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    4 views33 pages

    8 PMP

    Uploaded by

    Don Roseller Dumaya
    pmp

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    © All Rights Reserved
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    of 33
    1) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the: a) WBS b) Project plan c) Preliminary Scope statement d) None of the above 2) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fuifl the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to the: 2) Force majeure clause ) Fixed price clause ©) Contract obligation terms 4d) None of the above 3) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is a type of. 2) Minor breach _b) Anticipatory breach c) Material breach <6) Fundamental breach 4) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other is under budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both projects as within budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called a) Unethical management -b) Budget tampering ©) Fraudulent reporting ¢) Cost leveling 5) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You should: a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him win b) Reject other vendors and award him the contract ‘Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their ‘decision before you proceed 4) Pretend during meetings that you don't know your brother 66) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work produced by the contractor. You should: a) Neglect the defect if itis trivial .b) Ask the contractor to fix according to SOW ‘¢) Submit a change request 4) None of the above 7) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should: a) Neglect them as they will mostly not occur _b) Add them to a watch list and add to the risk register, ©) Plan detailed response plans d) None of the above 8) One of your team members’ A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project. A hhad informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father ifthe situation arose. You had planned for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if necessary. Now, A has left to see his father and B is filing in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule. This is an example of a a) Residual risk _b) Secondary risk ‘) Contingency plan 4) None of the above 9) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt cohesion in the team. You should: a) Reset award criteria _») Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the team ©) Award only two people 4) Declare that there will be no rewards going forward 10) Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the: ‘a) Request for proposal b) Contract ) Response to bid 4) Statement of work 11) When estimating time for activities, @ PM should: a) Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways _b) Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates c) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers d) None of the above 12) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should: a) Neglect the cultural differences ) Deal with everyone with an iron hand 9) Recognize that there are cultural differences ) Mentor each person 13) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you make the change without having to process a change request: ‘a) Accomodate the change b) Refuse to make the change ©) Sneak the change in when no one is looking d), Request the client that the change management process has to be followed 14) Ifa stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accomodates it a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also aware b) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member 0) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the Integrated Change Control process should be followed 4) Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen 15) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should: a) Refer to the quality pian to see if the product meets specifications b) Refer to project management plan 2) Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure process 4) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects 16) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in a) Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided _) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members ©) Shouldn't be done as it shows preference d) None of the above 17) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should you do? a) Keep them to yourself 0) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs ¢) Sign a non-disclosure agreement 4) None of the above 18) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a different ‘company to the risk. a) Mitigate b) Reject ©) Transfer 8) Avoid 19) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive information, you should: a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team b) Swear the vendor to secrecy 0) Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement <¢) Threaten to take the vendor to court 21) Project scope statement is the output of 2) Scope planning _b) Scope definition ©) Both a and b ) None of the above 22) Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which process: a) Scope verification b) Scope definition 2) Scope control d) All of the above 23) Scope planning takes place: a) After requirements are gathered _b) Early in the project ©) After scope is finalized 4d) None of the above 24) Project charter is, a) An output of Scope planning _b) Input to scope planning ©) Created after preliminary project scope statement 4) All of the above 25) An example of organizational process asset is: a) Company policy document “b) Organizational culture ) Organization structure 4) Organization type 26) Qualitative risk analysis is @ process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management: a) Planning b) Executing .¢) Monitoring 4) Controlling 27) Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management: a) Planning 'b) Executing ©) Monitoring 4) Controlling 28) Risk register is an output of _a) Risk identification ) Qualitative risk analysis ©) Quantitative risk analysis 4) Risk response planning 29) Risk register update is a primary output of: a) Quantitative risk analysis b) Qualitative risk analysis ©) Risk monitoring and control _O)Allof the above 30) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs: a) Risk register updates b) Recommended corrective actions ©) Recommended preventive actions _B)Allof the above 31) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs: _a) Risk register updates ') Risk management plan ©) Risk register 4) Allof the above 82) A risk is @ bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is a) Always true b) Always false ©) Sometimes true {) None of the above 33) The triple constraints in project management are: a) Scope, Time, cost ») Time, scope, performance ©) Scope, Time, plan 4) Scope, Time, quality 34) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared: i) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control process. lil Have to be assessed for impact ii) Can be done without impact analysis ifthe impact is zero or minimal iv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan aii b)ii iit oii iv 4d) None of the above 35) Schedule development produces the following output _a) Project schedule b) WBS ©) Activity time 4) Project pian 36) Critical path is 2) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities b) Difference between end time and start time of project ©) The longest time it takes to complete all project activities @) The shortest time it takes to complete all project activities 37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project: 2) The risk is less as itis divided between the paths _b) The risk is more as the risk of delay is more ©) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated d) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out 38) Dummy activities are used in: a) Activity on arrow diagram ) Activity cecomposition c) Activity list ) Activity duration estimates 39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is: _a) Analogous estimating ) Critical path ©) Expert estimation 4) Compression 40) Crashing: - a) Is a schedule compression technique ») Increases cost ©) Is achieved by adding resources (9) All of the above 41) Fast tracking: a) Is a schedule compression technique b) Does sequential activities in parallel ©) Increases risk of rework A) All of the above 42) Quality audit: i) Is a tool in Perform quality assurance ii) Checks the efficiency of the quality process il) Tries to improve product acceptance iv) Reduce overall cost of quality a); iv °D) None of the above ©) Allof the above yi, i 43) Ishikawa diagrams are also called: .a) Fishbone diagrams ) Causal diagrams ©) Stick diagrams 4) Bone diagrams 44) Some managers believe that people do not work wilingly and must be watched and managed continuosly. They are of type a) Theory X b) Theory Y ©) Theory XY 4) Theory V 45) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his motivation. This forms the basis of: a) Theory Y .b) Maslow’s hierarchy ‘) Theory X 4) None of the above 46) Locating all team members in the same location is called: a) War room _b) Collocation ©) Teleconferencing 4) Telecommuting 47) Noise is: _a) Any interference in sending or comprehending a message b) False information ©) Introduced in electronic signals 4) None of the above 48) A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is 21s b) 10 os ¢) None of the above 49) Email communication is: a) Formal style, written _b) Informal style, written °) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b 50) A technique used to identify root causes of issues is: a) Fish bone diagram ) Quality check ©) Issue list d) Defect review 51) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is: a) Resource leveling (b) Resource histogram ©) Resource chart 4) Gantt chart 52) Resource leveling: i) Is the allocation of resources to resolve overallocation issues ii) Helps resolve resource conflicts li) Can impact cost of project iv) Can only be done with project management software ili, iv 53) An activity on the critical path has: a) Non-zero float b) Negative free float 9) Zero free float ) None of the above 54) if CPI=1.3, SPI=.8, what's the status of the project? 1a) Over budget and behind schedule ‘b) Under budget and behind schedule ©) Under budget and ahead of schedule ) Over budget and ahead of schedule '55) Project Scope management plan isn output of: 2) Scope planning ) Scope definition ©) Both a and b 2) None of the above 110, the schedule performance index 57) Eamed value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is: a) 0.01 »)20 20.833 )-20 58) The four stages in team development are: 2) Forming, storming, norming, performing ') Forming, storming, norming, reforming ©) Forming, norming, reforming, performing 4) Planning, forming, storming, performing 59) Theory Y assumes employees: 2) Are self-motivated “’b) Have to be micro-managed ‘) Work only for money 4) Are not ambitious 60) Low-priorty risks should be: a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updated 'b) Removed from the watch list ) Removed from the risk register 4) Informed to the customer 61) A technique used in Expert Judgement to determine probability of risk is: _Blnterviews with experts, 'b) Risk ranking ©) Risk register updates 4) Risk response plan 62) Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform: a) Qualitative risk analysis (b) Quantitative risk analy ©) Decision tree analysis d) Risk response 63) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are: a) Risk register ) Risk management plan ) Cost management plan 9) All of the above 64) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are: a) Organizational process assets b) Schedule management pian ) Cost management pian Ad) All of the above 65) Toolsitechniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are: a) Expert judgement b) Decision tree analysis ©) Modeling 9) Allof the above 66) ‘Plan risk responses’ process involves: a) Planning to decrease threats to the project .b) Planning to benefit from possible opportunities “c) Both of the above <4) Only A 67) Examine the statement-“A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or trivial the risk is, respective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process.” This statement is: a) Always true Db) Always faise ‘¢) Sometimes true ) Sometimes false 68) Positive risks are also called: a) Good risks b) Opportunities ©) Advantages ¢) Project plusses 69) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are: a) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept D) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, reject ©) Accept, transfer, mitigate, reject 6) Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate 70) Scope verification and Scope contol belong to: a) Planning process group b) Inating proces group ©) Executing process group 4) Monitoring and Control process group 71) In a fixed price contract, the risk: _2) lies more with the vendor ») lies more with the buyer ©) is the same for vendor and buyer 4) Can't say 72) In a time-materials contract, the risk 2) ies more with the vendor ) lies more with the buyer “O) is the same for vendor and buyer 4d) Can't say 73) Purchasing insurance is a form of a) Avoiding ) Transferring ‘c) Mitigating 4) Working around 74) The only output of the Identify Risks process is: a) Risk analysis, _b) Risk register (e) Risk monitor 4) Risk response plan 75) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are: _a) Exploit, share, enhance, accept ) Exploit, share, enhance, adjust ) Expioit, simulate, enhance, accept 4) Exploit, share, prototype, accept 76) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in 2) Expert judgement interview results ») Risk register ©) Risk management plan d) Workshops 77) Toolsitechniques used in Plan Procurements process are: 2) Make or buy analysis b) Expert judgement ©) Contract types G)Allof the above 78) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for: a) the buyer b) the vendor ‘@)both buyer and vendor 4d) Neither as these are sunk costs 78) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called: 2) Procurement documents 'b) Vendor documents ©) Bidding documents 4) Contract documents 80) Create WBS belongs to: 2) Initiating >) Executing ©) Closing _) None of the above 81) Closing a Project involves: a) Updating organization process assets b) Closing contract c) Creating documentation, archives, and lessons learned 8) All of the above 82) Administrative closure is an output of a) Project Administration process _b) Close Project process ©) Monitor project process 6) Risk management process 83) ‘Gold plating is 2) Beating customer expectations ») Producing excellent deliverables _2)Soting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk tothe project 4) Allof the above 84) CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in: a) PO with standard item ‘D)PO with variable item c) Request for proposal d) Price-free contracts 85) WBS is created in a) Scope management process “D)Risk management process ©) Planning process <6) Monitor and control process 86) A toollrechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is: a) Political factors _b) Organization chart °e) Personnel policies 4) Interpersonal factors 87) RBS stands for: a) Resource breakdown structure b) Risk breakdown structure 9) Both a and b ‘d) Neither a nor b 88) Which of the following is true? a) RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consutt-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility Assignment matrix) b) RAM shows the resources’ responsibilities on the project ©) RAM and RACI are matrix-based charts S)All of the above 89) ‘Scope’ of projectis: a) Any work committed to orally with customer _b) Only work that has to be completed to successfully nish project ©) Any work that customer requires to be completed 4) Only work that can be completed within project duration 90) Tools for Plan Quality are: a) Cost-benefit analysis b) Control charts ©) Benchmarking AAI of the above 91) Crosby's cost of quality theory of ‘zero defects" is based on: a) Prevention °b) Correction ) Conformance 4) Fitness for use 92) Juran’s fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as: a) Continuous improvement _b) Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectations ‘c) Making a product that is easy to use d) Making a product with zero defects 93) ‘Budget at Completion’ is also called a) Actual cost b) Budgeted cost of work performed ) Eamed value _d) Planned value for the project {94) Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts: a) Cost plus incentive fee ) Cost plus fixed fee ©) Cost plus fee A) All of the above 95) A critical activity is something that: a) Is crucial for the project to be completed successfully b) Needs to be signed of by the stakeholder ©) An activity on the critical path in the project schedule ‘d) An activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity 96) A dummy activity has: 2) Infinite duration b) Zero duration “c)No importance 6) Allof the above 97) Residual risk is a risk: a) Found in reserve analysis _b) That remains after all risk responses have been implemented c) That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk response d) None of the above 98) Scope planning and Scope definition belong to: 2) Planning process group ©) Intiating proces group ©) Executing process group d) Monitoring and Control process group 99) A room used for project planning, and where team members work on issue resolution is called: a) Conference room ) Resolution room 2) War room ‘d) Video conferencing room 100) Estimate to Completion’ can be calculated as: a) EAC-AC b) BAC-EAC ©) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b 101) An average PM spends 50% of her time on: 2) Meetings “By Issue resolution ©) Managing stakeholders 6) Risk analysis 102) The cost of a contractor is $25 per hour. Two contractors working for 10 hours will cost $500. This is an example of: a) Analogous estimating _b) Perametric estimating ©) Three-point estimating 4) Bottom-up estimating 103) Using PERT, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information: Pessimistic time=5 hours, Optimistic time=2 hours, Most likely time=5 hours, The answer is: a) 4.5 hours b) 3 hours ©) § hours 4d) 1.5 hours 104) The cost management plan can establish: a) Control thresholds, ) Organizational procedure links ©) Earned value rules ®)Allof the above 105) The revenue eared from doing a project is $1000. The costs involved sum to $500. The benefit cost ratio is: a)2 dos ) 500000 4) None of the above 106) Ifthe Benefit cost ratio is > 4, then: a) Costs are greater than benefits _b) Benefits are greater than costs ‘e) Cannot be determined 4) Depends on other factors 107) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Budgeted cost of work scheduled=$2000. The schedule performance index is: 2) 05 b)2 ©) 1000 4) None of the above 108) Earned value=$2000. Planned value=$2500. The schedule performance index is: 208 b) 1.25 c) 500 1d) None of the above 109) Budgeted cost of work performed=81000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000 The cost performance index is: 205 b)2 ©) 1000 4) None of the above 110) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost variance is: 2)-1000 b)2 ©) 1000 d) None of the above 111) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, the variance can occur again. The estimate at completion is: a) $1000 b) $1400 ©) $800 4) None of the above 112) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, the variance will not occur again. The estimate at completion is: a) $1000 b) $1200 ©) $800 d) None of the above 113) Phase-end reviews are called: a) Phase exits b) Stage gates ©) Kill points a) All of the above 114) The following is true about risk of failing: __2) tis higher inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project continues b) it remains the same thoughout the project 6) It is lesser inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project continues d) None of the above 4115) In a functional organization structure, the PM's authority is a) Little or none b) Limited ©) Low ) Moderate 146) In a strong matrix organization structure, the PM's authority is: a) High to almost total b) Limited ©) Low to moderate a) Moderate to high 117) Ina ptojectized organization structure, the PM's authority is: a) High ») Limited _o)High to almost total @) Moderate to high 118) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by: a) Functional manager b) Project manager 9) Mixed ‘d) None of the above 119) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step management method is: (a) Plan-Do-Check-Act ) Plan-Act-Check-Do ©) Plan-Act-Do-Cheok 4) None of the above 120) 'Perform quality control’ belongs to: 1a) Monitoring process group b) Executing process group ©) Controlling process group _d).Monitoring and controlling process group Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to FacebookShare to Pinterest 121) Administer procurements belongs to: a) Initiating process group b) Executing process group ©) Controlling process group _) Monitoring and controlling process group 122) Which of these is a reason to start a project: a) Problem b) Market ©) Opportunity _9) Al ofthe above 123) Which of the following is true about project charter: a) Authorizes a project ») Gives project manager authority ©) Itis issued by the sponsor with the authority to fund 9) All of the above 124) The project charter contains: _a\Business needs b) Risks. c) Quality plan d) None of the above 125) Scope baseline includes: a) WBS b) WBS dictionary ©) Project scope statement 9) All of the above 126) Which of the following is true about project closure: a) Contract closure is for each contract, ) Contract closure includes product verification and administrative closure ©) Administrative closure happens to close the project or each phase _A)All of the above 427) Administrative closure: ‘a) Happens once to close the project or each project phase bb) Needed to confirm that all deliverables have been provided ©) Ensures that official acceptance document has been obtained 8) Allof the above 128) Which of the below are project selection methods: a) Cost-benefit analysis, b) Payback period ©) Net present value _8) Allof the above 129) WBS, 2) Prevents work from slipping through the cracks b) Is the basis for estimates ©) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project plan S)Allof the above 130) Principal sources of project failure: a) Poorly identified customer needs ) Poor planning c) Poor control ADA of the above 131) Most change requests are because of: a) An omission in defining product/project scope b) A value-adding change ©) An external event A)All of the above 192) Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique: _a) Brainstorming ') Risk identification ©) Stakeholder creative communication 4) Powerpoint presentations 133) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS? a) It doesn't include product work b) It does not include PM work ©) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra work may be completed _d) None of the above 134) Critical chain method ané critical path method are tools and techniques used in which process of the Project Time management area? a) Estimate activity resources b) Control schedule _2)Develop schedule 4d) Estimate activity durations 135) Resource leveling is a tooltechnique used in which process in Project Time Management overview? a) Develop schedule ) Control schedule 2) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b 136) Project Time Management is @ process needed to: a) Ensure timely completion of project b) Track time taken for each activity ©) Bill the client for each hour of work done 4d) None of the above 137) The outputs of ‘Activity Definition’ and ‘Create WBS’ respectively are: 2) Activities and WBS b) Components and Work pieces _) Schedule activity and deliverable <) None of the above 198) Arrow diagramming method does not use: a) Float b) Finish to start relationship 199) Which of the following is a discretionary dependency for schedule: a) Preferential logic b) Soft logic ©) Preferred logic _S)AIlof the above 140) Lead allows of successor activity: a) Acceleration b) Deceleration ©) Tracking 4) Regression 141) Lag results in of successor activity: 2) Acceleration _b) Delay ©) Tracking ¢) Regression 142) Contingency reserve is for: 2) Known unknowns b) Remaining risk after risk response planning c) Both a and b “d) Neither a nor b 143) Management reserve Is for: a) Unknown unknowns 'b) Covered by cost budget ©) Both a and b {d) Neither 2 nor b 1144) Outputs of Monitor and control project work are: a) Recommended corrective actions b) Recommended preventive actions 0) Requasted changes _8) Allof the above 445) Crashing and Fast tracking are techniques used for: a) Project management b) Cost reduction ©) Schedule compression ) Schedule estimation 146) Cost baseline is: a) Used to monitor cost performance on the project b) A time-phased budget ©) Used to measure cost performance on the project A) All of the above 147) The difference between maximum funding and the end of cost baseline is: _a) Management reserve ) Cost baseline ©) Cost overrun d) None of the above 148) Identifying quality standards relevant to the porject and determing how to satisfy them is: 2) Quality planning ) Quality assurance c) Quality control 4) Quality management 149) Applying planned, systematic quaity activities to ensure that proejct employs all processes needed to meet requirement is 2) Quality planning ) Quality assurance “c) Quality contro! d) Quality management 150) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance is: a) Quality planning b) Quality assurance 2), Quality control ‘¢) Quality management 151) Choosing a part of a population of interest for inspection is: a) Scatter diagram _b) Statistical sampling ©) Inspection 4) Defect repair 152) Inspections are also called: a) Product reviews b) Audits ¢) Walkthroughs _d) All of the above 153) Staff Management Plan contains: a) Staff acquisition b) Release oriteria ©) Training needs A) All of the above 154) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes: a) Five stages of team development b) Modelling __0)} Offering more freedom as the team matures <4) None of the above 15) Autocratic, consultative, Directing and Facilitating are examples of: _a) Leadership styles 'b) Team building style ©) Planning style 4) None of the above 156) Which of the following can result in conflicts: a) Schedule b) Project priorities ©) Resources S)Allof the above 157) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is: a) Referent DLExpert ©) Reward ) Penalty 158) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from everyone is? a) Smoothing _b) Collaborating c) Recognizing d) Withdrawal 159) Which is the best technique to resolve conflicts in a team: 2) Confrontation 'b) Accomodation ©) Compromise 4) Smoothing 160) The motivational theory that focuses onteem, lifetime employment and collective decision making is: a) Theory X b) Theory Y oh Theory Z ¢d) Masiows hierarchy of needs 161) Expectancy theory is based on motivation in terms of expectations people have about: a) Their ability to perform effectively on the job ) The rewards they expect if they perform well ©) Satisfaction they will obtain from rewards _A)All of the above 162) In a communication model, the method used to convey the message is: a) Email b) Medium ) Language ¢) Decoding 163) Notes and memos are examples of communication type a) Formal written b) Informal writen “C} Formal verbal d) Informal verbal 164) Some barriers to communication channels are: 2) Lack of clear communication channels ) Physical distance ) Environmental factors _6)Allof the above 165) The management style that cultivates team spirit, rewards good work, and encourages team to realize their potential is: a) Facilitating _b) Promotional ) Conciliatory 4) Authoritarian 166) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires team is: a) Communicating _b) Leading ©) Influencing the organization 4) Problem solving 167) Tools used in risk identification are: a) Delphi technique »b) Brainstorming ©) Interviewing 0) All of the above 168) Risk register as an output of risk identification contains: a) Identified risks and responses b) Risk categories ¢) Root causes of risks 0) Allof the above 169) Most of the project manager's time is spent on’ ) Project Planning bL.Communication ©) Risk management d) Tracking 170) Most of a project's resources are spent on: a) Direct and manage Project execution process Project planning ©) Quality controt 2) Risk management 171) Output of Direct and manage project execution process is: a) Project plan b) Preliminary scope statement ©) Preliminary cost estimate 9) Deliverables 172) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you leamt on your previous. projects as PM? a) Executing phase ») Planning phase ©) Throughout the project ‘d) Monitoring and controlling phase 173) Administrative closure a) Can be omitted sometimes _b) Should always be done 0)|s the same as contract closure 4) None of the above 174) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in: a) Planning phase ») Initiating phase _) Implementation phase 4d) Closing phase 175) Interpersonal skills and Management skills are tools to: _a) Manage stakeholder expectations ) Report performance ©) Distribute information 4) Plan communications 176) The too! that assigns @ numeric weight, rates sellers based on total weight is _alWeighting system b) Independent estimates ©) Screening system ) Expert judgement 177) Bidder conferences are a tool to _a)Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of procurement needs 'b) Screen contractors ) Award contracts to the winning bidder d) None of the above 178) You send a formal request to each vendor for a service. This is used as the basis upon which the vendor prepares a bid for the requested service. The formal request you sent is called: a) Contract b) Purchase Order |2)Procurement Document Package d) None of the above 179) Monitor and control project work is essential to _2) Ensure project is being executed to plan ) Prepare project plan ©) Prepare scope statement ¢) Prepare WBS 180) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance evaluation documentation are examples of a) Organizational Process Assets ) Request for proposal ) Project management plan 481) Project charter i) Includes preliminary project budget at summary level ii) ls created during the Develop Project Charter process ii) Includes a milestone-level schedule iv) Includes high level project requirements a) None of the above DIA of the above o)a.b dabc 182) A contract can end by: a) Successful performance b) Mutual agreement ) Breach of contract _A) Allof the above 183) A procurement audit is: a) An evaluation of vendor’s performance on contract, b) Evaluation of procurement process _£)Both a and b

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