Cet 500 PDF

CET 500
CET 500
Published by IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd.
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Introduction
CET 500: This book will also help you prepare for NMAT, MAT, Bank Exams, SNAP,
TISS, ATMA etc.
About the Test
MH-CET (Maharashtra Common entrance test) is the test of admission for MBA/MMS/PGDM programmes in various
colleges of Maharshtra.
Selection Process MH-CET- Area wise structure over the years
No. Of Questions
Area
2012 2011 2010 2009 2008
Stage of Selection Marks Alloted Quantitative Aptitude 25 22 15 15 25
Common Entrance Test 200 Data Interpretation 15 20 20 25 20
(CET)
Data Sufficiency 7 5 5 10 5
Group Discussion (GD) 17
Logical Reasoning 58 48 54 53 51
Personal Interview (PI) 17
Past Academic Record 4 Visual Reasoning 30 25 30 30 30
(PAR) Verbal Ability and Verbal
55 48 61 52 54
Work experience (WE) 2 Reasoning
Total 240 Reading Comprehension 10 32 15 15 15
Total 200 200 200 200 200
About the CET 500 Question Booklet

CET 500 has been designed to provide you ample practice on the areas tested in the MH-CET. The book begins
with Actual CET 2011 paper and is then divided into 10 sections (as seen in the Index on the next page) representing
the areas mentioned in the above table. This book will expose you to all the different question types that have
appeared in MH-CET over the past 5 years under various areas. Explanatory answers for all the sections have
been provided at the end of the booklet.
A Sample CET test containing 200 questions based on actual CET 2008, 2009 and 2010 patterns (at the end
of this booklet) will help you assess your performance after practising all 500 questions in the booklet.
To enhance your performance in the MH-CET, it is advisable to take the SimCET Test Series. This contains 8
Simulated tests with Performance Evaluation Report (ranking, percentile)
To enrol with us fill the Enrolment Form given at the end of the booklet.
How to use this Booklet
• Take the Actual CET 2011 test to understand CET structure. Analyse the test thoroughly.
• Solve all the questions from each of the 10 areas of the test.
• Look at explanatory answers to understand the approach to questions that you were not able to get correct.
• Also look at the answers, for the questions attempted correctly; you might find some different approach.
• Take the Sample CET test once you complete solving the 500 questions.
• Score yourself with the help of the explanatory answers provided.
• Take the 8 SimCETs and 12 Comprehensive Tests of IMS to track your performance.
Finally, a few tips for the D – Day
1. Stay calm and focused. Do not stress yourself by worrying.
2. On the eve of the CET, sleep early and be fresh the next day.
3. Carry your test Admit card, pencils, Black ball point pen etc. and reach the venue early.
4. Read the instructions before each group of questions and solve the easy questions first.
5. Remember CET is a test of speed. Skip a difficult question, come back to it later and attempt all questions
since there are no negative marks.
All the Best!!!
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INDEX
A] Actual CET 2011 Paper (200 ques.) ............................................................................ 1
B] 10 Areas in MH-CET (500 ques.)
• VERBAL ABILITY (100 ques.) ....................................................................................... 38
• READING COMPREHENSION (35 ques.) ........................................................................ 49
• VERBAL REASONING - I (60 ques.) ............................................................................. 56
• VERBAL REASONING - II (25 ques.) ............................................................................ 64
• DATA INTERPRETATION (40 ques.) ............................................................................. 68
• QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (50 ques.) ........................................................................... 74
• DATA SUFFICIENCY (40 ques.) ..................................................................................... 80
• VISUAL REASONING (60 ques.) .................................................................................... 85
• LOGICAL REASONING - I (55 ques.) ........................................................................... 91
• LOGICAL REASONING - II (35 ques.) .......................................................................... 98
C] SAMPLE CET (200 ques.) ................................................................................................ 102
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (Actual CET 2011 Paper) ......................................................... 125
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (10 Areas in MH-CET) .............................................................. 137
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (SAMPLE CET) ........................................................................... 177
NOTE: Contact the IMS Centre in case you wish to enroll for CET Classroom, CET Correspondence or CET
Test series programmes.
CET 500
CET 2011 ACTUAL PAPER

Questions : 200 Time : 150 min.
Max. Marks : 200 No Negative Marking
Disclaimer – All questions from this paper are memory based and representative of the Actual
CET 2011 Test. This paper contains the new variety of questions that appeared in CET 2011.
DIRECTIONS for question 1: Read the short passage and answer the question.
1. Researchers at the International Academy of Sciences advised that every day we should consume
at least one food item which is rich in fibre – preferably one or two fruits – it proves beneficial
especially to the patients suffering from type I and II diabetes.
Which of the following is an inference from the above statement?
1] Not including fibre in the diet at all may create some health risks.
2] Many people do not have sufficient fibre intake in their daily diet.
3] The fibre intake requirement might vary among individuals depending on their genes.
4] Only patients suffering from type I and II diabetes require a diet which is rich in fibre.
5] Adequate fibre intake is important in order to maintain good health.
DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 5: A passage is followed by statements and then questions. Answer
the questions.
Laughing exercise in the morning is considered to be the best medicine but doctors suggest
that it many trigger serious asthma attack in case of patients with respiratory disorders.
1] Study showed 2/3 of people with respiratory disorders had asthma attacks after a laughing
session in the morning.
2] The general statement that laughing exercise is good for everyone is false.
3] There have been cases where patients suffering from respiratory ailments have been cured
with the help of laughing exercise.
4] Laughing exercise done in morning is more effective than those that are done in the evening.
5] Many groups conducting laughing exercises have now started seeking medical health report
before allowing a person to join the group.
2. Which statement is an effect?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
3. Which statement is a conclusion?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
4. Which statement substantiates the main argument?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
IMS-36-2-AL-OC-A-CET500 1
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5. Which statement weakens the argument?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Which completes the second series in the same way as the
top series:
6. 7796.25 1417.5 315 90 36 24 Find d.

5197.5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] 18 2] 20 3] 24 4] 32 5] 36
7. 5050 1015 208 46.6 14.32 7.864 Find a.

6500 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] 1750 2] 1500 3] 1000 4] 1275 5] 1305
8. 3 10 32 111 460 2315 Find c.

4.5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] 36 2] 120 3] 496 4] 140 5] 64
9. 12 7 8.5 14.75 32 83 Find b.

22 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] 13.5 2] 16 3] 18 4] 11.5 5] 16.5
10. 897 681 556 492 465 457 Find e.

815 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] 425 2] 275 3] 300 4] 375 5] 400
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 19: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering
some of the questions.
“Rivers should link, not divided us” said the Indian Prime Minister, expressing concern over interstate
disputes and urged state governments to show “understanding and consideration, statesmanship and
an appreciation of the other point of view.
Water conflicts in India now reach every level; divide every segment of our society, political parties,
states, regions and sub-regions within states, districts, castes and groups and individual farmers.
Water conflicts within and between many developing countries are also taking a serious turn. Fortunately,
the water wars, forecasted by so many, have not yet materialized. War has taken place, but
over oil, not water. Water is radically altering and affecting political boundaries all-over world,
between as well as within countries. In India, water conflicts are likely to worsen before they
begin to be resolved. Till then they pose significant threat to economic growth, security and health
of the ecosystem and the victims are likely to be the poorest of the poor as well as the very
sources of water-river, wetlands and aquifers.
Conflicts might sound bad or negative, but they are logical developments in the absence of proper
democratic, legal and administrative mechanisms to handle issues at the root of water conflicts.
2 IMS-36-2-AL-OC-A-CET500
CET 500
Part of the problem stems from the specific nature of water namely that water is divisible and
amenable to sharing; one unit of water used by someone is a unit denied to others. It has multiple
uses and user and involves resultant trade-offs. Excludability is an inherent problem and very
often exclusion costs involved are very high. It involves the issue of graded scales and boundaries
and need for evolving a corresponding understanding around them.
Finally the way water is planned, used and managed causes externalities-both positive and negative,
and many of them are unidirectional and asymmetric.
There is a relatively greater visibility as well as greater body of experience in evolving policies.
Frameworks, legal set-ups and administrative mechanisms dealing with immobile natural resources.
However contested the space may be, reformists as well as revolutionary movements are rooted
in issues related to land. Several political and legal interventions addressing the issue of equity
and societal justice have been attempted. Most countries have gone through land reforms of one
type or the other. Issues related to forests have also generated a body of comprehensive literature
on forest resources and rights. Although conflicts over them have not necessarily been effectively
or adequately resolved, they have received much more serious attention, have been studied in their
own right and practical as well as theoretical means of dealing with them have been sought. In
contrast water conflicts have not received the same kind of attention.
11. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to:

1] Showcase government commitment to solve the water distribution problem.
2] Make a strong case for war as the logical resolution for water conflicts.
3] Point out the seriousness of the threat posed by unresolved water conflicts.
4] Describe, how the very nature of water contributes to water struggles.
5] Criticize governmental efforts for water conflict resolution.
12. Which of the following is True in the context of the passage?
1] Water wars are taking place between many developing countries
2] There have been several legal interventions in India to govern the use of water resources.
3] The poor people are worst affected by water conflicts.
4] Water diversion by Indian states has helped resolve water disputes
5] None of these.
13. According to the author which of the following is/are consequences of water conflicts?
I. Trans-border conflicts between developing countries.
II. Water bodies will remain unused and unaffected till the conflict is resolved.
III. Water conflicts have altered the political boundaries within countries.
1] Only I 2] Only II 3] Only III
4] Both I & III 5] None of the above
14. Why does the author ask readers not to view conflicts too negatively?
I. Most countries have survived them easily.
II. They bring political parties together.
III. They only affect the grass root levels.
4] All I, II & III 5] None of the above
CET
15. According to author which of the following factor aggravates water disputes?
1] Political interventions
2] Excessive analysis of the issue
3] Reformist movements by political parties.
4] Inadequate administrative and legislative frameworks.
5] None of the above
16. Which of the following can be inferred about water conflicts?

1] Water management techniques like dams, linking rivers etc. have negative consequences.
2] There is no real solution to water conflicts
3] Despite receiving much attention water conflicts remain unresolved.
4] Water conflicts threaten the livelihood of those who depend on water sources.
17. What is the Prime Minister’s advice to resolve water disputes?

1] Link all rivers to make national grid 2] Politicians alone can solve the problem.
3] Bridges and dams can resolve water issues. 4] Make consensual and conscious efforts.
18. Which of the following is Not true?
1] Water is not a divisible resource. 2] Manipulation of water distribution is easy.
3] Water is an interconnected resource. 4] Water is an immobile resource
19. Which of the following is Not True in the context of the passage.?
1] Deeper problems exist at the root of all water conflicts
2] Competing uses of water is a cause of water conflict.
3] In India water conflicts affect all levels.
4] Only social stability is un-affected by water disputes.
5] All are true.
20. What is minimum number of identical square tiles required to tile floor of length 6 m 24 cm
and breadth 4 m 80 cm.
1] 110 2] 130 3] 120 4] 100 5] 125
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 and 22: Each question is followed by two statements I and II. Answer
each question using the following instructions.
Mark [1], if the question can be answered by using statement I alone.
Mark [2], if the question can be answered by using statement II alone.
Mark [3], if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [4], if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [5], if question cannot be answered.
21. Is Y an odd number (X and Y both are Positive integers)

I. The product of X and Y is 16 II. Y > X
CET 500
22. Is X a prime number (X is Positive integer)

I. X3 > 300 II. X3 > 700
DIRECTIONS for question 23: Choose the correct alternative.

23. A man buys bank's cash certificates every year for a value receding last year's purchase by
Rs. 400. After 24 years he finds total value of certificates purchased by him is Rs. 1,44,000.
What is the value of certificates purchased by him in 13th year?
1] 5600 2] 5800 3] 6000 4] 6200 5] 6500
DIRECTIONS for questions 24. to 27: Read the following passage and answer the questions given
below the set of statements 'a' to 'e'.
India & China make competing plans for river Brahmaputra's precious waters. Dams for hydropower
projects planned are stated to have a potential of 20000MW. There is apprehension in Indian Water
and Power ministry that China's similar dam construction programs on the same river could adversely
affect potential.
a) The Brahmaputra river passes through both countries.
b) India should take a lead before China does.
c) Building dams at multiple locations in river would create environmental problems.
d) Dam built by China led to severe floods in India.
e) Similar dams built on river Xiang did not affect power generation capacity of dams of either
countries.
24. Which sentence is an Assumption?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
25. Which sentence weakens the argument?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
26. Which sentence eases the concern on Indian government?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
27. Which sentence is a course of action for India to benefit?

1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 33: Read the passage and answer the questions given below.
The truly futuristic-sounding 2011 - as opposed to the APJ Abdul Kalam-sounding 2020 - is finally
upon us. Okay, so we still don't have anti-gravity cars, lunar colonies and mindless sex with robots.
But surely, in the age of Facebook, Twitter and the reversible belt, we can expect something truly
technogoggling to set us apart from those archaic lot who roamed the Earth in the first decade
of this century, loudly cheering the wonders of iPod, chatrooms and Lady Gaga couture? What
are we told we'll get by the early months of 2011? A universal mobile charger. Yes, you read
that right: a bloody universal mobile charger.
It turns out that sometime last year, the European Commission (EC) decided on a common mobile
CET
charger for all mobile telephones. We were told that no longer would we have to scrounge for
a caste-based charger - a BlackBerry owner hunting down a fellow BlackBerry owner while looking
to charge his depleted phone, or a Nokia handset person helping out a fellow Nokiaite when the
cell bars are blinking. Very soon, we will all be using a micro-USB socket for all our new phones.
If you are devastatingly underwhelmed by that empowerment - coming especially from a place
talking about finding the God particle by smashing sub atomic particles in subterranean Geneva
- you are not alone. It is not the kind of invention that historian of ideas, Thomas Kuhn would
have counted as paradigm shifting. The fact that your electrical appliances shop has been providing
multiformated sockets add to the disappointment .So while EC thinks its unleashing a common
breakthrough we suggest that you keep waiting for a really we are in a future device to appear.
28. The author thinks that/ is:

1] Excited about UMC
2] UMC is paradigm shift technology
3] UMC in some local form is available in India
4] 2020 has arrived in 2011 as far as device
5] Anti gravity cars have become reality.
29. 'When the cell bars are blinking' actually means ______________
30. The author's views are

1] not shared by many 2] shared by many
3] contradictory to facts 4] contradictory to views of younger generation
5] in sync with views of EC
31. "Scrounge for" means

1] borrow 2] give 3] swipe 4] rip off 5] negotiate
32. ipod is:

1] welcomed by present generation 2] old technology
3] considered a setting apart device 4] in same league as facebook
5] about to work on UMC
33. Tone of author is:

1] positive 2] optimist 3] pessimistic
4] technogoggling 5] sarcastic
DIRECTIONS for questions 34 to 39:

Mark 1, if A > B, Mark 2, if B > A, Mark 3, if A > B, Mark 4, if B > A,
Mark 5, if A = B or if no relation exists
2 2
æ 8 ö æ 8 ö
34. A = ç ÷ , B = ç ÷
è 15 ø è 15 ø
35. A = (–9)6, B = (–9)5
CET 500
36. Y2 + Z2 = 52 and YZ = 24
A = Y 2 + 2YZ + Z 2
B = (Y + Z) 2
37. X = 3Y + 3
Y = –3
A = X, B = –6
38. 2X + 4Y > 10
A = 4X + 8Y
B = 25
6
39. A =
100
0.036
B =
6
DIRECTIONS for questions 40 to 45: A set of 3 statements are given followed by two separate
sets of conclusions. Identify the conclusion that follows from the three statements and accordingly
Mark [1] if only I follows;
Mark [2] if only II follows;
Mark [3] if either I or II follow;
Mark [4] if neither I nor II follow;
Mark [5] if both follow:
For questions 40 and 41:

Some balls are points. All balls are pens. All pens are gels.
40. I. Some gels are balls. II. All pens are balls.
41. I. At least some balls are gels. II. All points are gels.

No shoe is glove .All gloves are caps. All caps are jacket.
42. I. At least some shoes are caps. II. All gloves are jacket.
43. I. No shoe is jacket. II. Some shoes are jackets

All countries are streets. No street is flag. Some flags are avenues.
44. I. Some avenue being streets is a possibility. II. Some counties are flags.
45. I. No avenue is country. II. Some streets are flags.
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 55: Read both passages I and II given below and answer the
questions that follow.
PASSAGE I
Talk to those people who first saw films when they were silent, and they will tell you the experience
was magic. The silent film had extraordinary powers to draw members of an audience into the
story, and an equally potent capacity to make their imaginations work. It required the audience
to become engaged – to supply voices and sound effects. The audience was the final, creative
contributor to the process of making a film.
The finest films of the silent era depended on two elements that we can seldom provide today
– a large and receptive audience and a well-orchestrated score. For the audience, the fusion
of picture and live music added up to more than the sum of the respective parts.
The one word that sums up the attitude of the silent filmmakers is enthusiasm, conveyed most
strongly before formulas took shape and when there was more room for experimentation. This
enthusiastic uncertainty often resulted in such accidental discoveries as new camera or editing techniques.
Some films experimented with players; the 1915 film Regeneration, for example, by using real
gangsters and streetwalkers, provided startling local colour. Other films, particularly those of Thomas
Ince, provided tragic endings as often as films by other companies supplied happy ones.
Unfortunately, the vast majority of silent films survive today in inferior prints that no longer reflect
the care that the original technicians put into them. The modern versions of silent films may appear
jerky and flickery, but the vast picture palaces did not attract four to six thousand people a night
by giving them eye strain. A silent film depended on its visuals; as soon as you degrade those,
you lose elements that go far beyond the image on the surface. The acting in silents was often
very subtle, very restrained, despite legends to the contrary.
PASSAGE II
Mime opens up a new world to the beholder, but it does so insidiously, not by purposely injecting
points of interest in the manner of a tour guide. Audiences are not unlike visitors to a foreign
land who discover that the modes, manners and thought of its inhabitants are not meaningless
oddities, but are sensible in context.
I remember once when an audience seemed perplexed at what I was doing. At first, I tried to
gain a more immediate response by using slight exaggerations. I soon realized that these actions
had nothing to do with the audience's understanding of the character. What I had believed to be
a failure of the audience to respond in the manner I expected was, in fact, only their concentration
on what I was doing; they were enjoying a gradual awakening – a slow transference of their
understanding from their own time and place to one that appeared so unexpectedly before their
eyes. This was evidenced by their growing response to succeeding numbers.
Mime is an elusive art, as its expression is entirely dependent on the ability of the performer to
imagine a character and to recreate that character for each performance. As a mime, I am a physical
medium, the instrument upon which the figures of my imagination play their dance of life. The
individuals in my audience also have responsibilities – they must be alert collaborators. They cannot
sit back, mindlessly complacent, and wait to have their emotions titillated by mesmeric musical
sounds or visual rhythms or acrobatic feats, or by words that tell them what to think. Mime
is an art that, paradoxically, appeals both to those who respond instinctively to entertainment and
to those whose appreciation is more analytical and complex.
CET 500
Between these extremes lie those audiences conditioned to resist any collaboration with what is played
before them; and these the mime must seduce despite themselves. There is only oneway to attack
those reluctant minds – take them unaware! They will be delighted at an unexpected pleasure.
46. Which of the following has been mentioned in Passage I that definitely resulted in engaging
the audience to the film, though it was a silent film?
1] The audiences were provided with booklets containing the film's dialogues.
2] The music score played during the screening so appropriately captured and depicted
the Required mood that the audience could follow the narrative easily.
3] Dialogues, though not spoken, were inserted in the film at appropriate points.
4] The enthusiasm of the filmmaker along with unpredictability of the scenes made the audience
watch the silent movies in anengrossed manner.
5] The director would appoint narrators for each screening location to inform the audience
of the flow of the film's story before the screening began.
47. What can be inferred from Passage 1 about the movie-making industry post the silent film era?
1] The music from the silent film era laid the groundwork for musical movies to be a successful
genre.
2] There was no experimentation and directors merely copied the storylines from the silent
film era.
3] Filmmaking became much formulaic in nature and experimentation was not commonly
found.
4] New camera, editing and sound techniques were implemented to make the transition from
silent to audio movies a successful journey.
5] The quality of the movie prints improved dramatically.
48. What does the author of Passage 1 intend to convey when he says "The vast picture palaces
did not attract four to six thousand people a night by giving them eye strain"?
1] The original print quality of the silent movies was not jerky and flickery in the theatres.
2] There were at least four thousand people each night in the theatres during the heyday of
the silent film industry.
3] As there was no sound, the filmmakers would give extra emphasis to ensure quality visuals
in the prints.
4] The popularity of the silent movie was because of its visuals.
5] The original technicians took a lot of care to ensure that their audience did not suffer
from eye problems.
49. Which of the following is farthest in meaning to the word "potent" as used in Passage 1?
1] pertinent 2] powerful 3] effective 4] sterile 5] crucial
CET
50. Why has the author of Passage 2 narrated the incident where her audience seemed perplexed
at what she was doing?
1] To show how exaggerations can sometimes cause a passive audience to understand the
mime better.
2] To show that the audience concentrate hard on the interpretation of the mime and respond
enthusiastically but gradually.
3] To show that not everyone can understand as subtle an art as mime.
4] To show that even the best of mimes can fail in getting an immediate response.
5] To show how the audience responded very differently to her later performances in the
same show.
51. Why does the author of Passage 2 call mime an elusive art?
1] Because the audience must be alert collaborators if they have to understand the performance.
2] Because both the performer and the audience are responsible for a proper communication
and interpretation of the performance.
3] Because the understanding of the performance is solely dependent on the performer's ability
to properly recreate the character for the audience.
4] Because the meaning of the performance is so subtly communicated that it escapes
the audience if they don't concentrate.
5] Because not all mimes have the imagination to successfully present the character to the
audience.
52. What is the common quality required of the audience of both silent films and mime?
a] The enthusiasm to see and appreciate the art
b] The ability to sit through the entire performance to understand it
c] The capability of sitting back and accepting the performance without any reservations
d] The concentration to understand the subtle performances and interpret them properly.
e] The willingness to use their imagination and drawn into the narrative so as to understand
the ideas not communicated openly.
1] All of the above 2] a, d and e 3] b, c and e
4] a and d 5] d and e
53. The word "insidiously", as used in Passage 2, is closest in meaning to:

1] incongruously 2] secretly 3] conspicuously
4] odiously 5] delightfully
54. Which of the following kinds of audience would not enjoy mime?
1] Those who love to have their emotions titillated by mesmeric musical sounds or visual
rhythms.
2] Those who love to analyze a performance and emotionally connect with the character depicted.
3] Those who are imaginative in nature and like to analyse before appreciating.
4] Those who seek to instinctively respond to a performance.
5] Those who are conditioned to resist any collaboration with what is played before them.
CET 500
55. The authors of both the passages would most agree with which of the following proverbs?
1] Silence is the virtue of fools.
2] Silence is the most perfect expression of scorn.
3] Nothing is so good for an ignorant man as silence.
4] The most profound ideas are often said with silence.
5] Where the river is deepest, it makes the least sound.
DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 66: Choose the correct alternative.

56. In how many ways the following word ALARMING can be rearranged, where all the vowels
appear together.
1] 2150 2] 2250 3] 2160 4] 2600 5] 2610
57. In triangle ABC, AB = 20.5, AC = 36. Let D be point on line BC such that AD ^ BC. If
AD = 9 cm, what is radius of circle circumfering triangle ABC.
1] 31 cm 2] 51 cm 3] 21cm 4] 11cm 5] 41 cm
58. 1950 is divided among A, B, C such that 6 times A's share is equal to 4 times B's share
which is equal to 8 times C's share How much did A get?
1] 600 2] 650 3] 700 4] 750 5] 800
59. A invests Rs.28,000, B invests Rs. 32,000, C invests Rs.18,000. A is a working partner, and
1
gets of profit and remaining profit is divided among three in ratio of investment. If A gets
4
a total of 4995, how much will B get?
1] 2950 2] 2960 3] 2970 4] 2980 5] 2930
60. A part of 9600 is invested at 5% annual return while remainder at 3%. If annual income from
both is same what is total income from the 2 investments?
1] 160 2] 260 3] 360 4] 460 5] 560
61. A box containing 85 nuts each of 100 gm and 94 bolts each of 150 gm. If the entire box
with content weights 42.5 kg, what is the weight of empty box?
1] 12 kg 2] 15 kg 3] 17 kg 4] 19.9 kg 5] 25 kg
62. 5 years ago Bina's age was 3 times that of Arti. 10 years ago, Bina's age was half that of
Chitra. If C represent Chitra's Age, which represent Arti's (A) age.
æCö æCö æCö
1] A = ç 5 ÷ + 6 2] A = ç 5 ÷ – 6 3] A = ç 6 ÷ – 5
è ø è ø è ø
æ5ö æCö
4] A = ç C ÷ + 6 5] A = ç 6 ÷ + 5
è ø è ø
63. A skating champion moves along the circumference of circle of radius 28 m in 44 sec. How
long would he take to move along perimeter of hexagon of side 48 m?
1] 60 sec 2] 120 sec 3] 92 sec 4] 72 sec 5] 150 sec
CET
64. Circumference of front wheel of cart is 40ft long and that of back wheel is 48 ft. If front
wheel has done 5 more revolutions than rear wheel, what is distance travelled by cart.
1] 1600 2] 1700 3] 1300 4] 1200 5] 1500
65. If radius of circle is increased by 20% how much is area increased by?
1] 20% 2] 40% 3] 44% 4] 33% 5] 66%
66. If x, y, z are consecutive negative integers and x>y>z, which must be positive
1] x – yz 2] xyz 3] x + y + z
4] (x – y) (y – z) 5] x(y – z)
DIRECTIONS for questions 67 to 71: Each question has three figures. Second figure bears a certain
relationship with the first figure. Choose the option that bears an identical relationship with the
third figure.
67.
?
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
68.
?
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
69.
?
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
CET 500
70.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
71. 1 6 5 3 4 7 A F E
8
4
2
7
9
3
5
9
1
8
6
2
H B
D G C
I
?
B D G C D G C D G C D G C D G
E A F F A E E A F E A F E A F
I H C I H B H I B I H B I B H
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
DIRECTIONS for questions 72 and 73: Read the short passages and answer the questions that
follow.
72. Hit and run cases are up 30% from last year. Fault is with our judicial system. Court proceedings
take long time. Which would weaken the argument?
1] No action has been taken lately to speed up legal battle in hit and run cases.
2] No of cases are lower in other parts of the world.
3] Sentences for hit and run cases amount to maximum of 1 yr imprisonment.
4] Separate tablet courts were formed by higher court to deal exclusively with hit and run
cases with main objective of expediting and dealing with court cases.
5] None of these
73. Trucks carrying loads of more than 10 tonnes are not allowed to run in city roads from 8am
to 10 pm. These trucks can run on highways which are outside city limits. Taking highways
rather than city roads, however means that these trucks have to travel min of 10 km extra
as compared to city roads. Which is the Inference:
1] After 10 pm, there are more trucks than cars.
2] Cars are not allowed to run on highways between 8 am to 10 pm.
3] Trucks carrying more than 10 tonnes of weight cause more traffic inconvenience than
those carrying lesser load.
4] It is as convenient for trucks to run on highways as on city roads.
5] Most truck drivers prefer to drive on highways than city roads, as highways do not have
regularly city traffic like cars and bikes.
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 74 and 75: As shown in the figure below, the side of square is 91.
74. Area of shaded portion = ?

1] 26002.34 2] 8281 3] 13001.17
4] 285.74 5] 7995.26
75. Area of Circle = ?

1] 285.74 2] 26002.34 3] 13001.17
4] 142.37 5] None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 76 and 77: Refer to the figure below and answer the questions:
76. QR = ?
P
1] 2 2] 3 3] 6 4] 4
5] 7 5
3
77. A( D PQR)= ?
1] 4 2] 5 3] 6
Q R
4] 8 5] 10
DIRECTIONS for questions 78 to 82: Find the missing figure in the series represented by the question
mark (?)
78.
79.
CET 500
80.
81.
82.
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 83 to 92: Read the given passage carefully and choose the option that
best fits each of the blanks both contextually and grammatically.
Inflation makes all of us poor. But rising food prices make the poor ____83____ faster than they
make the rich poorer. Indians living in cities spend Rs46.20 of every Rs100 on food. Villagers
spend Rs69.15. If food prices ____84____ by 10%: food inflation captured in the cost of living
indices for both rural and urban workers has rarely dipped below 10% over the past two years
- the city ____85____ is Rs4.62 poorer while his country cousin loses Rs6.91. By hurting the
vulnerable, food inflation renders itself unacceptable ethically, economically and politically. Hunger
is not price sensitive and ____86____ food tends to squeeze out consumption elsewhere. Demand
in the countryside for goods rolling out of our factories is being ____87____. And by making
the villager pay an inflation 'tax' half as much again as the townsman, millions in Bharat are at
risk of being excluded from India's growth. Since India began liberalising its economy, prices
of farm ____88____ have climbed by a fifth in relation to prices of -____89____--goods. The
first 10% occurred over 13 years from 1994-95. The other 10% happened in the 20 months to
December 2009. The government is grappling with the spurt in farm prices after rains played ____90____
with harvests in two successive years. However, attention to the longer-term trend would have
softened the blows of crop failures and supply bottlenecks. Rising farm prices are a eflection of
productivity gains in manufacturing and services that have completely sidestepped Indian agriculture.
Capital and technology have ____91____the non-farm economy; farming needs its share of ____92____
Unless food production manages to convincingly overtake our population growth we are staring
at a secular - and accelerating - rise in prices.
83. 1] Rich 2] suffer 3] deny 4] much 5] poorer
84. 1] Rise 2] indicate 3] amount 4] jack 5] up
85. 1] migrant 2] dweller 3] poor 4] rich 5] far
86. 1] Dearer 2] produced 3] agricultural 4] healthy 5] needed
87. 1] Crimped 2] promoted 3] stagnant 4] static 5] neglected
88. 1] produce 2] seeds 3] land 4] goods 5] food
89. 1] manufactured 2] exported 3] agricultural 4] finished 5] imported
90. 1] truant 2] tragedy 3] triumph 4] tamper 5] truce
91. 1] transformed 2] succeeded 3] welfare 4] started 5] invested
92. 1] both 2] Benefit 3] invest 4] technology 5] luck
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 93 to 97: Graph shows expenditure on arms by different countries
A, B, C (2003-2010).
230000
220000
210000
200000
190000
180000
170000
160000
150000
140000
130000
120000
110000
100000
90000
80000
70000
60000
50000
40000
30000
20000
10000
0
2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
C B A
93. Amount spent by country C in 2009 is what % more than amount spent by countries A and
B together in 2004.
1] 162.5% 2] 180% 3] 175% 4] 190% 5] 200%
94. What is the ratio between amount spent by C in years 2005 and 2006 together in comparison
to the amount spent by A in the same years?
1] 2 2] 3.56 3] 16 4] 4 5] 7
95. What is the average amount spent by B across all the years?
1] 102345 2] 210345 3] 101875 4] 104900 5] 107645
96. What is % decrease in amount spent by A in 2010 compared to previous year?
1] 2 2] 3.6 3] 6.6 4] 7.69 5] 9
97. What is true?
1] A spends minimum amount in arms.
2] C has spent maximum amount on arms every year.
3] For the first 3 years, all 3 countries are reducing their expenditure on arms.
4] Both 1 and 3
5] Both 1 and 2
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 98 to 105: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Eight family members P,Q,R,S,T,V,W and Y are sitting around circular table. Some face centre
and some outside.
1. R, the son of S sits third to right of sister V. V faces centre and no male is immediate
neighbor of V.
2. S sits second to left of her husband W. W is not immediate neighbor of R.
3. Father of W sits second to left of his only daughter in law sitting at the table.
4. Y the mother of W sits to the immediate left of her husband.
5. No one sits between W and his brother P.
6. T, daughter of P sits second to right of her grandmother.
7. All children in group face same directions as their fathers.
98. What is the position of S w.r.t mother-in-law

1] second to left 2] Immediately to right 3] third to left
4] second to right 5] third to right
99. How many people sit between W and his niece?

1] none 2] one 3] 2 4] 3 5] 4
100. Which is true about Q?

1] Q is female
2] V is cousin of Q
3] R and V are immediate neighbours of Q
4] Q is grandmother of T
5] P is son of Q
101. What is the position of V wrt her uncle?

1] Fourth to left 2] Immediate to right 3] Third to left
4] Second to right 5] Third to right
102. Who sits third to the right of T?

1] her father 2] her uncle 3] Her aunt 4] her grandfather 5] her cousin
103. Who sits between Q and S?

1] W 2] Q's wife 3] R 4] W's brother 5] V
104. Who has a male sitting to immediate left as well as right.

1] W 2] S 3] Q 4] R 5] Y
105. Who faces outside?

1] Q 2] S 3] W 4] Y 5] R
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 106 to 108: In each of the following questions, three or four sentences
1], 2], 3], 4], as the case may be form a meaningful paragraph/flow of thought. One of the
sentences is missing shown as You have to find out from 1], 2] 3], 4] or 5], which sentence
would best fit the missing part.
106. 1] The myth that money in the hands of tribals goes on drink and destroys families is belied
by the fact that almost all children in the area are in schools.
2] The girl students I met had certainly begun looking beyond the lives of their parents.
3] ___________________________________________________________________________
4] I couldn't help wondering what a trial they would blaze if they had access to the kind
of education that most of us in the cities take for granted.
Which of the following would best fit [3]?
1] They literally aimed for the stars under that indigo sky.
2] The corporate have value added to the local schools.
3] Education is the offshoot of income generation from griculture.
4] There is an opportunity cost to poor families and they don't send their children to school.
5] The city education is not as good as the one offered here with the help of progressive NGOs.
107. 1] ___________________________________________________________________________
2] A typical smart phone allows the user to access the internet, download movies and stream
music anywhere.
3] If each and every person were to have access to a powerful smart phone - projected to
account for three of every four phones sold by the middle of the next decade - mobile
telephone could become a vehicle of economic upliftment.
Which of the following would best fit [1] ?
1] There is a paradigm-shift in local and STD call rates.
2] Every one carries a smart phone now-a-days including the low end users.
3] The mobile phone has evolved far beyond a simple calling device.
4] With connectivity as the mantra, every one will have mobiles.
5] There is no denying that IT services widen the scope for upward mobility.
108. 1] There is a pattern here.

2] India does well in areas that have independent institutions or clear rules, while we do very
badly in areas where there is bureaucratic discretion or political involvement.
3] ___________________________________________________________________________
4] This pattern could give reformers a broad idea of how to go forward in governance reforms:
strengthen institutions and minimize discretion;
Which of the following would best fit [3]?
1] We come out badly in areas such as diversion of public funds, public trust in polititians
and favouritism in government decisions.
2] It is the well known divide between rules and discretion.
3] Because of this pattern, most Indian Companies were protected and inefficient till 1991 reforms
4] Inconsistent rules are worse than a well thought out bureaucratic discretion.
5] The line between public sector and private sector will have to be drawn very carefully.
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 109 to 113:In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures
(unnumbered) is followed by five numbered pairs of figures. Out of these five, four have relationship
similar to that in the unnumbered pair. Only one pair of figures does not have similar relationship.
Select that pair of figures which does not have a similar relationship to that in the unnumbered
pair. Number of that pair is your answer.
Study the following question.
In this question, element II of unnumbered pair of figures is related to element I in a certain

way. The element I! has one side more than the element I. The numbered figures 1, 2, 3 and
5 have a similar relationship i. e. element II of each figure has one side more than the element
I. However, elements in figure No. 4 do not have such a relationship. Therefore, 4 is the answer.
Now solve the following questions.
109.
110.
111.
112.
CET 500
113.
DIRECTIONS for questions 114 to 118: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions.
Following table shows the scores of a student in eight MOCK MBA Tests (section wise). All MOCK
Tests contain 3 sections, each section has 50 questions and each question has a score of 1. The
total of the scores in 3 sections is compared with the "cut off' and if his total score is higher
than the "cut off', it is said that he has cleared the "cut off'.
Verbal Quantitative
Section -» Reasoning Cut Off
Ability Aptitude
MOCK 1 23 12 19 56
MOCK 2 24 17 18 62
MOCK 3 29 11 23 60
MOCK 4 21 14 21 58
MOCK 5 19 13 25 59
MOCK 6 26 17 21 61
MOCK 7 25 19 23 58
MOCK 8 27 20 22 65
114. In how many MOCK Tests has the student cleared the cut off ?
1] One 2] Two 3] Three 4] Four 5] None of these
115. In which MOCK Test did the student score the maximum total marks?
1] 7th 2] 3rd 3] 6th 4] 8th 5] None of these
116. What was the approximate percent increase in score obtained by the student in Quantitative
Aptitude in Mock 8 as compared to Mock 1?
1] 58 2] 62 3] 54 4] 73 5] 67
117. If the section-wise cut-off in all MOCK Tests is 15 for Quantitative Aptitude and 20 each
for Verbal Ability and Reasoning, then in how many MOCK Tests did the student clear all
the cut-offs?
1] One 2] Two 3] Three 4] Four 5] None of these
118. What was the overall percentage of the student in Mock 6 ? (rounded off to two digits after
decimal)
1] 42.67 2] 54.25 3] 47.46 4] 51.39 5] None of these
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 119 to 125: Read the following passage to answer the given questions
based on it. Certain word(s) are printed in boid to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.
The chickens have come home to roost. The unseemly squabbles between the states and the Centre
on a variety of issues-indexing rural employment guarantee wages to inflation or cutting taxes on
petroleum products-stem from inadequate expenditure reforms.
In a fiscal when tax revenues of both the states and the Centre have exceeded expectations, the
constant refrain is that their fiscal policy space has shrunk on account of rigid expenditure commitments.
To begin with, both sides raised indirect tax rates in the last budget. Subsequently, growth in
tax collections outstripped budgetary estimates. Despite unexpected collections, the political economy
of spending has ensured government finances remain a mess.
Spending is a source of patronage and pay-offs for support from special interests. India has reached
a situation where expenditure reforms cannot be put off.
Tax rates, especially those of indirect taxes, are high. There is little room to keep raising them.
Currently, the states and the Centre do not have to face a popular backlash on indirect tax rates
as few people are aware that the combined tax incidence is in the mid-20s for many goods. Once
the country transitions to goods and services tax, it will no longer be possible to be opaque about
the real tax incidence as all tax will be collected at the point of sale and will be clearly specified.
Both the states and the Centre are hamstrung by a large magnitude of committed expenditure.
Typically, the Union budget does not leave a finance minister with discretionary power of more
than Rs.20 for every Rs.100 the Centre spends. Add to this, the institutional rigidity which allows
the Centre to lock the states into Centrally sponsored welfare schemes, the space for discretionary
spending by the states is tighter.
So expenditure reforms in India necessarily have to be carefully paced. All of which makes it
imperative for governments to start working on it immediately. The Centre, for its part, has made
a formal commitment to steer towards fiscal consolidation over the next few years by using expenditure
reforms as a launch pad. Pious intent, but the real test will come in the next fiscal when the
finance ministry will be asked to loosen the purse strings to mitigate the loss of political capital
in the wake of corruption allegations.
Fiscal consolidation is not a linear process. Unfavourable economic conditions can derail a few
years of progress, which is what happened to India in 2008. Governments have thus far tended
to take growth and attendant revenues for granted. It is a dangerous path to tread. Expenditure
reforms cannot be put off any longer.
119. Which of the following is true about indirect taxes?

1] They are going to continue in this form of collection
2] The tax rates are not very high
3] The tax rates are uniform for all types of goods
4] It is going to be changed to goods and services tax
5] These taxes were not raised in the last budget
CET 500
120. Which of the following is the major recommendation of the author?

1] Reduce indirect tax rates
2] Increase direct tax rates
3] Undertake expenditure reforms
4] Link rural employment guarantee wages to inflation
5] Increase indirect tax rates
121. Which of the following is true about rate/incidence of indirect taxes?

1] In no case it is more than 18
2] In some cases it as high as 50
3] It is at present collected at the point of sale
4] These rates are considered low
5] The rate/incidence is not clearly visible to the consumers
122. Which of the following is true about tax revenue collections in this fiscal?
1] It was more than expected for the Centre but not for the States
2] It exceeded the expectations of the States but not for the Centre
3] It was less than expected for both the Centre and the States
4] There was no increase in the indirect tax rates in the last budget hence collections expectation
was low
5] None of these
123. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word 'imperative' as used in the passage?
1] optional 2] pre-requisite 3] imperfect 4] crucial 5] hard
124. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word 'hamstrung' as used in the passage?
1] restricted 2] weakened 3] hammered 4] overshoot 5] guided
125. The "popular backlash" is being referred to:

1] realization by the people that they are paying higher rates
2] further increasing these rates
3] transition to goods and services tax
4] collection of these taxes at the point of sale
5] having less discretionary power for expenditure
DIRECTIONS for questions 126 to 132: Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve cars viz. Mercedes, Swift, Santro, Accord, Innova, Polo, Punto, Figo, Civic, City, Ferrari
and Landrover are parked in two parallel rows containing six cars each, in such a way that there
is an equal distance between adjacent cars. The cars parked in row-1 are parked in such a manner
that the driver seated in the cars would face the South. In row-2 cars are parked in such a manner
that the drivers seated in these cars would face the North. Therefore, in the given parking arrangement
each car parked in a row faces another car of the other row.
CET
· Mercedes being a big car must be parked at one of the extreme ends. Mercedes is parked
second to the left of Santro. Santro faces Figo.
· Punto and Innova are parked immediately next to each other. Neither is parked next to Figo
or Santro.
· Civic is parked in such a manner that its driver when seated in the parked car would face
South. Civic is parked third to the left of Polo..
· City is parked in such a manner that it faces Ferrari. Ferrari is parked second to the left
of Landrover. Landrover faces North and is not parked next to Figo.
· Swift is parked third to the right of Ferrari and faces Innova.
(NOTE : Left and right parking directions are with reference to the driver as if the driver is seated
in the car.)
126. How many cars are parked between Santro and Civic?
1] One 2] Two 3] Three
4] Four 5] Both cars are parked in different rows
127. Polo is related to Ferrari in the same way as Innova is related to Accord. To which of the
following is City related to, following the same pattern?
1] Mercedes 2] Innova 3] Santro 4] Punto 5] Landrover
128. Which of the following cars are parked at extreme ends of the rows?
1] Landrover, Punto 2] Innova, Polo 3] Polo, Accord
4] Landrover, Innova 5] Ferrari, Swift
129. Which of the following cars faces Polo?

1] Mercedes 2] Civic 3] Landrover 4] Punto 5] Accord
130. Which of the following is true regarding Figo?

1] A driver seated in the parked Figo would face North
2] Swift is parked second to the right of the car facing Figo
3] Punto and Ferrari are parked immediately next to Figo
4] Mercedes and Accord are parked at the extreme ends of the row in which Figo is parked
5] None is true
DIRECTIONS for questions 131 to 132: Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
based upon the given parking arrangement above and form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
131 1] Ferrari 2] Civic 3] Swift 4] Mercedes 5] Landrover
132. 1] Polo-Figo 2] Accord - Landrover 3] Figo - Innova

4] Mercedes - City 5] Santro - Swift
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 133 to 137: ln each of the questions given below which one of the
five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence
were continued?
Problem figures Answer figures
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
DIRECTIONS for questions 138 and 139: Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
The price of a TV in Bangkok is 65 percent less than the price of the same TV in India. Even
after adding custom duty and transportation charges, it is still 65% cheaper to import a TV from
Bangkok to India than to buy it from India. The reason for this difference in price can be attributed
to high wholesale price in India set by the manufacturing company.
CET
138. Which of the following can be inferred/concluded from the given facts?
1] All electronic items are cheaper in Bangkok than in India
2] The custom duty on a TV bought from Bangkok is less than 65% of the price of the
same TV bought in India
3] 65% of the price of the TV bought in India is equal to the custom duty and the tarrif
charges paid by a person in Bangkok
4] TV dealers in India earn 65% more profit than a dealer in Bangkok
5] Custom duty on export of TVs imposed by India is far higher than that imposed by Thailand
(Bangkok)
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139. Which of the following would weaken the argument presented by the financial consulting company?
1] Emprire is only a year old and is yet to deliver results to the industry
2] A year ago Emprire hired management graduates from top rank colleges only
3] Emprire was voted amongst top five financial consultation companies this year
4] All the ten clients of Emprire had already achieved fastest growth in the industry before
hiring Emprire for consultation purposes
5] After a successful stint with consultation in the field of finance, Emprire plans to expand
to HR and outsourcing consulting as well
DIRECTIONS for questions 140 to 143: Read the following comment followed by five statements
carefully and answer the questions which follow:
"A controlling authority should regulate the functions of all Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs)"A
comment by minister for rural affairs.
A] MFIs are not controlled by any authority at present.
B] The arm twisting of the loan applicants by MFIs would stop.
C] Different MFIs have been charging different interest rates.
D] Most of the farmers prefer to avail loans from MFIs rather than other government organisations
or local moneylenders.
E] MFIs provide loans of amounts as small as Rs.20,000.
140. Which of the given statements represents a possible effect if the ministers suggestions are
taken into account and a controlling authority is formed?
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
141. Which of the following statements represents a reason which would have compelled the minister
to ask for a controlling authority?
1] E 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] Both A and D
CET 500
142. Which of the following statements represents an inference which can be drawn from the minister's
statement?
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
143. Which of the following statements would weaken the minister's argument for the need of a
controlling authority?
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
DIRECTIONS for questions 144 and 145: Read the following comment followed by five statements
carefully and answer the questions which follow.
"Parents should generate awareness among their wards about the harmful effects of over-consumption
of carbonated drinks." Secretary of medical council.
A] All adults are aware of the harmful effects of carbonated drinks.
B] Drinking a reasonable amount of carbonated drinks is not bad for health.
C] Health problems related to over consumption of carbonated drinks such as obesity and stomach
ulcers are on a sharp rise among the youth.
D] Carbonated drinks should be avoided by people with certain health problems.
E] Alcoholic drinks do not cause as much harm as carbonated drinks.
144. Which of the following sentences represents an assumption or an inference implicit in the given
quote?
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
145. Which of the following sentences represents a possible cause for the secretary's plea to the
parents?
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D 5] E
DIRECTIONS for questions 146 and 147: Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions which follow.
• Abha weighs more than Bharat.

• Renuka weighs more than Kamal.
• Shiela weighs less than Mohit.
• Abha and Mohit have the same weight.
• Kamal weighs less than Bharat.
146. Who amongst the following weighs the minimum?

1] Kamal 2] Abha 3] Shiela
4] Abha or Mohit 5] Cannot be determined
147. Which of the following is true?

1] Bharat weighs less than Shiela
2] Mohit weighs more than Kamal
3] Shiela weighs more than Kamal
4] Mohit weighs less than Bharat
5] Abha weighs less than Kamal
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 148 to 152: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions
given.
The figures below represent monthly income and expenditure of the Ahuja family, the Bose family,
the Patil family, and the Dubey family. For these questions, savings is defined as-
Savings = Income - Expenditure.
Income and Expenditure (In Rs.'000) of four families over three months
Family Ahuja Bose Patil Dubey

Month Income Expenditure Income Expenditure Income Expenditure Income Expenditure
January 35 22.4 25 15.6 12 5.8 28 16.4
February 28 18.9 35 24.3 30 14.8 33 19.7
March 26 24.5 33 19.8 36 21.2 30 23.3
148. The savings of Patil family in the month of February account for what percent of the family's
income in that month? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
1] 42 2] 50 3] 46 4] 39 5] 65
149. What are Dubey family's total savings over all the months together?
1] Rs.31,600/- 2] Rs.3,1607- 3] Rs.31.6
4] Rs. 3,16,000/- 5] None of these
150. Which family has the lowest average income over all the months together?
1] Ahuja 2] Bose and Patil 3] Bose
4] Dubey and Bose 5] None of these
151. What is the average income of all the families together in the month of March?
1] Rs.31.25 2] Rs.31,250 3] Rs.312.5
4] Rs.3,12,500 5] None of these
152. What is the respective ratio of savings of Bose family in the month of January to those of
Ahuja family in the same month?
1] 74:51 2] 43:25 3] 47:63 4] 58:33 5] None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 153 to 155: Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow.
· Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting around a circular table facing either centre or outside.
· P sits third to the left of R. R faces the centre.
· V sits second to left of P.
· Q sits second to right of V.
· T sits to immediate right of Q.
· Immediate neighbours of P face direction opposite to that of P.
· T sits second to left of R.
153. Who amongst the following sits second to right of R?

1] T 2] S 3] V 4] P 5] R
CET 500
154. Which of the following is true with regard to the given information?
1] Four of the five friends are facing the centre
2] R and S are immediate neighbours of each other
3] V sits to the immediate right of both S and R
4] P faces outside
5] Three people sit between Q and S
155. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the given seating arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1] P 2] T 3] S 4] V 5] Q
DIRECTIONS for questions 156 and 157: Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions which follow.
Jack starts from point A, walks 14 m towards the East, takes a left turn and walks 4 m. He
then takes right turn, walks 2 m and stops.
Sam starts from the same point A, walks 14 m towards the South, takes a left turn and walks
20m before stopping.
156. Jack walks 4 m from the point where he stopped in a straight line in the same direction which
he faced when he stopped and reaches point B. How far would Sam have to travel from the
point where he stopped and in which direction if he must meet Jack at point B?
1] 12 m towards South 2] 14 towards South 3] 18 m towards South
4] 18 m towards North 5] 16 m towards South
157. If Jack takes a right turn from the point where he stops, walks 18 m and stops, how far
would he be from the position where Sam stopped?
1] 4m 2] 2 m 3] 12 m 4] 18 m 5] 14 m
DIRECTIONS for questions 158 to 160: Each of the questions below consists of a question and
two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and -
Give answer [1] if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer [2] if the data in Statement 11 alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer [3] if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer [4] if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer [5] if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
158. Are all the four friends viz. Ali, Kate, Rohan and Sonam who are sitting at the corners of
a square table - facing the centre?
I. Ali sits second to right of Sonam. Rohan sits to immediate left of Ali.
II. Kate sits second to right of Rohan. Ali sits to immediate right of Kate.
CET
159. How is 'light' coded in the code language?

I. 'more light than dark' is coded as '3 2 1 7', 'no more dark here' is coded as '9 1 4 3'.
II. 'no more than that' is coded as '3 0 4 7' and 'no than and that' is coded as '4 5 0 7'.
160. A six storey building with floors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 houses different people viz.
A, B, C, D and E. Floor number 3 is vacant. On which of the floors does A live?
I. C lives on an even numbered floor. A lives on a floor immediately above C's floor.
II. B lives on an even numbered floor. B's floor is not immediately above or immediately below
the vacant floor. Only one person lives between B and C's floors. D lives immediately
below E's floor.
DIRECTIONS for questions 161 to 165: In each of the following sentences, the error, if there
is one, will be in the part given in bold and numbered. The number of the part which contains
the error is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5]. The error, if any, will be of grammar
or/and usage. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
161. Schools, hospitals and most other essential services in rural India are mostly government-run
1]
and, with the introducing of the MGREG Scheme five years ago, the government has become
2] 3]
of the first resort No Error

the employer .
4] 5]
is the code of adheres to its daily

162. Business ethics good conduct that a business in dealings
1] 2] 3]
both with No Error

other businesses and with customers.
4] 5]
whenever you have

163. The randomness and probability theory also explains the birthday paradox :
1]
randomly selected most likely than not people will share the
a group of 23 people, it is that two
2] 3] 4]
No Error
same birthday.
5]
Giving the diffusion of access to

164. pace of technology, the next decade will see IT services
1] 2] 3]
become a No Error
fundamental entitlement.
4] 5]
CET 500
While some of the working on

165. best minds cutting-edge research across the world are Indians,
1] 2]
it 's a pity so few at No Error

3] we can incentivize 4] them to work at Indian institutions.
5]
DIRECTIONS for questions 166 to 170: Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
In a certain code language - 'was that your letter in the box' is coded as, 'ra jo zi mo ke sa
da' 'that was not there' is coded as, 'ko bi da zi' 'the letter was black' is coded as, 'de zi sa
ra' 'letter box not in' is coded as, 'ko jo mo ra' 'your box' is coded as, 'jo ke'
166. Which of the the following is coded as 'ra' in the given code language?
1] box 2] not 3] letter 4] your 5] None of these
167. How will 'not in black box' be coded in the given code language?
1] de jo mo ke 2] jo de mo ko 3] ko de mo ra
4] Cannot be determined 5] None of these
168. What is the code for 'black' in the given code language ?
1] sa 2] zi 3] ra 4] de 5] None of these
169. Which of the following may be coded as, 'de zi ko da ha' in the given code language?
1] that was black not blue 2] that was black not box 3] blue was not box your
4] black blue letter was in 5] that not black was there
170. What is the code for 'in' in the given code language?
1] mo 2] ke 3] sa 4] da 5] None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 171 to 175: In each of the questions given below which one of the
five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence
were continued?
PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES
171.
R A SH H R P S S H T P P S B T T POB B TO P B T N O O TN B B T O N B T PO
172. T P Z V V V V Z
R T R Z R B B A Z R
Z P B V Z A R B B
R R P R R B R V
T Z B P P P P P
CET
U U
U Z U T = F =
173. B V U F U U U U
U = F
R R F F R R F R F F F R F
174.
F F R R F R R
T R P R R U P R U A U U A R A A
P P U A P P P A P
175. R U A P R
DIRECTIONS for questions 176 to 180: Study the following pie charts carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Contribution to GDP by seven sectors in two different years
Contribution to GDP by industries in 2008.
Total Contribution - 2,89,500 crores
Auto, 6% Ad & Media, 3%
Steel, 7%
Cement, 9%
Petroleum, 43%
IT, 10%
Defence, 22%
Contribution to GDP by industries in 2009

Total Contribution = 3,15,600 crores
Auto, 4% Ad &
Steel, 8% Media, 2%
Cement,
6%
Petroleum,
45%
IT, 11%
Defence,
24%
CET 500
176. What was the rate of growth witnessed by the IT sector from 2008 to 2009 ? (rounded off
to two digits after decimal)
1] 19.92 2] 18.19 3] 14.23 4] 23.56 5] None of these
177. What was the approximate rate of growth shown by the non-petroleum sectors from 2008
to 2009?
1] 5 2] –8 3] –5 4] 13 5] 8
178. The amount contributed by IT sector in 2008 was approximately 153% of the amount contributed by:
1] Auto in 2009 2] Ad & Media in 2008 3] Cement in 2009
4] Auto in 2008 5] Steel in 2008
179. Which of the industry sectors witnessed a negative growth from 2008 to 2009?
1] Auto 2] Auto and Cement
3] Ad & Media 4] Auto, Cement and Ad & Media
5] None of these
180. Which of the industry sectors witnessed the maximum rate of growth from 2008 to 2009?
1] IT 2] Steel 3] Ad & Media
4] Petroleum 5] None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 181 to 185: Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
A building of seven floors (the ground floor counted as first floor) is owned by seven different
persons (one person owns one floor). Six out of these seven floors are used for different businesses
while one of the floors is vacant.
The floor that has the library is owned by K and it has three floors below it. There are three
floors between the Insurance Company and the News paper office. The Grocery and the News
paper office have one floor between them. The Bank is below the Travel Agency and they have
two floors between them. The News paper office is just below the Library.
J's floor is below K's floor and there are two floors between them. O owns a floor below P's
floor and there are two floors between them, N's floor is immediately below L's floor. M is one
of the owners.
181. Which of the following statements is true regarding N?
1] N owns the floor that has the bank.
2] N's floor is three floors above K's floor.
3] There is one floor between N's and P's floors.
4] N owns the floor that is vacant
5] None is true.
182. Which of the following businesses is there on J's floor?

1] Grocery Store 2] Travel Agency 3] Insurance Company
4] Bank 5] None of these
CET
183. If all the owners are asked to shift their businesses and all of them are given a floor alphabetically
from top to bottom (according to their names) i.e. J is asked to shift to the seventh floor
and similarly P is asked to shift to the first floor (ground floor), then which floor will be
vacant and which floor will have the Insurance Company?
1] Fourth floor will be vacant and fifth floor will have the Insurance Company
2] Third floor will be vacant and sixth floor will have the Insurance Company
3] Fifth floor will be vacant and third floor will have the Insurance Company
4] Third floor will be vacant and fifth floor will have the Insurance Company
5] None of these
184. How many floors are between the floor that is vacant and the floor that is owned by M?
1] One 2] Two 3] Three 4] Four 5] None
185. If the Bank is counted as the first floor, on which floor is the Travel Agency?
1] Fifth floor 2] Third floor 3] Fourth floor
4] Sixth floor 5] None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 186 to 191: Study the following information and answer the questions
given.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers,
it arrange: them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input : is 35 visible 28 rupee 64 crane 15 double 92
Step I : crane is 35 visible 28 rupee 64 double 92 15
Step II : double crane is 35 visible rupee 64 92 15 28
Step III : is double crane visible rupee 64 92 15 28 35
Step IV : rupee is double crane visible 92 15 28 35 64
Step V : visible rupee is double crane 15 28 35 64 92
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate steps for the given input.
For questions 186 to 189: Input: brown 12 sought 72 dawn 56 atom 84 on 31.
186. Which of the following will be sixth from the right end of step II for the given input ?
1] 56 2] 72 3] dawn 4] 84 5] None of these
187. Which of the following is step III for the given input?
1] dawn brown atom sought 72 84 on 12 31 56
2] atom brown dawn sought 72 84 on 56 31 12
3] dawn brown atom sought 72 on 84 12 31 56
4] dawn brown atom sought 72 84 on 12 56 31
5] None of these
188. How many steps will be required to reach the intended arrangement for the given input?
1] IV 2] V 3] VI 4] VII 5] None of these
CET 500
189. Which of the following will be fourth from the left end in step IV for the given input?
1] sought 2] brown 3] 72 4] atom 5] None of these
For questions.190 and 191: Input: bright 14 small 43 aboard 50
190. Which of the following will be step II for the above input?
1] bright aboard small 14 50 43 2] aboard bright small 43 50 14
3] bright aboard small 43 50 14 4] bright small aboard 50 14 43
5] None of these
191. How many steps will be required to reach the intended arrangement for the given input ?
1] II 2] IV 3] V
4] More than V 5] None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 192 to 194: Find the odd one out.
192. 1] understand 2] comprehend 3] learn

4] restate 5] recognize
193. 1] cornea 2] skin 3] iris 4] pupil 5] sclera
194. 1] triangle 2] cylinder 3] sphere 4] cube 5] cone
195. Anagram: How many meaningful words can be formed using the second, fourth, fifth, seventh
and ninth letters of the word RESCHEDULE, using all the letters only once?
1] one word 2] two words 3] three words
4] four words 5] no such word can be formed
DIRECTIONS for question 196: Complete the analogy.
196. Celsius is to Temperature as Metre is to ________________

1] depth 2] square 3] fat 4] kilometre 5] centimetre
DIRECTIONS for questions 197 to 200: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that
follow.
In the first 5 races of Formula I Championship, the same 3 teams occupied the first 3 positions
not necessarily in the given order. The teams were Mcfary, MWS and Lauren and the racers who
drove these cars were Sam, Monty and Mikey not necessarily in this order.
In any race, the team which stood first got 10 points, second got 8 points and third got 6 points.
Conditions:
1] In the first race MWS was in the third position. In the fourth race Mikey was not in the
second position.
2] In the fifth race Lauren improved its position from the previous race and was in second
position. In second race Sam stood first.
3] Lauren never stood first in any race. Monty was third in the third race.
4] In the second race the positions were exactly the reverse of those in the first race.
CET
5] The first and fifth races had exactly the same result. Mikey stood first in the first race.
Sam stood first in 2 races only.
197. What were the positions of the driver’s in the fourth race?
1] 1st : Sam; 2 nd : Monty; 3 rd : Mikey 2] 1st : Mikey; 2 nd : Sam; 3 rd : Monty
st nd rd
3] 1 : Monty; 2 : Sam; 3 : Mikey 4] 1st : Sam; 2 nd : Mikey; 3 rd : Monty
5] 1st : Monty; 2 nd : Mikey; 3 rd : Sam
198. In how many races did MWS come in the second position?
1] 0 2] 1 3] 4 4] 3 5] None of the above
199. Statement I : In the third race Sam stood first.

Statement II : In the fourth race Mikey stood third.
1] Only statement I is true. 2] Only statement II is true.
3] Both, statements I and II are true. 4] Both, statements I and II are false.
5] Cannot be determined
200. How many points did Lauren have at the end of 5 races?
1] 40 points 2] 44 points 3] 36 points 4] 38 points 5] 50 points
TEST ANALYSIS AND TEST TAKING STRATEGY – It is important to analyze the test and not
just read through the answers once the test is over. By referring to the explanatory answers
you will know how to analyze the test (area wise) and evaluate your performance. IMS believes
that there are 5 stages of test taking and a student can be at any stage depending on his preparation.
The table below shows different stages of test taking and the number of questions you must attempt
to achieve certain scores in order to gain admission to the B-Schools mentioned. CET has no
negative marking, at the end one should darken ovals for all questions. Attempts below represent
genuine attempts.
% Attempt Questions 85% Accuracy B-Schools available for admission

of test Attempted (Final Score) (Based on CET Score out of 200)
Stage 1 50% 100 out of 200 85 Lala, Rizvi, Thakur, St. Francis etc.
Stage 2 60% 120 out of 200 102 MET, Xavier's, Chetana, IES
Stage 3 70% 140 out of 200 119 PUMBA, SIES, N. L. Dalmia,
Stage 4 80% 160 out of 200 136 Sydenham, K. J. Somaiya, Welingkar
Stage 5 85% 170 out of 200 144 JBIMS(Average sal. - 15.5 lacs p.a.)
y
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35
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CET
VERBAL ABILITY
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 10: In each of the
3] They tested a multitude of aircraft types in
following sentences, a part of or the whole sentence
combat in the war,
is underlined. Beneath each sentence, five different
4] There were tested a multitude of aircraft
ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated.
types in combat in the war,
Choose the best alternative from among the five.
5] A multitude of aircraft types were tested
in combat in the war,
1. Currently, the California Condor inhabits only
in the western coastal mountains of the United
4. In contrast to the European powers, the United
States, Baja California and the Grand Canyon.
States had essentially no air force and no real
1] the California Condor inhabits only in the aircraft industry when war was declared in 1917.
western coastal mountains
1] the United States had essentially no air force
2] the California Condor inhabits only within
and no real aircraft industry
the western coastal mountains
2] the United States had essentially no air force
3] the California Condor inhabits only along
and no really aircraft industry
the western coastal mountains
3] the United States had no essentially air force
4] the California Condor inhabits only on the
and no really aircraft industry
4] the United States had not essential air force
5] the California Condor inhabits only the
and not real aircraft industry
5] the United States had essentially not air
force and not real aircraft industry
2. They have not gone far before the sun sank
behind the westwards heights and great shad-
5. As air travel grows, so does it’s impact on the
ows crept down the mountain-sides.
environment.
1] They have not gone far before the sun sank
1] As air travel grows, so does it’s impact on
behind the westwards heights
the environment.
2] They have not gone far before the sun sank
2] As air travel grows, so does its impact on
behind the westward heights
the environment.
3] They had not gone far before the sun sank
3] As air travel grows, so is its impact on the
behind the westward heights
environment.
4] They had not gone far before the sun sank
4] As air travel is growing, so is it’s impact
on the environment.
5] They did not go far before the sun sank
5] As air travel is growing, so does it’s impact
on the environment.
3. In combat in the war, a multitude of aircraft 6. He talked about how an employment counsellor
types were tested, and literally hundreds of had suggested that he tries to become a nursing
prototypes were built and flown. aide.
1] In combat in the war, a multitude of aircraft 1] that he tries to become a nursing aide.
types were tested, 2] that he would try to become a nursing aide.
2] In the war, they tested a multitude of aircraft
3] that he try becoming a nursing aide.
types in combat,
4] that he must try to become a nursing aide.
5] that he tried to become a nursing aide.
CET 500
7. Advances in digital technology, fibre optics, 9. The approach might make economic sense if
the Internet and satellites has effectively lev- the country harbours plentiful and untapped
elled the economic barriers among countries oil supplies that could meet its needs.
and continents. 1] if the cou ntry harbours plen tiful and
1] Advances in digital technology, fibre op- untapped oil supplies that could meet its
tics, the Internet and satellites has effec- needs.
tively levelled the economic barriers among 2] if the country will harbour plentiful and
countries and continents. untapped oil supplies that could meet its
2] Advancing in digital technology, fibre optics, needs.
the Internet and satellites has effectively 3] if the country would harbour plentiful and
levelled the economic barriers between untapped oil supplies that could meet their
countries and continents. needs.
3] Advances in digital technology, fibre op- 4] if the country harboured plentiful and
tics, the Internet and satellites have effec- untapped oil supplies that could meet its
tively levelled the economic barriers be- needs.
tween countries and continents. 5] if the country harboured plentiful and
4] Advances in digital technology, fibre op- untapped oil supplies that could meet their
tics, the Internet and satellites have effec- needs.
tively levelled the economic barriers among
countries and continents. 10. Built by followers of the tantric cult, the
5] Advancing in digital technology, fibre optics, thousand-year-old carvings in these temples
the Internet and satellites have effectively contains explicit motifs.
levelled the economical barriers between 1] the thousand-year-old carvings in these
countries and continents. temples contains explicit motifs.
2] the thousand-year-old carvings in these
8. Recent studies show that the single most temples contain explicit motifs.
important factor in determining a student’s 3] explicit motifs featured in these temples
achievement isn’t the colour of his skin or where containing the thousand-year-old carvings.
he comes from, but who the child’s teacher 4] the thousand-year-old carvings in these
is. temples contain explicit motives.
1] Recent studies show that the single most 5] explicit motifs featured in the thousand-
important factor in determining a student’s year-old carvings in these temple.
achievement
2] Recent studies show that the single most
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: The following
important factors in determining a student’s
sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coher-
achievement
ent paragraph. Arrange them in the most logical
3] Recent studies will show that the single
order and then answer the questions.
most important factor in determining a stu-
dents’ achievement A. One of the bags my mother left me was originally
4] Recent studies show that the single most off-white but, with time, turned a sickly beige.
important factor in determining a student B. You’d think a bag would outlast a season.
achievement C. Coach bags are supposed to be indestructible,
5] Recent studies showed that the single most and, it’s true, they don’t fall apart — they just
important factor in determining a student’s look increasingly awful.
achievement
D. The other bag was black and very heavy — perfect
for a funeral but not much else — with the little
leather piece surrounding the buckle starting to
curl like a potato chip.
CET
E. Pen marks appear on the surface; unidentifiable B. When considering these results it must be
lint accumulates at the bottom; once-sturdy remembered that the device tested was a first
straps fray and then suddenly snap, scattering generation ISA speed-warning device and with
everything in all directions. more research we think that different ISA-
F. Even the best handbags don’t wear well. systems could be improved and the effects made
G. But these things get a lot of wear and tear. more stable during long-term use.
H. For example, coach bags, two of which I inher- C. Further analyses of 27 of the 61 test drivers
ited from my mother. then showed that the activation of the warning
system affected different drivers in quite a
11. Which of the following is the first sentence homogenous way, with regards to attitude,
in the correct sequence? subjective norm and self-reported behaviour,
but not with regards to perceived behavioural
1] A 2] B 3] C control.
4] E 5] F
D. But do we really know how these systems affect
drivers during long-term use?
12. Which of the following is the last sentence
in the correct sequence? E. After activation, long-term use did, however,
affect the test drivers in a homogenous way
1] A 2] B 3] C
with regards to attitude, subjective norm and
4] D 5] E self-reported behaviour, as well as perceived
behavioural control.
13. Which is the third sentence of the correct
F. Between 2000 and 2003, a total of 61 test drivers
sequence?
had an ISA speed-warning device installed
1] B 2] C 3] F in their vehicles.
4] G 5] None of these
G. Different systems of intelligent speed adap-
tation (ISA) have already been tested in the
14. Which sentence would best fit between F and field and large-scale implementation is being
C? discussed.
1] A 2] B 3] D
4] H 5] None of these
16. Which is the first sentence of the sequence?
15. Which sentence should precede sentence G in 1] F 2] B 3] A

the correct sequence? 4] G 5] D
1] B 2] C 3] D
4] E 5] F 17. Which is the last sentence of the sequence?
1] A 2] B 3] C
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: The sentences 4] D 5] E
given below are jumbled. Rearrange them in a
logical sequence to form a coherent paragraph and
answer the questions that follow the set. 18. Which sentence would come between F and
C?
1] A 2] B 3] E
A. Data from these trials show that, initially, the
device greatly reduced the amount of time the 4] G 5] none of these
majority of test drivers spent above the speed
limit, and to some extent also reduced their
mean speeds, but this effect decreased with
time.
CET 500
19. Which is the penultimate sentence of the 24. Being sensitive to public issues and ______
sequence? to devote time for public causes have to be
the primary ______ for one to be a politician.
1] C 2] D 3] E
4] F 5] G 1] readiness – qualification
2] preparedness – responsibilities
3] willingness – qualities
20. Which is the second sentence of the sequence? 4] insensitive – concern
1] B 2] D 3] E 5] willing – eligibility
4] F 5] G
25. Perhaps ______ in a democracy and ______
a national counter-narrative to radical religi-
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 30: Select the
osity helps us see things in a different light.
option that contains the pair of words that fit into
the blanks in each sentence. 1] life – accepting
2] policies – acceptance
3] living – accepting
21. Comparing life to a bicycle, Albert Einstein has 4] livelihood – acceptance
said that to keep ______ one must keep ______. 5] liveliness – acceptability
1] cycling – pushing
2] balancing– moving
26. The worst cloudburst of the decade hit Ladakh
3] wandering – stability
in the ______ season and proved ______ for
4] pedalling – exercising
its tourism-based economy.
5] health – cycle
1] peak – disastrous
2] summer – advantageous
22. The NIMH says that one out of every four 3] winter – interesting
Americans ______ from a diagnosable mental 4] lull – baneful
disorder and two-thirds of Americans ______ 5] snowfall – fetching
likely to seek help for stress.
1] trouble – most 27. ______ with acute epilepsy, he suffers from
2] are diagnosed – very frequents bouts of ______ .
3] suffer – is
1] Up – imagination
4] suffers – are
2] Down – hallucination
5] suffering – are
3] Diagnosed – fits
4] Summoned – hysteria
23. At the heart of the current problems is the 5] Beckoned – Fever
______ reinstatement of the chief of army,
______ was dismissed earlier for insubordina- 28. The rise in company profits ______ that the
tion. company managers will ______ to the union's
1] President’s – whom request of granting bonuses.
2] President – who 1] symbolises – refuse
3] President – that 2] eliminates – decline
4] President’s – which 3] points – attack
5] President’s – who 4] indicates – align
5] highlights – refute
CET
29. The union came to the general staff meeting DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: Given below
with such an ______ attitude, that it was are 5 incomplete sentences followed by a set of 10
impossible to reach a ______ agreement. concluding parts, more than one of which could
1] effervescent – cohesive complete the 5 incomplete sentences. Choose the
2] ancillary – conclusive conclusion/s that grammatically and contextually
3] stubborn – harmonious follow/s the given statements.
4] indolent – mutual
5] indulgent – lasting 36. While Yasti’s government in Fraeland is seem-
ingly pro-Prisa,
30. With the increase of information increases the

necessity of __________ to use the informa- 37. This is an issue of grave concern to the nation
tion prope rly, for every suc h increase called Idut
____________ the human capacity of evil.
1] skill – reduces 38. Idut must take active steps to ensure that
2] knowledge – diminishes
3] insight – subsides 39. The Minister has his job cut out for him
4] recipe – culminates
5] wisdom – augments 40. S. N. Praja was a surprise choice ahead of
Kapesh Lalav
DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: Choose the Concluding parts:
option that is antonymous to the capitalized word. A. and the step taken is the right one
B. as Yasti’s stand can influence other nations’
31. RESOLUTE viewpoints
1] intent 2] courageous 3] afraid C. Fraeland understands Idut’s concerns at the
4] st au nc h 5] faithful same time
D. as the recent interviews by Chlotte indicate
32. BRISK
E. and the former has taken pains to ensure that
1] lively 2] inactive 3] sho rt he is seen taking stringent measures
4] elongated 5] energetic
F. to inspire confidence in the hearts of millions
G. but Idut need not be concerned
33. HESITANT
1] uncertain 2] doubting 3] reluctant H. as he had proved himself to be good for Idut
4] confident 5] modest earlier
I. since the country’s basmati exports are affected
by Prisa’s efforts
34. GRAVE
1] ridiculous 2] serious 3] sad J. the minister must ensure that his course of action
4] primary 5] restricted is unassailable
36. 1] Only C 2] C then B

35. MELD 3] G then B 4] G then H
1] merge 2] divide 3] examine 5] C then H
4] bend 5] saturate
37. 1] Only G 2] Only I
3] Only H 4] I, E then H
5] J, B then A
CET 500
38. 1] C, A then B 2] C, D then A 44. You can do what you want with your own time
3] I then F 4] D then F and money.
5] Only F
1] Others can suggest how one should spend
one's time and money.
39. 1] Either B or I 2] Only B
2] How one spends one's time and money is
3] G, H then J 4] J, F then A
nobody's business.
5] Only G
3] One will be able to decide what one wants
40. 1] Either H or E 2] Only A with money and time.
3] D then A 4] G then B 4] One cannot decide what others can do with
5] I then J their time and money.
5] How to spend one's time and money is one's
own prerogative.
DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 50: Each question
has a sentence followed by five different ways of 45. My inability to spell makes me feel worse than
expressing the same idea. Select the option that before about myself when I think about it.
appropriately conveys the meaning of the statement, 1] My inability to spell does not make me feel
without making major changes in the sentence. good about myself everyday.
2] I do not feel good about myself and about
my inability to spell.
41. Mia fixed up a drink, as she was thirsty.
3] The more I think about my inability to spell
1] Mia fixes things when she is thirsty. the worse I feel about myself.
2] Mia does not fix up drinks unless she is 4] Inability to spell hinders my expression and
thirsty. this makes me feel bad.
3] Being thirsty, Mia arranged a drink for herself. 5] None of these
4] As Mia was thirsty, she fixed up things.
5] None of these 46. The book is honest as it shreds your fancy
notions about "The Exotic East".
42. Fiction is truer than history. 1] An honest book shreds your false notions
1] History states the truth which fiction hides. about exotic eastern countries.
2] Fiction states events not present in history. 2] A book is honest when it shreds your false
3] Fiction provides better glimpse of truth than notions about exotic things.
history. 3] The fancy notions about "The Exotic East"
4] Fiction is less true than history. are shredded by your honest book.
5] History repeats itself as fiction. 4] The book is honest as it shows the reality
behind exotic and fancy notions about the
East.
43. He is not one of those people who believe 5] None of these
everything they hear.
1] Unlike some people, he does not believe 47. A HR manager needs to have the background
everything he hears. knowledge about the employees s/he is un-
2] Not like most of the people, he never believes dertaking for assessment.
what others say. 1] All HR managers need to gather all the
3] While most people believe others, he always information about employee assessment
suspects them. beforehand to perform better.
4] He does not believe those people who listen 2] A good knowledge of background informa-
to what others say. tion of employees is necessary for a HR
5] Most people believe everything others say manager before s/he undertakes their as-
but he does not. sessment.
CET
3] Employees need to submit their information 50. Only a portion of the grid, called a window,
to the HR manager who is going to review is visible at any one time on the screen.
their assessment. 1] The only visible portion of the grid on the
4] A HR manager with enough background screen at any one time is the window
knowledge about the employees can write 2] Entire screen is not visible on the screen
good pointers for their assessment at all the time except for window.
5] A good knowledge of employees will lead 3] The grid is not visible entirely at a single
to a better assessment of their background time on the screen.
by the HR manager. 4] The screen can only display windows part
of the grid, which is visible
48. If there is a specific type of fine arts, the 5] None of these
psychological effect of which lingers on the
connoisseur, it is music. DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 60: Fill in the
1] Music has more lingering psychological missing links in the following passage with the
effect than any other type of art has on the correct options.
connoisseur.
2] Only music has more lingering psychologi- Even in the days before my teacher came, I used to
cal effect on the connoisseur than any other feel along the square stiff boxwood hedges, and,
fine art. ____[51]____ by the ____[52]____ of smell would
3] Connoisseurs find music's lingering psy- find the first violets and lilies. There, too, after a fit
chological effect more soothing than other of temper, I went to find ____[53]____ and to hide
fine arts. my hot face in the ____[54]____ leaves and grass.
4] Among all the fine arts, music has more What ____[55]____ it was to lose myself in that
____[56]____ of flowers, to ____[57]____ around
lingering effect on the psychology of the
happily until, coming suddenly upon a beautiful vine,
connoisseur.
I recognized it by its leaves and blossoms, and knew
5] All the fine arts have a lingering psycho-
it was the vine which covered the tumble-down
logical effect on the connoisseur's psychol-
summerhouse at the farther end of the garden! Here,
ogy.
also, were trailing clematis, drooping jessamine, and
some rare sweet flowers called butterfly lilies, because
49. Made of perishable materials like wood and their ____[58]____ petals resemble butterflies' wings.
fabric, the art of furniture making does not shed But the roses–they were the ____[59]____ of all. Never
much light on its history. have I found in the greenhouses of the North such
heart-satisfying roses as the climbing roses of my
1] Our limited knowledge about furniture making
southern home. They used to hang in long festoons
is the result of the use of perishable ma- from our porch, filling the whole air with their
terials like wood and fabric. ____[60]____, untainted by any earthy smell; and
2] To preserve the art of furniture making we in the early morning, washed in the dew, they felt
must start using long-lasting materials like so soft, so pure, I could not help wondering if they
steel and glass. did not resemble the asphodels of God's garden.
3] Furniture making is an ancient art, which
is lost with less and less use of its traditional 51. 1] followed 2] se nt
material like wood and fabric. 3] guided 4] ordered
4] Much of the history of the art of furniture 5] confused
making is lost because of its use of per-
ishable materials like wood and fabric. 52. 1] faculty 2] sense
5] Because of its use of delicate materials like 3] ability 4] path
wood and fabric, the art of furniture making 5] attribute
has no history.
CET 500
53. 1] comfort 2] joy 63. TERSE

3] advice 4] counsel (A) fearless (B) strain (C) curt
5] guidance
1] A only 2] A and B
3] C only 4] B and C
54. 1] hot 2] sticky
5] None of these
3] perfumed 4] cool
5] shiny
64. AUDACITY
55. 1] sorrow 2] misery
(A) asperity (B) boldness (C) atrocity
3] trouble 4] magnificience
1] A only 2] A and B
5] joy
3] C only 4] B & C
5] None of these
56. 1] bouquet 2] garden
3] avenue 4] abundance
5] lane 65. FEIGN
(A) pretend (B) change (C) try
57. 1] gallop 2] trudge
3] stride 4] patrol 1] Only A 2] B only
5] wander 3] C only 4] A & B
5] All the three
58. 1] thick 2] rough
3] fragile 4] coarse DIRECTIONS for questions 66 to 70: Fill the
5] sharp following blanks with the correct form of tense.
59. 1] loveliest 2] colourful

3] biggest 4] marvellous 66. Pratima ________ kathak for the last five years.
5] fantastic 1] has practiced
2] has been practicing
60. 1] odour 2] fragrance 3] has been practising
3] smell 4] stench 4] practiced
5] aroma 5] practised
DIRECTIONS for questions 61 to 65: Find out which 67. The bus ________ before I reached the sta-
of the three given words or none of the three is/ tion.
are most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word 1] has left
printed in bold. 2] left
3] had been leaving
4] had left
61. MOLLIFY
5] has been leaving
(A) mortify (B) soften (C) appease
1] A only 2] B only
68. Mr. Chatterjee ________ for a walk every
3] C only 4] A and C only
evening.
5] B and C only
1] go
2] gone
62. CORPULENT 3] has been going
(A) material (B) obese (C) unhealthy 4] has gone
1] A only 2] B only 5] go e s
3] C only 4] A and B only
5] All the three
CET
69. If I visit the exhibition, I ________ some clothes 75. They are only small in most cases but we would
for you. be lost without them! I am referring of course
to prepositions and as you can see I have
1] bought 2] b u y
already used four of them - and there goes
3] have bought 4] will buy
number five.
5] had bought
70. When I saw Samson ten years ago, he ________ DIRECTIONS for questions 76 to 80: Each sentence
there in the college for seven years. is broken into four labelled parts. Mark the part
that has an error in it. Mark [5] if there is no error.
1] has been teaching
2] has taught
3] taught 76. The main reason for the
4] had been teaching
1]
5] teaches
reduction in the death rate in the
DIRECTIONS for questions 71 to 75: Given below 2]
are some sentences. Read each of them carefully
and: developing world have been
Mark [1], if the sentence has one error. 3]
Mark [2], if the sentence has two errors. improved public health measures
.
Mark [3], if the sentence has three errors. 4]
Mark [4], if the sentence has four errors.
Mark [5], if the sentence has no error.
Ignore errors of punctuation, if any. 77. It is a major risk that no one will want
1] 2]
71. Although technological progress is good at
making computer hardware quicker, smaller and to become teacher if salaries are not raised
.
cheap, it often leaves behind the software that 3] 4]
made the machine usefully in the first place.
72. More people are subj ected to an endless 78. Most of the knowledge
bombardment of advertisements on television 1]
just after Christmas invites them to booking
acquired from parents, friends
for their summer holiday.
2]
73. The wondro us inventions of t he modern schools, newspapers, books, conversati ons and
economy-Google, Amazon, the iPhone-broadly 3]
improved the lives of middle-class consumers,
even as they made a tiny subset of entrepre- television are received verbally
.
neurs hugely wealthy. 4]
74. They belong at that select world called amateur

dramatics, a world that once a year invading
the town where I live.
CET 500
84. 1] concience 2] conscience

79. Some believe that the anxiety bought about by the
3] consiense 4] co nsen se
1] 2] 5] conciense
experience does not cause memory failure
. 85. 1] morge 2] mourg
3] 4]
3] morgue 4] mourge
5] mourgue
80. This is a document which validity has

1] 2] DIRECTIONS for questions 86 and 87: In each of
the following, find the word that is incorrectly spelt.
been questioned by several countries
. 86. 1] ascendant 2] greatful
3] 4]
3] leukemia 4] separate
5] cemetery
DIRECTIONS for questions 81 and 82: In each of 87. 1] accommodation 2] assa ssin
the following questions, a sentence is broken up into 3] grandeur 4] antediluvian
five parts and given in a jumbled manner. Rearrange 5] dessicated
the parts to form a meaningful sentence and mark
the answer accordingly. DIRECTIONS for questions 88 to 90: Select the
option that fits in the given blanks the maximum
81. A. the second-generation Indians number of times.
B. the strong Indian sense of community
88. a. The ________ of this investigation was
C. strong family values, selected randomly.
D. has undoubtedly benefited b. The paper was rejected on ________ of
E. revelling in its length.
c. Teachers should be well trained in their
1] BDCEA 2] ADBEC 3] ECBDA ________.
4] EBADC 5] BDECA d. He found an old _______________ of the
magazine in the dentist’s waiting room.
82. A. investors take 1] issue 2] subject
B. ironically, one of the most common 3] proceeding 4] account
5] topic
C. adequate risks
D. investment risks that
89. a. You have to be a good observer to
E. is of not taking ________ all the details.
1] CABDE 2] DAEBC 3] BCAED
b. I ________ him under a different name.
4] CDAEB 5] BDAEC
c. ________ your luggage before boarding
the flight.
DIRECTIONS for questions 83 to 85: Mark the word d. I just cannot ________ your point.
which is spelt correctly. 1] accomplish 2] know
3] check 4] assure
5] s e e
83. 1] enginere 2] engeniere
3] enginiere 4] engineere
5] engineer
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90. a. He came here to ________ an account 94. TENNIS : RACKET

in the bank.
1] golf : club
b. The gift reached safe and ________ and
in time. 2] carom : dice
c. We were very ________ during our col 3] snooker : cue
lege days. 4] soccer : soccer ball
d. She was ________ to tears when her best 5] hockey : stick
friend left to live abroad.
1] close 2] s o u n d 3] open 95. CLOWN : FUNNY
4] safe 5] b a d
1] miser : greedy
2] artist : creative
DIRECTIONS for questions 91 and 92: Each ques- 3] politician : unlawful
tion below consists of a capitalized pair of words,
4] fanatic : radical
followed by five pairs of words. Select the pair that
5] warrior : courageous
best expresses a relationship SIMILAR to that
expressed in the capitalized pair.
DIRECTIONS for question 96 to 100: Find the odd
91. SUBSIDY : GOVERNMENT one out.
1] cookware : cook
96. 1] verge 2] centre 3] edge
2] jackpot : lottery ticket 4] margin 5] brink
3] laughter : circus artist
4] acidity : gastronomy 97. 1] cabbage 2] lettuce 3] watercress
5] counselling : psychologist 4] serif 5] spinach
98. 1] competitor 2] antagonist

92. ANAEMIA : HAEMOGLOBIN 3] adversary 4] rival
5] protagonist
1] anarchy : chaos
2] sagacity : wisdom
3] anguish : pain 99. 1] cow 2] goose 3] stallion
4] duck 5] mare
4] cynicism : belief
5] sophistication : dexterity
100. 1] gulf 2] sea 3] strait
4] dam 5] bay
DIRECTIONS for question 93 to 95: The questions
consist of two capitalized words that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by five pairs
of words. Choose the pair of words that is NOT
RELATED to each other in the same way as the
capitalized pair.
93. PAINT : COLOURS

1] cook : herbs
2] sew : needle
3] clean : soap
4] wash : water
5] write : paper
CET 500
READING COMPREHENSION
the level of total cereal demand is projected to be roughly
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 25: Refer to the 250 million tons - of which perhaps 30 million will be
passages given and answer the questions that follow needed to cover feed, seed and wastage. There should
each passage. be no insurmountable problems to producing this
quantity of cereals, which will require an average cereal
yield over twenty-five years of just over three metric
PASSAGE -1 tons per hectare.
Poverty in India has been diminishing, though at an People are diversifying their patterns of food
uncertain rate: data problems abound. The numbers in consumption, however. Taste, lifestyle, income and other
income poverty are in the region of 300 million. In today's changes in society are contributing to particularly fast
understanding, poverty is not just a lack of income but demand growth for noncereal foods - like vegetables,
includes deprivation in health, in education, and other fruits and milk - while consumption of coarse cereals
aspects of well-being. The country has a very mixed and pulses is either constant or declining. This trend
record. towards diversification in food consumption will continue.
Only two indicators have shown accelerated 1. According to the passage:

improvement in the last decade, fertility decline and 1] nutrition has improved drastically in recent
education. However, nearly a third of the population
years and has completely e radicated
is still illiterate. Nutrition has also improved modestly
in recent years, but malnutrition is still widespread - malnutrition in India.
despite slowly improving diets. It seems to be only partially 2] nutrition has not improved at all in recent
a problem of income. Other aspects of health also show years in India, despite slowly improving
only modest improvements, with some worsening due diets.
to environmental factors and HIV/AIDS. 3] nutrition has improved a bit in recent years,
but malnutrition is still rampant in India.
Numerous inequalities are present: most poverty is rural, 4] nutrition is yet to improve in India and
and there are large discrepancies in well-being between
malnutrit ion has not been registered
different regions and social groups. The numbers in
poverty are still projected to be 190 million in 2026, if properly.
the trends of the recent past continue. Again, these 5] none of the above.
are mechanical projections - much can be done to improve
this prospect. But the country shows divergent movement, 2. Which of the following is true according to
with the better-off states making significant progress, the context of the passage?
and the worse off (and most populous) experiencing
only slow improvement. Recent research suggests there 1] Nowadays people follow a standardized
is a link between high fertility and poverty, at the family pattern of food consumption.
level and even at the macroeconomic level. Unfortunately 2] High fertility and poverty have no link at
the states where poverty is worst and economic growth the macroeconomic level, though they are
slowest are also mostly those where population growth linked at the family level.
is fastest. But continuing fertility decline should
3] During 1951-2001 India's population grew
contribute to the amelioration of poverty.
by 445 per cent and cereal production by
What of the country's food prospects? Population growth 285 percent.
and increases in food production are intimately entwined. 4] Nearly a third of the population in India is
During 1951-2001 India's population grew by 285 per still illiterate.
cent and cereal production by 441 percent - figures which 5] In India, most poverty is an urban phenom-
suggest that over half of cereal production growth was enon.
attributable to rising demand from population growth.
The data are often patchy and inconsistent. But by 2026
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3. According to the passage, population growth 7. Which of the following factors has NOT been
is fastest and more pronounced in states where: mentioned as a factor that has brought about
1] economic growth is very slow. a change in the pattern of food consumption
in India?
2] poverty is widespread but the economy is
stable. 1] The taste of people
2] The lifestyle of people
3] both economic growth and poverty are high.
3] The incomes of people
4] economic growth and poverty are not 4] The changes in the social scenario
present. 5] The development of information technology
5] poverty is rampant and economic growth
is very slow.
8. The author's tone in the passage is:
1] acerbic and sarcastic
4. Why is it difficult to present a clear picture 2] paternal and didactic
of the poverty situation in India? 3] polemical and argumentative
1] Poverty has always been on the rise so it 4] informative and matter-of-fact
is difficult to accumulate proper data. 5] judgemental and analytical
2] Poverty involves many aspects of depriva-
tion, so the data is extremely varied. 9. From a reading of the passage what can we
3] Sometimes people feign poverty; hence it infer about the profession of the author?
is difficult to get a true picture. 1] He is a historian.
4] Poverty and economic development are so 2] He is a sociologist.
closely connected that it is difficult to present 3] He is a politician.
a comprehensive picture. 4] He is a teacher.
5] None of the above. 5] Cannot be definitely inferred.
5. Suggest a suitable title for the passage. 10. Which of the following is closest in meaning
to the word 'accelerated' as used in the passage?
1] Poverty and Economic Development in India
1] original 2] dismal
2] Poverty and its Effects on Food Habits
3] improved 4] rapid
3] The Conditions of People in India
5] vague
4] Population, Food and the Environment in
India
5] Poverty in India and Pattern of Food Con- 11. Select an option that is synonymous to the
sumption word 'divergent' as used in the passage.
1] abnormal 2] differing
3] exceptional 4] conventional
6. On the basis of your reading of the passage, 5] common
which of the following options do you think
would most probably be true?
12. The word 'amelioration', as used in the passage,
1] People nowadays consume more coarse
is similar in meaning to all the following words
cereals and pulses because they are a rich EXCEPT:
source of energy.
1] enhancement 2] correction
2] A country that shows increase in food
3] rectification 4] remedy
production is one where population growth
5] reformation
has already happened.
3] The rate of fertility is not at all connected
to poverty. 13. Select an option that is farthest in meaning
4] Progress is slowing down in states that are to the word 'entwined' as used in the passage.
economically stable. 1] inseparable 2] integral
5] Malnutrition is common only among low- 3] unified 4] unattached
income groups. 5] inseverable
CET 500
14. 'Insurmountable', as used in the passage is sandals (some as old as 8,000 years) found in a Missouri
closest in meaning to: cave she has examined, no two are alike. ‘The wearers
1] probable 2] available of these shoes lived a subsistence existence,’ she
3] overwhelming 4] ready says. ‘They didn’t need to make each pair different.
5] unrestricted But it’s human nature to make things visually
appealing, to make one pair a little more complex than
others to set it apart from someone else’s.’ The desire
15. The word 'abound', as used in the passage, to wear something different, distinctive and decorative
is similar in meaning to:
— that is to say, the instinct for fashion — has been
1] exist in great quantities around for a very long time.
2] be wanting
3] tumble and fall
16. Which of the following statements about the
4] develop slowly
sandal mentioned in the beginning of the
5] ravage and destroy
passage is NOT true?
1] It was found in 1938.
PASSAGE -2
2] It is approximately 10.5 millennia old.
3] It was worn only in the winter months.
Ease your hand gently along the insole of the sagebrush
4] It has the imprint of the wearer’s feet on
bark fibre sandal in the University of Oregon Museum
the inside.
of Natural and Cultural History, and you can feel the
imprint of a big toe in what may be the world’s oldest 5] It is currently housed in the University of
existing example of footwear. The sandal, found in Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural
Fort Rock Cave in central Oregon in 1938, may be History.
10,500 years old, and was worn by a native North
American who lived in caves during the winter months 17. Which of the following would be a suitable
and hunted in marshes in summer. title for this passage?
‘These are the traces of human lives,’ says Tom 1] Ancient Footwear
Connolly, the museum’s research director. ‘The worn 2] The Evolution of Shoes
heel pockets on the sandals; the charred pinpricks 3] Footwear through the Ages
on the toe flaps allow you to put yourself at a fireside. 4] The 10,500 Year-Old Sandal
There’s the sense you get from an assemblage of 5] The Historical Importance of Shoes
sandals here, those big and worn, small and child-
size, those caked in mud, that allows you to see them
18. Which of the following statements about shoes
as products of real human families: mom, kids, dad,
is true?
grandparents.’
1] Neanderthals used to wear shoes.
Though humans may have wrapped their feet in skins 2] Shoes were invented 26,000 years ago.
earlier, Erik Trinkaus, an anthropologist at Washington 3] Sagebrush bark fibre sandals were worn
University in St. Louis, says sturdy shoes originated only by Native North Americans.
between 40,000 and 26,000 years ago. Trinkaus studied 4] Prior to the invention of shoes, humans
the foot bones of Neanderthals living 100,000 to 40,000 probably wrapped skins around their feet.
years ago, compared them with the more delicate foot 5] Shoes make their wearers’ feet weaker
bones of our ancestors living 26,000 years ago, and because of the reduced support they pro-
concludes that shoe wearers developed weaker toes vide.
because of the reduced stress and increased support
footwear allows. From there, shoes evolved like stone
tools and art, with other advances in human culture.
Jenna Tedrick Kuttruff, a textile expert at Louisiana

State University, points out that of the group of fibre
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19. Why does the author conclude that ‘the instinct The way we manage our land, however, has been
for fashion has been around for a very long disturbed by outsiders coming here to log trees. It
time’? started in 1999 with meranti wood being taken, and
once that was finished in 2002 they started to cut
1] Because ancient shoes evolved alongside
merbau trees. This created problems for our community.
art.
Before, there was a sense of working together, a feeling
2] Because the evolution of shoes can be
of togetherness.
considered an advance in human culture.
3] Because ancient fibre sandals used to be Then, when some people are attracted to the wood
very visually appealing. company they refuse to work on the sago any more.
4] Because ancient fibre sandals are quite They think that because the company promises money,
similar in appearance to modern fashionable they don’t want to do the traditional work in the forest
shoes. any more. New values appear, like wanting to have
5] Because the makers of ancient fibre sandals more than your neighbour and putting a price on
made each pair distinctive and attractive, everything, instead of valuing what we already have.
though they did not need to do so.
The merbau logging was carried out by one company,
supported by foreign investors. We never invited this
20. Which of the following words is closest in
company here and it did not have proper permission
meaning to the word ‘charred’ as used in this
to log. I am the head of the tribal council, but the company
passage?
never talked to me. Instead it did an illegal deal with
1] stained 2] smudged one individual from our community, and this created
3] scorched 4] roasted many problems for us. But the company was backed
5] heated by a local military officer, so what could we do?
Soon after it first arrived the company was cutting

PASSAGE -3
our trees in four areas, destroying the land with heavy
equipment. Yet when people here see the military person
Local communities living in the world’s dwindling
involved, they cannot sit down together and discuss
tropical forests bear the brunt of the insatiable demand
things. Impossible.
for cheap timber, argues Frederick Sagisolo. In The
Green Room, he recounts his experience of illegal
I was really worried by this company. Our land is
logging, an d explains why commu nity forest
not that large, and with the logging after a few years
management is the way forward. The following is an
we would have had no trees left, only grass. This
extract from the book.
would mean disaster for us. It is our mission to treat
the land as something e ntrusted to us for our
Forests provide for most of the needs of the Knasaimos.
grandchildren and so we must not destroy it.
For the Knasaimos people, living in the Indonesian
province of Papua, we do not see nature as something
to be destroyed. 21. Knasaimos people get attracted to the wood
company because:
The forests here provide for our needs. For building 1] the company offers them training facilities.
houses we take rattan, bamboo and other woods; for 2] the company promises them money.
lighting fires we take damar; and for food we process 3] the company promises them permanent jobs
sago taken from the forest in the traditional method. in the forest.
The forests give us wood for fishing boats, gaharu 4] the company promises education to the local
trees for trade and many fruits which we can sell. people.
5] the company is backed by a military officer.
The relationship between our people and their nature
is important, and it’s become our pride and part of
our traditional wisdom. That’s why we manage the
land in a simple way.
CET 500
22. Who is Frederick Sagisolo, according to the involving some sort of echo-sounding. Perhaps this
passage? acute sense–far more accurate than any that human
1] The military officer ingenuity has been able to devise artificially–brings
2] The head of the tribal council it greater knowledge of its watery surroundings than
3] The owner of the wood company might at first seem possible. Human beings think of
4] A foreign investor intelligence as geared to things. The hand and the
5] An Indonesian prince tool are to us the unconscious symbols of our intel-
lectual attainment. It is difficult for us to visualize another
kind of lonely, almost disembodied intelligence floating
23. Which of t he following plant s has been in the wavering green fairyland of the sea–an intel-
mentioned in the passage as used by the ligence possibly near or comparable to our own but
Knasaimos people for building houses? without hands to build, to transmit knowledge by writing,
1] merbau 2] meranti or to alter by one hair’s breadth the planet’s surface.
3] gaharu 4] damar Yet at the same time there are indications that this
5] rattan is a warm, friendly, and eager intelligence quite capable
of coming to the assistance of injured companions and
striving to rescue them from drowning. Dolphins left
24. Why couldn’t the head of the tribal council
the land when mammalian brains were still small and
stop the illegal merbau logging carried out by
primitive. Without the stimulus provided by agile
one company?
exploring fingers, these great sea mammals have yet
1] Because he was not in town when the deal taken a divergent road towards intelligence of a high
happened. order. Hidden in their sleek bodies is an impressively
2] Because the company had an illegal deal elaborated instrument, the reason for whose appear-
with an individual from the tribal commu- ance is a complete enigma. It is as though both the
nity. human being and the dolphin were each part of some
3] Because the company was financed by
great eye which yearned to look both outward on eternity
foreign investors.
and inward to the sea's heart that fertile entity like
4] Because the company was backed by a local
the mind in its swarming and grotesque life.
military officer.
5] Because he was bribed by the company. PASSAGE II
Nothing about dolphins has been more widely or
passionately discussed over the centuries than their
25. Which of the following words is closest in
supposed intelligence and communicative abilities. In
meaning to the word ‘brunt’ as used in the
fact, a persistent dogma holds that dolphins are among
passage?
the most intelligent of animals and that they com-
1] weakness 2] burden municate with one another in complex ways. Implicit
3] meaning 4] dynamism in this argument is the belief that dolphin cultures
5] glow are at least as ancient and rich as our own. To support
the claim of high intelligence amongst dolphins,
DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 35: Read both proponents note that they have large brains, live in
passages I and II given below and answer the societies marked as much by co-operative as by
questions that follow. competitive interactions and rapidly learn the artificial
PASSAGE I tasks given to them in captivity. Indeed, dolphins
are clearly capable of learning through observation
Most of the intelligent land animals have prehensile,
and have good memories. People who spend time with
grasping organs for exploring their environment-hands
captive dolphins are invariably impressed by their sense
in human beings and their anthropoid relatives, the
of humour , playfulness, quick comprehension of body
sensitive inquiring trunk in the elephant. One of the
language, command of situations, mental agility and
surprising things about the dolphin is that its superior
emotional resilience. Individual dolphins have distinc-
brain is unaccompanied by any type of manipulative
tive personalities and trainers often speak of being
organ. It has, however, a remarkable range-finding ability
CET
trained by their subjects, rather than the other way 26. What is the difference in the opinions of the
round. authors of passages I and II with respect to
The extremely varied repertoires of sounds made by the intelligence of dolphins?
dolphins are often invoked as prima facie evidence 1] The first author believes that dolphins are
of advanced communication abilities. In addition, some the most intelligent of all creatures; the
"scientific" experiments done by John Lilly and his
second author believes that the intelligence
associates during the 1950s and 1960s were claimed
of dolphins is overrated.
to show that dolphins communicate not only with
one another but also with humans, mimicking human 2] The first author considers dolphins to have
speech and reaching out across the boundaries that more intelligence than any human innova-
divide us. These conclusions about dolphin intelli- tion has been able to create artificially; the
gence and communication have not withstood critical second author believes that dolphins come
scrutiny. While they have fueled romantic specula- close to equalling or exceeding human
tion, their net impact has been to mislead. Rather than cognitive powers.
allowing dolphins to be discovered and appreciated 3] The first author believes that the intelli-
for what they are, Lilly’s vision has forced us to gence of dolphins is overrated; the second
measure these animals’ value according to how close considers dolphins intelligent but states
they come to equalling or exceeding our own intel- that humans have not been able to measure
ligence, virtue and spiritual development. The issues the extent of the intellectual capabilities of
of dolphin’s intelligence and communication abilities the dolphin.
have been inseparable in most people's minds, and 4] The first author asserts that dolphins and
the presumed existence of one has been taken as proof humans are equally intelligent in many
of the other – a classic case of begging the question.
respects; the second states that the
Not surprisingly then, most experiments to evaluate
dolphin's mastery over communication is
dolphin intelligence have measured the animal’s
a sign of its superior intelligence.
capacity for cognitive processing as exhibited in its
understanding of the rudiments of language. From 5] The first author considers dolphins to be
the early work of researchers like Dwight Batteau and quite intelligent in spite of not having a
Jarvis Bastian through the more recent work of Louis manipulative organ; the second claims that
Herman and associates, dolphins have been asked dolphins do have superior intelligence but
to accept simple information, in the form of acoustic have basic intellectual capabilities.
or visual symbols representing verbs and nouns, and
then to act on the information following a set of 27. With which of the following statements would
commands from the experimenter. The widely pub- the authors of both the passages be most likely
licized results have been somewhat disappointing. to agree?
Although they have demonstrated that dolphins do
have the primary skills necessary to support under- 1] Dolphins are very cooperative in their group
standing and use of a language, they have not interactions.
distinguished the dolphins from other animals in this 2] Intelligence must always be geared to things
respect. For example, some seals, animals we do not and cannot be disembodied.
normally cite as members of the intellectual or com- 3] Dolphins are just one of the many
municative elite, have been found to have the same intelligent sea creatures.
basic capabilities. 4] Dolphins' culture is at least as ancient and
What, then, do the results of experiments to date mean? rich as our own.
Either we have not devised adequate tests to permit 5] Dolphins have a superior brain.
us to detect, measure and rank intelligence as a measure
of a given species' ability to communicate, or we must
acknowledge that the characteristics that we regard
as rudimentary evidence of intelligence are held more
commonly by many "lower" animals than we previously
thought.
CET 500
28. Which of the following words would mean 33. The style of Passage II can be best described as:
"responsive to physical stimuli" based on the 1] narrative 2] argumentative
contextual usage of the phrase in Passage I? 3] prescriptive 4] analytical
1] manipulative 2] sensitive 5] factual
3] anthropoid 4] agile
5] prehensile 34. The primary purpose of the author of Passage
II is:
29. The word ‘rudimentary’, as used in the last 1] to show how we still have not been
paragraph of Passage II, is closest in meaning successful in measuring the intelligence of
to: other creatures.
1] complimentary 2] supplementary 2] to prove that dolphins' intellectual skills
3] elementary 4] complementary are nothing but a figment of the human
5] explanatory imagination.
3] to highlight the intellectual abilities of
30. What is the tone of the author in Passage I? dolphins and their resulting ability to
1] tentative 2] ecstatic 3] admiring communicate.
4] nonchalant 5] detached 4] to disprove the notion that dolphins are
among the most intelligent of creatures.
31. Which of the following can be correctly implied 5] to argue that dolphins are not the only
from Passage I? intelligent creatures.
1] Humans do not have a range-finding ability.
2] All land animals have prehensile grasping 35. Which of the following statements can be
organs. inferred from the penultimate paragraph of
Passage II?
3] Humans have the ability to share
knowledge by writing. 1] Dolphins do have intelligence but of a
4] Dolphins are among the most intelligent different type than the cognitive abilities
fish in the world. of humans.
5] The range-finding ability of dolphins using 2] Dolphins are not the only animals to have
echo-sounding is also found in bats. primary intelligence.
3] Seals are known to be members of the
32. As per the information in Passage I, why is communication elite.
it surprising that the dolphin does not have 4] Dolphins can interpret acoustic and visual
any kind of manipulative organ? symbols quite capably.
5] The results of the experiments were very
1] Because humans and their anthropoid
disappointing to those who conducted it.
relatives have hands.
2] Because the hands are to us a symbol of
our intellectual attainment.
3] Because the dolphin has a superior brain
compared to other land animals.
4] Because humans think of intelligence as
being geared to things.
5] Because most of the intelligent land
animals have prehensile grasping organs
for exploring their environment.
CET
VERBAL REASONING - I
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Each question 5. Some computers are books. All books are pins.
has four statements followed by four conclusions. Some pins are sheets. All sheets are offices.
Choose the option where the conclusion/s follow/s i. Some pins are computers.
from at least two of the four statements.
ii. Some sheets are books.
iii. Some offices are pins.
1. Some plots are buildings. All buildings are apart-
ments. All apartments are houses. Some houses iv. Some offices are computers.
are flats. 1] i and iii 2] iii and iv 3] iv
i. All buildings are houses. 4] i and ii 5] none of these
ii. Some apartments are buildings. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: You are given
iii. Some flats are apartments. two statements, A and B.
iv. Some houses are plots. Mark [1], if statement A is the cause and statement
1] iv 2] i and iv 3] ii B is the effect.
4] i 5] none of these Mark [2], if statement B is the cause and statement
A is the effect.
2. All bags are suitcases. All purses are suitcases.
Mark [3], if statements A and B are independent
All tins are bags. Some suitcases are cartons.
causes.
i. Some bags are cartons.
Mark [4], if statements A and B are effects of
ii. All tins are suitcases. independent causes.
iii. Some purses are tins. Mark [5], if statements A and B are effects of a
iv. Some cartons are tins. common cause.
1] iii 2] i and iv
6. A. The shocked commuters were aided by
3] ii and iv 4] ii
firemen in getting out of the emergency
5] all of these
exit.
3. All snaps are photos. Some photos are albums. B. The Railw ay Minister has ordered a
All albums are diagrams. No diagram is an image. complete investigation to find out the
i. Some albums are snaps. people responsible for this.
ii. No image is a photo. 7. A. Initiatives were taken to ensure water
iii. Some diagrams are photos. quality, food safety, sanitation, hygiene,
iv. Some images are photos. immunization and protection against water
1] iv 2] iii 3] ii borne diseases.
4] i and iii 5] all of these B. The city was under water for almost two
days.
4. Some tomatoes are potatoes. All potatoes are
vegetables. All vegetables are fruits. Some fruits 8. A. Desperate parents have little option but to
are onions. seek employment for their children.
i. All potatoes are fruits. B. A speed restriction of 20 km/hr at the level
ii. Some vegetables are potatoes. crossing for trains is imposed.
iii. Some onions are vegetables.
9. A. Many animals and plants that live in the
iv. Some fruits are tomatoes. rainforests face the spectre of extinction.
1] ii 2] i and iv 3] iv B. Rainforests are being destroyed at an
4] i and iii 5] none of these alarming rate throughout the world.
CET 500
10. A. The climate is adversely affected. 4] Poor nutrition in children results in delayed
B. The pilot could not attain adequate altitude. physical growth.
5] These children face a lot of problems.
DIRECTIONS to questions 11 to 15: Read each of
the following statements and answer the question 14. The Railway Administration told the authori-
that follows. ties to try to ensure regularity of police escorts
11. The scheduled domestic flight from Bangkok on trains.
to Phuket, after landing skidded off the runway, What would be a probable cause of this?
impacted several trees and caught fire. 1] There have been increasing number of cases
What would be a probable cause of this? of tampering with the track.
1] The aircraft was hijacked as a part of large- 2] The railway authorities did not take appro-
scale terrorist action. priate measures in the past.
2] The aircraft had communication difficulties 3] Passengers have been experiencing a lot of
from the air traffic control. criminal activities on the trains.
3] A passenger allegedly assaulted a flight 4] Inspection at Level Crossing gates were not
attendant. conducted for a long time.
4] The aircraft landed about 10 minutes after 5] The authorities have not held meetings on
an Air France aircraft which crashed trying this subject for a long time.
to take off. 15. The population is increasing day by day.
5] There was heavy rain and poor visibility at What would be a probable effect of this?
the time the aircraft was about to land.
1] The world is running out of natural resources.
12. Unusually heavy rainfall inundated the roads and 2] There are a lot of diseases.
caused damage to the water supply system, to 3] Everybody cannot work and satisfy their
sewerage, to the sewage disposal system and needs.
also led to an insufficient supply of drinking water. 4] People get frustrated in the event of not
What would be a probable effect of this? getting work and can't support their families.
1] A lot of people suffered psychological 5] None of the above.
disturbances.
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 25: Given below
2] There was an increase in emotional and are some statements, each of which is followed by
physical stress. two possible courses of action, A and B.
3] Many suffered from possible waterborne Mark [1], if only A is to be the course of action.
infections. Mark [2], if only B is to be the course of action.
4] There was a decrease in normal health care Mark [3], if either A or B is to be the course of
services and insufficient access to medical action.
care. Mark [4], if neither A nor B is to be the course
5] People experienced food shortage. of action.
Mark [5], if both A and B are to be the courses
13. Children in underdeveloped countries are of action.
malnourished.
What would be a probable effect of this? 16. A new mall is scheduled to open in this street,
1] Malnourished children have enhanced lev- even though it will result in an increase in traffic
els of attention and concentration. jams, which will cause great inconvenience for
2] These undernourished children become the local residents.
victims of child abuse. A. The mall should not be allowed to open.
3] These children are a cause of concern for B. The residents of this street should request
their families. the mall management to reroute some of traffic
via a back street in order to avert traffic jams.
CET
17. While the consumption of wine is known to 23. The electric supply to the hospital tripped putting
be bad for the liver, it also seems to be good the lives of patients on ventilators at risk.
for the heart. A. The life-saving machines should be run on
A. People should not drink wine, because it available back-up power.
is harmful to health. B. A complaint should be lodged and electri-
B. People should drink wine, because it is cians should be summoned to tackle the
beneficial to health. problem.
18. Schools nowadays focus exclusively on aca- 24. A four-member gang barged into a house and
demic curricula, even though the children need decamped with a lot of gold jewellery and cash.
to develop their skills in other fields like sports A. Valuables like gold jewellery and cash should
and art as well. be kept in bank and not in residential places.
A. The children should be encouraged to B. A case of robbery should be registered.
develop their non-academic skills during
25. The district police plan to launch an intensive
their free time.
drive against drunk driving.
B. Parents should petition the Board of Edu-
A. Action such as suspension of driving li-
cation to make extra-curricular activities
cences should be initiated against those
compulsory in schools.
driving in an inebriated condition.
19. There is an urgent need to conserve water in B. The police should carry out breath testing
the city. on drivers.
A. Recycling and reusing water for non-po-
table purposes should be made mandatory
is a passage followed by several possible inferences
for new buildings.
that can be drawn from the facts stated in the
B. The State Cabinet should call a meeting to
passage. You have to examine each inference sepa-
decide whether a 100% water cut once a
rately in the context of the passage and decide upon
week should be imposed.
its degree of truth or falsity.
20. Hotels use sound recordings of copyrighted Mark [1], if the inference is “definitely true”, i.e.,
music during Christmas and New Year celebra- properly follows from the statements of facts given.
tions without permission. Mark [2], if the inference is “probably true”, though
A. All sound recordings of albums should be not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given.
immediately withdrawn from the markets. Mark [3], if the inference is “definitely false”, i.e.,
B. A stay order should be issued on playing it contradicts the given facts.
music without permission in hotels. Mark [4], if the inference is “probably false”, though
not “definitely false” in light of the facts given.
21. Manhole covers, which are made of cast iron
Mark [5], if the “data is inadequate”, i.e., from the
and fetch a good price when sold as scrap,
facts given, it is not possible to draw any conclusion.
are often stolen by miscreants.
A. All manhole covers should be replaced with There’s an eerie silence these days in the elevators
fibre-reinforced plastic which has no resale at Toshiba Corp.’s 36-storey Tokyo headquarters. A
value. sign pasted on the door of every car reads “Quiet
B. All miscreants should be apprehended and Please,” and employees either whisper or hold their
put behind bars. tongues as they shuttle between floors. Why the
prohibition on chatter? Toshiba wants to make sure
22. The 24-floor structure that has 96 flats has been outsiders don’t overhear any secrets.
declared illegal and demolition orders have been
It fits nicely with a campaign by the new Chief
issued.
Executive, Atsutoshi Nishida, to keep key technolo-
A. The residents should go on a hunger strike. gies close to the vest. As a Toshiba executive for
B. The demolition order should be quashed.
CET 500
two decades, Nishida watched promising innovations shift from India’s earlier stance. Since this shift, trade
become commodities as the company licensed new- relations between India and Israel have skyrocketed.
fangled memory chips, hard drives, and other ideas Prior to that time, the country was an active supporter
to rivals. Without a stable but low-growth business of Palestinian cause and was one of the first non-
in power plants and infrastructure, Toshiba might have Muslim and Arab nations to support Yasir Arafat -
seen its last days. “Now is the time for us to think at a time when Israel, the United States and some
about our survival,” Nishida says. other Western nations considered his Palestine Lib-
eration Organization to be a terrorist outfit. In the
26. Nishida is hoping to end the cycle of their United Nations, India supported virtually every motion
products becoming commodities in the hands that asked Israel to vacate Palestine and other Arab
of their rivals. territories it had captured during the wars in 1948,
1967 and 1973.
27. Toshiba does not want to keep key technolo-
gies in-house and would rather share them with 31. Establishing close ties with Israel will enable
outsiders, as it has traditionally done. India to befriend the United States.
32. Since 1992, India and Israel have become just
28. Toshiba is backing its strategy with action. slightly closer to each other.
29. Nishida believes Toshiba will now perform 33. Apart from India, some other non-Muslim and
better by keeping its smartest innovations to Arab nations also supported Yasir Arafat.
itself. 34. The trade relations between India and Israel
have not improved as India extended support
30. The strategy of Toshiba won’t apply to ev- to Palestine.
erything, but only to select innovations. 35. India aspires to become like Israel, which owns
the world’s most sophisticated weapons.
is a passage followed by several possible inferences
that can be drawn from the facts stated in the DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: In each
passage. You have to examine each inference sepa- question below is given a statement followed by three
rately in the context of the passage and decide upon conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
its degree of truth or falsity. assume everything in the statement to be true, then
Mark [1], if the inference is “definitely true”, i.e., consider the conclusions together and decide which
properly follows from the statements of facts given. of them logically follows from the information given
in the statement. Choose the correct option.
Mark [2], if the inference is “probably true”, though
not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given. 36. Statement:
Mark [3], if the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., The Indian cricket team has a very poor record
it contradicts the given facts. in South Africa.
Mark [4], if the inference is “probably false”, though Conclusions:
not “definitely false” in light of the facts given. I. India has a very poor cricket team.
Mark [5], if the “data is inadequate”, i.e., from the II. Indian cricketers find it difficult to thrive
facts given, it is not possible to draw any conclusion. in South African conditions.
Israel, as such a close and key strategic partner of III. South Africa has a better cricket team than
the United States, is in ways a model of what India India
aims to become. For India, the reasoning is simple: 1] Only conclusion I follows
If your brother and my brother are close friends, it
2] Only conclusion II follows
makes sense that you and I become friends as well.
It’s almost inevitable and, from India’s perspective, 3] Only conclusions I and III follow
highly desirable, to build a solid foundation of trust 4] Only conclusions II and III follow
and shared interests with Israel. Since India and Israel 5] All the conclusions follow
established diplomatic relations in 1992, the two
countries have inexorably moved close – a radical
CET
37. Statement: 40. Statement:

Recently many foreign actors have been making Sony Corp, Japan's biggest exporter of con-
forays into the Indian film industry. sumer electronics, filed patent-infringement
Conclusions: claims seeking to block LG Electronics Inc from
I. Indian actors are the highest paid in the shipping mobile phones to the US.
world. Conclusions:
II. Awareness about Indian films has probably I. Sony and LG are competitors.
been growing outside of the country re- II. LG will be found guilty and be banned from
cently. the US.
III. Indian movies are more popular in the US III. LG has been selling Sony's technology at
than the local ones. lower prices in the US.
1] Only conclusion I follows 1] Only conclusion I follows
2] Only conclusion II follows 2] Only conclusion II follows
3] Only conclusions I and III follow 3] Only conclusions I and III follow
4] Only conclusion II and III follow 4] Only conclusion II and III follow
5] All the conclusions follow 5] All the conclusions follow
38. Statement:
DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: Each of the
Temperatures have been lower this winter when
statements given below is followed by three argu-
compared to 2009.
ments – A, B and C. Classify these arguments into
Conclusion: strong and weak arguments and select the appro-
I. Safety of people will be at risk this winter. priate option.
II. This is the harshest winter in recent memory. Strong Arguments must be both important and
III. Temperatures were very high last winter. directly related to the question.
1] Only conclusion I follows Weak Arguments may not be directly related or may
2] Only conclusion II follows be related to only trivial aspects of the question
3] Only conclusions I and III follow and may be of minor importance.
4] Only conclusion II and III follow
5] None of the conclusions follow 41. The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
should send a mission to the moon as part
39. Statement: of a survey to study its surface.
For the first time in several years, thousands A] Yes: This will help to systematically map
of H-1B visas, the once most sought after by the mineral and chemical resources on the
Indian professionals in the US, still remain entire surface of the moon which will help
unused, even as the year comes to an end. the country to meet the shortfall of minerals.
Conclusions: B] No: China has already acquired random
I. Indians don't want to work abroad now. images of the moon’s surface and India
II. H1-B visas aren't as popular as they once should use those images in their study.
were. C] No: The cost of sending a mission to the
III. H1-B visas are required for Indian profes- moon is exorbitant for a developing country
sionals who want to work in the US. like India and the returns are not worth it.
1] Only conclusion I follows 1] Only A is strong
2] Only conclusion II follows 2] Only A and C are strong
3] Only conclusions I and III follow 3] Only B and C are weak
4] Only conclusion II and III follow 4] A, B and C are strong
5] All the conclusions follow 5] None of the above
CET 500
42. The Indian Hockey Federation should start the 45. Indian classical singing should revive itself
Premier Hockey League, which will have new through a different format without hampering
rules and a new format to revive the sport. its core, to reach out for audience.
A] No: India should continue playing in the A] Yes: The newer format will make it instantly
conventional manner and not break the popular among all listeners.
tradition. B] Yes: Indian classical singers may start
B] Yes: A newer format will make hockey earning more money.
popular once again. C] No: It should not change its traditional ways.
C] Yes: Sponsors have agreed to provide 1] Only A is weak
sponsorship if the new rules are introduced. 2] Only A and C are strong
1] Only B is strong 3] B and C are weak
2] Only C is strong 4] Only B is strong
3] A, B and C are weak 5] None of the above
4] Only A and C are strong
5] Only B and C are strong DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 48: A statement
is given followed by pairs of options. Mark the
43. Indian government should hand over all the option that is logically consistent with the given
governmental welfare activities to the private statements.
sector companies.
A] Yes: Private sector companies are generally 46. Bullies wail when Hector fights.
efficient. A. Hector fought.
B] No: Private sector companies do not care B. Hector did not fight.
about public welfare but about profit. C. Bullies did not wail.
C] Yes: Private sector companies are not as D. Bullies wailed.
corrupt as government offices. 1] AC 2] DA 3] BC
1] Only A is strong 4] CB 5] CA
2] Only A and C are strong
3] A, B, C are weak 47. If Pinocchio tells a lie, his nose elongates.
4] Only B is strong A. Pinocchio did not tell a lie.
5] Only B and C are weak B. Pinocchio told a lie.
C. His nose elongated.
44. Families that wish to stay together peacefully D. His nose did not elongate.
should not watch the daily soaps on television
1] CB 2] AD 3] AC
according to the recent survey on human psy-
4] BC & DA 5] CB & AD
chology.
A] Yes: The violent and negative portrayal of 48. When there is an increase in the buying capacity
every relationship has a strong adverse of the readers, then there is an increase in the
influence on the viewers' minds. sales of books.
B] No: People watch these daily soaps for fun. A. There is an increase in the buying capacity
C] No: Murders, revenge and betrayal have of readers.
become part of our real life as well. B. There is an increase in the sales of books.
1] Only A is strong C. There is no increase in the buying capacity
2] Only A and C are strong of readers.
3] Only C is strong D. There is no increase in the sales of books.
4] Only B is strong 1] CD 2] BA
5] All are weak 3] AB and CD 4] BA and DC
5] None of these
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 49 and 50: Choose the 3) The finance minister will have to resign.
option where the third statement logically follows 1] Only (1) 2] Only (3)
from both the preceding two statements. 3] Only (1) and (2) 4] All of the above
49. A. Devika is a Girl. 5] None of the above
B. Some Children are not Girls. 53. Statement:
C. Devika is not a Child.
The number of slums in the city is at an all time high.
D. All Girls are Children.
Possible consequences:
E. All Children are Girls.
F. Devika is a Child. 1) Diseases may spread due to poor hygiene
1] AFB 2] CEA 3] DAF conditions usually prevalent in the slum
4] DCA 5] None of these areas.
2) The number of migrants in the city has been
50. A. All Men are Adults. increasing too.
B. Some Men are Unmarried. 3) The population of the city is increasing
C. Some Adults are Unmarried. rapidly.
D. No Adults are Unmarried. 1] Only (1) 2] Only (2)
E. Some Unmarried are Men. 3] Only (1) and (2) 4] All of these
F. All Unmarried are Adults. 5] None of these
1] DEF 2] BCD 3] CDE
54. Statement:
4] ABC 5] Both [2] & [4]
Unemployment has risen gradually over the past
few years.
has a situation given followed by three possible Possible consequences:
consequences. Read them carefully and decide which 1) The government will give jobs to everyone
of the consequences directly follows from the state- who is unemployed at the moment.
ment and select the correct option accordingly. 2) Government agencies will have to work to-
wards curbing this rise.
51. Statement:
3) India's economy will go into recession due
The roads near the railway station have been to this.
dug up.
1] Only (1) 2] Only (2)
Possible consequences:
3] Only (1) and (2) 4] All of these
1) Traffic jams might increase along this route.
5] None of these
2) People won't travel to the railway station.
3) Travelling along this route may become cum- 55. Statement:
bersome. The movie industry has been posting huge
1] All of the above 2] Only (1) and (2) losses for the past decade.
3] Only (2) and (3) 4] Only (1) and (3) Possible consequences:
5] None of the above 1) Small production companies may be in
danger of going out of business.
52. Statement: 2) Movies with smaller budgets may be pre-
Inflation has been increasing at alarming rate. ferred by production houses.
Possible consequences: 3) The number of hit movies will increase with
1) The government might adopt a credit policy, smaller budgets.
which aims to solve this problem. 1] Only (1) 2] Only (2)
2) The current government will lose the next 3] Only (1) and (2) 4] All of these
elections. 5] None of these
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 60: In each II. The doctor is an inept one since he asks
question below is given a statement followed by three his patients for a retest.
assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption III. Martin is suffering from a disease unknown
is something supposed or taken for granted. You to his doctor.
have to consider the statement and the following 1] Only I is implicit.
assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) 2] Only II is implicit.
is/are implicit in the statement.
3] I and II are implicit.
4] II and III are implicit.
56. Statement:
5] None are implicit.
Rishabh has decided to resign from his current
job. 59. Statement:
Assumptions: The US suffered from The Great Depression
I. Rishabh believes he deserves a higher annual in the 1930s.
salary. Assumptions:
II. Rishabh has been offered a higher paying I. The 2008 Recession could have been avoided
job by another company. if we had learnt our lessons.
III. Rishabh wants to go abroad for higher II. In the 1930s, business in the US was suf-
studies. fering.
1] Only I is implicit. III. The world economy also slowed down dras-
2] Only II is implicit. tically during the same period.
3] I and II are implicit. 1] Only I is implicit.
4] II and III are implicit. 2] Only II is implicit.
5] None are implicit. 3] Only III is implicit.
57. Statement: 5] II and III are implicit.
Sam has explained to Ram that he does not
want to deal with his company anymore. 60. Statement:
Assumptions: C. Rangarajan says inflation rates will go down
I. Sam used to deal with Ram's company in in a few months.
the past. Assumptions:
II. Sam and Ram are good friends. I. C. Rangarajan is the chairman of the Prime
III. Sam wants to own a company just like Ram. Minister's Economic Advisory Council.
1] Only I is implicit. II. Inflation rates are worryingly high at present.
2] Only II is implicit. III. Inflation rates have been decreasing con-
3] I and II are implicit. sistently in the recent past.
4] I and III are implicit. 1] Only I is implicit.
5] None are implicit. 2] Only II is implicit.
58. Statement: 4] II and III are implicit.
The doctor advised Martin to get his blood 5] None are implicit.
tested again.
Assumptions:
I. The doctor never diagnoses his patients
after just a single blood test.
CET
VERBAL REASONING - II
(CRITICAL REASONING)
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: Read the following 3] There are a few drugs other than Vitamin
short passage and answer the questions that follow. D already being used to fight cancer.
Exciting new research conducted at the Creighton 4] Creighton University School of Medicine
University School of Medicine in Nebraska has in Nebraska has been set up primarily to
revealed that supplementing with vitamin D and calcium conduct research on cancer.
can reduce your risk of cancer by an astonishing 77 5] None of the above
percent. This includes breast cancer, colon cancer,
skin cancer and other forms of cancer. This research Record imports of gold by India show the central bank
provides strong new evidence that vitamin D is the may be losing the battle to tame inflation, spurring
single most effective medicine against cancer, far out- investors to sell government bonds. Shipments into
pacing the benefits of any cancer drug known to Asia's third-biggest economy may have increased to
modern science. 800 metric tons from 557 tons in 2009 and exceeding
1. Which of the following is a conclusion? the previous all-time high of 769 in 2007, according
1] Cancer that affects different parts of the to Ajay Mitra, managing director for India and the
body needs to be curbed with the help of Middle East at the World Gold Council. Mumbai-based
medicines. brokerage Nirmal Bang Commodities Pvt. forecasts
purchases from overseas markets may rise to as much
2] Vitamin D should be made the preferred
as 810 tons this year.
weapon in the fight against cancer.
3] There are a few drugs other than vitamin
4. Which of the following is a conclusion drawn
D already being used to fight cancer.
from the passage?
4] Creighton University School of Medicine
1] Government bonds will become attractive
in Nebraska has been set up primarily to
once again in the near future.
conduct research on cancer.
2] The World Gold Council's volume data is
reliable.
2. Which of the following is an assumption? 3] The Central Bank's inability to fight inflation
1] Cancer that affects different parts of the is apparent from India's rising Gold imports.
body needs to be curbed with the help of 4] Gold imports dropped in 2009 against the
medicines. figures from 2007.
2] Vitamin D should be made the preferred 5] None of the above.
3] There are a few drugs other than vitamin 5. Which of the following is an assumption implicit
D already being used to fight cancer. in the passage?
4] Creighton University School of Medicine 1] Government bonds will become attractive
in Nebraska has been set up primarily to once again in the near future.
conduct research on cancer. 2] The World Gold Council's volume data is
5] None of the above reliable.
3] The Central Bank's inability to fight inflation
3. Which of the following is an inference? is apparent from India's rising Gold imports.
1] Cancer that affects different parts of the 4] Gold imports dropped in 2009 against the
body needs to be curbed with the help of figures from 2007.
medicine. 5] None of the above.
2] Vitamin D should be made the preferred
CET 500
6. Which of the following is an inference that can Which of the following, if true, would most
be made from the passage? weaken the argument above?
1] Government bonds will become attractive 1] Currencies go up and down with cycles, and
once again in the near future. that which goes up must come down.
2] The World Gold Council's volume data is 2] Euroland has 11 countries and each country
reliable. has its own cycle, hence, the stability of
3] The Central Bank's inability to fight inflation the euro, is mere fiction.
is apparent from India's rising Gold imports. 3] All the countries in Euroland are politically
4] Gold imports dropped in 2009 compared to strong and will be able to withstand a price
the figures from 2007. stability for some time.
5] None of the above. 4] Price stability cannot be maintained for long
as it all depends on how politically strong
DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to 15: Read each of
an economically weak country really is.
the short passages and answer the questions.
5] In the past, German economy has always
7. The thing that is of greatest concern to me lived up to the expectations of the contem-
in world affairs is peace, not because I fear porary markets.
death through conflict, but because the ab-
sence of peace means the presence of unhap- 9. You always knew there could be cars that deliver
piness. I wish that everyone in this world could luxury, engineering, styling and performance.
have enough of three things – food, good health Now your long wait is over. Now there is Lancelot.
and love. As an individual I will never be able Years of Lancelot racing experience culminate
to supply enough food for the people of the in a superb driving experience; it’s your alter-
world, nor will I be able to discover a secret native to average and overpriced automobiles.
formula for continuous good health. But I do The argument above is most weakened by its
have the ability to provide a little more love, failure to:
pleasure and happiness. 1] stress qualities in which car buyers are in-
On what assumption does the author base his terested.
arguments? 2] mention the features of other luxury cars.
1] An individual effort cannot change the world 3] define technical terms used to describe the
for it is like a drop in the ocean. Lancelot.
2] Every individual should strive to improve 4] provide adequate factual information about
oneself, if things are to change. the Lancelot.
3] Unhappiness is the root cause of all evil 5] mention the market price of other luxury cars.
and a little love can root out unhappiness 10. A recent court ruling imposed a very heavy
and make the world a better place. sales tax on five-star hotels across the country.
4] Every individual has the capability to make This will seriously hamper the tourism indus-
things better, even with the help of small try, as tourists will now find it much more
gestures. expensive to stay in the country.
5] None of the above. The conclusion above is based on which of
the following assumptions?
8. The hope of the Euroland authorities, expressed 1] Other countries do not impose such heavy
many times a day, is that the German economy sales tax on their five-star accommodation.
will pick up sufficiently, relative to current market 2] Few tourists are interested in paying for
expectations, to hold the euro: currencies go up something that does not have a direct benefit
and down with the cycle they say, and it is the to themselves.
nature of cycles to go up and down. And the 3] The five-star hotels will not protest against
central bankers, in particular, claim that because the imposition of the sales tax.
the treaty commitment to price stability is irre- 4] Tourists to the country stay mostly in five-
vocable, the euro must logically become, in the star hotels.
medium term, the strongest currency in the world. 5] All of these.
CET
11 There is mounting evidence that the business conditions and their salaries have not kept pace
world is dissatisfied with the education and with the salaries in other professions.
research coming out of graduate level business Which one of the following if true will weaken
programmes. A growing number of companies the conclusion in the passage?
are decreasing tuition reimbursement programmes 1] Many existing teachers would not have been
and increasing in-house training. Students in hired under the current hiring standards.
greater numbers are choosing foreign courses, 2] Today, teachers are entering teaching with
instead of attending U.S. schools. Further, a higher educational level than in the past.
practitioner’s subscriptions to most academic 3] Some current teachers have cited lower
journals continue to decline. salaries for hiring as a reason for the staffing
Many companies have taken to in-house training, shortage.
because: 4] Many renowned teachers have cited low
1] they find business school courses inadequate. pay and lack of professional freedom as the
2] the research on which the graduate level reasons for their leaving the profession.
programmes are based is of poor quality. 5] Many aspiring teachers have cited the new
3] doing this would help them cut down tuition hiring standards as a reason for not entering
reimbursement programmes. the profession and not the pay or working
4] they find that good students in the U.S. are conditions.
opting for foreign MBA programmes.
5] this is a lucrative proposition for most 14. A recent study points out that high salt intake
companies. can be the reason for native Islanders' major
health concern throughout history - high blood
12. The government expenditure on education has pressure.
increased greatly in recent years – however Which one of the following if true will cast
the proportion of the population that remains a doubt on the given conclusion?
uneducated has not decreased at all. 1] The people who were not original Islanders
The apparent discrepancy in the above state- do not suffer from the high blood pressure
ment can be explained by any of the following problem.
facts, EXCEPT: 2] High blood pressure is found even among
1] inflation in the country has affected edu- people from major inland countries of the
cation severely, as expense on education region.
has risen in monetary terms, without a similar 3] The high salt intake may result in other
improvement in quality. health concerns for Islanders as well.
2] a great proportion of the expenditure on 4] Other neighbouring islanders have same
education was actually allocated to expen- salt intake patterns and no high blood
sive new science projects conducted in a pressure.
few schools. 5] Islanders who have migrated abroad did not
3] the increased expenditure on education was have high salt intake in their diet and hence
spent on providing higher education for their blood pressure was comparatively
older students. stable.
4] a large part of the increased expenditure was
15. Wearing helmet can greatly reduce the risk of
spent on enhancing facilities in existing
severe injury for bikers if they meet with a road
schools.
accident.
5] the increase in expenditure was mainly
Which of the following if true will support the
because of the spending for providing text
argument presented in the statement?
books for free to the students.
1] A recent study by bike manufacturers clearly
13. The shortage of new teachers, it seems, is demonstrates that 96% of bikers wearing
primarily caused by the fact that teachers have helmets have survived even fatal accidents.
not experienced any improvements in working
CET 500
2] A recent study in Delhi showed the number allowing even the not-so-brilliant students to
of bikes on the road has reduced when make their way to the top universities in the
wearing helmet was made compulsory. UK.
3] Cheap quality helmets do not provide any 2] Many Indian students apply to universities in
protection as they are made of plastic and the UK for further studies.
can be easily torn apart. 3] Most of the Indian students who continue
4] Majority of the road accidents involving their studies in the UK do not return to India
bikers were actually not because of the fault after they complete their course.
of the bikers. 4] The number of Indian students applying to
universities in the UK is absolutely minuscule,
5] The roads are full of potholes and are uneven
as against the number of applicants to other
making them unsafe for any kind of vehicle.
countries such as the United States and
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 25: The para- Australia.
graphs below are followed by sentences and then 5] The number of students who make it through
questions. Answer the questions using the sentences the tightened entrance criteria will be fewer than
provided as options. what it currently is.
The Medical Council of India is close to finalising
a brand new curriculum for both undergraduate and 20. What could be a probably effect of this
postgraduate medical education that gives utmost im- decision?
portance to clinical acumen rather than just theoretical 21. What statement, if true, could weaken the
knowledge. As many as 74 special teams-each com- argument of the author?
prising three experts are giving finishing touches to 22. What could be the probable cause of this
vision documents on how many doctors are needed decision?
in a particular stream, how many are currently avail-
able, how to bridge the gap, what kind of content It took six years for Bollywood to convince the state
needs to be taught to students and what additional to waive VAT, which is levied on the transfer of
infrastructure is needed. copyrights of films. And on Wednesday, the finance
1] The current medical curriculum will be completely minister took heed of the industry's pleas. In order
overhauled. to encourage the growth of the film industry in
2] The number of doctors required in every stream Mumbai, he proposed to waive the tax on the transfer
is not the same. of copyrights of films relating to their exhibition in
3] The current curriculum only focuses on theo theatres.
retical knowledge.
1] The film industry has been burdened with multiple
4] Undergraduate and postgraduate medical stu
taxes including VAT, which has affected film
dents will be better trained to deal with practical
production & financing.
issues in hospitals.
2] Almost all the big players in the film industry
5] Clinical acumen is at least as important as theo
had protested the imposition of VAT in 2005
retical knowledge.
by refusing to pay it.
3] Ticket prices can now become cheaper, as the
16. What could be a probably effect of this
producer would save a lot on the tax being waived.
decision?
4] Bollywood has been negotiating for the waiver
17. What is the assumption made by the Medical
of this tax with the government for a long time.
Council of India? 5] The film industry has not grown as much as
18. What could be the probable cause of this de- it should have because of the VAT imposed.
cision?
19. What could be an inference from the passage? 23. What could be the assumption made by the
finance minister?
In a setback to Indians, the UK has announced a 24. What could be the probable cause of this
major overhaul of the student visa system, tightening decision?
the entrance criteria and the post-study work route. 25. What could be an inference from the passage?
1] The existing system had many loopholes, thus
CET
DATA INTERPRETATION
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Refer to the charts 2. Which of the given months shows the maximum
below and answer the questions that follow. profit? (After deducting tax and VAT)
1] M a y 2] April 3] June
Given below is the data about the cost and benefit 4] January 5] March
incurred by a company XYZ after the launch of a
website. The data is for two quarters namely January
to March and April to June. A Capital of Rs.125000 3. What is the approximate percentage change in
is added to the benefit for each month to get the maintenance cost from the month of April to
total benefit and a depreciation of Rs.64000 is added the month of May?
to costs for each month to get the total costs. 1] Decrease of 10% 2] Increase of 5%
Tax of 30% and VAT of 2% is levied on (Total benefits 3] Decrease of 9% 4] Decrease of 11%
– Total costs). 5] None of these
Profit = (Total benefits – Total costs) – (Tax + VAT)
e.g., If (Total benefits – Total costs) = Rs.100 then 4. If tax was deducted in slabs, i.e., 10% for the
Tax + VAT = Rs.32 first Rs.10000, 20% for the next Rs.20000 and
Benefits so on, what is the tax deducted in the month
100000
of June?
80000
Amount in Rs.
1] Rs.15900 2] Rs.16900
60000 3] Rs.18800 4] Rs.19600
40000 5] Cannot be determined
20000
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
5. What is the total cost as a percentage of total
Month
benefit in the month of February?
Increased sales due to p romotional features 1] 52% 2] 48% 3] 46%
Decrease in p rinting and ship p ing cost 4] 44% 5] 42%
Decrease in travel cost
Direct Sales
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Refer to the
Costs data below and answer the questions that follow.
80000
70000
60000 The bar graph gives the number of men, women and
Amount in Rs.
50000 children in societies A, B, C and D.

40000
30000
20000
10000
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
Month
Customer support and Project management
M aintenance
Advertising
1. What is direct sales as a percentage of total

benefits in the last month of the second quarter?
1] 6.25% 2] 7.5% 3] 4.25%
4] 5.75% 5] None of these
Percentage of total literate men, women and children
in all the societies are 35%, 25% and 40% respectively.
CET 500
6. Find the ratio of overall literate men to total 11. What percent of the total units produced in
literate women. the plant of region R3 from January to September
were sold during the third quarter?
52 7 26
1] 2] 3] 1] 27% 2] 38% 3] 43%
25 5 15
4] 33% 5] 40%
35
4] 5] Cannot be determined
52
12. In region R2, during which of these months
was the ratio of the units produced to those
7. What is the difference between literate children
sold the largest?
and illiterate men?
1] March 2] April 3] May
1] 23720 2] 24820 3] 24200
4] June 5] July
4] 24000 5] None of these
8. What percent of the total population of society 13. Which of the following statement is false?
A and B are children?
1] Region R3 shows the maximum production
1] 21.6% 2] 22.6% 3] 23.6% for the given period.
4] 24.5% 5] 25% 2] Total production was the lowest in the month
of May.
9. If the ratio of literate children in society in A, 3] Maximum units were unsold in the month
B, C and D are 23:27:17:13, then find the number of April.
of illiterate children in society D. 4] Region R2 had sold the maximum number
of units at the end of the first quarter.
1] 8040 2] 7560 3] 2580
5] None of these.
4] 5440 5] 1560
14. Which region/s had the minimum number of

10. If a literate family constitutes a literate men,
unsold units during the first quarter?
literate women and literate child, how many
literate families can be there in society A? 1] Region R1 2] Region R2
3] Region R3 4] Region R4
1] 5200 2] 8400 3] 4200
5] Both [1] and [2]
4] 3800 5] Cannot be determined
15. What was the production of the plant in region

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: Refer to the table
R4, during the first quarter as a percentage of
given below and answer the questions that follow.
the entire production of all the plants in all
the regions for that quarter?
The table gives the number of units of a product produced
and sold by XYZ pharma company from January to 1] 22.44% 2] 24.54% 3] 25.45%
September. The production takes place in plants of regions 4] 21.54% 5] 23.45%
R1, R2, R3 and R4. The units produced in a plant of
a particular region are sold in the same region.
R1 R2 R3 R4
Produced Sold Produced Sold Produced Sold Produced Sold
Jan 820 780 450 430 630 600 850 830
First
Feb 755 650 650 630 540 525 625 590
quarter
Mar 671 540 980 950 870 850 475 430
Apr 520 415 840 720 875 845 590 540
Second
May 665 615 780 740 655 650 465 435
quarter
June 789 770 670 635 485 440 850 810
July 530 480 950 915 980 965 640 635
Third
Aug 490 450 750 715 975 820 435 425
quarter
Sept 760 700 480 465 840 805 670 635
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Refer to the 18. Of the total damages in MHRST, what percent
data below and answer the questions that follow. do the damages in the public sector form?
1] 9% 2] 2% 3] 5%
The following table gives damages (in Rs.) in different 4] 10% 5] 12%
sectors in the given states of India due to floods
in the year 2005.
Damage 19. If the water damages and evacuation cost were
Resi Comm/ 30% and 20% respectively of the damages in
Public Transport
dential Ind their corresponding sectors for every state, then
State
which of the following is/are true?
Kerala 176832800 70456500 90961700 582300
Orissa 57826800 34325800 31934000 1224000 I. The difference between GJRT’s water
KRNTK 35829000 54060900 14449000 293400 damages and evacuation cost was Rs.1144
U.P. 16939900 7882400 7122000 335300 thousand.
M.P. 405175100 54647600 11492600 3000400 II. In the state of Bengal, the water damages
MHRST 18584000 4547000 17368000 480000 were more than the evacution cost.
GJRT 10137800 9680700 4194000 335500 III. The commercial/industrial damages in M.P.
Bengal 21919500 9680700 7895000 335800 were 60% of the damages in the same sector
Bihar 1764700 4547000 12098000 122600 in Kerala.
Damage 1] Only I and II 2] Only II and III
Utilities Agri Emergency Others
3] Only I and III 4] Only I
State 5] Only III
Kerala 13908200 166501000 32906100 21919500

20. If the states are arranged in ascending order
Orissa 14390000 126500000 63810000 1764700
of their residential damages, then what would
KRNTK 15480000 166900000 26230000 17683280
U.P. 12480000 236350000 36954000 57826800
have been the difference between the other
M.P. 13500000 356921000 36960000 35829000 damages of the 4 th state from the top and the
MHRST 24500000 245800000 48320000 16939900 7 th state from the bottom?
GJRT 12560000 113900000 24560000 40517510 1] Rs.15175200 2] Rs.15166200
Bengal 23000000 39210000 14596200 18584000 3] Rs.40886900 4] Rs.40786900
Bihar 13780000 78000000 26549000 10137800
5] Rs.69005200
Comm/Ind º commercial or industrial,
Agri º agricultural.
The Utilities cover water, sewer, electric and general DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Refer to the
utilities. data below and answer the questions that follow.
The two Emergency cost variables are the emergency
preparedness cost and the evacuation cost. The pie chart gives the percentage distribution of
10000 employees from a company XYZ according to
the grades given to them.
16. How much was the total agricultural damage
(in thousand) in the given states?
1] Rs.1830082 2] Rs.238002
3] Rs.1638002 4] Rs.1530082
5] None of these
17. Which of the following states had the highest

total damages?
1] Kerala 2] Orissa 3] KRNTK
4] GJRT 5] M.P.
CET 500
The table gives the ratio of the number of DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: Refer to the
employees from the managerial level and the non- data below and answer the questions that follow.
managerial level obtaining a particular grade.
Given below is the State-wise production of crops
in the northern states of India. Total production of
grains is five million tonnes in a year.
Note: A+ is the topmost grade, followed by A, A,

B+, B, B–, C+, C and C–.
21. Find the number of non-managerial employees

who received a grade not higher then C+.
1] 600 2] 700 3] 800
4] 900 5] 1000
22. Which of these grades has been obtained by

a greater number of employees at the managerial
level than those at the non-managerial level?
1] A – 2] B+ 3] B
4] A+ 5] B–
23. Find the ratio of the number of employees at

the managerial level to those at the non-
26. Which state shows the maximum production
managerial level.
of Rice?
1] 24 : 27 2] 27 : 23 3] 23 : 27
4] 26 : 25 5] 23 : 24 1] Bihar 2] MP
3] West Bengal 4] Punjab
24. Which of the following grades has been 5] UP
obtained by the greatest number of employees
at the managerial level? 27. What is the overall Bajra production?
1] B– 2] C+ 3] C
1] 6.5 lakh tonnes 2] 6.8 lakh tonnes
4] B+ 5] A –
3] 7.5 lakh tonnes 4] 6 lakh tonnes
5] 4 lakh tonnes
25. What is the ratio of the number of non-
managerial employees having grade at least A–
to those having grade at least B– to those 28. Which stat e contributed to t he lowest
having grade at least C–? production of Bajra?
1] 5 : 22 : 27 2] 13 : 44 : 54 1] Punjab 2] Gujarat
3] 13 : 45 : 54 4] 5 : 23 : 27 3] MP 4] Bihar
5] 6 : 13 : 54 5] West Bengal
CET
29. What is the quantity of Jowar produced in UP 34. If the number of road, rail and air accidents
and Bihar? are expected to change by +15%, –10% and
1] 3 lakh tonnes 2] 3.5 lakh tonnes +5% respectively in January 2006 over the
3] 3.8 lakh tonnes 4] 3.9 lakh tonnes previous month, what is the average number
5] 2.8 lakh tonnes of accidents in January 2006?
1] 4008 2] 3925
3] 4570 4] 4235
30. What is combined production of Rajasthan and 5] Cannot be determined
Gujrat?
1] 10 lakh tonnes 2] 15 lakh tonnes 35. If the total number of accidents in December
3] 7 lakh tonnes 4] 8 lakh tonnes 2004 was 8% less than that in January 2005,
5] 12 lakh tonnes road and air accidents remaining constant, what
was the percentage change in rail accidents
DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the data in January 2005 over the previous month?
below and answer the questions that follow. 1] 50% 2] 33.33%
3] 25% 4] 66.67%
70 5] Cannot be determined
Number of accidents (in
60
50
hundreds)
40 DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: Refer to the

30 data below and answer the questions that follow.
20
10
0 The following line charts below give the price per
gram of three different metals from Day 1 to Day 7.
ov
p
n
ly
ar
ay
For example, on Day 3, the price of Metal 2 is Rs.5175

Se
Ja
Ju
M
N
M
Month per 11.5 grams.

Rail Road Air Price of Me tals
5500
5250
The above line graph gives the data about rail, road 5000
4750
and air accidents in the year 2005. 4500
4250
4000
Price (in rupees)
31. In which of the following months was the 3750

3500
average number of accidents the lowest? 3250
3000
1] Jan-Mar 2] Apr-June 2750
3] July-Sep 4] Oct-Dec 2500
2250
5] Jan-Mar and Oct-Dec 2000
1750
1500
1250
32. The percentage increase in air accidents from Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4 Day5 Day6 Day7
November 2005 to December 2005 is: Days
1] 29.2% 2] 27.9% Metal 1 Metal 2 Metal 3
3] 28.5% 4] 30%
33. Which month marks the maximum percentage

increase in road accidents over the previous
month and by how much?
1] April, 40% 2] October, 45%
3] April, 43% 4] August, 65%
5] October, 52%
CET 500
40. Which of the following statements is true?

Weight of Metal
1] On Day 7, the price of one gram Metal 1
26 is Rs.380.
24
22 2] The maximum price of any of the three metals
20
18 (one gram) did not exceed Rs.400 on any
16 Day 2.
Grams
14
12 3] The combined price of all the three metals
10
8 (one gram each) on Day 4 is was Rs.650.
6 4] The price of 10 grams of Metal 3 was higher than
4
2 the price of 10 grams of Metal 2 on Day 5.
0
5] None of these.
Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4 Day5 Day6 Day7
Days
M etal 1 M etal 2 M etal 3
36. What is the total price of 10 grams of each

metal on Day 6?
1] Rs.4500 2] Rs.4600 3] Rs.4200
4] Rs.4575 5] Rs.4475
37. If a piece of jewellery was made on Day 4 with

25 grams of Metal 1, 21 grams of Metal 2 and
7 grams of Metal 3, what would be its total price?
1] Rs.11500 2] Rs.11750 3] Rs.12575
4] Rs.11350 5] Rs.12500
38. What is the average price per gram of the metals

a day 7?
1] Rs.216.67 2] Rs.263.3 3] Rs.316.67
4] Rs.316.67 5] Rs.320
39. If three grams of Metal 2 were purchased on Day

1, 3, 5 and 7, what would be the total expenditure
at the end of Day 7?
1] Rs.4350 2] Rs.1850 3] Rs.3450
4] Rs.3550 5] Rs.1750
CET
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Find the value æ 276 324 24 ö æ 216 36 ö
of following expressions. ç 46 ¸ 54 - 144 ÷ ´ ç 125 ¸ 25 ÷
5. è ø è ø = ?
196 25 125 200
¸ ´ ¸
2 4 245 50
1. 2 3 2 æ3 2ö 3 3 3 = ?
´ ¸ ´ç + ÷ + ´ -
3 2 3 è2 3ø 2 2 2
1
1] – 2] 2 3] –1
2
2 3
1] 2] 3] 1
3 2 1
4] 1 5]
4] 0 5] 4 2
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 20: Choose the
correct alternative.
æ 1 4 5 1 ö éæ 1 1 3 7 ö æ7 5 öù
2. ç3 - ´ – 2 ÷ ¸ êç 5 ¸ 7 ´ - ÷ ¸ ç – ÷ú ?
è 4 5 6 6 ø ëè 7 7 7 25 ø è 5 7 øû 6. A cask is completely filled with the mixture
1] 10 2] –10 3] 21 comprising alcohol and water in the ratio 4 :
4] –21 5] None of these 5. Eighteen gallons of this mixture are drawn
off and the cask is filled with water. The
proportion of alcohol to water becomes 5 : 7.
What is the capacity of the cask?
1 2 æ 1 1ö
3. 1 + 2 – ç3 + 2 ÷ = ? 1] 200 gallons 2] 288 gallons
5 3 è 2 7ø
3] 280 gallons 4] 188 gallons
5] None of these
373 373 337
1] 2] – 3]
210 201 210
7. How many numbers less than 999 have the sum
343 of their digits equal to 9?
4] – 5] None of these
210 1] 45 2] 35 3] 60
4] 55 5] 70
(26 ¸ 2 ´ 7 + 1 ´ 3 - 1 ´ 8) 8. Find the greatest 5-digit number, which leaves

4. = ? remainders 5, 6, 7 and 8 when divided by 8,
(49 ¸ 14 ´ 3 + 6 ´ 9 - 2 ´ 21)
9, 10 and 11 respectively.
1] 99777 2] 98997 3] 98799
45 37 37
1] 3 2] 2 3] 3 4] 99799 5] 98797
37 45 45
8 9. The speed of the boat along the stream is 1.5

37 times the speed of the boat against the stream.
The speed of the boat in still water is 4 m/
s. Due to rains, the speed of water doubles.
What is the speed of the boat in the direction
of the stream?
1] 4.8 m/s 2] 5.6 m/s 3] 1.8 m/s
4] 2.4 m/s 5] None of these
CET 500
10. How many five-digit numbers, not containing 15. Anu, Sanju and Sonu start a business such
a zero, have exactly one digit occuring twice? that initially they all invest the same amount.
1] 10
P5 2] 10 P 4 3] 11
C5 After 2 months, Anu withdraws 90% of her share
4] 11
C4 5] None of these while after 4 months, Sonu increases his share
by 10%. At the end of the year, a profit of
Rs.13900 was earned. Find Anu’s share in the
11. A bowler bowled two balls in an over at the
profit.
average speed of the over and the remaining
four balls at speeds which were four consecu- 1] Rs.1000 2] Rs.2000 3] Rs.1200
tive numbers. If the average speed of the bowler 4] Rs.1500 5] None of these
in that over is 169.5 kmph, then find his least
speed in that over.
16. In the given figure, m Ð ACB = m Ð AED = 90°,
1] 167 kmph 2] 165 kmph 3] 166 kmph
m Ð CBE = m Ð EBD, l (AB) = 5 cm,
4] 168 kmph 5] 169 kmph
l (CE) = 12 cm and l (DE) = 20 cm. Find the
12. Anmol and Saranya, 90 km apart, start travelling area of D ABE.
towards each other at speeds 7 kmph and 8
kmph respectively and meet at 10 a.m.. Had
they started an hour earlier and travelled at
4 kmph and 6 kmph respectively, they would
have met each other at:
1] 10 a.m. 2] 11 a.m. 3] 12 p.m.
4] 1 p.m. 5] 2 p.m.
1] 36 cm 2 2] 40 cm 2 3] 30 cm 2
13. A sum of Rs.4950 is divided among A, B and 4] 24 cm 2 5] None of these
C so that if Rs.5, Rs.50 and Rs.95 are removed
from their shares respectively then the ratio
of the remaining amount with A, B and C is 17. Nikki won a certain amount as prize, half of
6 : 5 : 4. Find the ratio of their share. which she invested in bank A that offers interest
at the rate R% p.a. compounded annually. The
1] 6 : 5 : 4 2] 5 : 6 : 7 3] 6 : 7 : 4
remaining half she invested in bank B that offers
4] 7 : 6 : 5 5] 4 : 7 : 6
simple interest at the rate R% p.a.. After 2 years,
the compound interest that she got from bank
14. Ravi purchased some pencils, erasers and
sharpeners. He noticed that the cost of three 2
A was 1 times the simple interest got from
pencils and two erasers is Rs.21, where as the 100
cost of four sharpeners and three erasers is bank B. Find the rate of interest.
Rs.25. If he purchased two pencils and one 1] 5% 2] 4% 3] 15%
sharpener by spending a total of Rs.14 then 4] 8% 5] 12%
what is the cost of three pencils, three erasers
and three sharpeners?
14 4 28
1] Rs.30 2] Rs.24 3] Rs.34 18. If the LCM of , and x is , then which
15 21 3
4] Rs.36 5] Rs.42
of following can be the value of x?
16 15 21
1] 2] 3]
9 12 12
28 4
4] 5]
5 9
CET
19. In how many ways can a committee of 8 people 1

-
be formed from a group of 5 boys, 3 girls and 143.98 – 6
729.01 × ( 400.07) 2
23. + 3.5 of 4
2 teachers such that 2 particular boys, a
particular girl and a particular teacher is always × (4.5 of 6) – 576.07 = ?
selected?
1] 149.7 2] 368.5 3] 397.4
1] 70 2] 15 3] 30
4] 365.8 5] 248.9
4] 45 5] 20
20. Two circles with centres B and C and having

[(2.01) ]
3
radii 6 cm and 8 cm respectively, intersect each 24. 3
+ (3.998)3 + (3.01)3 + (1.01)3 + ( 4.998)3 2
other at points A and D. If segment BA is
perpendicular to segment CA and segment BC 1 1
bisects segment AD at point F, then find l (EF). ¸ (729.03) 3 + (243.03) 5 = ?
1] 371 2] 349 3] 374

4] 378 5] 316
1
11.95
(31.25 ´ 100) 5 - 1
+ 3
125.03 (9 512.08 )3 + 3
215.99
(81.03) 4
25. 1 = ?
1] 3.2 cm 2] 1.6 cm 3] 2 cm ( 256.4) 4
- 3.01 ¸ ( 4.12 + 8.03 ´ 2.98)
4] 4 cm 5] Cannot be determined 36.06 ¸ 5.99
1] 78.4 2] 80.5 3] 79.5

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Find the 4] 81.5 5] 82.5
approximate value of the following expressions.

21. 1 correct alternative.
1
´ (729.03) 3 -
(3.01)3
26. In a town, there are only two modes of trans-
æ 1 1 ö
ç 1 ÷ port, namely the bus and the train. 140 people
(1295.98) 4 - (243.08) 5 ´
ç 1 ÷ do not travel by train and 90 people do not
ç (80.95) 4 ÷ travel by bus. 200 people travel by at the most
è ø
one vehicle. What is the number of people who
–1
do not use any mode of transport to travel?
¸(124.97) 3 = ?
1] 40 2] 50 3] 30
4] 20 5] 90
77 37 74
1] – 2] – 3] –
3 3 3 27. If the value of the expression (14 + 2 ÷ 8 × 2)
+ 6 ÷ 3 × 52 + q – 6 × 2 + 44 ÷ 4 is 73.5, then
74 37 find the value of q.
4] 5]
3 3 1] 9 2] 5 3] 10
4] 4 5] 11
æ 1.99 1.012 3.98 ö 1

22. ç ´ 728.98 – ¸ of 0.99 ´ 8.1÷ ´ = ?
è 3.078 2.012 0.98 ø 4.86
1] 243 2] 97 3] 0
4] –81 5] 27
CET 500
28. The ratios of the present ages of Anu and Winny 33. The rents that Raman and Aman pay to their
is 4 : 3, Supriya and John is 2 : 5 and Anu landlord are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the landlord
and Supriya is 8 : 3. Amit is older than Supriya increased their rents by 10% and 20% respec-
by 3 years and the ratio of the present ages tively, then find the ratio of the rents paid by
of Amit and Winny is 3 : 4. What is Amit’s Aman and Raman.
age? 1] 15 : 11 2] 13 : 11
1] 10 years 2] 6 years 3] 18 : 11 4] 16 : 11
3] 9 years 4] 12 years 5] None of these
34. A solution in vessel A contains water and
29. How many different subsets of 5 numbers can alcohol in the ratio 18 : 7. If 5 litres of solution
be formed from a set of numbers is removed from vessel A and replaced with
{0, 1, 2, ........ 8, 9}, so as to exclude ‘0’ if ‘9’ alcohol, then the percentage of water in vessel
is included? A becomes 54%. Find the quantity of solution
in vessel A.
1] 280 2] 196 3] 140
4] 252 5] 209 1] 15 litres 2] 20 litres
3] 25 litres 4] 30 litres
5] 18 litres
30. By which of the following is 18 3 – 44 3 + 26 3
divisible?
35. Find the area of triangle ABC, if the length
I) 117 II) 143 III) 27
of side AC is twice the length of side BC, m A
IV) 52 V) 32
is half that of m C and m B is thrice that
1] I, II and V 2] II, III
of m A.
3] I, III and IV 4] I, II, III and IV
5] I, II and III 1
1] AC × BC 2] AB × AC
2
31. A bookseller decides to sell a book at 20% 3 3
profit. A customer asks for a 5% discount. After 3] × AB × BC 4] × AC2
4 8
giving the discount the book seller sells book
at a price of Rs.1938. If book seller bought the 3
5] × BC2
book at a discount of 15% on the marked price 4
from a whole sale shop, then what is the marked
price?
1] Rs.2050 2] Rs.2000 data below and mark the option indicating the
3] Rs.1950 4] Rs.1250 relation between a and b.
5] None of these
Mark [1], if a > b.
32. If the compound interest on a certain sum of Mark [2], if a < b.

money for the second year and fourth year is Mark [3], if a < b.
Rs.1320 and Rs.1597.2 respectively then find
the sum. Mark [4], if a > b.
1] Rs.14000 2] Rs.10000 Mark [5], if a = b.

3] Rs.12000 4] Rs.13000
5] Rs.12500 36. The sum of twice the age of ‘a’ and thrice the
age of ‘b’ is 9. The difference between four
times the age of ‘a’ and the age of ‘b’ is 4.
CET
43. If 3 marbles are drawn at random, what is the

m-n
æ ö probability that at least 1 is blue?
m ç1÷ n -1
æaö ç ÷ æaö
37. ç ÷ = çb÷ × ç ÷ ; m < n 5 200 199
èbø ç ÷ èbø 1] 2] 3]
èaø 204 204 204
55 149
4] 5]
38. I. a2 – 22a + 72 = 0 204 204
II. b 4 – 20b 2 + 64 = 0
44. If 4 marbles are selected at random, what is
39. I. A train travels a distance ‘a’ between two the probability that 2 are white and 2 are red?
stations ‘x’ and ‘y’ in 24.5 minutes at a speed
1] 1 2] 1 3] 1
of 4 m/sec and back from station ‘y’ to
170 51 204
station ‘x’ in 14 minutes at a speed of 7
m/sec. 1 1
4] 5]
II. The distance between stations ‘P’ and ‘Q’ 102 113
1 th
is ‘b’ metres. A train travels of the dis-
5 45. If 4 marbles are drawn at random, what is the
tance in 6.4 minutes at a speed of 3 m/sec probability that all are green or all are blue?
and the remaining distance in 12.8 minutes
5 1 9
at a speed of 6 m/sec. 1] 2] 3]
204 153 153
40. I. a2 – 8a + 15 = 0. 4] 5 5] 149
II. b 2 < 4, where b is an integer. 153 204
DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: Refer to the DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: Choose the
data below and answer the questions that follow. correct alternative.
A bag contains 3 white, 4 red, 5 green and 6 blue

marbles. 46. Two boxes A and B contain 5 balls each. Box
A contains 2 red and 3 blue balls, and box
41. If 3 marbles are drawn at random, what is the B contains 3 red and 2 blue balls. Two balls
probability that none of them is red? of same colour are drawn at random from box
A and put into box B. Now, if two balls are
1] 1 2] 91 3] 113 drawn from box B, find the probability that the
204 204 204 two balls drawn are red.
4] 91 5] 45 10 9 19
1] 2] 3]
113 102 210 210 210
20
42. If 3 marbles are drawn at random, what is the 4] 5] None of these
21
probability that exactly 2 are green?
1] 65 2] 13 3] 32
136 204 204
4] 65 5] 10
408 153
CET 500
47. The probability of A hitting a target is 0.8 and them start solving independently, calculate the
the probability of B hitting a target is 0.5. If probability that the problem is solved.
A and B get one chance each to hit the target,
37 3 1 3 14
then find the probability that the target is hit. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
40 40 6 8 15
1] 0.8 2] 0.9 3] 0.65
4] 0.85 5] 0.7
50. Out of 100 students, 30 speak English, 40 speak
48. In a game, if head turns up on tossing a coin, German and 50 speak French. Number of students
then one die is thrown, otherwise two dice are speaking all 3 languages is greater by 1 than
thrown. What is the probability of getting a number speaking exactly two languages. If a
score of more than 9? (Both the coin and the student is selected, what is the probability that
dice are unbiased). the student speaks all the three languages?
1 2 1 1 5 11 7 13
1] 2] 3] 4] 5] 1] 2] 3]
6 3 2 12 36 100 100 100
8 9
49. The probability that a problem is solved by 4] 5]
100 100
2 2 5
A is , by B is and by C is . If all of
5 3 8
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 79

CET
DATA SUFFICIENCY
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 20: Each question 3. a, b and c are three distinct single digit natural
is followed by two statements, I and II. numbers. Find the least composite divisor of
Mark [1]; if statement I alone is sufficient to answer the product of a, b and c.
the question. I. a, b and c are consecutive numbers.
Mark [2]; if statement II alone is sufficient to answer II. Out of a, b and c, two are prime numbers
the question. and the remaining digit is the product of
Mark [3]; if statements I and II together are two prime numbers.
sufficient to answer the question but neither of the
statements alone is sufficient.
4. A solid metallic right circular cylinder of radius
Mark [4]; if either of the statements I and II is
12 cm is melted and two cones of equal height
sufficient to answer the question independently.
are prepared. If the volume of one cone is twice
Mark [5]; if the question cannot be answered unless
that of the other, then what will be the difference
more information is provided.
between the radii of the two cones?
I. The height of the right circular cylinder is
1. In the given figure, find the area of D BOC. 20 cm.
II. The height of both the cones is the same
as the height of the right circular cylinder.
5. Find the two-digit number.

I. Three times the digit in the ten’s place is
equal to two times the digit in the unit’s
place.
II. The number is greater than 30 and less than
50.
I. m Ð AOQ = 120° and area of D AOB = 25 3
sq. units. 6. A game is being played between eight friends
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are
II. m Ð AQO and m Ð ACB is half of m Ð AOB,
supposed to stand in a circle keeping equal
l (AO) = l (AB). distances from the adjacent persons and face
towards the centre of the circle. A is standing
2. In a college, some students travel by bus, some opposite to E. C, F and D are standing together
travel by train, some travel by train as well such that F is between C and D. G is standing
as by bus and the remaining students travel to the right of H. Who is standing to the right
by their own vehicles. Also, 50% students travel of B?
by bus. If a student is selected at random, I. B is standing adjacent to E.
determine the probability that the student travels II. C is standing to the left side of A and the
by his/her own vehicle. right side of E.
I. 40% students travel by train.
II. 30% students travel by train as well as by 7. What is the percentage of profit incurred in
bus. the transaction?
I. The market price is 10% above the selling
price.
II. The cost price is 10% below the selling price.
CET 500
8. Find the height of the triangle. 14. In a 3-generation family of 6 members A, B,

I. Length of the sides of the triangle are 6, C, D, E and F, two are males. ‘A’ is F’s
8 and 10 units. grandfathe r and ‘D’ belongs to second
II. Triangle is a right angled triangle. generation. How is ‘D’ related to ‘F’?
I. ‘C’ is A’s only son.
II. D’s sister-in-law is B’s only daughter.
9. If a and b are the roots of the quadratic
equation, then what is the quadratic equation?
15. What will be the code for the word ‘MIRROR’?
a b 6 I. In the same code language, the word
I. a + b = –4, b + =
a 5 ‘IMAGE’ is coded as ‘TUDIS’.
II. In the same code language, the word ‘PAPER’
II. a b = 5, a 2 + b 2 = 6
is coded as ‘NDNSC’.
10. What is the value of x in a five-digit number

47x87? 16. Eight members of a committee A, B, C, D, E,
F, G and H are sitting on a circular table. G
I. The number is divisible by 3.
and H are sitting opposite to each other. C
II. 1 < x < 10.
is sitting to the immediate left of G. E and F
11. Pointing to a man in the photograph, Anita are equidistant from H and G. Who is sitting
said, “He is Natasha’s brother.” How is Anita opposite to C?
related to that man? I. A is sitting to the immediately left of H.
I. Natasha is the only daughter of Anita’s II. E and H are not equidistant from B. F is
father-in-law. sitting to the immediate right of A.
II. Anita’s children have no paternal uncle.
17. How are Geeta and Raj related?
I. Geeta’s grandmother has only two sons,
12. In which direction, North, South, East or West, Kunal and Kaushal.
is Rajesh travelling? II. Kunal is Raj’s paternal uncle.
I. If Rajesh plans to move 5 km to his right,
18. How many each of 10 paise and 5 paise coins
he will reach his cousin’s house or if he
do I have?
moves 3 km towards East, he will reach his
I. I have 100 coins consisting of 10 paise and
own house.
5 paise coins only.
II. The shortest distance between Rajesh’s
II. I have Rs. 8.50 in all.
house and his cousin’s house is less than
4 km. 19. How is BOMBAY coded?
I. MADRAS is coded as NCGVFY.
13. Find the value of ‘UNO’ in the following addition II. ZACK is coded as ACFO.
when each letter represents a different number
and ‘D’ belongs to the second generation. 20. In which direction is A now with respect to
his original position?
UNO I. A walks northward and turns left after
+ UNO walking ‘x’ metres. He walks another ‘x’
+ TRES metres and turns left. After walking ‘2x’
metres, he turns right and walks another ‘x’
CINCO
metres.
I. C º 1, I º 2. II. A walks westward for ‘x’ metres, then turns
II. S º 3, N º 4. 45° on his left. He stops after walking ‘x’
metres.
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 30: Each question 24. A, B and C together invested a capital of Rs.25
is followed by three statements. Determine which lakh in a venture in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. The
of them is/are sufficient to answer the question. venture earned a profit of Rs.1.4 lakh after a
year. Find the period for which B invested his
21. If several pieces of furniture at Mall Mart store
capital.
have been arranged in a linear order, can the
position of the Dining Table be determined? I. B and C earned the same profit.
II. A invested for the maximum period of the
I. The Bed lies to the immediate right of the
three, B and C’s investment periods were
Couch and to the immediate left of the Centre
in the ratio 5 : 3.
Table.
III. B’s share in profit was Rs.10000 more than
II. The Computer trolley lies to the immediate
A’s.
left of the Cupboard. The Dining Table is
1] I and II 2] I and III
not placed immediately next to the Cupboard.
3] II and III 4] Both [2] and [3]
III. The Couch is on the immediate right of the
5] Data insufficient
Cupboard.
1] I only 2] I and II 3] II and III
25. Find the area of the shaded region, such that
4] I and III 5] None of these
O is the centre of the circle with diameter 28
units. The diagonals of the trapezium pass
22. Solution ‘A’ contains Petrol and Kerosene in
through the centre ‘O’.
the ratio 5 : 2 and Solution ‘B’ contains the
same in the ratio 4 : 1. Parts of these solutions
are mixed to form Solution C. Find the quantity
of Solution A used to form solution C.
I. The ratio of ingredients in the Final Solution
is 3 : 1.
II. The quantity of Solution C is 60 litres.
III. The quantity of Solution B used to form
solution C is 39 less than the quantity of I. The length of the median of the trapezium
Solution A used.
is 3 3 units.
1] I and II 2] II and III
3] I and III 4] I only. II. The centre of the circle divides the height
5] Both [1] and [3] of the trapezium in the ratio 6 : 7.
III. m Ð DOP = 60°.
23. Two trains A and B are travelling in opposite 1] I and II 2] II and III
directions with a speed of 125 kmph and 120 3] I and III 4] Only III
kmph respectively. The guards in train A and 5] Both [1] and [3]
B start walking with equal speeds. When the
distance between their respective seats is 250 26. Find the values of A, B and C.
km, find the time in which the guards cross each
I. A, B and C are positive integers and are
other.
in A.P. Their addition is 96.
I. The guard in train A starts walking from the II. Product of A, B and C is 31616.
front end of the train towards its back. III. Product of A, B and C is 31680.
II. The guard in train B starts walking from the 1] I only 2] I and II
backend of the train towards its front. 3] I and III 4] I and II or III
III. The guards in train A and train B start moving 5] None of these
towards the front ends of their respective
trains.
4] II and III 5] I and II
CET 500
27. In how many days 5 men, 5 women and 2 identical I. D AOB is equilateral triangle
machines will produce 1980 identical units of
II. m Ð OAB = 60° and AC and BD intersect
a product if all of them work 9 hours a day?
at ‘O’.
I. 20 men and 10 women produce 2970 units
III. AB || DC
in 6 days.
1] I 2] II
II. 20 women and 16 machines will produce 2640
units in 4 days if they work 6 hours a day. 3] I and III 4] I and II
III. 15 men and 6 machines will produce 1080 5] Both [2] and [3]
units in 2 days.
1] I and II 2] I and III DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 40: The question
3] II and III 4] I, II and III is followed by three statements. Determine which
5] Both [1] and [2] of them is/are required to answer the question.
28. Ajay, Siddharth and Sagar are three best friends. 31. Points A, B, C, D, E, F and G are marked on
One day they decided to run arround a circular a square sheet of paper such that C is marked
ground. After what time they all will be at same at the centre of the paper. In what direction
place at same time? is A with respect to B?
I. Ajay, Siddharth and Sagar are running with I. A and F are to the North and South of C
speed of 0.4 m/s. 0.6 m/s. and 0.8 m/s. respectively. B is at 45° to the North East
respectively. of C.
II. The diameter of circular ground is 12 m and
II. A and E are to the North and East of C and
Sagar is running in opposite direction that
A, B and E are collinear.
of Ajay and Siddharth are running.
III. They start running at same time from a same III. G is to the West of C and A is at 45° to
place. the North-East of C.
1] I and II 2] I and III 1] Only II 2] Only I
3] I, II and III 4] I and II or III 3] Only I and III 4] Only I and II
5] Data insufficient 5] Data insufficient
29. In a chess tournament all students played 32. In a certain code language, what is the code
exactly one match against each other. How many for ‘option’?
boys and girls are participat ed in that I. ‘Choose the correct option’ is coded as
tournament?
‘soma seeka paha kartoon’.
I. Total number of matches played between II. ‘First is the correct option’ is coded as
one girl and one boy was 144. ‘soma paha sidi seeka feka.’
II. There are seven more boys than total girls. III. ‘This is the correct way’ is coded as ‘sidi
III. Total number of boys and girls are 25.
soma paha lemma theo’.
1] II 2] III
1] Only I and II 2] Only I and III
3] I and II 4] II and III
3] Only II and III 4] I, II and III
5] Both [3] and [4]
8 cm 33. Anju, Rajeev, Reema, Mamta, Arpit, Rachit,

30. A B Gunjan and Akanksha are the only members
of a three-generation family. Reema has two
grandsons and two granddaugh ters, all
O unmarried. What is the relation between Anju
and Arpit?
D 6 cm C I. Rajeev, Anju and Mamta are married and
Mamta is married into the family.
II. Rajiv has one sibling who is a widow.
D ODC is equilateral triangle. Find the area of
ABCD.
CET
III. Mamta has only one daughter and no son. III. Vinod is sitting opposite to Ramesh.
1] Only I and II 2] Only II and III 1] I and II 2] II and III
3] Only III 4] I, II and III 3] I and III 4] I, II and III
5] Data insufficient 5] Data is insufficient
34. L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting at the vertices 38. Students from class X play atleast one game
of a regular hexagonal table, facing the centre from Cricket, Football and Tennis. Find the total
and not necessarily in this order. Who is the number of students in the class.
fourth person to the right of O? I. 44 students play Cricket or Football.
I. P and Q are equidistant from M. II. 7 students play exactly two games and 5
II. P is to the right of M and to the left of Q. students play all the three games.
III. N and L are to the immediate right and III. 49 students play exactly one game out of
immediate left of M, respectively. which 17 students play only Tennis.
1] Only III 2] Only II and III 1] I and II 2] II and III
3] Only I and II 4] Only I and III 3] II and III 4] Both [1] and [2]
5] Data insufficient 5] Both [2] and [3]
35. When is Ram’s birthday?

39. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six people of different
I. Last year Ram’s birthday fell on a Monday. heights. Who is the tallest?
II. This year, Ram celebrated his birthday in
I. P is taller than R and T and Q is taller than
the same month but on 6 th day after his
S and R.
actual date of birth.
II. S is not taller than U and T and R is not
III. This year, Ram celebrated his birthday on
taller than T and Q.
the 1 st Monday in the month of July.
III. T is taller than U and Q. U is not taller than
1] Only I and II 2] Only II and III
R and Q.
3] Only I and III 4] I, II and III
1] I 2] II and III
3] I and II 4] I and III
36. Aakash, Akshay, Rahul and Rajesh are four 5] I, II and III
friends and Komal, Kajal, Smita and Suman are
their wives not necessary in the given order. 40. There are 3 houses on each side of road facing
If Rahul is not Suman’s husband then who is towards each other. Arvind’s house is not at
the Akshay’s wife? corner. Whose house is opposite to the house
of Arvind?
I. Kajal is Aakash’s wife
II. Smita is not Rahul’s wife I. Sagar’s house and Vidya’s house are on
III. Rajesh is not Smita’s husband. different sides of road.
1] I and II 2] II and III II. Snehal’s house is not opposite to the
3] I and III 4] I, II and III Kamlesh’s house and Pooja’s house is at
5] Both II and III one corner.
III. Vidya’s house is opposite to Kamlesh’s
37. Six friends are sitting around a circular table house and Sagar is Arvind’s neighbour.
and facing towards the centre of table. Who 1] I and II 2] I and III
is sitting between Gopal and Prabhu? 3] II and III 4] I, II and III
I. Ramesh is sitting between Hemant and 5] Data is insufficient
Sameer.
II. Prabhu is sitting opposite to Hemant.
CET 500
VISUAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 10: Each question 4.
has three figures. The second figure bears a certain
relationship with the first figure. Choose the option that ?
bears an identical relationship with the third figure.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
5.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2.
?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
6.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3.
?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
7.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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8.
12.
?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
9. 13.
?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
14.
10.
?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
15.
has three figures. The second figure bears a certain re- ?
lationship with the first figure. Choose the option that
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
bears an identical relationship with the fourth figure.
11.
? 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
CET 500

alternative that will best continue the series. 20.
16.

alternative that best completes the series.
17.
21.
18.
22.
19.
23.
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24. 28.
25. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 38: Choose the

figure that does not fit in the series.
29.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
30.
26.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
31.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
32.
27. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
33.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
34.
35.
CET 500
36. 43.
37. 44.
38. 45.
DIRECTIONS for questions 39 to 45: Each question DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: Each question
contains a master figure [X], which is split into two contains a set of five figures split vertically into
sections that have a definite relationship with each two. There is a definite relationship between the
other. Choose the option where the sections exhibit left-hand and right-hand sections. Select the option
relationship similar to that in [X]. in which the sections are not related to each other
in the same way as in the other figures.
39.
46.
40.
47.
41.
48.
42. 49.
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50. DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 60: From among

the five figures given, choose the one that does not
fit in with the rest.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
56.

contains a sequence beginning with a diagram
labelled [X] and ending with [Y]. Of the five other
diagrams labelled [1] to [5], two adjacent diagrams
57.
may have been interchanged. For your answer,
identify the two adjacent diagrams that need to be
interchanged to form a logical sequence, and mark
the first diagram as your answer. In case no inter-
change is required, then choose [5].
58.
51.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
52. 59.
53.
60.
54.
55.
CET 500
LOGICAL REASONING - I
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Refer to the data DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 9: Refer to the data
below and answer the questions that follow. below and answer the questions that follow.
A meeting was held among the professionals A, B,

A, B, C, D, E, F and G study in different streams
C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. There were Doctors, Engineers,
of engineering viz; Computers, Electronics and
Lawyers, Businessmen and Journalists (two each).
Electrical. Each one is in a different college out of
Their seating arrangement, around a circular table was
M, L, N, X, K, P and Y. There are at least two students
as follows:
in the same stream.
i. The persons in the same profession sat op-
i. D studies Electronics in college L.
posite to each other.
ii. Computers is not available in college X.
ii. Doctors were sitting to the immediate right of
iii. B studies Electronics, but not in college M that
Engineers and to the immediate left of Lawyers.
offers only electronics.
iii. Lawyers were not sitting beside Businessmen.
iv. G and E study in the same stream and so do
iv. C and D were Doctors, H and J were Lawyers
A and B.
and A and E were Journalists.
v. F studies Electrical in college P.
v. G is equidistant from I and D and also to the
vi. C studies in college K and E in college Y.
right of D and left of C. J is to the immediate
right of D and equidistant from F and B.
1. Which stream does A study in?
1] Electronics 5. Which of the following members was definitely
2] Electrical an Engineer by profession?
3] Computers 1] F 2] B 3] G
4] Electrical or Computers 4] I 5] Cannot be determined
5] Electronics or Computers
6. Which of the following members were definitely
not sitting next to each other?
2. Who studies Computers?
1] C and H 2] G and B 3] A and I
1] G and A 2] E and G 3] A and C 4] E and D 5] None of these
4] C and F 5] C and E
7. If F, D and J were sitting together, then which

3. Which of the following is not a right combination of the following members could have been
of Student-College-Stream? sitting beside E?
1] A-M-Electronics 2] G-N-Computers 1] J and I 2] H and I 3] J and C
3] C-K-Computers 4] F-P-Electrical 4] H and B 5] All of these
5] B-X-Electronics
8. Who was sitting to the immediate left of F?
4. Which college is Electrical definitely taught in? (Use data from the previous question.)
1] B 2] A 3] E
1] L 2] P 3] Y
4] I 5] Cannot be determined
4] N 5] M
CET
9. Who was sitting three places to the right of 13. If Lake A is visited second, then which of the
C? following will be false?
1] I 2] A
1] Y will be the sixth place to be visited.
3] E 4] Either [2] or [3]
2] The Temple is visited at the start of the
5] Either [1] or [2]
day.
3] Temple Q is visited after Lake B.
DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 13: Refer to the 4] Fort X is visited after Lake C.
data below and answer the questions that follow. 5] None of these.
A group of tourists is on a tour of Rajasthan. They DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 17: Refer to the
need to cover ten places, all of which are visited in data below and answer the questions that follow.
a strict linear order such that no two similar types
of places are covered consecutively. e.g., tourists 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are grouped in
cannot visit Temple P immediately before or after three teams x, y and z such that each team has at the
Temple R. most, three persons. A and E are never in the same
i. Museum L is either the first or the last place team, but E and C like to be in the same team. D, H
visited. and G are in three different teams. B is in team z.
ii. Temples P, Q and R are visited in that order
but not consecutively. 14. If A is in team x then which of the following
iii. Fort X and Lake C are visited one after the is definitely true?
other. I. F is in team z.
iv. Fort Y has to be visited just before Temple II. C is in team y.
R. III. A and D are in the same team.
v. Neither the Fort nor the Temple is visited second 1] only I 2] only II 3] I and II
or second last. 4] II and III 5] I and III
vi. To visit Fort T, a tourist is required to cross
Lake A. While returning from Fort T the tourist 15. If A and D are the only two persons in team
is required to cross Lake B. y then:
1] E is in team z 2] F is in team z
10. Which of t he following can b e a valid 3] G is in team x 4] H is in team z
combination for the tour? 5] C is in team y
1] L A T B P Q Y R C X
2] L X C P A T B Q Y R 16. If the condition in Q. 76 holds true and F and
3] P C X Q Y R A T B L G are in the same team, then which of the
4] P Q A T B Y R X C L following teams can they be in?
5] P A T B Q Y R C X L 1] Team x
2] Team y
3] Team z
11. Temple Q can be visited: 4] Either Team x or Team z
1] 3rd 2] 4 th 3] 5 th 5] Cannot be determined
4] 4 th or 5 th 5] 3 rd or 4 th
12. If R is the 7 th place to be visited, then T is

visited:
1] 3rd 2] 5 th 3] 8 th
4] 4 th 5] Cannot be determined.
CET 500
17. If H is in team y then which of the following occassions. She suffers from chronic back pain
is definitely false? for almost 8 hours a day and has a medical
I. F is in team z. history of psychological imbalance.
II. A and F are in the same team.
III. B and A are in different teams. 19. Anand Tiwari is a 25 years old working
1] only I 2] only II professional. He is suffering from herniated disk
3] only III 4] II and III for two years now and has juvenille diabetes.
5] None of these He has been consuming antidepressants as per
his family doctor’s prescripti on. He has
undergone three surgeries for his back pain,
DIRECTIONS for questions 18 to 22: Refer to the but yet he suffers from backache for 10 hours
data below and answer the questions that follow. a day.
Dr. Clive Rego, a professor of rehabilitation medicine 20. Neeta Joshi, an editor with a popular newspaper
is on his way to India. He treats patients with herniated
agency celebrated her birthday on 4th March.
disk problem. Alternative medication is suggested to
Born in the year 1972, she had been diagnosed
patients depending on their case history.
with herniated disk in May 2003. She has been
(a) The patient is suffering from herniated disk for
operated for the same on more than four
less than 5 years as on 1st July 2009.
occassions but still suffers from lower back
(b) Age of the patients is less than 35 years as pain all through the day.
on 1 st July 2009.
(c) The patient has undergone more than two 21. Ramiya tri ed to commit suici de on two
surgeries for herniated disk. It is assumed that occassions , as she was suffe ring from
the patient who has undergone this kind of depression and chronic back pain which would
surgery does not suffer from osteoporosis. last for more than 10-12 hours a day. She is
(d) The patient has a medical history of depression, past 40 years of age and was diagnosed with
anxiety, mental or emotional/psychological herniated disk in 2001.
imbalances.
(e) The patient suffers from back pain for more 22. Agnes D’ Souza was diagno sed with
than 6 hours a day. osteoporosis last year and with a herniated disk
six months back and has undergone a surgery
Mark [1]; Only if conditions (a) and (b) are false for it. She was born on 15th September 1953.
and conditions (c) and (e) hold true, he/she She is a housewife and was in the best of health
should be referred to the Acupuncturist. till last year. She does not suffer from the back
Mark [2]; Only if conditions (a), (b) and (d) hold pain, depression, anxiety, mental or emotional/
true, he/she should be referred to the Meditation psychological imbalances.
Specialist.
Mark [3]; Only if condition (a) holds true and all DIRECTIONS for questions 23 to 27: Refer to the
other conditons are false, he/she should be referred
data below and answer the questions that follow.
to Dr. Clive Rego.
Mark [4]; Only if conditions (a) and (b) are false ABCD software company is recruiting for the post
and condtions (d) and (e) are true, he/she should of executive officers. A candidate is selected if he/
be referred to the psychologist. she satisfies the following criteria as on 1 st February
Mark [5]; If data is inadequate. 2010.
i. The candidate must be a Computer Engineer/
18. Mrs.Kapoor was born on 12th November 1963 Electronics Engineer/ MBA with at least 65%
and has been suffering from herniated disk and of marks.
osteoporosis since May 2003. She has been ii. He/she must have at least 2 years of work ex-
under the surgical knife on more than three perience in IT/ Computers.
CET
iii. The candidate’s age should neither be less than 27. Avinash Tiwari is an MBA with 76% marks.
21 years nor more than 30 years. He was born on 10th January 1984. He passed
iv. He/she must pass the selection test with at out in May 2008 and since then, has been
least 70% marks. working as a Systems Manager in XYZ Computer
If the candidate satisfies all the criteria except, Solutions Pvt. Ltd. He passed the selection test
Condition (ii) but has scored at least 70% in gradu- with 82% marks.
ation/MBA and has at least 1 year of relevant work
experience, he/she is referred to the Manager-Opera- DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 32: Refer to the
tions. data below and answer the questions that follow.
Condition (iii) but is below 32 years of age and has
minimum 4 years of relevant work experience, he/she An alphanumeric machine, when fed a line of words,
is referred to the Managing Director. rearranges them following certain logic. The following
Based on the above information; is an illustration of the input and the steps of
rearrangement.
Mark [1]; if the candidate is selected.
Mark [2]; if the candidate is rejected. Input : cool 12 the 44 problem 74 inside 55 84 47 stamina
Step I : the 12 cool 44 problem 74 inside 55 84 47 stamina
Mark [3]; if data is inadequate to take any decision. Step II : the 44 cool 12 problem 74 inside 55 84 47 stamina
Step III : the 44 cool 12 problem 74 inside 55 84 47 stamina
Mark [4]; if the case is to be referred to the Manager- Step IV : the 44 cool 74 problem 12 inside 55 84 47 stamina
Operations. Step V : the 44 cool 74 inside 12 problem 55 84 47 stamina
Step VI : the 44 cool 74 inside 55 problem 12 84 47 stamina
Mark [5]; if the case is to be referred to the Step VII : the 44 cool 74 inside 55 problem 12 84 47 stamina
Managing Director. Step VIII : the 44 cool 74 inside 55 problem 47 84 12 stamina
Output : the 44 cool 74 inside 55 problem 47 stamina 12 84
23. Nilesh Chaturvedi is an Electrical Engineer and The machine stops here.
an MBA. He passed out in May 2005 and since
then, has been working in a software company 28. If Input : crazy 56 little 25 wonder 26 72 child
as a software engineer. He secured 75% marks mania, which will be step IV for the given input?
in MBA as well as in the selection test. He
was born on 11th January 1980. 1] little 56 wonder 26 crazy 25 72 child mania
2] little 56 wonder 25 crazy 26 72 child mania
3] little 26 wonder 56 crazy 25 72 child mania
24. Pooja Singh is a Computer Engineer. She passed
out in 2003 with 70% marks. She is 26 years 4] little 25 wonder 26 crazy 56 72 child mania
of age with a work experience of 6 years as 5] little 72 wonder 26 crazy 25 56 child mania
a clerk in XYZ Bank Pvt. Ltd. She passed the
selection test with 72%. 29. If Input : faith 16 hope 20 self 12 40, what will
be the output?
25. Manar Jain is a BMM and MBA. He has secured
1] hope 20 self 16 12 faith 40
more than 70% throughout his academic career.
He passed the selection test with 78%. He has 2] hope 20 faith 16 self 12 40
been working for the past two years as a 3] hope 20 self 16 40 12 faith
Systems-Manager in a software company. He 4] hope 20 self 16 faith 12 40
was born on 28th February 1986. 5] hope self 20 16 faith 12 40
26. Sheetal Ray is an Electronics Engineer with 68%

30. If Input : bones 72 48 like hard tough, which
marks. She passed out in the year 2005 and
is the last element in the output?
since then, has been working as an Electronics
Engineer in an IT firm. She is 28 years of age. 1] like 2] hard 3] t o u gh
4] 48 5] 72
CET 500
31. What would be the fifth element from the left 35. What would be the fifth element from the right
in the fourth step, if the input is as specified in the second step, if the input as specified
below? in the previous question is fed into the ma-
Input : 21 caste 56 legal right 54 regard 12 20 chine?
1] 21 2] ca st e 3] 56 1] 527 2] 628 3] 323
4] regard 5] legal 4] 213 5] 428
32. If number 24 is placed at the start of the input 36. An input: “BE 69 THERE 63 BEFORE 66 YOU
given in Q.29, which element will fall on the 67” is fed into the machine. In how many steps
fifth position in the final step? would the output be generated?
1] hope 2] self 3] 16 1] 2 2] 3 3] 4
4] faith 5] 12 4] 5 5] 6
DIRECTIONS for questions 33 to 36: Refer to the DIRECTIONS for questions 37 to 41: Refer to the
data below and answer the questions that follow. data below and answer the questions that follow.
A machine when fed with a string of numbers or words Digit ® 6 8 5 9 0 1 4 3 7 2

generates an output after processing the string based Code ® J U & # A W P F % K
on a certain logic. If the following input is fed into
Given above are digits and their corresponding codes.
the machine it generates the output in the following
The numbers given in the questions below have to
steps.
be coded below using these codes subject to the
INPUT: 637 PUT 723 OUT 893 YOU 524 GET 327 GOTO
following conditions:
Step I: GOTO 723 PUT OUT 893 YOU 524 GET 327 637 i. If the first digit and the last digit of the number
Step II: GOTO 723 GET 893 OUT YOU 524 PUT 327 637 are both odd, then both the digits are coded
Step III: GOTO 723 GET 893 OUT 524 YOU PUT 327 637 as X.
Step IV: GOTO 723 GET 893 OUT 524 PUT 327 YOU 637 ii. If the first and the last digit of the number
Step IV is the output are both even, then both the digits are coded
as per the code for the last digit.
33. If the following input is fed into the machine iii. If the first digit of the number is odd and the
which of these would be the output? last digit is even, then the codes for those two
digits are interchanged.
INPUT: FOR 428 THE 323
For the remaining case the number is coded
EVE 628 BAN 213
with the respective code in the order of the
1] FOR 428 BAN 628 EVE 213 THE 323 digits.
2] THE 213 EVE 323 BAN 628 FOR 428
The remaining digits are coded with their
3] THE 213 EVE 323 BAN 428 FOR 628
corresponding codes in the same order of the
4] EVE 213 THE 323 FOR 628 BAN 428
digits.
5] None of these
37. 3621589
34. If “FUR 527” is feed as an input at the end
of the input fed in the above question which 1] XKJW&U# 2] XJKW&UX
of these would be the output? 3] #JKW&UX 4] #JKW&U#
5] None of these
1] THE 213 FOR 527 EVE 323 FUR 428 BAN 628
2] THE 213 FOR 527 FUR 428 BAN 628 EVE 323
3] THE 628 EVE 428 FOR 527 FUR 323 BAN 213
4] THE 213 EVE 323 FOR 527 FUR 428 BAN 628
5] None of these
CET
38. 5343678 45. A shopping mall has six stores in a row. The
1] &UFPFJ&% 2] %&UFPFJ Music Store is to the immediate right of the
3] &FPFJ%U 4] &UFPPJ%& Men’s Boutique. The McMickey’s Eatout is
5] None of these equidistant from the Men’s Boutique and the
Women’s Boutique. The Music Store is to the
extreme right. The Women’s Boutique is to the
39. 20398768
immediate left of the Gift Store. Which store
1] UAF#U%JU 2] UFA#U%JU is to the right of the Shoe Store?
3] UAF#U%UJ 4] UAF#%UJU 1] Women’s Boutique
5] None of these 2] McMickey’s Eatout
3] Music Store
40. 23567891 4] Men’s Boutique
1] KF&J%U#W 2] W&FJ%U#K 5] Cannot be determined
3] WF&J%U#K 4] KF&JU%#K
5] None of these 46. If ‘CANVAS’ is coded as ‘BDWOTB’ and
‘PENCIL’ is coded as ‘FQDOMJ’, then ‘PO-
41. 26523950 ETRY’ is coded as:
1] PQUFZS 2] FDQUXZ 3] QPFUSZ
1] AJK&KF#A 2] AJ&KF#&A
4] SZFUQP 5] KLVGIB
3] AKJ&KF#&K 4] KJ&KF#&A
5] None of these
47. The word which can be formed by rearranging
the 1 st , 3 rd, 6 th, 8 th and 9 th letters of the word
DIRECTIONS for questions 42 to 55: Choose the INTERMEDIATE means:
correct alternative.
1] destitute 2] dauntless 3] timorous
4] poor 5] indigent
42. A number of girls are standing in a row facing
north. Seeta is the eighth from the left end of
48. The word which is formed by using the 1 st ,
the row. Neeta who is three places to the left
4 th, 5 th and 9 th letters of the word AUGMEN-
of Seeta is the eleventh from the right end of
TATION is synonymous with all of the fol-
the row. How many girls are there in all?
lowing EXCEPT:
1] 25 2] 18 3] 15
1] gentle 2] docile 3] savage
4] 16 5] 14
4] submissive 5] meek
43. A man walks towards the South, turns right

50. In a family of 10 members, A has 3 children
and walks some distance. He again turns right – P, Q and R, of which, two are married. A
and walks a certain distance and then stops. has four grandchildren – X, L, B and I. T is
In which direction is he with respect to the X’s uncle and P is B’s uncle. M is I’s aunt
starting point? and R is L’s aunt. X and L are M’s children.
1] North-West 2] W e s t Q is L’s and B’s aunt. Which of the following
3] North 4] South-West is definitely correct about ‘T’?
5] Cannot be determined 1] T is L’s father. 2] T is I’s father.
3] T is Q’s husband. 4] T is M’s husband.
44. U is the mother of Q who is the brother of 5] T is I’s uncle.
H. H is P’s father. How is P related to U?
1] Grandson 2] Daughter
3] Granddaughter 4] Son
CET 500
51. 8 potted plants were arranged in a row facing 54. In some land far away, spice, vegetable and
south. The Shoeflower plant is placed at extreme fruit are types of food articles. Orange is a spice,
left. The Grass Palm is placed to the immediate Basil a vegetable and Cabbage a fruit. Cherry
right of the Snake plant. The Fern is placed is not a fruit and Tulsi not a spice. Apple is
to the immediate left of Lemon Vine. The Rubber a vegetable and Spinach is not. Bay leaf may
plant is to the immediate right of the Rose plant. be a fruit or a spice. Tomato belongs to the
The Fern is placed immediately next to the Grass same type as Orange or Basil.
Palm. The Sunflower plant is to the immediate
There are three elements of each type. Which
right of the Rubber plant. On which position
of the following is/are an invalid combination?
from the left is the Fern plant placed?
a. Vegetable – Basil, Cherry
i. 3 ii]. 4 iii. 5
iv. 6 v. 7 b. Vegetable – Apple, Tomato
c. Fruit – Tulsi, Cabbage
1] i or ii 2] i or iii 3] ii or iv
4] ii or v 5] iii or iv d. Spice – Bay Leaf, Spinach
e. Fruit – Tomato, Cherry
1] c and e 2] a and b 3] only a
51. If the letters of the word ‘CELEBRATING’ are 4] only e 5] c and d
rearranged alphabetically, then how many letters
will be in the same position as that in the word?
55. If ‘orange’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘red’,
1] Zero 2] One 3] Two ‘red’ is called ‘violet’, ‘violet’ is called ‘green’
4] Three 5] None of these and ‘green’ is called ‘orange’, what is the colour
of blood?
52. How many pairs of letters in the word ‘POLI- 1] blue 2] red 3] violet
TICIAN’ have the same number of letters 4] orange 5] green
between them as in the English alphabet series?
1] One 2] Two 3] Three
4] Zero 5] None of these
53. Five families of a colony are driving towards a

picnic spot in different cars. The Sharma’s
precede the Ahuja’s. The Kapoor’s started the
earliest. Mr. D’Souza and Mr. Shah follow the
Kapoor’s and the Sharma’s respectively. The
D’Souza family or the Kapoor’s are seated in the
Lancer. The Sonata is the third car to reach the
picnic spot. Neither the Kapoor’s nor the Ahuja’s
drive the Pajero. The last family that reaches the
picnic spot drives an Indigo. No car overtakes
while driving towards the picnic spot.
Which of these could be a valid combination?
1] Mr.Sharma – Sonata
2] Mr.Kapoor – Indigo
3] Mr.D’Souza – Sonata
4] Mr.Ahuja – Sonata
5] Mr.Shah – Lancer
CET
LOGICAL REASONING - II
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 10: Find the next 9. 11, 13, 17, 25, 41, .........
number in the series. 1] 74 2] 63 3] 43
4] 73 5] 84
1. –1, 1, 4, 9, 18, ............
1] 27 2] 36 3] 37
10. 4, 7, 18, 17, 32, 27, .........
4] 35 5] 39
1] 36 2] 46 3] 37
2. 3, 15, 35, 63, ............
1] 70 2] 99 3] 79
4] 96 5] 100 DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: Find the odd
term in the following series.
5
3. 1, 2, 2, 4, , 6, 17 , 8, ............ 11. 6, 15, 35, 77, 145, 221, 323.
2 6
1] 35 2] 145 3] 221
37 17 4] 323 5] 15
1] 2] 10 3]
12 16
23 12. 5, 25, 63, 113, 181, 265, 365.

4] 5] 8
24 1] 5 2] 25 3] 63
4] 113 5] 181
4. 0, 6, 6, 20, 20, 42, 42, ............

1] 64 2] 72 3] 84 13. 3, 8, 24, 44, 120, 168, 288.
4] 76 5] None of these 1] 24 2] 44 3] 8
4] 168 5] 288
5. 1, 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ............
1] 66 2] 60 3] 50 1 7 5 13 14 19
4] 56 5] 61 14. , , , , , .
3 12 6 12 6 12
6. 6, 8, 9, 23, 40, 72, 135, ......... 7 5 13

1] 2] 3]
1] 207 2] 247 3] 152 12 6 12
4] 234 5] 221
14 19
4] 5]
6 12
7. 3, 11, 25, 45, 71, 103, .........
1] 141 2] 151 3] 133
4] 145 5] 127 15. 0, 3, 2, 5, 7, 14, 20.
1] 5 2] 7 3] 11
4] 14 5] 20
8. –3, 1, 0, 4, 3, .........
1] 2 2] –1 3] 7
4] 5 5] 0
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Refer to the 21. Find x # y, if x = (A # B + A @ B) and y

data below and answer the questions that follow. = (A $ B + A ? B), where A = 1 and B = 2.
21 21 11
In the following questions, 1] 2] – 3] -
A B means A is not smaller than B. 4 2 2
A B means A is neither greater than nor equal 2
to B. 4] 5] None of these
11
A B means A is not greater than B.
A B means A is neither greater than nor smaller
than B. 22. Find (x + y) × (y – x), if x = (A # B + A ?
A B means A is neither equal to nor smaller than B) and y = (A $ B + A @ B), where A = 1
B. and B = 2.
1] –6 2] 5 3] 12
In each of the following questions, there are statements 4] 15 5] None of these
followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming the
given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion/s is/are definitely true. A#B A@ B
23. Find ÷ , where A = 1 and
Mark [1], if only conclusion I follows. A?B A$B
Mark [2], if only conclusion II follows. B = 2.
Mark [3], if either conclusion I or II follows.
Mark [4], if neither conclusion I nor II follows. 3 3
1] 2] – 3] 0
Mark [5], if both conclusions I and II follow. 2 2
4] ¥ 5] None of these
16. X Y, Y W, W Z
I. X W II. Y Z
æ A$B ö æ A ?B ö
24. If x = çç ÷÷ and y = ç ÷ , where
è A#B ø è A@B ø
17. P Q, R Q, R S
A = 3 and B = 2, then which of the following
I. P R II. P S is true?
1] y > x 2] x > y 3] x = y
18. J K, H I, J I x
4] > 1 5] None of these
I. K I II. H J y
19. A B, C D, B D 25. Referring to the previous question, if the value

of m is the reciprocal of the value of ‘y’ and
I. C A II. A C
the value of ‘n’ is the reciprocal of the value
of ‘x’, which of the following is true?
20. L M, L T, M N
m 1 n 3
I. N L II. T M 1] > 2] >
n 2 m 2
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Refer to the 3

3] –(m + n) > 4] (m + n) > –6
data below and answer the questions that follow. 2
A + AB A - AB 5] All of these
A # B = , A ? B =
B B
B + AB B - AB
A @ B = , A $ B =
A A
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: Refer to the (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) and answer the questions below.
alphanumeric series below and answer the questions
that follow.
31. 23 25 31 43 63 93
2 I # 5 T $ # 7 M $ $ 7 I # 5 A # 2 O # 5 G 5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
$ 5 N $ 5 I $ 2 5 # 7 N # # 7 5 A 2 $
Which of the following will come in place of
26. In the given sequence, how many vowels are (b)?
immediate ly followed by a s ymbol and 1] 9 2] 13 3] 18
immediately preceded by a number? 4] 15 5] 21
1] 2 2] 3 3] 4
4] 5 5] 6 32. 106 110 119 144 193 314
27. Which is the 19 th element to the right of the 357 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
13 th element to the left of the 23 rd element from Which of the following will come in place of
the left? (c)?
1] 2 2] $ 3] I 1] 423 2] 420 3] 396
4] 5 5] None of these 4] 393 5] 395
28. In the given sequence, how many symbols have

numbers appearing 2 places before and after 33. 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375
them? 24 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] 0 2] 2 3] 4 Which of the following will come in place of
4] 6 5] None of these (e)?
1] 182.5 2] 182.25 3] 182.75
29. If all the numbers in the given sequence are
4] 183 5] 181.5
ignored, then which is the 4 th element to the
left of the 9 th element to the right of the 14 th
element to the left of the 7 th element from the 34. 4 5 94 905 9094 90905
right?
2 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1] A 2] # 3] G
Which of the following will come in place of
4] O 5] I
(a)?
30. If all the numbers in the given sequence are 1] 4 2] 5 3] 6
ignored, then how many letters in the resulting 4] 7 5] 8
sequence are immediately followed by a ‘$’ and
immediately preceded by a ‘#’?
1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 5 20 15
35. 4 5 6
4] 4 5] 5 2 3 2
5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

data below and answer the questions that follow. Which of the following will come in place of
(b)?
In each of these questions logical sequence of numbers 1] 6 2] 7 3] 9
is given. It is followed by another series which starts 4] 10 5] 11
with a number followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e).
You have to understand the pattern given in the number
series and form a new series with the first number
of the second series to get the values of
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CET
SAMPLE CET
Questions : 200 Time : 150 min.
Max. Marks : 200 No Negative Marking
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 10: Choose the 6. In a certain code PLAY is written as D F $!
correct alternative. and LAID is written as F $ o #. Then PAID
is written as?
1. Three boys A, B and C, together purchased 1] F $o! 2] D F $#
a board game and shared the amount in the 3] D F $o# 4] F $!
ratio of their ages. A who is 15 years old, is 5] D o $#
9 years elder to B who is 3 year younger to
C. If C paid Rs. 12, what is the total amount 7. 3, 8, 17, 30, 47 . . .
paid for the game? What is the next term in the sequence?
1] 20 2] 32 3] 40 1] 69 2] 61 3] 127
4] 50 5] None of these 4] 81 5] 625
2. How many four letter words are formed from 8. A man said to another man, “I am the father
the word ‘wonder’, starting with ‘D’ and ending of your father’s son-in-law” W hat is the
with ‘N’? relationship between the man’s daughter-in-law
1] One 2] Two 3] Three and the other man whom he spoke to?
4] More than three 5] None 1] Brother and Sister
2] Mother-in-law and Son-in-law
3] Aunt and nephew
3. Pick the odd one out.
4] Niece and Uncle
1] flow 2] back 3] draw 5] Cousins
4] sn a p 5] trap
9. 7 × (8 ÷ ? ÷ 2) = 7
4. How many three letter words are formed from 1] 6 2] 4 3] 16
the word 'Easter', starting with 'e' and contain 4] 8 5] 2
one 'a'?
1] One 2] Two 3] Three 10. Customization is to Standard, as Individual is
4] Four 5] None of these to _________.
1] Group 2] Leader 3] Right
5. Rajesh travels from A to B following a roadmap. 4] Symbol 5] Periphery
The map is a square map of. Assume A is along
the southern most edge of the map. He travels
east of A for about 5Km and reaches the end
of the map, then he takes a sharp left turn and
travels for about 10Km. What direction is A to
B?
1] North 2] East
3] North-East 4] W e st
5] South-East
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: Refer to the 30 30 20

data below and answer the questions that follow: C8 C7 ´ C1
3] 50 + 50
C8 C8
A basket has 30 mangoes and 20 apples. Out of the
30 mangoes, 20 are ripened and out of the 20 apples, 30 20
C6 ´ C2
13 are ripened. The remaining fruits are raw. 4] 50
C8
11. If 6 fruits are taken at random, what is the 5] None of these
probability that all the fruits are raw?
17 14. If 13 fruits are taken at random, what is the

3 C6
1] 2] 50 probability that there are no ripened apples?
5 C6
20 30 37
7 10 C13 C13 C13
C6 C6 1] 2] 3]
3] 4] 50 50 50
50 50 C13 C13 C13
C6 C6
5] None of these 1
C13
12. If 10 fruits are taken at random, what is the
probability that there are at least 2 ripened 15. If 13 fruits are taken at random, what is the
apples? probability that there are no ripened apples?
37
C9 ´ 13C1 30
C5 20
C5 20
C5
1] 1 – 50 1] 50 2] 50 3] 30
C10 C5 C5 C5
37 13
C10 C5
2] 1 – 4] 50 5] None of these
50
C10 C5
37
C9 ´ 13C1
3] DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: In each of
50
C10 the following questions series begin with
unnumbered figure on the extreme left and ends with
37 37
C10 C9 ´ 13C1 unnumbered figure in the right. One and only one
4] 1 – 50 – 50 of the five numbered figures in the series does not
C10 C10
fit into the series. Find the odd figure which does
5] None of these not fit in the series.
13. If 8 fruits are taken at random, what is the

16.
probability that there are at most 2 ripened
mangoes?
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
30 30 20 30 20
C8 C7 ´ C1 C6 ´ C2
1] 50 + 50 + 50
C8 C8 C8
17.
30 20 30 20
C7 ´ C1 C6 ´ C2
2] 50 + 50
C8 C8
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
CET
18. 3 1 2
23. x + 15 – 12 – 6 × 2 = 1
5 2 3
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
143
1] 64 2]
12
19. 163
3] 13 4]
12
1] 2] 3] 4] 5] 5] None of these
24.
7 × (8 + 2) ¸ 5 + 13 – 3x = 0
20. 1] 9 2] 8
3] 13 4] –8
5] None of these
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
1 17
25. (4 + x) ¸ (4 – x) + 6 =
2 2
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Find the value
of x in the given expressions. 4
1] 2] 1
3
1 2 1 1
21. 4 ÷ x + 13 ÷ + 17 = 0 3] 4 4]
3 3 2 3
5] None of these
75 75
1] – 2] DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: In each of the
8 8
following sentences, a part of the sentence or the entire
sentence is highlighted. Beneath each sentence, five
8 8
3] – 4] different ways of phrasing the highlighted part are
75 75
indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the
5] None of these five.
26. The government should do what so ever it takes

2
22. 15 ´ x + 6 - 8 ¸ 2 = 1 to reduce global warming.
3
1] whatever it is taking
2] whatever it takes
1] 9 2] –9 3] whatever it took
1 1 4] None of these
3] – 4] 5] No correction required
9 9
5] None of these 27. The last over of the innings turned the game
on its head.
1] around its head 2] over its head
3] on it's head 4] None of these
5] No correction required
CET 500
28. A large fee was charged by the university by v. If an even number follows an even number, the
the pretext of increased facilities. difference is multiplied by 2.
1] for the pretext 2] on pretext vi. In default case, the remainder when the second
3] on the pretext 4] None of these number is divided by the first number, is taken
5] No correction required as the output.
The priority to the rules is given in sequence from
29. She had a career threat injury, but she made
(i) to (vi), (i) being the highest.
a strong comeback two years later.
1] threat of career 31. 3 6 8
2] career threatening
4 8 7
3] threatening to career
4] None of these What is the square root of the number which
5] No correction required is obtained by adding the resultants of the two
rows?
30. The level of contamination of water across the 1] 4 2] 2 3] 1
city has doubled in the last year. 4] 8 5] None of these.
1] have doubled in
2] has doubled for
3] will double in 32. 4 8 9
4] None of these 2 5 7
5] No correction required
What is the product of the resultant of the
DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the two rows?
data below and answer the questions that follow.
1] 16 2] 15 3] 112
In the following questions two rows of numbers are 4] 156 5] None of these.
given. Resultant number in each row is to be worked
out separately based on the following rules and the
question below the row of numbers is to be answered. 33. 10 11 12
The operations of numbers progress from left to right. 13 14 15
Resultant of the first operation is the input for the
subsequent operation. What is the difference of the resultants of the
Rules: two rows?
Basic rule: In all the calculations we use the absolute 1] 4 2] 12 3] 14
value i.e. negative sign is ignored. 4] 13 5] None of these.
i. If a prime number is followed by an odd number,
then the quotient when the number is divided 34. 2 6 10
by the prime number is taken as the output.
16 22 30
ii. If a number follows a number which is a perfect
square, the difference between the two is taken
What number should be added to the difference
as output.
of the resultants of the two rows to get 100?
iii. If an even number follows an odd number which
1] 24 2] 76 3] 52
is not a perfect square, the two numbers are
4] 56 5] None of these.
added.
iv. If a number which is neither even nor prime
follows a prime number, the numbers are
multiplied.
CET
35. 3 15 32 40.
1 2 3
I II I II I II I II I II I II
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
W h at i s th e quo ti en t ob tai ne d wh en t he
product of the resultants of the two rows
is divided by 4?
1] 8 2] 12 3] 18 41.
4] 20 5] None of these.
DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 45: In each of

the following questions, a related pair of figures
is followed by five numbered pairs of figures. Select
the pair that has a relationship similar to that in
the unnumbered pair. The best answer is to be 42] + ++ +s +s+ d+ + + +
selected from a group of fairly close choices. kk k
d dsd d+ d+
36. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
43.
37. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
44.
38. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
1] 2] 3] 4] 5] 45. x x +
d x x d d
x x +
d
d x x d
d x
x
+ ++ x + d + d x ++
x dd
x
x d x x dd d ++ d d
+ + x + d + x ++ d ++ d d x
x
39. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
I II I II I II I II I II I II DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: Rearrange the

1] 2] 3] 4] 5] following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below
them.
1. Out-of-state groups are running advertisements
denouncing him as a sell-out.
CET 500
2. Yet this year, Bennett faces a serious nomination 52. 0, 1, 1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 169, 441
challenge from his right flank. 1] 1 2] 4 3] 9
3. He favoured drilling for oil in the Arctic National 4] 49 5] 169
Wildlife Refuge.
4. By any measure, Utah Senator Robert Bennett these questions two equations I and II are given.
is one of the most proactive members of You have to solve both the equations.
Congress. Mark [1], if x > y
5. Firstly, he has championed a flat income tax
Mark [2], if x > y
and the abolition of the inheritance tax.
Mark [3], if y > x
6. He has led many legislation bills passed in his
tenure out of which two bills stand out the Mark [4], if y > x
most. Mark [5], Either x = y or the relationship between
x & y cannot be established
46. Which of the following is the first sentence?
1] 2 2] 1 3] 5
4] 4 5] 6 53. I. x = 3
2197
II. y 3 = 4913
47. Which of the following is the second sentence?
54. I. x2 – 9x + 18 = 0
1] 2 2] 1 3] 6
II. y 2 + 6y + 8 = 0
4] 4 5] 3
55. I. 4x + 3y = 20
48. Which of the following is the third sentence? II. 9x + 8y = 50
1] 6 2] 1 3] 5
4] 4 5] 2
the questions below are given four statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
49. Which of the following is the fourth sentence? have to take the given statements to be true even
1] 3 2] 2 3] 1 if they seem to be at variance with the commonly
4] 4 5] 6 known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding
50. Which of the following is the fifth sentence? commonly known facts.
1] 2 2] 3 3] 4 Mark [1], if only conclusion I follows.
4] 5 5] 1 Mark [2], if only conclusion II follows.
Mark [3], if either conclusion I or II follows.
DIRECTIONS for questions 51 and 52: Find the Mark [4], if both conclusions follow.
odd term in the series. Mark [5], if no conclusion follows.
56. Statements : Some cherries are sour. All

12 9 mangoes are green.
51. 1, , , 8, 16, 29
5 2 Some mangoes are sour. No
cherries are green.
12
1] 2] 4 Conclusions :I. Some sour are green.
5
II. Some cherries are mangoes.
3] 8 4] 29
5] 16
CET
57. Statements : All farms are tillers. Some farmers

are tillers. 63.
All farmers are villagers. Some
farms are farmers.
i ii i ii i ii i ii i ii
Conclusions :I. All farms are villagers. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
II.Some farmers are not villagers.
58. Statements : All injuries are fatal. All fatal are 64.
brutal.
Some fatal are instant. All instant
are brutal. i ii i ii i ii i ii i ii
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
Conclusions :I. Some injuries are instant.
II. No instant is injury.
65.
59. Statements : All birds are dragons. Some
pigeons are not dragons.
Some crows are birds. No crows i ii i ii i ii i ii i ii
are pigeons. 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
Conclusions :I. Some dragons are crows.
II. Some birds are not pigeons. DIRECTIONS for questions 66 to 70: Select the
option that contains the pair of words that fit into
the blanks in each sentence.
60. Statements : All shirts are tops. Some tops are
silks. 66. If you ________ the outcomes you are
Some silks are premiers. No shirts ________, there are other choices you can make.
are silks. 1] are not liking, currently having
Conclusions :I. Some premiers are not silks. 2] not like, presently getting
II. Some tops are not shirts. 3] don't like, currently getting
4] shall not like, will be getting
DIRECTIONS for questions 61 to 65: In each of the 5] like, recently having
following questions in four out of five figures, part
(i) is related to part (ii) in the same particular way.
67. The apartments in that locality are ________
Find the figure in which part (i) is not related to
expensive to ________ but also to buy as
part (ii).
property.
61. 1] not only, hire 2] not only, rent
3] only, hiring 4] not the only, rent
5] not, rent
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
68. ________ we boarded the train we realized that
we ________ to keep the tickets.
1] When, forgot
62.
2] No sooner, have forgotten
3] As soon as, forget
4] The moment, had forgotten
1] 2] 3] 4] 5] 5] Before, forgot
CET 500
69. The government must take immediate action, DIRECTIONS for questions 76 to 80: Each question
________ the problem of poverty ________ below consists of two statements I and II.
worse. Mark [1], if the data in Statement I alone are
1] lest, grow 2] because, grow sufficient to answer the question.
3] lest, grows 4] because,will grow Mark [2], if the data in statement II alone are
5] between, growing sufficient to answer the question.
Mark [3], if the data in Statement I alone or in
statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
70. ________ one practices, ________ it gets question.
for one to master any art. Mark [4], if the data in both the statements I and
1] More, the easier II are not sufficient to answer the question.
2] The most, easy Mark [5], if the data in both the statements I and
3] The more, the easier II together are necessary to answer the question.
4] The more, easily
5] Less, more 76. Is X, a three digit number, divisible by 7?
I. All the digits are odd and their sum is divisible
by 9.
DIRECTIONS for questions 71 to 75: Refer to the II. X is a multiple of 5.
alphanumeric series below and answer the question
that follow.
77. Calculate the annual rate of compound interest.
@ ! 1 A * 2 D 3 I 4 P 5 Y 6 J 7 L 8 V X 9 & W S
I. Total amount received after 2 years is Rs.
71. How many consonants are there which are 12,100.
followed by a consonant but not preceded by II. The amount doubles in 7.2 years.
a number?
1] 0 2] 1 3] 2 78. What is the radius of a circular field?
4] 3 5] 4
I. An athlete takes 2hrs to complete one round.
72. What is the 7th term to the left of the 11th II. The athlete runs at a uniform speed of 7m/
term from the left? s.
1] 8 2] 1 3] V
4] * 5] A 79. Calculate the radii of circles A and B.
73. What is the average of all the numbers that I. The ratio of their areas is 4:1.
II. The sum of their circumferences is 12 p .
appear at even position in the series?
1] 7 2] 6 3] 5
4] 3 5] 2 80. In a family of four, the age difference between
the mother and son is 20 years where as, between
74. How many numbers are there which are the father and daughter, it is 28 years. Calculate
immediately followed by a letter whose position the age difference between the mother and
in the English alphabet is a perfect square? father.
1] 1 2] 4 3] 5 I. The daughter is two years younger than her
4] 3 5] 2 brother.
II. Sum of the ages of the son and daughter
75. Which pair should come next in the series
is 38.
!1, *D, PY, ?
1] JL 2] VX 3] &W
4] LV 5] 8X
CET
DIRECTIONS for questions 81 to 85: Find the next The table below shows the ratio of black and white
term in the series. display mobiles sold to the colour display mobiles
sold out of all the brands.
6 3
81. 1, , , 2, 3, ? Black & Colour
5 2 Company
White Display Display
1] 2 2] 3 3] 4 Nokia 9 16
4] 5 5] 6 Samsung 1 4
Karbonn 12 13
Micromax 7 8
82. 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?
Fly 2 3
1] 50 2] 64 3] 53 Onida 7 18
4] 52 5] 46
86. What is the total number of black and white

83. 7, 25, 105, 531, ? display mobiles sold?
1] 3193 2] 3170 3] 990 1] 2073 2] 1525 3] 548
4] 1162 5] 123 4] 648 5] 448
84. 3, 15, 35, 63, 99, ? 87. The total number of Onida colour display mobiles
1] 115 2] 123 3] 129 sold is:
4] 139 5] 143 1] 54 2] 152 3] 91
4] 234 5] 207
85. 0, –1, –5, +14, +30, –55, ?
1] –81 2] 91 3] –91 88. What is the ratio of number of Nokia black
4] 81 5] 30 and white display mobiles sold to the number
of Samsung colour display mobile sold?
DIRECTIONS for questions 86 to 90: Refer to the 1] 9:10 2] 153:160 3] 272:40
graph below and answer the questions that follow. 4] 153:40 5] 425:200
The graph given below shows the number of mobiles
of various brands sold by a mobile shop in one month. 89. What is the percentage (rounded off to two
digits after decimal) of Nokia mobiles sold out
of the total mobiles sold?
Number of mobiles sold
1] 27.87 2] 27 3] 28.64
450 4] 28.33 5] 26.42
400
350
300
250
90. What is the total number of Mobiles sold by
200 the company which has the second highest value
150
of the fraction of black and white display mobiles
100
50 sold to the colour display mobiles sold?
0
Nokia Samsung Karbonn Micromax Fly Onida 1] 175 2] 250 3] 150
4] 300 5] 200
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 91 to 95: Read the 93. What is the possible solution suggested by
following passage carefully and answer the the author for the companies that are trying
questions that follow. to overcome the problem mentioned?
1] The companies should try to increase their
The strengthening of the rupee against the US dollar sales in the country and avoid external trade.
does not augur well for the country's exporters, who 2] The companies in India should try to increase
have just about started to breathe easy after the global their export trade in order to make up for
downturn. The rupee has appreciated by 13 per cent the losses due to strengthening of rupee.
against the dollar and the euro over the past one 3] The IT companies should formulate new
year, meaning that their receivables will fetch them export policies.
lower revenue after accounting for the currency 4] The companies should establish new
exchange. Information Technology as a sector received businesses to compete with other countries
more than three-fourths of its total revenue from 5] The companies should urge the government
exports in the fiscal 2009 and textiles one-fifth, to introduce changes in the policies in order
highlighting their dependence on overseas earnings. to devaluate the rupee.
Such companies have been hedging their revenues
against currency volatility. Exporters have no option
but to look at improving volumes. They will have to 94. What is the synonym of the word AUGUR as
increase their volume of exports to counter the drop used in the passage?
in revenue. 1] foretell 2] argue 3] bid
4] confess 5] signal
91. Which of the following is a direct consequence
of the strengthening of the rupee? 95. What is the antonym of the word VOLATILE?
1] After accounting for all the currency exchanges
1] transient 2] uniform 3] steady
the revenue of IT firms will be reduced.
4] senile 5] ephemeral
2] The exporters are trying to find out new ways
to reduce the export deficit.
3] Information technology sector is badly affected. DIRECTIONS for questions 96 to 105: In the
4] There is strong need for the exporters to regulate following passage, there are blanks each of which
new laws. has been numbered. These numbers are printed
1] Only 4 2] Only 1 3] 1 and 2 below the passage and against each, five words are
4] 2 and 3 5] 1 and 3 suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word in each case.
92. What is the reason for a drop in revenue for

the exporters? In a careful historical account of 96 reform and change
in Chile, Cristobal Kay, Associate Professor of Rural
1] There were major losses in the IT industry
Development, Institute of Social Studies, the
in the 2009 fiscal.
Netherlands, discussed the attempts to provide a
2] Textile industries started highlighting their
"human face" to neoliberal reforms in Chile after the
independent non-export earnings & profits 97 of democracy from military rule. He finds that Chile's
3] There was an appreciation of rupee against significant economic growth in recent decades has
the dollar leading to decrease in exchange been primarily through the rapid exhaustion of its 98
revenues. resources, especially minerals, and not through
4] Many companies were trying to increase sustainable 99 advancements. This has serious
their sales in the country itself to avoid loses negative environmental implications. The kind of rural
in export exchanges development that has taken place has benefitted large
5] There were taxes imposed by the foreign 100 farmers, while marginalizing small farmers, wage
countries which made it unviable for the labourers and women. While Kay is evidently in favour
export companies to do business there. of a pro-poor policy that is supportive of small and
CET
middle peasant farmers, wage labourers and women, DIRECTIONS for questions 106 to 110: In these
it is far from clear whether the class composition of questions symbols -, /, =, *, + are to be used with
the Chilean government will 101 it to move in such different meanings as follows:
a direction.
P/Q means P is not less than Q.
The paper by Marcos A. Kowarick, Regional Secretary,
Chile, reviewed the 102 and limitations of Chile's P-Q means P is less than Q.
agrarian reforms since the exit of the 103 dictatorship P=Q means P is neither less than nor greater than
in 1985 and focused on the 104 posed by the Q.
liberalization and globalization of Chile's 105 in this
regard. P*Q means P is not greater than Q.
P+Q means P is greater than Q.
96 1] economical 2] psychological In each question, three statements showing
3] agrarian 4] urban relationships have been given, which are followed
5] rural by two conclusions I and II.
Mark [1], if only conclusion I is definitely true.
97. 1] onset 2] start Mark [2], if only conclusion II is definitely true.
3] reset 4] restoration
5] restart Mark [3], if either conclusion I or II is definitely
true.
Mark [4], if both conclusions are definitely true.
98. 1] economic 2] artificial
3] physical 4] natural Mark [5], if no conclusion is definitely true.
5] monetary
106. Statements : A + B, C + D, B – D
99. 1] ecological 2] economical Conclusions : I. C + B
3] environmental 4] technological II.A + C
5] scientific
100. 1] business 2] socialist 107. Statements : E * F, F + G, G – H

3] industrious 4] capitalist Conclusions : I. H – F
5] environmentalist II. F * H
101 1] grant 2] hinder
3] direct 4] permit 108. Statements : M/N, L * Q, M = L
5] consider Conclusions : I. M * Q
102. 1] drawbacks 2] achievements II. Q/N
3] suc cesses 4] fortunes
5] shortcomings 109. Statements : A/Q, Q = S, S * T
103. 1] military 2] defence Conclusions : I. A + T

3] monarch 4] ancient II. A/S
5] roman
110. Statements : E – F, F * G, G = H
104. 1] threats 2] problems
3] difficulties 4] challenges Conclusions : I. E – H
5] dangers II. F * H
105. 1] industry 2] military
3] economy 4] parliament
5] policy
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 111 to 115: Refer to 3] ma mau quaeet chin pia
the data below and answer the questions that follow. 4] mau mushi chin pia ma
5] None of these
Mr. Chaue is the owner of one of the biggest car

114. If, “have our group” means “dupt kin mau”,
manufacturing companies, Kaoo Internationals. Hav-
then what does “quaeet” mean?
ing its business at a global level, he visits one of
the branches in India to see the functioning of the 1] appreciate
company and to motivate and acknowledge his 2] part
employees for their work. As Mr. Chaue knows only 3] have
his local language, he is accompanied by a translator. 4] you
5] None of these
While addressing one of the employees Mr. Chaue said,
“dupt kin vo z ba miukau quaeet tua ut mau ma.”
The translator translated it as, “I appreciate to have 115. What does ‘mau’ mean?
you as a part of our group.” 1] my
Mr. Chaue said, “ma tua quaeet dupt kin kaim mar 2] group
mau pia fin.” 3] for
The translator said, “I appreciate the work you have 4] our
done for our group.” 5] Cannot be determined
Mr. Chaue said, “gueu dupt chin tapp pop hui pia
kaim mau.”
DIRECTIONS for questions 116 to 125: Read the
The translator said, “Hard work will take our group
following passage carefully and answer the
to the top.”
questions given below it.
Mr. Chaue said, “mushi ma.”
The translator said, “Thank you.”
In Mr. Chaue’s language, ‘tua’ means ‘I’, ‘pia’ means Conformity is the jailer of freedom and the enemy
‘the’ and ‘fin’ means ‘done’. of growth, noted the young idealist who inspired
a whole generation. That was then, in the sobering
1960s, and long before the policy pundits ideated
111. What is the word for ‘work’ in Mr. Chaue’s
o n e c o n o mi c g r o w t h a n d c o n v e r g e n c e i n t h e
language?
community of nations. Fast-forward to the here and
1] mau or dupt now, and the mavens at the International Monetary
2] dupt Fund have chosen to be seemingly non-conforming,
3] kaim in estimating a higher-than-consensus year-on year
4] dupt or kaim
growth figure of 9.4%, for the Indian economy in
present calendar.
But given the fact that growth did decelerate in
112. What does ‘mar’ mean? the third-quarter in the last fiscal year, the low-
1] you base effect would likely shore up the numbers in
2] for the like period this year. So, calendar-year growth
3] have this time around can be expected to be a bit of
4] appreciate a statistical mirage.
5] Cannot be determined But one would need to be much too sanguine to
take for granted buoyant growth here, given the
113. How will one say, “Thank you for the work” weak global recovery, considerable debt overhang
in Mr. Chaue’s language? i n t h e a g e i n g , ma t u r e e c o n o m i e s a n d r i s i n g
1] mushi mar pia kaim ma commodity prices generally. For an increasingly-
2] mar ma kaim pia quaeet g l o b a l i s i n g e c o n o my , t h e l a c k l u s t r e e x t e r n a l
CET
e n v i r o n me n t w o u l d t e n d t o d a mp e n i n v e s t o r 117. LACKLUSTRE
sentiments and keep expectations range-bound. 1] Lifeless 2] Adventurous
More pertinent seems to be policy influences on 3] Sad 4] Endless
output growth, and not merely in the short term. 5] Bright
Thus, the accumulation of social and phy sical
overhead capital is deemed important for growth.
Also, macroeconomic policy aiming at stable, low 118. DISTORTION
inflation and sound public finances, generally 1] Edit 2] Squeeze
speaking, results in better growth performance. 3] Break 4] Deformation
Further, public expenditure on health, education and 5] Delete
research are clearly vital to rev up growth and
sustain living standards in the long term. And a
nu mbe r o f stu die s d o sugg est th at po lic y a nd DIRECTIONS for questions 119 to 121: Choose the
institutions affect the level of efficiency with which word which is the opposite in meaning as the word
resources are allocated economy-wide, although given in bold as used in the passage.
there appears to be no agreement on the specific
mechanisms and processes linking policy settings 119. SANGUINE
to actual growth outcomes. 1] Optimistic 2] Pessimistic
The tool of choice for such analysis has been cross- 3] Happy 4] Imperfect
country regressions, to assess the effectiveness 5] Bloodthirsty
of particular policies and their empirical relevance
on growth. But the leading practitioners appear to
remain sceptical of the formal correlations seen on 120. REGRESSION
the ground. 1] Downfall 2] Slump
What's indicated is that in growth regressions, the 3] Advancement 4] Height
methodology by which economic growth or any other 5] Repugnance
performance indicator, such as inflation, is reverted
or 'regressed' on policy tells us 'nothing on the
121. INFLATION
effectiveness of policy'. After all, the objective of
policy initiatives is to arrive at outcomes, for 1] Hike 2] Expansion
instance, of correcting market failure via more 3] Deflation 4] Retardation
efficient market design. Yet, policy measures can 5] Accerleration
well result in panoply of heightened distortions,
making it well-highly impossible to objectively 122. Which of the following statements is true
evaluate effectiveness of policy, particularly in the according to the passage given above?
short-to-medium term. So, while the policy on special
1] Experts on policy related issues predicted
economic zones initiated circa 2005 has meant
about economic slowdown and convergence
increase in exports, it has also led to much diversion
in the community of nations long before.
of economic and export activity to cash in on
2] Studies suggest that policy and institutions
questionable tax benefits on offer even for non-
do not affect the level of efficiency with
export activities.
which resources are allocated economy-
wide.
116. SOBERING 3] Effectiveness of policy can be measured
1] Dangerous 2] Serious 3] A rd u ou s using the performance indicator, such as
4] Diffcult 5] Jocular inflation.
4] Cross-country regressions have been the
tool of choice to assess the effectiveness
of policies.
CET 500
5] IMF has taken a conformist view in predict- 3] The growth last year was slow, so the
ing the economic growth of India over the percentage increase of growth will be higher
last year. this year, whereas actual growth may not
be that high.
123. Which of the following statements are false 4] Auditing firms have made a gross error of
according to the passage given above? judgement in estimating the projected growth
of the economy.
1] The accumulation of social and physical
5] Statistics do not give the true measure of
overhead capital is essential for growth.
the proceedings that are taking place in the
2] Low inflation and good public finances,
market.
result in better growth performance
3] Public expenditure on health, education and
research is not important to increase growth DIRECTIONS for questions 126 to 130: In each of
and sustain living standards in the long the following questions in four out of five figures,
term. part (i) is related to part (ii) in the same particular
4] The external environment has an effect on way. Find the figure in which part (i) is not related
investor's sentiments and keeps his to part (ii).
expectations within a periphery.
5] Annual economic growth for the past year
may not give a true indication of the actual 126.
economic progress of the country.
124. What according to the passage is the main 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
objective of the policy initiatives?
1] To keep a check on the tax benefits that
non export related activities get in Special
127.
Economic Zones.
2] To control inflation and facilitate sound
public financing in an economy.
3] To iron out the distortions, so that the 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
effectiveness of a policy can be measured
with greater accuracy.
4] To provide efficient market designs to help
correcting the failures which occur in market. 128.
5] To allow the market to prosper in a best
possible way.
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
125. According to the passage, why the calendar
year growth can be a statistical mirage?
1] International Monetary Fund has
overestimated the growth of the economy 129.
for the calendar year.
2] A lot of companies got export related benefits
that made it difficult to monitor the actual 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
growth.
CET
135. A : A scientist has claimed that by 2020 the

130.
cure for cancer will be available.
B : Cancer research organizations are trying
to use a special bacteria to produce the
1] 2] 3] 4] 5] antibody for cancer.
DIRECTIONS for questions 136 to 140: Refer to

the graph below and answer the given questions that
DIRECTIONS for questions 131 to 135: In each of follow.
the following questions, two events A and B have
been given. Find the relation between them and
Goals scored in the matches of two selected teams
mark the appropriate options as given below.
of English premier league during seven seasons are
Mark [1], if statement (A) is the cause and statement shown in the graph below.
(B) is its effect.
Mark [2], if statement (B) is the cause and statement 80
(A) is its effect. 70
60
No. of Matches
Mark [3], if both statements are independent causes. 50
Mark [4], if both statements are effects of 40
30
independent causes. 20
Mark [5], if both statements are effects of a common 10
0
cause.
Season Season Season Season Season Season Season
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
131. A : There is an increase in real estate prices Man City (GF) Man City (GA)
in Mumbai Liverpool (GF) Liverpool (GA)
B : Industrial growth in Mumbai is taking place
GF: Goals scored in favour of the team
at a rapid pace.
GA: Goals scored against the team
Goal Difference = GF – GA
132. A : An agreement was signed between Bank
X and Bank Y to regulate industrial credit Total Goals recorded in the seven seasons are 2054,
1890, 1734, 2010, 2111, 2091 and 1998 respectively.
policies on the last day of the fiscal.
B : The collaboration committee of Bank Y
is surveying the current operations in 136. What is the percentage increase in the goals
industrial credit. scored in favour of Man City from season 1
to season 2?
1] 8.5 2] 16.66 3] 7.69
133. A : IITs have been attracting the best brains
4] 8.33 5] 10
of the country.
B : The best engineering education in the
country is offered by IITs. 137. In season 4, the number of goals scored in
all the matches involving Liverpool is
approximately what percentage of the total goals
134. A : Private diagnosis laboratories are scored in that season?
witnessing a large rush of patients for 1] 7.69 2] 6 3] 9.09
tests. 4] 8.6 5] 11.1
B : Civic Hospitals are in major shortage of
modern equipment like MRI machines.
CET 500
138. In which season, the goal difference of Man 144. Who is sitting on the immediate left of C?
City is maximum? 1] D 2] C
1] Season 5 2] Season 2 3] B 4] Q
3] Season 7 4] Season 3 5] None of these
5] Season 6
145. List all the members sitting in between A
139. How many goals did Manchester City score and S?
against Liverpool in season 2? 1] QB 2] CSR
1] 24 3] BQR 4] RBQC
3] 45
4] 54
DIRECTIONS for questions 146 to 150: Each
question below consists of two statements I and II.
Mark [1], if the data in Statement I alone are
140. What is the ratio of goal difference of Man sufficient to answer the question.
City to Liverpool in season 4?
Mark [2], if the data in statement II alone are
1] 12 : 13 2] 4 : 1 sufficient to answer the question.
3] 9:4 4] 10 : 40 Mark [3], if the data in Statement I alone or in
5] 4 : 11 statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
DIRECTIONS for questions 141 to 145: Refer to Mark [4], if the data in both the statements I and
the data below and answer the questions that follow. II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Mark [5], if the data in both the statements I and
There are eight friends, A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S, II together are necessary to answer the question.
sitting in a row. C is not sitting next to D or A. P,
who is sitting on the end, has A next to him on his 146. What is the code for ROCK in the code language?
left where as C is not sitting at any of the ends. Also,
I. The code for ROAD is ZSHK.
B is sitting next to both Q and R. S is 6 seats away
II. The code for DOCK is KSFW
from P and R is not beside C.
147. What is the relation between the man and the

141. Who is sitting on the other end from P?
woman?
1] D 2] S
I. The man is the son of the woman's mother.
3] C 4] Q
II. The man's son is her nephew.
5] None of these
148. In what direction is the present position Y of

142. Who all are sitting in between A and R?
Anand with respect to his previous position
1] DS 2] SC X?
3] CR 4] QB
I. Anand moves from X towards north then
5] None of these
towards east to reach Z.
II. Anand moves from Z towards Y along the
143. Who is sitting on the immediate right to Q? same direction as Z is with respect to X.
1] D 2] C
3] B 4] Q
5] None of these
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149. How many sons does X have? 153. In which state(s), the total number of hospitals
I. Number of sons of X is two greater than built during 1971-1990 is more than the number
number of daughters he has. of hospitals built during 1991-2000?
II. Age of the youngest son is 2 years. 1] Kerala, West Bengal and Maharashtra
2] West Bengal and Kerala
3] Maharashtra, Kerala, West Bengal and
150. On what seat number is Puja sitting from right
Madhya Pradesh
in a row of 15 seats?
4] Kerala
I. Puja sits on the seat just right of Karan, 5] West Bengal and Assam
who sits on seat number 7 from left.
II. Puja sits two seats to the left of the person
sitting in the exact centre of the row. 154. What is the average number of public parks
built during 1991-2000?
1] 345 2] 350 3] 310
DIRECTIONS for questions 151 to 155: Refer to 4] 158 5] 75
the data below and answer the questions that follow.
155. What is the difference between the number of

Number of public amenities built by the Indian community halls built by all states during 1991-
Government in five selected states from 1971 to 2000: 2000 and 1981-1990?
1] 31000 2] 3300 3] 34300
Public Community 4] 3100 5] 3430
Schools(in Hospitals(in Public Parks(in
Libraries(in Halls(in
State hundreds) hundreds) hundreds)
hundreds) thousands)
D1 D2 D3 D1 D2 D3 D1 D2 D3 D1 D2 D3 D1 D2 D3
Maharashtra 8 9 10.4 2.4 2.5 10.2 4 5 8 1.1 2.1 4.3 0.2 1 5.2
Assam 2.2 4.3 6.7 1.1 4.3 9.7 3 6 9.2 0.4 1.5 3.5 0.4 0.9 4.6 correct alternative.
Kerala 7 7.5 5.6 4.6 6.7 10.2 5.3 5.6 3.4 0.6 1.6 3.7 0.6 0.8 5.7
Haryana 4.3 6.4 4.6 1.1 5.4 10.5 2.3 4 5.4 0.8 1.7 4.2 0.5 0.9 6.4
West Bengal 5 6.7 5.1 4.6 7.6 11.7 3.1 4 6.7 0.9 1.3 2.9 0.3 1 6.8 156. What is the word formed by rearranging the
Madhya letters of RUSTIC used for referring to fruits
4 5.8 7.1 3.2 3.5 10.5 1.9 3.2 4.7 0.7 1.3 2.1 0.2 0.9 7.8
Pradesh
like orange?
D1: During 1971- 1980 1] ristuc 2] tursic 3] citrus

D2: During 1981- 1990 4] curtis 5] None of these
D3: During 1991- 2000
157. How many different meaningful words can be
151. What is the total number of community halls made by rearranging the letters of the word
built in all the states during 1981-1990? 'RESINS'?
1] 4600 2] 2200 3] 3650 1] 0 2] 1
4] 5500 5] 550 3] 2 4] 3
5] None of these
152. What is the percentage increase in the number

of schools built in West Bengal during 1981- 158. Find the odd man out
1990 over the number of schools built in the 1] Picture Tube 2] Adapter
previous decade? 3] Sound Box 4] Television
1] 17 2] 45 3] 25.37 5] Motor
4] 32 5] 34
CET 500
DIRECTIONS for questions 159 to 163: Refer to DIRECTIONS for questions 164 to 168: Choose the
the following data below and answer the questions alternative that will best continue the series.
that follow.
164.
Jet Airways operates on 6 routes from Chandigarh,
P, Q, R, S, T and U. Each of these routes are operated
on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday, Saturday
and Sunday not necessarily in that order. On each
day, a certain class from A1, A2, A3, B1, B2, B3,
is available on that day's route and no two routes
have the same class.
Routes U and S are operated on Monday and Friday
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
respectively. Class B3 is available on Saturday but
not on route R. Class B1 is available only on a Sunday.
Class A3 is available on the route T. The route operated
on Wednesday doesn't have classes A2 or B2. Class
A1 is available on route Q on Tuesday.
165.
159. On which day is route T operated?
1] Monday 2] Tuesday
3] Friday 4] Data inadequate
5] None of these
160. What is the class that is available on route 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]

P?
1] B1 2] B3 3] B2
4] A2 5] A3
166.
161. Which route offers class A2?

1] S 2] U
3] R 4] Data inadequate
5] None of these
162. Which air route has class B1? 1] 2] 3] 4] 5]

1] S 2] U
3] R 4] P
5] Data inadequate
167.
163. If class B2 is offered on a Monday, which of
the following is the correct combination in terms
of day, class and route?
1] Wednesday, A2, T
2] Friday, A2, S
3] Saturday, B3, R
4] Data inadequate
1] 2] 3] 4] 5]
5] None of these
CET
3] talked, better
168. 4] grappled, worsen
5] worked, increase
DIRECTIONS for questions 174 to 178: In each

question given below is a statement given followed
by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course
of action is a step or administrative decision to be
taken for improvement , follow up or further action
1] 2] 3] 4] 5] in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis
of the information given in the statement, you have
to assume everything in the statement to be true,
DIRECTIONS for questions 169 to 173: Fill in the
and then decide which of the suggested courses of
blanks with the pair of appropriate words.
action logically follows for pursuing. Give answer:
[1], if only I follows.
169. India plays _______ cricket but not _____ than
Australia [2], if only II follows.
1] excellent, higher 2] best, well [3], if either I or II follows.
3] good, better 4] nice, nicer [4], if neither I or II follows.
5] well, greater [5], if both I and II follows.
170. There was heavy rain in Mumbai which _______ 174. Statement: India's problem of population
floods and _______ movement of road and rail explosion is continuously increasing.
traffic. Courses of action
1] generated, halted 2] created, slowed I. The government should legalize mercy
3] caused, hit 4] led, blocked killing.
5] originated, stopped II. Awareness programs about family planning
should be carried out among the masses.
171. The economy is _______ so well that even
the worst performing companies are suddenly 175. Statement: A multinational bank has received
_______ good. information that robbers have planned to raid
1] doing, turning its premises
2] turning out, seeming Courses of action
3] faring, looking I. The security in the bank must be increased.
4] looking, feeling II. Cash deposits in the bank must be put on
5] keeping, becoming hold.
172. His excellent performance in the examination 176. Statement: Continuous smoke is reported to
is _______ by many as a _______ of luck be coming out from the twenty first storey
1] criticized, stroke 2] viewed, work apartment of a building.
3] perceived, stroke 4] looked, break Courses of action
5] assumed, spike
I. The fire brigade should be immediately
summoned.
173. The leader of the union _______ with the
II. The building should be evacuated as soon
government to _______ the condition of the
as possible.
workers.
1] fought, alleviate
2] negotiated, ameliorate
CET 500
177. Statement: There has been an increase in the 181. In the month of March, what is the ratio of
number of children contracting diabetes. the total number of non-vegetarian dishes
served to the vegetarian dishes served by all
Courses of action
branches?
I. Parents should not give their children
1] 72:83 2] 416:362 3] 45:52
sweetened products.
4] 231:208 5] 181:389
II. Provisions should be made to arrange for
medical facilities for cure of these children.
182. In branch E, what is the average number (in
thousands and rounded off to two digits after
178. Statement: Increase in the number of immigrants
decimal) of dishes served in the first three
in the US has led to a lot of native people
months?
losing their jobs.
1] 6.71 2] 13.42 3] 8.1
Courses of action
4] 7.6 5] 16.2
I. People from other countries should not be
allowed to enter the US.
II. The natives of the US should be preferred 183. What is the total number (in thousands) of
for the jobs over foreigners. dishes served by Branch A in the first 5 months?
1] 143.4 2] 153.2 3] 166.6
DIRECTIONS for questions 179 to 183: Refer to 4] 86.2 5] 88.5
the data below and answer the question that follow.
Number of dishes (in thousands) served in five DIRECTIONS for questions 184 to 188: Refer to the
branches of restaurant in the first six months of a data below and answer the questions that follow.
year:
A recruitment company is looking for Data Warehous-
Branches
ing Consultants for their client, a CMM Level 5
Branch A Branch B Branch C Branch D Branch E
company based in Bangalore.
Month V NV V NV V NV V NV V NV
January 12.2 16.7 7.8 6.4 5.8 6.7 10.2 9.6 8.4 9.4 For the candidates to be selected, he/she should fulfill
February 13.2 17.6 8.6 7.6 6.7 5.6 9.5 9.7 8.3 9.7 the following criteria as on 1 st March, 2007.
March 10.3 18.5 8.8 7.5 6.8 4.6 9.6 8.9 6.1 6.7
April 12.4 19.1 7.5 6.9 7.1 4.8 10.1 9.5 6.2 6.7
1. He/She should have completed 25 years of age
May 9.1 14.3 5.6 7.5 7.4 5.6 11 9.3 5.4 5.5
June 10.7 12.5 5.4 7.8 5.7 6.9 10.6 10.2 3.2 4.9 and should not be more than 30 years of age.
2. He/She should have scored more than 70% in
NV: Number of non-vegetarian dishes served. the final year of MBA (Systems) or B.E. (Com-
V: Number of vegetarian dishes served.
puter).
3. He/She should have more than 5 years’ expe-
179. Which branch served the least number of non- rience in at least two of the four mentioned
vegetarian dishes during the six months?
technologies: Informatica, Business Objects
1] Branch B 2] Branch A 3] Branch C Data Integrator, Oracle Warehouse Builder, SQL
4] Branch D 5] Branch E Server DTS.
4. He/She should hold an Oracle Database Ad-
180. In Branch D, what is the percentage (rounded ministrator certification.
off to two digits after decimal) of vegetarian
dishes served to the total number of dishes 5. He/She should have scored at least 80% in the
served in the restaurant over the 6 months? technical test.
1] 48.39 2] 51.61 3] 61
4] 47.58 5] 47.13
CET
If the candidate does not satisfy: 187. Kartik Rege has been working with TRS
I. Condition 4 but holds a Six Sigma certification, Infosystems for the past seven years on tech-
he should be referred to the Manager – Quality. nologies: Business Objects Data Integrator,
Oracle Warehouse Builder and SQL Server DTS.
II. Condition 3 but has minimum 3 years’ expe-
He is a certified Oracle Database Administrator.
rience in either of MicroStrategy, Hyperion or
He was born on 22 nd December, 1975. He scored
Cognos, he should be referred to the Manager
85% in his final year Computer Engineering
– BI.
exams, in the year 1997. He scored 92% in the
technical test.
Mark [1]; if the candidate is to be selected.
188. Preksha Joshi topped her MBA (Systems) final
Mark [2]; if the candidate is to be rejected. year exams with 89% in the year 2003. She has
Mark [3]; if the data is inadequate. been working with TRS Infosystems since
Mark [4]; if the candidate is to be referred to August 2003. She has worked on technologies
Manager – Quality. like Informatica, Hyperion and Cognos. She has
Mark [5]; if the candidate is to be referred to a successfully completed her Oracle Database
Manager – BI. Administrator certification. She is 26 years of age.
She scored more than 90% in the technical test.
184. Jayanti Shah scored 72% in the final year MBA DIRECTIONS for questions 189 to 195: Choose the
exams and holds on Oracle Database Admin- correct alternative.
istrator certification. She has been working with
ABC Informatics for the past 6 years wherein
189. Mahavir and Datta set up a stall together by
she has worked on technologies – Business
investing Rs.5000 and Rs.12000, respectively.
Objects Data Integrator and Oracle Warehouse
Datta runs the stall and gets 15% of the total
Builder. She will turn 27 on 25th July, 2007. She
profit, and the remaining profit is divided in
scored 81% in the technical test.
the ratio of their investments. At the end of
the month, Mahavir earns a profit Rs.3400. Find
185. Prakash Kumar completed his Engineering (Com- the total revenue generated in that month.
puter) in 2001 scoring 75% in his final year. He 1] Rs.25000 2] Rs.13600
has been working with XYZ Research and 3] Rs.41300 4] Rs.30600
Analytics since then and has hands-on expe- 5] Rs.27280
rience on Informatica and Oracle Warehouse
Builder. He has successfully completed his Oracle 190. What is the value of p + q?
Database Administrator certification. He scored
85% in the technical test. He was born on 23rd pq
November, 1979. ´ q
8qq
186. Sunder Kadam was born on 13 th January, 1979. 1] 12 2] 15 3] 14
He completed his Computer Engineering in the 4] 13 5] 16
year 2000, securing 85% in his final year. Since
then he has been working with BO Data 191. The product of two numbers A and B is 2366.
Analytics on SQL Server DTS and Informatica. If the H.C.F. of the numbers is 13, what is the
He has successfully completed his Six Sigma remainder when 117 is divided by the sum of
certification. He scored 82% in the technical the numbers? (Both numbers are integers)
test. 1] 26 2] 13
3] 0 4] 78
CET 500
192. Kunal and Khushi have three sons Ram, Balram DIRECTIONS for questions 196 to 200: In each
and Shyam. The ages of the three sons are questions given below there are four words denoted
in increasing AP, respectively. Ten years ago, by (A), (B), (C) & (D). Two of them are either similar
the age of Balram was twice Ram’s age. Two in meaning (Synonyms) or opposite in meaning
years hence, thrice Ram’s age will be twice that (Antonyms). Find out the pair of Synonyms or
of Shyam’s age. Khushi’s age was thrice that Antonyms denoted by AB, AC, AD, etc. in each case
of Shyam’s age, three years ago. If the sum and mark your answer accordingly.
of the present ages of the family members is
178 years, find Kunal’s age when Balram was
196. A) Cabal B) Canvass
born.
C) Scrutinize D) Cloister
1] 44 years 2] 48 years 1] AB 2] BD 3] AC
3] 64 years 4] 46 years 4] CB 5] BC
5] None of these
197. A) retort B) reprove
193. (xy)2 = yx9. Find x + y. C) rostrum D) query
1] 8 2] 5 3] 9 1] AB 2] CD 3] AD
4] 7 5] 4 4] CB 5] BD
194. 6 persons can finish a job in 10 days. If 4 more 198. A) entity B) ephemeral
people are allotted to join the work after 1 days C) equity D) abstract
work, then the job will be done in how many 1] AB 2] CD 3] AD
more days? 4] CA 5] BD
1] 6.2 2] 10.3
3] 5.4 4] 8.1 199. A) tyro B) professional
5] None of these C) usurp D) vie
1] AD 2] CD 3] AB
4] AC 5] BC
195. In the following figure, if PQ = PR and Ð PQR
= 30°, find the value of Ð PSQ. 200. A) amity B) allay
C) transparency D) secrecy
P
1] AD 2] CD 3] AB
4] AC 5] BC
R 0 Q
1] 30° 2] 60°
3] 45° 4] 80°
5] None of these
IMS Head Office: E-Block, 6th floor, NCL Bandra Premises, Bandra Kurla Comple, Bandra (E), Mumbai - 400051
Fax: +91 22 66680006 • Email: ims@imsindia.com
CET 500
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
(CET 2011 ACTUAL PAPER)
1. Option [1] can be inferred, since according to the (266 + 25)
main argument, the researchers recommend ‘at least = 58.2 ... (c)
5
one food item which is rich in fibre’. This implies
that not including fibre in the diet at all may create (58.2 + 25)
= 16.64 ... (d)
some health risks. Options [2] and [4] are far-fetched 5
hence cannot be inferred from the passage. [3] is
completely outside the purview of the passage. (16.64 + 25)
= 8.328 ... (e)
Hence, [1]. 5
Hence, the value of (a) is 1305. Hence, [5].
2-[5] 3-[2] 4-[1] 5-[3]
8. 10 = 3 × 1 + 7
32 = 10 × 2 + 12
7796.25 1417.5
6. = 1417.5 = 315 111 = 32 × 3 + 15
5.5 4.5
460 = 111 × 4 + 16
315 90 2315 = 460 × 5 + 15
= 90 = 36
3.5 2.5 Therefore, the terms are added are in the A.P series,
12 – 7 = 5, 15 – 12 = 3, 16 – 15 = 1 and
36 15 – 16 = –1.
= 24
1.5 Similarly,
Similarly, (a) = 4.5 × 1 + 7 = 11.5
5197.5 (b) = 11.5 × 2 + 12 = 35
= 945 ... (a) (c) = 35 × 3 + 15 = 120
5.5
(d) = 120 × 4 + 16 = 496
945 (e) = 496 × 5 + 15 = 2495
= 210 ... (b)
4.5 Hence, the value of (c) is 120. Hence, [2].
210
= 60 ... (c)
3.5 (12 × 1 + 2) (7 × 2 + 3)
9. 7 = 8.5 =
2 2
60
= 24 ... (d)
2.5 (8.5 × 3 + 4) (14.75 × 4 + 5)
14.75 = 32 =
Hence, the value of [d] is 24. 2 2
Hence, [3].
(32 × 5 + 6)
83 =
2
7. 5050 = 1015 × 5 – 25
Similarly,
1015 = 208 × 5 – 25
208 = 46.6 × 5 – 25 (22 × 1 + 2)
(a) = = 12
46.6 = 14.32 × 5 – 25 2
14.32 = 7.864 × 5 – 25
(12 × 2 + 3)
Similarly, (b) = = 13.5
2
(6500 + 25)
= 1305 ... (a) (13.5 × 3 + 4)
5 (c) = = 42.5
2
(1305 + 25)
= 266 ... (b)
5
CET
24-[1] 25-[5] 26-[5] 27-[2]

(42.5 × 4 + 5)
(d) = = 87
2
28. The author makes evident his unhappiness with the
(87 × 5 + 6) supposedly futuristic technological innovation-the
(e) = = 220.5 UMC-right from the beginning of the passage.from
2
the last paragraph of the passage it is clear that the
Hence, the value of (b) is 13.5. Hence, [1].
umc is nothing else but the multi formated socket
that the neighbourhood shop can supply.hence, {3}.
10. 897 – 681 = 216 = 63
681 – 556 = 125 = 53 29. The mobile battery is down/the cell phone is indicating
556 – 492 = 64 = 43 that it needs to be charged.
492 – 465 = 27 = 33
465 – 457 = 8 = 23 30. The first two sentences of the last para clearly indicate
Similarly, that the author is' not alone'in his disappointmentwith
the EC's decision to come out with a UMC,which
815 – 216 = 599 ... (a)
it believes is an incredibly novel idea.Hence, [2].
599 – 125 = 474 ....(b)
474 – 64 = 410 ... (c) 31. Scrounge is to collect by foraging [or search about
410 – 27 = 383 ... (d) and obtain things by stealing or take things illicitly.]This
383 – 8 = 375 ... (e) contextual sense is conveyed only in 'rip off', slang
Hence, the value of (e) is 375. Hence, [4]. for stealing. Hence, [d].
11-[3] 12-[3] 13-[4] 14-[5] 15-[4] 32. Refer to first paragraph. Hence, [2].
16-[4] 17-[1] 18-[4] 19-[4] 33. The author derides the fact that 21st century should
so let itself down by harping on the technological
20. Length of floor = 6m24cm = 624 cm wonder that the UMC is,which even an ordinary store
already provides in local forms.Observe his language
Breadth of floor = 4m80 cm = 480 cm
through the passage.He is scathingly sarcastic.
To find minimum number of square tiles we need
Hence, [5].
to find tiles with maximum possible length that fits
both sides. For that we need to find HCF (624, 480)
34-[2] 35-[1] 36-[5] 37-[5]
= 48 cm = length of square tile
38-[5] 39-[1]
Number of square tiles of length 48 cm to fit floor
624 × 480 40.
of dimensions 624 x 480 = = 13 × 10
48 × 48
= 130 Hence, [2].
Gels Balls Points
21-[4] 22-[5] Pens
23. Let value of certificates purchased in 1st year be a.

Difference in value of bank's certificates in consecutive
Hence, [1].
years = d = –400
n 41. Hence, [1].

Sum of value of certificates for 24 years = [2
2
42.
a + (n – 1) d] = 144000
24 Caps
= [2 a + 23(–400)] = 144000
2 Shoe Glove
2a – 9200 = 12200 a = 10600
Value of certificates in 13 th year Jacket
= a + 12d = 10600 + 12 × (–400) = Rs.5800

Hence, [2]. Hence, [2].
CET 500
49. ‘Potent’ means ‘powerful’, ‘effective’, ‘crucial’ and

43. ‘pertinent’. Only ‘sterile’, meaning barren or fruitless,
is farthest in meaning to the word ‘potent’.
Hence, [4].
Shoe Glove
Caps 50. Option [1] contradicts the passage while [3] and [4]
find no mention in the passage. Though [5] seems
Jacket
to be true, it doesn't answer the question. Hence, [2].
Either no shoe is jacket or some shoes are jackets.
51. The answer is directly stated in the first sentence
Hence, [3].
of the third paragraph of Passage 2. Hence, [3].
52. As silent films and mime do not involve any verbal

Streets communication, the audiences of both must understand
Flag
the performance by concentrating and use their
44. imagination properly. Statements [d] and [e] capture
Avenues
this requirement correctly. Statement [a] is vague,
Avenues statement [b] is beyond the information provided in
the passages, and statement [c] contradicts the passages.
Flag Hence, [5].
53. 'Insidious' as used in the passage means 'in a hidden

Hence, [1]. manner'. As such, the word closest in meaning would
45. Avenue can be a country so (I) is not true. be ‘secretly’. Hence, [2].
Street 54. The kind of audience specified in options [2], [3]

Flag and [4] will certainly enjoy mime as per the information
provided in the third paragraph of Passage 2. Those
Avenue mentioned in option [5] may or may not enjoy the
performance (refer to the last paragraph of Passage
2) as this kind of audience needs to be made aware
Hence, [4].
of the subtleties of the mime performance. So if the
performer can do this properly, the audience in this
46. Refer to the second paragraph of Passage 1. It is
category too can enjoy mime. The only kind of
evident that the well-orchestrated musical score which
audience who will certainly not enjoy mime would
was played live, along with the silent movies, actually
be the ones who like gimmicks in a performance as
made the movie watching experience worthwhile for
a mime certainly doesn't have any of those.
the audience. They became engaged to the narrative.
Hence, [1].
Only [2] describes this aspect. Hence, [2].
55. Both forms of art believe in communication without
47. The third paragraph of Passage 1 states, "The one
verbalizing. Only [4] is a relevant proverb.
word that sums up the attitude of the silent filmmakers
Hence, [4].
is enthusiasm, conveyed most strongly before formulas
took shape and when there was more room for
56. The word 'ALARMING' has 3 vowels i.e. AAI and
experimentation". This shows that later filmmaking
5 consonants i.e. LRMNG
was more formulaic in nature and experimentation
Given vowels have to be together, so 1 group of
was limited. Hence, [3].
3 vowels and 5 letters can be arranged in 6! = 720
48. Though [2] is true as per the passage, that is not 3!
ways. Further 3 vowels can be arranged in Ways
what the author intends to convey through the given 2!
sentence. Options [3], [4] and [5] cannot be inferred = 3 ways
from the passage. Hence, [1]. Total number of ways in which word can be arranged
keeping vowels together = 3 × 720 = 2160 ways.
Hence, [3].
CET
57. In triangle ABC, AB = 20.5 M; AC = 36.

5 3
AD = 9 and AD BC × 3600 + × 6000
100 100
1 Þ 180 + 180 = 360. Hence, [3].
Area of triangle ABC = × BC × AD
2
AB ´ BC ´ AC 61. 42.5 – (8.5 + 14.1)

= Þ 42.5 – (22.6)
4R
Þ 19.9 kg. Hence, [4].
1 AB ´ AC
= × AD =
2 4R 62. Present Bina Arti Chitra
B A C
1 20.5 ´ 36
= × 9 = 5 years ago B–5 A–5 C–5
2 4R
B – 5 = 3(A – 5)
2 ´ 20.5 ´ 36 B – 5 = 3A – 15
= R = = 41 cm. Hence, [5]. Þ B = 3A – 10
9´ 4
10 years B–10 A–10 C–10
58. Let 6 times A’s share = 4 times B’s share = 8 times 1
B – 10 = (C – 10)
C’s share = x 2
x x 2B – 20 = C – 10
Now, 6A = 4B = 8C = x Þ A = , B = , 2(3A – 10) – 20 = C – 10
6 4
Þ 6A – 20 – 20 = C – 10
x
C = Þ 6A = C + 30
8
Multiply each of the shares by 24 (i.e., LCM of 6, C
Þ A = + 5
4 and 8) Þ A’s share = 4x, B’s share = 6x and 6
C’s share = 3x Hence, [5].
4x
A’share = × 1950 = Rs.600. Hence, [1]. 22
13x 63. 2 × × 28 (2 × pi × r) corresponds to 44sec
7
59. Let ‘x’ be the total profit 6 × 48 ( 6 × length of one side of hexagon) corresponds
to ?. Ans. 72 seconds. Hence, [4].
æ 28 3 1 ö
‘A’ gets ç ´ + ÷ x of the total profit = Rs.4995
è 78 4 4 ø 64. Distance covered by front wheel = distance covered
by back wheel.
æ 14 3 1 ö æ 42 39 ö Let x be number of revolutions covered by back wheel
Þ ç ´ + ÷ x = 4995 Þ ç 156 + 156 ÷ x = 4995
è 39 4 4 ø è ø According to given data; if r1 and r2 are radii of
front and back wheel repectively;
27 2 p r 1 (x + 5) = 2 p r 2(x)
x = 4995
52 40 (x + 5) = 48 x
8x = 200
4995
x = × 52 = 9620 X = 25
27
Distance covered by cart = 40 × 30 = 1200 ft.
4 Hence, [4].
B’s share = × 9620 = 2960
13
65. Let r be the original radius of circle. 1.2 r will be
Hence, [2].
the new radius of circle.
Original area = p r 2
5 3 New area = p × 1.2r × 1.2r = 1.44 p r 2
60. x × = (9600 – x)
100 100 Increase in area = (1.44 – 1) p r2 = 0.44 p r2 = 44%.
5x + 3x = 28800 Hence, [3].
8x = 28800
x = 3600 66-[4]
CET 500
67. In figure 1, the elements in left hand side invert vertically

and then rotate 90° clockwise while the remaining 79. One circle is moving 1 space clockwise while the
2
elements invert vertically and then rotate 45° clockwise.
After that, the central element remains as it is, but other is moving one space clockwise (i.e., from one
the first and the second rows are swapped. Option corner to another). The lines are moving in clockwise
[2] shows the same relation with figure 3. Hence, [2]. direction along the side of hexagon. Hence, [1].
80. The middle numbers are the consecutive prime numbers.

68. The central element is mirrored and then rotated 90° Hence the next consecutive prime numbers are 11
anticlockwise. Each of the remaining elements is made and 13. The first row gives the square of the difference
of two parts. The left part moves one step in clockwise between the prime number. The third row element
while the right part moves one step in anticlockwise is obtained by multiplying both the numbers and adding
and then they rotate 45° anticlockwise. Hence, [3]. corresponding consecutive natural number to it (i.e.,
2 × 3 + 1 = 7; 5 * 7 + 2 = 37;)
Hence, the next number will be 11 × 13 + 3 = 146.
69. The central element is rotated 90° anticlockwise.
Hence, [5].
All the remaining elements are inverted laterally
and then rotated 90° anticlockwise. Then the top
81. The shaded part moves on step clockwise in every
left and bottom right elements interchange their
step. Hence [3] is eliminated. The outer line moves
positions. Hence, [5]. two steps along the sides of hexagon in every step.
Hence, [5] is eliminated. The inner line moves one
70. The top left, top right and bottom mid elements step anti-clockwise in every step hence, [2] is
eliminated. The segment ( ) reverses itself
are rotated 90° clockwise. The other elements, except
alternately. It should face inward for the fourth figure,
the centre element, are rotated 90° anticlockwise.
hence option [4] is eliminated. Hence, [1].
Then the first row and the last row become the first
column and the last column, respectively. The centre
82. In every step, the shaded part of the star moves
element rotates 90° anticlockwise and is vertically
one step in anti-clockwise direction, the symbol ‘ ’
inverted. Hence, [1].
rotates 90° in clockwise direction. The shaded quarter
circle rotates through 90°, 180°, 270°, 360°... clockwise
71. First, the rows shift downwards and the third row respectively in consecutive steps. Stems increase on
becomes first row, then the columns shift towards symbol (—) in each step, whereas stems increase first
right and the rightmost column becomes the leftmost from downwards and then upwards. Hence, [2].
column. Hence, [4].
83-[5] 84-[1] 85-[2] 86-[1]
72-[4]. 73-[3] 87-[1] 88-[1] 89-[1] 90-[1]
91-[1] 92-[1]
74. Area of shaded portion = Area of square – area of
circle = 91 × 91 – 91 × 3.14 = 7995.26
93. (C)2009 = 2,10,000
Hence, [5].
(A+B)2004 = 60000+20000=80000
22 % amount C spent more than A and B =
75. Area of circle = p × diameter = × 91 = 285.74
7
2.10,000 - 80000 1,30,000
Hence, [1]. × 100 = × 100 = 162.5%
80000 80000
Thus, C spent 162.5% more than amount spent by
76. (Pythagorean triplet for right angled triangle - 3,
A and B. Hence, [1].
4, 5). Hence, [4].
94. Amount spent by C in years 2005 and 2006
1 = 1,25,000 + 1,60,000 = 2,85,000
77. (Area of triangle = × 3 × 4 = 6 sq.units).
2 Amount spent by A in years 2005 and 2006
Hence, [3]. = 30000 + 50000 = 80000
2.85.000
78. The upper row elements move 90°-180°-270°-360° Ratio of amount spent by C and A = = 3.56.
80000
clockwise in each step respectively. The lower row
elements move 90°-180°-270°-360° anti-clockwise in Hence, [2].
each step respectively. Hence, [2].
CET
95. Total amount spent by B From the arrangement shown above we can answer all the
= 45000 + 60000 + 75000 + 100000 + 110000 + questions:
125000 + 150000 + 150000 = 815000
98-[3] 99-[1] 100-[5] 101-[5] 102-[4]
815000
Thus, Amount spent by B = = 101875 103-[3] 104-[2] 105-[4] 106-[1] 107-[3]
8
108-[2]
Hence, [3].
96. Amount spent by A in 2008 = 65000 109.

Amount spent by A in 2009 = 70000
5000 1
% increase in Amount spent by A = =
65000 13
= 7.69% . Hence, [4].
The symbols in the left column of element I are

97. A spends minimum amount in arms - True
present in element II but symbols in the right column
C has spent maximum amount on arms every year
of element I are not all present in element II i.e.,
- True
Hence, [5]. in the given figure instead of ‘ D ’, ‘ T ’ is present
in element II.
Answers for questions 98 to 105: From the information given, However, in [2], one symbol ‘B’ from the left column
we can draw the family tree and their arrangement as follows. of element I is replaced by ‘R’. Hence, [2].
Q Y
110.
S W P
T
V R In element II of the given figure the horizontal line
has just reversed its direction and the vertical line
has just tilted. 45° clockwise but not reversed its
direction. However, in figure III the vertical line is
also reversed which is not the correct relionship.
S Hence, [3].
R
P
111.
W Q
Y
T The inner object ‘ D ’ changes its orientation in the
V second element with respect to the bigger object. The
line joining the vertices of the inner object also changes
the orientation in all the cased except in [4].
Hence, [4].
CET 500
118. Each section has 50 questions of 1 mark each. So

112. 64 ´100
the total mock is of 150 marks = 42.67.
150
Hence, [1].
119-[d] 120-[c] 121-[e] 122-[e]

123-[d] 124-[a] 125-[a]
The first symbol is reversed, the second symbol is
turned upside down and the third symbol is also reversed Answers for question 126 to 132:
in direction. All the figures follow the same relationship
except [4] in which the first symbol ‘ ’ is not According to the 3rd and the 4th conditions, Civic, City
reversed. Hence, [4]. and Polo are parked in row-1 and Landrover and Ferrari
are parked in row-2. Similarly from the 1st, 2nd and 5th
conditions it is known that, Swift is with Ferrari, i.e., it
113. is parked in row-2 along with Mercedes, Santro and Accord
and Punto, Innova and Figo are parked along with Civic,
City and Polo, i.e., in the row-1.
So, the diagram is as follows:
N 1 2 3 4 5 6
Looking at the given figure carefully we can see that
position 1 and position 4 are interchanged i.e., J is Row-1
at 4 and E is at 1 in element II. All others have Face Of The Drivers
the same relationship except [1]. Hence, [1].
Row-2
Answers to questions 114 to 118: S 1 2 3 4 5 6
Verbal Quantitative Total Cut Row-1 :- Civic, City, Innova, Figo, Punto and Polo
Section Reasoning Row-2 :- Landrover, Ferrari, Swift, Santro, Mercedes and
Ability Aptitude Score Off
MOCK 1 23 12 19 54 56 Accord
MOCK 2 24 17 18 59 62
MOCK 3 29 11 23 63 60 Now, according to the given data, in Row- 2, the positions
of the cars from left to right is as follow, Mercedes, Ferrari,
MOCK 4 21 14 21 56 58
Santro, Landrover, Swift and Accord and the positions of
MOCK 5 19 13 25 57 59
the cars in Row-1 is as follow, Polo, City, Figo, Civic, Innova
MOCK 6 26 17 21 64 61 and Punto.
MOCK 7 25 19 23 67 58
MOCK 8 27 20 22 69 65
N Polo City Figo Civic Innova Punto
Row-1
114. As seen above, the total score is higher than the
cut off in Mock 3, Mock 6, Mock 7 and Mock 8. Face Of The Drivers
Hence, [4]. Row-2
115. Mock 8 where the score is 69. Hence, [4]. S Mercedes Ferrari Santro Landrover Swift Accord
20 - 12 8 Hence,
116. × 100 = × 100 = 66.67%. Hence, [5]. 126-[5] 127-[3] 128-[3] 129-[1] 130-[2]
12 12
131. All the cars are in same row except civic which is
117. Mock 6, Mock 7, Mock 8. Hence, [3]. in opposite row. Hence, [2].
CET
132. All pairs of cars in option are in same row except 137. ‘ T ’ symbol should be in the middle and the symbols
Mercedes and City. They are in opposite row. ‘O’ and ‘U’ should be on the right side of the
Hence, [4]. arrangement. Also, the bottom two elements are ‘ D ’
and ‘P’ in the same order as can be easily observed
133. from the given pattern.
1 2 3 4
12 5
11 6 138-[2] 139-[4] 140-[2] 141-[3]
10 9 8 7 142-[1] 143-[4] 144-[1] 145-[3]
Let the positions of objects in the given figure he

Answers to questions 146 and 147:
indicated as shown.
Now, each symbol has to be looked at individually.
Renuka —> <——Sheila
So, symbol at ‘2’ goes to ‘8’ and symbol at ‘3’ goes
Kamal---------------Bharat-----------------Abha
to ‘9’. Then symbols at ‘8’ and ‘9’ replace each
Mohit
other. Similarly, a new symbol is introduced at ‘1’
and ‘10’ in the 2nd figure.
146. Hence the minimum can be Sheila or Kamal, hence
The symbol at ‘1’ goes to ‘4’ then to ‘10’ and then
cannot be determined [5]. Hence, [5].
to ‘1’ again. The symbol at ‘10’ goes to ‘1’ then
to ‘111’ then to ‘12’ and then should disappear.
147. Hence, [2].
So, now ‘2’ is introduced in figure 4 at ‘1’ which
should go to ‘4’ then to ‘10’. Also according to the
148. Savings of Patil Family
pattern observed the symbols ‘ ’ and ‘ ’ should = (30 – 14.8) × 1000 = 15.2 × 1000 = 15200
be in the top row in position ‘2’ and ‘3’ respectively.
Hence, [1]. 15200
= × 100 = 50%. Hence, [2].
30000
134. The entire line of symbols moves by certain angle
to anticlockwise direction – The symbols in one line 149. Savings of Dubey Family
remains intact but from the other line are replaced. 28 – 16.4 = 11.6
the symbols changes positions among themselves as 33 – 19.7 = 13.3
well. Also, the middle most symbol is replaced by 30 – 23.3 = 6.7
some other-symbol in the next figure. Hence, [2]. 31.6 × 1000 = 31600
Hence, [1].
135. The entire figure is rotated from top-left corner in
the anticlockwise direction. If we see the movement
89
of symbols from figure 1 to 2, then we can observe 150. Ahuja = 35 + 28 + 26 = = 29.66
3
that: ‘ T ’ at bottom-right so ‘=’ from top-left should
be at ‘=’ bottom right and ‘R’ from middle of first 93
row goes to ‘R’ in the middle of last row. Therefore, Bose = 25 + 35 + 33 = = 31
3
‘B’ from middle of first row goes to ‘B’ in the middle
of the last row. Hence,[5]. 78
Patil = 12 + 30 + 36 = = 26
3
136. The last figure in the given sequence of figures is:
91
Dubey = 28 + 33 + 30 = = 30.33
3
Hence, [5].
(26 + 33 + 36 + 30) ´1000 125 ´1000

151. =
From observation, we can say that the symbols ‘ S ’ 4 31250
and ‘ ’ will be reversed in direction and the middle Hence, [2].
two will also cross each other diagonally with direction
reversed. Hence, [1]. S
BJ 25 - 15.6 9.4 47
152. S = = = .
AJ 35 - 22.4 12.6 63
Hence, [3].
CET 500
Answers to questions 153 to 155: 3-----------vacant

2
From the given information, we can draw the arrangement 1
as follows: From statement II
6
5----a
4----c
3----vacant
2----e
1-d
Hence, [3].
161. Hence, [2].

162. With both ('with' is common, so it should come before).
If there was a 'with' before customers; eg. both with
other businesses and with customers, then there is
no error in the highlighted part.(Here 'with' is repeated
and is not common; so 'both' will come first.
Hence, [4].
153-[2] 154-[3] 155-[1]
163. more likely than not. Hence, [3].

Answers for question 156 and 157:
164. given. Hence, [1].

From the given information, we can draw the figures as follows:
165. so few of. Hence, [4].
Answers for question 166 to 170:
By taking commons, we can find the code for all the words
as follows.
Word Meaning
in mo
156-[4] 157-[1]
not ko
was Zi
158. From statement I: We have Ali, Rohan and Sonam
seated clockwise in that order facing centre however letter ra
we cannot comment on Kate box jo
From statement II: Nothing can be said about Sonam your ke
However combining both, we can say all except Kate black de
are facing the centre of table. Hence, [5]. the sa
that da
159. From statement I: more = 3/1; dark = 1/3;
there bi
light = 2/7
From statement II: "than that no" = 0 4 7 not
necessarily in that order; more = 3; and = 5
Combining both, than = 7; light = 2 After finding codes, we can answer the questions as follows:
Hence, [5].
166-[3] 167-[2] 168-[4] 169-[1] 170-[1]
160. From statement I
6 171. The elements in the given figure are syclic (where
5-----------a last comes first, first comes 2nd and so on) and the
4-----------c second symbol from the previous is replaced by a
new symbol at the third place in the next element.
CET
Also, the half-filled ‘ ’ should come on right-most

18921´100
bottom of the next element. Hence, [2]. = = 6.53%
289500
172. ‘V’ should be the top-most and ‘ ’ should be the And % of sector in 2009
bottom-most symbol. From observation we can deduced 18921´100
that after going on the top-most position in the last = = 5.99% = 6%
315600
element, the symbol ‘Z’ should be replaced by some
Hence, [3].
other symbol which is the case only in option [2]
and [3]. But only in option the alternate position
179. Growth of Auto in 2009 over 2008
of symbol ‘R’ is maintained. Hence, [2].
4 ´ 315600 6 ´ 289500
= – = 12624 – 17370
173. The whole figure is rotated by 45° clockwise and the 100 100
positions of ‘R’, ‘F’ and ‘ ’ will be as is shown = negative number
in [1]. Hence, [1]. Hence growth in auto sector is negative
Growth in cement in 2009 over 2008
174. The ‘ ’ will come in the bottom and out of the
6 ´ 315600 9 ´ 289500
middle four the one on the left-most corner occupies = – = 18936 – 26055
the top. So, here ‘ D ’. One symbol is changed in 100 100
the next element as observed from the sequence. Hence negative growth.
Hence, [1]. Growth in Ad and Media in 2009 over 2008
175. Out of the given symbols, the last symbol ‘A’ of 2 ´ 315600 3 ´ 289500
the last element of the given figure will be the middle = – = 6312 – 8685
100 100
symbol of the first row in the next figure.
Hence, negative growth
And in the middle row the right symbol becomes the
All other sectors have a positive growth. Hence, [4].
left symbol, in the last elements given ‘P’ is the
right symbol of the middle row which comes to the
180. IT: As calculated in Q.11 = 19.92%
left of the middle row. The ‘ ’ will comes to the
right-most corner of the top-row. Hence, [5]. 8% of 315600 – 7% of 289500
Steel :
7% of 289500
176. Contribution to GDP by IT Sector
In 2008 = 10% of 289500 = 28950 25248 – 20265
= = 24.58%
In 2009 = 11% of 315600 = 34716 20265
Similarly calculate for others. Hence, [2].
34716 - 28950
Thus, growth =
5766
Answers for question 181 to 185:
5766 ´100
Rate = = 19.92%. Hence, [1]. Library has 3 floors below that means it is on 4th. So newspaper
28950
is on 3rd floor. Newspaper and grocery have one floor between
them so Grocery is on 1st floor. 3 floors between Newspaper
177. Share of non petroleum sectors in 2008
and Insurance hence Insurance is on 7th floor .2 floors between
57 ´ 289500 bank and travel agency hence travel Agency is on 5th floor
= = 165015
100 And 6th floor is vacant.
Share of non petroleum sectors in 2009
P (2 floors) O .
55 ´ 315600 L N (no gap)
= = 173580
100 So it works out as
Percentage increase in Share of non petroleum sectors 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Insurance Vacant TravelAg Library News Bank Grocery
173580 - 165015 8565
from 2008 to 2009 = = L N P K M O J
165015 165015
= 5.1%. Hence, [1]. 181-[4] 182-[1]
178. IT in 2008; 10% i.e.28950;

Now 28950 = 1.53x
18921 = x
% contribution of sector in 2008
CET 500
183. If arranged alphabetically 194. All others are 3 Dimensional objects. Hence, [1].
J K L M N O P
Grocery library Insurance news vacant bank Travel 195. No word can be formed. Hence, [5].
agency
196. Hence, [1].
Hence, [5].
Answers to questions 197 to 200:
184-[2] 185-[3]
Condition (1) Þ In first race MWS is in the 3 rd position
and in the fourth race, Mikey is either first or third.
Condition (2) Þ Lauren improved his position in the
By comparing the input and the output we can observe that
the words are arranged in the descending order of dictionary fifth race to 2nd position. \ Lauren stood 3rd in the fourth
format and the numbers are arranged in increasing order. race.
Since we know the final output it will be easier to see how Condition (3) Þ Monty was 3rd in third race and Lauren
the final output is achieved step by step. Comparing Step never stood first in any race.
1 and Input, the first alphabet among rupee visible is double Condition (4) Þ In the second race the positions were
crane is crane so it appears first in the step 1 and similarly
in the exact reverse order that of the first race.
the least number is 15 so that appears at last. rd
So feeding the new set of values in the same machine we \ In the first race ; Sam was 3 and MWS stood
st
get the following out put 1 in the second race.
Input brown 12 sought 72 dawn 56 atom 84 on 31 \ Sam is the driver of MWS team.
Step 1: atom brown sought 72 dawn 56 84 on 31 12 Condition (5) Þ First and fifth race had exactly the same
Step 2: Brown atom sought 72 dawn 56 84 on 12 31 result
Step 3: dawn brown atom sought 72 84 on 12 31 56 \ Lauren will be second in the first race.
Step 4: on Dawn brown atom Sought 84 12 31 56 72 st th
\ The result of 1 and 5 races will be.
Step 5: sought on dawn brown atom 12 31 56 72 84
Mcfary Lauren MWS
Step 2: Brown atom sought 72 dawn 56 84 on 12 31
(Sam)
186-[3] 187-[1] 188-[2] 189-[4] Mikey stood 1 st in the first race.
\ Mikey is Mcfary’s driver and Monty is Lauren’s driver.
Input: bright 14 small 43 aboard 50 Sam stood first in 2 races only.
Position
For 190 and 191: I II III
Following the same logic as in question no 1-4,The final 1. Mcfary Lauren MWS
output should be the words arranged in descending order and 2. MWS Lauren Mcfary
numbers in ascending order.
3. MWS Mcfary Lauren
So the steps when bright 14 small 43 aboard 50 is fed into
4. Mcfary MWS Lauren
the machine are as follows
5. Mcfary Lauren MWS
Step 1:aboard bright small 43 50 14
Step 2:bright Abroad small 50 14 43 197. Positions are:
Step 3: Small Bright Abroad 14 43 50 1 st Mikey, 2 nd Sam, 3 rd Monty. Hence, [2].
190. Option (5) No option is matching 198. The answer is ‘1’ i.e., the 4th race. Hence, [2].
191. Option (5) as we need three steps to arrive at the 199. Only statement (A) is true. Hence, [1].
intended arrangement.
200. Lauren has 8 + 8 + 6 + 6 + 8 = 36 points.

192. Restate is a repetition. Others are actions of
comprehending (the first time) Hence, [4]. Hence, [3].
193. Others are parts of the eye. Hence, [2].
www.mytest.imsindia.com
CET 500
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (10 AREAS IN MH-CET)

VERBAL ABILITY 8. The word ‘recent’ calls for a verb in the present
tense. Moreover, take a cue from the subordinate
clauses as they deploy verbs in present tense, the
1. The verb ‘inhabit’ should not be followed by any main clause should use the present tense. So, the verb
preposition. So options [1], [2], [3] and [4] are all ‘showed’ is invalid in [5]. ‘The single most important
wrong, and only [5] is correct. Hence, [5]. factors’ in [2] is grammatically incorrect. [3] makes
unnecessary use of the future tense. Moreover the
2. Since the rest of the sentence is in the past tense, article ‘a’ should be followed by a singular noun, student.
the verb ‘go’ should be in the past perfect form, In [4] ‘student’ should be used in the possessive case.
not the present perfect. So [1] and [2] are out. The The original sentence is contextually and grammatically
correct word here is ‘westward’, an adjective which correct. Hence, [1].
modifies the noun ‘heights’, and not ‘westwards’, which
is an adverb and cannot therefore modify a noun. 9. In the original sentence, the usage of the word
So [4] and [5] are also wrong, and we are left with ‘harbours’ is grammatically incorrect. Here we need
only [3] as the correct answer. Hence, [3]. an ‘unreal conditional’ ….if + simple past….. would/
might + verb, to depict an improbable situation. In
3. Option [1] can be negated because it has incorrect [5] ‘their’ should be replaced by ‘its’ as it refers
syntax: the phrase ‘in combat in the war’ cannot to the singular subject ‘country’. The use of the words
occur at the beginning of the sentence. Both [2] and ‘will’ and ‘would’ in [2] and [3] respectively, is
[3] violate the rules of parallel construction, as they grammatically incorrect. Only sentence [4] is
use the active voice, whereas the rest of the sentence grammatically correct. Hence, [4].
uses the passive, so they are out. The phrase ‘there
were tested’ in [4] wrongly implies that the phrase 10. In the original sentence, the plural subject ‘carvings’
‘a multitude of aircraft types’ is the object rather requires a plural verb ‘contain’. The modifier ‘Built
than the subject of the verb ‘tested’. Only [5] is by followers of the tantric cult’ refers to the subject
grammatically correct. Hence, [5]. ‘carvings’. [3] and [5], are incorrect as the commit
an error of misplaced modifier. In [4], ‘motives’ should
4. Adverbs like ‘essentially’ and ‘really’ cannot modify be replaced by ‘motifs’, i.e., a dominant idea or central
noun phrases like ‘air force’ and ‘aircraft industry’. theme. Only [2] gives us a correct sentence.
So [2] and [3] are wrong. The correct word for negation Hence, [2].
in [4] and [5] should be ‘no’, which negates noun
phrases and not ‘not’ which negates verbs. Only option 11. First of all, we need to determine the correct sequence
[1] is completely correct. Hence, [1]. for this entire set of sentences by looking at the
links between two or more sentences. AD is one such
5. ‘It’s’ is a condensation of ‘it is’, whereas ‘its’ is link: A describes one bag, D the other. Then HC:
the correct possessive form of the pronoun ‘it’. So H introduces ‘coach bags’ and C describes them further.
options [1], [4] and [5] are wrong. A non-compound F can be added before HC: F mentions ‘the best
verb like ‘grows’ in [3] can be replaced only by a handbags’, which presumably refers to ‘coach bags’
form of the verb ‘do’, and not ‘be’. So [3] is negated, (H), which are supposedly ‘indestructible’ (C). GE
and we are left with [2] as the only correct answer. is another link: G states that certain items ‘get a
Hence, [2]. lot of wear and tear’, and E elaborates on the process.
The remaining sentence, B, can fit only before GE,
6. Present subjunctive is used in sentences with verbs as it introduces the item (‘bags’) which is discussed
expressing desire, intention, resolution, suggestion, in G and E. From this, we can see that the sequence
etc. followed by a noun clause. The verb in the present consists of four sentences which discuss bags in general
subjunctive remains in the base form (without s/es, and four further sentences which discuss coach bags
modals, helping verbs). Thus all the options including in particular. Therefore the correct sequence is
the original sentence except [3] are rendered invalid. BGEFHCAD. So the first sentence is B. Hence, [2].
Hence, [3].
12. From the explanation for the previous question, we
7. There are two errors in the original sentence. can tell that the last sentence in the correct sequence
‘Advances’ is a plural noun and requires a plural verb is D. Hence, [4].
‘have’. ‘Among’ should be replaced by ‘between’ as
comparison is between two entities, ‘countries’ and 13. From the explanation for the first question in this
‘continents’. In [2] the word ‘advancing’, i.e. ‘moving set, we can tell that E is the third sentence of the
ahead’ is not justified. In [4] the seond error surfaces. correct sequence. Hence, [5].
In [5], the usage of the word ‘economical’ is inapt.
There is no error in sentence [3]. Hence, [3]. 14. From the explanation for the first question in this
set, we can tell that sentence H fits between
F and C. Hence, [4].
CET
15. From the explanation for the first question in this 25. Option [1] appears to make sense but the parallelism
set, we can tell that sentence B precedes sentence of structure is disturbed here. The incomplete phrase
G in the correct sequence. Hence, [1]. in ‘acceptance’ negates [2] and [4]. [5] is absurd.
The need for parallelism in the two blanks makes
16. G is the opening sentence of the sequence as it [3] the right choice. Hence, [3].
introduces the topic: systems of ISA being tested in
the field and large-scale implementation being discussed. 26. If the snow burst was 'worst' and it 'hit' Ladakh it
D follows B as ‘these systems’ refers to ‘the different will not be a positive thing for its economy, thus
systems’ in G. F continues the idea with the illustration the second blank should be logically filled in with
of the installation of the speed warning device. A a word with a negative connotation. This eliminates
mentions the initial effect and follows F. The word options, [2], [3] and [5], as the words 'advantageous',
‘further’ as well as the continuation of the example 'interesting' and 'fetching' are positive words. Among
make C the next sentence. The word ‘however’ connects options [1] and [4] 'peak' season will complete the
E to C other than the mention of the ‘long-term’ statement more logically as the snow burst will not
effect. By talking about the results B becomes the be worst if it hit Ladakh in its 'lull' season. So, 'peak'
concluding sentence of the paragraph. Hence the and 'disastrous' give the right combination.
correct sequence is GDFACEB. So the opening sentence Hence, [1].
of the sequence is G. Hence, [4].
27. To be 'down with a disease' is correct idiomatic usage,
17. The last sentence of the sequence is B. Hence, [2]. which eliminates all options except [2]. Among the
second blank options as well, 'imagination', 'fits' and
18. Sentence A comes between F and C. Hence, [1]. 'fever' do not fit in logically. Hence, [2].
19. The second last sentence of the sequence is E. 28. If the company is in profit, it is most likely to grant
Hence, [3]. bonuses to its employees, this will eliminate all the
options except [4]. Even in the first blank, 'indicates'
20. The second sentence of the sequence is D. fits better logically than, 'symbolises', 'eliminates',
Hence, [2]. 'points' or 'highlights'. Hence, [4].
21. Though [1] makes grammatical sense, it doesn’t 29. The union must have an un-bending, or inflexible
enhance the meaning that, in the first place, the attitude that reaching a peaceful agreement was
sentence sets out to do. [3] is absurd. [4] caters to impossible. The only word which means inflexible
cycling alone and makes no sense. [5] is incorrect or un-bending is 'stubborn'. Other options do not fit
grammatically as well as meaningless. [2] conveys in the first blank logically. Hence, [3].
the meaning and is grammatically correct as well.
Hence, [2]. 30. If human capacity of evil was 'diminished', 'subsided'or
'reduced' with increased information, then there will
22. Since the sentence has two different clauses with 2 not be any need to learn to use it properly, which
subjects – the first one a singular subject. i.e, ‘one is the first part of the statement. Thus options [1],
out of four’ – and the second has a plural subject [2] and [3] are eliminated. Among [4] and [5], 'wisdom'
- ‘two-thirds of Americans’ – the two blanks need is a better fit logically for the first blank, and 'augment',
apt verbs. [1] has words that give rise to idiomatic which means boost or enhance, is a better fit for
and grammatical errors. [2] has a verb that would the second blank than 'culminate', which means to
give rise to repetition and an adjective that leads end or finish. Hence, [5].
to grammatical error. ‘Suffer-is’ in [3] causes subject-
verb disagreement. ‘Suffering’ in [5] is a participle 31. The word 'resolute' means determined or strong-willed.
and is incorrect in the context. ‘Suffers - are’ meets Only [3] is its appropriate antonym. All the other
the language requirements. Hence, [4]. options are synonymous. Hence, [3].
23. The requirement of a noun in the first blank followed 32. 'Brisk' means fast moving or active. Options [1] and
by another noun ‘reinstatement’ demands the use of [5] are its synonyms and [3] and [4] are not related.
the possessive in the first blank, negating [2] and Only [2] is its appropriate antonym. Hence, [2].
[3]. Since the pronoun to be used in the second blank
has the ‘chief of army’ for antecedent, ‘who’ is correct, 33. 'Hesitant' means lacking readiness or doubtful. Options
eliminating [1] and [4]. Hence, [5]. [1], [2] and [3] are synonymous to 'hesitant' and
option [5] is unrelated. 'Confident' meaning bold or
24. The first blank needs a noun and the second blank, sure is its antonym. Hence, [4].
a plural noun. [4] and [5] are thus eliminated. The
second blank needs a noun that would mean necessity 34. 'Grave means serious or grim. Its opposite is 'ridiculous',
to become a politician. [1] and [2] are therefore negated. which means stupid or funny. Options [2] and [3]
‘Willingness - qualities’ are apt. Hence, [3]. are synonymous to 'grave' and [4] and [5] are unrelated.
Hence, [1].
CET 500
35. 'Meld' means to 'blend' or 'merge'. Its appropriate 45. Only option [3] encapsulates the given idea and presents
antonym is 'divide'. Hence, [2]. it in a shorter rephrased sentence. Hence, [3].
36. ‘While’ indicates that a contrast must follow, but 46. None of the sentences talks about the main idea
the use of another contrasting linker is redundant, presented in the statement and are mere distortions
thus [3] and [4] are invalid since G begins with ‘but’. of it. Hence, [5].
While C does follow the given part of sentence, neither
B nor H logically follows the sequence as Yasti’s 47. The sentence implies that a HR manager's assessment
influence or ‘he’ having proved to be good for Idut of employees is facilitated if the manger has background
do not link to the previous parts. Hence, [1]. knowledge about the employee. Option [2] correctly
encapsulates this idea. Other options subvert the
37. Option [1] contradicts the given sentence and thus meaning of the sentence. Hence, [2].
is incorrect. [2] seems to complete the sequence. [3]
does not logically follow. While I seems to logically 48. The specific type of fine art, which has the lingering
follow, it does not make sense to state someone is psychological effect on the connoisseur, is music, which
seen taking stringent measures as he had proved himself means it is the 'only' type. Other options distort
to be good for Idut earlier. Thus, [4] is also incorrect. the meaning of the given statement except option
If the sequence in [5] had been B, J and A it might [2]. Hence, [2].
have been the right option but as the sequence stands,
this is an invalid option. Hence, [2]. 49. The use of perishable materials has resulted in loss
of much of the history of furniture making. It does
38. Option [1] seems to logically follow. A does not follow not mean it has no history. It does not state anything
D and thus [2] is incorrect. [3], [4] and [5] do not about our knowledge of furniture making or about
complete the sequence as what is to be ensured is steel and glass. Only option [4] encapsulates the given
not clearly stated herein. Hence, [1]. idea and reproduces it in different words. Hence, [4].
39. The sequence to complete the given statement must 50. Only option [1] encapsulates the given idea in different
either describe the job or give reasons why the job words. Other options merely distort the given sentence.
is difficult, thus [3] and [5] are incorrect. A does Hence, [1].
not logically follow F, thus [4] is also invalid. While
B could complete the sequence, so could I, therefore 51. The author found certain flowers in the garden because
it is [1] and not [2] that is the correct option. of their smell. So, ‘guided by’ is the correct expression.
40. The sequence completing the given statement must 52. ‘Smell’ is one of the five senses and is appropriate
either give reasons as to why S. N. Praja is the correct for the blank. Hence, [2].
choice or why Kapesh Lalav was expected to be chosen.
Thus, [4] and [5] do not logically follow. Similarly,
while the surprise is reiterated in D, A does not complete 53. The author mentions that he/she had a fit of temper
the sequence and jumps to state a conclusion without earlier. So, he would naturally look for ‘comfort’.
any basis being given. Thus, both [3] and [2] are Options [2], [3], [4] and [5] are inappropriate.
invalidated. While H seems to indicate why Kapesh Hence, [1].
Lalav was preferred, E seems to indicate what S. N.
Praja is doing to improve his image. Hence, [1]. 54. The author mentions that his/her face was hot. So
‘cool’ leaves and grass would provide him the solace
41. Only option [3] encapsulates the given idea and presents he needs. Hence, [4].
it in a rephrased way. Other options merely subvert
the given idea. Hence, [3].
55. The latter part of the sentence refers to how happy
the author was. ‘Joy’ is the appropriate word in the
42. Only option [3] encapsulates the same idea as given
given context. Hence, [5].
in the sentence. Other options distort the meaning
of the given statement. Hence, [3].
56. The author refers to the fact that he/she is in the
43. The sentence does not say that most people believe ‘garden’ later on in the passage. Hence, [2].
what others say which eliminates, option [2], [3]
and [5]. Option [4] does not mean what the given 57. The author was moving around in a garden. So, ‘wander
statement states at all. Only option [1] follows the about’ would correct describe his movement.
same logic and rewords the given sentence Hence, [5].
appropriately. Hence, [1].
58. Petals are usually delicate. So ‘fragile’ is the correct
44. Only sentence [5] correctly rewords the idea presented
word. Hence, [3].
in the given sentence. If one can do what he wants,
that means he has the right or prerogative to do
so. The sentence does not state anything about others' 59. Roses are beautiful flowers and the word 'loveliest'
suggestion, or opinion or time and money. fits in best with the context grammatically as well.
CET
60. Roses usually smell pleasant. ‘Aroma’ is usually used 72. The sentence has three errors. The degree of
in the context of food. So ‘fragrance’ is the right comparison should be superlative and not comparative,
word. Hence, [2]. as the statement is not comparing two groups of people.
So instead of 'more' the word 'most' should be used.
61. ‘Mollify’ means to ‘appease’ or ‘soften’. ‘Mortify’ Either the word 'that' or 'which' should be used before
means to humiliate. Hence, [5]. 'invites' or the verb for should be changed to 'inviting'
to properly connect the clauses. In addition, to make
62. ‘Corpulent’ means fat or bulky. (B) alone is the correct the sentence grammatically correct, after 'to' the basic
answer. Hence, [2]. form of the verb 'book' should be used and not 'booking'.
Hence, [3].
63. ‘Terse’ means brief in speech, negating (A) and (B).
(C) alone is the right answer. Hence, [3]. 73. The sentence has no grammatical error. Hence, [5].
64. ‘Audacity’ means temerity or ‘boldness.’ ‘Asperity’ 74. The sentence has two errors. The correct phrase is
which means roughness or harshness is not a synonym. 'belong to'. In addition, it will be correct logically
‘Atrocity’ is extreme wickedness and is not a synonym. for the sentence to use the simple present form of
(B) alone is the synonym. But the given options don’t the verb that describes an activity happening every
offer a choice of (B) only. Hence, [5]. year. So 'invading' should be changed to 'invades'.
65. ‘Feign’ is to pretend. ‘Feign’ doesn’t mean to ‘try’ Hence, [2].
or ‘change’. Only (A) is the correct answer.
Hence, [1]. 75. The sentence contains no error. Hence, [5].
66. Here, the correct tense form is present perfect 76. There is a subject-verb disagreement in part [3] –
continuous tense. It is used to represent an action the subject of the sentence is ‘reason’, a singular
that started at some time in the past, has continued word, so the main verb ‘have been’ should have been
for a period of time up to the present, and is still in the singular as well, i.e., ‘has been’. Hence, [3].
continuing. The spelling ‘practicing’ is incorrect as
we require a verb form here. ‘Practice’ is a noun. 77. There is an error in part [3] – the article ‘a’ is
Hence, [3]. missing before the word ‘teacher’. Hence, [3].
67. Here, the correct tense form is past perfect tense. 78. There is a subject-verb disagreement in part [4] –
Here, two actions happened in the past, and it is since the subject of the sentence (‘knowledge’) is
necessary to show the first completed action and then in the singular, the main verb should be in the singular
the second completed action. The first completed as well, i.e., ‘is’ and not ‘are’. Hence, [4].
action is represented with past perfect tense (here,
'had left'), before the second action that is completed 79. The error is in part [2] – the correct verb here should
(here, 'reached'). Hence, [4]. be ‘brought’ (the past tense of ‘bring’) and not ‘bought’
(the past tense of ‘buy’). Hence, [2].
68. Here, the correct tense form is simple present tense. 80. The error is in part [2] – ‘which’ is the wrong usage.
Here, it is used for habitual actions of a person during The word should indicate possession, so ‘whose’, which
the present time. Hence, [5]. means ‘of which’, should be used instead. Hence, [2].
69. Here, the correct tense form is simple future tense. 81. The sentence should read: ‘Revelling in strong family
It is possible and also very likely that the condition values, the strong Indian sense of community has
will be fulfilled. In this conditional tense, if the main undoubtedly benefited the second-generation Indians.’
clause is in simple present tense, the subordinate clause C, D and E are the wrong links in options [1], [2],
should be in simple future tense. Hence, [4]. [4] and [5] respectively. The correct sequence is
ECBDA. Hence, [3].
70. Here, the appropriate tense form is past perfect
continuous tense. The time which is referred to is 82. The sentence should read: ‘Ironically, one of the most
past, and 'for' indicates that action started at some common investment risks that investors take is of
time in the past, and continued for a period of ten not taking adequate risks.’ The placement of B disturbs
years (till he last saw him), and was still continuing. the sequence in options [1], [2]and [4]. D disturbs
Hence, [4]. [3]. The correct sequence is BDAEC. Hence, [5].
83. The correct spelling is ‘engineer’. Hence, [5].

71. The sentence has two errors. Three qualities or
comparison, 'quick', 'small' and 'cheap' should be in 84. The correct spelling is ‘conscience’. Hence, [2].
the same form. In addition, 'usefully' is a wrong adverb
usage in the sentence as there is no action or verb 85. The correct spelling is ‘morgue’. Hence, [3].
that it qualifies. The correct word should be 'useful'.
Hence, [2]. 86. The correct spelling of the word in option [2] is
‘grateful’. Hence, [2].
CET 500
87. The correct spelling of the word in option [5] is 96. The words ‘verge’, ‘edge’, ‘margin’ and ‘brink’ all
‘desiccated’. Hence, [5]. mean the same, i.e., the rim or border of something.
‘Centre’, on the other hand, means the middle point.
88. In (b), ‘account’ would fit in because ‘on account Hence, [2].
of’ means on the basis of. ‘Issue’ fits in (d) as it
means copy in this context. ‘Subject’ and ‘topic’ 97. Options [1], [2], [3] and [5] are all edible green
can both fit in (a), but only the former can fit in vegetables. Option [4], ‘serif’ on the other hand,
(c) as well. Hence, [2]. is a short line at the top or bottom of some styles
of printed letters. Hence, [4].
89. ‘Know’ means to be aware of something and fits blank
(b). ‘Check’ means to examine and it fits blank (c). 98. The fifth option is the odd one out. The first four
‘See’ means perceive and fits both (a) and (d). options are synonymous with each other and are all
Hence, [5]. related to competition or enmity. ‘Protagonist’, on
the other hand, refers to the leading character in
90. Both ‘close’ and ‘open’ can fit in blank (a). ‘Close’ a drama or proponent for a social programme.
can also fit in blanks (c) and (d). ‘Sound’ can fit Hence, [5].
in blank (b) where it forms part of the expression
safe and sound. So option [1] fits the maximum number 99. The odd one out is ‘stallion’ because all the others
of blanks. Hence, [1]. are female ones of the species and ‘stallion’ is the
only male one. Hence, [3].
91. The ‘government’ offers a ‘subsidy’, i.e., ‘funding/
grant’. [1] is incorrect as ‘a cook’ does not offer 100. Except option [4] all are natural water bodies.
‘cookware’. He cooks food. Not every ‘lottery ticket’ Hence, [4].
would result in ‘jackpot’. Similarly not every ‘circus
artist’ is ‘a clown who makes people laugh’.
‘Gastronomy’ is ‘the art of good eating’. Thus [2],
[3] and [4] are invalid. Only [5] exhibits the required
READING COMPREHENSION
relationship as ‘a psychologist’ offers ‘counselling’.
Hence, [5]. 1. Refer to paragraph 2. It is clearly stated that nutrition
has improved modestly in recent years but malnutrition
92. ‘Anemia’ is ‘a quantitative deficiency of haemoglobin’.
[1] is incorrect as ‘anarchy’ is marked by ‘chaos’. is still widespread. [1] is wrong because it wrongly
In [2] ‘sagacity’ and wisdom’ are synonyms. Similarly states that nutrition has improved drastically. [2] and
in [3] the words are synonyms. The words in [5] [4] are incorrect because the former states that nutrition
have no relation to each other. Thus, [5] is invalidated. has not improved at all and the latter states that
‘Cynicism’, i.e., ‘a habitual attitude of disbelief’ is
nutrition is yet to improve. Only [3] is correct.
lack of ‘belief’. Hence, [4].
Hence, [3].
93. The relationship between the two words is that of
an action that is done with the help of an object. 2. Refer to the last paragraph, first sentence. It is clearly
Thus, one can ‘paint’ with the help of ‘colours’; stated that people are diversifying their patterns of
‘cook’ with the help of ‘herbs’; ‘sew’ with the help
of a ‘needle’; ‘clean’ with the help of ‘soap’ and food consumption. So [1] can be negated. For [2],
‘wash’ with the help of ‘water’. But one does not refer to the third paragraph where it is stated that
‘write’ with the help of ‘paper’, rather one ‘writes’ recent research suggests that not only at the family
on ‘paper’. level, but also at the macroeconomic level, there is
Hence, [5].
a link between high fertility and poverty. [3] gives
94. The relationship between the two words is that of us incorrect statistics. The passage clearly states that
a sport and the thing that the sport is played with. most poverty in India is rural (third paragraph, first
Thus, ‘tennis’ is played with a ‘racket’; ‘golf’ is played sentence), so [5] can be negated. In the second
with a ‘club’; ‘snooker’ is played with a ‘cue’; ‘soccer’ paragraph it is stated that nearly a third of the
is played with a ‘soccer ball’ and ‘hockey’ is played
with a ‘stick’. But ‘carom’ is played with a ‘striker population in India is illiterate. So it is the only
and coins’ and not ‘dice’. Hence, [2]. correct statement. Hence, [4].
95. The relationship between the two words is that of 3. Refer to the third paragraph, penultimate sentence.
a person and his / her nature that defines that person. It is clearly stated that population growth is fastest
Thus, a ‘clown’ by nature is ‘funny’; a ‘miser’ by
nature is ‘greedy’; an ‘artist’ by nature is ‘creative’; in states where poverty is worst and economic growth
a ‘fanatic’, who is an extremist and a non-conformist, is slowest. [1] states the reason only partially. [2],
by nature is a ‘radical’ and a ‘warrior’ by nature is [3] and [4] distort the situation mentioned in the
‘courageous’. However, a ‘politician’ by nature is not passage. Only [5] states the scenario accurately.
‘unlawful’, which describes someone who does not
Hence, [5].
conform to the laws. Hence, [3].
CET
4. Refer to the first paragraph. It is stated that in India 9. The passage does not give us any clue regarding the
data regarding the poverty situation is mixed because actual profession of the author. He presents the data
poverty implies different types of deprivation and in a factual way. Hence, [5].
not just a lack of income. The state of poverty is
also diminishing at an uncertain rate. [1] is incorrect 10. 'Accelerated' means speeded up. In this context, only
because it states that poverty has always been on 'rapid' is correct. Hence, [4].
the rise. [3] is nowhere stated in the passage. [4]
does not address the issue correctly because if economic 11. 'Divergent' means differing or deviating. Only [2] can
development takes place, then poverty should actually be used as a replacement for the word in the given
decline. Only [2] gives us the actual reason for the context. Hence, [2].
problem. Hence, [2].
12. 'Amelioration' means amendment or correction.
5. The passage is mainly about the poverty situation Options [2], [3], [4] and [5] are synonymous. Only
in India and the various inequalities and deprivation [1] is an incorrect replacement for the word in this
associated with it. Options [2] and [5] are too specific. context. Hence, [1].
[3] is too broad because the 'conditions' of people
will involve many factors that are beyond the purview
of the passage. Though both 'population' and 'food' 13. 'Entwined' means interweaved or connected very
have been discussed in the passage, the 'environment closely. Only 'unattached' is farthest in meaning.
in India' is not dealt with, hence [4] can also be Hence, [4].
negated. Only [1] suitably covers the topics discussed
in this passage. Hence, [1]. 14. 'Insurmountable' refers to something that cannot be
easily overcome. In this respect, only [3] can fit
6. The last paragraph clearly states that people nowadays in the context. Hence, [3].
are more drawn towards noncereal foods; hence the
demand for coarse cereals has not shown any increase. 15. 'Abound' means to teem with or occur in plenty. Only
The last sentence of the third paragraph implies that [1] correctly expresses this. Hence, [1].
fertility rate of a state does affect poverty. The third
paragraph also states that better-off states make 16. Refer to paragraph 1 – options [1], [4] and [5] are
significant progress while the ones that are backward, clearly stated. ‘10.5 millennia’ is just another way
make slow improvements. The second paragraph clearly of saying 10,500 years, so [2] is also true. But [3]
states that malnutrition seems to be only partially is neither stated nor implied in the passage. Hence,
a problem of income, so it may be prevalent among [3].
people of higher income groups also. Only [2] can
17. Though the passage begins with a description of a
be inferred from the second sentence of paragraph
10,500 year-old sandal, that is not its only topic,
4. Hence, [2].
so [4] is not a suitable title. This passage is not an
exhaustive history of footwear as implied in [2] and
7. Refer to the last paragraph. Options [1], [2] and
[3], so they can be negated. The actual importance
[3] have been clearly mentioned as factors contributing of shoes in history is not really mentioned at all,
to the diversification of food patterns of people. [4] so [5] is also out. However, since the entire passage
can also be a probable cause because the sentence discusses shoes in prehistoric times, [1] is the best
mentions that 'other changes in the society' have possible title. Hence, [1].
also contributed to a fast demand for certain types
of foods. [5] is mentioned nowhere. Hence, [5]. 18. We can infer from Erik Trinkaus’s comparison in
paragraph 3 that Neanderthals did not wear shoes
8. The author presents the data in a straightforward (whereas our ancestors did), so [1] is wrong. [2] cannot
way. He refrains from expressing his own opinions really be inferred, as the passage only states that
and neither does he try to convince people to accept our ancestors wore shoes 26,000 years ago (see
his opinion. The only option that sums up his tone paragraph 3), but not whether the shoes were invented
is [4]. Hence, [4]. then or previously. There is no basis for [3] in the
passage. [5] contradicts the information in paragraph
3. Only [4] is correct, as it is stated in the first
sentence of paragraph 3. Hence, [4].
CET 500
19. Options [1] and [2] are derived from the last sentence proponents of dolphin intelligence. Option [2] just
of the penultimate paragraph, and are not directly states a human misconception. Option [3] is nowhere
related to the author’s conclusion in the last paragraph. understood from either of the passages while option
Therefore, they are out. [4] is neither stated nor implied. [4] is mentioned only in passage I. Option [5] seems
[3] is a partial answer. According to Jenna Tedrick close but only the author of the first passage states
Kuttruff, the wearers of the ancient sandals she has that dolphins have a superior brain, the second author
studied made them not just visually attractive, but also merely states that dolphins have a large brain.
different from each other, though there was no need Hence, [1].
to do so. This implies that the makers’ motives were
not rooted in necessity but in aesthetics – i.e., in order 28. The word ‘sensitive’ as used in the third line of passage
to be fashionable. Hence, [5]. I means ‘responsive to physical stimuli’. ‘Manipu-
lative’ means exercising control or influence; ‘an-
20. ‘Charred’ means burnt slightly, i.e., ‘scorched’. Note
thropoid’ means resembling a human being in form;
that simply ‘heated’ does not have the same
‘agile’ means physically or mentally quick while
connotation, and that ‘roasted’ is used mainly in
‘prehensile’ means adapted for grasping. Hence, [2].
reference to food. ‘Stained’ and ‘smudged’ are
completely out of context here, as they mean dirty.
Hence, [3]. 29. ‘Rudimentary’ means being in the earliest stages of
development. Thus ‘elementary’, which means pri-
21. It is mentioned in the sixth paragraph, second sentence mary or basic, is the cloest in meaning to ‘rudimen-
that Knasaimos people get attracted to the wood tary’. ‘Complimentary’ indicates either costing noth-
company because the company promises them money. ing or praiseful; ‘supplementary’ means added to
Hence, [2]. complete or make up a deficiency; ‘complementary’
means acting as something that completes the whole
22. It is mentioned in the seventh paragraph that the and ‘explanatory’ means serving to explain some-
narrator – i.e., Frederick Sagisolo – is the head of thing. Hence, [3].
the tribal council of the Knasaimos. Hence, [2].
30. The author is clearly awed by the fact that dolphins
23. Refer to the third paragraph. The correct answer is act in intelligent ways in spite of not having a
‘rattan’. Hence, [5]. manipulative organ. Hence, [3].
24. The answer is mentioned in the seventh paragraph,
the last sentence – “But the company was backed 31. Option [1] is not stated anywhere in passage I. Option
by a local military officer, so what could we do?” [2] is extreme in its use of the word ‘all’. Option
Hence, [4]. [4] too is nowhere in the passage (added to the fact
that it erroneously calls dolphins fish; dolphins are
25. The word ‘brunt’ means the main force or impact mammals). Option [5] has information that goes
of an attack. Only ‘burden’ is closest in meaning beyond the passage. Option [3] can be inferred from
to the word as used in the passage. Hence, [2]. the lines “an intelligence possible near or comparable
to our own but without hands to build, to transmit
26. The first author doesn't say that dolphins are the knowledge by writing, or to alter by one hair’s breadth
most intelligent of all creatures, so option [1] is elimi- the planet's surface.” Hence, [3].
nated. Option [2] goes out because of the second
half which erroneously attributes the idea that dolphins 32. The first four lines of passage I lead us to option
can equal or exceed human cognitive powers to the [5]. Option [1] is too specific, and options [2], [3]
second author. Option [3] goofs up in the first part and [4] do not provide the right reason. Hence, [5].
of the option. Option [4] cannot be gleaned from
the information in the second passage. Only [5] aptly
33. The author of passage II presents a background of
brings out ideas of the authors of passage I and II
the general perception about dolphin intelligence and
respectively in terms of the intelligence of dolphins.
then goes to counter this by presenting various reasons.
Hence, [5].
However, he does not refute the perception entirely
but (in the last paragraph) indicates that we still need
27. Both the authors specify that dolphins are coopera- to study things differently. So the style is ‘analytical’
tive, the first author through his example of dolphins in nature. There is no strong sequence or narrative
coming to the assistance of injured companions and here, no strong claim being made, no suggestion and
the second author by noting the facts stated by the no data-based evidence. Thus all the other options
are ruled out. Hence, [4].
CET
34. The author is against the common perception that

dolphins are among the most intelligent of creatures.
3. iii.
He does not focus on the intelligence of other creatures,
so options [1] and [5] can be eliminated. Option [2]
is extreme as well as incorrect while option [3] is
the exact opposite of what the author sets out to
do. Hence, [4].
Conclusions (i), (ii) and (iv) cannot always be derived.
So they are not valid. (iii) can be derived from
35. The second last paragraph of passage II indicates that
statements 2 and 3. Thus, only (iii) is a valid
some seals have been found to have the same basic
conclusion. Hence, [2].
capabilities as dolphins. Thus [2] can be inferred. The
paragraph does not reveal anything about the nature
of dolphin intelligence or about their ability to interpret
4. i.
acoustic and visual symbols. Option [3] counters the
information in the paragraph while option [5] distorts
the information. The paragraph just states that the
results were somewhat disappointing. Hence, [2].
VERBAL REASONING - I
iv.
1. i.
(i) can be concluded from statements 2 and 3, so it

is valid. (ii) is just a reversal of statement 2, hence
it is invalid. (iii) is not always valid. (iv) can be concluded
iv. from the first three statements combined, and is thus
valid. So, only (i) and (iv) are valid conclusions.
Hence, [2].
5. i. or
(i) can be concluded from statements 2 and 3, and

is thus valid. (ii) just reverses the second statement,
hence it is invalid. (iii) is not always valid. (iv) can
be concluded from the first three statements combined
and thus is valid. So, only (i) and (iv) are valid
conclusions. Hence, [2].
iii. or
2. ii.
(i) can be concluded from statements 1 and 2. (ii)

is not always valid. (iii) is valid from statements 3
and 4. (iv) cannot always be derived, hence it is invalid.
Thus, only (i) and (iii) can be concluded from at
(i), (iii) and (iv) are not always valid. (ii) can be least two of the four statements. Hence, [1].
concluded from statements 1 and 3 and thus is valid.
Thus, only (ii) is a valid conclusion. Hence, [4].
CET 500
6. A and B are effects of a common cause. ‘Shocked’ 13. Option [1] is counterintuitive as malnourishment is
and ‘firemen’ in A should give us a clue that the more likely to lower levels of attention and
situation could be a result of a train accident or a concentration than increase them. [2] is outside the
derailment. ‘Investigation’ is also a result of a serious purview of the passage. [3] is a secondary effect –
incident like an accident or derailment. Hence, [5]. it does not mention what happens to the children.
[5] is too vague. Only [4] states the effect of
7. The situation described in B, i.e., city being flooded,
malnourishment on children. Hence, [4].
could be a cause for problems described in statement
A. Therefore, B is the cause and A is the effect.
14. The situation given in the question is that of the
Hence, [2].
one where action needs to be taken when the train
8. A and B are effects of independent causes. A could is on its journey. Thus, options [1] and [4] cannot
be the effect of hunger and poverty. The parents the be the causes. Option [2] is also not an appropriate
lack money to buy food. So they have to seek cause since 'appropriate measures' with respect to
employment for their children. B could be the effect 'escorts' might not be the meaning here. Option [5]
of increase in the number of accidents at level crossing. is also vague in the sense that 'meetings' on the subject
So a speed restriction has been imposed. Hence, [4]. cannot be a cause for pressing escort teams into action.
A probable cause could be a spate of crimes on trains
9. Statement B mentions a particular problem, i.e., and thus asking for checks. Hence, [3].
destruction of rainforests. Statement A says that animals
living in rainforests are in danger of becoming extinct.
15. The given question does not say that increase in
We can infer that the reason for this could be the
population has resulted in 'overpopulation' or 'lack
destruction of the rainforests themselves. So B is the
of resources'. Options [1], [2], [3] and [4] have an
cause and A is its effect. Hence, [2].
assumption that day by day increase in population
10. Both A and B are the effects of independent causes. has led to 'unemployment' and 'lack of resources'.
They are independent since A talks about ‘climate’ Thus, none of the options are probable effects of
and B about ‘altitude’. A could be the effect of a a cause like 'population increase'. Hence, [5].
cause like emissions of carbon dioxide. B could be
the effect of a cause like the pilot lacking knowledge 16. A is far too extreme, and is therefore not a suitable
or engine trouble. Hence, [4]. course of action. B, on the other hand, is suitable,
as it would mitigate some of the inconvenience caused
11. According to the passage, the aircraft encountered to the residents. Hence, [2].
difficulties after landing and not before. This implies
that the problem it encountered was present on the 17. According to the statement, wine can be either good
or bad for health, depending on the organ one focuses
runway and not prior to it. Options [1], [2] and [3]
on. So, while consumption of wine may be harmful
are all issues that take place during the flight and
for a person suffering from a liver disease, it may
after landing. So they can be negated. If there were
be beneficial for one at risk for heart disease. Therefore,
still debris on the runway from the crashed aircraft,
either A or B is valid, depending on one’s own state
this plane would not have been allowed to land
of health. Hence, [3].
there in the first place. So [4] is also negated. But
[5] is a likely reason why the aircraft skidded. 18. Given the situation in the statement, there are two
Hence, [5]. possible courses of action: either the children and
their parents accept the situation as it is, and try
12. Options [1] and [2] are the effects of stress and not to find other opportunities for children to develop
due to damage to the water supply system or sewage their non-academic skills (i.e., statement A); or to
disposal system. Option [4] is too general and is not protest against the situation by appealing to a higher
a direct effect of the breakdown of the water authority like the Board of Education (i.e., statement
management system. Since the passage highlights the B). So either A or B could be a reasonable course
problems with respect to water supply and sewage or action, but there would be no point in doing both.
disposal, the topic of ‘food shortage’ seems Hence, [3].
unconnected here. So [5] is also out. ‘Waterborne
infections’ could be a direct effect of damage to the 19. Though B seems pertinent, a meeting with an agenda
that may or may not be approved doesn’t offer an
water system and sewage disposal system, and
immediate solution to the problem. But A is a very
insufficient water supply. Hence, [3].
sensible solution. Hence, [1].
CET
is only applied in case of “select innovations”, and

20. A does not solve the problem in the statement, whereas not to everything. Thus, definitely true. Hence, [1].
B is what would tackle the problem.
Hence, [2]. 31. According to the first sentence, Israel is a strategic
partner of the U.S. and India wishes to share a similar
21. A is a feasible course of action and a permanent solution relation with the U.S. Later it’s stated that it’s advisable
to the problem. Though B is correct in itself, to for India to maintain close ties with Israel for this
apprehend all those miscreants who have created the reason. So, the statement can be inferred. It’s probably
problem is not really feasible. Hence, [1].
true. Hence, [2].
22. Both A and B are hardly the right courses of action,

32. According to the passage, there has been a radical
given the problem. Hence, [4].
shift in the relation between the two countries since
23. Both are valid and necessary courses of action. Though 1992 and not just a slight change. The statement
the immediate action should be A followed by B, in is definitely false. Hence, [3].
the absence of such an option, option [5] is the correct
answer. Hence, [5]. 33. It is mentioned that India was one of the first non-
Muslim and Arab nations to support Yasir Arafat.
24. B is a logical course of action and should definitely So it is implicit that other countries did the same.
be undertaken. A is no longer a valid course of action The statement can be inferred although it’s not
because the valuables have already been stolen. explicitly stated. Hence, [2].
Hence, [2].
25. Both are valid courses for action. Through B, a proper 34. The statement is definitely false as the trade relations
screening can be done and wrong doers can be identified. between India and Israel improved post 1992.
A would be a mode to penalize them. But both taken Hence, [3].
together would be able to curb the problem to some
extent. Hence, [5]. 35. The statement that Israel possess the world’s most
sophisticated weapons does not find a mention in
26. The prevalent “cycle of commoditization” can be the passage. There is not adequate data to support
inferred from the words, “.... decades ... promising this. Hence, [5].
innovations become commodities”. The last part of
the passage states, “time for us to think about our
36. I isn't logical as India's record in only one country
survival” makes “hoping to end the cycle” a definite
goal of the company. Thus, definitely true. Hence, [1]. is mentioned. II is a valid conclusion, as the statement
suggests South African conditions haven't been suitable
for Indian cricketers. III isn't true as India may have
27. This is the exact opposite of what we find in the
passage. Toshiba is now planning to keep key a good record against South Africa in other countries.
technologies in-house. Hence, the statement is Hence, [2].
definitely false. Hence, [3].
37. I and III cannot be concluded from the given statement
28. Toshiba has already begun taking action in this direction. as the given situation would take place even if these
The first paragraph gives examples of how Toshiba’s weren't true. II is a likely conclusion, as foreigners
employees are following the company’s secretive would come to India to work primarily because they
policies. Hence, the statement is definitely true. are aware of the films in India. Hence, [2].
Hence, [1].
38. I is too extreme a statement as it isn't mentioned
29. The last sentence of the passage indicates that Toshiba if conditions are dangerous. II and III are not stated
wants to survive. Nishida’s strategy to keep smart or implied and cannot be logically concluded from
innovations in-house is part of that survival. The
the statement given. Hence, [5].
survival of the company is not equivalent to its better
performance. But in the long run may perform better.
Thus, probably true. Hence, [2]. 39. I cannot be deduced, as Indians might want to work
in countries other than the US. II and III can be
30. The word “key technologies” indicates that the strategy concluded from the passage easily. Hence, [4].
CET 500
40. I is evident from the fact that both are electronic 47. In if/when…….then statements, the valid sequences
companies and one is accusing the other of patent are (if x, then y) and (not y, not x.). The two
infringement and trying to get it banned. II is a possibilities are: BC and DA. Hence, [4].
prediction rather than a conclusion. III may or may
not be true. We cannot deduce it from the given 48. While the phraseology is different, this is an If /
When ... then type of conditional syllogism. The valid
statement. Hence, [1]. sequences are Cause-Effect or No Effect-No Cause.
Herein, the cause is ‘increased buying capacity’ and
41. Statement A is strong because India will get a lot the effect ‘an increase in sales’. Thus, the valid
of information about the mineral resources of the sequences would be AB and DC. None of the options
moon, leading to mineral exploration. Statement B match this. Hence, [5].
is weak because China has gathered only random images
that might not help India. Statement C is a strong 49.
argument as the final outcome will be a negative one,
rendering the exercise useless. Hence, [2].
42. A is weak since the conventional manner has not resulted

in making the sport popular; rather it has resulted in
the sport losing its popularity. B is weak since it does Option [1] is invalid as two positive statements cannot
not say anything new, but is a mere repetition of the give a negative conclusion. Option [2] is also invalid
given statement. C is a strong argument, since it will provide because if at least one of the statements is negative,
strong support to the sport and help in its revival. the conclusion should also be negative. Option [4]
Hence, [2]. is invalid on the same reasoning. If all Girls are
Children, and Devika is a Girl, Devika is a Child.
43. A is not a strong reason to handover the welfare Hence, [3].
activities of the government to private sector as we
do not know if government agencies are inefficient
or less efficient than private sector companies. Private 50.
sector companies not being corrupt will work in their
favour to get the responsibility and not against it.
But they are not 'as corrupt as government agencies'
means they have some corruption, hence not a strong
argument. B weakens the given statement substantially
Option [1] is invalid because the common term
by stating the reason for the welfare programmes
'Unmarried' should not come in the conclusion. Again,
not being implemented the way they should by private
companies. Hence, only B is a strong argument. using the same reason, option [2] is invalid. Option
Hence, [4]. [3] is invalid as there is no third element. All Men
are Adults, and some Men are Unmarried. Thus, some
44. Stating 'watching TV is fun' or that 'instances of negative Adults are Unmarried. Hence, [4].
events have become everyday occurrences' cannot
negate the findings of the survey. Only A provides 51. Since the roads have been dug up, traffic jams might
a strong argument in favour of the given statement increase and travel may become troublesome as stated
and explains why daily soaps are harmful for family in (1) and (3). (2) is a farfetched consequence as
peace. Hence, [1]. people may find other routes to the station or still
travel along the same route even if it takes longer.
45. The purpose for change is to reach out to more audience,
Hence, [4].
and this will be achieved by the change as indicated
by A. Other options do not build on or refute the
same idea. Neither is money mentioned as an issue 52. (1) is a possible consequence as it will deal with the
with singers nor is traditional ways mentioned anywhere problem of a rising inflation rate. (2) and (3) cannot
in the given statement. Hence, [3]. be called as dead sure consequences. Hence, [1].
46. In if/when…….then statements, the valid sequences 53. (2) and (3) are consequences that have nothing to
are (if x, then y) and (not y, not x.). The two do with the problem given in the statement as
possibilities are: AD and CB. Hence, [4]. population and number of migrants isn't limited to
slums. (1) is a likely consequence of the given problem
as slums and such areas have poor hygiene.
Hence, [1].
CET
54. (1) is not possible even though it would a desirable 2. The passage states that vitamin D is effective in
situation. (3) is too hasty a consequence as a recession treating cancer in various parts of the body and it
involves many more factors other than unemployment. is the single most effective medicine. The assumption
(2) is a logical consequence. Hence, [2]. is that cancer has to be curbed with the help of
medicines. So, [1] is an assumption implicit in the
55. When the movie industry suffers huge losses, small passage. Hence, [1].
production houses are liable to go out of business
and movies with smaller budget may become the norm.
3. It is stated in the passage that, vitamin D 'far outpaces
(3) is a judgmental statement and won't always be
the benefits of any cancer drug known to modern
true. Hence, [3].
science'. So, we can infer that there are other drugs
too which are used to fight cancer. Hence, [3].
56. I, II and III could be true but we cannot take these
assumptions for granted based on the statement in
the question. There's a possibility that these 4. The central idea of the passage is stated in the first
assumptions may not be true. Rishabh may be leaving line itself. It is trying to tell us that rising gold imports
for a job with a lower pay, he could be taking a show that the central bank's fight against inflation
break, or he could be leaving for a job, which pays has been ineffective. Hence, [3].
the same. Any of these possibilities may be true.
Hence, [5].
5. The passage talks about how gold imports have gone
up. It does this by using statistics from The World
57. I is an assumption since it is given that from now
Gold council. If these aren't true, the argument stated
on they will discontinue their business partnership.
in the passage becomes weak. Hence, it is an assumption
II and III may be true but we cannot be certain about
made in the passage that the Council's data is reliable.
these things based on the statement. Hence, [1].
Hence, [2].
58. This is just one case so we cannot make the

generalization found in I. II is a harsh judgement 6. Using the statistics given in the passage, we can infer
and retests are done to be absolutely sure. We should that gold imports dropped in 2009 compared to the
not consider them as a sign of ineptness. III may figures from 2007. Hence, [4].
be true but we cannot say that for sure. Hence, [5].
7. The author believes that an individual can make a

59. I and III may be true but we cannot assume these difference even through the smallest of gestures. That
statements based on the question. II is a logical is stated in [4]. None of the other options represents
assumption because when the economy and business
the assumption of the author. Hence, [4].
growth becomes slow, the economic scenario enters
into a state of depression. Hence, [2].
8. If 11 countries of the Euroland, each with their own
60. I is a fact but we cannot just assume it from the cycles, are needed to sustain the currency, it is not
statement. II again may be true but there is no such the Euroland cycle that drives the euro. Controlling
assumption actually made in the statement. III does 11 cycles is logically and practically improbable.
not have to be true either. Hence, [5]. Hence, [2].
9. Options [1] and [2] rule themselves out as they do

VERBAL REASONING - II not refer to the actual theme of the passage. [5]
is also incorrect because price is not the only parameter
1. The passage explains the finding of a research and here. [3] is close to the passage but ‘technical terms’
makes a strong case for vitamin D to be made the are not meant for general buyers. Hence, [4].
primary weapon in the fight against cancer. This is
the central idea of the passage and hence the conclusion
10. If [4] is not assumed, the whole argument falls apart.
is [2]. Hence, [2]
Only if we assume that most tourists stay in five-
star hotels, can we conclude that a tax on these hotels
will affect tourism in its entirety. Hence, [4].
11. The first sentence of the passage helps us infer [1].
CET 500
None of the other options can be validated from the current curriculum is limited in its scope.
the given information. Hence, [1]. Hence, [c].
12. Even if [4] is true, it gives no reason as to why 19. The line "…how many doctors are needed in a particular
the proportion of children who are educated has not stream…" helps us infer [2]. Hence, [2].
risen in proportion with the increase in expenditure
on education. [1] points to inflation as a reason why
20. If the selection procedure is being made more stringent,
the increased expenditure is not reflected in a higher
proportion of the educated. [2] points to the fact then the number of successful applicants will obviously
that the excess was spent on something very specific drop. Hence, [5].
and therefore did not affect the proportion of educated.
[3] also gives a good reason as to why the increased 21. The author seems to look upon the decision of the
expenditure did not increase the number of the educated. UK as a setback to Indians. If [4] is true, then this
If [5] had happened, then there would have been more concern is invalidated. Hence, [4].
educational awareness among the people. Hence, [4].
22. If the UK is announcing an overhaul of the current
13. The statement is about 'new' teachers entering the application mechanism, a probably cause could be that
field. Only option [5] states what these new or potential the current mechanism is not adequate enough.
teachers have to say about the field. Whether or not
Hence, [1].
existing teachers fulfil the current rules, will not
seriously explain why new teachers do not enter the
23. The passage states that the minister proposed to waive
field. It is true with options [3] and [4] as well. Option
[2] is a general statement. [5] completely invalidates the tax on the transfer of copyrights of films in
the statement because it is the hiring standards and order to encourage the growth of the film industry
not the pay package that is the deterrent. Hence, in Mumbai. So he seems to have assumed that taxes
[5]. and growth are inversely related. Hence, [5].
14. Other people settled on the island or who left the 24. A tax will be waived only if the burden it carries
island will not cast doubt about study involving native is more than the revenues it can earn for the levier.
Islanders. Similarly, high blood pressure in an inland Hence, [1].
country may be result of high salt intake as well.
Option [3] is not related to the argument at all. Only
25. The line "It took six years for Bollywood to convince
option [4] proves that salt intake may not be the
the state to waive VAT" helps us infer [4].
sole reason for high blood pressure. Hence, [4].
Hence, [4].
15. The statement is about helmets ensuring the safety

of bikers. Only option [1] supports the argument by DATA INTERPRETATION
providing valid statistical data. Delhi is not mentioned
to be the city where roads are unsafe. Other options
1. Total benefits in June = 83000 + 125000 = 208000
do not support the conclusion at all. Hence, [1].
12000
Share of direct sales in June = ´ 100 » 5.75%
16. A possible effect of the change in curriculum would 208000
be better-trained students. Hence (d). Hence, [4].
17. The Medical Council of India is not replacing theoretical 2. For the month of May:
knowledge with clinical acumen but adding clinical Total benefit = 76000 + 125000 = 201000
acumen to the current curriculum. Hence we can Total costs = 46000 + 64000 = 110000
understand that they perceive both of these areas (Total cost – Total benefit) = 91000
to be important for a student doctor to know and Profit = 0.68 × (Total cost – Total benefit) for all
learn. Hence (e). the months. Therefore it is sufficient to calculate
18. If the Medical Council is adding clinical acumen to the difference between total cost and total benefit.
the current curriculum, a probably cause could be that \ Difference between total cost and total benefit;
Total cost – Total benefits;
For the month of January = Rs.98000
CET
For the month of February = Rs.97000 14000

For the month of March = Rs.104000 Required percentage = × 100 » 22.6%
62000
For the month of April = Rs.68000
For the month of June = Rs.72000 Hence, [2].
\ The profit is maximum in the month of March.
Hence, [5]. 13
9. Literate childern in society D = × 9600 = 1560
80
3. Maintenance cost in April = 27000 Illiterate childern in society D = 7000 – 1560 = 5440
Maintenance cost in May = 24000 Hence, [4].
27000 - 24000
Percentage decrease = × 100 = 10. In society A,
27000 Literate men = 0.35 × 12,000 = 4200
11.11%. Hence, [4]. Literate women = 0.52 × 10000 = 5200
Literate children = 0.4 × 8500 = 8200
4. Total benefit in June = 83000 + 125000 = 208000 \ There are 8400 literate families in society A.
Total cost in June = 136000 Hence, [2].
Total cost – Total benefit = 208000 – 136000
= Rs.72000 11. Number of units sold during the third quarter in region
Now Tax levied on Rs.72000 will be R3 = 965 + 820 + 805 = 2590
Part 1 Þ 0.1 × 10000 = 1000 Total units produced in the plant of region R3 =
Part 2 Þ 0.2 × 20000 = 4000 6850
Part 3 Þ 0.3 × 30000 = 9000 2590
Required percentage = × 100 38%
Part 4 Þ 0.4 × 12000 = 4800 6850
\ Total tax = 1000 + 4000 + 9000 + 4800 Hence, [2].
= Rs.18800. Hence, [3].
12. The ratio of the number of units produced to the
5. Total cost in the month of February number of units sold for the month of March
= 42000 + 64000 = Rs.106000 980
Total benefit for the month of February = » 1.03.
950
= 79000 + 125000 = Rs.204000
Similarly,
106000 For April » 1.16
\ Required Percentage = × 100 » 52%. For May » 1.05
204000
Hence, [1]. For June » 1.05
For July » 1.04
6. Required ratio Hence, [2].
(12000 + 14000 + 10000 + 16000) 35 13. Production of plant in region R1 = 820 + 755 +
= (10000 + 12000 + 7000 + 13000) ×
52 671 + 520 + 665 + 789 + 530 + 490 + 760 = 6000,
Similarly the productions of plant in other regions
52000 35 26 are
= × = . Hence, [3].
42000 52 15 R2 = 6550,
R3 = 6850,
7. Number of literate children = 24000 × 0.4 = 9600 R4 = 5600,
Number of iliterate man = 52000 × 0.65 = 33800 Hence, option [1] is true.
Required Difference = 33800 – 9600 = 24200 Production in the month of May = 2565
Hence, [3]. Similarly after calculating production for all the
months,it can be concluded that the production was
8. Total population of society A and B = 62000 the lowest in May. Hence, option [2] is true.
Total children in society A and B = 14000 Unsold units in the month of April = 2825 – 2520
= 305
Similarly after calculating the same for all the months,
it can be concluded that maximum units remained
CET 500
unsold in April. Hence, option [3] is true.

At the end of the first quarter, units sold by R1, 18. Total damages in MHRST
R2, R3 and R4 were 1970, 2010, 1975 and 1850 = 18584000 + 4547000 + 17368000 + 480000 +
respectively. Hence, option [4] is true. 24500000 + 245800000 + 48320000 + 16939900
Hence, [5]. = Rs.376538900
14. In region R1, unsold units during the first quarter 17368000
\ The required percentage = × 100
= (820 + 755 + 671) – (780 + 680 + 540) = 276 376538900
Similarly, total unsold units during the first quarter: » 5%
for region R2 = 70 Hence, [3].
for region R3 = 65 Alternatively,
for region R4 = 100 Approximating the values, we get the ratio as
Hence, [3].
17 17
< = 0.05 i.e., 5%
376 340
15. During the first quarter:
Production of plant in R1 = 2246
Production of plant in R2 = 2080 19. I. The difference between GJRT’s water damages
Production of plant in R3 = 2040 and evacuation cost
Production of plant in R4 = 1950 = 24560000 × 0.2 – 12560000 × 0.3
= 4912000 – 3768000
1950 = Rs.1144000
Required percentage = » 23.45%
8316 II. We can observe that in the state of Bengal,
Hence, [5]. the w ater damages were more than the
evacuation cost.
16. Total agricultural damages III. The Commercial/Industrial damages:
= (166501 + 126500 + 166900 + 236350 + 356921 In Kerala = 70456500
+ 245800 + 113900 + 39210 + 78000) × 10 3 In M.P. = 54647600
= Rs.1530082 × 10 3 54647600
Hence, [4]. \ The required percentage = × 100 » 77.
70456500
Hence, [1].
17. Total damages in:
Kerala: 20. The state which is 4th from the top in MHRST and
176832800 + 70456500 + 90961700 + 582300 + 7 th from the bottom is U.P.
13908200 + 166501000 + 32906100 + 21919500 Thus, the required difference = 57826800 – 16939900
= Rs.574068100 = Rs.40886900
Orissa: Hence, [3].
57826800 + 3425800 + 3193400 +1224000 +
14390000 + 126500000 + 63810000 + 1764700
= Rs.331775300 21. Number of non-managerial employees who received
KRNTK: 1
35829000 + 54060900 + 14449000 + 293400 + C+ grade = 0.05 × 10000 × = 100
5
15480000 + 166900000 + 26230000 + 17683280
= Rs.330925580 C grade = 600 and C– grade = 300
GJRT: \ Total = 1000. Hence, [5].
10137800 + 9680700 + 4194000 + 335500
+ 12560000 + 113900000 + 24560000 + 40517510
22. From the table, the number of employees at the
= Rs.215885510
managerial level is greater than those at the non-
M.P. mangerial level only for grade A+. Hence, [4].
= 405775100 + 54647600 + 11492600 + 3000400
+ 13500000 + 356921000 + 36960000 + 35829000
= 917525700 23. Number of employees at the managerial level =
Hence, [5].
é 3 3 1 1
Alternatively, 10000 ´ ê0.12 ´ + 0.1 ´ + 0.08 ´ + 0.15 ´
ë 4 5 4 5
Observing the data for the given options show that
M.P. had the highest damages.
CET
26. From the table above, MP had the maximum production

1 2 4 2 2ù
0.2 ´ + 0.15 ´ + 0.05 ´ + 0.1 ´ + 0.05 ´ ú of rice for the year. Also maximum share in production
2 5 5 5 5û is for MP and Rice production is 59% of MP’s
= 10000 × 0.46 = 4600. production. Hence, [5].
Number of employees at the non-managerial level
= 10000 – 4600 = 5400 27. Therefore the overall Bajra production is =
Ratio = 23:27. Hence, [3]. 48000 + 240000 + 56000 + 98000 + 24000 + 132000
+ 80000 = 678000. Hence, [2].
24. Number of employees at the managerial level who
28. From the table above, West Bengal has the lowest
2
have obtained grade B– = 0.15 × 10000 × = 600 production of Bajra for the year. Hence, [5].
5
Similarly, calculating for other grades, 29. Jowar produced in UP = 174000 tonnes
Grade C+ º 400 Jowar produced in Bihar = 128000 tonnes
Grade C º 400 Total Jowar produced = 174000 + 128000
= 302000 tonnes. Hence, [1].
Grade B+ º 300
Grade A– º 200 30. Rajasthan and Gujrat together constitute 16 + 14 =
Hence, [1]. 30% of 5 million tonnes.
6
\ Combined production = 0.3 × 5 × 10 = 150000.
Hence, [2].
25. Number of non-managerial employees with grade A–
and above
31. By observation, we can make out that the months
é 1 2 3ù Apr-June and Oct-Dec have more accidents than the
= 10000 ê0.12 ´ + 0.1 ´ + 0.08 ´ ú months Jan-Mar and July-Sep.
ë 4 5 4û
Total accidents in Jan-Mar is:
= 1300.
= (5000 + 4000 + 3500) + (3000 + 2000 + 1000)
Number of non-managerial employees with grade B–
+ (2000 + 3000 + 2000) = 25500
and above
Total accidents in July-Sep is:
é 4 1 3ù = (3500 + 4000 + 3750) + (1000 + 1500 + 3000)
= 1300 + 10000 ê0.15 ´ + 0.2 ´ + 0.15 ´ ú + (3000 + 3000 + 2000) = 24750
ë 5 2 5û
Hence, [3].
= 1300 + 3100 = 4400
Number of non-managerial employees with grade C– 32. Number of air accidents
and above = 5400 In the month of November = 3500
\ Ratio = 13 : 44 : 54. Hence, [2]. In the month of December = 4500
4500 - 3500
Answers to questions from 26 to 30: \ Percentage increase = » 28.5%.
3500
Hence, [3].
33. The percentage increase in April, May, August and

October.
5000 - 3500
April = ´ 100 » 43%
3500
5750 - 5000
May = ´ 100 » 15%
5000
4000 - 3500
August = ´ 100 » 14%
3500
All units in tonnes. 5250 - 3750

October = ´ 100 » 40%
3750
CET 500
Hence, [3].
Alternately,
From the graph it can be observed that the increase
is more in the months April and October.
But since the denominator is smaller, the required
percentage is more for the month of April.
34. In December 2005, the number of road, rail and air

accidents are 4000, 3000, 4500, respectively. 790
Average price on Day 7 = = Rs.263.33
Number of road accidents in January 2006 3
= 4000 × 1.15 = 4600 Hence, [2].
Number of rail accidents in January 2006
= 3000 × 0.9 = 2700 39. Price of three grams of Metal 2 at the end of Day
Number of air accidents in January 2006 7
= 4500 × 1.05 = 4725
Average accidents in January 2006 æ 3000 5175 2500 4750 ö
= 3 × ç + + + ÷
è 15 11.5 10 19 ø
4600 + 2700 + 4725
= » 4008. Hence, [1]. = 3 × (200 + 450 + 250 + 250) = Rs.3450
3
Hence, [3].
35. Total number of accidents in January 2005 = 10000
40. Statement 1: Refer to the table given in Q.38. On
\ Number of accidents in December 2004 = 9200
Day 7, price of one gram of Metal 1 is Rs.340. Hence,
\ Rail accidents in December 2004 [1] is false.
= 9200 – (5000 + 3000) = 1200
Statement 2:
\ Percentage change in rail accidents from December
2004 to January 2005
2000 - 1200
= ´ 100 » 66.67%. Hence, [4].
1200
36. On Day 6, Considering the table given in Q.38, it can be observed

that the price of Metal 3 on Day 2 per gram is
10
Price of 10 grams of Metal 1 = 3000 ´ = Rs.2000 Rs.410.
15
Hence, [2] is false.
10 Statement 3:
Price of 10 grams of Metal 2 = 3750 ´ = Rs.1500 Considering the table given in Q.38 the combined
25
price of all the metals per gram on Day 4 i.e., Rs.650.
10 Hence, [3] is True.
Price of 10 grams of Metal 3 = 1400 ´ = Rs.1000
14 Statement 4:
\ Total price = Rs.4500. Hence, [1]. On Day 5,
Price of 10 grams of Metal 2 = 10 × 250 = Rs.2500
37. On Day 4, Price of 10 grams of Metal 3 = 10 × 200 = Rs.2000
Hence, [4] is false. Hence, [3].
25
10
21
20
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
7
Price of 7 grams of Metal 3 = 4500 ´ = Rs.1750 1. The given expression can be written as
18
\ Total Price = Rs.11350. Hence, [4]. 2 3 3 æ9 + 4ö 9 3
´ ´ ´ç ÷ + -
3 2 2 è 6 ø 4 2
38. Table for the price of the metals per gram:
CET
3 13 9 3
= ´ + - æ 276 324 24 ö æ 216 36 ö
2 6 4 2 ç ¸ - ÷´ ç ¸ ÷
è 46 54 144 ø è 125 25 ø
5.
39 3 39 + 9 48 196 25 125 200
+ ¸ ´ ¸
= = = = 4 2 4 245 50
12 4 12 12
Hence, [5].
æ 1 ö æ 63 52 ö
2. Given expression ç6 ¸ 6 - ÷ ´ ç 3 ´ 2 ÷
è 6 ø çè 5 6 ÷ø
13 ö éæ 36 7 ö æ 49 - 25 öù
= 196 4 125 50
æ 13 2 50 3
´ ´ ´
= ç 4 - 3 - 6 ÷ ¸ êç 7 ¸ 7 ´ 7 - 25 ÷ ¸ ç 35 øû
÷ú
2 25 245 200
è ø ëè ø è
æ 39 - 8 - 26 ö éæ 36 7 3 7 ö æ 24 öù æ6 1ö æ6ö
= ç ÷ ¸ êç ´ ´ - ÷ ¸ ç ÷ú çç - ÷÷ ´ çç ÷÷
5 6
è 12 ø ëè 7 50 7 25 ø è 35 øû ´
è6 6ø è5ø 6 5 1
= = = . Hence, [5].
98 2 2
5 éæ 54 7 ö 24 ù 49
= 12 ¸ êç 25 ´ 7 - 25 ÷ ¸ 35 ú
ëè ø û
5 é 54 - 49 35 ù 6. Let the quantities of alcohol and water in the cask

¸ ê ´
24 úû
= be 4x gallons and 5x gallons respectively.
12 ë 25 ´ 7
4
5 é1 35 ù Amount of alcohol drawn = × 18 = 8 gallons
5 9
¸ ê ´ ´ 24 = 10
24 úû
= =
12 ë 35 12
5
Hence, [1]. Amount of water drawn = × 18 = 10 gallons.
9
After this 18 gallons of water is added in the cask.
1 2 æ 1 1ö \ Alcohol present in the cask = 4x – 8 and water
3. 1 + 2 – ç3 + 2 ÷ present in the cask = 5x – 10 + 18 = 5x + 8
5 3 è 2 7ø
\ The ratio of alcohol to water is
6 8 7 15
= + – – 4x - 8 5
5 3 2 7 = Þ 28x – 56 = 25x + 40
5x + 8 7
58 7 15 Þ 3x = 96 Þ x = 32
= - -
15 2 7 \ The capacity of cask = 9x = 9 × 32 = 288 gallons.
373 Hence, [2].
= –
210
7. There is only one 1-digit number whose sum of digits
Hence, [5]. is 9. i.e., 9.
There are nine 2-digit numbers whose sum of digits
13 ´ 7 + 1 ´ 3 - 1 ´ 8 is 9, viz., 90, 81, 72, 63, 54, 45, 36, 27, 18.
4. Let ‘abc’ be the 3-digit number such that
7
´ 3 + 6 ´ 9 - 2 ´ 21 a + b + c = 9; a > 1
2
Let x = a – 1
91 + 3 - 8 Then x + b + c = 8 such that x, b, c > 0.
= The number of solutions for this equation is 10C2 = 45
æ 21 ö
ç + 54 - 42 ÷ Hence, there are 1 + 9 + 45 = 55 numbers less than
è 2 ø
999 having the sum of their digits as 9. Hence, [4].
86 86 ´ 2 172 37
= = = = 3 8. LCM of 8, 9, 10, 11 = 3960
21 21 + 24 45 45
+ 12 The greatest 5-digit multiple of 3960 is
2
3960 × 25 = 99000
Hence, [3]. Since, 8 – 5 = 3, 9 – 6 = 3, 10 – 7 = 3 and
11 – 8 = 3,
99000 – 3 = 98997 leaves remainder 5, 6, 7 and 8
when divided by 8, 9, 10 and 11 respectively. Hence, [2].
CET 500
9. Let the speed of the river before rains be ‘y’ m/s. \ p + e + s = 12

\ (4 + y) = 1.5(4 – y) Þ y = 0.8 m/s \ Cost of 3p + 3e + 3s = 3(p + e + s)
\ Speed of the river = 2 × 0.8 = 1.6 m/s. = 3(12) = Rs.36
\ Speed of the boat with the river = 4 + 1.6 Hence, [4].
= 5.6 m/s. Hence, [2].
15. Let the initial investment for Anu, Sanju and Sonu
10. The two places for the repeated number can be chosen be Rs.x each.
in 5C 2 ways, and the repeating digit can be chosen Then, the monthly equivalent investment for:
in 9 ways.
æ 9 ö
The remaining 3 digits can be chosen 8P3 ways. Hence, Anu º x × 2 + 10 ç x - x ÷ = 3x
è 10 ø
the required number is 5C 2 × 9 × 8P 3
= 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 = 10P 5 ways. Hence, [1]. Sanju º 12x
11. Let the four consecutive numbers (speeds) be x, æ 10 ö

Sonu º x × 4 + 8 ç x + x ÷ = 12.8x
x + 1, x + 2, x + 3 è 100 ø
x + x + 1 + x + 2 + x + 3 + 169.5 + 169.5 \ Anu’s share in the profit
\
6
= 3 × 13900 = Rs.1500
= 169.5
3 + 12 + 12.8
Þ 4x + 6 = 4 × 169.5
Hence, [4].
4 ´ 169.5 6
Þ x = – = 169.5 – 1.5 = 168 kmph
4 4
Hence, [4]. 16.
90 90
12. Time taken = = = 6 hours
7+8 15
Thus, Anmol and Saranya started at 10 – 6 = 4 a.m.
Had they started one hour earlier i.e., at 3 a.m.
90 D ABC ~ D ADE
time taken = = 9 hours
6+ 4 BC AC BC AC
\ = Þ =
\ They would have met at 3 + 9 = 12 p.m. DE AE 20 AC + 12
Hence, [3].
AC
\ l (BC) = 20 × ...........(i)
13. Let A, B and C have Rs.6x, Rs.5x and Rs.4x AC + 12
respectively, removing Rs.150 from the total sum BE is the exterior angle bisector of D ABC.
\ 6x + 5x + 4x – 150 = 4950
BA AE 5 AC + 12
\ 6x + 5x + 4x = 4800 \ = Þ =
BC CE BC 12
\ x = 320
\ 1920 : 1600 : 1280 60
\ A’s share 1920 + 5 = 1925 \ l (BC) = ........(ii)
AC + 12
B’s share 1600 + 50 = 1650 From (i) and (ii),
C’s share 1280 + 95 = 1375
20 ´ AC 60
\ Ratio 1925 : 1650 : 1375 is 7 : 6 : 5. = Þ l (AC) = 3 cm
Hence, [4]. AC + 12 AC + 12
l (BC) = 4 cm
14. Let the cost of one pencil, one eraser and one sharpener
be Rs.p, Rs.e, Rs.s respectively 1
\ A( D ABE) = × BC × AE
\ 3p + 2e = 21 ......... (i) 2
4s + 3e = 25 ......... (ii) 1
2p + s = 14 ......... (iii) = × 4 × 15 = 30 cm 2
2
\ 5p + 5e + 5s = 60
Hence, [3].
\ 5(p + e + s) = 60
CET
17. Let the total prize money be Rs.2P. 21. The given expression can be approximated as:
2
æ R ö æ ö
\ Compound interest = Pç1 + ÷ - P 1 ç 1 1 ÷ -
1
è 100 ø 1 3 - ç (1296) 4 - (243) 5 ´ 1
3
´ (729) 1
÷ ¸ (125) 3
3 çç ÷÷
(81) 4
P´2´R è ø
and simple interest =
100
1 æ 1ö
2 = ´ 9 - ç6 - 3 ´ ÷ ´ 5
æ 100 + R ö 102 2PR 27 è 3ø
\ Pç ÷ – P = ×
è 100 ø 100 100
1 1 74
(100 + R) 2 – 100 2 = 204R = – 5 × 5 = – 25 = –
3 3 3
Þ R 2 + 200R = 204R
Hence, [3].
Þ R 2 = 4R
Þ R = 4% p.a. Hence, [2]. 22. The given expression can be approximated as:
æ2 1 4 ö 1
x1 ç ´ 729 – ¸ of 1 ´ 8 ÷ ´
18. Let x = è3 2 1 ø 5
x2
æ2 1 ö 1
æ 14 4 x1 ö 28 = ç ´ 729 – ¸ 4 ´ 8÷ ´
LCM ç ÷ è3 2 ø 5
ç 15 , 21 , x ÷ = 3
è 2 ø
æ 1 1 ö 1
LCM (14, 4, x 1 ) = 28 = 2 × 2 × 7 = ç 2 ´ 243 – ´ ´ 8÷ ´
è 2 4 ø 5
Þ x 1 = 28 or 14 or 7 or 4 or 2 or 1
and HCF (15, 21, x 2) = 3 1
Þ x 2 = 3 or 6 or 9 or 12 or ..... = (486 – 1) ×
5
Hence, [5].
1
= 485 × = 97
19. As two particular boys, a particular girl and a particular 5
teacher are in the committee, the selection of the Hence, [2].
other 4 people needs to be done from the remaining
boys, girls and teachers. 23. The given expression can be approximated as:
(10 - 4) 6
This can be done in C 4 = C 4 = 15 ways -
1
144 - 6 729 ´ ( 400) 2 + 3.5 of 4 × (4.5 of 6) – 576
Hence, [2].
1
= 12 – 3 × + 3.5 × 4 × 4.5 × 6 – 24
20
20. BC = 6 2 + 82 = 10 cm
3 7320 - 3 7317
m Ð AFC = 90° ( Q line joining the centre of the = 366 – = = = 365.8
circle and the midpoint of a chord is perpendicular 20 20 20
to the chord) Hence, [4].
In D BAC and D AFC,
24. The given expression can be approximated as:
m Ð BAC = m Ð AFC = 90°
3 1 1
m Ð BCA = m Ð ACF
(23 + 43 + 33 + 13 + 53 ) 2 ¸ (729) 3 + (243) 5
\ D BAC ~ D AFC
3 1 1
l(BC) l(AC) l(AC)
\ l(AC) = l(FC) = l(EC) - l(EF) = (13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + 53 ) 2 ¸ (93 ) 3 + (35 ) 5
3
Let the l (EF) = x
éæ 5 ´ 6 ö 2 ù 2 1
10 8 5 8 = êç ÷ ú ¸ 9 + 3 = (15) 3 × + 3
\ = Þ = êëè 2 ø úû 9
8 8- x 4 8- x
Þ 40 – 5x = 32 Þ 5x = 8 = 375 + 3 = 378
\ x = 1.6 cm. Hence, [2]. Hence, [4].
CET 500
= q + 63.5
25. The given expression can be approximated as: \ q + 63.5 = 73.5
\ q = 10
1 3 1
12 3
Hence, [3].
(3125) 5 - 1
+ 125 ´ (512) 9 + (216) 3
(81) 4 28. Ratio of the present ages of Anu and Winny is 4 : 3
1 i.e., 4 × 4 : 3 × 4 = 16 : 12
(256) 4 Ratio of the present ages of Supriya and John is 6 :
- 3 ¸ (4 + 8 ´ 3)
36 ¸ 6 15 and the ratio of the present ages of Anu and Supriya
is 16 : 6
\ The ratio of the ages of Anu, Winny, Supriya
12 and John are 16 : 12 : 6 : 15
5 - + 5´8 + 6
3 5 - 4 + 40 + 6 Let Supriya’s age be 6x;
= =
4 2 1
- 3 ¸ (12 ´ 3) - 3´ \ Amit’s age = 6x + 3 and Winny’s age = 12x
6 3 36
6x + 3 3
\ =
141 12x 4
141 12 \ x = 1
= 3 = ´ » 80.5
7 3 7 Hence, Amit’s age = 6(1) + 3 = 9 years.
12 Hence, [3].
Hence, [2].
29. If number ‘9’ is selected, number ‘0’ is excluded.
c
Hence, the remaining 4 numbers are chosen in 8C 4
26. B = Set of people who do not travel by bus.
ways = 70 ways.
T c = Set of people who do not travel by train.
If number ‘9’ is excluded, the subset of 5 numbers
Now, the given data can be expressed in the form
can be selected in 9C 5 ways = 126 ways.
of a Venn diagram as follows:
Hence, the total number of subsets is 70 + 126
= 196. Hence, [2].
30. We know that a3 + b 3 + c3 = 3abc,

if a + b + c = 0.
Here, a = 18, b = –44 and c = 26
i.e., 18 – 44 + 26 = 0
n(B c ) = 90; n(T c ) = 140 So the value of 18 3 – 44 3 + 26 3
n(B c U T c) = n(B c) + n(T c) – n(B c I T c ) is 3 × 18 × 44 × 26
which is divisible by 117, 143, 27 and 52. Hence, [4].
200 = 140 + 90 – n(B c I T c )
c c
\ n(B I T ) = 230 – 200 = 30 31. Let x be the cost price for bookseller
Hence, 30 people do not travel by either bus or train. \ x × 1.2 × 0.95 = 1938
Hence, [3]. Let y be the marked price for wholeseller
\ y × 0.85 = x
æ 1 ö 1938
27. 73.5 = ç14 + ´ 2 ÷ + 6 ÷ 3 × 52 + q – 6 × 2 + y × 0.85 = 1.2 ´ 0.95
è 4 ø
44 ÷ 4 1938
y = 1.2 ´ 0.95 ´ 0.85
1
= 14 + + 6 ÷ 3 × 52 + q – 6 × 2 + 44 ÷ 4
2 y = Rs.2000. Hence, [2].
1
= 14 + + 6 ÷ 3 × 25 + q – 6 × 2 + 11 32. The compound interest at every year also increases
2 proportionally (with respect to rate of interest)
1 Let the rate of interest be r.
= 14 + + 2 × 25 + q – 12 + 11
2 2
æ r ö
\ 1320 ç1 + ÷ = 1597.2
1 è 100 ø
= 14 + + 50 + q – 12 + 11
2
CET
2 2 4
æ r ö 1597.2 æ r ö 133.1 \ Quantity of solution in vessel A is 25 ×
ç1 + ÷ = Þ ç1 + ÷ = 5
è 100 ø 1320 è 100 ø 110
= 20 litres. Hence, [2].
2 2
æ r ö 12.1 æ r ö 121
ç1 + ÷ = Þ ç1 + ÷ =
è 100 ø 10 è 100 ø 100
35.
2 2
æ r ö æ 11 ö
ç1 + ÷ = ç ÷
è 100 ø è 10 ø
r 11 r 1
\ 1 + = \ =
100 10 100 10
r = 10% Let m Ð C = 2x°, Þ m Ð A = x° and m Ð B = 3x°.
\ rate of interest = 10% \ x + 2x + 3x = 180° Þ x = 30°
\ Interest for the first year is \ m Ð B = 90°and m Ð C = 60°
1320 \ D ABC is a right angled triangle.
= × 10 = 1200
11 1
\ A( D ABC) = × (AB) × (BC)
2
1200
\ Initial Sum = × 100 = Rs.12000
10 3 1
Now, AB = (AC) and BC = (AC)
Hence, [3]. 2 2
33. Let the rents paid by Raman and Aman be Rs.2x 1 3 1

\ A( D ABC) = × × × (AC) × (AC)
and Rs.3x respectively. 2 2 2
1.2 ´ 3x
\ Required ratio = = 18 : 11 3
1.1 ´ 2 x = × (AC) 2
8
Hence, [3].
Hence, [4].
34. Let the quantity of solution in vessel A be 25x litres.

36. 2a + 3b = 9 ---(i)
\ Quantity of water in the solution is 18x litres. 4a – b = 4 ---(ii)
Now after the removal of 5 litres of solution from
\ (i) + 3 × (ii) Þ a = 1.5 years
vessel A, the quantity of water becomes
\ b = 2 years.
18 æ 1ö \ a < b
= 18x – 5 × = 18 ç x - ÷ litres
25 è 5ø Hence, [2].
Also the new percentage of water in the solution
(after replacing 5 litres of solution with alcohol) is am a m-n a n -1 a m -1
54%. 37. = × =
bm bm-n b n -1 b m -1
æ 1ö
\ 25x × 54% = 18 ç x - ÷ am bm
è 5ø Þ =
m -1
a b m -1
54 æ 1ö a = b. Hence, [5].
\ 25x × = 18 ç x - ÷
100 è 5ø
38. a2 – 22a + 72 = 0.
27 æ 1ö \ a = 4 or 18
\ x × = 18 ç x - ÷
2 è 5ø b4 – 20b 2 + 64 = 0
\ (b 2 – 4)(b 2 – 16) = 0
3 1 \ b = ± 2 or b = ± 4
\ x = x –
4 5 \ a > b. Hence, [4].
4
\ x =
5
CET 500
39. Distance between stations ‘x’ and ‘y’ is

12 ´ 11 ´ 10 149
a = 24.5 × 4 × 60 = 14 × 7 × 60 = 5880 m. = 1 – =
18 ´ 17 ´ 16 204
Distance between stations ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is
(6.4 × 3 × 60) + (12.8 × 6 × 60) = 1152 + 4608 Hence, [5].
= 5760 m.
\ a > b. Hence, [1]. 44. Four marbles can be drawn out of 18 marbles in 18C 4
ways.
40. a 2 – 8a + 15 = 0 So, n(S) = 18C 4
Two white and two red marbles can be drawn in
Þ a = 3 or a = 5 3
C 2 × 4C 2 ways.
b2 < 4 Þ b = –2, –1, 0, 1 and 2
\ n(E) = 3C 2 × 4C 2
Þa > b
3
Hence, [1]. C 2 ´4 C 2
\ Required probability = 18
C4
41. There are 18 marbles and 3 marbles can be drawn
in 18C 3 ways. 3´6 1
So, n(S) = 18C 3 = = . Hence, [1].
18 ´ 17 ´ 16 ´ 15 170
None of the 3 marbles should be red so the 3 marbles 4´ 3´ 2´1
will be any of the remaining 3 colours.
This can be done in 14C 3 ways. 18
45. Four marbles can be drawn out of 18 marbles in C4
So, n(E) = 14C 3
ways.
14
C3 4 green marbles can be drawn in 5C 4 ways.
C3 4 blue marbles can be drawn in 6C 4 ways.
\ n(E) = 5C 4 + 6C 4
14 ´ 13 ´ 12 5
C4 + 6C4
14 ´ 13 ´ 12 91 \ Required probability =
= 3´ 2´1 = = 18
C4
18 ´ 17 ´ 16 18 ´ 17 ´ 16 204
3´ 2´1
5 + 15 1
= =
Hence, [2]. 18 ´ 17 ´ 16 ´ 15 153
4´ 3´ 2´1
42. There are 18 marbles and 3 marbles can be drawn Hence, [2].
in 18C 3 ways.
18
\ n(S) = C 3
46. We have three cases:
Exactly two marbles are green. This can be done in
5
C 2 × 13C 1 ways. If two red balls are drawn from box A then probability
\ n(E) = 5C 2 × 13C 1 2
C2 5
C2
that two balls drawn from box B = 5 ´
5 7
C 2 ´13 C1 C2 C2
C3
1 10 10
= × =
10 ´ 13 65 10 21 210
= =
18 ´ 17 ´ 16 408 Similarly, probability when two blue balls are drawn
3´ 2´1 from box A
Hence, [4].
3 3
C C 3 3 9
= 5 2 × 7 2 = × =
43. Three marbles can be drawn out of 18 marbles in C2 C2 10 21 210
18
C 3 ways.
\ n(S) = 18C 3 10 9 9
P(at least one is blue) = 1 – P(none is blue) \ Required probability = + =
210 210 210
12
C3 Hence, [3].
= 1 – 18
C3
47. Let the possibility of A and B hitting the target be
A and B respectively and the possibility of A and
CET
B not hitting the target be A and B respectively. \ n(E U F U G) = n(E) + n(F) + n(G) – n(E I G)
\ The required probability is –n(G I F) – n(E I F) + n(E I F I G).
100 = 30 + 50 + 40 – (p 1 + x) – (p 2 + x) –
= A B + BA + AB (p 3 + x) + x
= 0.8 × 0.5 + 0.2 × 0.5 + 0.8 × 0.5 \ 100 = 120 – (p 1 + p 2 + p 3 ) – 3x + x
= 0.9 = 120 – (x – 1) – 2x
Hence, [2]. Þ 21 = 3x Þ x = 7.
\ The probability that the student selected speaks
48. The sum of the scores is more than 9 only if two 7
all the three languages is
dice are thrown i.e., tail appears on the coin. 100
1 Hence, [2].
The probability of getting the tail is and that
2
1 DATA SUFFICIENCY
of getting a score more than 9 is .
6
1. From statement I we can only conclude that
1 1 1 m Ð AOB = 60°
\ The required probability is = × = .
2 6 12 \ Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Hence, [4]. From statement II we get,
1
49. Probability that A does not solve the problem m Ð AQO = m Ð ACB = m Ð AOB and
2
2 3 l (AO) = l (AB).
= 1 – =
5 5 \ Statement II alone is also not sufficient to answer
Similarly probability that B and C do not solve the the question.
By combining both the statements, it can be concluded
1 3
problem is and respectively that D AOB is an equilateral triangle. m Ð OBA
3 8
= 60° and m Ð OAB = 60°.
\ Probability that the problem is solved
3
= 1 – probability that the problem is not solved \ Area of D AOB = ´ (AB) 2
4
æ 3 1 3ö 37
= 1 – ç ´ ´ ÷ = 3
è5 3 8ø 40
\ ´ (AB) 2 = 25 3
4
Hence, [1].
(AB) 2 = 25 × 4
50. Let the number of students speaking all the three l (AB) = 10 units
languages be x.
Now, l (BC) = 10 3 units (30° - 60° - 90° triangle)
Let the number of students speaking only English
(E) and German (G) be p1. \ Area of D BOC
Only German and French (F) be p 2. = Area of D ABC – Area of D AOB
Only English and French be p 3.
1
Þ p1 + p2 + p3 = x – 1 = × 10 3 × 10 – 25 3
2
\ Both the statements are required to answer the
question. Hence, [3].
2. From statement I:
We cannot determine the probability of the students
travelling by both bus as well as train. Therefore,
we cannot determine the probability of the students
travelling by their own vehicle.
CET 500
\ Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. From statement I, h = 20 cm

From statement II: 2
The probability of students travelling by both bus \ 144 × 20 = r2 × h 1
as well as train is known but the probability of students
Þ r22 h1 = 2880 cm 3
travelling by train is unknown. Hence, we cannot
determine the probability of the students travelling Q The height of the cones is unknown, statement
by their own vehicle. I alone is not sufficient to answer question.
\ Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the From statement II, height of circular cylinder
question. = height of the cone
By combining I and II: \ h = h1
P(T U B) = P(T) + P(B) – P(T I B)
= 0.4 + 0.5 – 0.3 Using (i), r22 = 144 Þ r 2 = 12 cm
= 0.6
\ r 1 = 12 2 cm
\ Probability that the student travels by his/her own
vehicle \ The difference in the radii can be calculated.
= 1 – P(T U B) \ Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
= 1 – 0.6 = 0.4. Hence, [3]. question. Hence, [2].
3. Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the 5. From statement I,

question. let the two–digit number be 10x + y.
Using statement II we have,
One of the digits is a product of two prime numbers x 2
\ 3x = 2y Þ =
i.e., 6. y 3
Thus, the possible combinations of a, b and c are Two–digit numbers satisfying this condition are 23,
(2, 3, 6), (2, 5, 6), (2, 7, 6), (3, 5, 6), (3, 7, 6) 46 and 69.
and (5, 7, 6)
Q There is no unique answer, statement I alone is
Again, statement II alone is insufficient to answer
not sufficient to answer the question.
the question as the least possible composite divisor
From statement II,
can be 4 or 6.
the number is greater than 30 and less than 50.
Combining statements I and II, we have only one
combination of a, b, and c i.e., (5, 6, 7). Hence, [3]. \ Statement II alone is also insufficient.
Combining both the statements, it can be concluded
4. Let the radius and height of the circular cylinder be that the two–digit number is 46. Hence, [3].
‘r’ and ‘h’, respectively.
Let ‘r 1’ and ‘r 2 ’ be the radius of the two cones. 6. F is standing between C and D, so C, F, D or D,
Let ‘h 1’ be the height of the cones. F, C (in this order) are standing on one side of A
Now, volume of bigger cone = 2(volume of smaller and hence G, H and B are standing on the other
cone) side of A such that G is to the right of H.
1 1 Statement I: B is adjacent to E Þ E is either on
\ p r12 h 1 = 2 × p r22 h 1 the left or on the right of B. But from this statement
3 3
the question cannot be answered.
Þ r12 = 2 r22 Statement II: We do not get any information about
Also, the position of B, hence the answer cannot be
Volume of circular cylinder = volume of bigger cone determined. Combining statements, I and II, E is to
+ volume of smaller cone the right of B.
1 1
p r2h = p r12 h1 + p r22 h 1
3 3
2r22 h1 r 2h
r2h = + 2 1
3 3
r2h = r22 h 1
Þ (12) 2 × h = r22 h1 Þ 144h = r22 × h1 .... (i)

Hence, [3].
CET
7. Let the selling price be x. question. Hence, [1].

Statement I: We know that market price = 1.1x
The profit percentage cannot be determined with this 10. Statement I: Since 47x87 is divisible by 3, the sum
information. of digits = 4 + 7 + x + 8 + 7 = 26 + x is divisible
Statement II: by 3. Hence, x can be 1, 4 or 7. The statement
Cost price = 0.9x I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
x - 0.9 x 0.1x Statement II: x lies between 1 and 10. This statement
\ Percentage profit = × 100 = × 100 alone is not sufficient.
0.9 x 0.9 x
Combining both the statements, we get that x can
100 take values 4 or 7. However, we do not get a unique
= = 11.11 answer. Hence, [5].
9
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
11. From statement I:
Hence, [2]. The man in the photograph is either Anita’s husband
or her brother-in-law.
8. Statement I: \ Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
6, 8 and 10 form a Pythagorean triplet and hence question.
the triangle is a right angle triangle. From statement II:
\ Height of the triangle is either 6 units or 8 units We cannot determine the relationship of Natasha with
\ Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the Anita.
question. Statement II gives the same data as statement \ Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
I. Hence, [5]. the question.
Combining statements I and II,
it can be concluded that Anita has no brother-in-law.
9. If a , b are the roots of the quadratic equation,
\ Anita is the wife of the man in the photograph.
then x 2 – ( a + b )x + ab = 0 is the quadratic Hence, [3].
equation.
12. Neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the
a b 6
Statement I: b + = and a + b = –4 question.
a 5 Combining statements I and II,
if Rajesh is travelling towards North:
a 2 + b2 6
\ =
ab 5
(a + b)2 + 2ab 6
\ =
ab 5
(-4)2 - 2ab 6
\ =
ab 5 \ The shortest distance between Rajesh’s and his
\ 5 × (16 – 2 ab ) = 6 ab cousin’s house is 2 km. Hence, Rajesh could be travelling
towards North.
\ 16 × 5 = 16 ab If Rajesh is travelling towards South:
\ ab = 5
\ Quadratic equation is x 2 + 4x + 5 = 0
\ Statement I alone is sufficient the question to
answer.
Statement II :
a 2 + b 2 = 6, ab = 5,
\ The shortest distance = 8 km. Hence, Rajesh is
a 2 + b 2 = ( a + b ) 2 – 2 ab not travelling towards South.
If Rajesh is travelling towards East:
\ 6 = ( a + b ) 2 – 10
\ ( a + b ) 2 = 16
\ a + b = + 4
\ we do not have a specific quadratic equation.
\ Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
CET 500
\ The shortest distance > 4 km. Hence, Rajesh is Hence, a unique answer cannot be determined.
not travelling towards East. Hence, [5].
If Rajesh is travelling towards West:
15. Statement I and Statement II individually do not give
any specific relationship between the letters and their codes.
Combining statements I and II,
P Þ N, R Þ C, A Þ D, E Þ S, M Þ U,
I Þ T and G Þ I; but the code for the letter
O is not known. Hence, [5].
16. From the given data there are two possible arrangements
\ The shortest distance > 4 km. Hence, Rajesh is

not travelling towards West. Hence, [3].
13. ‘UNO’ < 1000 and ‘TRES’ < 10000

Þ ‘CINCO’ < 12000 Þ C º 1 and I º 0.
\ Statement I is redundant. Statement I: A is sitting to the immediate left of
Moreover, ‘T’ is either 8 or 9. H. So, A is sitting opposite to C.
2O + S ends in O.
\ Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
\ O + S ends in 0. Statement II: F is sitting to the immediate right of
From statement II, we have, O º 7 A and H and E are not equidistant from B.
\ So, the following are the possible arrangements
U47
+ U47
+ TRE3
10417
Þ E = 2
If U º 5 Þ R º 3
If U º 6 Þ R º 1
Hence, statement II does not give unique answer and
If U º 8 Þ R º 7 which are not possible is not sufficient to answer the question. Hence, [1].
Þ U º 9 and R º 5
\ The value of UNO can be found. Hence, [2]. 17. Statement I: We can deduce that Geeta can be Kunal’s
or Kaushal’s child. But no information on Raj is given.
14. From statement I: Statement II: We know that Kunal is Raj’s uncle,
B, D, E and F are females and F is A’s grandfather. but we cannot determine the relation between Raj
and Geeta.
But the relationship of D and F cannot be determined.
Considering both the statements together, we can say
\ Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
that Raj is Kaushal’s child. Hence, they could be siblings
From statement II: or cousins, but the exact relation is not known.
E or C may be B’s daughter. Hence, [5].
\ Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
question. 18. Statements I and II are not enough to answer the
By combining I and II, question individually. Hence, we consider both the
CET
statements together.
Let the number of 10 paise coins be x. 22. Using Statement I,
\ Number of 5 paise coins is 100 – x.
\ 10x + 5(100 – x) = 850.
Þ x = 70.
\ Number of 10 paise coins = 70 and number of
5 paise coins = 30. Hence, [3].
19. Statement I:
The first letter is coded with the next letter, second
letter is coded with the second letter which precedes
it and so on. So statement I alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
Statement II also follows the same logic as statement
I. Hence, [4].
\ The ratio in which solution A and solution B are
taken is 7 : 5
20. Statement I:
\ The answer cannot be obtained using only
Statement I.
Combining Statement I and II, the quantity of solution
A used can be calculated as 7x + 5x = 91.
Also, combining I and III, the quantity of Solution
A used can be calculated as 7x – 5x = 39.
Hence, [5].
23. Let the speed with which the guards walk be ‘x’ kmph.
Using statement I,
The relative speed of the guard in train A = (125
– x) kmph.
Thus, from statement I, we can infer that A is towards
As we do not know in what direction the guard in
southwest from his original position.
train B is walking, the question cannot be answered.
Statement II:
Using Statement II,
The relative speed of the guard in train B = (120
+ x) kmph.
As we do not know in what direction the guard in
train A is walking, the question cannot be answered.
Using Statement III,
Relative speed of guard in train A = (125 + x) kmph
From statement II, we can infer that A is towards Relative speed of guard in train B = (120 + x) kmph
south west. Hence, both statements can solve the \ Time taken by the guards to cross each other
problem independently. Hence, [4].
250
=
21. From statement I, (125 + x ) + (120 + x )
Center Table – Bed – Couch As the speed of the guard is not known, the time
We have no data about the Dining Table.
taken by them to cross each other cannot be
From statement II, we have the following arrangement,
determined.
Cupboard – Computer Trolley
Combining I and II,
Also the dining table is not placed close to the cupboard,
Time taken by the guards to cross each other
hence,
Cupboard – Computer Trolley – Dining Table 250 50
From statement III, we have, = = » 1.02 hours.
(125 - x ) + (120 + x ) 49
Couch – Cupboard
Hence, the answer can be determined. Hence, [5].
Combining the three statements together we get,
Center Table – Bed – Couch – Cupboard – Computer
24. Let A’s period for the investment be x, B’s period
Trolley
of investment be ‘y’ and C’s period of investment
The Dining Table could be next to the Center table
or Computer trolley. The exact position is not known.
Hence, [5].
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be ‘z’ \ a + d = 32
\ The ratio in which the profit’s are shared is \ B = 32
2 3 5 We can’t find the values of A and C.
× 25 × x : × 25 × y : × 25 × z = Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
10 10 10
the question.
a : b : c. From statement II and III alone also we can’t find
where a, b and c are the profit shares of A, B and the answer.
C respectively From statement I and II:
From statement I; b = c A × B × C = 31616
y 5 B = 32
\ 7.5y = 12.5z Þ = \ A × C = 988
z 3
(32 – d)(32 + d) = 988
\ Statement I gives the same information as
32 2 – d 2 = 988
statement II but both the statements individually
d2 = 36
cannot answer the question.
d = +6
From statement III, a = b – 10000
\ A = 26 and C = 38
5x a or A = 38 and C = 26
\ 7.5 y =
b - 10000 Hence I and II are not sufficient to answer the
Combining I and III or II and III question.
5x : 7.5y : 12.54 z º a : a + 10000 : a + 10000 From I and III:
As the value of ‘a’ is not known the question cannot 31680
be answered. Hence, [5]. (32 – d)(32 + d) =
32
32 2 – d 2 = 890
25. Neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the
d = +5.831
question.
\ A and C can’t be positive integers
Combining II and III
Hence I and III are not sufficient to answer the question.
l (OP) = cos 60° × 14 = 7 units. As data is insufficient. Hence, [5].
l (DP) = sin 60° × 14 = 7 3 units. 27. From statement I:

\ l (OQ) = 6 units 20 men and 10 women produces 2970 units in 6 days.
Consider D AOB and D COD \ Number of units produced by 20 men and 10 women
l (AB) is parallel to l (DC) 2970

in 1 hour = 9 ´ 6 = 55 ..... (i)
\ D AOB ~ D COD ( Q m Ð OAB = m Ð ABO)
But it is not sufficient to answer the question.
\ l (AO) = l (OB) From statement II:
\ l (AC) = l (BD) Number of units produced by 20 women and 16
\ ABCD is an isosceles trapezium 2640
machines in 1 hour = 6 ´ 4 = 110 ..... (ii)
l (AQ) = tan 60° × 6 = 6 3 units.
It is not sufficient to answer the question from
\ Area of ABCD = (6 3 + 7 3 ) × 13 statement III alone.
= 169 3 sq.units. Number of units produced by 15 men and 6 machines
1080
22 in 1 hour = 9 ´ 2 = 60 ..... (iii)
Area of the circle = × 196 = 616 sq.units
7
It is not sufficient to answer the question
\ The area of the shaded region can be found using Consider statement I and II together from equation (ii)
statements II and III combined. Hence, [2]. Number of units produced by 10 women and machine
26. From statement I: 110

in 1 hour = = 55 units ..... (iv)
Let A = a, B = a + d and C = a + 2d 2
\ A + B + C = 3a + 3d = 96 Add equation (i) and (iv)
\ Number of units produced by 20 men, 20 women
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and 8 machines in 1 hour = 55 + 55 = 110 units Consider statement I and II together

\ Number of units produced by 5 men, 5 women As AB || DC and D AOB is equilateral triangle.
Hence, ABCD is trapezium and its height can be
110
and 2 machines in 1 hour = units find out by adding heights of D AOB and D DOC.
4 Hence statement I and III together are also sufficient
Hence, we can find the number of days required for to answer the question. Hence, [5].
5 men, 5 women and 2 machines to complete 1980
units 31. From either I or II alone, unique positions of A and
1980 B cannot be determined. Combining I and III, we
\ No. of days required = 27.5 ´ 9 = 8. Hence, [1]. still cannot determine the exact location of A or
B. Combining I and II, we get that A will be in the
North-West direction with respect to B. Hence, [4].
28. For determining the time after which they all will
be at same place at same time we require their starting 32. From statements I and II we get ‘choose’ is coded
positions, direction in which they are running, their as ‘kartoon’. From statements II and III, we get,
respective speeds and length of the circular path. ‘the correct’ is coded ‘soma paha’ or ‘paha soma’.
Hence, statement I, II and III are combined required \ Code for option is ‘seeka’. Hence, [4].
to answer the question. Hence, [3].
33. The genders of the family members are not specified
29. Consider ‘m’ boys and ‘n’ girls participated in the in any of the statements i.e., data is insufficient.
tournament. Hence, [5].
From statement I:
mn = 144 34. From statements I and II, we do not get any information
From statement II: about O. From statements II and III, a unique position
m – n = 7 of O cannot be determined.
Hence, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer From statements I and III,
the question.
From statement III:
m + n = 25
Consider statements I and II,
then mn = 144 and m – n = 7
\ m = 16 and n = 9
Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
Consider statements II and III, i.e., N is the fourth person to the right of O.
m – n = 7 and m + n = 25 Hence, [4].
\ m = 16 and n = 9
Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question. 35. From statement III:
Hence, [5]. Ram celebrated his birthday on one of the days from
1 st to 7 th July.
30. From statement I: From statement II:
We don’t know that AB || DC without this we only Ram celebrated his birthday in the same month i.e.,
manage to find areas of D ODC and D AOB in July and on 6 th day after his actual date of birth.
Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient. Combining statements II and III:
From statement II: Ram’s birthday will be on the 1 st of July.
As m Ð OAB = 60° and AC is straight line passing Hence, [2].
throught O.
36. Akshay’s wife can be any one of four given.
Hence AB || DC ... (m Ð CAB = m Ð ACD = 60°)
From statement I: One possibility for Akshay’s wife
Also we can say that D AOB is equilateral triangle.
is omitted.
Hence ABCD is trapezium and can find height of
From statement II: Rahul is neihter Smita’s, nor Suman’s
trapezium by adding heights of D AOB and D ODC
husband. Using I, we can say Rahul’s wife is Komal.
Hence we can find A( ABCD)
If now used statement III, we know among Suman
Hence statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
and Smita, Smita is Akshay’s wife.
question.
All statements are required to answer the question.
From statement III:
Hence, [4].
We don’t know the height of D AOB
Hence statement III alone is not sufficient.
CET 500
40. From statement I, II or III alone we cannot find

37. All statement individually are not sufficient to answer the answer.
the questions. From statement I and II together,
From statement I, We can only conclude that Pooja’s house is not opposite
to Arvind’s house because Arvind’s house is not at
corner and Pooja’s house is at corner.
Hence statement I and II together are not sufficient
to answer the question.
From statement I and III together,
S/H S/H House of Vidya, Kamlesh and Sagar is not opposite
R to Arvind’s house but we don’t know about the
From statement I and II, remaining two houses.
From statement II and III together: Snehal’s house
G is opposite to Arvind’s house. Hence, [3].
P/G P/G
VISUAL REASONING
S/H S/H
R 1. The symbols, , , and l follows the pattern
we cannot answer the question. inverts 45°
From statement I and III, lower right ¾¾ ¾¾¾ ¾® upper right ¾¾ ¾ ¾
vertically
¾®
anticlockw ise
V upper left. The middle symbol first inverts laterally
and then vertically. Hence, [2].
P/G P/G
2. The middle symbol rotates 90° anticlockwise. The

corner symbol moves by one step clockwise and gets
S/H S/H one more outline. Hence, [1].
R
3. All the elements invert vertically and then laterally.
Thus, we can answer that Vinod is sitting between The characters arrange themselves in chronological
Prabhu and Gopal. order (A to Z) from left to right. Hence, [3].
From statement I and III we can say that Vinod is
sitting between Gopal and Prabhu. Hence, [3]. 4. The inner figure rotates in the anticlockwise direction
by 45°. The outer square shaped coil rotates in the
38. From statement I: We know that 49 students play clockwise direction by 180°. Hence, [2].
Cricket or Football.
For finding total students in the class we also required 5. One side of the polygon is reduced and alternate symbols
number of students playing Tennis only. are inverted laterally and the remaining symbols are
Hence statement I alone is not sufficient. inverted vertically. Hence, [4].
From statement II: We don’t know the number of
students playing exactly one game. Hence, statement 6. The entire block rotates clockwise by 90° and then
II alone is not sufficient. the elements move clockwise by one step.
From statement III: We don’t know the number of Hence, [3].
students playing exactly 2 and exactly 3 games. Hence
statement III alone is not sufficient. 7. The columns move one step ahead from left to right
From statement I and III together and then the first and the third rows swap positions.
Total students = 49 + 12 = 61 Hence, [2].
From statement II and III together
Total students = 7 + 5 + 49 = 61. Hence, [5]. 8. The symbols at the corners invert laterally, rotate
anticlockwise by 45° and then move anticlockwise
39. Any of the given statement alone is not sufficient
to answer the question. 1
by 1 step. The central symbol rotates by 180°.
From statement I and III: P is taller than R and 2
T and T is taller than U and Q also Q is taller than Hence, [5].
S and R. Hence, P is taller than R, T, U, Q and
S. Hence, P is tallest. 9. The shaded part of the middle figure moves clockwise
Hence, [4]. by two steps and the shaded part of the outer figure
moves clockwise by one step. Then the outer and
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the middle figures swap places. The inner figure rotates 20. In the series, two steps are followed. In the first
by 45°. Hence, [2]. step, arrows at positions 1, 3 and 5 move in the
following manner,
10. The corner elements invert vertically, then rotate 1 ® 5, 3 ® 1, 5 ® 3
clockwise by 45° and then swap positions with the Also, the arrows at positions 2 and 4 swap places.
diagonally opposite element. The middle elements In the second step, the arrows move upward by one
invert laterally, rotate anticlockwise by 45° and then step. Hence, [2].
the symbols move one step anticlockwise. The central
symbol rotates 90° clockwise. Hence, [1]. 21. The central figure rotates anticlockwise by 45°, 90°,
135°, 180°... and so on. The symbols in top left
and bottom right corners invert vertically in the
11. The shaded and the unshaded petals rotate 90° clock alternate steps. The symbols in top right and bottom
wise. The half shaded petal rotates 135° anticlockwise
left invert vertically in alternate step starting from
and the shaded part is unshaded. Hence, [1].
the second step. Hence, [4].
12. Elements in Row 1 and Row 3 rotate 90° clockwise
22. There are two steps followed alternately in the series,
and Row 2 elements rotate 90° anticlockwise.
in the first step two columns form a group and the
Hence, [2]. letters move one step in anticlockwise direction. In
the second step, the letters at the corners move in
13. The symbols on the left move to right, the upper
anticlockwise direction. Letters in the middle square
symbol rotates 90° clockwise and lower symbol rotates swap positions diagonally and the remaining letters
90° anticlockwise. The symbols on the right move
move in clockwise direction. Hence, [1].
to the opposite corner, the upper right symbol rotates
90° clockwise, lower right symbol 90° anticlockwise. 23. The logic is based upon shifting positions of the
Hence, [4].
elements. The elements move from centre ® top
right ® bottom right ® bottom left ® top left
14. The shaded portion moves two steps clockwise, the
® centre.
striped portion moves two steps anticlockwise. The
Option [1] follows the above logic. Hence, [1].
circle moves to the opposite triangle. Hence, [2].
24. The line and the dotted line rotate by 90° and 45°
15. The whole figure rotates 90° clockwise. Then the
in alternate steps and move in clockwise and
first,second,third and fourth elements move to
anticlockwise direction, respectively. Shaded part of
third,fourth,second and first positions, respectively. the circle moves diagonally and anticlockwise by one
Hence, [1].
step in alternate steps. The arrow moves in
anticlockwise direction and rotates by 45° anticlockwise
16. In every step the entire figure rotates anticlockwise in every step. Hence, [4].
by 90°, a line is added outside the square in the
anticlockwise direction and the shaded part of the
25. Two steps are followed alternately here, in one step,
figure moves one step ahead. Hence, [5]. one circle moves one step in anticlockwise direction
and the other circle inverts vertically and vice versa
17. The symbols move along the following path,
in the successive step. Hence, [2].
lower right ® lower left ® upper right ® upper
left. A new symbol is added at the lower right corner
26. The symbols in the top row rotate clockwise by 90°
in every step. In alternate steps, the shaded triangle
and those in the bottom row rotate anticlockwise
moves two steps clockwise and three steps by 90°. Then, the symbols move anticlockwise by
anticlockwise. Hence, [3].
one position in the first step and two positions in
the second step and so on. Hence, [1].
18. In each step, all the corner symbols move
anticlockwise by two steps and four steps alternately
27. In every step, each set of arrow moves one step
and all middle symbols move clockwise by two steps
anticlockwise. The arrows of each set rotate 90°
and four steps alternately. Hence, [4]. anticlockwise. After the rotation, the arrows in the
vertically aligned set move from left to right within
19. In the circle, the shaded sector and the adjoining
the set, and the arrows in the horizontally aligned set
dot move by one step in the clockwise direction. move from top to bottom within the set. Hence, [2].
The other shaded sector and its adjoining dot move
in the anticlockwise direction by one step. In each
28. In the first step, rows 1 and 2 swap positions and
step the outer symbols invert laterally and rotate in the second step, all the peripheral elements move
90° in the anticlockwise direction.
clockwise by 1 position. Hence, [2].
The symbols move along the following pattern:
Upper left ® lower right ® Upper right 29. The symbols in the corners move two steps clockwise
® lower left ® Upper left. Hence, [2]. and those in the middle move one step anticlockwise.
Except the symbols in the top right and bottom left
CET 500
every other symbol inverts laterally. In option [2] 38. In this series, two arcs and three arcs are added,
the top left symbol should be ‘ ’. Hence, [2]. alternately. Hence, [1].
30. The central symbol rotates 180° in the first step,

and rotates 90° clockwise in the next step. The other 39. The letters in the left column rotate 45°, 90°, 135°,
symbols follow two steps alternately. In the first step, 180° and 225° anticlockwise from top to bottom
the symbols invert laterally and the two middle row respectively and the letters in the right column take
symbols as well as column symbols swap positions. mirror and water image alternately. N doesn’t follow
In the second step, all the symbols move one step the trend in option [3]. Hence, [3].
clockwise. The symbol in the top middle position
should be ‘L’ in the figure 4. Hence, [4].
40. In the figure [X], the symbol in the small square
31. Symbols in each row swap positoin and then move takes mirror image and occupies the bottom left corner.
downward with the bottom symbols being in the top It takes water image and occupies the top right corner
most position. After that symbols in the second row and it flips about the diagonal joining the upper right
invert laterally while the symbols in the bottom row and lower left corners and occupies the bottom right
invert vertically. The top right symbols in [4] should corner. Hence, [3].
be ‘ ’. Hence, [4].
41. The top left, mid right and bottom left symbols take
32. The shaded portion inside the square moves one mirror images and the bottom right, mid left and
step anticlockwise.The arrow ‘ ’ and ‘ ’ moves top right symbols take water images. Each symbol
90° clockwise in each step and the arrow ‘ ’
moves 2 steps ahead in the clockwise direction.
moves 90° anticlockwise in each step. The symbol
‘ ’ moves one step clockwise in the first step Hence, [5].
and two steps clockwise in the second step. Also
the element ‘ ’ moves one step clockwise in alternate 42. In figure [X], the lines in each section on the left
steps. Hence, [5]. half rotate 45° clockwise to give the lines in the
respective sections on the right. Hence, [3].
33. If the arrowheads are numbered as follows.
43. The eight symbols in the left half of figure [X] move
in the following pattern to give right half:
bottom right ® third row left ® second row right
® top left ® top right ® second row left ®
third row right ® bottom left ® bottom right.
Hence, [3].
Each arrow head moves ahead by one step. Hence, [1]. 44. The symbols at odd and even positions take mirror
and water images respectively and then move in the
34. The arrows with arrowheads on both ends rotate following pattern:
anticlockwise by 90° and the arrows with arrow head First third sixth fifth second
on one end rotate anticlockwise in every alternating fourth first. Hence, [4].
block starting from block 3. But in figure 5, the
45. In the upper half,
arrow and b have swapped positions.
‘ ’ rotates 90° clockwise and takes the position
Hence, [5].
of ‘ ’
35. The number of circles increases by 2 and decreases ‘ ’ rotates 180° clockwise and takes the position
by 2 in alternate steps. Hence, [4]. of ‘ ’
‘ ’ rotates 270° clockwise and takes the position
36. An arrow is added in every step and the entire figure of ‘ ’
rotates 90° clockwise and inverts vertically. ‘ ’ rotates 360° clockwise and takes the position
Hence, [1]. of ‘ ’
After this the entire upper half reflects about the
37. In every step, a new symbol is added and a symbol diagonal to give the lower half. Hence, [2].
is removed. The symbol at the vertex moves to a
vertex two steps anticlockwise. Hence, [5].
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46. The Middle symbol inverts vertically. All corner symbols 55. The outer symbols invert vertically in every step
follow the pattern: and a new symbol is added in every step from the
Upper left ® Lower right ® Lower left ® Upper upper left corner. The pattern followed is
right. In option 2, the lower right symbol in the Upper left ® lower right ® lower left ® upper
left section inverts laterally in the right section. right
Hence, [2]. The shaded region in the outer square moves one
step clockwise, and the shaded region in the inner
47. The shaded sections in the left section move one square moves two steps clockwise. Hence, [2] and
step anticlockwise and shift to the bottom in the [3] should be interchanged. Hence, [2].
right section.
The figure at the bottom in the left section first 56. In the left half of each figure, the top symbol, the
inverts laterally, then vertically and moves to the bottom symbol, the second symbol on the left and
top in the right section. Hence, [2]. the first symbol on the right, each rotate 90o clockwise
and move one position ahead anticlockwise. The
remaining two symbols rotate 180o clockwise and move
48. The left section is inverted vertically and elements
one position ahead anticlockwise. These movements
in alternate positions swap. In option [4] ‘/’ does
give the right half in each figure. Hence, [4].
not invert vertically. Hence, [4].
57. In each figure, the symbols in the second and fourth
49. The outer figure of the top element on L.H.S divides rows in the left half move to the third and first
vertically then inverts laterally and shifts at the bottom rows in the right half respectively. The symbols in
on R.H.S. the first row in the left half interchange positions
The bottom element on L.H.S inverts laterally and and become the second row in the right half. The
rotates by 90° in the clockwise direction. Hence, [5]. third row symbols follow the same rule. Hence, [4].
50. In all the sets of figures the elements have three 58. The symbols at odd places take mirror images and
straight lines expect in figure number 4. Where ‘ ’ the symbols at even places take water images.
Hence, [3].
has four straight lines. So, the option [4] is the odd
man out. Hence, [4].
59. The shaded square in the outer figure moves one and
a half step clockwise and gets replaced by a shaded
51. In each step, symbols follow the pattern:
semicircle. The inner figure rotates 90° clockwise and
bottom right ® top left ® bottom left ® top the arrow heads get inverted. Hence, [3].
right ® top middle ® middle ® bottom right.
Hence, [4] and [5] should be interchanged. 60. The top symbol on the LHS takes water image, rotates
Hence, [4]. 45° clockwise and shifts at the bottom on RHS. The
bottom symbol on the LHS takes mirror image, rotates
52. The series follows two steps alternately. In the first 45° clockwise and shifts at the top on RHS.
step, all the symbols move one step clockwise, in Hence, [4].
the second step the corner symbols move two steps
anticlockwise and the middle symbols swap positions
with the symbol opposite to them. Hence, [5].
53. One of the shaded regions moves by 1, 2, 3 .......

steps anticlockwise and the other moves by 1, 2, 3
....... steps clockwise.
Hence, [2] and [3] should be interchanged. Hence, [2].
54. There are two steps followed in the above sequence.

All elements move two steps anticlockwise in the first
step and one step clockwise in the second step. Also,
the top two elements invert laterally in every step.
Hence, [4] and [5] should be interchanged. Hence, [4].
CET 500
LOGICAL REASONING - I Answers to questions 10 to 13:
The second and second last place visited can be A/

C or C/B respectively. If we consider L-A-T-B to
be the first four visited places then C will be the
From statement i), iii) and iv), A studies Electronics in College second last place visited. Hence we get the following
M. From statement iv) and i) we can conclude that G and combination: L A T B _ _ _ X C X. X could be
E study in the Computer stream and C and F study in the the place visited last or third last. In both cases P,
Electrical stream. Q and R will be visited consecutively.
From statement ii) and vi) we get B studies in college X and Hence, L cannot be visited first.
G is in college N. Therefore we get the following table. Now, if we consider that place C is visited second,
then the last four places visited will be ATBL.
Hence, the combination will be
X C X _ _ _ A T B L. Again P, Q and R will be
visited consecutively, hence temple P is visited first,
followed by Lake C and Fort X,
P C X Q Y R A T B L
Also, if places ATB were visited after temple P, we
can have the following combination.
P A T B Q Y R X C L.
The following combinations are possible
1-[1] 2-[2] 3-[3] 4-[2]
Engineers were sitting to the left of Doctors and Lawyers

were sitting to the right of Doctors.
As G was to the right of D and to the left of C, G has
to be an Engineer to the immediate left of C and I was
in the fourth place to the right of G,
hence, we have the following arrangement:
10 . Option 1: two Temples are visited consecutively, hence

incorrect.
Option 2 has a Fort which is visited second, hence
incorrect.
Option 4 has a Temple which is visited second, hence
incorrect.
Option 5 has a Fort which is visited second last,
hence, incorrect.
5. G was definitely an Engineer. Hence, [3]. Hence, [3].
6. E and D were definitely not sitting next to each other. 11-[4] 12-[1] 13-[4]
Hence, [4].
7. Options [1], [3] and [4] are not possible. Option
[2] may be true. Hence, [2]. From the given data we know the position of B i.e., in
team z.
8. If F, D and J were sitting together, then F must be
sitting to the immediate right of I. Hence, [4]. 14 . One of D, H, G is in team z along with B, hence
E and C cannot be in team z. As A is in team x,
9. I is sitting three places to the right of C. Hence, [1]. E and C are in team y. Hence, [2].
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 171

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24 . As her experience is not relevant, she is rejected.

15 . Hence, [2].
25 . As he satisfies all the given criteria, he is selected.

Hen ce, [1].
26 . As we do not have any data about the selection test,

Thus F has to be in team z. no decision can be taken. Hence, [3].
Hence, [2].
27 . The candidate satisfies all the criteria except (ii) but
16 . Since A is in team x, E and C are in team y, Therefore, has more than 70% in MBA and more than 1 year
F and G are in team x or team z. Hence, [4]. of relevant work experience. Hence, he can be referred
to the Manager-Operations. Hence, [4].
17 . If H is in team y, none of the given statements are
definitely false. Hence, [5].
18 . Mrs. Kapoor has been suffering for more than 6 years, When the input is fed into the machine, it compares the
hence (a) is false. Her age is more than 35 years, alternate elements.While comparing, the following rules are
hence (b) is false. As she suffers from back pain for observed.
8 hours a day, (e) is true. Also she has medical history i. If two words are compared, they get arranged in chro-
of psychological imbalance, hence (d) is true. She nological order of their last letters.
has been operated on more than three occassions, ii. If two numbers are compared, the numbers are arranged
but whether it was for herniated disk is not known. in descending order.
Hence, [4]. iii. If a number and a word are compared, the word precedes
the number.
19 . Anand Tiwari is suffering from herniated disk for
less than 5 years, hence (a) is true. He is less than 28 .
35 years old, hence (b) is true. He has been prescribed
antidepressants by his family doctor, hence (d) is true.
He suffers from back pain for more than 6 hours
a day, thus (e) is true. He has undergone three surgeries
for his back pain, but whether it was for herniated
disk is not known. Hence, [2]. Hence, [1].
20 . Neeta Joshi is more than 35 years of age, hence (b)

is false. She has been suffering from herniated disk 29 .
for more than 5 years, thus (a) is false. She has been
op erated for h ern iated d isk on more th an two
occassions, thus (c) is true. She suffers from back
pain for more than 6 hours a day, hence (e) is true.
Hence, [1].
21 . Ramiya is more than 35 years old, thus (b) is false.

Hence, [4].
She has been suffering from herniated disk for more
than 5 years, (a) is false. She suffers from back pain
30 . To find the last element, i.e. sixth in the output,
for more than 6 hours a day, (e) is true. Also she
it is sufficient to compare the second, fourth and
has a medical history of depression, hence (d) is true.
sixth elements from the input. Therefore ‘72’ and
Hence, [4].
‘like’ will interchange their position in the second
22 . Agnes has been suffering from herniated disk for less step and in the fourth step, ‘72’ and ‘tough’ will
than 5 years hence (a) is true. interchange their positions. Hence the last element
Her age is more than 35, hence (b) is false. is ‘72’. Hence, [5].
All the other conditions are false for her.
She should referred to Dr. Clive Rego. Hence, [3].
31.
23 . The candidate satisfies all the criteria except (iii)
as his age is more than 30 years but less than 32
years and he has more than 4 years of relevant work
experience. Hence, he is referred to the Managing
Director. Hence, [5].
Hence, [1].
172 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

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32 . From the answer of Q.29 we can see that the steps 40 . As the first digit is even and the last digit is odd
remain the same. Hence, [3]. the code for the number 23567891 is KF&J%U#W.
Hence, [1].
41 . As the first and the last digits are even, the code
We can see that the output has alternate words and numbers. for the number 2652390 is AJ&KF#&A. Hence, [2].
Each number is read from right to left and then arranged
in the output (from left tor right) in ascending order. Similarly, 42 . Seeta is the eighth from the left end of the row and
each word is read from right to left and arranged in the Neeta is three places to the left of Seeta hence Neeta
output (from left to right) in dictionary order. is on the fifth position from the left. Also, she stands
Now, each step comprises 4 sub-steps. at eleventh position from the right end. Hence, there
i. The last letters of all the words are compared and are 10 girls on Neeta's right and 4 girls on her left.
the word which would be the first in dictionary order Therefore there are 15 girls in all. Hence, [3].
is brought to the first position from left (or after
the number which was placed in order in an earlier 43 . A man walking South turns right walks some distance
step). and turns right again. So, he is now facing North.
ii. The number/word which was at this position is moved As the distance he walked after he last turned left
to the position of the word which replaced it. is not known, the man could be eitherto theSouth-
iii. The numbers are read from right to left and the smallest Wes t or West or N orth -West with respe cttothe
number is placed next to the word which was placed starting p oint. Hen ce, [5 ].
in order just before it.
iv. The number/word which was at this position is moved
44 .
to the position of the number which replaced it.
33 . The output has to be “THE 213 EVE 323 BAN 428

FOR 628” applying the logic explained. Hence, [3].
34 . The input would be “FOR 428 THE 323 EVE 628

BAN 213 FUR 527”. The output would be “THE
213 EVE 323 BAN 527 FOR 428 FUR 628”. Hence,
[5].
Since we do not know whether P is a male or a female,
we cannot determine how P is related to U.
35 . INPUT : FOR 428 THE 323 EVE 628 BAN 213 FUR 527 Hence, [5].
Step I: THE 213 FOR 323 EVE 628 BAN 428 FUR
527 45 . The Music Store is to the extreme right and to the
Step II: THE 213 EVE 323 FOR 628 BAN 428 FUR 527 immediate right of Men’s Boutique.
th As the McMickey’s Eatout is equidistant from the
\ 5 element from right is 628. Hence, [2].
Women’s Boutique and the Men’s Boutique, and the
36 . The words are already in order. Women’s Boutique is to the immediate left of the
The numbers can be put in order in the following steps. Gift Store, we get the following arrangement from
INP UT : 69 63 66 67 left to righ t.
Step I : 63 69 66 67 Women’s Boutique, Gift Store, McMickey’s Eatout,
Step II : 63 66 69 67 Shoe Store, Men’s Boutique, Music Store.
Step III : 63 66 67 69 Thus, Men’s Boutique is to the right of Shoe Store.
\ Output is generated in 3 steps. Hence, [2]. Hence, [4].
37 . As both the first and the last digits are odd, the code 46 . The words containing six letters are coded as follows:
for the number 3621589 is XJKW&UX. Hence, [2]. i. Each letter is coded as the letter next to it in
English alphabet.
38 . As the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, ii. Then first and second, third and fourth and fifth
the code for the number 5343678 is UFPFJ%&. and sixth letters interchange their positions.
Hence, [5]. \ P O E T R Y º P Q U F Z S.
Hence, [1].
39 . As both the first and last digits are even, the code
for the number 20398768 is UAF#U%JU. Hence, [1].
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 173

CET
47 . The word that is formed is TIMID, which means to

be fearful. ‘Timorous’ means fearful. Hence, [3]. 54 .
48 . The word formed is TAME. [1], [2], [4] and [5]
are synonyms of tame. [3] means wild. Hence, [3].
49 . P is A’s son and Q and R are A’s daughters. X, L,

B and I are in the third generation. So M is P’s
wife and X and L are their children. As Q is L’s
and B’s aunt, R is I’s and B’s mother and T is her
husband. So, we have the following:
Tomato and Cherry do not belong to the fruit category.
Hence, [5] is invalid combination. Hence, [4].
55 . The colour of blood is called ‘violet’. Hence, [3].
LOGICCAL REASONING - II
Hence, [2]. 1. Series: –1 1 4 9 18

Ist Difference: 2 3 5 9
50 . The Grass Palm is placed to the immediate right of II nd Difference: 1 2 4
the Snake plant, hence the Fern will be placed to i.e. 20 21 22
the immediate right of Grass Palm. Also, the Fern 3
\ The next term = 2 + 9 + 18 = 35.
is placed to the immediate left of Lemon Vine. Hence, Hence, [4].
we have the arrangement,
Lemon Vine - Fern - Grass Palm - Snake plant. 2. 22 – 1 = 3
Also, the Rubber plant is to the immediate right of 4 2 – 1 = 15
the Rose plant and the Sunflower plant is to the
6 2 – 1 = 35
immediate right of the Rubber plant. Hence, we have
8 2 – 1 = 63
the arrangement,
Sunflower plant - Rubber plant - Rose plant. 10 2 – 1 = 99
Therefore, we could have the following possibilities: Hence, [2].
Sunflower-Rubber plant-Rose-Lemon Vine-Fern-Grass Altenatively,
palm-Snake plant-Shoeflower OR The second difference of the series is 8.
Lemon Vine-Fern-Grass palm-Snake plant- Sunflower- 1
Rubber plant-Rose-Shoeflower 3. There are two series. The first series is 1, 1 + ,
1
Hence, the Fern plant is on the 4 th or the 7 th position
1 5 1 17 17 1 37
from the left. Hence, [4]. 2 + , + = , + = ,..... and the
2 2 3 6 6 4 12
51 . After arranging the letters alphabetically, we get, second series is the series of even numbers 2, 4, 6,
ABCEEGILNRT. Only E is in the same position. 8, ....... . Hence, [1].
Hence, [2].
4. The series is of the form n 2 – n, n 2 + n, ..... where
52 . OP, IL, PT and AC are the only 4 pairs. That satisfy
the given condition. Hence, [5]. n = 1, 2, 3, ........
\ The next term = n 2 + n = 8 2 + 8 = 72.
53 . The possible combinations are: Hence, [2].
Alternately,
There are two identical series placed alternately and
the second difference of the series is 8.
5. The series is of the form (–1) 2 + (0) 2, (0) 2 + (1) 2 ,

(1) 2 + (2) 2, ....... and so on. Hence, [5].
Hence, [1].
174 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

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6. The next term in the series is the sum of the previous I. X W Þ X > W. But according to the statements
three terms in the series. Hence the next term is X can be either greater or less or equal to W.
40 + 72 + 135 = 247. Hence, [2]. So I is not definitely true.
II. Y Z ÞY > Z
7. Series 3 11 25 45 71 103
First Difference 8 14 20 20 32 This is very clear from Y W and W Z, so
Second Difference 6 6 6 6 II definitely follows. Hence, [2].
\ The next term in the series is 103 + 38 = 141 17 . P Q Þ P = Q
Hence, [1].
R Q Þ R < Q
8. The difference between the terms in the series is R S Þ R < S
+4 and –1 alternately. I. P R Þ P > R, this clearly follows from
\ 3 + 4 = 7. Hence, [3]. P Q and R Q.
II. P S Þ P > S, this does not follow as P can
9. The difference between two successive terms in the
also be less than S.
series is in increasing power of two.
5 Hence, [1].
\ The next term is = 41 + 2 = 41 + 32 = 73
Hence, [4]. 18 . J K Þ J < K
10 . Th e differen ce between an y two su ccessive odd H I Þ H > I
positioned terms of the series is 14 and the difference J I Þ J = I
between any two successive even positioned terms I. K I Þ K = I
of the series is 10. This will follow only if J = K, but J can also
Hence, the seventh term should be 32 + 14 = 46. be less than K, wherein this will not follow so
Hence, [2]. I does not follow.
II. H J Þ H > J
11 . Each element of the series is the product of two
This will follow only if J > I, but if J = I, then
consecutive prime numbers.
H = J = I. So, II does not follow.
6 = 2 × 3
Hence, [4].
15 = 3 × 5
Hence, the fifth term should have been 13 × 11 19 . A B Þ A = B
= 143. Hence, [2].
C D Þ C > D
12 . The elements of the series are the sum of the squares B D Þ B < D
of two consecutive numbers I. C A Þ C > A, this will follow only if B
1st term = 1 2 + 2 2 = 5 ¹ D.
2nd term = 3 2 + 4 3 = 25 II. A C Þ A = C, this will follow only if
2 2
\ The third term should be 5 + 6 = 61. B = D and D = C. So either I or II follows.
13 . The elements of the series are one less than the square 20 . L M Þ L > M
of prime numbers starting from 2
L T Þ L < T
\ The fourth term should be 48. Hence, [2].
M N Þ M > N
14 . The difference between any two successive terms is I. N L Þ N < L, this clearly follows from
L M and M N.
1 13 1 4
. So the Fifth term should be + = . II. T M Þ T > M, this follows from L M
4 12 4 3
and L T.
15 . Each term of the series differs from the fibonacci
series starting from the second term by –1 or +1 æ1 + 2 2 + 2ö 11
21 . x = ç + ÷
in alternate terms. Hence, [1]. è 2 1 ø = 2
16 . X Y Þ X < Y æ2 - 2 1 - 2ö 1
y = ç + ÷ = -
Y W Þ Y > W è 1 2 ø 2
W Z Þ W > Z
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 175

CET
27 . The 23 rd element from the left is $, the 13 th element

11 11 æ -1 ö to its left is $, the 19 th element to its right is $.
x + xy
+ ç ÷
2 2 è 2 ø 11 Hence, [2].
\ x # y = = = -
y -1 2
2 28 . There are 4 symbols satisfying the given criteria viz.
5T$#7, 7M$$7, 5I$25 and 7N##7. Hence, [3].
Hence, [3].
29 . If all the numbers are ignored, then the resultant
sequence will be I#T$#M$$I#A#O#G$N$I$#N##A$
æ1 + 2 1 - 2 ö
22 . x = ç + ÷ = 1 The 4 th element to the left of the 9 th element to
è 2 2 ø
the right of the 14 th element to the left of the 7 th
æ2 - 2 2 + 2ö element from the right is A. Hence, [1].
y = ç + ÷ = 4
è 1 1 ø 30 . If all the numbers are ignored, the resultant sequence
\ (x + y) × (y – x) = (1 + 4) × (4 – 1) = 15 will be the one given in the above answer. In this
Hence, [4]. sequence, there are 4 letters that satisfy the given
criteria viz. T, M, G and A. Hence, [4].
1+2 2-2
A#B A@B 31 . Observing the given series, the difference between
2 ´ 1
23 . A?B ÷ A$B Þ 1- 2 2+2
= –3 × 0 = 0 the terms are 25 – 23 = 2 = (1 2 + 1), 31 – 25
= 6 = (2 2 + 2) and so on. Thus when we start from
2 1
5, the successive terms are 5 + (1 2 + 1) = 7, 7 +
Hence, [3]. (2 2 + 2) = 13 and so on. Hence, [2].
32 . Observing the given series, the difference between

æ B - AB B ö
24 . x = ç ´ ÷ the terms are the squares of prime numbers in an
è A A + AB ø increasing order. 110 – 106 = 4 = 2 2, 119 – 110
= 9 = 3 3 and so on.
æ2 - 6 2 ö 8
= ç ´ ÷ Similarly the elements that follow 357 in the series
è 3 3 + 6 ø = – 27 are 357 + 2 2 = 361, 361 + 3 2 = 370, 370 + 2 5 =
395 and so on. Hence, [5].
æ A - AB A ö
y = ç ´ ÷
è B B + AB ø 33 . Observing the given series, each term has a relation,
Tn+1 = T n × 1.5
æ3 - 6 3 ö 9 Given series is 6 = 4 × 1.5, 9 = 6 × 1.5, 13.5 =
= ç ´ ÷
è 2 2 + 6 ø = – 16 9 × 1.5 and so on.
\ x > y Thus the second series is 24, 24 × 1.5 = 36, 36
Hence, [2]. × 1.5 = 54, 81, 121.5, 182.75
Hence, [3].
16 27
25 . m = – ; n = – 34 . Observing the first series, we see that T2 = X 1 –
9 8 T1 where X1 is the highest one digit number.
m -16 -8 128 1 Similarly, T3 = X2 – T2 where X2 is the highest two
= × = > digit number and so on.
n 9 27 243 2
Hence in the second series, (b) will be 9 – 2 = 7.
n -27 -9 243 3
= × = > Hence, [4].
m 8 16 128 2
æ -16 27 ö 16 27 10n
–(m + n) = – ç - ÷ = + 35 . Observing the first series, we see that Tn+1 =
è 9 8 ø 9 8 Tn
371
= > 5 10 ´ 1
72 Thus in the second series, 2nd term will be
5
æ -27 16 ö -371 = 2.
(m + n) = ç - ÷
è 8 9 ø = 72 > –6. Hence, [5].
10 ´ 2
Similarly, the 3rd term will be = 10.
26 . In the given sequence, 5 vowels satisfy the given 2
Hence, [4].
criteria viz. 2I#, 7I#, 5A#, 2O# and 5I$. Hence, [4].
176 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (SAMPLE CET)

1. Age of A = 15 years. Since X is the father of A (son-in-law of Y's father),
Th erefore, ages of B and C are 6 and 9 years Y's sister B will be his daughter-in-law. Thus the
respectively. relationship between daughter in law (B) and the other
Ratio of ages of A : B : C = 5 : 2 : 3 man (Y) is that of brother and sister. Hence, [1].
Amount paid by C = Rs.12
9. Let the unknown be x.
(5 + 2 + 3)
Total amount paid for toy = × 12 = 40 8 8
3 Therefore: = = 1 Þ x = 4. Hence, [2].
2´x 2´4
Hence, [3].
2. The only word possible is DOWN. Hence, [1]. 10 . ‘Customization’ is opposite to ‘Standard’. Similarly,
‘Group’ is also opposite to ‘Individual’. Hence, [1].
3. The correct option is B because all the other words
can also be read backwards as proper words. 11 . Number of raw fruits = 10 + 7 = 17
The reverse of the words flow, draw, snap and trap Number of fruits taken = 6
are: wolf, ward, pans and part respectively. Total number of fruits = 50
The reverse of back is 'kcab' which is senseless. Probability that all the fruits taken out are raw
Hence, [2]. 17
C6
= 50 . Hence, [2].
4. The possible words are: ear, eat and era. Hence, [3]. C6
37
5. The map can be depicted by a figure drawn below: C10
B 12 . Probability that there are no ripened apples = 50
C10
Probability that there is exactly one ripened apple
37
N C9 ´ 13C1
= 50
C10
W E Therefore, probability that there are at least 2 ripened
apples = 1 – Probability of no ripened apple –
S 37
A C10
Probability of exactly one ripened apple. 1 – 50
So the direction is North-East. Hence, [3]. C10
6. Here P is represented by D , 37
C9 ´ 13
C1
L is represented by F – 50
. Hence, [4].
C10
A is represented by $
30
Y is represented by ! C8
13 . Probability that there are no ripe mangoes = 50
I is represented by o C8
D is represented by # 30 20
Therefore PAID is written as D $?# C7 ´ C1
Probability that there is one ripe mango = 50
Hence, [3]. C8
P r ob ab ility t h at th ere are 2 r ip e man goes =
7. The logic of the sequence is shown below:
30 20
02 + 12 + 2 =3 C6 ´ C2
12 + 22 + 3 =8 50
C8
22 + 32 + 4 =17
Therefore, probability that there are at most 2 ripe
32 + 42 + 5 =30
42 + 52 + 6 =47 30
C8 30
C7 ´ 20
C1 30
C6 ´ 20
C2
52 + 62 + 7 =69 mangoes = 50 + 50 + 50
C8 C8 C8
So the next term in the sequence is 69.
Hence, [1].
Hence, [1].
8. Let the man who gave the statement be X and the 14 . Number of fruits other than ripened apples = 37
man whom he spoke to be Y. 37
C13
From the given information, Son-in-law of Y's father Required probability = 50 . Hence, [3].
C13
(Say A) will be married to Y's sister (say B).
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 177

CET
15 . Number of ripened mangoes = 20 164 - 39

20 x =
C5 12
Required probability = 50 . Hence, [2]. 125
C5
= . Hence, [5].
12
16 . From the first figure to figure 3, each shape is increased
by one, then from figure 4 to the last figure it is 24 . Using the BODMAS rule,
decreased by one. When this sequence is followed, 7 × (10) ÷ 5 + 13 – 3x = 0
in figure 4, the zigzag shape is not decreased in size 7 × 2 + 13 – 3x = 0
by one. Hence, [4]. 14 + 13 – 3x = 0
17 . Each shape grows in the outward direction and the x = 9. Hence, [1].
outermost shape becomes the innermost, as it is proceeds
from first figure through figures 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 25 . Using BODMAS rule we have,
the last figure. In the figure 3 the square shape is 13 17
missing. Hence, it is the correct answer. Hence, [3]. (4 + x) ÷ (4 – x) + =
2 2
18 . The first shape rotates in anti-clockwise direction (4 + x) 13 17
and the second shape rotates in clockwise direction. (4 - x) = – 2 = 2
In 4 - the second shape has rotated in the anti-clockwise (4 + x)
direction instead of clockwise. Hence, [4].
(4 - x) = 2
19 . The lines rotate by 45° in anticlockwise direction 4
in each step. In 3 - the lines have rotated in the x = . Hence, [1].
3
clockwise direction. Hence, [3].
26 . What so ever it takes is incorrect usage. Thus, the
20 . In the given sequence, every alternate step the rhombus
changes its tilt from left to right and vice versa. sentence requires rephrasing. ‘Whatever it is taking
Every alternate step the + sign and X sign alternate. and whatever it took are incorrect idioms. Whatever
Thus option 4 is the correct answer since the rhombus it takes is the correct idiom and appropriately replaces
turns into a square. Hence, [4]. the phrase given in bold. Hence, [2].
21 . Using the BODMAS rule, the given equation can be 27 . No correction is required as the given idiom on its
simplified as head is correctly used in this sentence. In option
[3] it's is not a pronoun and it can't be used for game.
4 40 2 35
+ ÷ + = 0 Thus, option [3] is incorrect. Hence, [5].
x 3 3 2
4 35 28 . For the pretext and on pretext are incorrect usages.
+ 20 + = 0 The correct idiomatic usage is on the pretext of which
x 2
means a wrong reason given to justify a course of
4 75 action. Hence, [3].
–
x 2
29 . Career threatening is an adjective, which modifies
8
x = – . Hence, [3]. the word injury. It means such an injury which can
75 potentially end someone's career. Thus option [2]
22 . Using BODMAS the given equation can be written as is the correct answer. Threat of career and threatening
to career are incorrect usages as they are not adjectives.
20 Thus, options [1] and [3] are incorrect. Hence, [2].
15x + – 4 = 1
3
30 . Sin ce th e sen ten ce t alk s ab ou t the level of
20
15x = 5 – contamination, the verb used will be singular. Hence,
3 option [1] can be eliminated. The sentence will use
1 perfect tense since it compares the contamination
x = – . Hence, [3]. level of two years. Thus, option [3] can be eliminated.
9
has doubled for is incorrect usage. Therefore, option
23 . Using the BODMAS rule we have [2] can be eliminated.
63 25 5 The given sentence is correct and no change is required.
x + – – 12 = Hence, [5].
4 2 3
13 41 31 . 3 is followed by 6 so the numbers are added, the
x + = resultant is 9 which is a perfect square so it is subtracted
4 3
41 13 from the next number which is 8. Therefore, the
x = – resultant of the first row is 1.
3 4
4 is a perfect square so it is subtracted from 8 and
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CET 500
the absolute value obtained, i.e. 4 is subtracted from 36 . The figure in II is rotated through 90°, 180° and
7. The resultant of the second row is 3. 270° to give 3 figures in 1. Also, in 90° and 270°
The sum of the two resultants is 4 whose square root rotation, the shading is reversed. This pattern is
is 2. Hence, [2]. followed in 2. Hence, [2].
32 . 8 follows 4, which is a perfect square. Hence, the 37 . In the figure II the shape in figure I is inverted along
two numbers are subtracted and the absolute value the horizontal axis and joined to the original shape
4 is subtracted from 9, since 4 is a perfect square. after reversing the shading. This pattern is followed
The resultant of the first row is therefore 5. in option 3. Hence, [3].
The first two numbers in the second row are 2 and
38 . The second figure is obtained by rotating the shape
5. Using the first condition as 2 is a prime number;
on top by 90o and overlapping it with the lower
we get the resultant of the first operation as 2. Again,
figure. Option 4 follows this pattern. Hence, [4].
the first condition is applied and the quotient when
7 is divided by 2 i.e. 3, is taken as resultant of the 39 . The transitions that occur are as follows. The right
second row. and bottom shapes are replaced by the mirror images
Therefore the product of the resultants is 5 × 3 = 15 along vertical axis. The left shape goes to the centre
Hence, [2]. position. The shape on top rotates anticlockwise by
90o and goes to the left position. The shape at centre
33 . Modulus operation is performed on the numbers 11
goes to the top position and is replaced by its mirror
and 10 and the resultant is 1. The next number is
image along the horizontal axis. Hence, [5].
12. Hence, subtraction is done since 1 is a perfect
square, Therefore the resultant of the first row is 11. 40 . From figure I to figure II, the outer shape has one
In the second row 13 is odd and 14 is even. Therefore side more and the inner shape has one side less. Figure
addition is done and 27 is the resultant. The remainder 5 follows the same pattern. Hence, [5].
when 15 is divided by 27 is 15. Hence, the resultant
of the second row is 15. 41 . In figure II, in the first line, the two symbols have
Difference between the resultants of the two rows moved above / below the line with respect to figure
is 4. Hence, [1]. 1. In the second line as compared to the first line,
the symbols move to the other end of the line. In
34 . In the first row, the first two terms are even numbers the third line, the symbol on the left retains position
2 and 6, their difference is multiplied by 2. Hence, and the one on the right moves across the line. This
the resultant of 2 and 6 is 8. The next number is pattern is operated in option 4. Hence, [4].
10 which is also even. Therefore, difference between
8 and 10 is multiplied by 2 to obtain the resultant 42 . In figure II, all shapes are duplicated with their mirror
of first row as 4. images along the vertical axis. The shape in the centre
In the second row, the first term is 16 which is a perfect is not duplicated but reverses shade. This pattern is
square. Therefore, the resultant of the first operation repeated in option 5. Hence, [5].
will be the difference between 16 and 22 i.e. 6. 43 . Line 1 reverses direction and brought to third position.
6 and 30 are even numbers and hence their difference Line 2 reverses direction and goes to 4th position.
should be multiplied by 2. This gives the resultant Line 3 reverses direction and goes to first position.
of the second row as 48. Line 4 reverses direction and goes to second position.
The difference between the resultants of the two rows This pattern is repeated in first option. Hence, [1].
is 44.
Hence, the number that should be added to 44 to 44 . From figure I to II the top inner shape moves to
get 100 = 56. Hence, [4]. the lower position while the bottom outer shape moves
to the upper position. This pattern is repeated in
35 . In the first row, the resultant of the first two terms option 3. Hence, [3].
is the quotient obtained by dividing 15 by 3 i.e. 5.
In the next step, condition (iii) is applicable and the 45 . All groups of the design move one corner in the
numbers 5 and 32 are added. Therefore, we get the clockwise direction. From subfigure 1 to subfigure 2,
resultant of first row as 37. the bottom two designs add one item in transition.
In second row, since 1 is a perfect square, the difference The top right design changes its shape and one item
between 1 and 2 is taken i.e. 1. Again the same step gets reduced. This pattern is repeated in option 1.
is followed and the difference between 1 and 3 is Hence, [1].
taken. Therefore, the resultant of the second row
46 . The topic is about the political accomplishment of
is 2.
Senator Benn ett. The topic is introduced by the
The product of the resultant of the two rows is 74.
statement 4 as it gives the introduction of Senator
On dividing 74 by 4, we get the quotient as 18.
Bennett. The remaining statements describe the various
Hence, [3].
ach ievements of th e senator h ence; they will be
followed after it.
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After introduction of the topic, the author goes on Possible (x, y) pairs are (6, –4), (6, –2), (3, –4), (3, –2)
to n a me a few accomp lish men ts to ju stify th e Therefore, for every p air of (x, y), x > y.
'proactive' tag given to Senator Bennett. The sixth Hence, [1].
statement gives an example of the proactive nature
of the senator. Hence, it is has to follow the first 55 . From statement I: 4x + 3y = 20
sentence. From statement II: 9x + 8y = 50
The author mentions the two bills passed by the senator Solving both the equations we get y = 4 and x = 2
during his tenure in the second statement. The word Therefore y > x. Hence, [3].
firstly makes it easy for us to determine which of
the two reforms by the senator should come first.
56 .
Hence, the statement 5 should be the third sentence
of the passage to give it a logical sequence. Green
The second reform mentioned by the author should Cherries
Sour
come next. As statement 5 is the first reform, the mangoes
second reform is statement 3. Therefore, it should
be the fourth sentence.
Between statements 1 and 2 which are remaining,
the word yet suggests that the author is implying
a contrast from the content that was being talked
Conclusion I: From the Venn diagram we can see
about till now. Therefore, statement 2 seamlessly links
that some sour are green. Therefore, conclusion I
itself to the preceding context.
follows.
Thus, statement 4 is the first sentence. The correct
Conclusion II: From the Venn diagram we can see
sequence of statements is 4, 6, 5, 3, 2, 1. Hence, [4].
that no cherries are mangoes. Therefore, conclusion
47 . Statement 6 is the second sentence. Hence, [3]. II doesn't follow.
Hence, only conclusion I follows. Hence, [1].
48 . Statement 5 is the third sentence. Hence, [3].
49 . Statement 3 is the fourth sentence. Hence, [1]. 57 .

tiller
50 . Statement 2 is the fifth sentence. Hence, [1]. villagers
farms
51 . The numbers can be written as 1, 2.4, 4.5, 8, 16,
29. Their differences can be written as 1.4, 2.1, 3.5, farmers
8, 13. If 16 is replaced by 15 then the differences
are 1.4, 2.1, 3.5, 7, 14 which are multiples of 0.7
following a pattern 2,3,5,10,20. Thus 16 does not
belong to the series. Hence option 5 is the correct
Conclusion I: From the Venn diagram we can see
answer. Hence, [5].
that all farms are not villagers.
52 . The terms of the series are the squares of the terms of Hence, conclusion I doesn't follow.
the Fibonacci series i.e.0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,….where each Conclusion II: since all farmers are villagers, thus
term is the sum of the two terms just preceding it. conclusion II cannot follow.
Square of the above series is : 0,1,1,4,9,25,64,169,441 Hence, neither conclusion I not conclusion II follows.
Therefore 0,1,1,4,9,25,64,169,441 Hence, [5].
7 is not a part of the Fibonacci series. Therefore,
49 is the odd one out. Hence, [4].
58 . Brutal
Brutal
53 . From statement I, x 3 = 2197 Fatal
Fatal
x = 13.
From statement II, y 3 = 4913 Injury Instant Injury Instant
y is approximately equal to 16.
Therefore y > x. Hence, [3].
54 . From statement I: x 2 – 9x + 18 = 0
(x 2 – 6x – 3x + 18) = 0 From the Venn diagram we can see that either some
(x – 6)(x – 3) = 0 injuries are instant or no instant is injury.
x = 6 and 3 Hence, either conclusion I or conclusion II should
From statement II: y 2 + 6y + 8 = 0 follow. Hence, [3].
(y 2 + 4y + 2y + 8) = 0
(y+4)(y+2) =0
y = –4 and –2
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65 . In all the above figures one thing is common, i.e.

59 . the arrow is pointing from either a shaded circle to
Dragon blank circle or blank to shaded circle. Everywhere
Piegon
the pattern is similar in figure (i) and figure (ii) except
Birds
in option 3 where it is in the opposite direction.
Crow Hence, [3].
66 . We get an outcome, not have it. Therefore, option

[1] can be eliminated.
Conclusion I: From the Venn diagram we can conclude
Presently means in a short while, currently means
that some dragons are crows. Therefore, conclusion
at present. Thus option [2] can be eliminated.
I follows.
The second blank is preceded by are, therefore, the
Conclusion II: From the Venn diagram we can see
sentence should be in present tense. Hence option
that since no crows are pigeons , there would be some
[4] can be eliminated, which uses future tense.
birds which are not pigeons and that part would be
Don't like and currently getting are the phrases that
the part which is both bird and crow. Hence, conclusion
appropriately fill the 1st and 2nd blank respectively.
II follows.
Hence, [3].
Hence, both conclusions I and II follow. Hence, [4].
60 . 67 . We always rent an apartment, not hire it. Therefore,
top silk options [1] and [3] can be eliminated.
The second blank is followed by but also, which is
shirt premier always used in conjunction with not only.
Thus, option [4] can be eliminated.
Not only and rent are the phrases that appropriately
fill the 1st and 2nd blank respectively. Hence, [2].
Conclusion I: From the Venn diagram, we see that 68 . The second blank will have the verb in past perfect
there is a possibility that all premiers are silk and
tense because the event described in the sentence has
this would make statement I false. Therefore, conclusion
already happened in the past. Therefore, options [1]
I does not follow.
and [3] can be eliminated as they use simple past
Conclusion II: From the Venn diagram we see that
some tops are not shirt. Hence, conclusion II follows. tense.
Hence, only conclusion II follows. Hence, [2]. No sooner is always used in conjunction with than
but the sentence doesn't use than in the later part.
61 . In the figure (i) of every pair the arrow is connected Hence, option [2] can be eliminated.
to the white part of the figure. While in the figure The moment and had forgotten are the phrases that
(ii) the arrow is connected to black part of the figure. appropriately fill the 1st and 2nd blank respectively
In all the pairs this is common except in figure 2, and are grammatically correct. Hence, [4].
where arrows are not connected in that same pattern.
Hence, [2]. 69 . The statement is talking about a fear of poverty getting
worse if certain steps are not taken. The use of because
62 . In figures (i) there are 4 horizontal and 6 vertical is not appropriate as it is not pointing out to the
lines whereas in figure (ii) there are 6 horizontal and urgent needs of the steps to be taken. Thus, options
4 vertical lines. In option 2 the figure (i) has an [2] and [4] can be eliminated.
extra horizontal line and figure (ii) has an extra vertical The word lest is the most appropriate word in the
line. Hence, [2]. context of the passage as it is best captures the
63 . In the figures (i) and (ii), compare the number of double consequences of the immediate action not being taken.
headed and single headed arrows. In figure (i) and (ii) With the word lest the verb used should be in the
of 1, there is 1 double headed arrow, one single headed base form. Therefore option [3] is incorrect.
and one without any arrow-head. Similarly in other figures, Thus option [1] is the correct answer which uses the
we get the same result. In figure (i) of 2, there is 1 verb in subjunctive tense. Hence, [1].
double headed and two single headed arrows while in 70 . The construction in these kinds of sentences is the
figure (ii) of 2, there are 2 double headed and one single more…. the (verb in comparative degree). Hence, the
headed arrow. Since they don't match, therefore option construction should be the more one practices, the
option 2 is correct. Hence, [2]. easier it gets…
64 . In the figures above (i) and (ii) are all concentric This construction is followed in option [3]. All the
to each other except that in figure (ii), there are other options can be eliminated. Hence, [3].
two concentric objects and in (i) there are three. 71 . In the given series we can see that only W is the
In figure (ii) of 2, the inner pentagon is rotated and desired consonant that satisfies the given condition.
so they are no more concentric figure. Hence, [2]. Hence, [2].
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72 . The 11th term from the left is P. Now the 7th term Taking both the statements together, we have the
to the right of P is A. Hence, [5]. time (T) and the speed (S) to calculate the distance
(D) covered by the athlete, which is the circumference
73 . Numbers that appear at even position are 2, 3, 4, of the circular field.
5, 6, 7 and 8 Circumference = 2 p R, where R is the radius of the circle.
35 Hence, the radius can be determined. Hence, [5].
Average of these numbers = = 5. Hence, [3].
7 79 . Let the radius of circle A be r.
74 . Letters at a place that is a perfect square in the And the radius of circle B be R.
English alphabet are: A, D, I, P, Y. Statement I: Given R2 : r2 = 4 : 1. Therefore, R
The numbers in the alphanumeric series that are followed : r = 2 : 1
by these letters are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. Therefore, the value of the radii cannot be found.
Therefore, there are 5 such numbers. Hence, [3]. Hence, statement I alone is insufficient to solve the
problem.
75 . The elements that have been paired appear at prime Statement II: Given 2 p (R + r) = 12 p . Therefore,
positions in the given series. e.g ! and 1 appear at R + r = 6p
2nd and 3rd position respectively. ? should be replaced Therefore, the value of the radii cannot be found. Hence,
by the elements appearing at 17th and 19th position statement II alone is insufficient to solve the problem.
in the given series. Taking both the statements together, we have two
Thus the pair is LV. Hence, [4]. equations and two unknowns. Hence, the radii can
76 . Statement I: From the given data, the possible digits b e calcu lated accord in g ly. Th erefore, both the
statements together are sufficient to solve the problem.
in the number are 1, 3 and 5 or the number can
Hence, [5].
be 999. There are more than one possible numbers
with these digits: but only 315 is divisible by 7. 80 . Let the ages of the father, mother, son and daughter
Therefore, statement I alone is sufficient to answer be f, m, s and d.
the question. Given that, m – s = 20; f – d = 28
Statement II: From the given data, there could be Statement I: s – d = 2 Þ s = d + 2. From these
more than one possible numbers that are divisible equations, both m and f can be expressed in terms
by 5 and 7. Therefore, statement II alone is insufficient of d. Therefore, the difference between m and f can
to answer the question. Hence, [1]. be determined. Hence, statement I is sufficient to
solve the problem.
n Statement II: Statement II alone is not sufficient to
æ r ö
77 . The total amount after n years a = p ç 1 + ÷ ,where answer the question. Hence, [1].
è 100 ø
81 . Here the main series is 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, …….
p is the principal amount and r is the annual rate
The above series comes in the denominator of 12
of compound interest.
as shown below.
Statement I: Out of the 4 variables, values of two
variables, a and n are given. Therefore, there is one 12 12 12 12 12 12
..................,
, , , , , .
equation and two unknowns, which is insufficient to 12 10 8 6 4 2
solve the problem. 6 3
Therefore 1, , , 2, 3, 6. Hence, [5].
Hence, statement I alone is insufficient. 5 2
Statement II: From the data, a = 2p and n = 7.2 years.
82 . The series can be expressed in the following terms:
Substituting these values in the formula, we get,
1 × 2 + 3, 2 × 3 + 4, 3 × 4 + 5, 4 × 5 + 6, 5
7.2 × 6 + 7, ___ where the general term is n(n + 1)
æ r ö
2 = 1 ç1 + ÷ Therefore, the value of r can be + (n + 2) starting from n = 1.
è 100 ø
Therefore, the next term, which is the sixth term
determined. Hence, statement II alone is sufficient will be 6 × 7 + 8 = 50. Hence, [1].
to solve the problem. Hence, [2].
83 . The series is as follows:
78 . Statement I: Let the distance covered by the athlete 2 × 2 + 3 = 7
be D. Let his speed be S. 7 × 3 + 4 = 25
Therefore, D = 2(S). There are two unknowns and 25 × 4 + 5 = 105
1 equation. Therefore, statement I alone is insufficient 105 × 5 + 6 = 531
to solve the question. Therefore the answer is 531 × 6 + 7 = 3193.
Statement II: Let the time taken by the athlete be Hence, [1].
T and the distance covered be D.
Therefore, it is the same case as shown above. Hence, 84 . The series can be expressed as follows:
statement II alone is insufficient to solve the problem. 22 – 1, 42 – 1, 62 – 1, 82 – 1, 102 – 1,___
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Therefore, the next term is 122 – 1 = 143 89 . Number of Nokia mobiles sold = 425
Hence, [5]. The total number of mobiles sold = 425 + 200 +
300 + 150 + 125 = 325 = 1525
85 . 0 Therefore, the percentage of Nokia mobiles sold in
12 + 0 = 1
425
22 + 1 = 5 the total mobiles sold = × 100 = 27.87
3 2 + 5 = 14 1525
Hence, [1].
4 2 + 14 = 30
5 2 + 30 = 55 90 .
6 2 + 55 = 91 Company
Black & Colour Decimal value of
White Display Display the fraction
In the above series, the negative sign is placed before
Nokia 9 16 0.5625
every two consecutive terms.
Samsung 1 4 0.25
Therefore, the next term in the series would be equal
Karbonn 12 13 0.92
to –91. Hence, [3]. Micromax 7 8 0.875
Fly 2 3 0.67
86 . Number of Nokia black and white display mobiles
Onida 7 18 0.38
9
sold = 9 + 16 × 425 = 153
From the above table, it is evident that Micromax
Number of Samsung black and white display mobiles has the second highest value of the fraction of black
1 and white to coloured mobiles sold. And the number
sold = 1 + 4 × 200 = 40 of Micromax mobiles sold = 150. Hence, [3].
Number of Karbonn black and white display mobiles 91 . The passage describes that the growth of rupee against
12 dollar is not actually beneficial to the economy. This
sold = 12 + 13 × 300 = 144 can be inferred from many of the examples given
Number of Micromax black and white display mobiles in the passage. Statements 1 and 3 are true as seen
7 from the line in the passage 'Information Technology
sold = 7 + 8 × 150 = 70 as a sector received more than three-fourths of its
total revenue from exports in the fiscal 2009 and
Number of Fly black and white display mobiles sold textiles one-fifth, highlighting their dependence on
2 overseas earnings'. Therefore, option [5] is the correct
= 2 + 3 × 125 = 50 answer.
Number of Onida black and white display mobiles sold Statement 2 is not a direct consequence of strengthening
of rupee and therefore, is not correct.
7
= 7 + 18 × 325 = 91 Statement 4 is not mentioned in the passage, and
therefore can be ruled out. Hence, [5].
Therefore, Sum = 153 + 40 + 144 + 70 + 50 +
91 = 548. Hence, [3]. 92 . The passage says that there has been a tremendous
appreciation in the value of rupee against the dollar and
18 the Euro. This had reduced the exchange earned in export
87 . Number of Onida colour display mobiles sold = 7 + 18 of various goods. This is correctly mentioned in option
[3]. Therefore the correct answer is option [3].
× 325 = 234 Option [1] mentions that IT industry suffered a setback
Therefore, the total number of Onida colour display in 2009. This cannot be said as the reason for drop
mobiles sold is 234. Hence, [4]. in revenue. Therefore, option [1] is incorrect.
Option [2] is a distorted version of one of the facts
88 . Number of Nokia black and white display mobiles mentioned in the passage. Therefore, option [2] is
9 incorrect.
sold = 9 + 16 × 425 = 153 Options [4] and [5] are not mentioned in the passage.
4 Therefore, they are inchoice. Hence, [3].
Number of Samsung colour display mobiles sold = 1 + 4
93 . The last few lines of the passage say that in order
× 200 = 160 to stay in business the exporters should try to increase
Therefore, the ratio of number of black and white their export volume to make up for the reduced
display Nokia mobiles sold to the number of colour exchange prices obtained due to depreciation of the
display Samsung mobile sold = 153 : 160. dollar and the euro. Therefore, option 2 is the correct
Hence, [2]. answer.
Options 1, 3 and 4 are distortions of information
mentioned in the passage. Therefore, they are incorrect.
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Option 5 is not mentioned in the paragraph. Hence, The word scientific generalizes the entire spectrum
option 5 is incorrect. Hence, [2]. of developments. Therefore, option [5] is incorrect.
Hence, [1].
94 . ‘Augur’ means to foretell. Hence, [1].
100. The passage describes that the reforms have benefitted
95 . The meaning of the word volatile is random and
those farmers who have large lands or monetary
unsteady. Therefore the word having opposite meaning
resources. The condition of small farmers gets worse.
is steady.
The former are the ones having a large capital and
Uniform is not an antonym of volatile. Also, transient
are known as capitalist farmers. Therefore, option
and ephemeral mean impermanent. Senile means
[4] is the correct answer.
showing a decline or deterioration. Hence, [3].
The words business and industrious don't fit in the
96 . The opening senten ce mentions abou t th e ru ral context of the passage. Thus, options [1] and [3]
development and its reforms. And the later part of are incorrect.
the passage deals with the farmers. The reforms must The word socialist is contradictory to the idea mentioned
therefore refer to agriculture. Thus the correct word in the passage. Thus, option [2] is incorrect. Option
is agrarian. [5] refers to the problems mentioned in the passage
The other words economical, psychological and urban and has got no relation with the farmers. Thus, option
fit grammatically with the word reform but do not [5] is incorrect. Hence, [4].
fit in the context of the passage. Thus, options [1],
101. In the passage, the writer says that Professor Kay
[2] and [4] are incorrect.
has suggested a new policy which will benefit the
The word rural is partially correct but the passage
development of all classes of people. The writer
is more concerned with the farmers rather than rural
is however sceptical whether the government will
people. Thus, option [5] is less suitable than option
give its nod to implement the policy or not. The
[3]. Hence, [3].
writer is therefore primarily concerned with the
97 . The passage discusses the dynamic changes that were govern men t's official ap p roval. Th u s, the word
introduced after the democracy was brought back from permit is most appropriate. Therefore the correct
the clutches of the military as stated in the latter answer is option [4].
part. Hence, the correct word is restoration. The words grant and consider are inappropriate in
The words onset and start symbolize beginning which the given context as these words do not convey the
goes against the context of the passage. Thus, options same meaning as the passage intends to convey.
[1] and [2] are incorrect. Therefore, options [1] and [5] are incorrect.
The words restart and reset are used for machines The word hinder goes against the information given
and vehicles. Thus options [3] and [5] are incorrect. in the passage as the writer's outlook doesn't indicate
Hence, [4]. that the government is supportive enough. Thus,
option [2] is incorrect.
98 . The passage indicates the exhaustion of resources such The word direct is used to control an initiative taken
as minerals as a result of industrialization. These are by a person and hence, the word doesn't fit in the
referred as natural resources. Thus the word natural given context. Thus, option [3] is incorrect.
suits the best for the blank. Therefore, option 4 is Hence, [4].
the correct answer.
The words Economic, Monetary and Physical cannot 102. The writer indicates that there has been a review
come before minerals. Thus, options [1], [3] and [5] of the various outcomes of the reforms mentioned
are incorrect. in th e p a ssag e. Th es e p rima rily in clu de t he
The word artificial contradicts the context of the shortcomings and advantages of the system. The word
passage. Thus, option [2] is incorrect. Hence, [4]. ach ievements correctly fits in the given context.
Therefore, the correct answer is option [2].
99 . The passage describes how there has been progress The words drawbacks and shortcomings go in parallel
in Chile only on the basis of irrational use of resources. with the word limitations. Therefore options [1] and
Moreover, the blank has the word ‘sustainable’ before [5] are incorrect.
it and follows the word advancement; therefore, the The usage of the word successes makes the sentence
word ecological is most appropriate. Therefore, option ambiguous. Thus, option [3] is incorrect.
[1] is the correct answer. The word fortunes refers to monetary benefits which
The word environmental is referred to as a problem is not the issue discussed. Thus, option [4] is incorrect.
in the next line and do not fit in the given context. Hence, [2].
Therefore, option [3] is incorrect.
The word economical is partially correct but since 103. The passage discusses the revival of democracy from
the word advancement is used, the word technological the clutches of the dictators. From the information
suits the context of passage better. Therefore, option given in the passage these dictators are basically the
[2] is incorrect. armed forces which is military. Therefore the correct
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answer is option [1]. II. Q/N º Q > N

The word defence is a noun and it cannot be used L < Q º Q > L ? Q > M, since L = M.
to describe dictatorship. Thus, option [2] is incorrect. Also, M > N. Therefore, Q > N
The word monarch is again a noun and the blank Therefore, both conclusion I and II are possible.
given needs to be filled by an adjective. Thus, option Hence, [4].
[3] is incorrect.
109. From the statements: A > Q, Q = S and S < T
The words ancient and Roman make the sentence
Conclusions:
ambiguous. Thus, options [4] and [5] are incorrect.
I. A + T º A > T
Hence, [1].
From the statements, A > Q º A > S since Q =
104. The passage concludes by discussing the various effects S. Also S < T º T > S. We cannot conclude a relation
of the industrialization and liberalization in Chile. These between A and T based on the information given.
could give rise to various issues which the government II. A/S º A > S
will have to tackle effectively. The appropriate word As shown above, it can be concluded.
which will fit in this blank is challenges. Therefore Therefore, only conclusion II is possible.
the correct answer is option [4]. Hence, [2].
The words threats and dangers are indicative of a
110. From the statements: E < F, F < G and G = H
harmful adversary which is not the intended meaning
Conclusions:
here. Thus, options [1] and [5] are incorrect.
I. E – H º E < H
The word s pro blems and d ifficu lties are n ot as
From the statements, F < G and G = H, F < H Since,
appropriate in the context of the passage as the word
E < F, we can conclude that E < H.
challenges. Thus, options [2] and [3] are incorrect.
II. F * H º F < H
Hence, [4].
As shown above, it can be concluded.
105. The passage describes the effects of liberalization and Therefore, both conclusions I and II are possible.
globalization on Chile's economic affairs. Therefore Hence, [4].
the correct word used in this context is economy.
Therefore the correct answer is option [3].
All the other options are ruled out as they are not Comparing the last statement of Mr. Chaue with his
appropriate in the context of the passage. Hence, [3]. first and second statements, the only word common
between the three is ‘you’ and the word ‘ma’ is common
106. From the statements: A > B, C > D and B < D
in its translations.
Conclusions:
So, ‘you’ º ‘ma’ and ‘Thank’ º ‘mushi’.
I. C + B º C > B
Comparing the first three statements, the only words
Since C > D and B < D, we can conclude that C > B.
common are ‘our’ and ‘group’, also the only words
II. A + C º A > C
common in their translation are ‘dupt’ and ‘mau’.
As shown above, A, C, D > B. From the statements,
So, ‘our’ º ‘dupt’/ ‘mau’ and ‘group’ º ‘mau’/ ‘dupt’.
the relation between C and D can be concluded but
Comparing the first two statements, the only words
not between A and C.
common are ‘appreciate’ and ‘have’, the only words
Therefore, only I is a possible conclusion. Hence, [1].
common in their translations are ‘quaeet’ and ‘kin’.
107. From the statements: E < F, F > G and G < H So, ‘appreciate’ º ‘quaeet’/ ‘kin’ and have º ‘kin’/
Conclusions: ‘quaeet’.
I. H – F º H < F Comparing the second and third statements, the only
From the statements, H, F > G. With this information word s common are ‘th e’ an d ‘work’, also their
alone, we cannot conclude the relation between H translations have the words ‘kaim’ and ‘pia’.
and F. But, ‘the’ º ‘pia’ so ‘work’ º ‘kaim’.
II. F * H º F < H In the second statement, ‘I’ º ‘tua’ and ‘done’ º ‘fin’
Hence from conclusion II aone, we cannot conclude so, ‘for’ º ‘mar’.
the relation between H and F. 111-[3] 112-[2] 113-[1]
As both F and H are greater than G, hence F < H
114. The words ‘dupt’ and ‘mau’ are the translations of
or F > H is true.
either ‘our’ or ‘group’. So, have º kin and hence
Hence statement I or II is definetely true.
appreciate º quaeet. Hence, [1].
Hence, [3].
115. ‘mau’ can be either ‘group’ or ‘our’. Hence, [5].
108. From the statements: M > N, L < Q and M = L
Conclusions: 116. SOBERING means feeling serious or marked by gravity
I. M * Q º M < Q or thinking about serious matters. Thus, option [2]
From the statements, L < Q and M = L, we can is the correct answer.
conclude that M < Q Dangerous or difficult cannot be used in place of
sobering. These words will not fit in the given context.
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Hence, options [1] and [4] can be eliminated. Option [4] is given verbatim in the passage. Hence,
Arduous means some work that is done with great we can say that cross country regressions are used
difficulty. It does not mean the same as sobering. to assess the effectiveness of a policy.
Therefore, answer option [3] can also be eliminated. Option [5] is incorrect as the passage says that IMF
Jocular means characterized by good sense of humour. has made a non conformist estimate of the economic
Hence, [2]. growth of India. Hence, [4].
117. LACKLUSTRE means lack of brilliance and being 123. According to the passage answer option [3] is false
dull in appearance. In the context of the passage as the passages states public expenditure on health,
it means without energy or vitality. Thus, lifeless education and research are clearly vital to rev up
is the most appropriate word among the words given growth and sustain living stand ards in the long term.
in the passage. Thus, option [1] is the correct answer. Thus, option [3] is the correct answer.
Other options are not appropriate to replace the word Option [1] is true as the passage states that the
lacklustre in the passage. Hence, [1]. accumulation of social and physical overhead capital
is important for growth. Option [2] is true from the
118. DISTORTION means to change something from its
statement Also, macroeconomic policy aiming at
usual, original, natural or intended meaning. Thus,
stable, low inflation and sound public finances,
the word deformation is closest in meaning to the
generally speaking, result in better growth performance.
given word. Hence, option [4] is the correct answer.
Op tion [4 ] is tru e from th e statement For an
EDIT, SQUEEZE, BREAK and DELETE are related
increa singly-globa lising econo my, the lacklustre
to change but they cannot replace the word in the
external environment would tend to dampen investor
given passage. Hence, these options can be eliminated.
sentiments and keep expectations range-bound.
Hence, [4].
Option [5] is correct as it is mentioned in the passage
119. SANGUINE means 'positive and hopeful'. Thus, option that the year on growth could be a statistical mirage.
[2] is the correct answer as PESSIMIST means to Hence, [3].
think negatively.
124. The statement after all, the objective of policy initiatives
Option [1] is the synonym of sanguine. Option [3]
is to arrive at outcomes, for instance, of correcting
is an emotion and not the correct opposite of the
market failure via more efficient market design' supports
word sanguine. Option [4] is clearly the opposite of
option [4].
the word perfect. Option [4] is a synonym of a close
Other options only give examples of the objective
word sanguinary. Hence, [2].
of the policy initiatives but do not cover the entire
120. REGRESSION means to return to a previous and objective of the policy initiatives. Therefore, these
less advanced or worse state, cond ition or way of options are not correct.
behaving. Thus, option [3] is the correct answer as Option [5] is too general and it is not the correct
it means to move forward and progress. answer. Hence, [4].
Option 4 is not the correct opposite of the word
125. The author mentions that the growth decelerated the
regression as upwards is not appropriate in the context
previous year and the base effect would show the growth
of the passage. Option [1] is the synonym of the
of the current economic year much higher in terms
word regression. Option [2] is a physical phenomenon
of percentage increase over the previous year than
and is not appropriate.
it actually is. Therefore, option [3] is the correct answer.
Repugnance means extreme dislike or aversion and
Option [1] is incorrect as it is not mentioned that
is not the correct answer. Hence, [3].
the estimation of the International Monetary fund is
121. INFLATION means price rise. Thus, deflation which the reason for projected growth to be a statistical mirage.
means a fall in price is the correct answer. Therefore, Option [2] is a distortion of a fact mentioned in
option [3] is the correct answer. the passage about certain non export related business
All the other options can be eliminated. Hence, [3]. getting the benefit of export related business. However,
this alone cannot be held responsible for the growth
122. Option [1] is negated at the beginning of the passage being a statistical mirage.
in the lines long before the policy pundits ideated Option [4] is not mentioned in the passage and can
on economic growth and convergence in the community be ruled out.
of nations. Thus, option 1 is incorrect. Option [5] is an unrelated statement and cannot be
Option [2] is negated in lines stud ies do suggest that the answer. Hence, [3].
policy and institutions affect the level of efficiency
with which resources are allocated economy-wide. 126. In the figure (i) and (ii) of all the figures except
Thus, option [2] is incorrect. 5, the objects used are same except that the arrangement
The passage clearly states that inflation cannot be differs. In [5] the objects used are different from
used as an indicator of performance. Thus, option others. Hence, [5].
[3] is incorrect.
186 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

CET 500
127. Figure (i) is rotated 180 degrees to get figure (ii) 137. Total number of goals scored in all the matches
in all options. In Option [4] both figures are the involving Liverpool in season 4 = 55 + 65 = 120.
same. Hence, [4]. Total number of goals scored in season 4 = 2010.
128. In all options, either one or both arrows change 120
Therefore, the required percentage = × 100
direction. In option [4] both arrows show no change. 2010
Hence, [4]. = approximately 6%. Hence, [2].
129. From figure i to figure ii, the shaded circles move

by 1 position in the clockwise direction and one shaded 138.
Man City Man City Goal
circle is added. This pattern is not followed in option Season
(GF) (GA) Difference
[3]. Hence, [3].
Season 1 60 30 30
130. In the figure (i) and (ii) of all the figures except Season 2 65 25 40
5, the objects used are same except that the arrangement Season 3 45 35 10
differs. In 5 one of the objects used is different from Season 4 60 20 40
others. Hence, [5]. Season 5 75 30 45
131. Event A mentions the property prices increase in Season 6 60 40 20
Mumbai; this can be an effect of various causes. Season 7 75 25 50
Event B mentions that the pace of the industrial
growth is increasing, and this can be an effect of From the above table, it is evident that the goal
some other cause. difference is maximum in season 7. Hence, [3].
Thus, both the statements are effects of independent
causes. Hence, [4]. 139. From the given information, the goals that Manchester
City scored against Liverpool cannot be determined
132. Statement A mentions the agreement between the for any season. Hence, [5].
two banks. Statement B mentions that the collaboration
committee of Bank Y is su rveyin g th e p resen t 140. The goal difference of Liverpool in season 4
operations in industrial credit. Clearly statement A = 65 – 55 = 10
is the cause of statement B as the committee is studying The goal difference of Man City in season 4
the operations on industrial credit, related to which = 60 – 20 = 40
the agreement was signed. Hence, [1]. Therefore, ratio of goal difference of Man City to
Liverpool in season 4 = 40:10 = 4:1. Hence, [2].
133. Statement B mentions the fact that IITs offers the
best engineering education in the country. Statement 141. Fr om t h e g iven in form atio n , we can h ave an
A is clearly an effect of statement B as it mentions arrangement as follows:
_ S _ _ _ _ A P
that the best brains in the country are keen on going
B sits next to both Q and R only when B is in between
to IITs. Statement B mentions this reason. Therefore
Q and R and they sit together.
A is the effect of statement B. Hence, [2].
Therefore, none of Q, B and R can sit at the right
134. Statement A is an effect of statement B as it mentions end. And, C doesn't sit at the end. Hence, D is sitting
that private laboratories are witnessing a large rush at the rightmost end.
of patients for tests, this is clearly due to the reason DS _ _ _ _ A P
mentioned in statement B. Since Q, B and R sit together, C can take only two
Therefore, statement B is the cause of statement A. possible seats - beside A or beside S. But, C is not
sitting beside A. Therefore, C is beside S. Since R
Hence, [2].
is not beside C, Q will be sitting beside C. Hence,
135. The first statement mentions a fact stating a scientist's the actual arrangement will be
approximation when cure of cancer will be available. D S C Q B R A P
Statement B mentions another fact that scientists Therefore, D is sitting at the other end. Hence, [1].
are now trying to use bacteria for finding the anti 142. As shown above, the arrangement is as given below
body for cancer. These are effects of two independent D S C Q B R A P
causes. Hence, [4]. Hence, [5].
136. Number of goals scored by Man City in season 1 = 60 143. As shown above, the arrangement is as given below
Number of goals scored by Man City in season 2 D S C Q B R A P
= 65 Hence, B is sitting on the right to Q. Hence, [3].
Increase in the number of goals scored = 65 – 60 = 5
144. As shown above, the arrangement is as given below
5 D S C Q B R A P
Therefore, percent increase = × 100 = 8.33
60 Hence, [5].
Hence, [4].
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 187

CET
145. As shown above, the arrangement is as given below 151. For D-2 we have the data tabulated below.
D S C Q B R A P Number of
Hence, [4]. States community
halls(in 000s)
146. Statement I alone and II alone are not sufficient to
Maharashtra 1
answer the question.
Assam 0.9
Taking both the statements together we can say that
S stands for O and K stands for D. Kerala 0.8
Therefore, Z stands for R and F stands for C. Haryana 0.9
Hence ZSFK is the code for ROCK in the given code West Bengal 1
language. Hence, [5]. Madhya Pradesh 0.9
147. Statement I: The man is the son of the women's From the table above, it is evident that the total
mother. This implies that the man is woman's brother. number of community halls built in all the states
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. during 1981-1990 = 5500. Hence, [4].
Statement II: Man's son is her first nephew. Therefore,
the man or his wife could be a sibling to the woman. 152. The number of schools built in West Bengal during
Hence, statement II alone is insufficient to answer 1981-1990 = 670
the question. Hence, [1]. The number of schools built in West Bengal during
1971-1980 = 500
148. Statement I: Anand moves from X towards north then (670 - 500)
towards east to reach Z. Therefore, percentage increase = × 100
500
Thus, Z is to the north-east of X. But question cannot
= 34. Hence, [5].
be answered using statement I alone.
Statement II: Anand moves from Z towards Y along
the same direction as Z is with respect to X. Nothing 153. Hospitals(in hundreds)
State Sum
about the position of Z is stated. Thus, question cannot D1 D2 D3
(D1+D2)
be answered using statement II alone
Maharashtra 2.4 2.5 4.9 10.2
Taking both the statements together, Anand moves Assam 1.1 4.3 5.4 9.7
from X towards north then towards east to reach Z Kerala 4.6 6.7 11.3 10.2
And Z and Y are in same direction with respect to Haryana 1.1 5.4 6.5 10.5
X. Thus, Y is to the north-east of X. West Bengal 4.6 7.6 12.2 11.7
Thus on combining both the statements the question Madhya Pradesh 3.2 3.5 6.7 10.5
can be answered. Hence, [5].
149. Statement I: Number of son’s of X is two greater From the table above, it is evident that
than number of daughters he has. But the number The number of hospitals built in West Bengal during
1971-1990 = 1220
of daughters is not given. Thus, number of sons cannot
The number of hospitals built in West Bengal during
be determined using statement I alone
1991-2000 = 1170
Statement II: Age of the youngest son is given and
And
no other information is given. Thus, number of sons The number of hospitals built in Kerala during 1971-
cannot be determined using statement II alone 1990 = 1130
Taking both the statements together, number of son’s The number of hospitals built in Kerala during 1991-
cannot be determined. Hence, [4]. 2000 = 1020
Therefore, in West Bengal and Kerala, the total number
150. Statement I: Puja sits on the seat just right of Karan,
of hospitals built during 1971-1990 is more than the
who sits on seat number 7 from left.
number of hospitals built during 1991-2000.
Thus, Puja sits on seat number 8 from right. Thus
Hence, [2].
question can be answered using statement I alone
Statement II: Puja sits two seats to the left of the
person sitting exact middle of the row. Thus, Puja 154. Public Parks
sits on seat number 10 from right. Thus question State (in hundreds)
can be answered using statement II alone D3
Thus, both the statements can answer the questions Maharashtra 4.3
separately. Hence, [3]. Assam 3.5
Kerala 3.7
Haryana 4.2
West Bengal 2.9
Madhya Pradesh 2.1
Average 3.45
188 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

CET 500
From the table above, it is evident that the average written down as shown below:
number of public parks built during 1991-2000 = 345
Hence, [1]. Day Class Route
Monday A2/B2 U
Tuesday A1 Q
155. Community Halls Wednesday A3 T
State (in thousands)
Friday A2/B2 S
D2 D3 Saturday B3 P
Maharashtra 1 5.2 Sunday B1 R
Assam 0.9 4.6
Therefore, route T is operated on Wednesday.
Kerala 0.8 5.7
Hence, [5].
Haryana 0.9 6.4
West Bengal 1 6.8 160. From the table as determined above, we can conclude
Madhya Pradesh 0.9 7.8 that the route P has class B3.
Sum 5.5 36.5
Day Class Route
Monday A2/B2 U
From the table above,
Tuesday A1 Q
The number of community halls built by all states
Wednesday A3 T
during 1991-2000 = 36500
Friday A2/B2 S
The number of community halls built by all states
during 1981-1990 = 5500 Saturday B3 P
Difference = 36500 – 5500 = 31000. Hence, [1]. Sunday B1 R
Hence, [2].
156. Some of the words made by rearranging the letters
of RUSTIC are: rustic, tursic, citrus, curtis. 161. From the table, as determined above, the data is
Orange is a fruit containing citric acid. Such fruits insufficient to determine the route on which A2 and
are collectively referred to as citrus fruits. B2 classes are available.
Therefore citrus is the required word. Hence, [3].
Day Class Route
157. Two words having the same spelling as resins but
different meaning can be formed. Monday A2/B2 U
They are 'rinses' and 'sirens'. Hence, [3]. Tuesday A1 Q
Wednesday A3 T
158. The four words: picture tube, adapter, sound-box and Friday A2/B2 S
motor are small components used in assembling a
Saturday B3 P
machine. The word television, on the other hand,
Sunday B1 R
indicates an assembly. Hence, [4].
Hence, [4].
159. From the given information, we can form the following
table. 162. From the table as determined above, we can determine
Day Class Route that class B1 is available on the route R on a Sunday.
Monday U
Tuesday A1 Q Day Class Route
Wednesday (A2, B2) Monday A2/B2 U
Friday S Tuesday A1 Q
Saturday B3 (R) Wednesday A3 T
Sunday B1 Friday A2/B2 S
The data in brackets is not possible in that particular Saturday B3 P
cell. On route T, class A3 is available. Therefore, Sunday B1 R
route T should be on a Wednesday since no other Hence, [3].
day is free from the above table.
Since R is not operated on a Saturday, it is operated 163.
on a Sunday, the only day that remains. Hence, on Day Class Route
a Saturday, route P is operated. The table can be Monday B2 U
T uesday A1 Q
Wednesday A3 T
Friday A2 S
Sat urday B3 P
Sunday B1 R
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 189

CET
Since B2 is available on Monday, A2 will be on Friday. movement. Thus, option 3 is the most appropriate
Therefore, the correct combination from the options op tion .
is Friday, A2 and S. Hence, [2]. Originated is not a word used for describing floods.
The option 5 is therefore inappropriate. Hence, [3].
164. The transformation from one box to another occurs
in the following way: 171. The sentence speaks about the effect of the economy's
Mirror image of the figure at the left top corner performance on the companies. The word faring is
inside the box is taken with the reflecting surface th e most approp riate word u sed for conveying
below the figure. And the mirror image of the bottom performance of something. Therefore, the word that
right corner is taken with the reflecting surface to should be used to fill the blanks are faring and looking
the right of the figure. respectively.
Then all the other figures are rotated at an angle The words feeling and seeming are not appropriate
of 90° in the anti-clockwise direction. to use in the second blank. The repetition of the
Therefore, option 2 comes next in the series. word performing is not correct. Thus, options 1, 2
Hence, [2]. and 4 can be eliminated. Hence, [3].
165. The transformation from one box to another occurs 172. The sentence talks about an opinion which people
in the following way: have on someone's performance. It is a way they
In every odd step: The circle changes its position. have looked at it. Th e word perceived is most
It moves to th e other en d on the line. appropriate in this context. The second blank is
In every even step: The entire figure is rotated 90° followed by luck, which is generally preceded by the
in the clockwise direction. word stroke. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.
Therefore, option 2 comes next in the series. The words work and break are inappropriate in the
Hence, [2]. context. Hence, options 2 and 4 can be ruled out.
assumed…to be… is the usual construct in which the
166. The transformation from one box to another occurs word a ssu med is u sed . Th erefore, option 5 is
in the following way: eliminated.
In every odd step: The hexagon is rotated 90o in We cann ot say that oth ers h ave criticized his
the clock wise direction. performance; all we can infer is that they have some
In every even step: A new diagonal is added. opinion of their own. Thus, option 1 can be eliminated.
Therefore, option 3 comes next in the series. Hence, [3].
Hence, [3].
173. The content of the passage suggests that there is
167. The transformation from one box to another occurs talk between the union leader and the government
in the following way: to improve the condition of the workers.
The figures moves cyclically and the figure comes The words in the first blank can be negotiated or
at the centre changes its colour to its supplementary ta lked . However, in the second b lank the word
colour i.e. if it is shaded then it is made blank or ameliorate which means improve is more appropriate
vice-versa. than the word better. Thus, option 2 is the correct
Therefore, option 4 comes next in the series. answer and option 3 can be eliminated.
Hence, [4]. The word fought and grappled suggest aggressive stand
168. The transformation from one box to another occurs of the union leader. This goes against the context
in the following way: of the passage. Thus, options 1 and 4 can be eliminated.
The number of lines in the boxes is in the increasing condition is not a countable noun. Therefore, increase
order of the prime numbers 2,3,5,7 and 11. is not appropriate to describe this noun. Therefore,
Therefore, the next number is 13. Hence, [1]. option 5 is incorrect. Hence, [2].
169. The first part of the sen ten ce mak es a generic 174. Statement I which talks about mercy killing is not
statement. Later, a comparison is made between two correct since mercy killing is not a way to keep the
countries. The words that correctly fit the blanks population under control.
are good and better respectively. Hence, [3]. Statement II is correct as increasing population can
be checked by awareness programs about family
170. The use of halt in the second blank is grammatically planning. Thus, it is the desired course of action.
incorrect. Hence, option 1 can be eliminated. Hence, [2].
Created cannot be used with floods. Thus, option 2
can be eliminated. 175. Statement I talks about increasing the security in the
Led cannot be used as it is not followed by to. Hence, bank which is the correct course of action as there has
option 4 can be eliminated. been information about a robbery that can take place.
Caused is the correct word which can be used with Statement II suggests that cash deposits in the bank
floods and the second blank will be filled by slowed must be put on hold. This is an irrational course
190 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

CET 500
of action as this would not ensure the safety of the

valuables already deposited in the bank. 180.
Branch
Only statement I is the correct course of action.
Month Branch D
Hence, [1].
V NV
176. Statement I is the right course of action as continuous January 10.2 9.6
smoke means that there could be a fire in the apartment. February 9.5 9.7
March 9.6 8.9
Statement II is a little on the extreme side, since April 10.1 9.5
a possibility of a fire in just one apartment should May 11 9.3
not lead to the evacuation of the entire building. June 10.6 10.2
Thus, only statement I is the right course of action. sum 61 57.2
Hence, [1].
From the above table,
177. Statement I is an irrational course of action as removing
The total number of Vegetarian dishes served in Branch
sweetened products from the diet of children would
D = 61
not ensure a protection from diabetes. Moreover, the
The total number of Non-Vegetarian dishes served
balance of the diet would also become improper.
in Branch D = 57.2
Statement II is a proper course of action as this would
The total number of dishes served = 61 + 57.2 =
ensure that the number of children contracting diabetes
118.2
goes down.
Therefore, the percentage of vegetarian dishes served
Thus, only the second course of action is correct.
to the total number of dishes served in the restaurant
Hence, [2].
61
178. Statement I is not the right course of action as banning = × 100 = 51.61. Hence, [2].
118.2
foreigners in the US would also mean that even tourists
would be banned which won't solve the problem rather 181. In the month of March,
it would make tourism industry grow weak. The sum of vegetarian dishes served by all the branches
Statement II is also not the right course of action = 10.3 + 8.8 + 6.8 + 9.6 + 6.1 = 41.6
as hiring for the job should be done on merit and The sum of non-vegetarian dishes served by all the
not on the basis of nationality. branches = 18.5 + 7.5 + 4.6 + 8.9 + 6.7 = 46.2
Thus, both the statements are not the right course Therefore ratio of the total number of non-vegetarian
of action to be followed. Hence, [4]. dishes served to the vegetarian dishes served by all
branches in the month of March = 46.2:41.6 = 231:208
179. Hence, [4].
Branches
Month Branch A Branch B Branch C Branch D Branch E 182. Branch
NV NV NV NV NV
January 16.7 6.4 6.7 9.6 9.4
Month Branch E
February 17.6 7.6 5.6 9.7 9.7 V NV Total
March 18.5 7.5 4.6 8.9 6.7 January 8.4 9.4 17.8
April 19.1 6.9 4.8 9.5 6.7 February 8.3 9.7 18
May 14.3 7.5 5.6 9.3 5.5 March 6.1 6.7 12.8
June 12.5 7.8 6.9 10.2 4.9 Average 16.2
Branches A and D have all values greater than 10 From the above table, it is evident that the average
while the remaining branches have all their values number of dishes served in the first three months=16.2
less than 10. Therefore, one among B, C and E should Hence, [5].
have served the least.
Sum of all the integral parts of B, C and E is 40,
30 and 39 respectively. The maximum value that 183. Branch
C can reach by summing up the decimal parts is 36, Month Branch A
which is lesser than 40 or 39. Hence, branch C is V NV
the one that served the least number of non-vegetarian January 12.2 16.7
dishes. Hence, [3]. February 13.2 17.6
March 10.3 18.5
April 12.4 19.1
May 9.1 14.3
Sum 57.2 86.2
IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500 191

CET
From the above table, it is evident that number of 192. Let the ages of Ram, Balram and Shyam be x – a,
dishes served in the first five months in Branch A x and x + a respectively.
= 57.2 + 86.2 = 143.4. Hence, [1]. Now, 10 years ago,
x – 10 = 2(x – a – 10) Þ x – 2a = 10 ....... (i)
184. Jayanti satisfies conditions 1, 3, 4 and 5. But the and 2 years hence,
stream in which she was pursuing her MBA is not 3(x – a + 2) = 2(x + a + 2) Þ x – 5a = –2 .... (ii)
known. Hence, [3]. From (i) and (ii),
x = 18, a = 4
185. Prakash has more than 5 years of experience in two 3 years ago,
technologies. His age is 27 years and he satisfies Khushi’s age – 3 = 3(x + a – 3)
all the other conditions. Hence, [1]. Þ Khushi’s age = 60 years
\ Kunal’s age + 14 + 18 + 22 + 60 = 178
186. Sunder is 28 years of age. He satisfies all the conditions
\ Kunal’s age = 64 years
except 4, but he holds a Six Sigma certification, hence
\ Kunal’s age when Balram was born = 64 – 18
he should be referred to the Manager – Quality. = 46 years. Hence, [4].
Hence, [4].
193. Units place of y 2 is 9. So, y = 3 or y = 7.
187. Kartik satisfies all the conditions except that his For y = 3, there is no two-digit number whose square
age is more than 30 years. Hence, he should be rejected. has a 3 is its hundreds place and 9 in the units place.
Hence, [2]. So y = 7.
188. Preksha satisfies all the conditions except condition For x = 2, 27 2 = 729. Hence, [3].
3, but has more than three years’ experience in 194. Let the work done by a man in 1 day be c.
Hyperion and Cognos. Hence, she should be referred Therefore, the work to be done, W = (6c)(10) = 60c
to the Manager – BI. Hence, [5]. In the second case, let it take x more days to finish.
Therefore, 60c = 6c + (10c)(x). Hence, x = 5.4 days
189. Datta gets 15% of the total profit for running the
Hence, [3].
stall.
\ Remaining 85% of profit is divided in the ratio 195. In the given diagram, Ð PQR = 30°. So Ð QRP =
of the investment of Mahavir and Datta i.e., 5 : 30° since PQ = PR. But Ð PSQ = Ð QRP since angles
12 . subtended by the same chord PQ. Thus Ð PSQ = 30°.
85 5 Hence, [1].
\ Mahavir gets 100 ´ 17 = 25% of the total profit
196. Synonyms: canvass - to survey, to examine closely,
\ 100% profit = 4 × 3400 = Rs.13600 and scrutinize - to examine closely
\ Total revenue = 5000 + 12000 + 13600 = Rs.30600 cabal - to plot , or a secret group seeking to overturn
[Total revenue = Total investment + Total profit] the government or a person in authority.
Hence, [4]. cloister - to confine, to seclude. Hence, [5].
190. (p × p + carry digit) has to be greater than 80 197. Antonyms: retort - quick reply and query - demand
\ p = 9 for answers, a question
For q = 5, rostrum - stage for public speaking.
95 × 5 = 855 is the only combination satisfying reprove - to criticize or correct. Hence, [3].
the criteria. Hence, [3].
198. Antonyms: abstract - conceptual, theoretical and entity
191. Let the two numbers A and B be 13a and 13b. = being, existence
\ 13a × 13b = 2366 ephemeral - lasting for a short time, short lived or
169ab = 2366 Þ ab = 14 transitory.
Now, 14 can be expressed as 7 × 2 or 14 × 1 equity - impartiality, justice. Hence, [3].
\ The required numbers will be either 91 and 26
or 182 and 13. 199. Antonyms: tyro - beginner and professional - skilled,
Case (i): If the numbers are 91 and 26, trained.
usurp - seize ,to appropriate
117 117
the remainder when (91 + 26) = is 0. vie - compete. Hence, [3].
117
Case (ii): If the numbers are 182 and 13, 200. Antonyms: transparency - to be without any hidden
117 117 intention/information and secrecy - a state of being
the remainder when (182 + 13) = 195 is 117 itself. hidden or concealed.
allay - to reassure; to lessen, ease, or soothe.
\ A unique answer cannot be determined. amity - friendship. Hence, [2].
Hence, [5].
192 IMS -36-2-A L-OC-A-CET500

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CET 500

Published by IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd.

Registered Office:IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd.

First Edition 2013

Copyright © IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd.

E-mail : ims@imsindia.com Website : www.imsindia.com

Your passport to success

About the CET 500 Question Booklet

© IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd., Mumbai.

B] 10 Areas in MH-CET (500 ques.)

• VERBAL ABILITY (100 ques.) ....................................................................................... 38

• READING COMPREHENSION (35 ques.) ........................................................................ 49

• VERBAL REASONING - I (60 ques.) ............................................................................. 56

• VERBAL REASONING - II (25 ques.) ............................................................................ 64

• DATA INTERPRETATION (40 ques.) ............................................................................. 68

• QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (50 ques.) ........................................................................... 74

• DATA SUFFICIENCY (40 ques.) ..................................................................................... 80

• VISUAL REASONING (60 ques.) .................................................................................... 85

• LOGICAL REASONING - I (55 ques.) ........................................................................... 91

• LOGICAL REASONING - II (35 ques.) .......................................................................... 98

C] SAMPLE CET (200 ques.) ................................................................................................ 102

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (Actual CET 2011 Paper) ......................................................... 125

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (10 Areas in MH-CET) .............................................................. 137

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS (SAMPLE CET) ........................................................................... 177

CET 2011 ACTUAL PAPER

2. Which statement is an effect?

3. Which statement is a conclusion?

4. Which statement substantiates the main argument?

5. Which statement weakens the argument?

6. 7796.25 1417.5 315 90 36 24 Find d.

7. 5050 1015 208 46.6 14.32 7.864 Find a.

8. 3 10 32 111 460 2315 Find c.

9. 12 7 8.5 14.75 32 83 Find b.

10. 897 681 556 492 465 457 Find e.

11. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to:

16. Which of the following can be inferred about water conflicts?

17. What is the Prime Minister’s advice to resolve water disputes?

21. Is Y an odd number (X and Y both are Positive integers)

22. Is X a prime number (X is Positive integer)

DIRECTIONS for question 23: Choose the correct alternative.

24. Which sentence is an Assumption?

25. Which sentence weakens the argument?

26. Which sentence eases the concern on Indian government?

27. Which sentence is a course of action for India to benefit?

28. The author thinks that/ is:

30. The author's views are

31. "Scrounge for" means

32. ipod is:

33. Tone of author is:

DIRECTIONS for questions 34 to 39:

35. A = (–9)6, B = (–9)5

For questions 40 and 41:

For questions 42 and 43:

43. I. No shoe is jacket. II. Some shoes are jackets

For questions 44 and 45:

53. The word "insidiously", as used in Passage 2, is closest in meaning to:

DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 66: Choose the correct alternative.

74. Area of shaded portion = ?

75. Area of Circle = ?

83. 1] Rich 2] suffer 3] deny 4] much 5] poorer

84. 1] Rise 2] indicate 3] amount 4] jack 5] up

85. 1] migrant 2] dweller 3] poor 4] rich 5] far

86. 1] Dearer 2] produced 3] agricultural 4] healthy 5] needed