3.

Do you think there is any difference between the historical Richard and
Shakespeare’s Richard? How do you account for the difference/lack of
difference [your view].

Yes, there are differences.

Shakespeare’s famous play summarises Richard’s alleged murder victims in the list of ghosts who
prevent his sleep on the last night of his life. These comprise Edward of Westminster (putative son of
King Henry VI); Henry VI himself; George, Duke of Clarence; Earl Rivers; Richard Grey and Thomas
Vaughan; Lord Hastings; the ‘princes in the Tower’; the Duke of Buckingham and Queen Anne Neville.

But Clarence, Rivers, Grey, Vaughan and Buckingham were all executed (a legal process), not
murdered: Clarence was executed by Edward IV (probably on the incentive of Elizabeth Woodville).
Rivers, Grey and Vaughan were executed by the Earl of Northumberland, and Hastings and
Buckingham were executed by Richard III because they had conspired against him. Intriguingly, similar
subsequent actions by Henry VII are viewed as a sign of ‘strong kingship’!

There is no evidence that Edward of Westminster, Henry VI, the ‘princes in the Tower’ or Anne Neville
were murdered by anyone. Edward of Westminster was killed at the battle of Tewkesbury, and Anne
Neville almost certainly died naturally. Also, if Richard III really had been a serious killer in the
interests of his own ambitions, why didn’t he kill Lord and Lady Stanley – and John Morton?

Morton had plotted with Lord Hastings in 1483, but while Hastings was executed, Morton was only
imprisoned. As for the Stanleys, Lady Stanley was involved in Buckingham's rebellion. And in June
1485, when the invasion of his stepson, Henry Tudor was imminent, Lord Stanley requested leave to
retire from court. His loyalty had always been somewhat doubtful. Nevertheless, Richard III simply
granted Stanley's request - leading ultimately to the king's own defeat at Bosworth.