336609 ‘ct Ranklet No. GENERAL STUDIES AND AFA1515 GENERAL ABILITIES Paper-1 Duration : 150 Minutes A ‘Max. Marks : 150 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 4. Please check the Test Ranklet immediately ‘on opening and ensure that it contains all the 150 multiple choice questions printed on it. 2, Separate Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Answer Sheet is supplied to you along with the Question Paper Booklet. The OMR Answer sheet consists of two copies i.e., the Original Copy (Top Sheet) and Duplicate Copy (Bottom Sheet). The OMR sheet contains Registered Number/Hall Ticket Number. Subject/Subject. Code, Booklet Series, Name of. the Examination Centre, Signature ot the Candidate and tnvigilater etc. 3, If there Is any defect in the Question. Paper Booklet or OMR Answer Sheet, please ask the invigilator for replacement. 4, Since the answer sheets are to be scanned (valued) with Optical Mark Scanner system, the candidates have to USE BALL POINT PEN (BLUE/BLACK) ONLY for filling the relevant blocks in the OMR Sheet including bubbling the answers. Bubbling with Pencil/ink Pen/ Gel Pen is not permitted in the examination, 5. The Test Booklet is printed in four (4) Series, viz. A or B or € oF D. The Series A or B oF ar 0 ig printed on the right-hand camer of the cover page of the Test Booklet. Mark your Test Booklet Series in Part C on side 1 of the ‘Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Example to fill up the Booklet Series : If your Test Booklet Series ic A, please fill as shown, below @@®oo If you have not marked the Test Booklet Series ‘at Part C of side 1 of the Answer Sheet or ‘marked in a way that it leads to discrepancy in determining. the enact Test Booklet Series, then, in all such cases, your Answer Sheet will be invalidated without any further notice. Each question is followed by 4 answer choices..Of these, you have to select one correct answer and mark it on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle for the question. If more than one circle is darkened, the answer will not be valued at all, Use Blue/Black Ball Poi heavy black marks to fill the circle completely. Make no other stray marks. Pan to make e.g. : If the answer for Question No, 1 is ‘Answer choice (2), it should be marked as folldws: 19 @©O®O (Continued on back cover page.) oooA [IMM7. Mark vaper Code and Rol NO. a glen wi] 13. The candidate should wrke the Question ‘the Hall Ticket with Blue/Black Ball Point Paper Booklet Series Number and sign in. Pen by darkening appropriate circles in Part the space provided in the Nominal Rolls Ah of ade lof the Answer Sheet. Incorrect/ | while ensuring the Bio-data printed against not encoding will lead to invalidation of his/her name is correct. eur amet sheet " 14, No candidate should leave the examination Example: If the Paper Code is 600 and Noll Until completion of exainination time. fun 1209102001. fil as shown below Paper Code Registered Number/Hall Ticket Number | 15, Before leaving the examination hall, the see] [ps yoye candidate should handover the original C OO Jo OMR Answer Sheet (top sheet) to the lo} OO|O} tor and carry the bottom sheet AIGIO} |GaIS|o| (duplicate) for his/her record, failing which SOO] eco action wil be taken for malpractice AAO] A@AIa| @ 16. The script will not he valued if the giaio! Rocio OIC candidate RID] AGIOS) |. wees eH ket nom any othe OOejo@oo) DO) place of OMR sheet, except in the IDOI] |OCDOGOOOOE tpace-provided for the purpose. AO[O] |ACO/eOWOMOS (il) Wiites irrelevant matter, including the religious symbols, words, prayers or 8. re) a e. eee any communication whatsoever, in any SOON meet POURS FU lace ot the OMK Answer sheet. Sheet. An Answer Sheet without the Signature. ot-the Anvigliator is-liable. for | (il). Uses: other tran wlue/Btack Ball Pott invalidation. Candidate should sign in the Son. so aarti the ectetes. space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet. (iv) Forgetting to bubble the Test Booklet Series or bubbling the other Test 12. Rough work should be. done only in the Tokio Slee eae 3 space provided. for that, purpose in: the wnighen Question Paper:Booklet: No-lonse:sheet of | (y). pubbling: tne ules incompletely oF ae will be-allowed into the Examination ining gf oe x in-the. cicles, (vi) Using of whitener on the Answer 10, Do not mark answer choices on the Test sheet. Booklet. Violation of this wil be viewed IE aan: any type of tamoering seriously. (rubbing the circles with chalk powder/ 11, In case of any discrepancy between Enelish ee ee and Telugu Versions of the questions, English Nersion of the question shall be treated 05 (viii) Adopts any method of malpractice. final 17. No correspondence will be entertained in 12, Use of Calculators, Mathematical Tables; Log | this matter by the Commission, ifthe Answer aooks, Pagers, cell Phones or any other | Sheet of the candidate is invalidated/ electronic gadgets is strictly. prohibited. rejected due to the above reasons. seriesA 2 600GEINERAL STUDIES AND GENERAL ABILITIES Which of the following is incorrect with reference to Corporate Social Responsibility ? (1) Abusiness house that has responsibility to serve the society. (2) Acompany’s responsibility towards community and environment. (3) Company's responsibilty to pay back society. (4) Utilization of social resources by the company for its own benefits $0 BYR) TAS" SH IS NarAs erGgs WOGE'S TLD (1) argard Hoyos tira Td engigs SON sodioo (2) threo, Lorgbimo Db Somes erdigs SOA odbo (3) $oBNes dvarard8 BON BOod erdigs YON sotbo (4) Shares Shed Sowden Sd igharareh rds sso Telangana Grameena Bank is (2) Co-operative Bank (2) aGovernment Scheduled Bank (3) a Housing Bank (4) an Investment Bank Bvorre [mide egos vs (1) a dérsd orgoS (2) a8 Gebdy zxinge’ angos (3) 2S Ayu Dongs emgoS (4) a8 adghadod ergo5 The Scheme ‘HRIDAY’ is related to (2) Urban development (2) Rural development (8) Health improvement (4) Uteracy improvement Sr yS0B 0d L480 B28 Lowgodss ? (1) Sgerhyo (2) rehordia)9 G3) e8trgpayd (4) e§oragernaye ‘Sabla’ scheme is meant tor empowerment ot (1) Adolescent girls (2) Physically challenged girls (3) Members of self help groups (4) Girls belonging to weaker sections ‘Lee’ $80 ab FASS AFI05nasO ? (1) B86(rah ar D¥eo (2) worBSeg rdSeo (3) Xgabo LwtobY wyocre Lebgen (4) wedeBdgrew Dood wO¥eo5. ‘INSPIRE’ programme doesn’t include (1) Basic sciences (2) Engineering sciences (3) Medical sciences (4) Social sciences, ‘INSPIRE’ oS s~SgiSv0d* F8ywsDS : (1) SPOS ders PQ -~ye0 (2) gowdooh r3rye0 G8) Bdgrz-ye (4) rad re 6. Central Vigilance Commission is a (2) Single member commission (2) Twomember commission (3) Three member commission (4) Five member commission Sos dk ozo wd as (1) O8%9%g Soko (2) Oghefs Lozpo (3) (Beas Lomo (4) Bowtweg wo¥o 7. When can the Governor issue an ordinance ? (1) When the Union Government asks him to do so. (2) Whenever there is a law and order problem in the state. (3) Whenever State Legislature is not in session. (4) Whenever the judiciary advises him to do so. oy MSHS BOSS) ef Aye ab Sgr ? (1) Zo@s Gebsgo enbclaiind storys (2) wypoe* wo Side tdavg SO Yd (3) onbyy wishes tehmdtod expe (a) angah Spy am hethind Steines 8. Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes are given reservations in Panchayatraj Institutions under Article (1) 2438 (2) 243 (3) 2430 (4) 243€ domrabdord Loyed® ating’ thexe SO Bet OwTgUS SOjow% Loa 98? (1) 2038 (2) 2432 @) 22a (4) 243 9. The National Green Tribunal Act was passed in the year ‘SURE [NS Wenghs WErdy’ D LOSS Sor" wArdourts ? (1) 2010 (2) 2011 (3) 2012 (4) 2005 10. National Youth Corps Scheme is about (1) Nation building activities (2) Paramilitary training activities (3) _ Pre- police training activities (4) Pre-paramilitary activities ‘erBab aldo’ 628 YowogoOss. (1) 2B doyw vie (2) OSPDS Apo swg8erdeo (3) F885 88m sdgberdeo (4) Swodtty wPOS srUgBerdreo serosa ‘ 00 —————11. 12. 13. 14. 1s. Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyothi Yojana aims at (2) Rural power supply 247 (2) Rural power supply for limited no. of hours (3) Rural power supply at subsidized price (4) _ Rural power supply for drinking water purposes bddard adrorgas imtoo d*58 Grad ado odds ? (1) 24 Hote 28088 irae Deogesy8 Bor (2) SOBs Kobes* rdaes Deogisn§ oor (3) 20,6 66 rrbow debg.s98 Logo (4) eR wore urrdaws deogwing vor What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ? (1) Ana (2) Nizamia Ana (3) Osmania Sikka (4) _ Nizamia Sikka pda DSO Dero tratrod* irdorerSS* Sorted wons S50) () om (2) derdbate wor 3) GdQd0r ay, (8) Derddale dsry, “Telangana Palle Pragathi” project was launched in the village of (1) Kowdipally, Medak District (2) Erravalli, Medak District (3) Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District (4) Chevella, Ranga Reddy District Seo BY [iB WSO 0kyS BOD |STofowadoo ? (1) FAO), B65 eer (2). OSB, BE eer (3) SmezRrs, SO0BKE eer (4) SBe), Somag eer The members of the Constituent Assembly were (1) Elected by Provincial Assemblies (2) Only the representatives of Princely States (3) Elected directly by the people (4) Nominated by the Government P58 crangots OOLS Lebgen Jem ey Sergreo ? (1) @roBdd erohe argor (2) wrebograre BAe mse (3) Gee BS Wsesorr Mays adiare (8) Gebego dS mBSS dabagres ame of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Usman All Khan 1s (1) Nizam State Bank (2) Hyderabad Provincial Bank (3) Hyderabad Commercial Bank (4) Hyderabad State Rank PdorarS DSO Nero Bs 56 ad9S wba Pod argos bb (1) Dero HS argos (2) PSorerS (SaQaT argos (3) wéorerS SaQasd egos (4) WeorerS HS argok 5 series A16. (1) First (2) Third (@) Fifth (4) sixth mramgonod®n 2) axingd so HIS wegen [iskames heswo Bre 7 (1) aoe (2) Sra (8) comes (4) 17. Which Provision of the Constitution guarantees reservations in admissions into private and unaided educational institutions ? (1) Article 15(3) (2) Article 15(4) (3) Article 15(5) (4) Article 14 mrengotiod' 2 Wktieo [so WSS MOaln LebSs Lwtabo vosd Derghoyed* CSTE OT gti Powwow 7 (1) 698é 15(3) (2) @98&15(4) (3) 98e15(5) (4) eQsera 18. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Electoral college to elect the President of India? (2) Elected members of Lok Sabha (2) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state (3) Elected members of the Legislative Council (4) Elected members of Rajya Sabha PES TYVSBO MHS MUST TSE ertio dard (1) Bay SnSs SE ves dehgeo (2) ANS ads crore wemKas debgen (3) WaySEnBS rrFre wid Dodd debgeo (4) Mey SSndS oregees Lehgeo 19. Which Constitutional Amendment has provided for the appointment of the National Judicial Appointments Commission ? (1) 98" Amendment, 2012 (2) 99" Amendment, 2014 (3) 124 Amendment, 2014 (4) 123" Amendment, 2014 edd wrargors J Lhde ‘erSab agob darosre SAS IojwS vSsr4o $890000. (1) 98% ©5800, 2012 (2) 99% Xe, 2014 (3) 124% Yvon, 2014 (4) 123 5&0, 2014 20. When was the Anti-defection law passed in India ? 3G Yorancye DEE wyo d Lodsysoe* dabwade ? (1) 1950 (2) 1960 (3) 1985 (4) 2005 Series-A ‘ 600 ‘A member of the Parliament takes oath under the following schedule ot the Constitution :24, 24, 25. 26. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was established ? (2) Lord Canning (2) Lord Dalhousie (3) Lord Dufferin (4) Lord Minto PES rBab SO|NS Pdr sree gr SSA4 Bioran Ds ? (1) @§ sd0h QQ) w§ agen (3) e§ apos (4) &§ d06* ‘Which is the largest Indian company in terms of Capitalization ? (1) Reliance Industries Ltd. (2) HDFC Bank (3) iT (4) Tes BeSNSSes (HBLOKS VRS er dab Sow 987 (1) OeabSy aodiyS OBE (2) WS.A.052 ongok 8) 0.82. (4) & 2085 “Oriental learning was completely inferior to European learning.” Who said it ? (1) Wellesley (2) Hastings (3) William Bentinck (4) Macaulay (Org EOabowOS) Dorgdero’, ‘air SbabS DorgOorbo! Sow YrOrr THT 28S argergdowrt ? (1) gp (2) SRohy (3) Dabo Bodo 4) ast Who presided over the First Session of the All India Kisan Sabhe ? (1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) _E.M.S. Namboodripad (3) N.G. Ranga (4) Sahajananda Saraswati SPe5S ES OS HSS VarSPDE OSHS SiroDodho ? (1) abiniod ager (2) 2.20.05, doaraarS 8) 382. dor (4) Sirerdoss Bsuga ‘Who was known as the Political Guru ot Mahatma Gandhi ? (1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (3) Surendranath Banerjee (4) MG. Ranade steryrod ‘read Mhthiyy mr 20D ard ? (1) wetomg5 8e5 (2) Boxy Mad (3) doar Boh (4) Qo.e. Sab ‘Komagatamaru’ is the name of a (1) Ship (2) Novel (3) Drama (4) Film ‘Seaiesioty wba 3d bb? QM ss (2) Bee (3) weso (4) bear 7 Series-827. Who among the following was the leader of the Extremist Congress ? @) AK. but (2) MG. Ranade (3) BG. Tilak (4) Surendranath Banerjee 1 808 TOE Noth wBards sro/AS wrabhoe 2 a) 23.66 (2) 20.28.8824 () Be. 205 (8) Sed owin B58 28. How many companies are included in BSE Sensex ? BSE TS) Sy O* DD) Sow aaron? (1) 30 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 50 29, Who was called as the “Sher-e-Punjab” ? (1) Bhagat Singh (2) Lala Lajpat Rai (3) Chandrasekhar Azad (4) Badal Singh RE-aLoared rr LewdyGvd doo 7 (1) B85 BOR 2) rer ead3 oro 3) SoprdnS ward (8) de no 30. Who founded the indian Muslim League ? (a) Agha khan (2) Sir Syed Ahmad khan (2) Turrobaz khan (4) Nawab Salimullah BOGGS tmQo HF Frew Jot ? (1) carmen (2) WE Wak wiryd wrS (3) HGerFars (4) Sarde 31, During Kakatiya period the agricultural land was popularly known as (1) Acchukattu Bhoomi: (2) Kodavali Bhoomi (3) Metta Bhoomi (4) Racha Bhoomi s8Bche svod! Sgbtab same J LHS LOdarw ? Q) oye (2) SbdDebr> 8) aearD 4) oseeD 32, Who constructed the ‘Masaheba’ tank in Hyderabad ? (1) Hayat Bakshi Begum (2) Khanan Bakshi Begum (3) Ameena Bibi (4) Meherunnisa praoerGo* ‘aPararer’ DdY Add sso ? (1) S55 08 dio (2) PSS 28 dio 3) edwdd (4) aereedya Series-A 834. 35. 36. 37. Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ? (1) Arige Ramaswamy (2) Yatniraj (3) Bhagya Reddy Varma (4) BS. Venkat Rao who’ EF ESAS SUS oeVAT & hi Ionyndnd ? (1) 60% cridrgo> (2) cbBord 8) artis 0g oo (4) 8.95. Sober Which of the following committee was appointed by the Vil Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ? (2) Aliimam Committee (2) Aravamudu iyengar Committee (3) _Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee (4) wurza Yar sung committee ren goit tty, Joe d! grtiore Sib YonSahtgents Diss Deno Dakod $d Se. (1) #8 akro ad (2) wdtimtb eatgorrd sad (3) BosO SoSbo-vdg Sd (4) dg oS wok sad Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ? (2) Vienuri Ramchandra Reddy (2) Katkuri Krishna Rao (3) Pingali Venkat Rao (4) Vedire Ramachandra Reddy Boome dirarSb good & 808 OED ardrgh Sd ard arvo Barth ? (1) Baro Posorsa (2) Séxy0 Sypo~y (3) bo SoserS (4) 300 crdboer 33, ‘Who was the incharge of ‘Port-Cities’ during Qutubshahi period ? (1) Ain-ul-Mulk (2) Shah-Bandhar (3) Dabir (4) Kotwal StS bre sud Sy iyere! ehor0d Dad Ldn? (1) wonS- ad Swe, (2) Sw0d6 (3) 6b5 (a) Segt “The End of a1 Era” was written by (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Rajendra Prasad (3) Annie Besant (4) K.M. Munshi 18 06 U5 aS Aor’ wis YAS Sans (1) Sdex moh Q) was SHS @) wdivod (4) 3.00. Sa 9 Series:a. a2. For the maintenance of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam’s Government ? (1) Aurangabad (2) Werengel (3) Mahabubnagar (4) Berar PSS srosoBoS DOH6 Sere BUaSo Dero ebsgo D roerdy OAH 308 wdyhoor ? (1) Borer (2) Soe (3) Sexe OHS @) Bo& ‘Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad ? (1) Salarjung-1 (2). Salarjung-t (3) Salarjung-m (4) Osman Ali khan Poor SF SoGeol Sargeant Hu0D0d de 7 (1) aude Sedwolh (2) coda re5e0h (3) Brad SeSeoh (4) daQ5 odars What is the Native place of Shalk Bandagi who fought against the Visnur Deshmukh ? (1) Waddepalli (2) Alier (3) Jangaon (4) Kamareddigudem har) d DHanGH HeBSSorr HOGS VE wodin Lgirrévo 28 ? (1) 8g 2) 8t& 3) aero (a) sipagtieao Which Sector’s share of workforce is in declining trend in India ? (1) Agriculture Sector (2) Industry Sector (3) Services Sector (4) Construction Sector PPOSS%OS* D Sotto wBSHS are Sot GadS* 0d 7 (1) SgS2-05 doro (2) SopPas dorfo (3) Sa Corio (4) Boye Soro Which state has the highest sex ratloas per 2014 Census ? (1) Kerala (2) TamitNadu (3) Gujarat (4) Uttar Pradesh 2011 d amar Skye Hsrso whgO¥ DohdYya He ory 98 7 (1) soe (2) Sadeare (3) Meod (4) edd pas Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme was launched in the year witey moh er Bab imtoo 43-9 Std SBsrdy (doo LodSyS0. (1) 2000 (2) 2006 (3) 2010 (4) 2011 Series.a 10 60045. 46. 47. The first Economist who thought about developing Human Development Index rather than Per Capita Income (1) Amartya Sen (2) Milton Friedman (3) Mahabub-ul-Haq (4) Paul Krugman. SeH0 wardd IDE Sod Srbarhayg irded PrordBwS aNYS Hdd oe why Qe? (2) teggh5 2) dys heirs (3) darard-ad- 4) &e ohars In October 2015, Reserve Bank of India reduced the Repo Rate from 7.25 percent to (1) 6.25 percent (2) 6.50 percent (3) 6.75 percent (4) 6.95 percent PBS Berteg engow wia5 2015e* BSS Bato 7.25 mo food Ios mm’ oD08 7 (1) 6.25 So 2) 650 wdo @) 6.75 wo (4) 6.95 wo Which source of Tax revenue is contributing more to Telangana State Government during the year 2014-2015 ? (2) Share of Central Taxes (2) Taxes on income and Expenditure (3) _ Taxes on Property (4) Taxes on Commodities 2014-15 LOHSHAS Seorme THINS SH) Lmao vrahos* Mkys envio GO AT Lasrdsyd 7 (1) So¢S Sane Sweet rgr7d8 Say arco (2) wardd, dgaire tae Bosiso argor 8) eke Sine Moisdo ayo (4) Spyew ddneo Bosdo anger Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) in Telangana State ? (1) Nalgonda (2) Mahabubnagar (3) Adilabad (4) Khammam Bvorma oryV0S'D 0d Berg" SED WaIrH|A artic Ber (1) gos (2) Sadar 5 (3) deren (4) w&o a Series Aas. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ? (1) Nizamabad (2) Khammam (3) Adilabad (4)__ Warangal 2011 & aarer B8,e OsSo Brora Mos SMYS warer he Aer (1) derdrerd (2) wayo (3) wdererd (4) B8ohe Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census (1) 227 persons per Sq, km (2) 307 persons per Sq. km. (3) 325 persons per Sq. km. (4) 350 persons per Sq. km. 2011 aarer 8,0 So Brome oYyoS* wh S-o[S (per Sq. km.) (1) 227 S08 (2) 307 S08 (3) 325 %08 (4) 350408 Total foodgrain production in Telangana State during the year 2013-2014 : (1) 92.6 Lakh Tonns (2) 75.01 Lakh Tonns (3) 82.42 Lakh Tons (4) 107.48 Lakh Tonns Bvorrmes or¥y05* 2013-14 LOSS) Sos" Srdo oH arge 6578 (1) 92.6 ee exneo (2) 75.01 ee eine0 (3) 82.42 ee eyeo (4) 107.48 oe eye0 Which one of the following is convective layer of the atmosphere ? (2) fonosphere (2) Oconvsphiere (2) Stratasphere (4) | Troposphere 80d DHysy rerddey PIS Voss HS 28? (1) aS ed3c0 2) 48S ed8e0 (3) 396 wdda0 (4) G2 ed8e0 ‘Annual range of temperature is maximum in the city of (1) Hyderabad (2) Mumpat (2) Visakhapatnam (4) New Dethi OS ABS Sgergho NOgorr aod Sibo ? (1) doer (2) mop (3) degooV0 (4) Srgad Flood Plain Zoning is effective method for (1) Flood Forecasting (2) Flood Prevention (3) Flood Management (4) Flood Assessment BBG Bord Mosh Ses HSB AD’ eyrssosGoo ? (1) or*ab S8s5 Sars (2) 888 DES¥o (3) $805 D8gines (4) 888 Agree Series-A 255. 57. 59. ‘One of the leading Iron Ore exporting ports of India i (1) Marmagoa — Mangalore (2) Kandla - Kolkata (3) Kolkata — Kochi (4), Mumbai -Tuticorin PESDIOT BdSErsly WWE wigood fe LEY? (1) oyhfar orients (2) og -S'08er (3) SS¥er-SQ) (4) S08 — eness*oS Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (1) Jamnagar - Maharashtra (2) Haldia - Orissa (3) Titagarh- Bihar (4) Panagudi ~ Tamil Nadu S808 wd D wd OBS? (1) ed O45 story Q) SOc 289 (3) Berend - DHS (4) S8ia - Satine Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ? (2) Nalgonda (2) Nizamabad (3) Karimnagar (4) Werangel Bvorres TpOd Soho 68 QC wUsigrbo He ee. (1) Se0d (2) deriran (2) $6085 (4) B8onE Second largest district in Telangana State, area-wise is (1) Mahabubnagar (2) Adilabad (3) Kerinnager (4) Khammam PHOS DBE Buormm oYHoE"D Bots wB WS Ler : (1) Severe Ont (2) wderenS (2) $6085 (4) yo Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Census is (1) Adilabad (2) Nalgonda (3) Mahabubnagar (@) Medak Beorrmd vB Sky SHbLOe He der 2 (1) wGerar& (2) Soe (3) Serer ONE (4) Bae Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of (1) Khammam (2) Karimnagar (3) Nizamabad (4) Warangal Baye anger Ndr cde DoYoS* HorwBs aor : (1) p&yo 2) $60x5 (3) derived (4) S8one a series A60. 61. 63. ‘The percentage share of Well irrigation to the total irrigation area of the Telangana State in 2013-2014 Is about (1) 45% (2) 55% (3) 65% (4) 759% 2013-14 SoS Sos! Bors oye go WrsSed' aye ayer diddy wSo. (1) cow 45 Fd0 2) cro’ 55 wSo (3) coy 65 rdo (4) rorty 75 wdo “Gusadi’ Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ? (2) Nizamabad (2) Khammam (3) Warangal (4) Adilabad Wide! mmngo Beormad*d D stere® Swbdsoe* 408 ? (1) DemtmanS (2) pkgo GB) S8oKe (4) caer In Telangana State, Godavari Pushkaralu of 2015 were held during the period of, (1) July 13-24 (2) July 14-25 (3) July 15-26 (4) July 12-23 Beorms orgp0c* 2015649 Hard Hiy. ores Ay GOD ys SI 2orra ? (1) Be 1324 (2) eB 1425 (3) &y 15-26 (4) eB 12-23 The ‘Million March’ was assoclated with (1) Democratic Movement in Egypt (2) Democratic Movement in China (3) Separate Telangana Movement (4) Jat Movement *BwOubS oF y TOs YowogowAa 7 (1) Seg Werdrging acgino (2) Baw warsnging adgiv0 3) 68gS oor adigivo (4) er adigino ‘The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is (2) Ellanna (2) Mollanna (3) Rajanna (4) Reeranna SHAD Sa Sargns ProYgoe* ho OS Oe ? (1) Oty 2) cen (3) weedy65. °7. 70. Who is the present Chairman of the Telangana State Legislative Council ? (1) Madhusudhanachary (2) Padma Devender Reddy (3) _ Neti Vidyasagar (4) Swami Goud OPS Beorra Wibod wBgheb Ito? (1) Sgtirdioncrd (2) SaydSoa5 34 (3) SB dargose (4) Sgn re Name the village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time. (2) Bellampatl (2) Bhupalpalli (3) Yellandu (4) Ramagundam Bvorrad’D D (Twos MYMSISOr Sh SoFPHvdood ? (1) ByobO (2) grareep ) dyods (4) oréarboo Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ? (1) Sharad Pawar (2) Mir Osman Ali khan (3) Azam Khan (4) NT. Rama Rao UharSD GIS WE,5 SoryMrdy 48,5 HES" Doryen BoB ? (1) 485 bar (2) 26 a5 eberS @) eeogrS 4) 28.8. carry Where is the World's Tallest Monolithic Buddha's statue located ? (1) Beijing, China (2) Kyoto, Japan (3) Yangon, Myanmar (4) Hyderabad, Telangana CwoSod* dor DS ang [fino 08,4 G05? (1) B&of, Ba (2) Sig", ears (3) dhorrS, wabogd (4) doer, Soom How many Mandals of Khammam istrict are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ? Oy Defesd Songs wo ATE Wy Loderes voseTHet SOI ? a) 6 7 @) 8 a 9 Where is the 100 pillar temple located ? (1) Nizamabad (2) Hanmakonda (3) Medak (4) Karimnagar Bot Boge HE My 08? (1) derhrer5 (2) SRSos 3) aos (4) $608571. The NIFTY 50 Index accounts for how many sectors af the Franamy ? DY 50 ROBES UQS HSH‘ AN) Yonah PBN go Ket ? (1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 38 (4) 25, 72. The Dandora Movement was launched for the purpose of (1) Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes (2) Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes (3) Sub-classification of the most Backward classes (4) _ Abolition of Caste based reservation SoBtor adSgivo Gos, Lier oso : (1) ingd Sere adsohSt00 2) WingT Ste a6HhS600 @) eackgod Rindad Sore, SUES (4) te wer 0d Ondgtae Sz 73. Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ? (1) Warangal (2) Khammam (3) Nalgonda (4) Nizamabad Bvormad* Mbow Hryyben wd gA8 Lomgs* te er (1) S8one (2) go 3) eros (4) derarer 74, ‘Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ? (2) Karimnagar (2) Adilabad (3) Khammam (4) Medak Sway KO Beorrasd'O D ey-S* WErLud 7 Q) S600 (2) eBererd (3) p&yo (4) Bas 75. In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ? (2) Karimnagar (2) Mahabubnagar (3) Adilabad (4) Khammam ofarerd Yue dathy Beormad’d d erd* ayO? (1) $6046 (2) Sadpae 5 (3) ederrd (4) wo Series. 16 600The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate (2) The peasants who lost their lives in the telangana Armed struggle. (2) The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement. (3) The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt. (4) The nationalists who died during the Quit india Movement. Soar MSdGy IO grosyorr 2owsedoo ? (1) Seormes Sains Sorwos* winzyeo ards Ddoe erosryo (2) 1969 Buon signod* einen ari Dargibe erosryo (3) 1857 Bestberdre* winigen ards Rdrove gosdo (4) 85 noBar adignoe* wisiges ents enBabarde grisryo 77. Match the following in regard to model villages in Telangana : 1. Gangadevipalli a. Co-op. Rank 2. Ankapur b. Prohibition and Sanitation 3. Mulkanoor c. Internet Village 4. Siddapur d. Scientitic Agriculture and Seed Production Boorse? wtp (rope 4ow0G0D 80d wed adsereito. 1. BorrdD bo a. SwedsS ergok 2 sos b. Sagar TxSo, HOA go 3. twegind Roby [rhres 4 apes d. -whyab dgbirabo, D488 Options : aes, ay a @Q b d a c Bimted. ce .a Bd b c a (4) d b a c 78. Which of the following is NOT associated with the Krishna river ? (1) Nagarjuna Sagar project (2) Srisailam project (3) Pulichintala project (4) Ellampally project 808 aS S)grH08 Lowodo Gd (HAH DB 7 (1) wrBerns (2) @eo (3) YODose — (4). DoD! 79. Arrange the following from North to South of Telangana : 1. Bhongir Fort 2. Kakatiya Kala Toranam 3. Rachakonda Fort 4. Ramagiri Fort Boome GHOS roshdorr & 808 aH) 4880 Hod S8wrds wbthyw. 1 BNO So 2. se¥80b Ser SfSm0 3. oS OG Sb 4, oho So Options : ) 3,214 (2) B) 1234 (4) 4,3,2,181. 82. ‘Match the following : 1. Telangana Martyrs Statue a. Byroiu Venkata Ramanachary 2. School Prayer Pledge b, Paravastu Lokeshwar 3. Telangana Talli ©. Paidimarri Venkata Subba Rao 4, Salam Hyderabad d. Dr. Ekka Yadagiri Rao $00 ard edirhyen. 1, Buune eiaddioy du a BOe Bosh Shear oro 2 Pre yw tioud OBE bd. Soy UTES 3. Beora 68 C. RGdO Doser yo%y 4, dro WdourS d. Gy.asy, aiesnoowy Options : demas. 3.8 Gree ets: leis cakes b Glee digea. bh (4Jntc. dbo te Match the following : 1. Perini a. Leg Bone Soup of Hyderabad 2. Paya b. A Tribal Festival 3. kat & Dance Style 4. Tez 4. ADyeing Technique 30d ara adoeyyan. 1, Bed a, PSoard (Hds5 DooSSS sre) NQE ra 2. dob b. 2S Abad Bt Dose 3 as c aS dy 63 4 8s 4, Sotbes wf a8 Sro#BS bOgrso Options : Hog: Sas ted Gibran dre ®) © a b d 1 no El (aja cagiby Who is the present Chairman / Chairperson of State Bank of India ? (4) Arundhati Bhattacharya (2). Sentanu Mukherjee (2)__ Chonda Kechhor (1) _Arundathi Desai AS angok uh nodair Rvs BuyS/BE VUyS Ido ? (1) shoga fepcrdg (2) 408% Soy (3) Boer Shy 5 (4) 8%0%8 Swro5 Series-& 883. 87. Who Is the Chairperson ot National Child Rights Commission ? (2) Smrithi rani (2) Sthutht Narayan Kakar (3). Kushal sh (4) Sushma Swaraj erbab aroe rye SDS BS Mt 7 (1) Ry@acrd 2) 28 wrcbe ko5 (3) Sar n0h (a) ng gone The first Dalit Chief Justice of India was (1) Justice K. Ramaswamy (2) Justice v. Ramaswamy (3) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan (4) Justice P.D. Dinakaran PrOSS4 SS SOS [Oord argabErg (1) BySs. ong 2) 2ySa. magn (G) epos.2. rojeys (4) e350.8, Ob805 Which Committee / Commission appointed by the government of India first laid down the criteria for identifying ‘Creamy Layer’ among the backward classes ? (1) Mandal Commission (2) Havanoor Commission (3) _ Justice Ramanandam Prasad Committee (4) _ Justice Rajender Sachar Committee BOS GebSgo Aabmods QD SDAS/Sad dS Hor Sosvds soriwes* GRE HS w Mhgod raLase arDow0D ? @) S0aesaas (2) srsars SONS 3) BRS WarhoSS HHS So (4) BBS CrB0SE oerG Saad ‘The reservations in promotions for the benefit of government employees belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes were introduced by the following Constitutional ‘Amendment : (1) 93° Amendment, 2005 (2) 85" Amendment, 2001 (3) _81* Amendment, 2001 (4) 77 Amendment, 1995 (ebay ABigrres* Wing’ Seren, Wings Sie SOigibes HEyweoe* Oadeas $O)008 Gar gori Loto (1) 93S ¥35de0, 2005 (2) 85 <3, 2001 (3) 81 %Se, 2001 (4) 77% %See, 1995 Phase-|of T-Hub is named as (1) Soft Tech (2) T-Digital (3) E-Tech (4) Catalyst SSF BSS Sh WES Lo ) Spas 2) 8-880 (3) 2-a5 (4) s-605 19 Series A88. The M. | Commission identified the following number of Castes/Communities as Backward : Bodd SOAS HQ0Nd Bsns Here omg (1) 3,743 (2) 3,437 @) 3,734 (4) 3,434 89. Wawrinka has defeated Djokovic in the French Open-2015 final, belongs to (2) Russia (2). Serbia (3) Switzerland (4) cena eS £252015 BaEE* wSDE% Lod’ sr/Dos~ O Sa-DS DASA (1) ds (2) Beja 3) Rworos (a) a2 90. anil Wikrama Singhe, who got elected as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka belongs to the political party of (1) Janata Vimukthi Peruana (2) Sri Lanka Freedom Party (3) Sti Lanka People’s Alliance (4) United National Party (Reo herder ONS SAT OSLRUE D rehab ih GS Dasa 7? (1) wher Skw§ aii (2) (Reos Bao arg (3) Boos &ydy wraDs) (4) cbSES RaT aS 91. The Historical city/structures of Syria which was recently destroyed by ISIS terrorists is (1) St. James Monastry a Bosra (3) _ Alappo Structures (Buildings) (4) Palmyra EMnAad a[farthen adion Seow Th HOainS Sods HOSE Sem0/2e a0 wo? (1) Dav0d BS) Sarpy 2) oe (3) eaty goareo (8) REO ‘92. Which of the following movie is banned recently in Pakistan ? (1) Bajrangi Bhaijaan (2) Calender Girls (3) Phantom (4) Manjhi SETS adiby Dads HGS erSSSwDE BOOS RISP DA? (1) wedoh erofers (2) smgeodi& AB) GB) PoeS (4) 93. The country which joined recently as 162° member country in the World Trade Organization (1) Kazakistan (2) Uzbekistan (3) Sierra Leone (4) Republic of Guinea adise Sox oye oy (WTO) é 1625 teigcor Sos d¥o (1) Sa8pS Q) eases (3) dabjor BaS (4) 0805 6 nda Series-& 20 60095. 97. 98. 99, Who among the following personalities is given the 2015 Gujar Mal Modi Award ? (2) Prof. Mustansir Barma (2) _N. Valarmathi (3) Jothimani Gowthaman (4) T.K. Anuradha 2015S LoSSyOrDS Heb HE AMA winsiod (Kes Dot ? (1) eerdg SueSU5 20 Q) oS. webh3 (3) BSD PSS (4) 4.3. oorg Who is the first Indian shuttler to win silver medal in 2015 World Badminton Championship ? (2) PV. Sindhu (2) Jwala Gutta (3) Saina Nehwal (4) _kidambi Srikanth 2015 & Gwows ergQobSS* Tes GSSv Tras axis ersBob angayooS (er s-Oni/s-cixes (stuttler) Bde ? (1) 2.2. Bogs 2) germs (3) pe rad (4) Sar08 [isr0S Ebola outbreak in 2014 took place in the countries of (2) North africa (2) West Africa (3) South Africa (4) East africa 2014 & ‘ddS*er’ argh Had vis wots dre (oso 20? Q) 685 eps 2) S8yo wis» (3) S85 eps (4) Sry whs> India’s Navigational Satellite System is known as (a) IRNSS (2) IGNss (3) IPNSS (4) IaNss POS Draws abyitin Spits Doers? (1) 2.08.95.05.05, Q) @2.08.05.05, @) 2.2.05.25.25. (4) .8ry. 08.08.05, Which is the newest Bank in India ? (2) IDFC Bank (2) YES Bank (3) Bandhan Bank (4) DFC Bank 25S BhoS*D argowed* wrod Sry SSO (2) WFCergoS — (2) YESergoS (3) woSSengoS (4) HDFC argos Which one of the following Is known as “Dry Ice” ? (2) Carbon monoxide (2) Carhon dioxide ) Hydrogen peroxide (8) Solid oxygen G+ S00 AT D Lorgray “By WS" (Dry ice) wD Hegre ? (1) S8) Sarge 2) SYS SarSys (3) WES wgs (4) FOS w8yeS104, 105. 106. . Multi-Drug-Therapy (MDT) is used for tle Weatment of disease (1) Leprosy (2) Malaria (3) Filariasis (4) Japanese Encephalitis 2 argO8 wos. SUS 08S) (MDT) Sgrwrdh adarnge ? (1) Sgoargd (2) Sout (3) pSoarRS (4) aadS ISwA5 |. Who discovered Neutrons ? (2) Dalton (2) Chadwick (3) Faraday (4) J. Thomson: WErSy & Dt SFr yw ? Q) eys (2) wagS 8) eed (4) 22. gays t. The heaviest natural atom with 92 electrons is (1) Uranium (2) Beryllium (3) Strontium (4)_Barium 92 deg SONS VHS dre ewy/ire$o (1) atadDabo (2) B6Babo (3) SyRdAbo (4) Bdcbo . The process of converting a solid directly to a gas phase is known as (1) Vaporization (2) Condensation (3) Sublimation (4) Deposition SORosshoad tasbarfo, sratbiiniio creay sis Divotrts ? (1) arfingisbo (2) ogfdimo (3) 4&0 (4) 2g ‘Silent Valley’ project is located in the State of (2) Karnataka (2) Jammu & Kashmir 2) Kerala (4) Sikkim PES argh! (BLD orYypoe* 40d? (1) Ses Q2) wary rhS 3) soe (4) 28,0 The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre is located at (1) Chennai (2) Hyderabad (3) Kolkata (4) Mumbai ROBAHS tard IYVOL Zojdo A846 SeSeyndod ? Q) 3 Q) Poors 3) Soe (4) S00 Chairman of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) during Uttarakhand floods of 2013 (a) P. Chidambaram (2) Jairam Ramesh (3) M. Shashidhar Reddy (4) Sushil Kumar Shinde 2013 x orwoG Sve Lossyoc" ‘erBab hse Adgirw@ Lory (NOMA) BUYS 0? (1). Domo (2) edboro dah (3) 20. #8508 (4) WRCHErE dod107. India’s first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched from the wuntry of (1) Soviet Union Q) USA, (3) India (4) Israel POSER BOBS Adiitro ‘wSgely' D DHo Lod Harnows ? (1) StDab atrdabs 2) o.2.0. @) a0datr (2) aeranel 108. Who is known as the Father of Indian Space Program ? (1) CV.Raman (2) Vikram Sarabhai (3) APJ. Abdul Kalam (4) Satish Dhawan BOS GoSOS SUBSE Derininod wD SOD voerd ? Q) 22.05 (2) 28% doreroh (8) 222. ed Soro (4) WR grsS 209, First Nuclear Plant in india ts (1) Tarapur, Maharashtra (2) Rawatbhata, Rajasthan (3) Narora, Uttar Pradesh (4) Kakrapar, Gujarat eroSdtoc' apmnde emt§ SoK5o (1) Porgy, Sdtorgy 2) oBerer, re eS 3) 88, aS5 55 (4) S825, aod 110. Which is the first Airport in the world to operate fully with Solar Power ? (2) New York (2) Tokvo, (3) Being (8) Cochin Roosod's assrOrr YO BGS BgirowinchAtay Danan ifabo 28? (1) Srgatrdy, (2) 8s (3) Oeoh @) Says 111. Which one of the following is the first IIT established in india ? (1) WT Kharagpur (2) ITMumbal (3) ‘IIT Chen WUSHHoS PLDs mds 0.0.0. 207 (4) NT Kanpur Q) 2.0.8, poms Q) 2.0.8. sop 8) 0.0.8. 3B) 4) 2.0.8. Serb 112. S. Ramanujan is the first Indian to be elected as Fellow of the following College : (1) Presidency College (2) Trinity College (3) London College (4) Cambridge College $1 808 Some OS. caries D kermesth Belt me Wok seer 7 (1) BRB Sore 2) (G24 Sore 8) CoS Some 4) 200g Sere113, Whereis the Central Rice Research Institute located ? (1) Bengaluru (2) Kanpur (3) Coimbatore (4) Cuttack Soles S8L0b LOFGar Sojto 28,00 ? (1) Boretere Q) eSopF 3) Stobondr5 (4) $05 114. Which one is India’s first operational Remote Sensing Satellite ? (2) Rss (2) _ INSAT-14 (3) GsaTa (4) psiv.3 er dsdiod® soit Ody BSS OBS WOM aHiiiéro 08? () @.e6.05-10 (2) 268-10 3) 26-1 4) BO5.960.- 43 115. The first Geographical indication in Telangana area was registered in respect of the following goods : (1) Pochampally Dress Designs (2) Hyderabadi Haleem (3) Hyderabadi Biryani (a), Pembarti Meta craft Suomen osod* Svyandeirr AOS LwrDSrr OLS Sait (1) Bok) Saye ABS Q) Picard Ee. 8) wood Abard (4) Bond Sie Sven 116. Who is the famous Oggukatha Artist ? (2) Alekya Punjala (2) Sindu Yellamma (3) Chukka Sattaiah (4) Chukka Ramayya OLY ‘eh $e" Se Steb/SersrOed Leo 7 (1) wang Yowre (2) Bog Dey (3) soe Seay (4) 9 baby 127. In Telangana which district is known for Silver ihe > (2) Nizamabad (2), Khammam (3) Warangal (4) Karimnagar Beomad® d der 30d Ste LO /¥i (Heg5 HO|A) S BOBO 7 (y) Derbrer (2) x0 (3) S80me (4) $60886 118. In Telangana the Nallamala Forests are spread in (1) Adilabad and Nizamabad (2) Mahabubnagar and Nalgonda (3) Adilobed and Warangal (4) Mehebubnager end Range Reddy Beomnd® duie dyes d aerg* god aaron? (1) eden LOdb DemdrerE (2) StrameS SKS oa Hoos 3) aBererS S0ai S804 (8) Stree SNS Och Sorrag, 119, Nataraja Ramakrishna is an expert of which dance form ? (1) Perini Shiva Tandavam (2) Oggu-Katha (3) Kuchipuai (4) Kathakali Dhow CE YY D O)Sg Srwod* Sued 7 (1) B08 Merotiso (2) exh $$ (3) SDD. (4) SqrsO Series-a 2 600120. Pillala Marr! ls situated In the district of (1) Medak (2) Nalgonda (3) Mahabubnager (4) Nizamabed 221. | tennis every Sunday morning (2) "playing (2). play (3) amplaying (4) amplay 122. Don’t make so much noise. Prabhakar ‘to study for his test. (1) try (2) tries (3) tried (4) isteying 123. Sorry, she can’t come to the phone. She a bath. (1) shaving (2) heve (3) has (4) thew 124, Lekha : “What in the evening ?” (a) youdoing (2). youdo (3) doyoudo (4) are youdo 128. | think new mohile phane This ane does not work praperly any more. (1) amneeding (2) needs (3) need (4) needed 126, Babies when they are hungry. (a) cry (2) cries (3) cried (4) iscrying 127. What time ? (a) the train leaves (2) leaves the train (3) is the train leaving (4) does the train leave 128. The phone Can you answer it, please ? (1) rings (2) ring (3) rang (4) isringing 129. The residents of neighbouring colonies could he ceen their valuables and Moving out to safer areas. (1) pack (2) packing (3) packet (4) packers 130. Asan measure, five companies of police were posted in the adjoining colonics. (1) emergence (2). emergency —(3)._-emerged (4) emerging 431. For the of the life and property ot the residents. (2) protection (2) protected (3)-protecting = (4)_—protettur 132. Sireesha is the student in the class. (2) young (2) younger (3) youngest (4) old 133. The weather in Hyderabad is than the weather in Chennai. (1) good (2) better (3) best (4) beast 134. There is no unity the leaders. (1) among. (2) between (3) within @ in 135. Telangana Chief Minister hoists National Flag Golconda Fort. (2) on Q) in (3) upon (4). at 600 2s Series.A136. 137. 139, 140, There are 4 villages vie. M, N, O and P. Nts located in the South-East direction of M. O is located in the north of N and North East of M and P is towards west uf O such that N, M and P are in a straight line. In which direction of M is P located ? (1) North-West (2) North-East. (3)_-North (4) South M,N, 0 &30ci P oS 4 (r’aren Garon. M & wthyabod* N 408. N & aston Bolo M 8 SuMdgod* O God. O 8 LuissE* P GOO. N. M 0am P en Ad SSSIww aaron, MHD O85 P a0? (1) mratdgo (2) Seg. ) Axo (1) S80 Find out the missing number in the series. St 808 Sond ROSE 2008 omg D0? 7,21, 43, 2.111. 157 (a) 83 (74 @ 72 (a) 68 1. Prasad ranks fifth from top and thirty-fifth from bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class ? BS SUNBE* HIS awsy orgo§ (rank) dvocd Wod 5, SS Sod 35. w SéKaE* Dvsiod Dergrbeoary ? (1) 38 (2) 40 (3) 39 (4) 42 Six subjects A, C, P, Z, Mand Qare to be scheduled on six days of the week starting from Monday and ending on Saturday. Subjects P, M and A ere scheduled In the same order. Subject Z is scheduled neither an Manday nor on Wednesday. Subject Q is scheduled on Tuesday. Which subject is scheduled for Monday ? A.C, P, 2, M&Oab Q wd wt LBEy Bardo SSE Aardo S05 ater. PM Sooab A SDE) ad Sikykood* ard. Boasord agervo md 72 LOE thrid, QLBE Sorivado wthrbivod, Bardo aod KBE IDs 7 om (A @) 2 @ oc The four different pos opposite to 3? BE SOS Ahsy wreath Hi) Urdveo 80d adgngray. 3 Gy Sours wPiwporr O wong 400 ? aoa (2) 2 3) 4 @ 5 's of a dice are given below. Which number is on the face Series-A 26 600141. What should come in the place of question mark ? WINGS HSoe* D Lows ward ? 113+ 12?- 99-8? =? (1) 1539 (2) 682 (3) 793 (4) 1639 142. Three of the following form a group. Find the odd one. 808 adyS weathe darth 28 (iS Aaron. a (nSiet aintnn D8? (1) CAF (2) KIN (3) PNS (4) TR 243. I Ure following sequence how many vowels are preceded by a consonant and followed by anumber ? PWNCIJ3SE80J7D3D132KDSAROUSMV9G7 (1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three S005 addy SE dwoeh sxS')SOs (consonant) SBS a GOS Ay SSA) (Vowels) a? PWNCIJ3SE80J7D3D132KDSAROUSMV9G7 (1) Sos (2) Com 3) ase (4) arm 144. Directions : In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions ‘numbered (|) and (Il). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the given assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. Statement: Shop for & 1947 and get clothes worth € 1947 free ~ an advertisement by x" stores in Hyderabad Assumption (I): Very soon other stores in Hyderabad will offer similar discount, Assumption (I): There will be no discount offers in future by the “X” stores, Give answer : (2) _fonly assumption (I) is implicit. (2) ifonly assumption (tl) is implicit, (3) _fneither (1) nor (i) is implicit. (4) if both (1) and (1!) are implicit. | Soiies : Ss HHS 2 LS (statement) Od Tow ‘edo wore’ | abgugron, af Red Tabard’ barrios eee erD0DS wored “POs woTw'M SHykSy). erdo0S wore vortorrd Les Aakdéo BOMMOH, BDyS HSH WOch erDoDs wore LORD OSHS dabewda d | wore Tar eomes erdowagrar MQoSoa. GSH : 1947 Grace Sah‘eo Tasos. 1947 Urdrabe Deas aes Ado Podod, WErre5SD “XK” Gorm 70 WSLS. wrDod’ woito - 1 : SgheS presorand 6D MANS commenre, ato Knew ad SEBS ! Shows ade. BROS woo ~ I: ARSE "%" chemo MoD Divo Holy does, (1) D008 woke -1 ama 2) Ed00S voto - Nash @) 9rD0DS wo%o -10ab I~ (4) grDODS vo%o ~1 HOab II 600 Fy Series-A145. Directions : In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ and ‘weak’ arguments so far as they are related to the question. ‘Strong’ arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (I) and (Il). You have to decide which of the arguments is strong and which is weak. Then decide which of the ‘answers (1), (2), (3) oF (4) Is the correct answer. Statement : Should government stop providing gas subsidy to all income tax paying citizens ? Argument (I) : Yes. The government can save lot of money. Argument (Il) : No. In such case citizens will not pay income tax. Give answer : (2) Ifonly argument (i)is strong. (2) Hfonly argument (II) is strong. (3) Ifneither (1) nor (t)is strong. (4) If both (1) and (I!) are strong. Brea : Waiver Sas tod w Datret agra wcres (arguments), 9D BEBO, ID wobEBSO vd BOL Yodo ediWo. was waren ASOde"D words Shim Lowogo SOA Sowgsdor sor Gotran. neds wore SERED woMdS Stun Lowodso TIM For wey Srorhgo SONA soeran, G1 GT a se (statement) SvOal Boch arcres (arguments) sdgegron. adyo OSORD, wares 400 aljys wtio DOBLE For eSB NYavowiod. SHS 2 woraity Boy SG Aedes mg5 VHS (eas subsidy) 9 ebsgo Dextpdatrer 7 So -1: CRD, 62 Sud ehIgo mer Gard MY Sabwieorsaoa. So -I1: Ee, ver word Ireoeo vorahiy diy SHE. (1) @S0 -1 rsa weweS 2) ado - ar SS ese GB) aay Bod wore HeBSD HY (4) ady6 God cre weedDirections (146 to 150) ; Study the following graph and answer the questions that fullow 106 S20 180 Gxyewh Lmseo : Kok ahd emf (graph) LAPOD Lhe BS Langrarem MQowod. XVZ SoU ak wk LobSyore werato Hal Szabo, h 700 ee —eIncome Bb Expenditure pe ay 2009 2010 2011 2012 20132014 Years 4146. The XYZ company has earned highest profit in the year XYZ SoBN D LoddySod* Dy erardy Lom Bo006 ? (1) 2013 (2) 2014 (3) 2012 (4) 2011 147. The ratio between income and expenditure is lowest in which year ? warainds Sgaind8 davis aby Ding D Yodsysos* SOgorr 400 ? (2) 2009 (2) 2010 8. a (4) 2011 148. The income in which year has grown highest when compared to the previous year ? 88 LOSSSOS BtenyHoB D Hoss Soe wcrabo I&ysrr VON0d ? (2) 2010 (2) 2014 (3) 2013 (4) 2011 149. In which year the profit percent is highest ? 2 Wods SOE erairSo MkySrr 408 ? (Income Expenditure) ‘Expenditure (1) 2014 (2) 2013 (3) 2012 (4) 2010 Profit%e= 100 250, What is the total profit earned by the company In the glven period ? (1) 550er 2) 600 er (2) 700er (4) 800 er ANY Ergo srvod* Sow Lod Bons exdio dos 7 (1) 550 Sg (2) 600 Sé> (3) 700 Sep (4) 800 St»