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The first steps in determining the cause of prolongation should always be to check the
sample integrity, check the patient history for liver disease or other coagulation
disorders, and ensure the patient is not receiving anticoagulant therapy. Sample
integrity includes pre-analytical factors such as clotting of the sample, hemolysis, not
enough specimen, etc. Specifically, clots in the sample would conclude that
coagulation factors have been consumed during the clotting process, allowing for
decreased levels present to participate in the actual test reaction. This causes a false
prolongation of the result. Canceling the PT test without investigation of the cause of
prolongation is not advised as the patient may have an underlying problem that
garners further investigation from the laboratory.
Mature T cells
Normal B cells
Both mature T cells and normal B cells
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CD5 is present on mature T cells, but is not present on normal B cells. The presence
of CD5 on B cells may indlcate a B cell malignant process.
True
False
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If CD3 marks all normal mature T cells and if CD4 marks T-helper cells (which are
mature T cells), then one would expect all CD4 positive cells in the gated lymphocyte
population to also be CD3 positive.
All of the following will cause a falsely decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
EXCEPT:
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Tilting of the westergren tube accelerates the fall of the erythrocytes which can cause
a falsely elevated ESR. Fibrin clots, diluted samples, and old samples can give a
falsely decreased ESR result.
Which of the following represents the percent population of T-helper cells in this
sample data?
%CD3 = 60
%CD4 = 40
%CD8 = 20
60%
40%
20%
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T-helper cells are CD4 positive. The flow results reflected 40% CD4.
CD3 is a pan T cell marker (and should reflect CD4 plus CD8).
CD8 is the cytotoxic/suppressor T cell marker.
Band
Small lymphocytes
Metamyelocytes
Nucleated red cells
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Not normally seen in the peripheral blood of adults, but are often seen in the blood of
newborns.
Lymphocyte
Neutrophil
Band form
Monocyte
Eosinophil
Basophil
Barr bodies
Slight toxic granulation
Hypersegmented nucleus
Hyposegmented
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Which FAB designation is called the “true” monocytic leukemia and is characterized
by monoblasts, promonocytes, and monocytes?
FAB Ml
FAB M3
FAB M4
FAB M5
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Which one of the following determinations is MOST reliable for evaluating bone
marrow activity?
Hemoglobin
Reticulocyte count
Platelet count
Hemolytic index
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Reticulocyte counts evaluate the activity of the bone marrow; as the bone marrow is
attempting to recover from an abnormal hematological state, there are more
reticulocytes produced. Retic counts are often used to evaluate the effectiveness of
therapy for stimulating the bone marrow.
A 2-year-old girl showed multiple bruises and had the following laboratory findings:
Glanzman thrombasthenia
Aldrich syndrome
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
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Peak prevelance of ITP occurs in children 2-4 years, while TTP occurs more often in
adults. The platelet count is low, but unaffected in Glanzman thrombasthenia. We can
reasonably rule out Aldrich syndrome since this is a little girl, and the overwhelming
majority of patients with this disease are male.
Heinz bodies
Howell-Jolly bodies
Basophilic stippling
Pappenheimer bodies
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Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of DNA, usually left from the nucleus, that appears
as a round, dark-staining inclusion in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. Howell-Jolly
bodies can be found in various conditions including splenectomy and anemia.
hereditary spherocytosis
iron deficiency anemia
sickle cell anemia after splenectomy
chronic liver disease
thalassemia
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Lymphocytes are generally the smallest normal WBC seen in the peripheral blood.
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What is the Wright-Giemsa stain used for MOST often in laboratory science?
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Wright-Giemsa stains are commonly used in the hematology laboratory for peripheral
and cytospin blood smears to identify and quantitate blood cells.
Which of the following cells are capable of producing antibodies and lymphokines:
The correct answer is highlighted below
Thrombocytes
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Granulocytes
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The alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis pattern that is shown on the right includes
controls for A, S, and C; and A and F above and below the patient results. (NOTE:
ASC and AF are simply labels for the controls and do not indicate order of
migration.) The patient was tested in duplicate and the results are in lanes 3 and 4.
The patient lanes (3 and 4) displayed in these hemoglobin electrophoresis patterns are
consistent with what diagnosis?
HbSA
HbSC
HbSD
HbS/HPFH
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This alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis shows nearly equal bands in the "S" and "F"
positions.
Lymphocyte
Neutrophil
Band form
Monocyte
Eosinophil
Basophil
L-arginine
L-glutamine
L-lysine
L-tyrosine
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Peripheral blood
Body tissues
Bone marrow
Digestive tract
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The main site of action for monocytes is body tissues after diapedesis. Monocytes
function in the immune system by responding to inflammation signals and moving to
sites of infection in the tissues. There monocytes divide and differentiate into
macrophages and dendritic cells to elicit an immune response.
Peripheral blood
Body tissues
Bone marrow
Digestive tract
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The main site of action for monocytes is body tissues after diapedesis. Monocytes
function in the immune system by responding to inflammation signals and moving to
sites of infection in the tissues. There monocytes divide and differentiate into
macrophages and dendritic cells to elicit an immune response.
True
False
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Platelets are not considered granulocytes as they are not white blood cells.
Lymphocyte
Neutrophil
Band form
Monocyte
Eosinophil
Basophil
4 hours
8 hours
24 hours
48 hours
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Performing a mixing study will help to differentiate between a factor deficiency and a
coagulation inhibitor as the cause of a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) or activated
partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test result.
A mixing study is performed by mixing the patient plasma that has a prolonged PT or
aPTT with normal pooled plasma. A PT and/or aPTT is then retested on the mixed
sample.
If the cause of the prolonged PT and/or aPTT is a factor deficiency, or multiple factor
deficiencies, the normal pooled plasma will increase the factor levels to the point of
correcting the prolonged test result. However, the addition of normal pooled plasma
will not correct the prolonged test result if the cause is a coagulation inhibitor.
4 hours
8 hours
24 hours
48 hours
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Performing a mixing study will help to differentiate between a factor deficiency and a
coagulation inhibitor as the cause of a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) or activated
partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test result.
A mixing study is performed by mixing the patient plasma that has a prolonged PT or
aPTT with normal pooled plasma. A PT and/or aPTT is then retested on the mixed
sample.
If the cause of the prolonged PT and/or aPTT is a factor deficiency, or multiple factor
deficiencies, the normal pooled plasma will increase the factor levels to the point of
correcting the prolonged test result. However, the addition of normal pooled plasma
will not correct the prolonged test result if the cause is a coagulation inhibitor.
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This drawing depicts beta thalassemia minor B+/B. In Beta thalassemia minor B+/B,
one beta gene locus is partially deleted or inactive.
Question Difficulty: Level 7
The dissolution of a clot with 5 M urea indicates which one of the following factor
deficiencies?
Factor II
Factor XIII
von Willebrand disease
Lupus anticoagulant
Factor IX
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Factor XIII is used to stabilize the final fibrin clot. If the factor XIII is dysfunctional
or found in decreased levels, fibrin clots will dissolve in the laboratory when 5M urea
is added. In normal patients with normal factor XIII, the clot will not dissolve.
Which of the following conditions can produce a normal APTT and a prolonged PT?
Factor IX deficiency
Factor VII deficiency
Factor VIII deficiency
Factor X deficiency
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Only the factor VII would cause and increase only in the PT result as factors IX and
VIII are tested only in the aPTT test and factor X is tested for in both tests.
Which of the following conditions can produce a normal APTT and a prolonged PT?
Factor IX deficiency
Factor VII deficiency
Factor VIII deficiency
Factor X deficiency
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Only the factor VII would cause and increase only in the PT result as factors IX and
VIII are tested only in the aPTT test and factor X is tested for in both tests.
Which of these white blood cell populations would have the MOST side scatter when
analyzed using flow cytometry?
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Granulocytes
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Granulocytes are the most granular population; they have the most side scatter of the
cell populations that are listed.
Your answers are on the left. The correct answers are on the right and highlighted.
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Lymphocyte: Pale blue cytoplasm with azurophilic granules. Nucleus may be oval or
indented.
Segmented Neutrophil: Light pink cytoplasm with fine granules. Nucleus with 2-5
lobes.
Acanthocytes
Schistocytes
Spherocytes
Stomatocytes
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Stomatocytes have a slit like appearance in the area of central pallor - many chemical
agents may cause this abnormality.
The predominant cells seen on the CSF smear in this illustration are indicative of:
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Which of the following is a general term describing variation in red cell size?
Anisocytosis
Macrocytosis
Microcytosis
Poikilocytosis
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The term used to describe variation in red blood cell size is anisocytosis.
Macrocytosis describes an increase in red cell size. Microcytosis describes a decrease
in red cell size. Poikilocytosis describes variation in red blood cell shape.
Question Difficulty: Level 4
Case Study
The image on the right is representative of the peripheral blood smear from a five-
month-old immigrant from Asia. Her mother was concerned that the child was not
eating well. Her spleen was palpable.
Knowing that the family is from a region of Thailand where HbE carriers are
prevalent, the physician ordered a hemoglobin electrophoresis. The hemoglobin
electrophoresis detected HbE.
Based on the blood count results and this representative microscopic field, which of
the following peripheral blood findings should be reported?
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Homozygous hemoglobin E is common in Southeast Asia and presents with very mild
anemia and seldom requires transfusion. Over 30 million people in the world are HbE
carriers, making this abnormal hemoglobin almost as common as HbS. Hemoglobin E
is uncommon in North America and in Europe, but with changing immigration
patterns, Hb E cannot be ignored.
Clinically, a very important and severe syndrome is hemoglobin E/beta thalassemia in which
there is hemolysis requiring repeated transfusions. The patient has a severe anemia, low
MCV, and high RBC. This is characteristic of Hgb E/beta thalassemia.
The image on the right is representative of the peripheral blood smear from a five-
month-old immigrant from Asia. Her mother was concerned that the child was not
eating well. Her spleen was palpable.
Knowing that the family is from a region of Thailand where HbE carriers are
prevalent, the physician ordered a hemoglobin electrophoresis. The hemoglobin
electrophoresis detected HbE.
Based on the blood count results and this representative microscopic field, which of
the following peripheral blood findings should be reported?
Microcytes (microspherocytes)
Macrocytes
Sickle cells
Target cells
Nucleated red blood cells
Parasitic inclusions
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Homozygous hemoglobin E is common in Southeast Asia and presents with very mild
anemia and seldom requires transfusion. Over 30 million people in the world are HbE
carriers, making this abnormal hemoglobin almost as common as HbS. Hemoglobin E
is uncommon in North America and in Europe, but with changing immigration
patterns, Hb E cannot be ignored.
Clinically, a very important and severe syndrome is hemoglobin E/beta thalassemia in which
there is hemolysis requiring repeated transfusions. The patient has a severe anemia, low
MCV, and high RBC. This is characteristic of Hgb E/beta thalassemia.
A manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. The
cell counts for both sides were 38 and 42 respectively. All nine large squares were
counted on each side. The dilution for this kit was pre-measured at 1:10. What should
the technologist report as the white cell count?
4.8 x 10^9/L
4.4 x 10^9/L
.48 x 10^9/L
0.44 x 10^9/L
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Calculation:
Cells Counted (in this case the average of both sides) X dilution factor (in this case
10) / # of sqaures counted (in this case 9) X 0.1mm (depth of solution) X area of each
square (1mm2)
Segmented neutrophil
Monocyte
Lymphocyte
Basophil
Eosinophil
Platelet
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The cell in the image on the right is a segmented neutrophil. It is characterized by its 2
- 5 nuclear lobes that are connected by thread-like filaments. The cytoplasm is pale
and contains secondary (specific) granules as opposed to the azurophilic (primary)
granules seen in earlier cells of the myeloid cell line.
What is the correct procedure when using a winged collection device (butterfly) to
draw a light-blue top tube intended for a coagulation test if this is the first tube that
will be collected in the draw?
Draw and discard a red-top tube that only contains an additive for clot activation
before collecting the light-blue top tube that will be used for coagulation studies.
Draw and discard a waste light-blue top tube before the tube that will be used for
coagulation studies.
Draw only the light-blue top tube that will be used for coagulation studies and
then perform a second venipuncture for additional tubes.
There is no correct procedure because a winged collection device cannot be used
for collecting specimens for coagulation studies.
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A winged blood collection device (butterfly) can be used for collecting a specimen for
coagulation studies, but a waste tube must be drawn first. The waste tube is drawn
first to remove the air in the tubing of the winged collection device. The waste tube
must also be a light-blue top tube or a tube that contains no additives or
anticoagulants. A red-top tube that contains a clot-activator cannot be used.
Once blood flows through the tubing, the waste tube can be removed and discarded.
The waste tube does not need to be completely filled. If the air is not displaced from
the tubing into a waste tube, it will be drawn into the tube used for testing and cause a
short-fill of the tube. An inadequately filled tube will alter the required blood-to-
anticoagulant ratio needed for coagulation studies, thus adversely affecting results.
A tube that contains an additive or anticoagulant other than sodium citrate (the
anticoagulant present in light-blue top tubes) must not be used as the waste tube.
Additional tubes can be collected, using the proper order of draw, after the
coagulation tube has been drawn. A separate venipuncture is not required.
Question Difficulty: Level 8
Normal
High
Low
Variable
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The normal M:E ratio in the bone marrow is 2:1 - 4:1. However, in CML, the M:E
ratio is usually >5:1 and can reach 20:1 or greater.
basophilic stippling
codocytes (targets)
ovalocytes
schistocytes (fragments)
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Though not diagnostic for alpha thalassemia, schistocytes (fragmented RBCs) indicate
that there is one of several forms of red blood cell destruction occurring. The RBCs
may be fragmented due to the damage caused by the presence of hemoglobin
tetramers.
Peroxidase stain
Sternheimer stain
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain
Sudan Black B stain
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Defraction gradients
Impedance
Defraction gradients and impedance
Fluorescent antibody tagging and light scatter
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Flow cytometry employs a combination of fluorescent antibody tagging of cells and
analysis with laser light scatter.
Factor IX
Factor VIII
Factor X
Factor V
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As we can see from this patient's laboratory test results, her D-dimer is elevated, her
PT and aPTT are prolonged, her fibrinogen and platelet count are dramatically
decreased. This is a classic profile for DIC. Thrombocytopenia and the presence of
schistocytes on the peripheral blood smear are also associated with TTP and HUS, but
the abnormal D-dimer and coagulation tests point to DIC.
Which of the following may interfere with the accurate measurement of hemoglobin:
The correct answer is highlighted below
Leukocytosis
EDTA
Heparin
Leukocytosis and lipemia
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Anything that can cause significant turbidity in a blood sample, such as high
leukocyte count or lipemia can potentially interfere with the accuracy of a
spectrophotometric hemoglobin assay.
A known sickle cell trait patient has a hemoglobin electrophoresis test performed.
Which of the following hemoglobin percentage sets would most closely match this
patient's diagnostic state?
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The correct set of patient data would be: Hgb A = 60%, Hgb S = 38%, Hgb A2 = 2%,
Hgb F = 0%
Patients with sickle cell trait commonly have Hgb A values between 40 and 60%, Hgb
S values between 20 and 40% and Hgb A2 values between 2 and 3%.
90%
80%
60%
40%
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A teenage boy is visiting his doctor under the suspicion of a viral illness. He has
always been relatively healthy without many illness-related complaints. The doctor
decides to order a laboratory workup including a complete blood count. A peripheral
blood smear is reviewed. The image on the right is a representative field, with a
predominance of the arrowed cells throughout the smear. Which of the following
conditions would be most consistent with this patient's history and peripheral blood
picture?
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Hereditary Stomatocytosis
Hereditary Elliptocytosis
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Polychromatophilic RBCs
RBCs containing basophilic stippling
RBCs containing Cabot's rings
RBCs containing Pappenheimer bodies
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The cells containing blue particulates in this image are classified as reticulocytes
when using supravital stain. When using Wright stain, the cells would appear larger
and a bit bluer, a key indication of reticulocytes; these cells would be described as
polychromatophilic RBCs on Wright stained smears.
Match the form of red blood cell inclusions in each of the images with a
corresponding clinical condition.
Your answers are on the left. The correct answers are on the right and highlighted.
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True
False
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Monoclonal antibodies are designed to bind only to specific matching antigens. This
principle is what allows for sorting of individual cell lines and populations within a
sample containing a mix of different types of cells.
Leukemias and lymphomas can be diagnosed and staged using monoclonal antibodies
that are specific to their correlating antigens.
Which one of the following anticoagulants is used most commonly for most
coagulation studies?
Potassium oxalate
Sodium citrate
Heparin
EDTA
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Sodium citrate is the anticoagulant of choice for most coagulation studies. EDTA
anticoagulated samples are used most often in hematology and/or blood
bank. Heparinized tubes are common in chemistry testing. Potassium oxalate is most
commonly used for glucose or lactate determinations.
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An increased number of reticulocytes in the peripheral blood is indicative of increased
production of RBCs by the bone marrow.
What is the MOST likely cause of a patient who developed a severe hemolytic
episode after taking anti-malarial drugs, and red cell inclusions caused by denatured
hemoglobin were seen on the differential smear?
G-6-PD deficiency
Thalassemia major
Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
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Calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin content (MCHC) when Hgb = 15 g/dl
(150 g/L), RBC count = 4.50 x 106/µL (4.50 x 1012/L), and Hct = 47% (0.47).
9.5 g/dL
10.4 g/dL
31.9 g/dL
33.9 g/dL
34.7 g/dL
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Which of the following conditions can be associated with the red blood cell
morphologies shown in this image?
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The small, spherical, dense, orange-staining red blood cells shown are spherocytes.
These cells are highly associated with hemolytic anemias. The spherocytes shown in
this image are not indicative of hereditary spherocytosis, as the spherocytes do not
predominate the peripheral blood field.
The small red cells of iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia are pale staining and
are hollow centrally. Microcytes of thalassemia may contain a small central density
giving the appearance of a "target."
Which of the following best represents the quantity of resultant bleed in order of
smallest bleed to largest (assuming identical trauma)?
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The quantity of a bleed in order of smallest bleed to largest would be: Venuole ->
Vein -> Artery.
Match each of the three boxes on the left with the appropriate magnification on the
right:
Your answers are on the left. The correct answers are on the right and highlighted.
How would the RBCs appear on the peripheral blood smear if the red cell indices
obtained on a patient are as follows:
MCV 88.5 f1
MCH 30.2 pg
MCHC 33.1 %
Hypochromic, microcytic
Normochromic, microcytic
Normochromic, normocytic
Hypochromic, normocytic
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MCV normal range = 80-100 fL. This patient has normal RBC size or is
normocytic. MCH normal range = 27-31 pg, MCHC normal range = 32-36%;
therfore the cells are also normochromic as the MCH and MCHC are within normal
limits.
macrophages
lipocytes
tumor cells
megakaryocytes
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Tumor cells generally tend to occur in tight clusters and show prominent nucleoli,
immature chromatin, and scant cytoplasm.
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4:1
5:1
9:1
10:1
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By properly filling the specimen collection tube to the line indicated for coagulation
studies, a 9:1 ratio should be created with the blood-to-anticoagulant in the tube. This
correct ratio is necessary for accurate coagulation test results.
All of the following are true concerning the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
EXCEPT:
Lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
Thrombocytes
Monocytes
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Which beta thalassemia shows no anemia and may not be detected using hemoglobin
electrophoresis?
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Beta thalassemia minima (silent carrier) shows no anemia and may not be detected
using hemoglobin electrophoresis. The silent carrier state of beta thalassemia, Bsc/B,
involves one minor beta chain deletion or mutation. This state produces such a small
drop in the level of beta chain synthesis that the alpha to beta chain ratio remains at a
near normal state.
Heparin
Calcium 2+ ions
Tissue Factor
Thrombin
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Wright’s stain
Peroxidase
Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
Brilliant Cresyl blue
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Which of the following blood smear observations would support the diagnosis of
Multiple Myeloma if a patient demonstrated plasma cells in his bone marrow and had
an elevated serum IgG?
some anisocytosis
some target cells
microcytic RBC's
Rouleaux formation
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Plasma cells in the bone marrow with an increase in IgG is suggestive of multiple
myeloma; which is strongly associated with rouleaux formation due to the increased
immunoglobulins present.
If a sodium citrate sample drawn for coagulation is noted to be filled an inch below
the fill line (black line), then the specimen is considered:
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In coagulation tesing, the sodium citrate tubes MUST be filled to the black line,
meaning properly filled, to ensure the proper ratio of blood to anticoagulant inside of
the tube; which should be 9:1. If the tube is not filled adequately, the specimen must
be not be used for testing and a redraw should be requested.
=====================
Which of the following cells is characterized by a thin rim of cytoplasm around the
nucleus?
The correct answer is highlighted below
Small lymphocyte
Large lymphocyte
Monocyte
Segmented neutrophil
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Small lymphocytes are characterized by a thin rim of cytoplasm around the nucleus.
At times, the cytoplasm may even be difficult to observe if it is scant.
Which of the following viruses is MOST often reported as the cause of infection
leading to aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease?
Adenovirus
Ebstein-Barr virus
Parvovirus B19
Zoster-simplex virus
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Parvovirus B19 is the most common causitive agent of aplastic crisis in sickle cell
disease.
Which of the following viruses is MOST often reported as the cause of infection
leading to aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease?
Adenovirus
Ebstein-Barr virus
Parvovirus B19
Zoster-simplex virus
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Parvovirus B19 is the most common causitive agent of aplastic crisis in sickle cell
disease.
The site most frequently used to collect bone marrow samples from adults is:
The correct answer is highlighted below
sternum
anterior iliac crest
posterior iliac crest
tibia
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The iliac crest is usually considered to be a safer place to harvest bone marrow.
decreased
increased
unchanged
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The life span of an RBC containing Hemoglobin H bodies is decreased because the
RBC membrane is compromised when macrophages attempt to remove this unstable
hemoglobin, which is precipitated just inside the membrane.
True
False
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Differential:
50% segmented neutrophils
20% bands
12% lymphocytes
7% monocytes
1% eosinophils
9% metamyelocytes
1% myelocytes
RBC morphology: normocytic, normochromic
WBC morphology: moderate toxic granulation, slight Dohle body
LAP stain
Nonspecific esterase stain
Acid phosphatase
Oil Red O
Sudan Black B
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Match the conditions listed below with the elements that may be seen on a stained
CSF smear when this condition is present.
Your answers are on the left. The correct answers are on the right and highlighted.
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Hemosiderin deposits would indicate a previous SAH. As red blood cells degenerate
further, the breakdown products are seen in macrophages as dark, granular, iron-laden
hemosiderin deposits.
Neutrophilic pleocytosis may be seen with bacterial meningitis.
The presence of NRBCs in the CSF would point to bone marrow contamination of the
CSF sample. Bone marrow contamination of the CSF can occur if a vertebral process,
which is part of the spinal column vertebra, is nicked or pierced when performing the
lumbar puncture.
Lymphocytic pleocytosis may indicate viral meningitis.
Which one of the following is the mechanism for the production of platelet
satellitism?
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Platelet satellitism is a rare situation in which an IgG antibody is directed against the
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex on the platelet membrane. The antibody-coated platelets
rosette around neutrophils, causing a falsely low platelet count to be recorded with
automated instrumentation. Monocytes may also show some rosetting. No antibodies
are formed against Factor VIII, vWF, or fibrinogen that result in platelet satellitism.
T-lymphocyte
Reactive lymphocyte
Large lymphocyte
Plasma cell
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Plasma cells are the end stage of B lymphocyte maturation; they are not normally seen
in peripheral blood.
Question Difficulty: Level 4
The gene loci for the alpha globin chains are adjacent to the locus for which other
globin chain ?
Beta
Delta
Epsilon
Zeta
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The order of globin gene loci on chromosome 16 is Zeta, Alpha 2, and Alpha 1.
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Factor V
Factor XIII
a&b
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Factor XIII is not measured in the PT or aPTT tests, as this is the clot stabilizing
factor. Factor VIII and Factor IX are measured in aPTT assays. Factor V is measured
in both PT and aPTT tests.
Normal erythrocyte
Small monocyte
Large platelet
Band neutrophil
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The nucleus of a small lymphocyte is about the same size as a normal erythrocyte.
Therefore, it is acceptable to infer red blood cell size when a small lymphocyte is
present in the field to compare to.
Contin
Hemoglobin
DNA
Iron
Phospholipids
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Howell-Jolly bodies are residual fragments of DNA within erythrocytes. They may be
seen in pernicious anemia and thalassemias.
Your answers are on the left. The correct answers are on the right and highlighted.
Which of the following would not be considered a part of the body's cellular immune
system:
Macrophages
Mast cells
Neutrophils
Thrombocytes
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Which of the following would not be represented in the usual classification of anemia:
Microcytic, hypochromic
Normocytic, normochromic
Normocytic, hyperchromic
Macrocytic
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Which of the following conditions will show an increased prothrombin time (PT) with
a normal activated thromboplastin time (aPTT)?
Factor IX deficiency
Factor VII deficiency
Factor VIII definiency
Factor X deficiency
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In factor VII deficiency, the PT test is abnormal while the aPTT test is normal since
factor VII is tested for in the PT test, but not in the aPTT test. Factor IX and VIII
deficiencies would show an abnormal aPTT test witha normal PT test. Finally factor
X deficiency would show an increased PT and aPTT since factor X is utilized in both
tests.