex test means?
D. 5 hrs A. positive
61. Which of the ff Noble prize winners focused on B. weakly positive
the research concerning production of C. negative
monoclonal Abs? D. cannot be determined
A. Jules Bordet 71. Blood group Lutheran is derived from
B. SusumoTonegawa A. Lutheran minister
C. George Kohler and Cesar Milstein B. 1 family with lutheran antigen
D. Paul Ehrlich C. 1 donor named luteran
62. Nephelometry is used to measure? D. Martin Luther
A. Amino acids 72. Function of IL-8
B. Antigens A. Stimulate blood cells
C. Antibodies B. Prevents apoptosis
D. Ag-Ab complexes C. Inflammation
63. Name given to system using bacteria as the inert D. Anti-inflammation
particles to which Ab is attached 73. Temperature of BB refrigerator
A. flocculation A. 2-4F
B. Particle immunoassay B. 1-2F
C. IFA C. 1-6C
D. coagglutination D. 1-10C
64. MalaQuick Standby Malaria Test detects: 74. Replaces minor crossmatch
A. Parasitic LDH A. DAT
B. Histidine Rich protein 2 B. Immediate spin
C. Schuffner dot antigens C. Antibody screen
D. P. vivax and P. ovaleonly D. Serum typing
65. CEA is a tumor marker associated with: 75. Genetic differences in the antibody
A. Breast adenocarcinoma A. ElieMetchinikoff
5
125. A bacterial protein used to bind human 132. A substrate is first exposed to a patients
immunoglobulins is: serum, then after washing, anti-human
a. HAV antibody, IgA type immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is
b. Escherichia coli protein C added. The procedure described is:
c. staphylococcal protein A a. fluorescent quenching
d. HAV antibody, IgG type b. direct fluorescence
126. The following procedure has been routinely c. indirect fluorescence
used for detection of hepatitis B surface antigen d. none of the above
(HBsAg) because of its high level of sensitivity: 133. In the indirect immunofluorescence method
a. hemagglutination of antibody detection in patient serum, the
b. counterimmunoelectrophoresis labeled antibody is:
c. radial immunodiffusion a. human anti-goat immunoglobulin
d. ELISA b. rheumatoid factor
127. The most important use of nontreponemal c. goat anti-human immunoglobulin
antibody (NTA) test alone is in: d. complement
a. establishing the diagnosis of acute 134. The specificity of an immunoassay is
active syphilis determined by the:
b. establishing the diagnosis of chronic a. label used on the antigen
syphilis b. method used to seperate the bound
c. evaluating the success of therapy from free antigen
d. determining the prevalence of c. antibody used in the assay
disease in the general population d. concentration of unlabeled antigen
128. Immunoassay are based on the principle of: 135. Is assessing the usefulness of a new
a. separation of bound and free analyte laboratory test, sensitivity is defined as the
b. antibody recognition of homologous percentage of:
antigen a. positive specimens correctly
c. protein binding to isotopes identified
d. production of antibodies against b. false-positive specimens
drugs c. negative specimens correctly
129. Which of the following is most useful in identified
establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence d. false-negative specimens
phase of a viral infection? 136. A 25-year old woman is seen by a physician
a. slide culture because of Raynaud phenomenon, myalgias,
b. serological techniques arthralgias and difficulty in swallowing. There is
c. shell vial no evidence of renal disease. An ANA titer is
d. culture on McCoy media 1:5120 with a speckled pattern with mitotic.
130. The enzyme control tube in an ASO Which of the following are also likely to be found
hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the in this patient?
most likely explanation for this? a. high-level nDNA antibody and a low
a. incorrect pH of buffer CH50 level
b. low ionic strength buffer b. high-level Sm antibody
c. oxidation of the enzyme c. high-titer rheumatoid factor
d. reduction of the enzyme d. high-level ribonucleoprotein (RNP)
131. Cholesterol is added to the antigen used in antibody
flocculation tests for syphilis to: 137. In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the
a. destroy tissue impurities present in following antibodies is seen in high titers?
the alcoholic beef heart extract a. antimitochondrial
b. sensitize the sheep RBCs b. anti-smooth muscle
c. decrease specificty of the antigen c. anti-DNA
d. increase sensitivity of the antigen d. anti-perietal cell
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138. High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are 146. What is the purpose of anti-sheep hemolysin in
a complement fixation test?
most often found in:
a. sensitizes sheep red blood cells
a. rheumatoid arthritis b. hemolyzes sheep red blood cells
b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. agglutinates sheep red blood cells
c. chronic hapatitis d. neutralizes patient antibody
d. thyroid disease 147. In the VDRL test, a zonal reaction usually
139. Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins appears as which of the following results?
with specificity for allotypic determinants located a. reactive
b. non-reactive
on the:
c. weakly reactive
a. Fc fragment of IgG d. any of the above
b. Fab fragment of IgG 148. How would the following DVRL quantitative test
c. J chain of IgM be reported?
d. secretory of component of IgA
140. Which of the following is the most sensitive 1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128
and appropriate method for the detection of
W W R R R R W N
rheumatoid factor?
a. nephelometry a. Reactive 4 dils
b. immunofixation electrophoresis b. Reactive 32 dils
c. immunoflourescence c. Reactive 64 dils
d. manual latex agglutination d. Cannot be reported
141. Autoantibodies in the absence of Sm are 149. The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all
sera in which the qualitative VDRL test is
found in patients with:
a. Nonreactive
a. mixed connective tissue disease b. Reactive
b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. Weakly reactive
c. Crohn disease d. Either reactive or weakly reactive
d. Multiple myeloma 150. The Treponemapallidum Immobilization (TPI)
142. Which of the following is decreased in serum test requires
a. reagin
during the active stages of systemic lupus
b. an extract of a pathogenic terponeme
erythematosus? c. Treponemapallidum fixed on a slide
a. anti-nuclear antibody d. living Treponemapallidum
b. immune complexes 151. Which of the following serves as the absorbent
c. complement (C3) in the Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Test-
d. anti-DNA Absorbed (FTA-ABS) test?
143. In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, a. Reiters treponema
b. Treponemamicrodentium
the antigen most commonly utilized is:
c. Treponemapallidum, Nichols strains
a. rat stomach tissue d. Treponemapertenue
b. mouse kidney tissue 152. The fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin
c. Crithidialucilae used in the FTA-ABS test
d. Toxoplasma gondii a. makes the antigen-antibody reaction
144. Interferon can be produced by which of the visible
following? b. is added to the serum before the antigen
a. macrophages is added
b. T lymphocytes c. is added to the antigen before the serum
c. virus-infected cells is added
d. all of the above d. makes the antibody visible
145. When a precipitation reaction is converted to
agglutination by increasing the size of the 153. The reaction on DNA-methyl green substrates
antigen particles, the test is then referred to as when testing for the presence of anti-DNase (anti-
a. direct agglutination streptodomase) are
b. optimal agglutination a. blue (+) yellow (-)
c. indirect (passive)agglutination b. red (+) orange (-)
d. prozone reaction c. green (+) colorless (-)
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154. Brucellaabortus will cross-react with antibodies 163. Which of the following refers to the reaginic
of antibody?
a. Salmonella typhi a) IgA
b. Proteus vulgaris b) IgG
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae c) IgM
d. Franciscellatularensis d) IgE
155. Which of the following methods has a high 164. Which of the following statements is false about
degree of specificity when typing the herpes an anamnestic response versus a primary
simplex virus (HSV)? response?
a. direct fluorescent antibody a) Has a shorter lag phase
b. cell culture b) Has a longer plateau
c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c) Antibodies decline more gradually
(ELISA) d) IgG antibodies predominate
d. cell typing 165. Antigen is to antibody, epitope is to__
156. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)infection can be a) antigenic determinant
diagnosed by which of the following serological b) hapten
tests? c) Fab
a. IgM and IgG antibody testing d) TCR
b. cell culture 166. Diapedesis is described as
c. direct fluorescent antibody test a) migration of phagocytes along blood vessel
d. indirect human globulin test wall
157. Which of the following is a good screening test
b) attraction of phagocytes to site of injury
for determining immunity to the rubella virus?
a. Direct agglutination c) cell movement to a certain direction under
b. Complement fixation stimulation of chemical substance
c. IgG antibody test d) engulfment of foreign substance
d. IgM antibody test 167. Which class of antigens is necessary for
158. Blood donors should be routinely tested for antigen recognition by CD4 positive T cells?
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a) Class I
a. Varicella zoster virus
b) Class II
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Cytomegalovirus c) Class III
d. Rubella virus d) No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen
159. The best serological method used to test for a recognition
rubella virus infection is the 168. Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at
a. complement fixation test crossing placenta?
b. direct fluorescent antibody test a) IgG1
c. indirect fluorescent antibody test
b) IgG2
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test
160. A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) in c) IgG3
the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of d) IgG4
which autoimmune disease? 169. A graft between genetically unidentical
a. mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) individual of the same species
b. rheumatoid arthritis (RA) a) autograft
c. scleroderma
b) isograft
d. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
161. What is the most common complement c) allograft
deficiency? d) xenograft
a) C2 170. Considered to be non self
b) C3 a) antigen
c) C4 b) immunogen
d) C1INH c) antibody
162. C3 convertase in classical pathway
d) hapten
a) C4b2a
b) C3bBb 171. Genetic differences in the antibody
c) C4b2a3b a) ElieMetchinikoff
d) C3bBb3b b) Susumu Tonegawa
c) Karl Landsteiner
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241. The serum of an individual who received all 249. Function of IL-8
doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain a. Stimulate blood cells
a) Anti-HBs b. Prevents apoptosis
b) Anti-HBe c. Inflammation
c) Anti-HBc d. Anti-inflammation
d) All of the above 250. CD 34:
242. The most common cause of congenital a. HSC
infections is b. B cells
a) CMV c. T cells
d. Megakaryocyte
b) Rubella
251. Part of the light chains of MHC class I.
c) VZV a. acid-1-glycoprotein
d) HTLV-1 b. beta-2-microglobulin
243.A double positive result on a screening test c. serum amyloid A
d. alpha-2-macroglobulin
for HTLV-III antibody
252. Fluorescent label attached to an antibody
a) Is highly specific for HTLV-I infection against the antigen-antibody complex
b) Should be followed by PCR a. Indirect
c) Must be confirmed by Western blot b. Direct
c. Inhibition
d) Must be confirmed by viral culture
d. NOTA
244. HIV virions bind to host T cells through 253. Indicates active infection and infectious state:
which receptors? a. HBs Ag
a) CD4 and CD8 b. HBe Ag
c. anti-HBc
b) CD4 and the IL-2 receptor
d. anti-HBe
c) CD4 and CXCR4 254. Fluoroscent stained specimens are visualized
d) CD8 and CCR2 using what type of microscope?
245. Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of a. brightfield
b. darkfield
foreign particles with serum proteins is called c. phase contrast
A. opsonization d. polarizing
B. agglutination 255. Part of antibody which binds foreign substance:
C. solubilization a. Epitope
b. Paratope
D. chemotaxis c. Hinge region
246.Which of the following peripheral blood d. Fc region
cells plays a key role in killing of parasites? 256. This is where the antibody binds to the antigen.
a. Neutrophils a. Carrier
b. Schlepper
b. Monocytes c. Deteminant
c. Lymphocytes d. Fab region
d. Eosinophils 257. Which among the following disease is associated
247. The immune mechanism of this with anti-dsDNA and anti-phospholipid antibodies?
a. SLE
hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the T-
b. RA
cells release of cytokines.
c. MM
a) Type I
d. MS
b) Type II
= end of exam=
c) Type III
d) Type IV
248.Who among the following was the first to
transfuse blood from animals to humans?
a. Jean Baptiste Denis
b. Richard Lower
c. James Blundell
d. Edward Lindemann