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1.

A centrifugal fan forms _______ system


2. Zeroth law of thermodynamics defines _______
3. The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and at constant volume
always varies with _______
4. Internal energy of ideal gas is a function of _______ alone
5. Carnot cycle comprises _______ isothermal process and two _______ process
6. A heat engine is supplied with 300 kJ/sec of heat at 600 K and heat rejection takes
place at 300 K. Heat rejected is 100 kJ/sec. The data refers to _______ cycle
7. Value of extensive properties of a system depends on _______ of the system
8. Heat and work are _______ functions
9. For a higher value of polytropic index the compressor work for a given pressure
ratio is _______
10. Enthalpy of a gas depends on _______
11. Inter-cooling in an air compressor helps in _______
12. The function of providing clearance volume in a reciprocating air compressor is
_______
13. One ton of refrigeration is _______
14. The refrigerant used in household refrigerator is _______
15. The entropy of the universe _______
16. The application of Gibbs Duhem equation is _______
17. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is _______
18. An ideal fluid is an incompressible and __________ fluid.
19. For a Newtonian fluid shear stress is directly proportional to __________.
20. Kinematic viscosity of a liquid is dynamic viscosity divided by its __________.
21. In M, L, T system of dimension, Power is represented as __________.
22. Weber number is ratio of inertial force to __________ force.
23. For incompressible fluid, continuity equation in integral form is Q = __________.
24. In flow net equipotential lines are orthogonal with __________.
25. Relative roughness of a pipe surface is its absolute roughness divided by its __________.
26. In laminar flow through pipe as Reynolds number increases the friction coefficient __________.
27. Pitot -Static tube measures __________ pressure.
28. Turbulent velocity fluctuations in a flow is measured by __________ meter.
29. For a solid sphere falling under gravity at terminal settling velocity in a fluid the buoyant force is
equal to __________.
30. Pressure drag on a body is due to the formation of __________.
31. Ergun's equation relates __________.
32. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for high pressure rise and __________ discharge.
33. An example of Positive displacement pump is __________.
34. In a centrifugal pump as head increases discharge __________.
35. Power required by a fan is proportional to the discharge, pressure rise and __________.
36. Pump suitable for corrosive liquid is __________.
37. Fans have __________ pressure rise than blowers.
38. The unit of specific weight of a fluid in SI system is ______________.
39. One centipoise is equal to ______________ Pa.S.
40. The pressure inside a soap bubble will be ______________ than the surrounding atmospheric
pressure.
41. Give an example of non-Newtonian fluid ______________.
42. The unit of one standard atmospheric pressure is 101.32 ______________.
43. Gauge pressure is absolute pressure ______________ atmospheric pressure.
44. Dynamic similarity is similarity of ______________.
45. In M, L, T system dimension of angular velocity is ______________.
46. The density of manometric fluid used in an inverted manometer should be ______________ than
the density of flowing fluid.
47. For steady incompressible fluid flow, the continuity equation is ______________.
48. For flow over flat plate, the critical Reynolds number is ______________.
49. Reynolds number is the ratio of inertial force and ______________ force.
50. Mach number is the ratio of ______________ to ______________.
51. Cd of an orifice is always ______________ than Cc.
52. The suppressed sharp crested weir is 0.6 m high and discharges water at a head of 1.2 m. The
coefficient of discharge of the weir is ______________.
53. The gas flow velocity through a fluidized bed should be less than or equal to ______________
velocity.
54. Give an example of rotary pump ______________.
55. Blowers are suitable for ______________ discharge than compressors.
56. Mass and weight of a body are differentiated in terms of the ____________ acting on it.
57. Viscosity may be described as the ratio between ____________ and ____________.
58. Paint is ____________ by nature.
59. Torricelli's equation is stated as ____________.
60. Pressure of a liquid can be converted into the ____________ of the liquid by dividing by the
corresponding density.
61. Water is not a ____________ liquid.
62. The compressible fluid used in an inverted manometer is ____________.
63. The unit for Poise is ____________.
64. An ideal fluid has no ____________ or ____________.
65. The length required to establish fully developed flow in the entire cross section of the pipe is
called ____________.
66. The skin friction drag may be expressed by the equation F/?.
67. For scaling up laboratory data to an industrial scale, the three similarities are ____________,
____________ and ____________.
68. Froude number is expressed as a ratio between ____________ and ____________ forces.
69. A pitot tube is used to measure ____________ velocities in a pipe line.
70. The forces acting on an aeroplane flying at a constant speed at a given altitude are ____________,
____________ and ____________.
71. The forces acting on a particle in a batch fluidized bed at steady state are ____________,
____________ and ____________.
72. Ergun's equation is useful in predicting the ____________ in a packed column.
73. In a centrifugal pump, water enters at the ____________ of the impeller.
74. Viscous liquids are transported by a ____________ pump.
75. One seventh power law states ? = ?
76. Dynamic pressure is the difference between ________ and ________.
77. Design of commercial condensers is done on the basis of ------- condensation
(dropwise/filmwise).
78. Raoult's law applies to the __________ and Henry's law applies to the
_________.
79. Panchan-Savarit method analyses the fractionating equipment based on
_____________.
80. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be ____________.
81. During drying operation, critical moisture content varies with _________.
82. As the operating temperature increases the design stress decreases
83. When radio graphic tests are conducted for pressure vessels, the joint efficiency is
0.85 for spot radiography and 1.00 for 100% radiography.
84. For stainless steel materials the corrosion allowance is zero.
85. For elliptical heads the ratio of major axis to minor axis is 2:1
86. What losses are taking place in the storage of volatile liquids? Evaporation losses,
filling losses, breathing losses.
87. What is TEMA? Tubular Exchangers Manufacturers Association, USA. Heat
Exchanger design and fabrication Code.
88. Corrosive fluids are passed through tube side of a shell and tube heat exchanger
89. Baffles are provided in agitated vessels to prevent swirling.
90. For triple effect evaporators the economy is approximately three.
91. Heat transfer coefficient has the units of W/(m2.K) in SI.
92. Plate thickness: hole diameter is between ______:______ for sieve trays
93. At minimum reflux ratio infinite number of plates are required for distillation.
94. Define loading
95. A redistributor is used for every 3D (i.e., 3 times the diameter of height) of the
packed section.
96. In a dryer, number of flights ranges from _____D to _____D where D is in feet.
97. Define cut size for a cyclone separator. (The minimum diameter of particle that
can be collected with 100% efficiency)
98. Formation of new crystals is termed as __________.
99. What is an induced draft cooling tower? (Air is sucked by the fans at the top of
the tower)
100. Floating head Heat exchanger is used for large temperature differentials
101. Relative humidity is the ratio of vapor pressure of high volatile component, vapor
pressure of low volatile component
102. In case of cooling towers the ratio of rates of heat and mass transfer is indicated
by Lewis number
103. Reaction vessels with the same thickness of shell but smaller in diameter
withstands higher pressure
104. For Newtonian fluids flowing through two parallel infinite flat plates, the average
velocity is __________ of maximum velocity

.Diffusivity of gases at atmospheric pressure in cm2/s is in the


range of

a. less than 1
b. greater than 1
c. greater than 10
d. greater than 100

2. Diffusivity of liquids in cm2/s is of the order of

a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 10
d. 1 x 10-5
3.Diffusivity of a gas varies with temperature and pressure
according to the relation

a. D T1.5 / P2
b. D T / P1.5
c. D T1.5 / P
d. none of the above

4.Diffusivity of liquids can be estimated by

a. Hirschfelder-Bird-Spotz equation
b. Gilliland equation
c. Lewis relation
d. WilkeChang equation

5. Diffusivity of liquids varies with temperature according to


the relation

a. D T1.75
b. D T0.75
c. D T
d. D T1.5

6. Molecular diffusion is due to

a. thermal motion of the molecule


b. potential energy of the molecules
c. activation energy of the molecules
d. none of these

7. Mass transfer coefficient is defined as

a. Flux =(coefficient) / (concentration difference)


b. Flux =(coefficient) (concentration difference)
c. Flux =(concentration difference) / (coefficient)
d. none of these

8. The ratio of mass flux for diffusion of A through non-


diffusing B to the mass flux for equimolar counter-diffusion is
a. greater than one
b. less than one
c. equal to one
d. information insufficient

9. The mass transfer coefficients, kg and ky are related


according to the relation

a. kY = kGP
b. kY YBM = kGPBM
c. kG / P = kY / P2
d. All of these.

10.According to the film theory, the mass transfer coefficient,


kl, and diffusivity are related as

a. kl D0.5
b. kl D
c. kl D0.67
d. kl D-1

11.Which of the following theories predicts that kl D 0.67


?

a. Penetration theory
b. Surface renewal theory
c. Boundary layer theory
d. None of these.

12. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the


dimensionless group in mass transfer is

a. Reynolds number
b. Sherwood number
c. Peclet number
d. Schmidt number.

13. Schmidt number is a ratio of

a. momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity


b. thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
c. thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
d. None of these.

14. Sherwood number is a ratio of

a. Flow velocity to diffusion velocity


b. Convective flux to diffusive flux
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

15. For mass transfer of a solute A present in a dilute mixture


of A and B, the term PBM tends to

a. total pressure P
b. zero
c. one
d. infinity

16. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the


dimensionless group in mass transfer is

a. Peclet number
b. Knudsen number
c. Prandtl number
d. Sherwood number

17. Stanton number for mass transfer is defined as

a. Sc / (Sh.Re)
b. Re / (Sc.Sh)
c. (Re.Sh) / Sc
d. Sh / (Re.Sc)

18. Which of the following analogies gives St = f / 2?

a. Reynolds analogy
b. Prandtl analogy
c. ChiltonColburn analogy
d. none of these

19. According to Danckwerts surface renewal theory, the mass


transfer coefficient, kl is given by

a. DAB / S
b. (DAB / S)0.5
c. (DAB )0.5
d. (DAB .S)0.5

20. "S" in Danckwerts surface renewal theory is

a. total surface renewed per unit time


b. surface area available for mass transfer
c. fraction of the surface renewed per unit time
d. none of these

21. Which of the following models is a steady state model?

a. film model
b. penetration model
c. surface renewal model
d. all (a), (b) and (c)

22. According to the penetration theory, the average mass


transfer coefficient kL,av is given by

a. t / DAB
b. ( t / DAB)0.5
c. (DAB / t)
d. 2 (DAB / t)0.5
23. For a certain mass transfer process, kl = 1 x 10 -- 3 cm / s
and DAB = 1 x 10 ---5 cm2 /s. The film thickness in cm is then

a. 0.1cm
b. 0.01cm
c. 0.001cm
d. more information will be required for calculation of
film thickness.

24. Schmidt number for gases is of the order of

a. 1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1000

25. Schmidt number for liquids is of the order of

a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 1000

26. For evaporation from a spherical naphthalene ball in a


stagnant medium, Sherwood number is equal to

a. 0.5
b. 2
c. 20
d. 200

27. According to film theory the mass transfer coefficient is


proportional to
a. D
b. D2
c. D0.5
d. 1/D

28. The Knudsen diffusivity is dependent on

a. molecular veloctiy only


b. the pore radius of the catalyst
c. the molecular mean free path only
d. the molecular velocity and pore radius of the
catalyst

29. A gaseous solute having mass diffusivity equal to 0.5


cm2 /s diffuses into a porous solid having a porosity of 0.5 and
a tortuosity of 2. The effective diffusivity in the porous solid is

a. 0.25 cm2/s
b. 0.5 cm2/s
c. 1 cm2/s
d. 0.125 cm2/s

30. Knudsen diffusion occurs when the ratio of mean free path
to the pore diameter is

a. much greater than one


b. much less than one
c. equal to one
d. none of these

31. In Knudsen diffusion

a. molecule molecule collision is important


b. molecule pore wall collision is important
c. both (a) and (b) are important
d. neither (a) nor (b) is important

32. The term permeability is defined as

a. permeability=solubility x diffusivity
b. permeability=solubility / diffusivity
c. permeability=diffusivity / solubility
d. permeability=diffusivity / (solubility)2

33. Knudsen diffusivity is

a. directly proportional to total pressure


b. inversely proportional to total pressure
c. independent of total pressure
d. directly proportional to the square root of total
pressure

34. Gas separating membranes operate at

a. a high pressure
b. a high pressure differential
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

35. For absorption of NH3 from a dilute NH3 air mixture in


water,

a. only gas side resistance is important


b. only liquid side resistance is important
c. both gas and liquid side resistances are equally
important
d. gas side resistance is relatively more
important than the liquid side resistance
36. For absorption of benzene from a coal gas in wash oil, the
major resistance to mass transfer comes from the

a. gas side
b. liquid side
c. both gas and liquid side

37. Rate of absorption of a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid


can be increased by

a. increasing the gas side mass transfer coefficient


b. decreasing the gas side mass transfer coefficient
c. increasing the liquid side mass transfer
coefficient
d. decreasing the liquid side mass transfer coefficient

38. The equilibrium relation for distribution of a solute


between a gas and liquid phase is given by y = mx (at a
particular temperature). If ky and kx are individual gas and
liquid phase mass transfer coefficients, respectively, the
overall gas phase mass transfer coefficient is given by the
relation

a. 1 / Ky = 1 / ky + m / kx
b. 1 / Ky = m / ky + 1 / kx
c. 1 / Ky = 1 / mky + 1 / kx
d. 1 / Ky = 1 / ky + 1 / mkx

39. At a particular temperature the equilibrium relation for


distribution of a solute between a gas and a liquid phase is
given by p = HC. If kg and kL are, respectively, the gas and
liquid phase mass transfer coefficients, the overall liquid
phase mass transfer coefficient is given by the relation
a. 1 / KL = 1 / kL + H / kg
b. 1 / KL = 1 / HkL + 1 / kg
c. 1 / KL = 1 / kL + 1 / Hkg
d. 1 / KL = H / kL + 1 / kg

40. At a particular temperature the equilibrium relation for


distribution of a solute between a gas and a liquid phase is
given by y =2x (x and y are in mole-fractions). If the individual
gas and liquid phase mass transfer resistances are equally
important for absorption of the solute in the liquid phase, the
overall gas phase mass transfer coefficient, Ky is

a. equal to the individual gas phase mass transfer


coefficient, Ky
b. equal to individual gas phase mass transfer
coefficeint ky
c. 50 % of ky
d. 33.3 % of ky

41.A stage is a device

a. in which mass transfer between two immiscible


phases occurs
b. in which two immiscible phases are brought into
intimate contact
c. at the exit of which both phases are in equilibrium
d. where all (a), (b), (c) occur.

43. Multistage contacting is preferred over single stage


contacting in CPI because

a. solvent requirement is less in multistage contacting


b. multistage contactor provides more than one stage
in a contactor
c. equipment size is smaller in multistage contacting
d. (a)and (c)
44. Kremser equation may be used to determine the number
of stages in a staged column when

a. the operating and equilibrium lines are


straight
b. the operating line is straight, but the equilibrium
relation is curved
c. the operating line is curved, but the equilibrium line
is straight
d. both the operating and equilibrium lines are curved

45. A good solvent for gas absorption should have

a. high vapor pressure and low viscosity


b. high vapor pressure and high viscosity
c. low vapor pressure and low viscosity
d. low vapor pressure and high viscosity

46. The solvent widely employed for natural gas dehydration


is

a. monoethanolamine
b. ethylene glycol
c. conc. sulfuric acid
d. calcium chloride

47. For sweetening of sour gases, solvents that are widely


employed are

a. mono-and diethanolamines
b. wash oil of molecular weight higher than 300
c. aqueous NaOH solution
d. both (a) and (c)
48. The correct operating line corresponding to minimum
solvent flow rate in a countercurrent absorber

a. OA
b. OB
c. OC
d. none of these

49. For a given gas and liquid flow rates and a specified gas
phase concentration change, the number of plates in a plate
column is N. If the gas and liquid flow rates are doubled, the
number of plates required for the same gas-phase
concentration change will be

a. N/2
b. 2N
c. N
d. between N and 2N
50.Mole fraction, y, is related to the mole ratio, Y, by the
relation

a. y = Y / 1 Y
b. y = Y / 1 + Y
c. y = 1 Y / 1 + Y
d. y = 1 - y /Y (1+Y)

51. Absorption factor is defined as

a. mGL
b. mG/L
c. G/mL
d. L/mG

52. The number of plates in a plate column will be larger for L


/ mG

a. greater than one


b. less than one
c. none of these

53. The expression for HtOG is

a. (yBM*G/KGa Pt)
b. (yBM* Pt/KGaG)
c. (G /KGaPtyBM*)
d. (yBM* /KGa PtG)

54. Height of transfer unit gives an idea about

a. the ease of separation


b. the degree of separation
c. the difficulty in achieving the separation
d. both (b) and (c)
55. Height of transfer unit (HtOG) and height equivalent to a
theoretical plate (HETP) are equal when L/mG is

a. greater than one


b. less than one
c. equal to one
d. between 0.5 and 1

56. HtOG is equal to HtG when

a. the gas phase resistance is negligible


b. the liquid phase resistance is negligible
c. both gas and liquid phase resistances are equally
important
d. none of the above is correct

57. For a certain gas absorption process (dilute gas), HtG = 0.3
m, HtL = 0.24 m and L/mG = 1.2. Then HtOG is equal to

a. 0.588 m
b. 0.5 m
c. 0.6 m
d. 0.49 m

58. Which of the following relation is correct?(assume that the


gas is dilute)

a. HtoG = HtG + (L/mG) HtL


b. HtoL = HtG + (mG/L) HtL
c. HtoG = HtL + (L/mG) HtG
d. HtoL = HtL + (L/mG) HtG

59. Number of transfer unit gives us an idea about

a. the degree of separation


b. the difficulty of separation
c. the ease of separation
d. none of these
60. The correct expression for NtOG is

Ans : (a)

61. For absorption of a dilute gas in a liquid, where the gas


undergoes an irreversible chemical reaction, the correct
expression for NtoG is

a. ln (y1 + y2)
b. ln (y1 y2)
c. ln [(y1 - y2) /( y1 + y2)]
d. ln (y1 / y2)

Where y1 and y2 are, respectively, the mole-fractions of the


solute gas at the inlet and the outlet.

62. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

a. NtoG depends on the equilibrium characteristics


of a system
b. NtoG can be manipulated by manipulating gas and
liquid flow rates
c. NtoG depends on packing characteristics
d. NtoG depends on gas flow rate

63. For absorption of a highly soluble gas in a liquid, fraction


of the gas absorbed in one transfer unit is

a. 0.368
b. 0.534
c. 0.638
d. 0.771
64. Number of gas phase transfer unit is given as

a. (overall change in gas phase concentration)/


(average driving force)
b. (average driving force)/(overall change in gas phase
concentration)
c. (overall change in gas phase concentration)
(average driving force)
d. (overall change in gas phase concentration)
(average driving force)

65. Absorption accompanied by heat evolution results in

a. increased solubility of gas in the liquid


b. larger number of plates (than that required for
isothermal absorption) for the same degree of
separation
c. increased capacity of the absorber
d. none of the above

66.Lewis number, Le is given by

a. Sc /Pr
b. Re.Pr
c. Sc.Pr
d. Sh.Pr

67. Adiabatic saturation temperature is attained by the

a. gas
b. liquid
c. both gas and liquid

68. Dry bulb temperature of a gas is

a. less than the wet bulb temperature


b. more than the wet bulb temperature
c. equal to the wet bulb temperature
d. none of the above

69. Relative humidity is the ratio of

a. actual humidity to the saturation humidity at


the gas temperature
b. partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor
pressure of the liquid at the gas
temperature
c. mass of vapor to the mass of vapor free gas
d. none of these

70. At all humidities other than 0 and 100 per cent, the
percentage humidity is

a. more than the relative humidity


b. equal to the relative humidity
c. less than the relative humidity
d. none of the above

71. Heat in BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb


of gas and its accompanying vapor by 10F is called

a. latent heat
b. specific heat
c. sensible heat
d. humid heat

72. The dew point of a saturated gas is equal to the

a. gas temperature
b. adiabatic saturation temperature
c. wet bulb temperature
d. none of these

73. In a cooling tower water is cooled from 95 0F to 80 0F by


exposure to air with a wet-bulb temperature of 70 0F. Then the
"approach" is

a. 250F
b. 20 0F
c. 15 0F
d. 10 0F

74. For question no. 73, the "range" is

a. 25 0F
b. 20 0F
c. 15 0F
d. 10 0F

75. Heat required to vaporize 1 lb of water is roughly

a. 1 BTU
b. 10 BTU
c. 100 BTU
d. 1000 BTU

76. The lowest temperature to which water can be cooled in a


cooling tower through out the year depends on

a. the summer dry bulb temperature


b. the dew point
c. the maximum wet bulb temperature
d. none of these

77. Adiabatic saturation line and wet bulb temperature line


are the same for the system

a. air water
b. nitrogen benzene
c. nitrogen toluene
d. air benzene

78. If a warm vapor-gas mixture is contacted with cold liquid


so that the humidity of the gas is

a. greater than that at the gas-liquid interface,


b. vapor will diffuse toward the liquid and gas
will be dehumidified
c. mass transfer will occur from the liquid to the
gas and the gas will be humidified
d. sensible heat transfer will occur from the
gas to the liquid

79.. Dew point of a gas-vapor mixture (for a fixed vapor mole fraction in gas)

a. increases with an increase in gas dry bulb


temperature
b. decreases with an increase in gas dry bulb
temperature
c. increases with an increases in pressure
d. increases with a decrease in pressure

81. During evaporative cooling process with recirculated


water, which one of the following will remain constant?

a. partial pressure of vapor


b. relative humidity
c. dry bulb temperature
d. wet bulb temperature

82. During evaporative cooling process with recirculated


water, which one of the following increases?
a. partial pressure of vapor
b. relative humidity
c. wet bulb temperature
d. both (a) and (b)

83. When a gas-vapor mixture is cooled by sensible heat


transfer

a. relative humidity increases


b. relative humidity decreases
c. wet bulb temperature decreases
d. both (a) and (c)

84. If PA is the partial pressure of vapor A in a vapor gas


mixture and PS is the saturation vapor pressure of liquid A,
condensation of vapor-gas mixture just begins when

a. PA > PS
b. P A < PS
c. P A = PS

85. During adiabatic saturation of unsaturated air the


parameter that remains substantially constant is

a. dry bulb temperature


b. wet bulb temperature
c. dew point
d. humid volume

86. We have an unsaturated air-water vapor mixture at a dry


bulb temperature of the 40oC.The dew point for the mixture is
20 0C. The mixture is passed through a water spray chamber
maintained at 17oC. The air, on passage through the chamber,
will be
a. cooled at the same relative humidity
b. cooled and humidified
c. cooled and dehumidified with an increase in
wet bulb temperature
d. cooled and dehumidified with an decrease
in wet bulb temperature

87. Distillation is particularly important in

a. petroleum refining
b. manufacture of sulfuric acid
c. vegetable oil hydrogenation
d. all (a), (b) and (c)

88. Relative volatility, , is given by (Ans::c )

89. Separation of components by distillation is not possible for

a. > 1
b. < 1
c. = 1
90. The relative volatility

a. is independent of pressure
b. decreases with increasing pressure
c. increases with increasing pressure
d. increases with increasing pressure and
temperature

91. An example of an ideal solution is

a. a mixture of benzene, toluene and xy lene


b. a mixture of water and ethanol
c. a mixture of acetone, ethanol and n-butanol
d. none of these

92. In distillation separation is accomplished by application of

a. heat
b. solvent
c. adsorbent
d. none of these

93. Raoults law is applicable to

a. ideal solutions
b. real solutions
c. all solutions
d. non-ideal gases

94. For ideal solutions relative volatility, , is related to the


vapor pressure of components in a binary mixture according
to the relations :

a. = PA PB
b. = PA /PB
c. = PB /PA
d. = 1 /PAPB

95. Minimum boiling azeotrope occurs when the total pressure


curve at a constant temperature passes through

a. a maximum
b. a minimum
c. a maximum followed by a minimum
d. a minimum followed by a maximum

96. One of the examples of minimum boiling azeotropes is a


mixture of

a. benzene and toluene


b. hydrochloric acid and water
c. ethanol and water
d. none of these

97. Steam distillation is usually employed for

a. insoluble liquids
b. a component which is heat sensitive
c. miscible liquids
d. both (a) and (b)

98. A system comprising of two insoluble liquids, A and B, will


boil when the total pressure Pt is equal to

a. PAsat + PBsat
b. xApAsat + xBpBsat
c. xA g ApAsat + xB g BpBsat
d. none of these
99. In azeotropic mixture, the equilibrium vapor composition
at the azeotropic point

a. is less than the liquid composition


b. is equal to the liquid composition
c. is more than the liquid composition
d. may be more or less than the liquid
composition, depending upon the nature of the
system

100. Positive deviation from Raoults law is exhibited by a


mixture whose total pressure is

a. greater than that computed for ideality


b. less than that computed for ideality
c. greater than the sum of the vapor pressures of
the components
d. none of the above

101. One of the examples of maximum boiling azeotropes is a


mixture of

a. hydrochloric acid and water


b. acetone and chloroform
c. benzene and cumene
d. both (a) and (b)

102. In batch distillation with constant reflux, the overhead


product purity

a. decreases with time


b. increases with time
c. does not vary with time
d. none of the above
103. For a multicomponent system the bubble point means
that temperature when

(Ans: a)

104. For a multicomponent system the dew point is that


temperature when
(Ans:b)

105. In flash vaporization, the product vapor

a. is always in equilibrium with the liquid leaving


the flash chamber
b. is never in equilibrium with the liquid leaving
the flash chamber
c. may be in equilibrium with the liquid
leaving the flash chamber and the extent
of equilibriation depends on the vapor
liquid contact time in the chamber
d. is 100% pure.

106. In order to obtain an overhead product of constant


composition from a batch distillation column, the reflux ratio
should be

a. held at a large and constant value


b. increased gradually
c. decreased gradually
d. minimum

107. In a continuous distillation column as the reflux ratio is


increased, the overhead product purity

a. increases
b. decreases
c. may increase or decrease, dependingon the
system
d. remains constant

108. At total reflux in continuous distillation the number of


plates is

a. minimum
b. maximum
c. infinite
d. none of the above

109. At total reflux

a. the enriching section operating line merges with the


diagonal, but the exhausting section operating line does
not
b. the exhausting section operating line merges with the
diagonal, but the enriching section operating line does
not
c. both the enriching and the exhausting section
operating lines merge with the diagonal
d. the enriching section operating line reduces to a point

110. Fenskes equation is used to calculate number of plates


in a distillation column
a. at total reflux
b. for system having constant relative volatility
c. at minimum reflux
d. for both (a) and (b)

111. Minimum reflux ration corresponds to that situation

a. when infinite number of theoretical stages are


required for the separation desired
b. when minimum reboiler heat load is required
c. when minimum condenser cooling load is
required
d. when all (a), (b), (c) are true

112. The driving force for separation by distillation is the


highest

a. at total reflux
b. at minimum reflux
c. at an intermediate reflux between the total
and the minimum
d. at the point of intersection of the enriching
section operating line with the equilibrium
curve

113. At total reflux the reflux ratio is

a. zero
b. one
c. infinite
d. neither zero nor one, but finite

114. At the reflux ratio increases the slope of the enriching


section operating line
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. may increase or decrease, depending on the
relative volatility of the system.

115. If xD is the mole fraction of the more volatile component


in the overhead product and R is the reflux ratio, the intercept
and slope of the enriching section operating line in a McCabe
Thiele diagram is

a. xD/(R+1) and (R+1)/R


b. R/(R+1) and xD/(R+1)
c. xD/(R+1) and R/(R+1)
d. R/(xD+1) and xD/(xD+1)

116. When the feed to a distillation column is a saturated


liquid, the slope of the feed line is

a. zero
b. one
c. infinity
d. 0.5

117. 100 moles of vapor per hour is leaving the top plate of a
continuous distillation column and overhead product at the
rate of 50 moles/hr is being withdrawn. Then the reflux ration
is

a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 3.0
118. The distillate flow rate from a distillation column is 100
kmol / hr and the reflux ratio is 2. The flow rate of vapor from
the top plate in kmol /h is

a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 50

119. In the enriching section of a continuous distillation


column

a. vapor is enriched with respect to the more


volatile component
b. liquid is enriched with respect to the more
volatile component
c. both vapor and liquid are enriched with
respect to the more volatile component
d. transfer of the more volatile component occurs
from the vapor to the liquid

120. A partial condenser is considered as a theoretical plate


when

a. vapor and liquid leaving the condenser


are in equilibrium
b. in reality it is provided with a plate
c. the condensate is removed as rapidly as it
forms
d. the statement is wrong; a partial condenser
can never be considered as a theoretical plate

121. When open is employed for heating in continuous


distillation column, the stripping section operating line in
McCabe-Thiele diagram passes through
a. [xw x w]
b. [o, x w]
c. [x w o]
d. [o, o]

xW is the mol fraction of the more volatile component in


bottom product

122. When saturated vapor is fed to a distillation column, the


slope of the feed line is

a. zero
b. one
c. between zero and one
d. infinity

123. The ratio of "slope of the enriching section operating line


corresponding to minimum reflux" to "slope of the operating
line corresponding to reflux large than minimum" is

a. less than one


b. greater than one
c. equal to one
d. equal to zero

124. When feed to a distillation column is a mixture of 50%


vapor and 50% liquid, the slope of the feed line is

a. zero
b. one
c. minus one
d. 0.5
125. Ponchon-Savarit method of calculation of number of
theoretical plates of a distillation column is based on

a. material balance only


b. enthalpy balance only
c. both material and enthalpy balances
d. assumption of consist molal overflow

126. If Rm is the minimum reflux ratio the optimum reflux ratio


is

1.25 to 1.5 Rm

b.2 Rm

c.2.5 to 3.5 Rm

d.5 Rm

127. Which one of the following is the Rayleigh equation?


(Ans: c)

[F : moles of feed charged; xF : mole fraction of the more


volatile component in the feed; W : moles of residual liquid ;
xW : mole fraction of the more volatile component in the
residual liquid]

128. Rayleigh equation applies to

a. differential distillation
b. flash vaporization
c. molecular distillation
d. multicomponent distillation

129. If feed to a distillation column is introduced onto a plate


one plate below the feed plate, the total number of theoretical
plates required for a desired separation will

a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain constant
d. may increase or decrease, depending on the
state of feed.

130. There is a relationship between the reflux ratio used in a


distillation column and the column diameter. As the reflux
ratio increases, the column diameter

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unaltered
d. may increase or decrease, depending on the
system.

131. Azeotropic distillation is a special case of

a. molecular distillation
b. differential distillation
c. flash vaporization
d. multicomponent distillation

132. For azeotropic separation of acetic acid-water mixture


the entrainer that is employed is

a. isopropyl ether
b. isooctane
c. phenol
d. n-butyl acetate

133. For azeotropic separation of ethanol-water mixture, the


entrainer that is used is

a. benzene
b. toluene
c. n-octane
d. none of these

134. Distillation at reduced pressure is practised for


separation of

a. heat sensitive materials only


b. components having low volatilities at normal
pressures
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

135. The minimum number of plates required for a desired


separation by distillation

a. depends on the thermal condition of the feed


b. does not depend on the thermal condition
of the feed
c. depends on the mole fraction of the more
volatile component in the feed
d. depends on the mole fraction of the less
volatile component in the feed

136. A solvent employed in a liquid-liquid extraction operation


should preferably have

a. low viscosity and low interfacial tension


b. high viscosity and low interfacial tension
c. low viscosity and high interfacial tension
d. high viscosity and high interfacial tension

137. No separation by solvent extraction is not possible if the


selectivity is
a. 1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1000

138. Solvent extraction should preferably be carried out at


temperatures

a. below the critical solution temperature


b. above the critical solution temperature
c. equal to the critical solution temperature

139. On a distribution curve plait point is that point where

a. y>x
b. y>x
c. y=x
d. y = 2x

140. At the plait point selectivity is

a. zero
b. 1
c. 10
d. infinity

141. There is a direct relationship between the distribution


coefficient and the solvent requirement. As the distribution
coefficient increases, the solvent requirement for a given
separation

a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains unaffected
d. may increase or decrease, depending on the
system.

142. The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate (in


ternary liquid system) represents

a. a binary mixture
b. a ternary mixture
c. a pure component
d. none of these

143. In equilateral triangular coordinate a point on any side of


the triangle represents

a. a pure component
b. a binary mixture
c. a ternary mixture
d. none of the above

144. As the interfacial tension of a liquid-liquid system


decreases, the ease of Coalescence

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unaltered

145. For liquids of very small density difference, the most


suitable extractor is

a. a mixer-settler unit
b. a rotating disc contactor
c. a packed column extractor
d. a centrifugal extractor
146. Podielniak extractor is a special type of

a. RDC
b. packed column extractor
c. centrifugal extractor
d. spray column extractor

147. Which of the rollowing is / are correct? A spray tower is

a. a multistage extractor
b. a single stage extractor
c. a differential contact extractor
d. None of these

148. Pulsing of a packed column extractor results in

a. larger liquid-liquid interfacial area


b. higher mass transfer coefficient
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

149. For extraction of penicillin from nutrient broth, the most


suitable extractor is

a. a rotating disc contactor


b. a packed column extractor
c. a mixer settler unit
d. a centrifugal extractor

150. Refer to the adjoining figure. According to the mixture


rule
a. R/E = (xE +xR)/xM
b. R/E = (xE + xM )/(xM + xR)
c. R/E = (x E xM)/(xM xR)
d. R/E = xE / xR

REACTION ENGINEERING

1. For a reaction A + 3B 5C + 7D which one of the following in correct?

1 1 1
a rA rB rC rD
3 5 7

b rA 3 rB 5 rC 7rD

1
c rA rB 5rC 7 rD
3

1 1 1
d rA rB rC rD
3 5 7

2. The dimension of the rate constant k for an n-th order reaction is

(a) (time)-1 (concentration)-1


(b) (time)1-n (concentration)-1

(c) (time)-1 (concentration)1-n

(d) (time)-1 (concentration)-n

3. Reactions in which the rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric


equation are called

(a) elementary reactions

(b) nonelementary reactions

(c) heterogeneous reactions

(d) none of the above

4. Rate of a reaction depends on

(a) temperature only

(b) pressure only

(c) composition only

(d) temperature and composition

5. The rate expression for the reaction between H2 and Br2 to produce
k H Br2 2
1

rate 1 2
k2
HBr
HBR (H2 + Br2 HBR) is given by
Br2 . The reaction is
(a) stochiometric (b) fundamental (c) elementary (d) non-elementary

dC A
k CA n
6. For a certain gas phase reaction, dt The rate of reaction in terms of
partial pressure may be expressed as

dp A dp A
a kp A n b kRTp A n
dt dt
dp A dp A
c k RT p A
1 n n
d k RT p A
n 1 n

dt dt

k
7. For an elementary reaction 2A 2B
1

(a) - rA = rB = k1CA2 (b) - rA = rB = k1CA

(c) - rA = rB = k1 (d) - rA = rB = k1CA1.5

dC A
k C A 0.7 C B 0.3
8. Consider the rate expression dt . The overall
order of the reaction is

(a) 0.7 (b) 0.3 (c) 0.4 (d) 1.0

9. For a zero order reaction the fractional conversion of


the reactant is

(a) directly proportional to the initial concentration

(b) inversely proportional to the initial concentration

(c) independent of the initial concentration

(d) directly proportional to the square root of the initial concentration

10. For a first order reaction the plot of ln (CA/CAO ) vs. time

(a) is linear and passes through the origin

(b) is exponential and passes through the origin

(c) is linear but does not pass through the origin

(d) is exponential but does not pass through the origin

11. For a zero order reaction the plot of fractional conversion vs. time is

(a) a straight line parallel to the time axis (X-axis)

(b) a straight line passing through the origin


(c) a straight line which does not pass through the origin and is
not parallel to the time axis

(d) none of these

12. For an auto catalytic reaction A + R R + R, the plot of fractional conversion of A


vs. time is

(a) a straight line parallel to the time axis

(b) a straight line passing through the origin

(c) an S-shaped curve passing through the origin

(d) an S- shaped curve that does not pass through the origin.

13. For an autocatalytic reaction A + R R + R, the rate vs. concentration of A profile is

(a) linear (b) exponential

(c) parabolic (d) none of these

k 1 (1st order ) k 2 (1st order )


14. A reaction of the type A B C , conducted in a
batch reactor is characterized by

(a) a maximum in concentration of B with time

(b) a maximum in concentration of C with time

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b)

15. For a certain reaction AB, the rate is first order in A at low concentration of A, but
zero order at high concentration of A. The possible rate expression for such a case is

k1 C A 2 k1 C A 2
a rA b rA
1 k 2 CA 1 k 2 C A 2
2

c rA k1 C A d rA
k1 C A
1 k 2 CA 1 k 2 CA

16. An isothermal gas phase reaction, A 5B is being conducted initially


with pure A. The expansion factor for this reaction, A=

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

17. An isothermal gas phase reaction, A 5B, is being conducted by


taking 50% A and 50% inert at start. A=

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

18. When a reaction is conducted in a variable volume batch reactor,


rate of reaction, -rA, is given by

dx C A 0 dx A
a rA CA 0
A x A A b rA
dt A x A dt

A dx A CA 0 dx A
c rA d rA
CA 0 x A dt 1 A x A dt

19. Half life period for a first order reaction is

(a) t = 1/k (b) t = 0.393/k (c) t = 0.473/k (d) t = 0.693/k

20. For a certain reaction the following plot is given. Which of the
following rate expressions is correct ?
k1 C A
b rA
a rA k1 C A k 2 1 k 2 CA

k1 C A 2 d rA k1 C A
c rA
1 k 2 CA 1 k 2 CA 2

21. An isothermal gas phase reaction, A 3B, is being conducted by


starting with pure A in a variable volume batch reactor. Initially, the
reactor volume is 1 L. When 50% conversion of A has been achieved,
reactor volume is

(a) 1 L (b) 1.5 L (C) 2.L (D) 3 L

22. A plot of lnk vs. 1/T is known as

(A) Bode diagram (B) Vant Hoff plot

(C) Arrhenius plot ((D)) none of these


23. A homogeneous liquid phase reaction is conducted in a batch stirred
reactor at a speed of agitation of 500 rpm. If the speed of agitation is
doubled,

(A) the reaction rate will double

(B) the reaction rate will be halved

(C) the reaction rate will remain unaffected

(D) the reaction rate will decrease by a factor less than two

24. Batch reactors are industrially used

(a) for production of fine chemicals

(b) for production of heavy chemicals

(d) when relatively small amount of materials are to be treated

(d) for conducting fermentation

25. In fermentation processes, batch reactors are traditionally preferred


because

(a) the interval between batches provides an opportunity to


clean the system thoroughly and ensure that no deleterious
intermediates and foreign bacteria build up and spoil the
product

(b) products on fermentation do not have much demand and


are, therefore, produced only in small amounts for which the
use of continuous flow reactors is not justified

(c) no temperature and concentration gradients exist in


batch reactors and fermentation occurs under uniform
conditions
(d) I do not agree with the statement that batch reactors are
preferred for fermentation. Fermentation is always conducted in
flow reactors. So answers (a), )b) and (c) are meaningless.

26. An ideal plug flow reactor should have the following characteristics

(a) no back mixing of the reactants and products

(b) complete back mixing of the reactants and products

(c) uniform temperature, pressure and composition across


any section normal to the fluid motion

(d) uniform temperature, pressure and composition at any


location in the longitudinal direction

27. For efficient heat transfer to and from a jacketed reactor, the reactor
configuration should have

(a) low surface-to-volume ratio

(b) high surface-to-volume ratio

(c) any surface-to-volume ratio because heat transfer does not


depend on surface-to-volume ratio

28. A homogeneous liquid phase reaction A B occurs in a batch


reactor and a conversion of 50% is achieved in one hour. If the same
reaction is conducted in a plug flow reactor the space time necessary for
50% conversion is

(a) 1 s (b) 1 min (c) 1 hr (d) between 1 min and 1 hr

29. The dimension of "space velocity" is

(a) [ length ] [time-1]


(b) [ time-1 ]

(c) (either () or ()

(d) none of (), () and (); it is dimensionless

30. A space time of 5 minutes means

(a) 100% conversion of the reactant is achieved in 5 minutes

(b) One reactor volume of feed at specified conditions is


processed in 5 minutes.

(c) 5% conversion is achieved in one minute

(d) none of these

31. If "space time" is denoted by and "space velocity" by s, then

(a) . s= 0 (b) . s = 1

(c . s = 0.1 (d . s=any value greater than zero

32. One liter/min of liquid containing a reactant A at a concentration of


0.2 mol/l flows into a continuously operated ideal flow stirred tank
reactor. The outflow from the reactor contains A at a concentration of
0.02 mol/l. If the volume of the reactor is 2 lit, the rate of reaction of A
realized in the reactor is

(a) 0.02 mol/l. min (b) 0.09 mol/l. sec

(c) 0.09 mol/ l. min (d) 0.18 mol/ l. min

33. A space velocity of 10 hr-1 means


(a) the linear velocity of the reactant through the reactor is 10
ft/hr

(b) it takes 10 hrs for complete conversion of the reactant to


product

(c) ten reactor volumes of feed at specified conditions are


being supplied to the reactor

(d) none of these.

34. For a plug flow reactor,

(a) axial diffusivity is infinite, radial diffusivity is zero

(b) axial diffusivity is zero, radial diffusivity is zero

(c) axial diffusivity is zero, radial diffusivity is infinite

(d) axial diffusivity is infinite, radial diffusivity is infinite

35. In order to realize a specified conversion for a zero order reaction,


volume of a CSTR is

(a) more than the volume of a PFR

(b) less than the volume of a PFR

(c) equal to the volume of a PFR

(d) twice the volume of a PFR

36. A second-order reaction is to be conducted in a battery of two mixed


reactors of unequal volumes in series. Now, under otherwise uniform
conditions of flow rates and temperature, etc., higher conversion of
reactant can be realized if the battery is so arranged that

(a) the bigger reactor comes first and the smaller reactor comes
next
(b) the smaller reactor comes first and the bigger reactor
comes next

(c) either (a) or (b) holds because total volume in both cases is
the same and it is the total reactor volume that matters in
consideration related to conversion.

37. A first order reaction is to be conducted in a series of two mixed


reactors. Total volume of the two reactors is minimum when

(a) the reactors are equal in size

(b) the ratio of volumes of the first and second reactor is 2 : 1.

(c) the ratio of volumes of the first and second reactor is 1 : 2

(d) none of the above is true

38. A zero order reaction is conducted in a CSTR. If, under otherwise


uniform conditions, the reactant concentration in the fluid entering the
reactor is halves, the fractional conversion of the reactant will

(a) decrease by a factor of two

(b) increase by a factor of two

(c) remain unaffected because rate of a zero order reaction is


independent of concentration

(d) I do not agree with the problem statement; a zero order


reaction is never conducted in a CSTR. A PFR should be
employed for this purpose.

39. A first order reaction is conducted in a CSTR. If, under otherwise


uniform conditions, the reactant concentration in the fluid entering the
reactor is doubled, the fractional conversion of the reactant will

(a) increase by a factor of two

(b) decrease by a factor of two


(c) remain unaffected because fractional conversion of the
reactant is independent of concentration for a first order
reaction

40. At present a zero order reaction is being conducted in a PFR of


volume V and a fractional conversion of 0.50 is realized. If a 2nd PF
reactor of volume V is now added to the first reactor, the reactant
concentration in the fluid exiting the battery of two PFRs will be

(a) zero

(b) 25% of the reactant concentration in the fluid entering the


first reactor

(c) 50% of the reactant concentration in the fluid entering the


second reactor

(d) either (a) or (b)

41. In a recycle reactor the recycle ratio is zero. This means the reactor is
basically a

(a) PFR

(b) CSTR

(c) PFR with zero radial mixing

(d) PFR with substantial axial dispersion

42. An autocatalytic reaction A + R R + R is best conducted in a CSTR


provided

(a) the level of conversion is high

(b) the level of conversion is low

(c) the feed flow rate is low

(d) the feed flow rate is high


43. An autocatalytic reaction A + R R + R is to be conducted in a
CSTR. Now minimum CSTR volume results when the fractional
conversion of A is

(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.75 (d) 0.90

44. For a zero order reaction volume of a CSTR is equal to the volume of
a PFR for the same conversion level of the reactant. Identify from the
following the case where CSTR volume is equal to PFR volume :

(a) solid catalyzed vapour phase reaction of any order

(b) homogeneous reactions of fractional order

(c) autocatalytic reaction

(d) gas-liquid reaction

45. For an autocatalytic reaction A + R R + R a fractional conversion


(of A) of 90% is desired. Which of the following will give minimum total
reactor volume so as to achieve the desired conversion level?

(a) a PFR up to a conversion level of 50% and subsequently a


CSTR to achieve final conversion

(b) a single PFR

(c) a CSTR up to a conversion level of 50% and subsequently


a PFR to achieve final conversion

(d) two CSTRs in series; the conversion level in the first reactor
is 50%

46. Combustion of a fuel gas in an adiabatic furnace with cool reactants


being fed into the system is an example of an autocatalytic reaction.
Which of the following sustains the combustion process and hence, may
be called product having autocatalytic behaviour ?

(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Water vapour


(c) Fuel gas itself (d) Air supplied for combustion

47. For an autocatalytic reaction A + R R + R, maximum rate is


realized at a conversion level of

(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) none of the above

48. A certain process employs a recycle reactor and the recycle ratio is
set at a value of one. This suggests volume of fluid returned to the
reactor inlet is equal to

(a) volume of fluid entering the reactor

(b) volume of fluid leaving the system

(c) half of the volume of fluid leaving the system

(d) zero

49. A zero order reaction is to be conducted in a battery of three reactors


in series. The battery consists of one small CSTR of Volume V/4 lit, a
large CSTR of volume V lit, and a PFR of volume V/2 lit. Which of the
following arrangements will give highest conversion of the reactant under
otherwise uniform conditions ?

(a) PFR Small CSTR Large CSTR

(b) PFR Large CSTR Small CSTR

(c) Large CSTR PFR Small CSTR

(d) All arrangements shown above will give the same conversion

50. In question no. 49, if the order of the reaction is 0.5, which one of the
arrangements (a) to (d) will give highest conversion ?

(a) PFR Small CSTR Large CSTR


(b) PFR Large CSTR Small CSTR

(c) Large CSTR PFR Small CSTR

(d) All arrangements shown above will give the same


conversion

51. A first order reaction is being conducted in a battery of N-mixed reactors of equal
volume in series and the following result is known for the ratio of concentration of A
in the stream leaving the N-th reactor in the battery and concentration of A in the
N
C A, N 1

stream entering the first reactor in the battery :
C A,0 1 k What happens
to the behaviour of the battery when N ?

(a) behaves like a single CSTR of volume Vi ( Vi = volume of single reactor)

(b) behaves like a single CSTR of volume NVI

(c) behaves like a PFR of volume Vi

(d) behaves like a PFR of volume NVi

52. A homogeneous zero-order reaction is conducted in a PFR at 100 0C


and a reactor volume of V lit is required for realizing a specified
conversion. If the same reaction is conducted at1100C, what will be the
required reactor volume for the same conversion level as above under
otherwise uniform conditions? The activation energy of the reaction is 84
KJ/mole.

(a) V L (b) V/2 L (c) V/4 L (d) V/6 L

53. For multiple reactions 2A R, 2R S,the number of moles of S


present when the number of moles of A and R are 0.4 and 0.5
respectively (initially 2 moles of A are present only) are

(a) 0.125 (b) 0.150 (c) 0.200 (d) 0.400

k 1st order
54. Consider a homogeneous reaction of the type A R and
1

k2 2 nd order
also A S . R is the desired product and its
concentration is to be maximized by selection of a proper reactor. Which
reactor system will you choose in order to get the highest R
concentration (under otherwise uniform conditions)?

(a) Batch reactor (b) PFR

(c) single CSTR (d) Five CSTRs in series

k 1st order
55. Consider a homogeneous reaction of the type A R
1

k2 2 nd order
and also A S . The plot of instantaneous fractional
yield of R vs. concentration of A is shown in the figure. The
concentration of R in the desired product can be maximized if the
reaction is conducted

(a) a PFR

(b) a CSTR

(c) two CSTRs in series; the exit concentration of A from the first
CSTR will be CAi and and the exit concentration from the second CSTR
will be CAf
(d) one CSTR and one PFR; the exit concentration from the CSTR
will be CAi and the exit concentration from the PFR will be CAf

CA0 = initial concentration CAi = intermediate concentration and CAf = exit


concentration

56. If f (R/A) vs. CA is as shown below, which reactor or reactor combinations will
produce the highest yield of the desired product R ?

(a) a single CSTR

(b) a single PFR

a CSTR operating at concentration CAi followed by a PFR up to a


concentration CAi followed by a CSTR operating at CAf

(d) a PFR operating at concentration CAi followed by a CSTR up to a


concentration CAi followed by a PFR operating at CAf

57. Consider the following reaction scheme :A + B R; R + B S. If A


is added drop wise into a batch stirred reactor containing only B, the
products formed will contain
(a) only R

(b) only S

(c) a mixture of R and S. R will form and its concentration will rise
to a maximum and then will decrease. S concentration will
increase slowly. In the final product 50% R and 50% S will be
present.

(d) a mixture of R and S. Both concentrations will steadily rise


right from the beginning until an equimolar mixture results.

k 1 1st order k 2 1st order


58. A series reaction A R S is conducted in a batch
reactor and CR as a function of time is given by the following equations :
CR

k1
C A 0 k 2 k1

e k1 t e k 2 t
. If k1 = k2, then CR/CAO is equal to

k1 k 1 t k1
a k1 e k1 t b e c 2
e k1 t
d k1t e k 1 t
t t

k 1 1st order k 2 1st order


59. A series reaction, A R S is being
conducted in a PFR. To maximize the production of R, the optimum
space time should be equal to

1


k1 k 2
c k1 k 2
d
k
ln k 1
a k1 k 2 b
ln 1
k
2 k1 k 2 k2 2

k 1 1st order k 2 1st order


60. Suppose the reaction in question A R S
is conducted in a CSTR . The optimum space time for the production of R
for this case is

d k1 k 2
k
a k1 k 2
k1 k 2 ln 1
b c k1 k 2 12
2 2 k2
61. For the reaction type, A R and A S ,the fractional yield of the
desired product, R, is not influenced by the reactor type ( i. e. the same
fractional yield of R is realized whether the reaction is conducted in a
batch reactor, CSTR or PFR ) . From this information what idea do you
get about the kinetics of the reaction ?

(a) both reaction A to R and A to S are of the same order

(b) A R is zero order, but A S is first order

(c) A R is first order, but A S is zero order

(d) A R is 2nd order, but A S is zero order

k 1 1st order k 2 2 nd order


62. Consider the reaction scheme : A R and 2A S
; R is the desired product. The instantaneous fractional yield f ( R /A ) for the reaction
scheme is

a k1
b k1
c k1 k 2 C A d k1
k1 k 2 C A k 2 CA k1 k 1 2k 2 C A

k 1st order k 2 nd order


63. For the reaction scheme A R and 2A
S ,
1 2

the instantaneous fractional yield f (R/R+S) is

k1 k1 k1 k 2 C A k1
a b c d
k1 k 2 C A k 2 CA k1 k 1 2k 2 C A

2
r 1 r 2 C r C
64. Consider the reaction A B , A C , A D .
B C A D A

For this case


fC
A is given by
1 CA 2 2C A
a c d
1 C A 2
b 1 C A 2
1 C A 2 1 C A 2

65. For the reaction scheme of question no. (64) what is f , max and for
which concentration of A does it occur ?

(a) 1, 0.5 (b) 0.5, 0.5 (c) 0.5, 1.0 (d) 1.0, 1.0

k 1 1st order k 2 1st order


66. A series reaction of the type A R S ; k1 =
1.0 and k2 = 1.0 is being conducted in a mixed reactor. The value of
C R , max
C A ,0
is

(a) 0.10 (b) 0.20 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.50

k 1st order k 1st order


67. If the reaction A R S ; k1 = 1.0 and k2 =
1 2

C R , max
C A ,0
1.0is conducted in a PFR, is equal to

(a) 0.237 (b) 0.367 (c) 0.459 (d) 0.574

68. An exothermic homogeneous reaction is being conducted in an


isothermal batch reactor and for a specified conversion the batch time
required is tB . If the reaction is now conducted in an adiabatic batch
reactor, the batch time will be

(a) more than tB

(b) less than tB

(c) equal to tB
(d) data insufficient, so nothing can be said about the batch
time in the adiabatic reactor

69. If the total enthalpy of products is less than the total enthalpy of the
reactants, the reaction is

(a) endothermic

(b) exothermic

(c) either (a) or (b) ; more information required for correct


prediction

70. Consider the reversible reaction A B . Both reactions are first


order. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction at any temperature is
K, the equilibrium conversion is equal to

a K 1 b K 1 c K
d K
K K 1 K 1

72. For the gas-phase reaction 3A


7D , which of the following
relations are correct :

a Kp K C RT 4 b K p K y Pt 4

4 4
c K y K C Pt d K C K y Pt
RT RT

73. The thermodynamic equilibrium constant for a gas-phase reversible


reaction is influenced by

(a) Kinetics of the reaction (b) The presence of inerts

(c) The total pressure (d) The temperature


74. Consider a reversible gas-phase reaction A 2B . The reaction is
exothermic. If the system pressure is increased, equilibrium conversion
of the reactant

(a) decreases (b) increases

(c) remains unaffected by pressure changes

(d) may increase or decrease, depending on the magnitude of


heat of reaction.

75. For a gas-phase reaction A 3B 2C , if some inerts are added


into the system under otherwise uniform conditions, conversion of A will

(decrease (b) increase (c) remain unaffected

76. For a reversible endothermic reaction, with increase in temperature,

(a) rate of reaction increases

(b) equilibrium conversion increases

(c) both rate and equilibrium conversion increase

(d) neither rate nor equilibrium conversion increases

77. A reversible endothermic reaction is to be conducted in a flow


reactor. Now in order to achieve a specified conversion in a reactor of
minimum volume, what operating temperature will you select ?

(a) temperature as low as possible

(b) highest possible temperature (the material of


construction of the reactor vessel must withstand the
temperature

(c) varying temperatures; along the locus of maximum rates


known as optimum temperature progression

78. For a reversible exothermic reaction, with increase in temperature,

(a) rate of reaction increases

(b) equilibrium conversion increases


rate of reaction decreases

(d) equilibrium conversion decreases

79. A reversible exothermic reaction is to be conducted in a flow reactor.


In order that a specified conversion is realized in a reactor of minimum
volume, the reaction should be conducted

(a) at the lowest possible temperature

(b) at the highest possible temperature

(c) at varying temperatures; along the locus of maximum


rates, known as optimum temperature progression

80. An exothermic reaction is conducted in a CSTR and the heat


generation curve and heat removal lines are as shown in the figure. The
stable steady state(s) is/are

(a) points A and (B) (b) point B (c) point B and C (d) points A and C

81. For the above reaction, minimum CSTR volume results if the CSTR
operates at temperatures corresponding to
(a) point A (b) point B (c) point C

(d) points A or B or C, the reactor volume will remain the same

E 1 1st order E 2 1st order


82. For a consecutive reaction A B C . Both
reactions are first order and the activation energies are E1 and E2
respectively and E1 >> E2. Now maximum selectivity for B can be realized
by conducting the reaction at

(a) the highest allowable temperature

(b) the lowest allowable temperature

(c) an intermediate temperature

(d) any temperature because selectivity is independent of


temperature

83. A high temperature favours the reaction of .(i) activation


energy ; low temperature favours the reaction of (ii) activation
energy

(a) higher (b) lower

E 1 1st order E 2 1st order


84. For a consecutive reaction A B C . Both
reactions are first order and the activation energies are E1 and E2
respectively If E1 = E2, increase in temperature

(a) will increase the selectivity for B

(b) will increase the selectivity for C

(c) will have no influence on the selectivities for B and C

(d) will cause a reduction in selectivity for B

k 1 1st order k 2 1st order


85. Consider the A R S reaction; R is the
desire product. Step (1) has an activation energy of 20 kcal/mol and
Step (2) has an activation energy to 10 kcal/mol. In order to promote the
production of R, the reaction should be conducted

(a) at the lowest possible temperature

(b) at the highest possible temperature


(c) at an intermediate temperature (between the highest and the
lowest temperature)

(d) in accordance with a temperature progression; low


temperature followed by high temperature.

86. Statement is sometimes made " a reaction doubles in velocity for


each 100 rise in temperature". If this is true for temperatures 300 K and
310 K, the activation energy of the reaction in cal/mol is

(a) 1000 (b) 5000 (c) 12806 (d) 18772 (e) 25000

87. If the statement given in question (86) is true for temperatures 373 K
and 383 K, the activation energy of the reaction in Cal/mol is

(a) 10 000 (b) 12 689 (c) 19 671 (d) 33 481 (e)none of


these

88. By what factor will the rate constant be increased between 298K and
308 K if the activation energy is 35 000 cal/mol?

(a) by a factor 1.35

(b) by a factor 1.92

(c) by a factor 2.79

(d) none of the above

89. Consider the reaction given below. In order to promote the


formation of B, the reaction should be conducted
(a) at the highest possible temperature

(b) at the lowest possible temperature

(c) at an intermediate temperature

(d) in accordance with a falling temperature progression : high


temperature followed by low temperature.

90. Knowledge of fluid dynamics is important for reactor design.

(a) This is because frequency factor and hence, the rate


constant depends strongly on the fluid flow pattern

(b) If the complete velocity distribution map is known, the


residence time of the reactant within the reactor will be
known correctly and conversion can be accurately
predicted

(c) Fluid dynamics and reactor design are two entirely different
areas. Reactor design, therefore, does not require any
information about fluid flow patterns, etc. I, therefore, do not
agree with the statement of the question.

91. The exit age distribution function is denoted by E. Now E.dt means

(a) fraction of the molecules within the vessel having age less
than t
(b) fraction of the molecules in the outlet stream having age
between t and t + dt

(c) number of molecules in the outlet stream having age less


than t

(d) none of the above

E dt
92. 0 between the limits of 0 and is equal to

(a) 0 (b) 0.1 (c) 1.0 (d) 10

t'


1 E dt ?
93. A typical E curve is shown in figure below. 0

b E dt c E dt
a 0 0 t' d
94. The cumulative age distribution F is defined as

t
a F t 1 E dt b F t E dt
0 0

t t
c F t E dt d F t 1 E dt
0 0

95. Which of the following relationship between E and F is/are correct ?

a F dE c E F dt d E dF
dt b E F dt 0 dt

96. The cumulative age distribution function F stands for

(a) fraction of the molecules in the inlet stream having age


more than t

(b) fraction of the molecules in the outlet stream having age


more than t

(c) fraction of the molecules in the outlet stream having age


less than t

(d) number of molecules in the outlet stream having age more


than t

97. Response to a pulse input to an ideal CSTR is represented by one of


the following graphs. Identify the correct one. (Ans: c)
98. Response to a pulse input to two different reactor combinations :an ideal CSTR
followed by an ideal PFR is represented by one of the following diagrams. Identify the
correct one: (Ans: c)
99. Response to a pulse input to two different reactor combinations:

(1) an ideal CSTR followed by an ideal PFR

(2) an ideal PFR followed by an ideal CSTR

will be

(a) identical (b) markedly different

(c) either (a) or (b) depending on reactor volumes and stream flow
rate

100. Conversion of the reactant can be accurately predicted by knowing


the residence time distribution for

(a) first order reaction

(b) second order reaction

(c) half order reaction

(d) all of the foregoing

101. Which of the following models (for predicting conversion from RTD
data) contains (s) zero adjustable parameters?

(a) Tanks- in series model

(b) dispersion model

(c)Segregation model

(d) Maximum mixed ness model

102. Which of the following models contains (s) one adjustable


parameter?

(a) Dispersion model

(b) Segregation model

(c) Maximum mixed ness model


2 C uC C
DE
z 2 z t
103. In RTD studies the differential equation

is well-known. The equation occurs in

(a) Tanks-in-series model

(b) Segregation model

(c) Axial dispersed plug flow model

(d) Maximum mixed ness model

104. Which of the following dimensionless groups is called Peclet number


(n : momentum : thermal diffusivity)diffusivity ;

n
a uL
b c d DE
DE DE DE uL

DE
105. For an ideal plug flow reactor the dispersion number,
u L , is

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) infinity (d) none of the foregoing

106. A fluid is flowing laminarly through a pipe. If, under otherwise


uniform conditions, packing particles re introduced in the pipe,

(a) flow will approach plug flow more closely

(b) flow will still be laminar with non improvement in mixing


characteristics

(c) fluid backmixing will increase

107. For an ideal CSTR , the E-curve or C-curve , in response to a pulse


input of a tracer, looks like the one shown in the sketch I. For a certain
real CSTR, the C-curve is as shown in sketch II.
In the real CSTR , therefore, the flow is

(a) early flow (b) late flow (c) plug flow

(d) recycling flow which means there is internal circulation inside


the reactor

108. In residence time distribution studies of chemical reactors, terms


like macrofluid and microfluid find wide usage. Now a macrofluid is
basically

(a) a large volume of fluid

(b) a fluid in which molecules are free to more everywhere

(c) a fluid in which the elements of a given age do not mix with other
elements

(d) none of the foregoing

109. The basic difference between macromixing and micromixing is that


(a) macromixing does not specify how fluid molecules of different
ages encounter one another in the reactor

(b) macromixing describes how fluid molecules of different ages


encounter one another in the reactor

110. The segregation model will give the highest conversion for reaction
order

(a) less than one

(b) equal to one

(c) greater than one

(d) equal to zero

111. The complete mixing model will give the highest conversion for
reaction order

(a) <1 (b) 1 (c) >1 (d) none of the foregoing

112. A solid-catalyzed vapour phase reaction is irreversible and


intrinsically second order with respect to the reactant concentration.
Laboratory experiments, however, show that the reaction is first-order
with respect to the reactant concentration. What can you conclude from
such experimental results ?

(a) The reaction is kinetically controlled (surface reaction controlling)

(b) Possibly the catalyst is porous and under reaction-conditions


employed, diffusion and reaction might occur simultaneously. Because of
strong pore-diffusion limitation a 2nd order reaction appears as if it is a
first-order reaction.

(c) Possibly the reaction is controlled by transport of reactant from


the bulk gas phase to the catalyst surface, or in other words, the
reaction is external film-resistance controlled.

(d) Nothing can be concluded and new experiments should be conducted.


One should remember that an intrinsically 2nd order heterogeneous
reaction, under no conditions, can show first-order dependence with
respect to the reactant concentration. The experimenter has collected
wrong data and should not be relied upon.
113. A solid catalyzed vapour phase reaction has been conducted in the
laboratory. A highly porous catalyst has been employed and it has been
proved beyond doubt that, under reaction conditions employed, only
the external surface area of the catalyst is active. If, under otherwise
uniform conditions, reaction temperature is increased further,

(a) more active surface area ( actually taking part in reaction) will be
utilized for reaction

(b) less active surface area will be utilized for reaction

(c) same active surface area will be utilized, but still global reaction
rates in kmol/m3.s may be different

(d) same active surface area will be utilized and global reaction rate will
reach a constant value. There after increase in temperature will have
absolutely no effect on reaction rates.

114. For a certain gas-solid reaction occurring in presence of a


nonporous catalyst particle global reaction rate at steady state is given
by

C Ag
rate
1 1

kg ks
. what is the "intrinsic" order of the reaction ?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 0.5

C Ag
rate
1 1

kg ks
115. For the rate equation given in question (114), which
of the following is appropriate ?

(a) the reaction is kinetically controlled (surface-reaction controlling)

(b) the reaction is controlled by mass transfer of reactant from the bulk
gas phase to the catalyst surface

(c) both mass transfer and chemical reaction on the surface are
important and they are steps in series
(d) both mass transfer and chemical reaction on the surface are
important and they are steps in parallel

116. For a certain gas-solid reaction occurring in presence of a


nonporous catalyst particle, the global reaction rate at steady state is
given by

kg
rate 2 k s C Ag k g k g 2 4 k s k g C Ag
2 k s

the intrinsic order of the reaction is

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 0

117. For a certain gas-solid reaction occurring in presence of a catalyst


particle global reaction rate at steady state is given by

C Ag
rate
1 1

A ext k g k s A int
where Aext is the external surface area and Aint is the
internal surface area. For this situation , which of the following is incorrect?

(a) The catalyst is non porous

(b) The external (film) mass transfer resistance is present

(c) There is no intraparticle diffusional resistance

(d) The reaction is kinetically controlled

118. Consider diffusion and chemical reaction taking place


simultaneously in a catalyst particle of slab geometry. The reaction is
irreversible and first-order. The expression for "effectiveness factor" for
this case is given by

a ) = tan h f - f (b) = tan h f / f 2


(c) = f cot h f (d) = tan h f / f

k
L
De
(Note : f : Thiele modules ; equal to ; L : half-length of the slab,
length measured in the direction of diffusion ; k : rate constant ; D e :
effective diffusivity)

119. For low values of Thiele modules, effectiveness factor tends to

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) -1

120. In order to realize high effectiveness factor of a catalyst particle, one


should employ

(a) small catalyst particles (b) low reaction temperature

(c) catalyst having large pores (d) all of the above

121. A plot of effectiveness factor () vs. Thiele modulus (f) on a log-log


graph paper looks like the one given below:

(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 2 (d) -2


122. For a porous catalyst particle where reaction and diffusion occur
simultaneously, which of the following statements is/are appropriate?

(a) Diffusion and reaction occur in series

(b) Diffusion and reaction occur in parallel

(c) Reaction may be controlled by diffusion

123. An intrinsically second order reaction, when conducted in


presence of a porous catalyst particle under conditions of strong pore
diffusion limitation, appears to be a

(a) first order reaction

(b) one and a half order reaction

(c) second order reaction

(d) two and a half order reaction

124. Consider a gas-solid reaction being conducted in presence of a


porous catalyst particle under conditions of strong pore diffusion
limitation. The intrinsic activation energy of the reaction is 16 Kcal/mol.
Under conditions of strong pore diffusion limitation the apparent
activation energy (kcal/mol) is

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16

125. An irreversible first order reaction occurs in presence of a spherical


porous catalyst particle. The expression for effectiveness factor for a
spherical catalyst particle is given by

1 1 1
a 3
b 1 1

f tan h f f f cot h f f 2

3f
c d 3 tanh f cot h f
tanh f f

k
fR
De
Note R is the radius of the catalyst particle
126. For intrinsic reaction order equal to one, the effectiveness factor,
corresponding to large values of Thiele modules,

(a) decreases with increasing reactant concentration at the external


catalyst surface

(b) in independent of the reactant concentration at the external


catalyst surface

(c) increases with increasing reactant concentration at the external


catalyst surface.

127. The effectiveness factor (for large values of thick modules) decreases
with increasing reactant concentration at the external catalyst surface
for intrinsic reaction order equal to

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) <1 (d) >1

128. The effectiveness factor can be significantly greater than one for a
reaction which is

(a) exothermic and isothermal (b) endothermic and isothermal

(c) exothermic and non-isothermal (d) endothermic and non-isothermal

129. For a zero-order reaction the effectiveness factor is equal to one for
thick modules, f ,

(a) < 2 (b) > 2 (c) > 3 (d) between 2 and 3

130. A zero-order gas-phase irreversible reaction is being conducted in


presence of a catalyst particle of slab geometry. Under reaction condition
employed Thiele modulus is greater than 2. The effectiveness factor of
the catalyst for this situation is

(a) tanhf /f (b) 1/f (c) 3/f (d) 2/f

131. For the situation in q 130, the Thiele modulus will be defined as f
equal to

k
a L
D e C As b L d L
De
k D e C As c L D e k C As k
132. Under conditions of strong pore diffusion limitation an n-th order
reaction appears to be order of reaction

1 n n 1 n
a n b 1 c d
2 2 2 2

133. The reaction A B occurs in an isothermal catalyst pellet under


steady state conditions. If the diffusion of A into the pellet is the rate-
limiting step, the rate of diffusion of A is

(a) faster than the rate of reaction

(b) equal to the rate of reaction

(c) slower than the rate of reaction

(d) may be faster or slower, depending on the kinetics

134. An nth order reaction occurs in presence of a catalyst particle of


slab geometry at steady state and under isothermal conditions. Now for
large values of the Thiele modulus , the expression for the effectiveness
factor of the catalyst particle is

2f 2 2f
a 2n b 2 1 c 2 d
f n 1 f n 1 n 1

135. When internal diffusion limits the overall rate of reaction, the
reaction rate , the reaction rate

(a) Varies inversely with particle diameter, dp

(b) Is independent of the gas velocity

(c) Exhibits an exponential temperature dependence which is not as


strong as that for the surface reaction controlling reactions

(d) All of above

137. The "Weisz Prater criterion" enables us to obtain quick estimates


from observed or measured quantities, which give an idea about the rate-
limiting step in a heterogeneous reaction. The Weisz-Prater parameter is
rA,obs p R 2
defined by the dimensionless group D e C As , when the parameter
value is much greater than one,

(a) intraparticle diffusion severely limits the reaction

(b) there are no intraparticle diffusion limitation

(c) external mass transfer controls the overall rate of reaction

(d) nothing can be concluded about the rate-limiting step

138. In order that no intraparticle diffusional limitations exist in case of


a gas-solid reaction, the value of Weisz-Prater parameter should be

(a) >> 1 (b) =1 (c) << 1 (d) between 1 and 2

139. Consider a case (gas-solid system) where diffusion and chemical


reaction occur simultaneously in a tall cylindrical catalyst particle . The
reaction is irreversible , first order and occurs isothermally . The steady
state mass balance equation for reactant A diffusing within the particle is
given by

d 2 CA dC A 2 k CA
a
k
CA 0 b 1 d
r 0
dz 2 De r dr dr De L

1 d 2 dC A k
c r CA 0
r2 d r d r De
(d) none of the above

1st order 1st order


140. Consider a reaction scheme A B and A C . A" is
a gas-phase reactant and reaction occurs in the presence of a solid
catalyst. Under conditions of no pore diffusional limitation, selectivity for
the desired product, B, is "S". If the reaction is now conducted under
conditions of strong pore diffusional limitation, the selectivity for B will
be

(a) greater than S (b) less than S (c) equal to S


(d) any of the foregoing, depending on the rate constants of the parallel
steps

k 1st order k 1st order


141. Consider a reaction scheme, A B C both
1 2

are first order reactions. The reaction is a solid-catalyst is solid-catalyzed


vapour-phase reaction and occurs in the presence of a porous catalyst.
Under conditions of no pore diffusional limitation, a certain selectivity for
the intermediate product, B, is obtained. If conditions are so
manipulated that the reaction occurs under strong pore diffusional
limitation, selectivity for B

(a) will improve

(b) will be adversely affected

(c) will remain unchanged

(d) either improve or be adversely affected, depending on the ratio

142. Consider a solid-catalyzed vapour phase reaction scheme


k 1 1st order k 2nd order
A B and A 2
C . Reaction occurs in presence of a
porous catalyst and a certain selectivity for the desired product B is
obtained under conditions of no pore diffusional limitation. Assume that
this selectivity is f . If the reaction is now conducted under conditions of
strong pore diffusion limitation, selectivity for B

(a) > f (b) < f (c) = f

(d) cannot be predicted, more information required

143. A porous solid catalyst has the following characteristics: particle


density = 0.98 g/cm3; particle diameter = 0.6 mm; total surface area = 50
m2/g. The external surface area of the catalyst is

(a) 50 m2/g (b) 102.04 m2/g

(c) 102.04 cm2/g (d) 102.04 x 10-4 cm2/g

144. A first-order irreversible gas-phase reaction is carried out on a


catalyst of characteristic dimension (defined as volume of the catalyst
particle divided by the external surface area) of 0.24 cm. The effective
diffusivity of the reactant is 0.012 cm2/sec. The intrinsic rate constant at
100 0C is 1.0 s-1 and the intrinsic activation energy is 20 kcal/mole. The
Thiele modulus for the catalyst at 100 0C is
(a) 0.57 (b) 1.19 (c) 1.74 (d) 2.19

145. For the problem in question no. (144), assume that the effective
diffusivity is independent of temperature. Now Thiele modulus at 200 0C
is

(a) 1.19 (b) 3.58 (c) 20.83 (d) 38.57

146. For a certain solid-catalyzed gas-phase irreversible first-order


reaction, rate with very fine catalyst particle is 0.0302 mol/L. s. and that
in presence of porous catalyst particle having characteristic dimension of
0.20 cm is 9.966 x 10-3 mol/L. s. The effectiveness factor of the porous
catalyst is , therefore,

(a) 0.25 (b) 0.33 (c) 0.49 (d) 0.68

148. An interesting aspect of solid-catalyzed vapour phase reaction, in


presence of porous catalyst, is "diffusional falsification" of kinetics. What
exactly does one understand by the term "falsified kinetics" or "disguised
kinetics"? Choose the correct answer.

n 1

(a) An intrinsically n-th order reaction appears to be 2 th order
reaction

(b) Apparent activation energy is approximately half of the true activation


energy

(c) Rate vs. concentration of reactant curve passes through a maximum

149. The Thiele modulus for a gas-phase first-order isothermal reaction


for a spherical catalyst particle is found to be 2. The catalyst
effectiveness factor is

(a) 0.33 (b) 0.49 (c) 0.80 (d) 0.91

150. Consider question number (149). Suppose the reaction is 2nd order
instead of being first-order. For Thiele modulus equal to 2, the catalyst
effectiveness factor

(a) < 0.80 (b) > 0.80 (c) = 0.80


(d) cannot be predicted, more information required

151. For a certain gas-solid reaction Thiele modulus for a catalyst


particle of slab geometry, based on the characteristic dimension, is equal
to one. Under otherwise uniform conditions, Thele modulus for a
spherical catalyst having the same characteristic dimension is equal to

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of the foregoing

152. A gaseous reactant diffuses through a gas film and reacts on the
surface of a nonporous spherical catalyst particle. The rate of surface
reaction is k1CAs where CAs is the reactant concentration on the catalyst
surface. The reaction rate constant k1 = 0.93 x 10-4 m/s and the gas-film
mass transfer coefficient kg = 1.53 x 10-4 m/s. If the rate expression in
terms of bulk gas phase concentration CAg is written as k CAg, the value of
k is

(a) 0.31 x 10-4 m/s (b) 0.578 x 10-4 m/s

(c) 1.21 x 10-4 m/s (d) 1.59 x 10-4 m/s

153. Consider problem no. (152) suppose the reaction is gas film mass
transfer controlled for a gas phase reactant concentration of 3.2 x 10-2
mol/L. If now the reactant concentration is reduced by a factor of 2
(under otherwise uniform conditions), the reaction

(a) will still be gas-film mass transfer controlled

(b) will be surface reaction controlled

(c) will be controlled by both gas-film and surface-reaction resistances

(d) rate will drop to zero

154. For the same characteristic dimension and under otherwise uniform
operating conditions, the effectiveness factor for a spherical catalyst
particle

(a) is always higher than that for a flat plate

(b) is always lower than that for a flat plate

(c) is always equal to that for a flat plate

(d) may be any one of the foregoing depending on the molecularity of the
reaction.
155. Consider a gas-phase exothermic reversible reaction being
conducted in a non-isothermal packed bed reaction. The gas enters the
reactor at 300 0C and a fractional conversion (close to equilibrium
conversion) of 0.40 is achieved at the exit. A young Chemical engineer
suggests that conversion can be markedly increased if the gas is
preheated to 400 0C before it enters the reactor. Do you agree with the
suggestion ? State with fractional conversion vs. temperature profile.

(a) Yes, I agree.

(b) No, I dont

(c) Yes, if the reaction is accompanied by an increase in number of moles


from reactants to products.

(d) Yes, if the reaction is accompanied by a decrease in number of moles


from reactants to products.

THERMODYNAMICS

Which of the following equation is NOT TRUE for a mixture of


solutes in a solvent?

C C C
a wi 1 b i 1 c x i 1
i 1 i 1 i 1

Where, wi= weight fraction of the ith species


I = density of the ith species
xi = mol fraction of the ith species

2. Mark the following variables as either Intensive property (A) or


Extensive property (B)

(i) Composition (A) (ii) Pressure (A) (iii) Temperature (A)


(iv) Total volume (B)
(v) Specific volume (A) (vi) Total enthalpy (B) (vii) molar
entropy (A)

3. Mark the following systems as Open system (A) or Closed system


(B) or Isolated system (C)

(i) Water contained in a Dewar flask ( C )


(ii) Water contained in a sealed container is being heated (B)
(iii) Water contained in a beaker open to atmosphere is being heated
(A)

8. STP (the Standard Temperature and Pressure) is

(a) 0C and 1 atm. (b) 25C and 1 atm. (c) 0 K


and 1 atm.

9. For solids and liquid (far away from critical point) which of the
following approximation are true.
v
0
P
(a) h u (b) CP Cv (c) (d) all of the above

10. For an ideal gas enthalpy


(a) Increases with pressure (b) Decreases
with pressure.
(c) Independent of changes in pressure

11. Natural gas containing CH4 (77%), CO2 (4%), C2H6 (5%) and rest
N2 is compressed to a pressure of 2 atm. What is the partial pressure
(atm) of CH4?

(a) 1.54 (b) 0.46 (c) 2.39

12. Natural gas is stored in a LPG bullet of 20m3 at a temperature of


400 K and 1.013 x 105 kPa. What is the molar density of natural gas
(assume ideal gas) ?

(a) 30.46 mol/m3 (b) 1.523 mol/m3 (c) 3.046 mol/m3

13. Instead of natural gas, air (also assume ideal) is stored at same
bullet under identical conditions. What would be the molar density of
air? Average mol wt of natural gas = 19.50 kg/kmol and that of air =
28.8 kg/kmol.

(a) 30.46 m3 (b) 1.523 (c) 44.9 (d) 20.6

14. An adiabatic steady state turbine is the source for a small electric
generator. Steam the motive fluid, enters at 600C and 10 bar. Steam
is exhausted from the turbine 1 atm pressure and 400C. Estimate
the work done by turbine (kJ/kg steam) .
(a) 401.7 (b) 401.7 (c) 632.2 (d) 632.2

15. What is the amount of work done by a compressor (kJ/kmol) to


compress an ideal gas isothermally at a temperature of 25C from 1
bar to 10 bars?

(a) 5707.7 (b) 3293 (c) 57.07

16. An ideal gas at 35 bar and 600K leaks through a valve to an exit
pressure of 7 bar. What would be the exit temperature?

(a) 523.5K (b) 600K (c) 783.7K (d)


None of these.

17. Nitrogen gas is stored in a 2 ft3 cylinder at a pressure of 3000


psia and temperature of 650F. What is the molar density assuming
nitrogen to be an ideal gas?

(a) 0.532 (b) 0.192 (c) 1.798

18. A cylinder (L1) containing LPG at 10 bars and 298 K is connected


and is being used to fill another cylinder(L2 ) initially at 1 bar and
298 K. The final temperature of L1 is T1 and that of L2 is T2. Then

(a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 = T2 (c) T1 < T2

19. What would be the entropy change (J/mol.K) due to the above
filling process?

(a) 0 (b) 2.364 (c) 5.763 (d)


None of these.

20i)
u C v dT is true for

(a) For a reversible process only.


(b) For an irreversible process only.
(c) For both reversible and irreversible processes.

20ii). In a well-isolated bomb calorimeter nitrogen and hydrogen


react to form ammonia. . Which of the following is true?

(a) Total enthalpy remains constant.


(b) Total internal energy remains constant.
(c) Total entropy remains constant.

21. For an ideal gas specific internal energy is a function of

(a) temperature only


(b) temperature and pressure
(c) temperature, pressure and Gibbs free energy

22. The constant pressure heat capacity is defined as



a C P h b C P h c C P h
T v T P P T

23. The constant volume heat capacity is defined as



a C v u b C v u c C v h
v T T v u T

24. For an ideal gas the Cv and CP are functions of

(a) temperature only (b) pressure only(c) both temperature and


pressure

25. The values of CP and Cv for a monatomic gas are

(a) 5 and 3. (b) 3.987 and 1.987. (c) 0.66 and


1.987. (d) None of the above.

26. A well designed and insulated turbine can be assumed to


operate at

(a) constant specific internal energy of the motive fluid


(b) constant specific enthalpy of the motive fluid
(c) constant specific entropy of the motive fluid
(d) constant temperature of the motive fluid

27. Two perfectly insulate tanks of equal volume are connected


to each other. Initially tank 1 (L1) contains LPG at 2 bar and 290
K and tank 2 (L2) is completely evacuated. The valve between
the tanks is opened and the pressures of the two tanks are
allowed to equalize. Assuming LPG to be an ideal gas what is
the final temperature in tank L1 ?

(a) > 290 K (b) 290 K (c) > 290 K


28. A system consists of mixture of ice and water, amount of ice
being 0.5 mol and water being 0.5 mol. What is the sp. heat of
the mixture ? (sp heat of water is 18 cal/mol.K and that of ice is
9 cal/mol.K )

(a) CP,mixture = 0 (b) CP,mixture = 18 (c) CP,mixture = 9 (d) CP,mixture


=

29. Which of the following plots is called Mollier diagram?

(a) h-s (b) h- P (c) T-s

30. In a Mollier diagram the slope of an isobar is given by



a h b h
s P P s (c) 0 (d)
31. An ideal gas, is compressed in a perfectly insulated compressor
from 1 bar and T=25C to a final pressure of 10 bar. What is the
temperature of the gas exiting at 10 bars? g = 1.280

(a) 220C (b) 92.8C (c) 56.6C

32. When water is vaporized to steam, the total amount of heat


added is equal to

(a) usteam uwater (b) hsteam hwater (c) ssteam


swater (d) hsteam

33. The latent heat of vaporization of CO2 at -40F and 145.8 psia is
137.8 Btu / lbm. The specific volume of saturated vapor produced by
vaporization is 0.6113 ft3/lbm. The enthalpy of saturated CO2 vapor
at 145.8 psia is 137.8 Btu/lbm. What is its internal energy?

(a) 105.3 Btu/lbm. 1(b) 21.3 Btu/lbm. (c) Need


more data.

34. For a process carried reversibly the rate of entropy generation


within the system would be zero only when

(a) the process is isothermal


(b) the process is adiabatic
(c) for both isothermal and adiabatic process

35. The ratio of Cp/Cv for molecular nitrogen is

(a) 1.21 (b) 1.44 (c) 1.63 (d) none of


the above.

36. For an ideal gas with Cp = 38 J/mol K, the value of g is

(a) 1.44 (b) 1.28 (c) 1.62 (d) None of


the above.

37. When water is boiling in a beaker open to atmosphere, the


latent heat of evaporation to be supplied is equal to

(a) difference in specific internal energies of steam and water


(b) difference in specific enthalpies of steam and water
(c) difference in specific entropies of steam and water
(d) all of the above are true

38. An ideal gas with Cp = 30 kJ/kmol. K is heated in a double-


pipe heat exchanger from 300K to 406 K at a constant pressure
of 1 bar. The amount of heat (kJ/kmol) to be added

(a) 5533 (b) 2299 (c) 3180 (d) None of


the above.

39. For the above heat exchanger problem , the heat supplied to
the gas is equal to the increase in

(a) Enthalpy (b) Internal energy (c) Neither a


nor b (d) Need more data.

40. A compressor with a cooling jacket compresses air from 1


bar to 50 bar at a constant temperature of 406K. The difference
in enthalpy (kJ/mol) between the inlet and outlet gas (CP = 30
J/mol.K) is

(a) 0 (b) 13.20 (c) Neither a or b (d) Problem


not completely defined.
.
41. For the above compressor problem, the amount of heat
(kJ/mol) removed by the cooling jacket is
(a) 0 (b) 13.20 (c) Neither a or b. (d) Problem
not completely defined.

42. In an insulated constant volume reactor, nitrogen and


hydrogen combine to form ammonia at an elevated temperature
and pressure. Which of the following state variables remains
constant during reaction?

(a) Enthalpy. (b) Internal energy. (c) Entropy.


(d) None of the above.

43. Air is compressed adiabatically from 1 atm., 25C to 10 atm.


What is the exit temperature (0C ) of air assuming it to be ideal
(Cp = 38 J/mol.K)?

(a) 25 (b) 327 (c) 25 (d) 220

44. Which of the following may be assumed as an isentropic


process ?

(a) steam flow in a smooth well designed converging


nozzle
(b) heating of water by injecting of live steam through a
diverging nozzle
(c) steam leaking through a partially opened valve
(d) mixing of sugar in water

45. In h-s diagram the dome shaped region is for

(a) vapor only (b) liquid


only
(c) vapor-liquid mixture (d) super
heated vapor.

46. For pure liquid methanol, how many state variables are
required to completely define the system

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

47. Compressed air throttled through a needle valve to


atmospheric pressure. The throttling process is

(a) Isenthalpic (b) Isentropic (c) Isobaric


(d) Isothermal.
48. During a change of state, the change in which of the
following state variable is equal to zero?

(a) specific enthalpy


(b) specific entropy
(c) specific internal energy
(d) molar Gibbs free energy

49. Melting of ice result in an


(a) Increases in entropy. (b)
Decreases in entropy.
(c) Isentropic process. (d)
None of these.

50. The triple point of most fluids is close to

(a) Boiling point (b) Melting point. (c) Critical


point.

51. In the P-T diagram at triple point which of the following lines has
the highest slope?

(a) S L (b) L V (c) S V (d) None


of these.

52. At the triple point of iodine (112.9C and 11.57 kPa) the heat
of fusion is 15.38 kJ/mol while the heat of sublimation is 59.8
kJ/mol. What is the latent heat of vaporization (kJ/mol)?

(a) 44.5 (b) 75.1 (c) 22.3 (d)


19.76

53. For estimating the thermodynamic properties of ethane at 10 atm


pressure which of the following equations of state would you
recommend?

(a) Ideal gas (b) van der Waal (c) Peng Robinson. (d)
None of the above.

54. The law of corresponding states is that all fluids at


(a) Same critical temperature and pressure will have the same
critical volume
(b) Same reduced temperature and pressure will have the
same reduced volume
(c) Same temperature and pressure will have the same specific
volume
(d) None of these

57. Which of the following is the Virial equation of state?

B C D B' C' D'


a Pv RT ........ b z 1 ........
v v2 v3 v v 2 v3
(c) both a and (b) (d) neither a nor b

B,C,D,B,C,D are the temperature dependent coefficients

58. Compressibility factor (Z) of an ideal gas is

(a) = 1 at all temperature and pressure.


(b) > 1 at all temperature and pressure.
(c) < 1 at all temperature and pressure.
(d) = 0 at all temperature and pressure.

59. The compressibility factor of a gas is equal to

(a) ratio for pressure of a real gas to its vapour pressure at the same
temperature
(b) ratio of pressure of a real gas its critical pressure
(c) ratio of molar volume of real gas to that of an ideal gas at
the same temperature and pressure

60. Critical pressure of a substance is defined as

(a) the pressure at which saturated liquid and vapour are in


equilibrium
(b) the pressure at which an azeotrope is formed when mixed with
steam
(c) the pressure above which the state of a substance may not
be distinguished between liquid and vapour

61. At the critical point which of the following criteria is not valid?
(a) TL = Tv (b) gL = gv (c) sL = sv (d) none of the
above

62. Critical compressibility factor of a real gas is the value of


compressibility factor at

(a) Critical temperature and pressure (TC, PC).


(b) When the compressibility factor becomes unity
(c) When the compressibility factor becomes infinite
(d) None of these.

63. Critical compressibility factor for permanent gases (N2, O2, etc) is
approximately equal to

(a) 0.28 (b) 0.35 (c) 1 (d) None of


these.

64. At a reduced temperature of 1.10 and reduced pressure of 2.0


the compressibility factor for ethane is 0.42. What is the value
compressibility factor for methane at the same reduced temperature
and pressure ?

(a) < 0.42 (b) 0.42 (c) > 0.42 (d) Need
additional data.

65. The value of compressibility factor (Z) is always less than or


equal to unity.
(a) True. (b) False.

66. The critical compressibility factor predicted by the van-der-


Waal equation of state will be

(a) Same for all gases and is equal to unity


(b) Same for all gases but not equal to unity
(c) Different for different gases but is always greater than zero
and less than unity
(d) Different for different gases , actual value depends on the
values of a and b (van-der Waals constants)
67. The cubic equation of state can be represented as z3 + Z2 +
bZ + g = 0, where z is the compressibility factor. For CH4 at one
particular temperature and pressure, cubic equation of state has
one real root and two imaginary roots, therefore the state of the
substance is

(a) Mixture of liquid and vapor


(b) Either liquid or vapor but not a mixture
(c) Impossible to have imaginary roots for a physically
meaningful state of the substance
(d) liquid

68. The P-v isotherm of a real gas goes through an inflexion at the

(a) Critical pressure (b) Vapor pressure of the liquid (c)


triple point

69. At the critical point

2 P
a P 0 b 2 0
v T v T (c) gliquid = gvapour
(d) all of the above

70. Van-der Waals equation of state improved over the ideal gas
equation of state with the following assumptions

(a) infinitesimal molecular volume


(b) no inter molecular force
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.

71. The ideal gas equation of state can predict the transition
from the liquid state to vapor state of a substance

(a) true (b) false

72. The critical compressibility factor predicted by the van-der


equation of state is

(a) 1.0 (b) 0.375 (c) 0.27 (d) none of


the above.
73. The critical compressibility factor predicted by the ideal gas
equation of state is

(a) 1.0 (b) 0.375 (c) 0 (d) none of the


above.

74. Critical compressibility factor for most real gases vary


between

(a) 0.23- 0.31 (b) 0.37 0.72 (c) 0.15 0.21

75. The critical compressibility factor value for water is

(a) 0.23 (b) 0.35 (c) 1.0 (d) 0

76. Z(Tr = 1.20, Pr = 2.0) for N2 = 0.6. What would be the value
of Z(Tr = 1.20, Pr = 2.0) O2?

(a) >0.6 (b) <0.6 (c) =0.6 (d) Need


additional data.

77. When saturated liquid water is heated to form saturated steam at


101.3 kPa which of the following is TRUE?

(a) h = 0 (b) g = 0 (c) s = 0 (d) u =


0

78. Medium pressure steam is

(a) 0-5 psig (b) 5-15 psig (c) > 15 psig.

79. In a piston cylinder apparatus, saturated steam at 1 atm is


compressed to 5 atm, saturation temperature

(a) T 152(C) (b) T = 56C (c) T = 400 C (d) T


= 98 C

80. Steam at 1 atm. has an entropy = 6.619 kJ / kg.K. This steam is

(a) Saturated steam. (b) Super heated steam. (c) Wet


steam. (d) None of these.
81. At 1 atm pressure the enthalpy of evaporation of steam (H) is
2258 kJ/kg . At P = 5 atm, T = 151.58 C, H (kJ/kg) is

(a) < 2258 (b) > 2258 (c) =2258 (d) cannot be
predicted.

82. For saturated steam at 1 atm, Ts = 100 C the entropy of


evaporation of steam (S) is 6.0568 kJ/kg. Therefore, for saturated
steam at 5 atm, Ts = 151.58 C, S is

(a) 4.9606(b) 6.5029 (c) 6.0568 (d) cannot be


predicted

83. For saturated steam at 10 atm, TS = 179.91 C, hsteam = 2778.1


kJ/kg.. If this steam is superheated to 500C in a furnace at constant
pressure, hsteam (kJ/kg)

(a) 3478.5 (b) 2606.4 (c) 2778.1 (d) can


not be predicted

84. Steam at 400 bar and 500 C is throttled through an adiabatic


pressure relief valve to atmospheric pressure. What is the
temperature of steam after expansion?

(a) 600C (b) 212C (c) 350C (d) can not be predicted.

85. 98% quality of wet steam means

(a) 0.02 kg water/kg steam-water mixture


(b) 0.98 kg water/kg steam-water-mixture
(c) 0.02 kg steam/kg steam-water mixture
(d) 0.98 kg water/kg of steam.

92. Compressed air at a high pressure is steadily and continuously


exhausted through a pressure reducing value (Joule- Thomson
Expansion). The J-T expansion is an ------------ process

(a) Isenthalpic (b) Isothermal (c) Isobaric


(d) isochoric

93. For an ideal gas , the Joule Thompson coefficient is always

(a) > 0 (b) < 0 (c) = 0(d) Depends on upstream and


down stream pressure.
94. The Joule Thompson expansion coefficient (m) is defined as

a m T b m T c m P d m h
P h P s T v s T

95. For an ideal gas, Joule Thompson expansion would always result

(a) Increase in temperature (b) Decrease in temperature (c)


Temperature remains unchanged

98. Chemical potential is an

(a) Extensive property. (b) Intensive property.

99. For a multi component system, chemical potential is


equivalent to

(a) Molal concentration difference.


(b) Molar free energy of the pure compounds.
(c) Partial molar free energy.
(d) Change in molar free energy due to phase change.

100. The chemical potential of a species is an ideal solution


depends on

(a) Temperature. (b) Pressure. (c) Composition of solution


(d) All of these.
FLUID MECHANICS

1.A fluid is a substance that

a. permanently resists distortion


b. does not permanently resist distortion
c. has a definite density which is constant under all
circumstances,
d. has a density which cannot be accurately
determined.

2.The unit of pressure in SI system is

a. kg/m2
b. kg.m/s2
c. kg/m.s2
d. kg.m2/s

3.Pressure is a

a. vector
b. scalar
c. tensor
d. none of these

4.A fluid in equilibrium means

a. its viscosity is zero


b. shear stresses are acting on the fluid but no
flow behavior is manifested
c. it is free from shear stresses
d. a hypothetical situation because fluids are never in
equilibrium.

5.Two tubes of diameter 1 cm and 2 cm are filled with


mercury to a height of 50 cm. Now pressure at the bottom of
the mercury column will be --

2 4
cm cm

50 50
cm cm

a. higher for the tube of dia 1 cm


b. higher for the tube of dia 2 cm
c. the same for both the tubes
d. none of the above.

6.A manometer is used to measure

a. pressure difference
b. absolute pressure
c. both (a) and (b)

7.The flow of an incompressible fluid with no shear is known


as

a. Potential flow
b. Laminar flow

c. Turbulent flow

d. Couette flow

8.A fluid is called Newtonian when the shear stress versus


shear strain plot is

a. linear and passes through origin


b. linear but has an intercept
c. exponential and passes through the origin
d. is a rectangular hyperbola

9.When a fluid flows over a stationary solid surface, the fluid


velocity at the fluid solid interface is

a. Zero
b. equal to free stream velocity
c. between zero and free stream velocity

10.Liquid that does not flow at all until a threshold shear


stress is attained is known as

a. Bingham Plastic
b. Pseudoplastic

c. Dilatant fluid

d. Newtonian liquid

11.The unit of viscosity in CGS system is commonly known as


Poise. The dimension of Poise is

a. g/cm.s2
b. g.cm/s
c. g.cm2/s
d. g/cm.s

12.The unit of viscosity in SI system is

a. N.S
b. Pa. S

c. N. Pa

d. N.Pa/s

13.Viscosity of a gas

a. decreases with an increase in temperature


b. increases with an increase in temperature
c. remains unaffected with change in temperature.

14.Viscosity of a liquid

a. decreases with increasing temperature


b. increases with increasing temperature
c. remains unaffected with change in temperature

15.Kinematic viscosity is a ratio of

a. absolute viscosity to absolute pressure


b. absolute viscosity to absolute temperature
c. absolute viscosity to specific heat
d. none of the above

16.Kinematic viscosity has a unit of

a. m/s
b. m/s2
c. m2 /s
d. kg.m/s

17.Reynolds number is a ratio of

a. momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity


b. momentum diffusivity to molecular diffusivity
c. inertial force to viscous force
d. average velocity to velocity of sound

18.Flow is laminar when Reynolds number is

a. less than 2100


b. less than 4000

c. less than 10000

d. less than 25000

19.Consider fluid flow over a flat plate. When flow in the


boundary layer is completely laminar, the thickness of the
boundary layer ( ) varies with the distance from the leading
edge of the plate (x) in accordance with relation :

a. proportional to x 0.5
b. proportional to x 0.8
c. proportional to x
d. proportional to x 1.5

20.The onset of turbulence is characterized by

a. a sudden rapid decrease in the thickness of the


boundary layer
b. a sudden increase in velocity in the direction of flow
c. a sudden rapid increase in the thickness of
boundary layer
d. a sudden decrease in velocity in the direction of
flow

21.A turbulent boundary layer consists of three zones which


are buffer layer, turbulent zone and

a. critical layer
b. stagnant zone
c. viscous sub layer
d. thin film zone

22.The equation of continuity applies to


a. incompressible fluids
b. compressible fluids
c. highly viscous fluids
d. both incompressible and compressible fluids

23.An incompressible fluid of density flows through a tube of


constant cross sectional area A at a flow rate of Q (vol/time).
For this situation which of the following is /are correct?

a. Q/A = constant
b. Q. = constant
c. Q. /A = constant
d. all (a), (b) and (c)

24.The unit of mass velocity in SI system is

a. kg/s
b. kg/ m3. s
c. kg/m.s
d. kg/ m2. s

25.For flow of incompressible fluids through tubes of constant


cross-sectional area, mass velocity is

a. directly proportional to the absolute temperature


b. inversely proportional to the total pressure
c. directly proportional to the absolute temperature
d. independent of temperature and pressure

26.For laminar flow of Newtonian fluids in pipes, the ratio of


average velocity to maximum velocity is equal to

a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

27.The fully developed velocity profile for laminar flow of


Newtonian fluids in pipes is
a. parabolic with the apex at the centerline of the
pipe
b. parabolic with the apex at the pipe wall
c. rod-like
d. none of the above

28.For laminar flow in a pipe, the Fanning friction factor


depends on Reynolds number according to the relation

a. f = 24/ Re
b. f = 18.5/ Re
c. f = 16/ Re
d. none of the above

29.A particle attains its terminal velocity when

a. gravity force + drag force=buoyancy force


b. gravity force - drag force=buoyancy force
c. buoyancy force = gravity force
d. drag force=buoyancy force

30.Consider steady flow of a viscous fluid at constant density


through a horizontal pipe. The flow is fully developed. For
such a situation, which one of the following equations
describes the relation between wall shear stress, , and
shear stress, , at any radial position in the pipe ?

a. [ / w]=[r /R ]
b. [ / w]=[R/r ]
c. [ / w]=1-[r /R ]2
d. [ / w]=[r /R ]2

31.Water flows laminarly through a tube of dia 1 cm. The


average water velocity is uav and the maximum velocity is umax.
Then

a. umax = 1.5 uav


b. umax = 2 uav
c. umax = 2.5 uav
d. umax = 3 uav
32.The Fanning equation relating pressure drop and friction
factor is given by

a. - ps = 2fLu2 / gcD
b. - ps = 2L u2 / fgcD
c. - ps = 2fL u2/ gcD
d. - ps = 2fD u2/ gcL

( L : length of the pipe; D : diameter ; f : friction factor ; u :


average velocity; : density)

33.For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is

a. 2100
b. >4000
c. 0
d. infinity

34.For turbulent fluid flow through pipes, the kinetic energy


and momentum correction factors are practically equal to

a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4

35.Under otherwise uniform conditions Fanning friction factor


for a rough pipe is

a. smaller than that for a smooth pipe


b. greater than that for a smooth pipe
c. equal to that for a smooth pipe

36.Water flows turbulently through a smooth pipe. At the


centre line the velocity gradient is

a. infinity
b. zero
c. between zero and one
d. none of the above
37.Consider turbulent flow of a fluid in a smooth pipe. At the
centre line the turbulence is

a. isotropic
b. anisotropic

38.Velocity distribution in turbulent flow is customarily


expressed in terms of dimensionless parameters : u + = u/u*,
where u* = w gc / (friction velocity), and y + = y/m wgc
. Now which of the following equation represents velocity
distribution in the laminar sublayer ?

a. u + = 5 ln y+ - 3.05
b. u + = 2.457 ln y + + 5.67
c. u + = y +
d. u + . y + = 1

39.The logarithmic velocity law for the turbulent core was


proposed by

a. Reynolds
b. Nikuradse
c. Von Karman
d. Prandtl

40.Stokes law is valid (strictly theoretically) when particle


Reynolds number is NRe,p is

a. much less than one


b. equal to one
c. much greater than one
d. none of the foregoing

41.As predicted by stokes law, the drag coefficient, CD , is


given by

a. 16/ NRe,p
b. 8/ NRe,p
c. 24/ NRe,p
d. 32/ NRe,p
42.In potential flow, wall drag is

a. infinite
b. zero
c. finite and non-zero
d. none of the foregoing.

43.At the stagnation point,

a. pressure is zero
b. both pressure and velocity is zero
c. velocity is zero
d. neither pressure non velocity is zero.

44.A sphere settles freely through a pool of liquid and the


settling is in stokes law range. The terminal velocity of the
sphere will

a. be independent of the liquid viscosity


b. increase linearly with viscosity
c. decrease inversely with viscosity
d. decrease inversely with the square of viscosity.

45.In a laboratory experiment spheres of different sizes are


allowed to settle freely through a pool of liquid and terminal
velocities are calculated. It is found that terminal velocity
increases with the square root of the particle diameter. It
appears that the settling conforms to

a. Stokes low range regime


b. intermediate regime
c. Newtons law regime
d. Any one of the above, more data needed for correct
prediction.

46.Two spherical particles, one of dia d1 and the other of dia


d2 , settle freely through a pool of liquid and the settling is in
accordance with Stoke's law. d1:d2 = 1 : 2. Therefore, u1 : u2 is
equal to

a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 4 : 1
d. 1 : 4

47.For free settling in intermediate range, terminal velocity of


a particle varies as

a. particle dia, dp
b. dp0.5
c. dp2
d. dp1.14

48.The drag coefficient in hindered settling is

a. equal to that in free settling


b. grater than in free settling
c. less than in free settling.

49.Under otherwise uniform conditions, as the drag coefficient


increases, the terminal velocity of a particle

a. increases
b. remains unaffected
c. decreases

50.Brownian movement predominates over the gravity force


for particles of size

a. 100 m m
b. 10 m m
c. 0.1m m
d. none of the foregoing

51. For free settling of spherical particles in accordance with


Newtons law, the drag coefficient is

a. constant
b. directly proportional to the particle
c. Reynolds number inversely proportional to the
particle Reynolds number.
d. Inversely proportional to the 0.6 power of the
particle Reynolds number.
52.A fluidized bed is formed when

a. Fluid friction is zero


b. Gravity force is less than fluid friction
c. Pressure force is equal but acts in opposite
direction to the gravity force
d. Sum of fluid friction and pressure force is
equal but opposite to gravity force

53.Under otherwise uniform conditions, as the gas density is


reduced (e.g. by increasing the temperature), the pressure
drop per unit length of the fluidized bed

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unaltered.

54.Consider flow of a compressible fluid through a converging


nozzle. Mach number for flow is less than 1 at the inlet to the
nozzle. Then

a. du/dz > 0
b. du/dz < 0

55.For steady, isentropic flow of a compressible fluid through


a convergent-divergent nozzle, sonic conditions can occur

a. only at the throat


b. anywhere between the inlet of the converging
section and the throat.
c. anywhere between the throat and the outlet of the
diverging section.
d. only at the outlet of the diverging section.

56.Stokes equation is valid in the Reynolds number range

a. 0.01- 0.1
b. 0.1-2
c. 2-10
d. 10-100
57.Consider a convergent divergent nozzle; a compressible
fluid flows through the nozzle. The process-taking place in the
divergent section may be described as an isentropic
expansion. For this case, the stagnation temperature

a. is constant
b. changes linearly in the direction of flow
c. is maximum at the throat
d. is minimum at the throat

58.Consider a convergent divergent nozzle through which


flows a compressible fluid. The conditions and flowrate are
such that Mach no. is unity at the throat. The flow in the
divergent section

a. is sonic
b. is definitely subsonic
c. is definitely supersonic
d. may be subsonic or supersonic, depending on
the pressure in the downstream side.

59.Which of the following statements is/are correct about


valves ?

a. Gate valves are so designed as to cause fluids to


change in direction of flow of fluids.
b. Globe valves do not cause any change in direction
of flow of fluids.
c. Under otherwise uniform conditions, pressure drop
in a gate valve is larger than that in a globe valve.
d. None of the above statements is correct.

60.In a certain process, one needs fluid flow in a given


direction and the valve is to open or close by the fluid
pressure. Which of the following valves permits fluid flow in
one direction only ?

a. gate valve
b. globe valve
c. check valve
d. any of the above
61.Safety valve is basically

a. a gate valve
b. a globe valve
c. a check valve
d. none of the foregoing

62.Consider pumping of a liquid at ambient temperature and


conditions are such that no cavitation occurs. If the fluid
temperature is now increased, chance for cavitation will

a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain unaffected

63.Cavitation will not occur if the sum of the velocity and


pressure heads at the suction is

a. zero
b. much larger than the vapour pressure of the
liquid
c. much smaller than the vapour pressure of the liquid
d. equal to the vapour pressure of the liquid.

64.In SI system, net positive suction head (NPSH) has a unit


of

a. kg/ m2
b. N/ m2
c. J/ m
d. J/kg

65.The maximum discharge pressure for commercial piston


pumps is around

a. 10 atm
b. 50 atm
c. 200 atm
d. 500 atm

66.The mechanical efficiency for large piston pumps varies


from
a. 10 to 20%
b. 40 to 50%
c. 70 to 90%
d. 97 to 99%

67.The volumetric efficiency for a reciprocating pump varies


from

a. 10 to 20%
b. 40 to 50%
c. 90 to 100%

68.As the discharge pressure increases, the volumetric


efficiency of a positive displacement

a. decreases
b. remain practically constant
c. increases
d. may decrease or increase, depending on the size of
the pump.

69.Which of the following is/are example(s) of rotary positive


displacement pump(s) ?

a. gear pump
b. vane pump
c. screw pump
d. all of the foregoing

70.A non-newtonian fluid obeying power law equation and


having n=0.5 flows laminarly through a pipe of circular cross-
section. For this case, the ratio of average velocity to the
maximum (centre-line) velocity is

a. as in Newtonian liquids
b. 1/3
c. 2/5
d. 3/5

71.For a given volumetric flowrate of a Newtonian liquid in


laminar flow, the pressure drop is inversely proportional to the
fourth power of the pipe diameter. For a very pseudoplastic
liquid for which n o, the pressure drop is more nearly

a. inversely proportional to the pipe diameter


b. inversely proportional to the square of the pipe
diameter
c. inversely proportional to the cube of the pipe
diameter
d. inversely proportional to the square root of the pipe
diameter.

72.Dilute solutions of polymeric molecules flowing through a


conduct exhibit a phenomenon called "drag reduction". Drag
reduction is basically

a. sudden reduction is Reynolds number at some


location in the conduit.
b. reduction in friction factor (as compared to
what might be expected at the prevailing
Reynolds no.)
c. reduction in fluid viscosity at some location in the
conduit
d. None of the foregoing.

73. In the figure given below, which one is the stagnation


point?

A B D

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
HEAT TRANSFER

Fouriers Law described heat transfer by


(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

T k 2T

C p z 2
2.The equation is known as

(a) Reynolds equation


(b) Prandtl equation
(c) Vant Hoffs general equation
(d) Fouriers general equation

3. In SI system the unit of thermal conductivity is


(a) W/ m2. K

(b) W/ m. K

(c) W/K

(d) W/ m2.

4. Flow is proportional to
(a) potential X resistance
(b) potential/conductance
(c) potential X conductance
(d) none of the above

(a) 5.

6.Thermal conductivity of a material is defined as


(a) the resistance to heat transfer for a quantity of material 1 m
thick with heat flow area 1m2, time unit 1 hr and
temperature difference 1K

(b) the conductance for a quantity of material 1 m thick with


heat flow area 1m2, time unit 1 sec and temperature
difference 1 K

(c) the resistance to heat transfer for a quantity of material 1 m


thick with heat flow area 100 me, time unit 1 sec and
temperature difference 100 K.

(d) none of the above

7.For heat transfer through a composite wall, overall resistance to heat


transfer is
(a) sum of the resistance
(b) product of the resistance
(c) a ratio of (sum of the resistances)/(product of the
resistances)
(d) (sum of the resistances) + (product of the resistances)

8.For a body with very high thermal conductivity,


(a) heat transfer will be very rapid
(b) heat transfer will be very slow
(c) there will be no heat transfer at all
(d) none of the above is true

9.An insulator should have


(a) very high thermal conductivity
(b) very high thermal diffusivity
(c) very low thermal conductivity
(d) none of the above
10.Air is
(a) an excellent heat conductor
(b) a poor heat conductor
(c) is a better heat conductor than steel
(d) none of these
11.Thermal diffusivity is defined as
(a) K Cp/
(b) K /Cp
(c) K /Cp
(d) K Cp

12. The unit of thermal diffusivity is


(a) m/s

(b) m/s2
(c) m2/s2
(d) m2/s

q k d (C p T )

A C p dz
13.Fouriers law of heat conduction ; This equation is
very similar to

(a) Ficks law for mass diffusion


(b) Newtons law of viscosity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

14.A pipe having an outside diameter do and an inside diameter di is


used to transport a hot fluid. Heat transfer occurs radially outwards. The
area for heat transfer per unit length of the pipe in given by
2(d o d i )
d
ln o
(a)
di
2 d o d i
(b)

(d o d i )
d
ln o
(c)
di

(d) none of the above

15.For heat transfer by conduction through a uniformly tapered rod,


which of the following is true ?

(a) Flux = constant


(b) (Flux)(area) = constant
(c) none of the above

16.A hot fluid is stored in a spherical container which has an outside


diameter do and an inside diameter di. Heat flows through the wall of the
container radially outwards. The area for heat transfer is
4 d i d o
(a)
4d i d o
(b)
d i d o
(c)

d i d o
2
(d)

17. The wall of an oven consists of two layers of insulating bricks. In


between the layers there is an air gap. The presence of air gap will

(a) cause an increase in heat transfer rate through the


composite wall
(b) cause a decrease in heat transfer rate through the
composite wall
(c) have no influence on the rate of heat transfer
18.Consider the composite wall with an air gap described in problem
(17). Heat transfer through the composite wall occurs by (assume that
radiative heat transfer is not important)
(a) conduction only
(b) convection only
(c) both conduction and convection

19.A steel pipe having an outside diameter of 1.32 inch and an inside
diameter of 1.049 inch is used to transport a hot fluid. Heat transfer
occurs radially outwards. The area for heat transfer per unit length of the
pipe is
(a) 0.739 in2
(b) 1.038 in2
(c) 1.179 in2
(d) 2.41 in2
20.Thermal conductivity of a solid varies with temperature according to
the relation K = a + bT. Between 30oC and 60oC mean thermal
conductivity of the solid is equal to
(a) a + 30 b
(b) a + 45 b
(c) a + 60b
(d) a + 90 b
21.Consider a composite wall consisting of three layers of insulation of
length L1, L2 and L3, and thermal conductivities k 1, k2 and k3
respectively. The insulating layers are placed in sequence 1, 2 and 3 and
a certain rate of heat transfer results. If the order in now reversed to 3, 2,
1, rate of heat transfer through the wall under otherwise uniform
conditions.
(a) will decrease
(b) will increase
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) cannot be predicted, more information required

22.The thermal resistance of a single sheet of glass (thermal conductivity


= 0.63 Btu/(ft) (hr) (oF)) of thickness 1/8 inch and area 1 ft 2 is

(a) 0.0165 (Btu/hr, oF)-1


(b) 0.0278 (Btu/hr, oF)-1
(c) 0.0379 (Btu/hr, oF)-1
(d) none of the above

23. Consider a uniformly tapered steel rod of circular cross-section of


1 m length. The diameter of the rod at one end is 5 cm and that at the
other and is 2.5 cm. If the heat flux at the end of larger cross-section is
2500 Kcal/m2. hr the heat flux at the other end is equal to

(a) 2500 kcal/m2.h


(b) 5000 kcal/m2.h
(c) 7500 kcal/m2.h
(d) 10,000 kcal/m2.h

24.Heat transfer by convection may be of two kinds : free and forced.


When the fluid motion is mechanically produced, the convection is said
to be

(a) free convention


(b) forced convection

25.Forced convection is unimportant when


(a) (Re. Pr) >> 1
(b) (Re. Pr) << 1
(c) (Re. Pr) 1
(d) none of the above

26.Natural convection is negligible when


(a) (Ra. Pr) >>
(b) (Ra. Pr)1/4 >> 1
(c) (Ra. Pr)1/4 << 1
(d) none of the above
27.Consider an isolated, isothermal solid sphere suspended in an infinite
medium. In the limit of negligible forced or natural covection

(a) Nusselt number, Nu = 0


(b) Nu = 1
(c) Nu = 2
(d) Nu = infinity

28.Consider heat loss through pipe insulation. At the critical radius r =


rc, heat loss is
(a) Maximum

(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) none of the above

29.The critical radius of insulation is given by the equation


ki
ha
a)

ha
ki
b)

2
ki

c)
ha

ki
ha
d)

( Ki : thermal conductivity of insulation; h a : film resistance at the


external surface of insulation).

30.Consider a pipe which has to be insulated. The inside diameter of the


pipe is di and the outside diameter is do. The insulation should be so
designed that
(a) 2 rc < d o
(b) 2 rc > do
(c) 2 rc = do
(d) either (b) or (c)

33.Prandtl number is defined as


(a) m/k Cp
(b) m/ Cp
(c) m/ DAB
(d) mCp/K

34.Prandtl number is a ratio of


(a) molecular diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(b) molecular diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
(c) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(d) none of the above

35.When Prandtl number is greater than one,


(a) the thermal boundary layer will be outside the momentum
B.L.
(b) the thermal and momentum B.L.s will merge together
(c) the momentum B.L. will be outside the thermal B.L.
(d) the momentum and concentration B.L.s will merge together.

36.Prandtl number for dry gases is of the order of


(a) 10-5
(b) 1
(c) 100
(d) 105

37.Fourier number is defined as


(a) t2/R
(b) R2/t
(c) 2R/t
(d) t/R2
38.Stanton number is defined as
(a) Pr/ (Nu. Re)
(b) Nu. Re/ Pr
(c) Nu. Pr/ Re
(d) Nu/Re. Pr

39.Reynolds analogy, St = f/2, holds for


(a) Pr << 1
(b) Pr >> 1
(c) Pr = 1
(d) all (a), (b), (c)

40.Grashof number is important in


(a) heat conduction
(b) forced convection
(c) natural convection
(d) radiative heat transfer
(e) all (a), (b), (c), (d)

41.For free convection heat transfer, Nusselt number depends on


(a) Reynolds number and Prandtl number
(b) Reynolds number, Prandtl number and Grashof number
(c) Reynolds number and Grashof number
(d) Grashof number and Prandtl number

42.Brinkman number is important in problems related to


(a) heat conduction with a nuclear heat source
(b) heat conduction with a viscous heat source
(c) heat conduction with a chemical heat source
(d) heat conduction with an electric heat source

43.Nusselt number for forced convection heat transfer in pipe of diameter


D is defined as
(a) h D/K
(b) h K/D
(c) K D/h
(d) K D/h2

44.When the ratio of Grashof number to the square of the Reynolds


number is unity, the dominant mechanism for heat transfer is
(a) Free convection
(b) Entry length problem in laminar forced convection ( developing
thermal boundary layer)
(c) Mixed convection( both free and forced)
(d) Forced convection

45.A small metal ball at 30oC is placed in a hot liquid (taken in a vessel)
at 150oC. The liquid is stirred slowly and liquid volume is much larger
compared to the ball volume. Without any other numerical data what can
you say about the Biot number ?
(a) Biot number will be large
(b) Biot number will be small
(c) Nothing can be said about the Biot number ; data required for
even crude prediction.

46.Colburn J. factor for heat transfer is given by


(a) St. Pr (mw/m)0.14
(b) St 2/3
. Pr
(c) St. Pr 2/3
(mw/m)0.14
(d) (St. Pr)2/3

47.Greatz number is defined by the equation


m
Cp
Gz m mass flow rate L length of pipe
(a) kL
m
Gz
kC p
(b)
m

Gz
C p
(c)
kC p
Gz
(d)
L
48.Greatz number is important in problem related to
(a) heat transfer in a well-agitated vessel
(b) heat transfer in laminar tube flow
(c) heat transfer in turbulent flow in pipes
(d) both (a) and (c)

49.For heat transfer in tube flow Graetz number and Fourier number are
related by equation
(a) NGZ. NFO = JH
(b) NGZ . NFO =
(c) NGZ .NFO = NRe
(d) NGZ .NFO =

50. Brinkman number is a ratio of


(a) inertial forces to gravity forces
(b) buoyancy forces to inertial forces
(c) heat transport by convection to heat transport by conduction
(d) heat production by viscous dissipation to heat transport by
conduction

51. Grashof number is a ratio of

(a) buoyancy force to viscous force


(b) buoyancy force to gravity force
(c) inertial force to gravity force
(d) none of these

52. Biot number is a ratio of

(a) inertial forces to gravity forces


(b) heat transport by convection to heat production by viscous
dissipation
(c) internal thermal resistance to heat transfer to the external
(fluid film) resistance to heat transfer
(d) none of the above

53. In fin-tube heat exchanger; fins are provided on the tubes to increase
heat transfer area. Now large fin effectiveness results from

(a) large values of heat transfer coefficient


(b) long fins (length measured in the direction of heat flow)
(c) high values of thermal conductivity
(d) all (a), (b), (c)

54.Prandtl numbers for liquid metals are


(a) higher than those for gases
(b) higher than those for liquids
(c) much lower than those for gases
(d) in between those for gases and liquids

55.Eckert number is given by the ratio of

(a) Brinkman number / Prandtl number


(b) Reynolds number / Grashof number
(c) Froude number / Grashof number
(d) Peclet number / Stanton number

56.In order to get large fin effectiveness, fins are so designed that

(a) most of the fin operates at a surface temperature very different


from the fin root temperature
(b) most of the fin operates at a surface temperature not very
different from the fin root temperature
(c) they provide large surface area for heat transfer, the operating
temperature mentioned in part (a) and (b) in not important.

tanh N

57.Fin effectiveness is defined by equation ; N . Now for a fin to
operate at above 90 % efficiency, conditions should be so arranged that
(a) N 0.58
(b) N 1.31
(c) N 10.87
(d) none of these are satisfied
58.In a fin-tube heat exchanger, fins are placed on the side having
(a) maximum heat conductance
(b) minimum thermal resistance
(c) minimum heat conductance
(d) either (a) or (b)

59.The rate of diffusion of momentum relative to the rate of diffusion of


heat is
(a) proportional to Prandtl number
(b) inversely proportional to Prandtl number
(c) proportional to Fourier number
(d) proportional to Graetz number

60.In a fin tube heat exchanger,


(a) only heat transfer area is augmented
(b) only heat transfer coefficient is augmented
(c) both heat transfer area and heat transfer coefficient are
augmented
(d) none of the above
PROCESS CONTROL

In any process application feedback control requires ?

a. a remote loop
b. an open loop,
c. a closed loop
d. an internal loop

2. An ON-OFF control system can not solve critical process control problems because it
has:

a. only two possible outcomes


b. to large an output range
c. too small an output range
d. too slow an output

3. A proportional controller has a proportional band of 380% . The gain will be?

a. 7.60
b. 0.263
c. 3.80
d. 0.132

4. The rate of integral setting on a controller are often graduated in repeats per minute,
which other term is used?

a. sensitivity per min


b. minures per repeat
c. gain per min
d. proportional per sec.

6. In on-off control, the value of the controler output depends only upon:

a. the amount of offset in the system


b. the sign of the error
c. the rate at whichthe eror has occurred
d. how long the error has existed

7. A process load change will cause a pure proportional control system to have:
a. offset
b. dead zone
c. no noticable effect
d. continuous cyclic action

8. A high controller gain setting is the same as:

a. A minimum offset
b. high reset
c. low sensitivity
d. narrow proportional band

9. Automatic process control is, generally speaking:

a. a collection of gadgetry which the Instrument department takes care of


b. a "black box" on the instrument panel,
c. a system of components consisting only of instruments
d. a system of control that does not need constant human intervention

10. The mathematical relationship k2 e dt refers to which of the following control


modes?

a. positive feedback integral term


b. negative feedback proportional term
c. positive feedback derivative term
d. negative feedback integral term

17. The main purpose for reset action in a control loop is to:

a. increase controller gain


b. eliminate offset
c. decrease controller gain
d. speed up response

18. Automatic controllers operate on the difference between set point and measurement,
which is called:

a. feedback
b. bais
c. error
d. offset
19. All control systems that fit into the usual pattern are:

a. non self-regulating
b. closed loop
c. on / off
d. open-loop

20 Gain and proportional band are:

a. controller functions calibrated in time units


b. two different control modes
c. reciprocally related
d. adjusted independently of one another

21. A proportional controller will have an offset difference between set point and control
point:

a. that depends on process load


b. at all times
c. that will eventually vanish
d. equal to the proportional band setting

22. If it were possible for a proportional controller to have true 0 % proportional band,
the controller gain would have to be:

a. 0
b. unity
c. 100
d. infinite

23. If the proportional band of the controller is adjusted to minimum possible value, the
control action is likely to be:

a. on/off
b. with maximum off/set
c. excelent
d. inoperative

24. All process control systems may be assumed to be:

a. linear
b. nonlinear
c. linear for the purpose of initial consideration but with the full knowledge
that this may not be the case.
d. nonlinear for the purpose of analysis with the exception that the system may
prove to be linear

25. A proportional controller is employed to control a process that is subject to a load


change. Narrowing the proportional band will:

a. never causes cycling


b. always cause cycling
c. not change the offset
d. decrease the offset

26. The most common combination of control modes found in the typical process plant
is:

a. proportional plus integral


b. on / off
c. proportional only
d. proportional, plus integral and derivative

27. The integral dial on a controller is calibrated in:

a. integral units
b. gain units
c. percentage
d. minutes or repeats/min

28. What some manufactures call rate others call derivative.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

29. If the closed loop control system has too much gain it will cycle. The only loop
component that has a conveniently adjustable gain is the:

a. valve operator
b. measuring transmitter
c. process
d. controller

31. The response of derivative action to a step input is:

a. a step
b. a sinewave
c. a ramp
d. a spike

32. When the damping coeffcient ( ) is unity, the system is

a. overdamped
b. critically damped
c. underdamped
d. highly fluctuating

33. A stable system is

a. for which the output response is bounded for all bounded input
b. which exhibits an unbounded reponse to a bounded input
c. which satisfies the conditions of a dynamic system
d. which can be easily controlled

34.The number of poles in a system with transfer function [1/ ( s2 + 2s + 1) ] is

a. 2
b. 3
c. 0
d. infinte

35.The reaction rate of a process is determined by :

a. the slops of its reaction curve


b. the period of oscillation
c. the time of the dead time (or time lag)
d. the maximum point of its reaction curve

36. The lapse time between the moment of the step change is made and the moment the
recorder first begins to reflect that change is called :

a. process rate
b. integral time
c. dead time
d. error

MECHANICAL OPERATIONS

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