EVALUATION ON INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLGY

1. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon is called

a. Criminology b. Social Science c. Criminal Science d. Penology
2. The following are the three principal divisions of criminology EXCEPT
a. Criminal Sociology b. Sociology of law c. Criminal etiology d. Penology
3. The objectives of criminology are the following EXCEPT
a. Development of the body of general and verified principles and of other types of knowledge regarding the process of
law, crime and treatment of offender
b. The knowledge will contribute to the development of other social sciences and through these sciences, it will contribute
to the efficiency in general social control
c. It is concerned with the immediate application of knowledge to programs of social control of crimes
d. All of the above
4. The social definition of crime is an act which the group regards as sufficiently menacing the fundamental interest in order to
justify reaction of restraining the violator. This definition assumes
a. Criminal law is seen as part of a larger body of norms of the criminal laws which are shaped by the characteristics and
interest of these groups of population that influence legislation
b. Crime is defined more broadly than the legal concept. It is viewed as an anti-social behavior designed to support a larger
variety and quality of behavior than that which the criminal law intended to penalize
c. The intrinsic qualities of behavior are considered to be a major focus of study rather than violation of the criminal law
d. All of the above
5. The legal definition of crime is an intentional act of omission in violation of criminal law committed without defense or
justification and sanctioned by law as felony or misdemeanor. This definition assumes
a. Crime is viewed as an allied concept that becomes behavior when it violates criminal law
b. The offender cannot be assumed a criminal until he has been found guilty through court procedures
c. It is contented that criminal law is particularly stable and responsible means of adjusting social control to changing social
conditions
d. All of the above
6. We consider crimes as a social phenomenon, since it is global, what is our level of acceptance towards crime?
a. Universal b. Local c. Percentage basis d. Case to case basis
7. It is an attempt at scientific analysis of the conditions under which criminal laws develop and which is seldom included in the
general books in criminology.
a. Criminal sociology b. Penology c. Sociology of law d. Criminal etiology
8. It is an attempt at scientific analysis of the causes of crime
a. Sociology of crime b. Penology c. Criminal etiology d. Criminal sociology
9. The study deals with the unconscious motives stemming from repressed sexual and aggressive impulses from childhood
a. Behavioral b. Cognitive c. Psychoanalytical d. Humanistic
10. This study is concerned with how the brain process and transform information in various ways
a. Behavioral b. Cognitive c. Psychoanalytical d. Humanistic
11. This study focuses on the subject’s experiences, freedom of choice and motivation
a. Behavioral b. Cognitive c. Psychoanalytical d. Humanistic
12. A science devoted to the study of mankind and its relation to its physical, mental and cultural history
a. Neurology b. Sociology c. Anthropology d. Mental ecology
13. An attempt at the scientific analysis of causes of crimes
a. Criminal law b. Penology c. Sociology of law d. Etiology
14. According to sociologists, criminals are divided into 2categories namely; individual criminals and ____.
a. Convicted b. Social c. Female d. Male
15. The most important ideas in criminology originated from the thinkers of the Classical School of Criminology which started
during the __________ century.
a. Seventeenth b. Eighteenth c. Twentieth d. Sixteenth
16. It is the science that studies behavior and mental processes.
a. Criminology b. Psychology c. Penology d. Psychiatry
17. According to criminologists, this is directly proportional to subjects criminal tendencies plus his total environmental situation
and inversely to subjects resistance
a. Responsibility b. Accountability c. Crime d. Penalty
18. It is a branch of criminology dealing with prison management and treatment of offenders and their rehabilitation
a. Dactyloscopy b. Ballistics c. Victimology d. Penology
19. In its narrower sense, criminology is the scientific study of crimes and criminals. Which among the following is not
considered part of its extended scientific study?
a. Investigation of the nature of criminal law and its application c. Crime Prevention
b. Analysis of the causation of crimes d. Control and rehabilitation of offenders
20. It has been said that the victim plays an important role in the commission of crime. What is referred as the study that
focuses on victims of crime?
a. Criminal psychology b. Criminal psychiatry c. Victimology d. Criminal ecology
21. Generally, the study of criminology has not gained acceptance as a science, however, it may be considered as applied
science. What do we refer when forensic chemistry, legal medicine, ballistics, questioned documents are applied in crime
detection and investigation?
a. Instrumentation b. Criminalistics c. Forensics d. All of the foregoing
22. It deals specially with the study of the relationship between criminality and population wherein direct proportionality is
applied between the two
a. Criminal epidemiology b. Criminal ecology c. Criminal demography d. Criminal anthropology
23. According to criminologists, crime exists when
a. A person has been convicted in court of felony b. it is committed by a certain person
c. When police authorities are informed of such commission d. All of the above
24. The study of the relationship between facial features and human conduct in relation to his crimes
a. Craniology b. Phrenology Physiognomy d. All of the above
25. A statement which says we have no crime if we have no criminal law
a. Ignorantia legis b. Logomacy c. Dure lex sed les d. None of these
26. Refers to the balance of loss and gain that a person may experience if he commits a crime
a. Situational crime potential b. Potential satisfaction
c. Contact with reality d. Need frustration
27. Explains that a person before committing a crime is like to feel unhappy, resentful and unsatisfied
a. Contact with reality b. Internal inhibition c. External inhibition d. Need frustration
28. It refers to crimes which occur with sufficient regularity and is used as a basis for determining the peace and order situation
in a particular locality
a. Simple crime b. Complex crime c. Index crime d. Non-index crime
29. It is defined as act committed or omitted in violation of public law forbidding or commanding it
a. Felony b. Tort c. Delinquency d. All of the above
30. In a situation when an offender comes to possession of something out of the commission of crime, what type of crime has he
committed?
a. Extinctive crime b. Acquisitive crime c. Static Crime d. Episoidal crime
31. What do we refer to when the offender has started the commission of the crime and by execution of some acts led to the
fulfillment of the felony?
a. Attempted b. Frustrated c. Consummated d. All of the above
32. When the offender has used his free will and intended to commit a certain crime while being sane, he has committed what
type of crime?
a. Rational crime b. Irrational crime c. Instant crime d. Blue-collar crime
33. When crimes are committed with malicious intent it is said that it has been committed with _______.
a. Deceit b. Fault c. Negligence d. Imprudence
34. Crimes committed by ordinary criminals to maintain their livelihood
a. White collar crimes b. Blue collar crimes c. Professional crimes d. All of these
35. The lowest form of criminal career. They lack organization and limited skills
a. Ordinary criminals b. Professional criminals c. Acute criminals d. Chronic criminals
36. Persons who violate the law because of the impulse of the moment, fit of passion, anger or extreme jealousy
a. Normal criminals b. Ordinary criminals c. Chronic criminals d. Acute criminals
37. A clash between societies because of contrary beliefs or substantial variance in their respective customs, language, habits,
learning traditions, etc.
a. Cultural conflict b. Contumacy c. Crime index d. Custom
38. Basing on the criminal formula, crime is committed when there is great
a. Stress b. Frustration c. Motivation d. Desire
39. The act of buying or selling stolen properties
a. Fence b. Forgery c. larcency d. None of these
40. The unlawful burning of property belonging to another
a. Fence b. Vandalism c. Forgery d. None of these
41. Refers to crimes in which no clear victims is readily identifiable
a. Public order crime b. Victimless crime c. Consensual crime d. All of these
42. The act of unlawful entry or forcible entry in order to commit felony of theft
a. Burglary b. Fence c. Larcency d. All of these
43. The killing of 4 or more victims at one location is a type of murder called
a. Mass murder b. Spree murder c. Static crime d. None of these
44. The group of crimes that are categorized as violent crimes and property crimes are called
a. Index crimes b. Conventional crimes c. Violent crimes d. None of these
45. The group of crimes of economic interest which include those crimes that would most commonly be categorized as theft in
ordinary language
a. Property crimes b. Index crimes c. Interpersonal violent crime d. Robbery
46. Crimes committed by merely duplication of what was done by others
a. Crime by passion b. Crime by imitation c. Rational crimes d. Service crimes
47. An act or omission that is punishable by special laws
a. Crime b. Offense c. Special law d. Criminal
48. An act or omission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code, the criminal law in the Philippines
a. Felony b. Crime c. Offense d. Delinquency/misdemeanor
49. The killing of persons in 2 or more locations with almost no time break between murders
a. Serial murder b. Spree murder c. Static murder d. Not murder
50. An act involving several victims in three or more separate incidents over a week, month or year is called
a. Mass murder b. Free murder c. Static murder d. Serial murder
51. Who is the victim by virtue of age and immaturity?
a. The female b. The young c. The mentally defective d. The minority

52. Any record of crimes, such as crimes known to the police, arrest, convictions or commitments to prison
a. Crime statistics b. Police blotter c. Crime Index d. Police record
53. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification
a. Crime statistics b. Cultural conflict c. Crime index d. Contumacy
54. The first ever educational institution offering criminology course in the Philippines
a. University of the Philippines b. Philippine College of Criminology
c. University of the Visayas d. University of Santo Tomas
55. Maybe defined as the study of criminal things
a. Criminology b. Criminalistics c. Anthropology d. Criminology
56. All EXCEPT one are examples of crimes against Public Order
a. Rebellion b. Sedition c. Coup d’etat d. Espionage
57. Crimes committed by persons of responsibility and of upper socio-economic class in the course of their occupational
activities
a. Underworld crimes b. Political crimes c. Blue collar crimes d. White collar crimes
58. When the crime is well planned like kidnapping it is committed by means of
a. Motive b. Deceit c. Evident premeditation d. Rational crime
59. What is the One to Four Theory?
a. That one to four of the population are responsible for major portion of our crimes
b. That one to four percent of law enforcement personnel failed to contain the behavior of citizens
c. That one to four percent of the population are criminals
d. All of the above
60. The attempt to correlate the frequency of crimes between parents and children or siblings
a. Melancholia b. Megalomania c. Logomacy d. Biometry
61. An English statistician who studied the case histories of 2000 convicts and found out that hereditary is more influential as a
determiner of criminal behavior than environment.
a. Charles Darwin b. Cesare Lombroso c. Charles Goring d. Alphonse Bertilion
62. An American authority in criminology who in his book “Principles of Criminology” considers criminology at present not as a
science but it has hopes of becoming a science
a. William McKorkle b. Cesare Beccaria c. Edwin Sutherland d. George Wilber
63. Italian criminologist who developed a concept of the natural crime and defined it as violation of the prevalent sentiments of
pity and probity
a. Bonger b. Beccaria c. Garofalo d. Lombroso
64. International criminologist who classified crimes by the motives of the offenders as economic crimes, sexual crimes, political
crimes and miscellaneous crimes with vengeance as the principal motive
a. Bonger b. Lombroso c. Garofalo d. Bentham
65. Proposed the doctrine of “Ulitarian Hedonism”.
a. Alexander Mocanoche b. Jeremy Bentham c. Cesare Beccaria d. Edwin Sutherland
66. Considered as the “Dean of Modern Criminology”
a. Edwin Sutherland b. William Sheldon c. Albert Cohen d. Cesare Lombroso
67. Originated a system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements
a. Alphonse Bertilion b. Charles Darwin c. Cesare Lombroso d. Charles Goring
68. Held that commission of crime is a matter of free will in his essay “Crime and Punishment”
a. Jeremy Bentham b. William Sheldon c. Cesare Becarria d. John Howard
69. The German scientist who is the founder of the Penal Law
a. William Sheldon b. Adolf Hitler c. Paul Von Feurbach d. Jeremy Bentham
70. The first social criminologist
a. Adolphe Quitelet b. Charlemagne c. Charles Goring d. Cesare Beccaria
71. The Father of Modern Police Science
a. Allan Pinkerton b. John Howard c. August Vollmer d. Sigmund Freud
72. The famous criminologist who wrote the book “Criminology” in 1885 in Turin, Italy and propounded that natural crimes are
found in all human societies
a. Raffaele Garofalo b. Cesare Beccaria c. Benito Mussolini d. Enrico Fermi
73. Famous criminologist who traced the roots of criminal behavior to moral anomalies
a. Enrico Ferri b. Garofalo c. Lombroso d. Paul Topinard
74. Said that modern criminology began in 1830’s when crime was first studied as a community problem
a. Lombroso b. Bentham c. Freud d. Bonger
75. The Father of American Modern Criminology
a. Lombroso b. Ferri c. Vollmer d. Garofalo
76. The Founder of Psychoanalysis
a. Goring b. Freud c. Ferri d. Binnet
77. The Founder of the Classical School that man must suffer the consequences of his acts
a. Brutus b. Beccaria c. Nicodemus d. Lombroso
78. The originator of the philosophy of civil disobedience is
a. Jesus Christ b. Jose Rizal c. Martin Luther King d. Mao Tse Tung
79. He developed the Consensus Theory in Sociology
a. Jeremy Bentham b. Lombroso c. Beccaria d. David Emile Durkheim
80. Who advocated the abolition of torture as a legitimate means of extracting confession?
a. Durkheim b. Mao Tse Tung c. Beccaria d. Bentham
81. He argued that criminology can never be a science
a. Garofalo b. Bonger c. Goddard d. George Wilker
82. Stated that criminality is a result of emotional immaturity
a. Healy b. Bromberg c. Cyril Burt d. Abrahamsem
83. Stated that the cause of delinquency is the faulty development of the child during the first few years of his life
a. Aichorn b. Healy c. Bromberg d. Abrahamsem
84. Claimed that crime is an expression of the mental content of an individual;
a. Healy b. Bromberg c. Burt d. Freud
85. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada Juke c. Ada Kalikak d. Ada Edwards
86. Claimed that the shape of criminals is different from heads of non-criminals.
a. Lavatory b. Lombroso c. Beccaria d. Franz Joseph Christaph Spurzheim
87. The school of criminology which shifted the emphasis from free will to the causes of crimes
a. Classical school b. Positivist school c. American school d. Philippine Theory
88. The first school of criminology built on the concept of free will
a. Classical School b. Positivist School c. American School Menagthen Rule
89. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology
a. Retribution b. Reformation c. Rejection d. Restitution
90. The Classical School of thoughts in criminology is based on the principle of free will. The Positivist throughts on the other
hand is focused on the principle of
a. Darwinism b. Determinism c. Cognitive functioning d. Conceptual thinking
91. His key ideas are concentrated on the principle of “Survival of the Fittest” as a behavioral science. He advocated the
“Somatotyping Theory”.
a. Sheldon b. Merton c. Sutherland d. Ivan Nye
92. The field of criminology is a multi-disciplinary science. One of its aspects is the study of crimes focused on the group of
people and society which is known today as
a. Criminal Psychology b. Criminal Psychiatry c. Criminal Sociology d. Criminal Etiology
93. In as much as crime is a societal creation, and that it exist in a society its study must be considered as part of social science.
This means that criminology is _________.
a. Applied Science b. Natural science c. Social science d. All of these
94. Criminology changes as social condition changes. This means the progress of criminology is concordant with advancement of
other sciences that has been applied to it. This means criminology is ________.
a. Dynamic b. Excellent c. Progressive d. None of these
95. The theory in which reformation is based on the ground that criminal is a sick person.
a. Positivist Theory b. Neo-classical Theory c. Classical Theory d. Sociological Theory
96. The theory in criminology which maintains that a person commits crime mainly because he is being possessed by evil spirits
or something of natural forces that controls him
a. Divine Will theory b. Classical Theory c. Demonological Theory d. All of these
97. Based on Lombroso’s works, he classified criminals as the born criminals, habitual criminals, the passionate and the
criminoloid. Which of the following statements describe a criminoloid?
a. The morally insane and hysteric criminal b. The impulsive and cruel criminal
c. The “weak-natured” susceptible to bad examples d. The primitive and atavist
98. What perspective in criminology probes the situational or environmental action and examine the underlying conditions
within the environment that may encourage criminal behavior?
a. Psychiatric Criminology b. Psychological Criminology c. Sociological Criminology d. Criminal Anthropology
99. What school for criminology maintained that children and lunatics should not be regarded as criminals and therefore should
be exempted from punishment?
a. Classical School b. Neo-Classical School c. Positivist School d. Modern School
100. What theory maintains that the original cause of crime cannot be known and no behavior is intrinsically criminal and it only
becomes crime if it is labeled as such.
a. Labeling Theory b. Neutralization Theory c. Anomie Theory d. Control Theory
 PAGADIAN CAPITOL COLLEGE
COLLEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
CRIMINOLOGY IN-HOUSE REVIEW CLASS 2010-2011

INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

I – MULTIPLE CHOICES: Select and encircle the letter of the right answer. Strictly no erasures.
1. It is otherwise known as the Private Security Agency Law.
a. R.A. 4578 b. R.A. 5487 c. R.A. 4578 d. R.A. 5478
2. A form of physical security involving industrial plants and business enterprises, which include the safeguarding of personnel,
processes, properties and operation.
a. Bank Security b. Personnel Security c. Industrial Security d. Document Security
3. One who steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to an unexpected opportunity and has little chance of detection.
a. Casual Pilferer b. Systematic Pilferer c. Unusual Pilferer d. Ordinary Pilferer
4. This involves the protection of processes, formula, patents, and other industrial and manufacturing activities from
espionage, infiltration, loss compromise or photocopying.
a. Physical security b. Personnel Security c. Transmission security d. Operational Security
5. An authenticated list of personnel given to security flowing entry to a compound or installation or part thereof.
a. Confidential list b. Secret list c. Access list d. Security list
6. Any structure or physical devise capable of restricting, deterring, or delaying illegal access to an installation.
a. Barrier b. Hazard c. Nuisance d. Pilferage
7. Any act or condition which may be conducive to breaches of security and resulting in subsequent compromise, loss, damage,
injury or death.
a. Barrier b. Hazard c. Nuisance d. Pilferage
8. The exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work.
a. Security Education b. Personnel Education c. Hazard Education d. Physical Education
9. Follow-up surveys are known as;
a. Inspection b. Investigation c. Surveillance d. Observation
10. He operates on a covert type of mission on a specific confidential order issued by his agency.
a. Watchman b. Private detective c. Consultant d. Security Officer
11. The license of both the security guard agencies and security guard are being processed by the _______
a. PNP SAGSD b. FEU c. SEC d. NAPOLCOM
12. Lighting storm is not human or man-made _______ in an installation.
a. Trap b. Hazard c. Invention d. Creation
13. To determine whether a plan is understood by the personnel of a firm and to test its effectiveness a _____ run is necessary.
a. Firm b. Fast c. Long d. Dry
14. ______ security investigation has been very helpful to industrial firms for it helps management in preventing the assignment
of security risk employees to sensitive position.
a. Plant b. Office c. Personnel d. Guardhouse
15. Clear zone includes the ______ and interior parallel areas near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford
better observation and patrol movement.
a. Whole b. Exterior c. Basement d. Roof top
16. Protective lighting, perimeter barrier and ______system are known in industrial security as physical security.
a. Reporting b. Relieving c. Accounting d. Guarding
17. The private security agency has to be registered with the
a. DTI b. CHED c. SEC d. DENR
18. A private security guard agency before it could procure firearms for use of its guards, an application for authority to
purchase firearms has to be filed with _________.
a. NBI b. CIS c. DBM d. FEU/PNP
19. This is an additional outwardly inclined fixed structure usually barbed wires place above a vertical fence to increase physical
protection from intruders of a certain area, this is known as ______.
a. Cellar Guard b. Tower Guard House c. Top Guard d. Top Tower
20. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and
patrol movement is known as;
a. Protective zone b. Clear zone c. Twilight zone d. Patrol lane zone
21. The first line of physical defense of an industrial complex viewing it from outside is _______.
a. Perimeter barrier b. The building itself c. Doors, locks and windows barrier d. Entry point
22. Which of the following is not a human or man-made hazard in an industrial firm?
a. Pilferage b. Sabotage c. Arson d. Lighting storm
23. If access is limited only to the authorized, this particular place is referred to as _______.
a. Compromise area b. Danger area c. Restricted area d. Exclusive area
24. The management of keys used in a plant, office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access and use is referred
to:
a. Key management b. Key control c. Lock control d. Security key control
25. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called a ________.
a. Evacuation plan b. Dry-run c. Fire Drill d. Exercise
26. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect
cash, documents and negotiable instrument.
a. Safes b. Vaults c. Security file rooms d. Security box
27. Security service contracts between private security agencies and clients must be
a. Duly notarized b. Published c. Typewritten d. Printed
28. The supervision and security officers must instruct their security guards on the ________ of fire control and fire fighting in a
particular industrial firm.
a. Fundamentals b. Reminders c. Switches d. Plan
29. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic hardware, human guards, and even animals. In
England, an owner to protect his compound used this and they are not only effective but the cheapest to maintain. This man
using;
a. Doberman dogs b. Tigers and lions c. Geese d. Ducks
30. As a security officer, you cannot prevent nor predict natural hazards like storms and floods. In order to reduce the disastrous
effects of these natural hazards, you will _________.
a. Alert your guards when such hazard occur c. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards
b. Not take any concern on such hazards d. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
31. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall, fences, grills, etc.
a. Natural barrier b. Man-made c. Physical barrier d. Industry
32. Steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
a. Casual b. Outsider c. Insider d. Systematic
33. The association of al licensed security agencies.
a. PAOPAD b. PADPAO c. PODPAO d. PADPAD
34. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or secure a residence or business establishment or both is.
a. Security guard b. Watchman c. A and B d. A only
35. A license issued to operate security agency or company forces.
a. License to engage in business c. License to business
b. License to operate d. All of them
36. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than members of the AFP or PNP is________
a. Detective b. James Bond c. Private Detective d. Agent
37. Before a private security agency can operate as a business, it has to be obtain a license from
a. Chief PNP b. PNP, Chief of Staff c. PNP Regional Director d. Any of them
38. SAGSD means:
a. Social Authority for Guard and Detection c. Security Agencies and Guard Supervision Division
b. Social Action Group and Security Division d. All of the above
39. Who among below can own or operate a security agency?
a. Filipino citizen b. Any one provided he knows the job c. An alien but living here d. All of them
40. Which below is not a qualification for the operator or manager of security agency?
a. Filipino Citizen c. 25 years of age
b. College graduate or officer in the AFP or PNP or retired from it d. Skilled in security management
41. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?
a. AFP and PNP Veterans b. AFP and PNP retirees c. Graduate of ROTC basic and advance d. All of them
42. A security force maintained and operated by any private company.
a. Company security forces b. Private security forces c. Security Guard Agency d. All of them
43. Aural or visual signal given by the annunciator to security when intruders enter the protected area.
a. Signal b. Alarm c. Protective device d. High beam
44. Republic Act No. 5487 governs the operation of
a. Private detective b. Company Security c. Private Security Forces/Agencies d. All of them
45. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountain, cliff, river, etc.
a. Man-made b. Physical c. Electrical d. Natural
46. A type of perimeter barrier made of chain link design with mesh opening not larger than two inches squared, and made of
no. 9 gauge wire or heavier, minimum height of which is 7 feet.
a. Walls b. Wire fences c. Concrete fence d. Steel barb
47. It provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness.
a. Electric lighting b. Incandescent lamp c. Security lamp d. Flood light
48. Example of the Security Communication System
a. Local telephone b. Paging and recall system c. Inter-communication d. All of them
49. Any person, association, partnership, firm or private corporation, who/which contracts, recruits, trains, furnished or post any
security guard or provide services for fee.
a. Tamaraw Security Agency b. Private Security Agency c. Security Agency d. All of them
50. A metallic container used for the safe keeping of documents or small items in an office or installation.
a. Basket b. Steel cabinet c. Safe d. Drawer
51. All except one are three (3) basic parts of protective alarms.
a. Sensors b. Circuit c. Signal d. Sound proof
52. The _______is the communication channel that conveys the information from all sensors in the system to the signal by
means of wire, radio waves, existing electrical circuits or a combination of these.
a. Sensors b. Circuit c. Signal d. Sound proof
53. A stand-by-lighting which can be utilized in the event of electrical failure, either due to local equipment or commercial power
failure.
a. Movable lighting b. Emergency lighting c. Stationary luminary d. Glare projection
54. Sounds on the premises and require that someone hears the alarms are the least expensive, but are also the least effective
because no one may hear them.
a. Propriety alarms b. Local alarms c. Central station alarm d. Police-connected system
55. Locks that are often used on padlocks as well as on safe and vault doors.
a. Key-operated Locks b. Combination Locks c. Card-operated Locks d. Electronic Locks
56. What law that regulate the security profession in the Philippines?
a. R.A. 5487 b. R.A. 6975 c. R.A. 1602 d. R.A. 4864
57. Before the approval of R.A. 5487, applicants for security guard are required only to submit the ________.
a. Drug test b. Neuro-psychiatric result c. Mayors Clearance d. Mayors Permit
58. PADPAO stands for________.
a. Private Agency and Detective of the Philippines Association and Organization
b. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operator
c. Private Association of Detective in the Philippines Association and Organization
d. Philippine Agency for Detective and Protective Agency Operator
59. Are elements by which boundaries are defined and penetration is deterred.
a. Barriers b. Hazards c. Annunciators d. Sensors
60. The extent and degree of security hazard will be dependent on the following factors except
a. Relative critically b. Relative vulnerability c. Relative probability d. None of these
61. Are devices used to recognize the nature of an unusual activity, an example of this is the CCTV system?
a. Sensors b. Annunciators c. Communication system d. Records keeping
62. All except one are examples of barriers
a. Walls b. Fences c. Dogs d. Access
63. In security management, CCTV means
a. Coordinated Circle of Television c. Circuit Camera Television
b. Close Camera Television d. Close Circuit Television
64. Civil Security Group is a _________ support units of the PNP.
a. Administrative b. Operational c. Logistics d. None of the above
65. Is defined as decentralizing security function to all departments’ especially non security departments to emphasize shared
responsibility because security is everybody’s business.
a. Industrial security b. Security Management c. Security Conscious d. Security Guard
66. There are _________ phases of emergency plan.
a. One b. Four c. Two d. Three
67. Are house-like structure above the perimeter barriers
a. Guard towers b. Top guard c. Protection in depth d. Guard control Stations
68. Whenever possible a clear zone of at least _____ inches should be maintained between the barrier and the structure within
the perimeter.
a. 50 inches b. 60 inches c. 40 inches d. 30 inches
69. It is a medium or structure which defines the physical limits of an installation or area to restrict or impede access thereto.
a. Perimeter barriers b. fences c. Canyons d. Road blocks
70. Republic Act No. 5487 was enacted on ________.
a. July 01, 1969 b. July 01, 1968 c. June 01, 1969 d. June 01, 1968
71. What are the Presidential Decree that amends the R.A. 5487?
a. PD 11 b. PD 100 c. PD 1919 d. All of the above
72. What is the role of PADPAO in the security industry of the Philippines?
a. PADPAO is a security agency c. PADPAO is a security task force
b. PADPAO is an implementing arm of the office of the President d. PADPAO is the principal author of R.A. 5487
73. Is concerned with the physical measure adopted to prevent unauthorized access to equipment, facilities, materials and
documents and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage and theft.
a. Document security b. Personal security c. Operational Security d. Physical security
74. Walls, doors, locks, fences, etc. are example of;
a. Human barrier b. Natural barrier c. Operational barrier d. Energy barrier
75. A watchman or security agency shall be entitled to posses firearms of any caliber not higher than _______ caliber.
a. Caliber .38 revolver b. Caliber 357 revolver c. Caliber .45 d. Riot gun or shotgun
76. All except one are the qualification required for security guard or watchman.
a. Applicant must be a Criminology graduate c. A Filipino citizen
b. Not less than 21 nor more than 50 years of age d. At least 5’4 in height
77. How much is the minimum capital required to operate a security agency under R.A. 5487?
a. Five Thousand Pesos b. Ten Thousand Pesos c. Fifty Thousand Pesos d. One Hundred Thousand Pesos
78. Involves the protection of top-ranking officials of the government, visiting person of illustrious standing and foreign
dignitaries.
a. Personal and VIP Security b. Crisis Security c. Personnel Security d. All of the above
79. Are human hazards, which involve the result of a state of mind, attitude, weakness or character traits on the part of one or
more persons.
a. Natural hazards b. Man-made hazards c. Pilferage d. Carelessness
80. The following are the types of light lamps except,
a. Incandescent lamp b. Magic lamp c. Gaseous-discharge lamps d. Quarts lamp
81. The following are the basic lighting considerations that will influence the effectiveness of protective lighting except;
a. Brightness b. Contrast c. Shadow elimination d. Additional lights such as tower lights
82. Which of the following are not the purposes of intrusion detection alarm system?
a. To economize c. To supplement by providing additional control
b. To substitute in place or other security measures d. To give impression to the clientele
83. What are the functions of an alarm system?
a. Detection of Fire b. Emergency notification c. Detection of intrusion d. All of the above
84. Any items, place or equipment open to or within easy or grasp. It is an element to commit theft.
a. Access b. Carelessness c. Timing d. None of the above
85. Is a security force maintained and operated by any private company or corporation utilizing any of its employees to watch,
secure or guard its business establishment premises, compound or properties.
a. Company guard force b. Private Security agency c. Task force d. Private army
86. The art and science in the use of codes and ciphers.
a. Cryptography b. Deceptography c. Probability d. All of the above
87. The degree or seriousness or severity of a loss.
a. Vulnerability b. Critically c. Probability d. All of above
88. Is a written order/scheduled issued by a superior officer usually the private security agency or branch manager or operations
officer assigning the performance of private security or detective services duties.
a. Mission order b. Duty detail order c. Promotion order d. Special order
89. The tasking of any property without any authority; petty theft
a. Burglary b. Pilferage c. Brigandage d. Malicious mischief
90. The chance that a given event will occur.
a. Probability b. Vulnerability c. Critically d. Perception
91. A fixed guard post like a gate, lookout, tower, or an entrance to a building.
a. Stationary guard b. Roving guard c. Reliever d. Undercover
92. An area being protected by human guards and or security hardware and other aids.
a. Restricted area b. Limited area c. Protected area d. Exclusive area
93. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to determine a person’s
suitability for appointment or access to classified matter.
a. Debriefing b. Personnel management c. Personnel security investigation d. Security inspection
94. A person or a group of persons designed to carry out sabotage work.
a. Terrorist b. Organized criminal c. Saboteur d. Agent
95. Is the process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough inspection of all operational system and
procedures of a facility.
a. Security survey b. Security investigation c. Security inspection d. Surveillance
96. Taking away of a person by force against his/her will, usually with a demand for ransom.
a. Illegal detention b. Kidnapping c. Abduction d. Arbitrary detention
97. Specific place where the guards-on-duty are stationed and detailed.
a. Gates b. Area of responsibility c. Perimeter guards d. Barricade
98. Is an absolute control measure to prevent unauthorized access to the facility.
a. Identification b. Inspection c. Surveillance d. Barricade
99. A person who perform and does detective work for hire, reward and compensation and a non-regular member of the PNP,
AFP and other law enforcement agency of the government.
a. Private detective b. Commissioned Officer reserve c. Private Security d. Private Detective Agency
100. A component of communication security which results from all measures designed to protect transmission from
interception, traffic analysis, and initiative deception.
a. Cryptographic security b. Operational security c. Air-cargo security d. Transmission security
101. In security management, SWOT analysis means _____________.
a. Security, Weakness, Operation and Time Analysis c. Special, Weapons, Operation and Tactics
b. Security, Wide, Operation and Tactics d. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities and Threats Analysis
102. A system of barrier designed against threat, vehicle or car bomb and normally installed permanently at the perimeter of the
facility. It has no moving parts.
a. Passive barrier b. Active barrier c. Barricade d. Security guard
103. Involves protecting the information by preventing, detecting, and responding to attacks, interchangeably used for computer
security.
a. Cyber security b. Operational security c. Transmission security d. Communication security
104. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be forthcoming to answer for the commission of specific offence.
a. Assault b. Arrest c. Investigation d. Interrogation
105. Designated person to provide command and supervision in the absence of crisis officer during emergency operation.
a. Officer in charge b. Ground commander c. Designee d. Barangay tanod
106. Refers to the complex responsibility of private personnel where they duplicate the works of police in terms of crime
prevention maintenance and peace and order, and protection of lives and property.
a. Law abiding b. Double jeopardy c. Task force d. Force multiplier
107. Aspect of security where the company ensures that employees it hires are capable, trustworthy, honest and loyal to the
company.
a. Determination b. Interview c. Personal security d. Personnel security
108. Is a common crime that occurs when someone steals merchandise offered for sale or resale from a retail store.
a. Pilferage b. Kleptomania c. Shoplifting d. Snatching
109. A passive inimical act that brings insecure condition and commonly introduced by person.
a. Crime b. Threat c. Barrier d. Safety
110. Is the state or quality of being secured, freedom from fear, harm or danger, defense against crime, assurance, guarantee and
certainty, safety, mechanism on loss prevention.
a. Security b. Risk analysis c. Awareness d. Threat
111. The process of checking an individual’s character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living for
consideration of employment, promotion, access to sensitive assets or for continued employment.
a. Background investigation b. Investigation c. Loyalty check d. Integrity check
112. This refers to the protection of documents and classified papers from loss and compromise through inadvertent disclosures
see information security.
a. Operational security b. Document security c. Industrial security d. Communication security
113. System designed to impede, detect, assess and neutralize all unauthorized external and internal activities.
a. Medium security b. Maximum security c. Minimum security d. Security
114. The possibility of an unwanted, uncertain and undesirable event occurring/resulting in a loss.
a. Sabotage b. Probability c. Risk d. Analysis
115. A devise using microphones or listening devices which can monitor or vibrations like hammering, explosions and other noises
caused by man or machines.
a. Capacitance b. Photo electric/electric eye c. Audio alarm d. Metallic foil or wire
116. Is an unobstructed area which should be maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
a. Clear zones b. Parking area c. Interior openings d. Top guard
117. An area near or adjacent to a limited or exclusive area where entry is restricted by guards and or procedures.
a. Exclusive areas b. Controlled areas c. Danger area d. Area of responsibility
118. A manual or electrically-activated device that emits an alarm or signal in case of fire.
a. Fire alarm b. Fire hydrants c. Sprinkle system d. Fire extinguisher
119. Shall mean any document issued by the Chief PNP or his duly authorized representative recognizing a person to be qualified
to perform his duties as private security or training personnel.
a. License to operate b. License to exercise profession c. Professional license d. Authorization
120. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and are usually escorted by uniformed guards.
a. Limited area b. Exclusive area c. Unlimited area d. Controlled area
121. In the process of studying risk wherein the likelihood of an event to happen and the degree of danger is taken into
consideration for the formulation of security countermeasures.
a. Security survey b. Security inspection c. Planning d. Risk Analysis
122. An old, tedious but very effective type if investigation where the detective assumes a different identity and directly mingle,
work, eat and sleep in some cases to the subject/s concerned.
a. Undercover investigation b. Private detective c. Surveillance d. Casing
123. Any person who practice security profession.
a. Security b. Security operation c. Private practitioner d. Private detective
124. The process to trace a missing person whether intentionally or unintentionally.
a. Surveillance b. Undercover operation c. Casing d. Skip tracing
125. An educational process by which teams and employees are made qualified and proficient about their roles and
responsibilities in implementing a plan.
a. Training b. Dry-run c. Drill d. Conference
126. Is an order in writing, issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by the judge or an officer authorized by law,
and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to arrest a person designated and bring him before the bar of justice.
a. Search warrant b. Commitment order c. Warrant of arrest d. Mittimus order
127. Patrolling to specific area to check if there is something wrong, what has happened to the object or subject of concern, such
as person, place, material, equipment and environment.
a. Safety audit b. Safety inspection c. Risk management d. Risk analysis
128. The process to determine the adequacy, compliance and effectiveness of environmental, safety and health standard in a
certain workplace.
a. Risk management b. Risk analysis c. Survey d. Inspection
129. The process to determine the adequacy, compliance and effectiveness of environmental, safety and health standard in a
certain workplace.
a. Safety audit b. Safety inspection c. Inspection d. Management
130. In security parlance, these are defects noted in the application forms or resumes of the applicant such as application is not
signed, different surnames used, gaps of employment with excuse of “self-employed” technique, lack of job stability,
inadequate references, declining salary history, etc.
a. Red flags b. Deception c. White flags d. Distortion
131. A process of investigation where all personnel of a given entity are subjected for one on one and close door interview with
an independent private investigator.
a. Polygraph examination b. General investigation c. Loyalty check d. All of the above
132. Refers to the complex function performed by security personnel.
a. Generalists b. Driver c. Janitorial service d. Waiter
133. This involves the protection of assets, guests, personnel effects and other properties in a hotel.
a. Crisis security b. Hotel security c. VIP security d. Bank security
134. “NO TRESSPASSING” is an example of;
a. Protection in depth b. Sign and notices c. Warning sign d. All of above
135. Consider as the first line of physical security
a. Perimeter barriers b. Area security c. Peripheral wall of the building d. Areas inside the building
136. Who normally has no definite pattern or system to his actions, steal small items only when opportunity arises.
a. Systematic pilferer b. Casual pilferer c. Kleptomania d. Criminal
137. Which of the following is not a Natural hazard?
a. Floods b. Tornadoes c. Arson d. Darkness
138. An organic personnel of an organization who takes the lead in case of emergency and in-charge in developing and
promulgating emergency program.
a. Lead man b. Crisis officer c. Security guard d. Consultant
139. Security system designed to impede, detect and assess unauthorized external and internal activities.
a. High level security b. Low level security c. Identification d. Protection
140. What is the short title of R.A. 5487?
a. Private security agency law b. Private detective law c. The security management law d. The security and protection law
141. Is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
person in giving information through the communication system
a. Wire tapping b. Cryptographic security c. Transmission security d. Communication security
142. Is the protection of rich scions, industrial magnets and political leaders against kidnaping for economic, political, emotional
or nationalistic purposes.
a. Crisis security b. Personal and VIP security c. Physical security d. Operational security
143. An individual, other than armored car personnel or a public employee, employed part or fulltime, in uniform or plain clothes,
hired to protect the employing party’s assets, ranging from human lives to physical property and its premises and contents.
a. Private security officer b. Private army c. Police Officer d. Private detective
144. These are the tools which are used in the physical security planning the 9 D’s principle.
a. Security gadgets b. Physical security concept c. Tactical plan d. Knowledge and ability
145. KRA is defined as the expected output to an employee necessary to ensure productivity, what does KRA means?
a. Knowledge related to area b. Key result area c. Key result agenda d. Know your activities
146. Focuses on the sets of activities that create effective services by transforming inputs to outputs.
a. Operation security b. Operational management c. Organizational management d. Observation
147. The most common and lightly visible types of security officer who is usually in uniform and is sometimes armed.
a. Security guards b. Security consultant c. Armored vehicles escorts d. security supervisors
148. Aspect of security where the company ensures that all policies, rules, regulations, system and procedures are followed and
enforce.
a. Operation security b. Operational management c. Organizational management d. Prevention
149. A person of ascertaining the circumstance of the incident and whether there are implications as to shortcomings in the
design or performance of equipment, local procedures or the competence, effectiveness, efficiency of the personnel and
employees.
a. Investigation b. Accident investigation c. Criminal investigation d. Security awareness
150. A type of investigation that focuses on gathering information pertaining to subject’s assets and or properties registered
under the name of the person under investigzation.
a. Property investigation b. Background investigation c. Preliminary investigation d. Statement of assets and liabilities
 Review Questions: Human Behavior and Crisis Management
By: John Dexter G. Sarcena, RCrim., MS Crim (CAR)

I – Multiple Choice: Select and write the letter of the correct answer on the separate sheet provided.
1. The science of classifying human physical characteristics.
a. Determinism b. Positivism c. Somatology d. Atavism
2. Reacting the events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of persecution.
a. Dementia praecox b. Paranoia c. Hallucination d. Depression
3. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off spring.
a. Genetics b. Eugenics c. Criminology d. Heredity
4. The principle that events, including criminal behavior, have sufficient causes.
a. Positivism b. Determinism c. Atavism d. Vazism
5. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and often has no reasonable foundation.
a. Phobia b. Delusions c. Regression d. Anxiety
6. The principle which states that man by nature always tries to maximize pleasure and avoid pain.
a. Utopia b. Hedonism c. Socialism d. Atavism
7. Referred to as dementia praecox, which is a form of psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and regression?
a. Schizophrenia b. Paranoia c. Manic depression d. Psychopathy
8. It refers to the conscience of man.
a. Ego b. Super ego c. Id d. Spirit
9. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal patterns of rules and regulations.
a. Recidivism b. Delinquency c. Reiteraction d. Crime
10. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who symbolizes the state.
a. Symbolic terrorism b. Allegiance terrorism c. Organizational terrorism d. provocative terrorism
11. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to repression.
a. Organizational terrorism b. Symbolic terrorism c. Provocative terrorism d. Allegiance terrorism
12. The following are guidelines for police negotiations except one.
a. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage takers. C. Conserve your concession.
b. Give in to all of the terrorists demand. D. Make sure you get something in return for a concession.
13. The following are qualities which much be possessed by a police negotiation except one;
a. Flexible b. Irrational c. Patient d. Knows psychology
14. A phenomenon in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to the hostage takers.
a. Oslo Syndrome b. Hostage Syndrome c. Stockholm Syndrome d. Helsinki Syndrome
15. The following are characteristics common to terrorist except one;
a. Operate openly b. Promote fear c. Highly mobile d. Possess limited resources
16. The assessment of our own vulnerabilities, the evaluation of the threat, groups and possible targets.
a. Crisis management b. Threat analysis c. Hostage negotiation d. Surveillance operation
17. A person who is held as a security for the fulfillment of certain demands or terms:
a. Victim b. Negotiation c. Hostage d. Coordination
18. The following are short range terrorists goal except one;
a. Obtain money, weapon or equipment c. Satisfy vengeance
b. Cause dramatic change in the government d. Free prisoners
19. According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists who are using terrorism to change society.
a. Crusaders b. Criminals c. Crazies d. Mercenaries
20. Which of the following is not a terroristic tactic?
a. Noise barrage b. Bombing c. Assassination d. Kidnapping
21. The effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists.
a. Threat analysis b. Stress management c. Crisis management d. Hostage negotiation
22. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its avowed aims chiefly through the systematic use of
violence
a. Conventional warfare b. Terrorism c. Insurrection d. Insurgency
23. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.
a. Protection of life b. Protection of property c. Media coverage d. Capture of the hostage taker
24. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not.
a. Give his name b. Give his rank and designation c. Give in to all demands d. Look friendly or accommodating
25. In a hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item.
a. Food b. Telephone c. Media access d. Firearm
26. The highest ranking field commander should not be the chief negotiator because;
a. Hostage taker will be afraid c. Of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
b. He is not authorized to grant concessions d. Hostage takers will not trust him
27. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.
a. Validate b. Extricate c. Negotiate d. Congregate
28. The last option in a hostage situation.
a. Negotiation b. Assault c. Crowd control d. Giving in to demands
29. The first steps in a hostage situation.
a. Assault b. Crowd control c. Control d. Negotiation
30. The calculated used of violence or threat of violence to attain political, religious or ideological goals by instilling fear or using
intimidation or coercion.
a. Crisis b. Crime c. Strike d. Terrorism
31. Erotic gratification by seeing nude men/women in some form of sexual act (peeping tom).
a. Transvestitism b. Voyeurism c. Sadism d. Masochism
32. The study of facial features and their relations to human behavior.
a. Physiognomy b. Phrenology c. Atavism d. Anthropometry
33. Usual motive of terrorist attacks.
a. Revenge b. Political and economic leverage c. Better treatment d. Vindication
34. A prisoner who takes hostages has for his intent and motive:
a. Revenge b. Escape c. Economic gain d. Vindication
35. Who among the following hostage takers is deemed to the easiest to deal with:
a. Professional criminals b. Terrorist c. Escapes d. Psychotic individual
36. Ranillo after an argument with his wife went to a bar to talk with friends uses what compromise reaction?
a. Isolation b. Sublimation c. Substitution d. Over compensation
37. Joannie who enjoys slapping a sexual partner while engaged in sexual intercourse has an abnormal sexual behavior called:
a. Masochism b. Exhibitionism c. Sadism d. Voyeurism
38. Refers to feeling or impression of stimulus
a. Sensation b. Perception c. Awareness d. Behavior
39. Human behavior which refers to the reaction to facts of relationship between the individual and his environment is a product
of;
a. Heredity b. Environment c. Learning or training d. All of these
40. This study which deals with criminal behavior is a necessity for police officers to assess the difference in abnormal and
normal behavior to enable them to make important judgment in a specific situation.
a. Criminal dynamics b. Criminal psychology c. Criminal psychiatry d. All of the foregoing
41. When anxiety, depression or unusual fear (phobia) is displayed it refers to:
a. Neurosis b. Psychosis c. Psycho physiological d. Personality disorder
42. A person who believes he is always threatened and persecuted suffer from:
a. Personality disorder b. Severe depression c. Sociopathic personality d. Paranoid
43. A peeping tom who gains gratification be seeing nude women/man in some form of sexual act.
a. Transvetism b. Fetishism c. Voyeurism d. Exhibitionism
44. An attribute of human behavior which concerns function of time.
a. Extensity b. Duration c. Intensity d. Quantity
45. In hostage taking incidents, there should be how many number of negotiators?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
46. The most important person in hostage crisis situation.
a. Negotiator b. Commander c. Hostage taker d. Hostage
47. A person approached you and told you that a dead man is on the street, what would be your course of action if you are the
policeman concerned?
a. Call for an investigator c. Obtain the informer’s name
b. Verify the statement d. Ask him to notify station
48. Nilo who likes to engage in sexual intercourse with his pet dog, exhibits:
a. Homosexuality b. Bestiality c. Necrophilia d. Incest
49. A child molester
a. Transvestite b. Peeping tom c. Masochist d. Pedophile
50. A deviant sexual behavior wherein one obtains gratification be showing to others his/her naked body.
a. Voyeurism b. Exhibitionism c. Tranvetism d. Fetishism
51. Who among the foregoing poses more complexity and difficulty in hostage negotiation.
a. Professional criminals b. Terrorists c. Escapes d. Psychotic individuals
52. Ms. Aquino who likes to wear male underwear, uses male perfume and wears attire for men is a;
a. Masochist b. exhibitionist c. transvestite d. lesbian
53. While engaging in sexual intercourse, Mary likes to slap here face this is an example of:
a. Lesbianism b. exhibitionism c. masochism d. sadism
54. Ruel a known businessman who likes to have sexual intercourse with young ladies whose age ranges from 12 to 16 manifests
what deviant sexual behavior?
a. Lesbianism b. pedophilia c. masochism d. voyeurism
55. Ricky always worried when his brother Jay goes home late at night manifests what particular human interaction?
a. Parent ego stage b. Adult ego stage c. Child ego state d. None of the above
56. A person defending himself from harm, exhibits what type of human behavior?
a. Habitual b. Instinctive c. Symbolic d. Complex
57. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together with their hostages, their demand is geared
towards;
a. Revenge b. Escape c. Economic gain d. Vindication
58. An anticipated, rebellious, dependent and emotional person manifests;
a. Parent ego state b. Adult ego state c. Child ego state d. All of the foregoing
59. One’s ability to compromise is an example of what human interaction?
a. Parent ego state b. Adult ego state c. Child ego state d. All of the foregoing
60. If stimulus and response pattern from one ego state to another are parallel, human transaction is said to be;
a. Complimentary b. Non-complementary c. Compensatory d. All of the foregoing
61. Jun angry at his girlfriend’s continuous nagging boxed a nearby tree; this manifests what particular aggressive reaction?
a. Displacement b. Free floating anger c. Scapegoating d. Isolation
62. It refers to an abnormal behavior caused by environment.
a. Neurosis b. Psycho physiological c. Organic d. Functional
63. It refers to a psychological activity according to the interpretation and experience.
a. Sensation b. Perception c. Awareness d. All of the foregoing
64. It speaks of an attribute of human behavior which deals with spatial characteristics.
 a. Duration b. Extensity c. Intensity d. Quantity
65. In terms of normality and abnormality, what attribute of human behavior is manifested?
a. Duration b. Extensity c. Intensity d. Quantity
66. Joannie after tasting an unripe mango grimaced this sensation is said to be:
a. Olfactory b. Cutaneous c. Auditory d. Gustatory
67. Impression of stimulus by utilizing one’s sense of smell.
a. Olfactory b. Cutaneous c. Auditory d. Gustatory
68. Human behavior in terms of magnitude:
a. Duration b. Extensity c. Intensity d. Quantity
69. It refers to two or more habitual behavior which occur in one situation, such as smoking in bed after a sexual intercourse.
a. Habitual b. Symbolic c. Instinctive d. Complex
70. A type of reaction to facts of relationship between the individual and his environment which is substituted.
a. Habitual b. Symbolic c. Instinctive d. Complex
71. Standard procedure to avoid conflicts in the delegation of authority.
a. Review all assignments periodically. c. Use of linear method in giving assignments
b. Provide workable span of control. d. Assign all related work to the same control.
72. Joy and Joey are brothers and sisters who fell in love with each other, their relationship is prohibited by law because this is
an abnormality involving.
a. Homosexuality b. Bestiality c. Necrophilia d. Incest
73. You are the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is found at the crime scene with several on lookers, as a rule you
are not allowed to express your opinion, why?
a. No useful purpose will be served. c. The killer may be around.
b. You do not know the cause of death. d. Your opinion may influence the negotiator.
74. As an administrator, what should you do to eliminate friction between two of your subordinates?
a. Define the authority of each person concerned. C. Transfer one of them to other units.
b. Reprimand both of them. D. Call both parties concerned and explain the need for cooperation.
75. PO1 Tan while on his way home heard a scream for help coming from a certain house, no usual disturbance was observed,
he should:
a. Enter the residence cautiously to investigate. C. Report the matter to the nearest police office.
b. Call for back-up before entering the premises. D. Call for public assistance before entering the house.
76. A police would generally render efficient service by;
a. Standing in conspicuous places for police visibility. C. Being well dressed and always in proper uniform and
bearing.
b. Observing unusual things. D. Always recording detailed entries for future reference.
77. SPO2 Javier discovered a fire at 3:00a.m. on the third floor of six story building. What should be his first action?
a. Call the police headquarters. C. Try to call for public assistance.
b. Call for the fire bureau for an emergency response. D. Enter the premises & try to save the persons trapped inside.
78. A mentally deranged man took several children hostage and barricaded a room after which he threatened to kill them and
himself, as the first police officer on site, you should;
a. Immediate assault the room to save the hostages. C. Ask for the demands of the hostage taker.
b. Try reason with the hostage taker. D. Try to calm the hostage taker down before the crises team arrives.
79. The best negotiator is one who understands the language of the hostage taker or has an influence to the hostage taker. Is
that is the case, the following, except one, are best negotiators of a policeman hostage taker;
a. Chief of Police b. NAPOLCOM Officer c. PNP Provincial Director d. His wife
80. In hostage situation, to secure the area, such as the place of hostage drama, the inside and outside perimeter is called;
a. Enveloped b. Secured c. Surrounded d. Contained
81. Stale time in hostage drama means-
a. Advance b. Secured c. Attack d. Delay
82. Manipulate anxiety in hostage taking means –
a. Limit noise b. Delay negotiation c. Maintain distance d. Limit variables
83. If hostage takers demand aircraft, the action is –
a. Fire and assault b. Ignore the demand c. Give at once d. Inform higher authorities
84. In the selection of negotiator, the good quality to be considered is –
a. Former lover b. Must be flexible c. Enemy of the hostage taker d. Knows the dialect of the hostage taker
85. What are the advantages of hostage taker staying more time with the hostage?
a. Hostage taker less likely to kill the hostage. C. The hostage taker and the hostage will become lovers.
b. It gives the police opportunity to prepare for any eventualities. D. A and B are true.
86. General, what is the effective way to obtain safe release of hostage?
a. Use force b. Use military tactic c. Give the demand of hostage taker at once d. Use psychological technique
87. What should be the immediate response of the police in hostage situation?
a. Contain and stabilize the situation. C. Anticipate move of hostage taker.
b. Attack at once while hostage taker is unprepared. D. Give the demand of the hostage taker at once.
88. What is the importance of training hostage situation?
a. It provides bases of understanding and anticipating moves of the hostage taker as well as his possible reactions to police
tactics.
b. Members of the team will be trained in the situation.
c. Proper techniques will be known depending on the personality of the hostage taker.
d. All of the above.
89. While regulating traffic at an intersection, you saw a boy fall from a truck just half a block away. The boy is apparently
injured. Now, what should you do?
a. Remain on your traffic post but request to call an ambulance.
 b. Call an ambulance, administer first aid if necessary and make a report.
c. Call your office, requesting that an ambulance be called and a patrolman sent to take charge and make a report.
d. Arrest immediately the driver of the truck and order said driver to bring the boy to the nearest hospital for immediate
medical attention.
90. While regulating the traffic at a school crossing during school lunch hour, you are notified of a homicide about a block away.
What do you think is the most appropriate action for you to do?
a. Go to the scene of the crime after notifying the principal of the school and your office of your absence.
b. Advise your informant to call the police department and remain on your post.
c. Notify the nearest police precinct and return to the traffic post immediately.
d. Call an ambulance and request that the police department send an officer to take charge and report.
91. A police officer stops a physician, who is trying to treat an emergency case, for a misdemeanor traffic violation. He believes
that the physician should be prosecuted but not arrested. The police officer should;
a. Take the physician’s and the patient’s name and addresses and let the physician continue.
b. Complete citation as it should not be given under the circumstances.
c. Follow the physician to the scene of the emergency case and issue the citation there.
d. Call the persons who summoned the physician and the tell him there will be a delay.
92. The administrator should know that in managing his division he should avoid.
a. Delegating necessary authority wherever responsibility has been assigned.
b. Making subordinate responsible to more than one supervisor.
c. Assigning definite responsibilities to his immediate subordinate.
d. Keeping his employees currently informed about actions taken, new developments and other matters affecting their
works.
93. If a superior officer of the police department cannot readily check all the work done in his office, he should;
a. Delegate part of his work to a qualified subordinate. C. Work overtime until he can personally finish it all.
b. Refuse to take additional work. D. Ask his wife to do some work for him.
94. One of the following tasks of superior officer which can be most successfully delegated is;
a. Handling discipline c. Reporting to the division chief
b. Checking completed work d. Responsibility for accomplishing the visions mission
95. The delegation of responsibility and authority to subordinate by their superior generally does not;
a. Involve a transfer of ultimate responsibility from superior to subordinate.
b. Facilitate a division of labor or the development of specialization.
c. Permit the superior to carry our programs of work that exceed his immediate personal limit of physician energy and
knowledge.
d. Result in a downward transfer of work both mental and manual.
96. A division chief, you find that one of your new unit heads is constantly begged down with detail work. This was not the case
with his predecessors. The work load of the limit has remained the same. Of the following the lost likely reason that this new
unit head is so overloaded with his work is that;
a. Your division has too many unit supervisors.
b. He has failed to delegate some of the work to other members of his command.
c. This unit has too much detail work assigned to it.
d. He assigns too much important work to his subordinates.
97. In police administration, functional allocation involves;
a. The distribution of a number of subsidiary responsibilities among all levels of the police department.
b. Decentralization of administrative responsibilities.
c. Integration and the assignment of administrative power.
d. The assignment of a single power to a single administrative power.
98. Of the following, what do you think is the most helpful action which may be taken immediately to eliminate frictions
between your two subordinate officials who are in constant conflict in respect to the authority of one of the unit heads to
consult certain records in the office of the other?
a. Call both concerned parties into a conference and explain the necessity for cooperation.
b. Define the authority of each unit head.
c. Reprimand both unit heads.
d. Transfer one of them to another office.
99. A principle which must be recognized by officers of superior rank is that the most constructive aspect of leadership are those
which are exercised “face-to-face”. The superior officer who recognizes this principle will.
a. Place major responsibility for the execution of duties on the immediate superior of the men involves.
b. Make certain the members in his command realize that orders are made upon his authorization.
c. Avoid situations which require direct control of the actions of subordinates several ranks below him.
d. Insist that communications from his office to members in his command be as a short and direct as possible.
e. All of the above
100. A recently developed practice in administration favors reducing the number of levels of authority in an organization,
increasing the number of subordinates reporting to a superior and also increasing the authority delegated to the
subordinated. This practice would most likely result in;
a. An increase in detailed information that flows to a superior from each subordinates.
b. An increase in the span of control exercised by superiors.
c. A decrease in the number of functions performed by the organization.
d. A decrease in the responsibility exercised by the subordinates.
 Criminologist Licensure Examination
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item. Strictly NO erasure
allowed. Use pencil no. 1 only.

1. To be entitled to probation under PD 968, a person must satisfy one of the following conditions.
a. Sentenced to maximum of 6 years on crime against state c. Sentenced to a maximum of more than 6 years.
b. Who had once on probation for 2 years d. Sentenced to serve a sentenced of less than 6 years
2. Parole and Probation have this in common.
a. Both committed a serious offense. c. Both are required to apply
b. Both have already served their sentenced d. Both have undergo a minimum sentence
3. The first probation system in the Philippines allowed a person to undergo probation if he is;
a. 21 years older b. 20 years older c. 18 years older d. 16 years older
4. The first working house in England (1577-1576).
a. Singsing Prison b. Bridewell c. Alcatraz d. Walnut Street Jail
5. He introduced the ‘Progressive or Mark System’ of penal management, which granted privileges and good-conduct-time
gradually culminate to the offenders release and an improvement of the ticket of leave. Who was he?
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise b. Alexander Maconochie c. Sir Walter Crafton d. Zebulon R. Brockway
6. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not yet been convicted is a _________.
a. Detention Prisoner b. Municipal Prisoner c. Provincial Prisoner d. City Prisoner
7. This Prison system was considered more advantageous because it had been observed that prisoners can finish more articles
when they work in groups than working alone in their individual cells.
a. Maison de force b. None of these c. Auburn System d. Pennsylvania System
8. The higher official of the Bureau of Corrections.
a. Director b. Chief Executives c. Secretary of the DND d. Prison Inspector
9. Purpose of Commutation, EXCEPT
a. To save the life of a person sentenced to death c. To extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply
b. None of these d. To break the rigidly of the law
10. A person can be considered an inmate if;
a. Has committed a crime b. Barkada of the barangay c. Bodyguard of jail warden d. He is the informer of the police
11. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
a. Murder b. Rape c. Brigandage d. Impeachment
12. The features of the prison system were confinement of the prisoners in their cells day and night.
a. Auburn system b. Pre-classical theories c. Pennsylvania prison d. Judean Christian Theory
13. Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
a. Commutation b. amnesty c. Reprieve d. Probation
14. Pardon cannot be exercised in what of the following instances
a. Before conviction b. After conviction c. Not yet convicted d. Serve the sentence
15. Pardon is exercised when the person is __________.
a. Already convicted b. About to be convicted c. Not yet convicted d. Serve the sentence
16. For amnesty to be granted, there should be _______.
a. Recommendation from U.N. b. Application c. Recommendation from C.H.R. d. Concurrence of the Congress
17. The type of working detention prisoner who is not entitled to full time service of sentence.
a. Recidivist b. Sexual deviates c. Lazy prisoners d. Homosexuals
18. The _______ century may be considered as the period of transmission from corporal punishment to imprisonment.
a. 16th b. 17th c. 15th d. 18th
19. Article 70 of the Revised Penal Code provides that in applying its provisions, the duration of service of sentence of a life
termer should be.
a. 30 years b. 20 years c. 40 years d. 15 years
20. It is the factor used mostly for the diversification of correctional institution.
a. Degree of custody b. Sex c. Age d. Medical or Mental conditions
21. Amnesty is granted by whom?
a. Judiciary b. Chief Executive c. Legislative d. Commission on Human Rights
22. What was the first Probation Law in the Philippines?
a. P.D. 603 b. P.D. 968 c. None of these d. R.A. 4221
23. Parole is not a matter of _________.
a. Privilege b. Grace c. Right d. Requirement
24. The Presidential Decree that suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose ages ranges from nine (9) years to under
eighteen (18) years and places them in rehabilitation centers.
a. P.D. 923 b. P.D. 968 c. P.D. 603 d. P.D. 1203
25. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
a. Penology School b. Neo-Classical c. Classical School d. Positivist
26. The following are the justification of punishment, EXCEPT
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Reformation d. All of these
27. The most common problem of the National Prison is ______
a. Excessive number of escapes b. Disagreement about their mess c. Overcrowding d. Lack of adequate training
28. He opened Borstal Prisons, considered the best reformatory institution for young offenders.
a. Mocanochie b. Z.R. Brockway c. Sir Walter Crofton d. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
29. All person in custody shall, before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of ____.
a. Preference b. Privilege c. Right d. Choice
30. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT
a. Ages of offenders b. Sex of offenders c. Mother of offender d. Medical condition
31. ________ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
a. Pardon b. Probation c. Parole d. None of these
32. Can a probationer pursue a prescribed secular study or vocational training while on probation?
a. Neither b. No c. None of these d. Yes
33. BJMP is under the administration of the ________.
a. Executive Department b. DILG c. PNP d. None of these
34. For convicted offender, probation is a form of _______.
a. Punishment b. Enjoyment c. Treatment d. Incarceration
35. When shall probation take effects?
a. 3 days after issuance b. 3 days prior to issuance c. Upon its issuance d. 72 hours after issuance
36. Purpose of commutation, EXCEPT
a. To save the life of a person sentenced to death c. To extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply
b. None of these d. To break the rigidly of the law
37. It is a justification for punishment which claims that certain things can be done after the person has served his sentenced,
will not want to commit another crime.
a. Incapacitation b. Rehabilitation c. Deterrence d. Retribution
38. Inmates who commits suicide are considered as in any of the following;
a. Liability of jail administration c. Liability of the sentencing court
b. No liability because inmates is insane d. Liability of the inmates himself
39. A recipient of absolute pardon is ______ from civil liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
a. Partially exempted b. conditionally exempted c. Exempted d. Not exempted
40. It is one of the earliest devise for softening brutal severity of punishment through a compromise with the Church.
a. Parole b. Public humiliation c. Benefit of clergy d. Amnesty
41. It is the branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the responsibility for the custody, supervision
and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
a. Conviction b. correction c. Penalty d. Punishment
42. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoners to pursue his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve his
sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
a. Amnesty b. Probation c. Good conduct time allowance d. Delayed sentence
43. What law was passed by the US Congress which ended the Industrial Prison movement?
a. A law which prohibited the increase of delinquency in prisons.
b. None of these
c. A law which encouraged the prisoners to be more industrious in the works.
d. A law which prohibited the sale of prison made articles to the public and limited their use to government owned or
controlled institutions.
44. This kind of punishment will be given to the offender by showing to others what would happen to them if they have
committed the heinous crime.
a. Protection b. Lethal injection c. Deterrence d. Stoning
45. Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the ______ who committed crimes and occasionally to those convicted of
offenders against the Royal power.
a. Royal family b. Mendicant family c. Rebellious family d. Indigent family
46. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes foodstuff purchases. Prepares and cooks the food and
served it to the inmates. It maintain a record of daily purchases and consumption and submits a daily report to the warden.
a. General Service Branch b. Budget and Finance Branch c. Mittimus Computing Branch d. Mess Service Branch
47. Country who first authorized transportation as a means of punishment and transported their victims to Australia.
a. England b. France c. Russia d. Africa
48. A prison that consist of a large circular building containing the multi-cells around the periphery.
a. Bridewell b. Panoptican c. Goals d. Mamertine
49. First prison in the United States on 1789 to 1794 found in Philadelphia and established the principles of solitary confinement.
a. Walnut Street Jail b. New Gate Prison c. Auburn System d. Pennsylvania
50. Prison inaugurated on 1819 in New York which system is characterized by locking the inmates in separate cells at night but
worked together in enforced silence in congregate workshops during the day.
a. Pennsylvania b. Walnut Street Jail c. Elmira Reformatory Center d. Auburn
51. Examples of public humiliation punishment on primitive society.
a. Stock and pillory b. Starvation c. Branding d. Flogging
52. English Royal Navy appointed as Norfolk Island Penal Colony who introduced proper department, labor, and study,
conditional release or ticket of leave which is equivalent to parole.
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Walter Crofton c. Sir Evelyn Ruggles-Brise d. William Penn
53. English judge philosopher and pro-life writer introduced the concept of “Hedonistic Calculus”.
a. Robert Peel b. John Howard c. Alexander Mocanochie d. Jeremy Bentham
54. Punishment would be rendered in proportion to the seriousness of the crime.
a. Hedonistic Calculus b. Lex Taliones c. De Facto Political prisoner d. Parens Patria
55. In GCTA, during the first two years of imprisonment, he shall be allowed a deduction of ______
a. 3 days b. 4 days c. 5 days d. 6 days
56. Purpose of corrections which subscribe the idea that offenders should be incarcerated from the members of the community,
in order not to contaminate the law abiding citizen.
a. Rehabilitation b. Isolation c. Reintegration d. Deterrence
57. Newest philosophical basis for corrections.
a. Reintegration b. Isolation c. Deterrence d. Rehabilitation
58. Penal farm located in Zamboanga, and established by the Spanish authorities.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony b. Davao Penal Farm c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Sablayan Penal Colony
59. Legal provision in the RPC Article 171 for the shortening of prisoners’ sentence for good behavior in prisons.
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance b. Reprieve c. Commutation d. Probation
60. Instrument of public justice
a. Penology b. Criminology c. Victimology d. Punishment
61. New Penology also means
a. Reintegration b. Isolation c. rehabilitation d. Deterrence
62. Developed the Irish system of prison reforms.
a. Sir Walter Crofton b. Alexander Mocanochie c. John Howard d. Cesare Becaria
63. The inmate works at place of employment during the day and return to jail facility after working hours.
a. Home furlough b. Work release c. Academic-pass d. Conjugal visit
64. More hardened and dangerous criminals free found in _________.
a. Maximum Security b. Minimum Security c. Medium Security d. Special Institution
65. Conditional release of an individual by the court after the offender has been found guilty of the crime charged.
a. Amnesty b. Pardon c. Parole d. Probation
66. Considered father of Probation.
a. John Augustus b. Cesare Beccaria c. Cesare Lombroso d. William Penn
67. A kind of pardon when if granted by the chief executive without any conditions of any kind.
a. Conditional b. Absolute c. Parole d. Amnesty
68. Infliction of the physical pain upon a convicted criminal.
a. Torture b. Absolute c. Parole d. Amnesty
69. Persons who are convicted by final judgment of the crime charged against it.
a. Detention prisoner b. Sentenced Prisoners c. Person for safekeeping d. Parolees
70. All of them are sentenced prisoners, EXCEPT
a. Detention Prisoners b. City Prisoners c. Municipal Prisoners d. Insular Prisoners
71. Considered as the forerunner of modern penology because it had all the elements of a modern system.
a. Mamertine Prison b. Elmira Reformatory c. Bridewell Workhouse d. Walnut Street Jail
72. Provincial product of San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm and one of the biggest sources of income of the Bureau of
Corrections.
a. Rice b. Copra c. Cattle d. Logs
73. It is charged with the safekeeping of all Insular Prisoners confined therein or committed to the custody of the Bureau.
a. BJMP b. Bureau of Corrections c. Board of Parson and Parole d. Classification Committee
74. Is a warrant issued by a court directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for the service of the
sentence imposed therein or for detention.
a. Search Warrant b. Commitment order c. Arrest Warrant d. Mittimus
75. Medium Security Prisoner wear ____ color of uniforms.
a. Orange b. Brown c. Blue d. Yellow
76. Considered as the Father of Modern Penology.
a. Manuel Montesimos b. Alexander Mocanochie c. Zebulon Brockway d. Walter Crofton
77. A code after a name of a person who firstly adopted the principle “An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth in the
imposition of punishment”.
a. Justinian Codes b. Code of Draco c. Code of King Hamnurabi d. Sarcena’s Code
78. The penalty of banishing a person from the place where he committed a crime, prohibiting him to get near or enter the 25-
kilometer perimeter.
a. Corporal punishment b. Destierro c. Monotomy d. Isolation or Solitary Confinement
79. It is a group of prisoners who can be reasonably trusted to serve sentenced under “often condition”.
a. Super Maximum Security Prisoners c. Medium Security Prisoners
b. Maximum Security Prisoners d. Minimum Security Prisoners
80. Those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from 1 day to 3 years.
a. Insular Prisoners b. City Prisoners c. Provincial Prisoners d. Municipal Prisoners
81. It was built in 1704 by Pope Clement XI for incorrigible boys and youths under 20.
a. Hospice of St. MichelIe b. Maison de force c. Irish System d. Auburn System
82. A written order of the court or any competent authority consigning an offender to a jail or prison for confinement.
a. Mittimus b. Commitment Order c. Subpoena d. Arrest, Search and Seizure order
83. One who is sentenced to a prison term of one (1) day to three (3) years.
a. City Prisoners b. Municipal Prisoners c. Insular Prisoners d. None of these
84. A branch of Criminology which deals with management and administration of inmates.
a. Victimology b. Penology c. Correction d. Logomacy
85. One who is sentenced to a person term of one (1) day to six (6) months.
a. City Prisoners b. Detainee c. Municipal Prisoners d. Insular Prisoners
86. It is considered as the weakest component of the Criminal Justice System.
a. Court b. Correction c. Prosecution d. Community
87. He introduced the “Progressive or Mark System” of penal management, which granted privileges and good-conduct-time
gradually culminating to the offenders release and an improvement of the ticket of leave. Who was he?
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise b. Alexander Mocanohie c. Sir Walter Crofton d. Zebulon R. Brokway
88. It is responsible for carrying out the treatment programs of the prisoners in jails.
a. Warden b. Classification Committee c. Chaplain d. Disciplinary Board
89. Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.
a. Justice b. Legal c. Personal d. Certain
90. It plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual regeneration of man.
a. Vocational b. Education c. Work d. Religion
91. It is the factor used mostly for the diversification of correctional institution.
a. Degree of Custody b. Age c. Sex d. Medical or Mental Condition
92. All people in custody shall, before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of_______.
a. Preference b. Privilege c. Right d. Choice
93. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT:
a. Ages of the Offenders b. Sex of Offenders c. Mother of Offender d. Medical Condition
94. Inmates who commit suicide are considered as in any of the following:
a. Liability of the Jail Administration c. Liability of the Sentencing Court
b. No liability because inmates is insane d. Liability of the inmates himself
95. It is one of the earliest devise for softening brutal severity of punishment through a compromise with the church.
a. Parole b. Public Humiliation c. Benefit of Clergy d. Amnesty
96. Example of public humiliation punishment on primitive society.
a. Stock and pillory b. Starvation c. Branding d. Flogging
97. Punishment would be rendered in proportion to the seriousness of the crime.
a. Hedonistic Calculus b. Lex Taliones c. De Facto Political Prisoners d. Parens Patriae
98. No prisoner shall be made to serve more than ______.
a. 2 times b. 4 times c. 3 times d. 5 times
99. This law provides that life sentences shall automatically be reduced to 30 years
a. PD 29 b. EO 343 c. RA 2489 d. All of these
100. This prison system was considered more advantageous because it had been observed that prisoners can finish more articles
when they work in groups than working alone in their individual cells.
a. Maison de force b. None of these c. Auburn System d. Pennsylvania System
BOARD REVIEW QUESTIONS: JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND CRIME PREVENTION

1. An act providing for stronger deterrence and special protection against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
a. P.D. 603 b. P.D. 1602 c. P.D. 1612 d. R.A. 7610
2. Refers to persons below 18 years of age or those over but unable to fully take care of themselves from neglect, abuse,
cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to some physical defect or mental disability or condition.
a. Minor b. youth c. Wards d. Children
3. Refers to bodily damage, whether external or internal.
a. Abuse b. Cruelty c. Psychological injury d. Physical injury
4. A condition or act which may cause suffering emotional or physical harm on the part of the child.
a. Physical injury b. Cruelty c. Psychological injury d. Physical injury
5. A harm done to a child’s intellectual functions which causes a change in behavior, awareness and emotional response.
a. Cruelty b. Physical Injury c. Child Abuse d. Psychological injury
6. Anything said or done that degrades, debases or demeans the inherent worth and dignity of a child.
a. Cruelty b. Abuse c. Neglect d. Discrimination
7. Failure to provide for the needs of a child.
a. Neglect b. Cruelty c. Abuse d. Discrimination
8. Lewd or sexually motivated acts done to others.
a. Lascivious conduct b. Obscenity c. Unjust vexation d. Sexual abuse
9. Acts or conditions harmful to children that take advantage of their innocence.
a. Exploitation b. Abuse c. Obscenity d. Lascivious Conduct
10. Anything deliberately done that result in a child engaging in sexual activity with any person willingly or otherwise.
a. Sexual abuse b. Molestation c. Lasciviousness conduct d. Obscenity
11. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an activity.
a. Molestation b. Coercion c. Abuse d. Cruelty
12. Forcing an activity on the child without consent.
a. Coercion b. Molestation c. Cruelty d. Abuse
13. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any violation of R.A. 7610?
a. Parents or guardians
b. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree of consanguinity.
c. Barangay Chairman, Officer of DSWD or at least any three responsible citizen.
d. All of the foregoing
14. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have been treated or suffered from
abuse.
a. Report the incident to the family.
b. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority.
c. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse.
d. File a case in court in behalf of the child.
15. A teacher upon learning that a child under his/her supervision has been a victim of abuse shall:
a. Report the incident to the family.
b. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority.
c. Report the incident to the DSWD, whether oral or written.
d. File a case in court in behalf of the child.
16. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any person who
tries to control his behavior.
a. Social b. Neurotic c. Asocial d. Accidental
17. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
a. Social Delinquent b. Neurotic Delinquent c. Asocial Delinquent d. Accidental Delinquent
18. A remorseful, cold, vicious and brutal delinquent.
a. Social Delinquent b. Neurotic Delinquent c. Asocial Delinquent d. Accidental Delinquent
19. Refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated conflict with the law.
a. Juvenile b. Habitual criminals c. Delinquent d. Recidivist
20. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social structures.
a. Biogenic approach b. Psychogenic approach c. Sociogenic approach d. All of these
21. It explains delinquency is a result of critical factors such as personality problems to which misbehavior is a response
mechanism.
a. Biogenic approach b. Psychogenic approach c. Sociogenic approach d. None of these
22. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary defect.
a. Biogenic approach b. Psychogenic approach c. Sociogenic approach d. Biologic approach
23. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and curiosity.
a. Predisposing factor b. Precipitating factor c. Biologic factor d. Environmental factor
24. Refers to inherited propensities which cannot be considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a crime will
be committed.
a. Predisposing factor b. Precipitating factor c. Biologic factor d. Environmental factor
25. Refers to a type of delinquent gang which in which the manipulation of violence predominates as a way of winning
status and respect.
a. Criminal sub culture b. Juvenile gang c. Conflict sub-culture d. Retreatist sub culture
26. A child with no parents or guardian.
a. Abandoned child b. Dependent child c. Neglected child d. All of these
27. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he is often
referred to as?
a. Socialized delinquent b. Criminal c. Youth offender d. Truant
28. Not a mere creature of the state but regarded as its most important asset.
a. Family b. Women c. Child d. Youth
29. Basic unit of society.
a. Family b. Church c. School d. Community
30. Foundation of the nation.
a. Family b. Church c. School d. Community
31. Implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring.
a. Control b. Prevention c. Repression d. Recession
32. Acknowledges the existence of unlawful behavior.
a. Control b. Prevention c. Repression d. Recession
33. Community hazards harmful to youth.
a. Undesirable conditions b. Attractive nuisance c. Obstruction d. Police hazards
34. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and illicit experiences is stressed.
a. Retreatist sub culture b. Conflict sub culture c. Criminal subculture d. All of these
35. Absence without cause for more than 20 school days.
a. Vices b. Undesirable behavior c. Truancy d. Attractive nuisance
36. Provides temporary protection and care to children requiring emergency reception.
a. Detention home b. Shelter-care institution c. Receiving home d. Foster home
37. Age wherein children may engage in gainful light work.
a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18
38. Shall refer to any organization of individuals below 21 years of age.
a. NGO b. Civic organization c. Youth organization d. Youth association
39. Aggregate of persons or those responsible persons from various sector of the community.
a. Organization b. Club c. Samahan d. Association
40. Shall refer to any organization whose members are 21 years or older.
a. NGO b. Civic organization c. Youth organization d. Youth association
41. Shall mean local government together with society of individuals or institutions.
a. Family b. School c. Community d. All of the foregoing
42. Criminal liability attached to parents who neglect parental duties.
a. Imprisonment from 1 month to 2 months c. Imprisonment from 6 months to 1 year
b. Imprisonment from 2 to 6 months d. Imprisonment from 1 year to 3 years
43. What do we call a child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended?
a. Abandoned child b. Dependent child c. Neglected child d. All of the foregoing
44. Known as the child and youth welfare code.
a. PD 968 b. PD 1602 c. PD 1081 d. PD 603
45. Refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations.
a. Juvenile delinquency b. Recidivism c. Quasi recidivism d. Delinquency
46. A child deserted with no proper care from his/her parents or guardian.
a. Abandoned child b. Dependent child c. Neglected child d. All of the foregoing
47. Age of majority under Philippine law.
a. 18 b. 19 c. 20 d. 21
48. A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
a. Rehabilitation center b. Hospital c. Foster homes d. Maternity home
49. Family home type which provide temporary shelter from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the DSWD.
a. Nursery b. Maternity homes c. Receiving homes d. shelter care institution
50. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful offenders.
a. Child caring institution b. Detention home c. Nursery d. Foster home
51. A condition in individuals characterized by an absence or diminution of standards and values.
a. Delinquency b. Anomie c. Criminal behavior d. Atavism
52. The recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of a child for the purpose of exploitation.
a. Kidnapping b. Trafficking in persons c. Prostitution d. White Slave Trade
53. Is one that provides twenty-four resident group care service for the physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being of
nine or more mentally gifted, dependent, abandoned, neglected, handicapped or disturbed children, or youthful
offenders.
a. Child caring institution b. Detention home c. Shelter home d. Nursery
54. An institution or person assuming the care, custody, protection and maintenance of children for placement in any child-
caring institution or home or under the care and custody of any person or persons for purposes of adoption,
guardianship or foster care.
a. Child caring institution b. Detention home c. Shelter home d. Child placing agency
55. The members of this classification are severely or profoundly retarded, hence, the least capable group. This includes
those with I.Q.s to 25.
a. Trainable group b. Borderline or low normal group c. Educable group d. Custodial group
56. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this classification
are only slightly retarded and they can usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra help, guidance and
consideration.
a. Trainable group b. Borderline or low normal group c. Educable group d. Custodial group
57. The members of this group consist of those with I.Q.s from about 50; one who belongs to this group shows a mental
level and rate of development which is ¼ to ½ that of the average child, is unable to acquire higher academic skills.
 a. Trainable group b. Borderline or low normal group c. Educable group d. Custodial group
58. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ of that
expected of a normal child of the same chronological age.
a. Trainable group b. Borderline or low normal group c. Educable group d. Custodial group
59. Refers to children who, although not afflicted with insanity or mental defect, are unable to maintain normal social
relations with others and the community in general due to emotional problems or complexes.
a. Mentally ill b. Emotionally disturbed c. Handicapped d. Disabled
60. __________ children are those with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which is of such a degree of
severity as to require professional help or hospitalization.
a. Mentally ill b. Emotionally disturbed c. Handicapped d. Disabled
61. Any person duly appointed by the court of competent authority to exercise care and custody of or parental authority
over the person of such child/employee.
a. Parents b. Father c. Mother d. Legal guardian
62. Under the law, a child less than 15 years of age may be allowed to work for not more than twenty hours a week
provided that the work hour shall not be more than ___ hours in any given day.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 8
63. Refers to a child who is vulnerable to and at risk of committing criminal offense because of personal, family and social
circumstances.
a. Juvenile b. Child in conflict with law c. Delinquent d. All of these
64. Refers to the programs provided in a community setting developed for purposes of intervention and diversion as well as
rehabilitation of a child in conflict with law.
a. Day care center b. Community based program c. Rehabilitation center d. Foster home
65. An alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in conflict with the
law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological or educational background without resulting to
formal court proceedings.
a. Intervention b, Diversion c. Rehabilitation d. Probation
66. A series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. it may take the
form of an individualized treatment program which may include counseling, skills training, education, and other
activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being.
a. Diversion b. Intervention c. Rehabilitation d. Probation
67. System dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the law, which provides child-appropriate proceedings,
including programs and services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and aftercare to ensure their
normal growth and development.
a. Criminal justice system b. Juvenile justice system c. Criminal procedure d. Restorative justice
68. A principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the victim, the offender
and the community. It seeks to obtain reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the offended and the
community; and reassurance to the offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It also enhances public safety
by activating the offender, the victim and the community in prevention strategies.
a. Criminal justice system b. Juvenile justice system c. Criminal procedure d. Restorative justice
69. Offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for committing similar acts.
These shall include curfew violations, truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
a. Child offense b. Status offense c. Delinquency d. All of these
70. Police enforcers who have taken into custody a child in conflict with law, under the juvenile justice act is mandated to
turn over said child to the custody of the Department of Social Welfare and Development or any accredited Non-
Government Organization immediately but not later than ____ hours after apprehension.
a. 8 b. 12 c. 24 d. 36
71. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
a. Adolescence b. Juvenile c. Early Adolescence d. None of the above
72. Jose a 15 year old child severely injured Pedro in a quarrel. The injuries sustained by Pedro prevented him from going to
school for more than 20 days. The police filed a case of less serious physical injuries against Jose, under the law, would
happen to Jose?
a. He will be eligible for probation if found guilty by the court.
b. The criminal case will be suspended and he will be put in rehabilitation.
c. The criminal case will proper.
d. The criminal case will be dismissed.
73. If upon court determination that a child in conflict with law would have to serve his sentence, what is the ideal
detention facility?
a. Agricultural camp b. Training facility c. Jail d. Both A and B
74. If the crime charged against a child in conflict with law is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will determine
whether diversion is necessary?
a. The police b. The prosecutor c. The educational system d. The mass media
75. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent messages
through a balanced approach.
a. The community b. The family c. The educational system d. The mass media
76. It shall be responsible for the primary nurturing and rearing of children which is critical in delinquency prevention.
a. The community b. The family c. The educational system d. The mass media
77. Which among the following is not part of the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council?
a. National Youth Commission c. Department of National Defense
b. Technical Education and Skills Development Authority d. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
78. The JJWC is an attached agency of:
a. The Department of Justice c. The Department of the Interior and Local Government
 b. The Department of Social Welfare and Development d. The Department of Education
79. The chairman of the JJWC under the law;
a. The undersecretary of the DOJ c. The undersecretary of DILG
b. The undersecretary of the DSWD d. The undersecretary of DepEd
80. The determination of the age of a child in conflict with law shall be heard by a court in a summary proceeding and shall
be decided within ____ upon receipt of the court of the pleadings of all interested parties.
a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours
81. A child over 15 but under 18, without discernment upon committing a crime is subject to:
a. Criminal proceedings b. Intervention program c. Diversion program d. Probation
82. Which among the following is not part of the rights of a child in conflict with law?
a. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment;
b. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital punishment or life imprisonment, without the possibility of release;
c. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest appropriate period of time;
d. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate cases;
83. Refers to offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for committing
similar acts.
a. Victimless crimes b. Status offense c. Delinquency d. Juvenile delinquency
84. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program which may include counseling, skills training, education and
other activities that will enhance a child’s psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being.
a. Intervention b. Diversion c. Rehabilitation d. Probation
85. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in conflict
with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological or educational background without
resorting to formal court proceedings.
a. Diversion Program b. Intervention c. Rehabilitation d. None of the above
86. It generally refers to youth behavior which is against norm and regulations of society, which if left unchecked would give
rise to criminality.
a. Delinquency b. Status Offense c. Truancy d. None of the above
87. There was a massive increase in the amount of movable goods that were produced which were easy to steal.
a. Urbanization b. Industrialization c. Age of Enlightenment d. None of the above
88. This argues that the critical factors in delinquency are personality problems, to which the misbehavior is presumed to be
the response.
a. Biogenic Approach b. Socio-genic Approach c. Psychogenic Approach d. None of the above
89. The biogenic approach argues that the best treatment to curtail youth misbehavior is:
a. Support and acceptance of family, community c. Rehabilitation
b. Counseling d. All of the above
90. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts with
governmental and social control agencies and other similar variables.
a. Biogenic Approach b. Socio-genic Approach c. Psychogenic Approach d. None of the above
91. Regarded as the most important asset of the nation, declared under PD 603.
a. Youth b. Child c. Women d. Labor
92. Refer to any club, organization or association of individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly or indirectly
involved in carrying out child or youth welfare programs and activities.
a. Samahan b. Sanguniang Kabataan c. Youth Association d. Student Organization
93. Children below 16 years of age may work, provided that they engage in:
a. Agricultural work b. Industrial work c. Light work d. Commercial work
94. To be declared as an abandoned child, a child must be with no proper parental care or guardianship for a period of:
a. Six months b. Three months c. Nine months d. None of the above
95. A child who is reliant on public support is classified by law as:
a. Dependent Child b. Abandoned Child c. Neglected Child d. Child at risk
96. Mentally gifted children who is severely retarded is classified as:
a. Custodial group b. Trainable group c. Educable group d. Low normal group
97. Mentally retarded children classified as those belonging to the low normal group has an IQ of:
a. 25 b. 50 c. 50-75 d. 75-89
98. They refer to children who are crippled, deaf-mute, blind, or otherwise defective which restricts their means of action
on communication with others.
a. Physically handicapped b. Emotionally handicapped c. Mentally retarded d. Mentally III
99. They refer to those children with behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which is of such a degree of
severity as to require professional help or hospitalization.
a. Physically handicapped b. Emotionally handicapped c. Mentally retarded d. Mentally III
100. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal behavior.
a. Physically handicapped b. Emotionally handicapped c. Mentally retarded d. Mentally III
101. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
a. Neglect b. Abuse c. Exploitation d. Cruelty
102. It may be voluntary or otherwise on the part of the child are those activities which results in the children being involved
with any type of obscene exhibition or material;
a. Neglect b. Abuse c. Exploitation d. Cruelty
103. Putting a child under duress to give in or consent to engage in any activity.
a. Sexual abuse b. Coercion c. Molestation d. Child exploitation
104. Refers to children exploited in prostitution or other sexual abuse who engage in sexual intercourse or lasciviousness act
for reward of any nature or due to any nature of influence by an adult.
 a. Sexual abuse b. Coercion c. Molestation d. Child exploitation
105. The penalty for child trafficking is;
a. Reclusion temporal b. Reclusion perpetua c. Prison mayor d. None of the above
106. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do so with a permit or clearance issued by:
a. The parents c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. The guardians d. Any of the foregoing
107. A person who may happen to observe that a child is being abused in any way prohibited by RA 7610 should report orally
or in writing to:
a. DSWD c. Barangay Council for child protection
b. Police d. Any of the foregoing
108. A child below fifteen may be allowed to work provided that it should not exceed _____ hours a week.
a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
109. A child over 15 but under 18 may be allowed to work for 40 hours a week and beyond 8 hours a day; this statement is:
a. True b. False c. Absolutely False d. Slightly true
110. The parents or guardian of a working child is obligated by law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall constitute at
least ____ percent of the earning of the child.
a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
111. Jose who dislikes to follow school rules and regulation manifests:
a. Anti-social behavior b. Truancy c. Delinquency d. Status offense
112. A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young person.
a. Accidental b. Social c. Neurotic d. Asocial
113. Mike a 10 year old child who after punching his classmate in the face, continued his assault until their teacher
interfered, when asked to ask forgiveness he refused and then shouted and threatened their teacher, “papahintuin ko
na ang birthday mo mam!” This form of delinquency is categorized as:
a. Accidental b. Social c. Neurotic d. Asocial
114. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own emotion and
mood.
a. Accidental b. Social c. Neurotic d. Asocial
115. Jimmy who hates and get dismayed when given advise by his parents, teachers and other elder people manifest this
type of delinquency;
a. Accidental b. Social c. Neurotic d. Asocial
116. It advocates that youth misconduct is a result of faulty biology.
a. Biogenic Approach b. Socio-genic Approach c. Psychogenic Approach d. None of the above
117. This criminal act comes from loose morals in the home, lack of economic security wherein the parents are unable to
provide for the needs of their children, undisciplined desire for possession and pleasure seeking and parental
indifference.
a. Lying b. Cheating c. Stealing d. Vagrancy
118. This refers to children who are unable to cope with their family life and chooses to leave the family home. This is a direct
result of Feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for adventures.
a. Lying b. Cheating c. Stealing d. Vagrancy
119. The penchant for not telling the truth clearly manifest that the following are lacking: love, security, attention, respect,
acceptance, praise and happiness.
a. Lying b. Cheating c. Stealing d. Vagrancy
120. This may be attributed to the school’s proximity to place of vices, unattractive school life, failing grades, strict and
unreasonable mentors, family and domestic problems; fear of school bullies and fear of punishment.
a. Lying b. Cheating c. Stealing d. Vagrancy